Vidyalankar School of Information Technology

SYBMS
Sem: IV
Subject: Change Management
Sample Questions

1. A__________ team is one in which team member’s work across functions and
perhaps business units and geography and where individuals on the team usually
report to more than one boss.
a. Matrix
b. Virtual
c. Self -Managed teams
d. Parallel

2. A.J. Leavitt model is also known as __________ shaped model

a. Hexagonal
b. Octagon
c. Heptagon
d. Diamond

3. The three stages of the change process are:________________

a. adjustment, unfreezing, and re-adjustment
b. Change, unfreezing, and refreezing.
c. unfreezing, Change, and refreezing
d. Change, re-Change, and unfreezing.

4. _____________________ Change Agent are usually the employees of the

organization
a. Internal
b. External
c. OD practitioner
d. Specialist

5. The ______________ uses six broad categories to conduct an organizational

diagnosis of the issues within company.
a. ADKAR Model
b. Weisbord Six-Box Model
c. McKinsey 7-S Model
d. Kotter's Model

6. ______________ Group is also known as Sensitivity training.

a. Role Analysis Technique
b. Coaching
c. Mentoring
d. T – Group
7. ____________ is sharing knowledge, skills and life experience to guide another
towards reaching their full potential; it's a journey of shared discovery.
a. Tutor
b. Mentoring
c. Advisor
d. Consultant

8. ____________ mode in client and consultant relationship assume that sharing this
information will not make any difference.
a. Gamesmanship
b. Charismatic
c. Consensus
d. Apathetic

9. Leader also plays role of researcher as ______________

a. It acts as an inquirer in the initial phase
b. It gives appropriate reward and punishment
c. It acts as guide
d. It conducts various training programme

10. Change management refers to the task of _________

a. Limited change
b. Admiring Change
c. Managing Change
d. Controlling Change

11. _______________ means the individuals resist change because the group to which
they belong resists it
a. Security
b. Group Inertia
c. Flexibility
d. Fair

12. Transformational change is often carried out by _______________

a. Middle Manager
b. Top Down
c. Bottom Up
d. Executive Level

13. Empowering employees to review problems solving them and implementing a

solution can be classified as __________
a. Action Research
b. Customer Research
c. Marketing Research
d. Human Research
14. ____________ is defined as the methods and manners in which a company describes
and implements change within both its internal and external processes.
a. Human Resource Management
b. Strategic Management
c. Change Management
d. Strategy

15. In Managerial Grid 1.9 is _____________________ style and 5.5 is

________________ style
a. Team and Managerial Style
b. impoverished and Middle of the road
c. Impoverished and Task
d. Task and Middle of the road

16. ____________ is the source of individual resistance to change

a. Habit
b. Structural Inertia
c. Group Inertia
d. Limited Focus

17. Which of the following is not a method for diagnosing a problem?

a. Interviews
b. Questionnaire
c. Benchmarking
d. Unobstructive Measures

18. Which of the following is not a way to overcome resistance to change?

a. Build trust.
b. Close channels of communication.
c. Involve employees
d. Provide incentives.

19. An innovative culture is likely to have which of the following characteristics?

a. Acceptance of ambiguity
b. Open systems focus
c. Focus on ends rather than on means
d. All of the above

20. Which of the following is not an external force creating a need for change?
a. Marketplace
b. Technology
c. Economic
d. None

21. Which of the following is an internal force creating a need for change?
a. New equipment
 b. Compensation
c. Employee attitude
d. None
22. For change to be implemented and sustained over time, which of the following must
occur?
a. Change status quo.
b. Unfreeze and refreeze.
c. Increase and decrease.
d. Unmold and remold.

23. Holding back information, playing one person against another and providing slanted
information are examples of:
a. manipulation.
b. implicit and explicit coercion.
c. negotiations.
d. Influence
24. According to psychologist Kurt Lewin, which of the following is not a stage in the
change process?
a. Unfreezing
b. Changing
c. Mediating
d. Refreezing

25. Sensitivity training for a manager is a

a. shallow intervention
b. moderate-depth intervention.
c. deep intervention
d. No Intervention

26. Team building begins with:

a. benchmarking.
b. diagnostic meetings
c. a plan of action
d. unobtrusive measures

27. Which of the following is not a primary force for change in organizations?
a. economic shocks
b. decreasing skill sets
c. social trends
d. the nature of the workforce

28. A paper sales company designs and offers a new method of purchasing and shipping
commercial quantities of paper through their Web site, versus contacting their sales
representative. This is an example of ________.
a. accidental change
b. the nature of the workforce
c. planned change
 d. a change agent

29. Managing resistance to change that is ________ is extremely challenging.

a. passive
b. resolute
c. deferred
d. explicit
e. overt

30. Who developed a three-step model for change that included unfreezing, movement,
and refreezing?
a. John Kotter
b. David McClelland
c. Douglas Surber
d. Lawrence Summers
e. Kurt Lewin
 Vidyalankar School of Information Technology
SYBMS
Sem: II
Subject: Business Ethics and Corporate Governance
Sample Questions

1. ____________ are written rules about what is right and wrong in different walks of
life.
a. Religion
b. Law
c. Ethics
d. Standards
2. _______________ ethics are also referred to as Ethical Business practices.
a. Personal
b. Professional
c. Teleological
d. Deontological

3. Applied ethics is ___________________________.

a. Study of moral standards to determine right or wrong
b. Cognitive study of principles of ethics, their meaning and origin
c. Study of special and controversial moral issues is various fields
d. Study of religion

4. Applied ethics is ___________________________.

a. Study of moral standards to determine right or wrong
b. Cognitive study of principles of ethics, their meaning and origin
c. Study of special and controversial moral issues is various fields
d. Study of religion
5. At a workplace, employee code of conduct does not ________________________.
a. Define boundaries
b. Create safe environment
c. Help employee’s growth and development
d. Discriminate employees
6. . The primary stakeholders are:
a. Customers.
b. Suppliers.
c. Shareholders.
d. Creditors
7. An independent director is one who:
a. Did not attend a school supported by the company
b. Does not have outside relationships with other directors
c. Does not have any other relationships with the company other than his or her
directorship.
d. Internal to the organization
8. Values and ethics shape the
a. Corporate unity
b. Corporate discipline
c. Corporate culture
d. Corporate differences
9. Which of the following is not a social sustainability issue
a. Child labour.
b. Biodiversity.
c. Ethical trading.
d. Supply chain management.
10. The first step in the auditing process should be to secure the commitment of:
a. employees.
b. top executives and directors.
c. stockholders.
d. customers.
11. Which of these is not one the underlying principles of the Governance Corporate governance
Combined ode of Practice ?
a. The ownership structure
b. The structure of Company Boards
c. The Global environment
d. The Financial Structure
12. Corporate Governance goes hand in hand with__________.
a. Managerial ethics
b. Transparency
c. Insider Trading
d. Transaction at Arm’s length

13. The framework for establishing good corporate governance and

accountability was originally setup by ____________.
a. Nestle committee
b. Rowntree committee
c. Cadbury committee
d. Thornton committee

14. Directors responsibilities are unlikely to include

a. a duty to keep proper accounting records
b. a fiduciary duty
c. duty to propose high dividends for shareholders
d. a duty of care
15. According to ICSI “ Corporate Governance “ is_________.
a. the application of best management practices.
b. compliance of law in true letter and spirit
c. adherence to ethical standards
 d. All of the above
16. A Criminal offence committed by directors of a limited company
___________.
a. Fradulent trading
b. Speculative trading
c. Investible trading
d. None of these

17. Good Corporate Governance recognizes the diverse interest of

________.
a. Shareholders
b. Lenders
c. Management
d. All of the above

18. 4 P’s have become critical for corporate sustainability which

is______.
a. People, purpose, processes and performance
b. People, purpose, processes, and product
c. People, product , processes and performance
d. People, peace, Process and performance
19. _____ results from problems arising from separation of ownership
and control.
a. Stakeholder’s theory
b. Shareholder’s theory
c. Agency theory
d. Both i& ii
20. Good Corporate Governance procedures are needed to ensure that
________.
a. stock prices remain high
b. managers carry out business unit plans
c. Managers adhere to ethical norms
d. All of the above occur

21. According to clause 49 on independent directors. What can be maximum

tenure of independent director.
a. 2 terms of 5 years each
b. 3 terms of 5 years each
c. 2 terms of 10 years each
 d. 3 terms of 4 years each

22. What is kieretsu ?

a. Pension fund
b. Corporate group
c. Stock exchange
d. Futures Market

23. Triple Bottom Line reporting refers to:

a. using a low, medium and high estimates for profitability
forecasts.
b. measuring the impact of the firm on stockholders, customers
and employees.
c. measuring the social, environmental, and financial performance
of the firm.
d. measuring the impact of local, state, and federal governments
on the firm.
24. The obligation of any business to protect and serve public Interest is
known as _________.
a. Social
b. Economical
c. Governmental
d. None of the above

25. Which ISO standard focuses on social responsibility?

a. 9000
b. 26000
c. 18000
d. 32000
26. Essential assessment of how well a company has discharged its social
Obligations ________.
a. Statutory
b. Social audit
c. Tax Audit
d. Regulatory Audit

27. _____________- is a very important tool to measure the performance of

any Company in view of CSR.
a. Social Accounting
b. Financial Accounting
c. Cost Accounting
d. Management Accounting

28. The first and foremost social responsibility of a firm is

_________________
a. Philanthropy
b. Economic
c. Legal
d. Ethical

29. Global Reporting Initiative (GRI) A1000 was launched in the year
___________.
a. 1999
b. 2004
c. 2005
d. 1976

30. Organization for Economic Cooperation and Development (OECD)

guidelines was introduced in the year ____________.
a. 2011
b. 2004
c. 2005
d. 1976

31. The _____principles are fundamental guidelines to redefine CSR.

a. CSR
b. Global
c. Sustainability
d. None of these

32. Focus is n ILO core labor standards such as ____________..

a. Freedom of association and right to collective bargaining.
b. Industrial relations
c. Employment opportunities
d. All of these
33. Corporates increasingly join hands with __________ and use their
expertise in devising programs which address wider social problems.
a. Govt organizations
b. Global organizations
c. Non –Govt Organizations
d. Semi Govt organizations

34. What is the first and foremost responsibility of an Organization towards

its employees?
a. Ensuring they are happy and safe with their jobs.
b. Providing best of Infrastructure in company
c. Providing best and updated technology for working
d. Refusing to do business with oppressive companies

35. An effective CSR strategy should articulate ____________.

a. Who it wishes to address? (target group)
b. Where it wishes to work ?( Geography)
c. What sectors or issues it wishes to address?
d. All of these

36. Developing a CSR strategy that defines for the next three to five years ,
what is Company’s CSR activities will cover in terms of ______-.
a. Vision and mission
b. Sectors and issues
c. KPIs
d. All of these

37. The Ethical aspect of CSR is about _______

a. Do not violate the principles of right and wrong
b. Obey the law
c. Make a profit
d. Make society happy

38. Which of these is not a benefit of CSR?

a. Reduced regulatory oversight
b. Brand Image
c. Reduction in employee’s salary
d. Access to capital

39. The concept of Social Audit wa first proposed in the year 1950 by
________.
a. Howard Bowen
b. Carroll
c. Bentham
d. Adrian Cadbury

40. What is the full form of APEC ?

a. Asian Pacific Economic Corporation
b. Asian Pasific Economical Corporation
c. Asiana Pacific Economical Corporation
d. Asiatic Pacific Economic Corporation
41.
 INTEGRATED MARKETING COMMUNICATION

SYBMS MARKETING

SAMPLE QUESTIONS

1. By definition, _______________ simply means that consumers come in contact with

the marketer's message.

A. Perception
B. Exposure
C. Attention
D. Comprehension
E. Interpretation

2. Which one of the following is the greatest obstacle to implementing integrated

marketing communications?

A. Few providers of marketing communications services have the skills to execute

IMC programs.
B. There is a lack of interest in IMC by top management.
C. The cost for implementing an IMC program is difficult to justify.
D. Little can be gained by coordinating the various marketing communications
elements.
E. Marketing directors are essentially performing the IMC function now.

3. The first step of the objective-and-task method is ____________________

A. assessing the communications functions

B. establishing specific marketing objectives that need to be accomplished
C. determining advertising's role in the total communication mix
D. establishing specific advertising goals in terms of the levels of measurable
communication response required to achieve marketing objectives
E. establish the budget based on estimates of expenditures required to
accomplish the advertising goals

4. Which value is derived from the need for variety and achieving an exciting life?

A. self-direction
B. hedonism
C. achievement
D. stimulation
E. tradition

5. A good copy-testing system needs to provide measurements that are

_______________________

A. relevant to the advertising objectives

B. relevant to the advertising budget
C. relevant to the advertising media
D. relevant to the advertising script
E. None of the above

6. The concept of effective reach states that fewer exposures to advertisements

are required _________________________

A. when humor is used

B. when comparative advertising is used
C. for brands with higher market shares and greater customer loyalty
D. for expensive products
E. for necessities

7. Which of the following is NOT a problem with television advertising?

A. escalating advertising costs

B. erosion of television viewing audiences
C. substantial audience fractionalization
D. clutter
E. inability to achieve impact

8. A(n) ____________________ advertising objective is aimed at achieving

communication outcomes that precede behavior.

A. precise
B. planned
C. indirect
D. direct
E. operational
9. Using sex appeal can generally _______________________

A. Lure attention
B. Enhance recall
C. Evoke emotional responses
D. all of the above
E. Only a and b

10. The advertising budget procedure used most frequently is the

_______________________ method.

A. percentage-of-sales
B. arbitrary allocation
C. marginal cost
D. competitive parity

11. A clothing store that sets their advertising budget by following the major
competitor and adding an additional 15 percent is using the
__________________________ method.

A. percentage-of-sales
B. arbitrary allocation
C. objective-and-task
D. competitive parity
E. affordability

12. At what stage of the PLC (Product Life Cycle) can a higher price usually be
charged?

A. Introduction or
B. Growth
C. Maturity
D. Decline
E. R&D Era

13. Questions such as:"What ads do you remember seeing yesterday?" are
anexample of what type of post-test?

A. Aided recall
B. Unaided recall
C. Inquiry test
D. Attitude test.

14. Intermediaries make the flow of products from producers to buyers possible by
performing three basic functions:

A. Production, transmission and display

B. Assorting, storing and sorting
C. Transactional, logistical and facilitation
D. Buying sorting and financing

15. The store carries a mix of automotive, outdoor, sporting, and decoration goods
as well as house wares. What term would describe its product line?

A. Complexity
B. Breadth
C. Depth
D. Richness

16. Selecting target markets means using criteria such as cost of reach the segment
and ______________:

A. Size and expected growth

B. Marketing investment
C. Density of population
D. Values of customers.

17. When a company retains the product but reduces marketing support costs it is
in what stage of the PLC

A. Decline
B. Maturity
C. Growth
D. Introduction

18. The main reasons a firm segments its markets are:

A. To refine sales forecasts and allow for more product differentiation.

B. To create more word-of-mouth in a market.
C. To focus advertising and monitor sales
D. To respond to different needs and wants in market and increases sales and
profits

19. During the introduction stage of the PLC, sales gradually increase and

A. Competition becomes tough

B. Profits are minimal if not negative.
C. More investors needed
D. The promotion is finished.

20. Any paid form of non personal communication about an organization, good,
service or idea by an identified sponsor is called:

A. Publicity
B. Public relation.
C. Advertising
D. Promotion

21. All activities involved in selling renting, and providing goods and services to
ultimate consumers for personal, family or household use are known as:

A. Marketing
B. Retailing
C. Personal Selling
D. Sales promotion

22. Learning refers to behaviors that result from

A. Repetition of experience
B. Thinking
C. Observation
D. Repetition of experience, thinking and observation.

23. Norms and expectations about the way people do things in a specific country
are referred to as:
A. National character
B. Customs
C. Values
D. Preferences

24. Another name for a company's marketing communications mix is:

A. The advertising program.

B. The sales force.
C. The image mix.
D. The promotion mix.

25. Although the promotion mix is the company's primary communication activity,
the ______________ must be coordinated for greatest communication impact.

A. Organizational culture
B. Entire marketing mix
C. Demand mix
D. Profit variables in a company

26. IMC, as presented in the text and in context with promotion, stands for:

A. International manufacturing capacity.

B. International monetary consistency.
C. Integrated marketing communications.
D. Integrated marketing corporations.

27. The communications process should start with:

A. A basic belief about the communication piece.

B. An audit of all the potential contacts target customers have with the company
and its brands.
C. An evaluation of the history of advertising used by the firm.
D. Hiring communications experts to handle the communication problems of the
firm.
28. The promotion tool that may include coupons, contests, premiums, and other
means Of attracting consumer attention is best described as being which of the
following?

A. Advertising
B. Personal selling
C. Public relations
D. Sales promotion

29. A ______________ is a promotion strategy that calls for using the sales force and
trade promotion to move the product through channels.

A. Push strategy
B. Pull strategy
C. Blocking strategy
D. Integrated strategy

30. ______________ is well suited to highly targeted marketing efforts and to building
one-to-one customer relationships.

A. Advertising
B. Public relations
C. Sales promotion
D. Direct marketing

31. Marketing management must make four important decisions when developing
an advertising program. All of the following would be among those decisions
EXCEPT:

A. Setting advertising objectives.

B. Setting the advertising budget.
C. Setting procedures for an advertising culture audit.
D. Developing advertising strategy.

32. When Avis positioned itself against market-leading Hertz by claiming, "We're
Number two, so we try harder," it was using which of the following forms of
advertising?

A. Informative advertising
B. Psychological advertising
C. Reminder advertising
D. Comparative advertising

33. The word advertising is means turning of ______________ to something.

A. Desire
B. Attraction
C. Attention
D. Interest

34. An appeal is the ______________ of an advertisement

A. Theme
B. Image
C. Color
D. Information

35. The series of action to attain media objectives is ______________

A. Media planning
B. Media strategy
C. Media selection
D. Media buying

36. The ads which are beyond the consciousness of the audience are______________

A. Subliminal
B. Obscene
C. Misleading
D. Appealing

37. Merchandise allowance is a ______________ technique

A. Consumer promotion
B. Trade promotion
C. Sales force promotion
D. Media promotion

38. The space and time for advertisement are bought from ______________

A. Advertising agency
B. Media
C. Customer
D. Manufacturer

39. Advertising is subject to ______________

A. Social norms
B. Group norms
C. Company norms
D. None of these

40. If a company wants to build a good "corporate image," it will probably use
which of the following marketing communications mix tools?

A. advertising
B. public relations
C. direct marketing
D. sales promotion
 Vidyalankar School of Information Technology
SYBMS
Sem: IV
Subject: IT in Business Management
Sample Questions

1 MIS is of vital importance to any organization because it under lines _______

A. underlines management decision
B. Processes data
C. Processes
D. Processes management decision
2 ______________. focuses on planning, policies, and procedures regarding the use of
corporate data and information.

A. CIO
B. systems analyst
C. database administrator
D. system operator

3 The extent to which technology permeates an area or department is called

______________.

A. Technology diffusion
B. Technology infusion
C. Technology collusion
D. Technology fusion

4 ______________ is any business-related exchange such as payments to employees, sales

to customers, or payments to suppliers.

A. Data
B. E-commerce
C. A transaction
D. Input

5 ______________ is software programs that were developed for a general market and
that can be purchased in a store.

A. Proprietary software
B. Off-the-shelf software
C. Contract software
D. Application software

6 ______________ converts ciphertext back into plaintext.

 A. Encryption
B. A firewall
C. Decryption
D. An encoder

7 With the ______________ form of data processing, each transaction is processed

immediately.

A. OLTP
B. batch processing
C. active processing
D. automated transaction processing

8 The first stage in the problem-solving process is called the ______________ stage. During
this stage, potential problems or opportunities are identified and defined.

A. Choice
B. Design
C. Monitoring
D. Intelligence

9 In MIS _____plays economically sound and logically in development process.

a. Information
b. Data
c. Statements
d. Data flow
10 Projections and responses to queries are information output characteristics associated
with______.
a. DSS
b. MIS
c. ESS
d. TPS
11 . ________oriented DSS follows certain procedures adopted as rules
a. Database
b. Text
c. Rules
d. Compound
12 The flow of information through MIS is
a. need dependent
b. organization dependent
c. information dependent
d. management dependent
13 The characteristics for good Information include:
a. Punishment
b. Punctual
 c. Accessible
d. Unreliable
14 What is Information Systems (IS) ?
a. A set of interrelated part of information that collect (or retrieve), process, store, and
distribute systems to support decision making and control in an organization
b. A set of interrelated information that collect (or retrieve), process, store, and
distribute components to support decision making and control in an organization
c. A set of interrelated system that collect (or retrieve), product, and distribute
information to support decision making and control in an organization
d. A set of interrelated components that collect (or retrieve), process, store, and
distribute information to support decision making and control in an organization
15 Which evolution of ERP contains materials planning, order entry, distribution, general
ledger, accounting, and shop floor controls?
a. ERP
b. Extended ERP
c. ERP II
d. ERPIV
16 The elapsed time between placing an order and it receiving it is also known as _____.
a. elapsed time.
b. waiting time
c. time interval
d. expected time
17 The first step in business strategy is ________.
a. planning.
b. develop blueprint
c. marketing
d. assessment
18 Which is the first phase in ERP implementation?
a. Understanding the problem
b. Defining solutions
c. Getting down to work
d. Going live
19 ._________ should determine the characteristic of the current system before
implementation.
a. Decision makers
b. Project team members
c. Decision makers and project team members
d. Managemen
20 Which of the following is not one of the five basic components of supply chain
management?
a. Plan
b. Source
c. Cost
d. Deliver
21 The term _____ is used to refer a row
a. Record
b. Primary key
c. Foreign key
d. Field
22 Which of the following in not a function of DBA?
a. Network Maintenance
 b. Routine Maintenance
c. Schema Definition
d. Authorization for data access
23 Which system is application oriented?
a. Online transaction processing system
b. Online analytical processing system
c. Online transfer system
d. Online Anomaly system
24 Data mining means______
a. data fetching
b. data accesing
c. knowledge discovery
d. data storage
25 The output of KDD is............. a. Data b. Information c. Query d. Useful information
26 .The data is stored, retrieved and updated in ....................
a. OLAP
b. OLTP
c. SMTP
d. FTP
27 Accounting is an example of a____________.
a. back-office job
b. service provider
c. blue collar job
d. red collar job
28 Cars, buildings, and technological equipment is an example of ______________
a company has.
a. assets
b. demand
c. data
d. rights
29 .It is an outsourcing contracted outside a company's own country.
a. Onshore Outsourcing
b. Nearshore Outsourcing
c. Offshore Outsourcing
d.Netshore Outsourcing
30 ._______describes a distribution models in which applications are hosted by a service
provider and made available to users
a. PaaS
b. SaaS
c. IaaS
d. public cloud
31 Decision Support system is a _________
a. BPO
b. KPO
c. Offshore outsourcing
d. Cloud computing
32 A company wants to build a test environment to test software updates and new
solutions. The environment should mirror the production environment and be secure and
inaccessible from outside the company network. The company does not want to invest in
infrastructure that may be idle for a significant amount of time. Which cloud computing
model will satisfy all these requirements?
 a. public cloud
b. private cloud
c. external cloud
d. virtual private cloud
33 Which of the following is not a data mining functionality?
a. Characterization and Discrimination
b. Classification and regression
c. interpretation
d. Clustering and Analysis
34 .______management concentrates on control.
a. Top level
b. middle level
c. operational level
d. bottom level
35 Manpower planning, staffing etc. are activities of _______.
a. Production subsystem
b. Management information system
c. personnel Management
d. Strategic planning
36 Transaction Control & operational control are examples of _________Subsystem.
a. activity control
b. Management information system
c. personnel Management
d. Strategic planning
37 Production & HR are examples of _______subsystem
a. Functional
b. Planning
c. execution
d. report
38 Attribute that does not occur in any candidate key is called as
a. Composite key
b. Super Key
c. Candidate Key
d. Key
39 The source data of data warehouse come from
a. Internal TPS
b. Various documents in the organization
c. Reliable employees
d. Online trading

40 Clustering is the process of ________

a. Using one or more attributes
b. Using longer term data
c. Selection of specific data
d. Selection
 Vidyalankar school of Information technology
Class: - Sybms (Marketing) Sample Questions Subject : - Rural Marketing

__________________________________________________________________________________

Q1) The demand for goods in India and services in India depends largely on ?

a) Agriculture
b) Rainfall
c) Inflation
d) Income

Q2)___________media have a greater effect than the impersonal ones in the rural marketing
context?

a) Personal
b) Impersonal
c) Direct
d) Indirect

Q3) India is a land of agriculture and most of the population resides in :-

a) Villages
b) Cities
c) Urban area
d) Towns

Q4) Marketing has been recognized as a profession in :-

a) 1980
b) 1960
c) 1970
d) 1950

Q5) the government is motivation students who are raduates in :-

a) Rural Marketing
b) Rural development
c) Marketing Education
d) All of the above

Q6) The rural population is moving towards urban sector for:-

a) Business
b) Employment
c) Education
d) All of the above

Q7) which is the most important tool for developing the rural market:-

a) Infrastructure
b) Transportation
 c) Communication
d) All of the above

Q8) __________ developments in agriculture results in overall rural development

a) Technological
b) Cultural
c) Social
d) Structural

Q9) Marketing Committee system and cooperative marketing are the two __________framed for
the purpose of rural marketing:-

a) parallel institutions
b) horizontal
c) diagonal
d) vertical

Q10) The national Commission on agriculture is the ___ commission to suggest measures for
development of agriculture

a) First
b) Second
c) Thirds
d) Fourth

Q.11). Flood is ---- risk in rural marketing

a) Man made
b) Natural
c) Geo political
d) Political

Q.12). Agricultural produce needs to be marketed quickly as it is-------------

a) Durable
b) Perishable
c) Can be stored
d) Good shelf life

Q.13). Contract farming is a link between --- and -----

a) Consumers and producers

b) Farmer and producer
c) Producer and retailer
d) Farmer and processor

Q.14). Secondary markets are known as-----

a) Bazaar
b) Sabji mandi
c) Mandis
d) Haats
Q.15). Agricultural produce is broadly divided in to two types Rabbi and---

a) Raggi
b) Kharif
c) Monsoon crops
d) Cash crops

Q.16). Primary markets are for the sale of ----------- products.

a) National
b) Local
c) State
d) Inter state

Q.17). Agricultural marketing is - ---in nature.

a) Seasonal
b) Primitive
c) Developed
d) Sticky

Q.18). State full form of APMC

a) Agricultural Produce Market Committee

b) Agri Produce Market Committee
c) Agricultural Production Marketing Committee
d) Agricultural Produce Making Commission

Q.19). Standardization is a process of fixing ----for the products.

a) Production
b) Norms
c) Names
d) Procedure

Q.20). What is the standardization for agriculture?

a) ISI
b) AGMARK
c) AGROVAN
d) AGRODIP

Q.21). When did Consumer Protection Act was passed?

a) 1985
b) 1994
c) 1986
d) 1992

Q.22). What is the full form of PDS?

a) Public Distress System

b) Public Dose System
 c) Public Distribution System
d) People's Distribution System

Q.23). State full form of MSP

a) Maximum Support Price

b) Marginal Support Price
c) Minimum Support Price
d) Marginal Spices Price

Q.24. Current population of rural market in India is---- -----%

a) 10
b) 30
c) 70
d) 50

Q.25. Which of the following is not one of the problem of rural market

a) Lack of proper physical communication facilities

b) Media of rural communication
c) Underdeveloped people and underdeveloped market
d) Rising literacy trend

Q.26. Match the following

Section A Section -B
a. Market research i. Effort research
b. Product development ii. Functional aspect
c. Distribution management iii. State consumer Co-operative
society
d. Marketing communication iv. Vernacular Newspaper

a) a-I, b-ii, c-iii, d-iv

b) a-ii, b-ii, c-iii, d-iv
c) a-iii, b-ii, c-i, d-iv
d) a-iv, b-ii, c-iii, d-i

Q.27. Match the following

Section-A Section-B
a. R1 i. Landlord farmers
b. R2 ii. Rich Farmer with 5 acres of land
c. R3 iii. Average land holding 2-5 acres
d. R4 iv. Little or no land

a) a-I, b-ii, c-iii, d-iv

b) a-ii, b-ii, c-iii, d-iv
c) a-iii, b-ii, c-i, d-iv
d) a-iv, b-ii, c-iii, d-i

Q.28. Match the following

 Section-A Section-B
a. Pulse polio i. Amitabh Bachchan
b. Coca-cola ii. Aamir Khan
c. TVS iii. Mahinder Singh Dhoni
d. idea iv. Abhishek Bachchan

a) a-I, b-ii, c-iii, d-iv

b) a-ii, b-ii, c-iii, d-iv
c) a-iii, b-ii, c-i, d-iv
d) a-iv, b-ii, c-iii, d-i

Q.29. What is the full form of FCI?

a) Food and Calorie of India

b) Farmers collective of India
c) Food Corporation of India
d) Food and centre of India

Q.30. There are two sources of marketing finance---

a) Formal and informal

b) Institutional and non institutional
c) Banks and non banks
d) Government and RBI
 Financial Institution & Market
SYBMS SEM IV
Sample Questions

1. The following one is a kind of fee based activity of a financial intermediary.

hire purchase financing
leasing
capital issue management
underwriting

2. Find the odd man out

commercial paper
share certificate
certificate of deposit
treasury bill.

3. The process of managing the sales ledger of a client by a financial service company is called
_____________.
forfeiting
factoring
leasing
securitization of debt

4. ______________ allocates savings efficiently in an economy to ultimate users either for

investment in real assets or for consumption.
Money System
Financial System
Barter System
Capital System

5. __________ has no fixed geographical location.

Secondary market
Primary market
Bull market
Bear market

6. Non-banking companies should compulsorily get credit rating for their _________.
capital market instruments
money market instruments
debt market instruments
Foreign market instrument

7. The important goal of the financial service industry is to mobilise and allocate _________.
saving
sales
 purchase
income

8. Term lending institutions are ________ market intermediaries.

cash
credit
capital
sales

9. To regulate the securities market and to protect the investor's interest ________ has been
created by the Government of India.
SEBI
RRB
RBI
SBI

10. Underwriting of shares by a financial intermediary is a kind of ___________ activity.

cash based
time based
fund based
Both Time based and Time based.

11. ___________ bonds are sold at a large discount to their nominal value.
Deep discount
Discount
Profit
Trade discount

12. IFCI has a merchant banking division with head office at _____ and bureau _____.
Chennai, Delhi
Delhi, Chennai
Delhi, Mumbai
Chennai, Delhi

13. NABARD provides medium term credit for a period ranging ______.
15 months to 6 years
18 months to 6 years
18 months to 7 years
10 months to 6 years

14. ._______ is an apex development bank which provides help for agriculture and rural
development.
SIDBI
IDBI
IFCI
NABARD

15. ______ is the apex institution is the area of development banking.

 GIC
RBI
SBI
IDBI

16. The company which sets up a mutual fund is called _____.

Sponsor company
Asset management company
Mutual fund company
Trustee company

17. The formal financial system comprise of ______________, RBI, SEBI and other regulatory
bodies.
Ministry of Finance
Department of Revenue
Department of Economic Affair
Department of Company Affair

18. __________ is a nodal department for Over-seeing public financial management system in
the central Government.
Department of Revenue
DIPAM
Department of Economic Affairs
Department of Expenditure

19. ________ protection is the major responsibility of SEBI.

Broker
Agent
Investor
Trustee

20. _______ has powers to grant approval to byelaws of stock exchanges.

SBI
SEBI
RRB
RBI

21. IPO stands for __________.

Initial Preference Offering
Initial Private Offering
Initial Price Organisation
Initial Public Offering

22. Principal responsibility of which department is the preparation and presentation of the
union Budget?
Department of Revenue
DIPAM
Department of Economic Affairs
 Department of Expenditure

23. _________ started off in commodities as early as 17th Century.

Derivative Trading
Commodity
Hedge
Future

24. _________ encompasses all institutions dealing in fresh issues.

New issue market
Secondary market
Money market
Capital market

25. The ___________ are issued by the seller on the buyer for the value of goods delivered by
him.
T-Bills
Commercial papers
Commercial Bills
MSF

26. __________ refers to the admission of the securities of a company on a recognised stock
exchange for trading.
GDR
ADR
Listing
Delisting

27. IDBI’s technical assistance fund scheme provides assistance to _____.

Blind and handicapped Employed
Blind and handicapped Unemployed
Blind and handicapped
Self Employed Blind and handicapped

28. AMFI stands for ______

Assets management fund of India
Association for mutual fund of India
Asset mutual fund of India
Association for management of India

29. _______ are responsible for setting policy that enables the financial system to facilitate
sustainable growth and meet the financial needs of their countrymen while minimising risk
to taxpayers’ funds.
Stakeholders
Governments
Opposition Parties
Shareholders
30. Financial services are _____________ in nature
Tangible
Movable
Immovable
Intangible.

31. ___________ controls the entire insurance business in India.

SEBI
NSE
IRDA
RBI

32. Normally debentures above _________ years cannot be issued.

six
ten
one
seven

33. When does a negative yield curve tend to exist?

During a period of unemployment
During a period of inflation
During a period of deflation
During a period of full employment

34. In the process of deposit deregulation in the early 1980's, banks were allowed to ____
offer checkable deposits that paid implicit interest only
pay explicit market rates on savings and time deposits and limited interest on checkable
deposits
pay below market explicit interest on savings and time deposits
pay explicit market rates on checking accounts

35. The term structure of interest rates shows _____

how interest rates vary over time
the pattern of interest rates over the long-term business cycle
security yields ranked by default risk structure
the relationship between maturity and yield for similar securities

36. If the yield on long-term securities is greater than the yield on comparable short-term
securities, the yield curve will be ______.
positively sloped
negatively sloped
in the negative quadrant
undefined

37. _______ are also known as demand deposits.

Current deposits
 Savings
Fixed Deposits
Time Deposits

38. What is the primary function of large, diversified brokerage firms in the money market?
To sell money market securities to the Federal Reserve for its open market operations
To buy money market securities from corporations that need liquidity
To make a market for money market securities by maintaining an inventory from which to
buy or sell
To buy T-bills from the U. S. Treasury Department

39. In 2016, the ________ was the tenth-largest goods exporter in the world and the fifth-
largest goods importer.
US
Japan
UK
India

40. ________ refers to the financial system’s capacity to adjust to both the normal business
cycle and a severe economic shock.
Financial stability
Resilience
Confidentiality
Correctness
 Vidyalankar School of Information Technology
SYBMS
Sem : IV
Subject: Business Research Methods
Sample Questions

1. What is the major attribute of Correlation Analysis?

a. Association among variables

b. Difference among variables
c. Regression among variables
d. Variations among variables

2. What is the name of the conceptual framework in which the research is carried out?

a. Research hypothesis
b. Synopsis of Research
c. Research paradigm
d. Research design

3. Which of the following features are considered as critical in qualitative research?

a. Collecting data with the help of standardized research tools.

b. Design sampling with probability sample techniques.
c. Collecting data with bottom-up empirical evidence.
d. Gathering data with top-down schematic evidence.

4. How is random sampling helpful?

a. Reasonably accurate
b. An economical method of data collection
c. Free from personal biases
d. All of the above

5. A research intends to explore the result of possible factors for the organization of effective
mid-day meal interventions. Which research method will be most appropriate for this study?

a. Descriptive survey method

b. Historical method
c. Ex-post facto method
d. Experimental method

6. Tippit table refers to as _________

a. Table of random digits

b. The table used in sampling methods
c. The table used in statistical investigations
d. All of the above

7. In order to pursue the research, which of the following is priorly required?

a. Developing a research design

b. Formulating a research question
c. Deciding about the data analysis procedure
d. Formulating a research hypothesis

8. The format of thesis writing is the same as in

a. Writing of Seminar representation

b. Preparation of research paper/article
c. A research dissertation
d. Presenting a workshop/conference paper

9. Which one among the following statement is true in the context of the testing of
hypotheses?

a. It is only the alternative hypotheses that can be tested.

b. It is only the null hypotheses that can be tested.
c. Both the alternative and the null hypotheses can be tested.
d. Both the alternative and the null hypotheses cannot be tested.

10. What are the conditions in which Type-I error occurs?

a. The null hypotheses get accepted even if it is false

b. The null hypotheses get rejected even if it is true
c. Both the null hypotheses as well as alternative hypotheses are rejected
d. None of the above
11. Research and Development become the index of development of the country. Which of
the following reasons are true with regards to this statement?

a. R&D targets human development

b. R&D can enhance people's standard of living in the country
c. R&D reflects the actual economic and social conditions being prevailed in the country
d. All the above

12. What does the longitudinal research approach actually deal with?

a. Long-term research
b. Short-term research
c. Horizontal research
d. None of the above

13. Evaluation Research is concerned with __________

a. How well are we doing?

b. Why are we doing?
c. What are we doing?
d. None of the above

14. Which of the following does not correspond to characteristics of research?

a. Research is not passive

b. Research is systematic
c. Research is not a problem-oriented
d. Research is not a process

15. Which of the following options are the main tasks of research in modern society?

a. To learn new things

b. To keep pace with the advancement in knowledge
c. To systematically examine and critically analyze the investigations/sources with the
objective
d. All of the above
16. What is the main aim of interdisciplinary research?

a. To over simplify the problem of research

b. To bring out the holistic approach to research
c. To create a new trend in research methodology
d. To reduce the emphasis on a single subject in the research domain

17. The main aim of the scientific method in the research field is to _________

a. Improve data interpretation

b. Confirm triangulation
c. Introduce new variables
d. Eliminate spurious relations

18. A researcher is interested in studying the prospects of a particular political party in an

urban area. So, what tool should he prefer for the study?

a. Rating Scale
b. Interview
c. Questionnaire
d. Schedule

19. The conclusions/findings of which type of research cannot be generalized to other

situations?

a. Casual Comparative Research

b. Historical Research
c. Descriptive Research
d. Experimental Research

20. How to judge the depth of any research?

a. By research title
b. By research duration
c. By research objectives
d. By total expenditure on research

21. Circle graphs are used to show

a. How is one part related to other parts?
b. How various sections share in the whole?
c. How is one whole related to another whole?
d. How are various parts related to the whole?

22. Authenticity of a research finding is its

a. Validity
b. Objectivity
c. Originality
d. All of the above

23. Which one is called non-probability sampling?

a. Quota sampling
b. Cluster sampling
c. Systematic sampling
d. Stratified random sampling

24. What does a good thesis involve?

a) Reducing punctuations as well as grammatical errors to minimalist

b) Correct reference citations
c) Consistency in the way of thesis writing
d) Well defined abstract

Select the answers from the codes given below:

a. b), c) and d)
b. a), b), c) and d)
c. a), b) and c)
d. a), b) and d)

25. Which one among the following statements is correct in context to research?

a) Research refers to a series of systematic activity or activities undertaken to find out the
solution to a problem.
b) It is a systematic, logical and unbiased process wherein verification of hypotheses, data
analysis, interpretation and formation of principles can be done.
c) It is an intellectual inquiry or quest towards truth,
d) It enhances knowledge.
Select the correct answer from the codes given below:

a. a), b), c) and d)

b. a), b) and c)
c. b), c) and d)
d. a), c) and d)

26. "Sampling Cases" can be defined as

a. Sampling using a sampling frame

b. Identifying people who are suitable for research
c. Literally the researcher's brief case
d. A sampling of people, newspapers, television programs etc.

27. The F-test:

a. Is essentially a two-tailed test.

b. Is essentially a one-tailed test.
c. Can be one-tailed as well as two-tailed depending on the hypotheses.
d. Can never be one tailed test.

28. Which one among the following is the most comprehensive source of population data?

a. Census
b. National Sample Surveys
c. Demographic Health Surveys
d. National Family Health Surveys

29. What are those conditions where a research problem is not viable?

a. It is new and adds something to knowledge

b. It can be researched
c. It has utility and relevance
d. It contains dependent and independent variables

30. The process not needed in experimental research is

a. Controlling
b. Observation
c. Reference collection
d. Manipulation and replication
SYBMS Semester IV Subject: Business Economics II

Sample Questions

1. The difference between value of output and value added is:

(a) Depreciation
(b) Intermediate consumption
(c) Net indirect taxes
(d) NFIA

2. Product method of calculating national income is also known as:

(a) Income method
(b) Value added method
(c) Expenditure method
(d) Distribution method

3. Transfer payments refer to payments, which are made:

(a) Without any exchange of goods and services
(b) To workers on transfer from one job to another
(c) As compensation to employees
(d) None

4. National Income differs from Net National Product at market price by the amount of:
(a) Current transfers from rest of the world
(b) Net Indirect Taxes
(c) National debt interest
(d) it does not differ

5. Net national product at factor cost is also known as:

(a) Net Domestic product
(b) Gross National product
(c) National Income
(d) Personal Income

6. In GNP calculation which of the following should be excluded?

(a) Rental incomes
(b) Interest payments
(c) Dividends
(d) Government transfer payment

7. Net National Product equals:

a) Gross National Product adjusted for inflation
b) Gross Domestic Product adjusted for inflation
c) Gross Domestic Product plus net property income from abroad
d) Gross National Product minus depreciation

8. Which of the following statements is true about the circular flow?

a) Output is greater than income
b) Income is more than expenditure
c) Output is less than expenditure
d) Output equals income equals expenditure

9. To adjust GDP from market prices to factor cost:

a) Add indirect taxes
b) Subtract subsidies
c) Deduct indirect taxes and deduct subsidies
d) Deduct indirect taxes and add subsidies

10. To adjust from Net National Product to Gross National Product:

a) Add depreciation
b) Deduct indirect taxes
c) Add subsidies
d) Add inflation

11. An increase in the marginal propensity to consume will:

a) Lead to the consumption function becoming steeper
b) Shift the consumption function upwards
c) Shift the consumption function downwards
d) Shift the savings function upwards
12. As national income increases:
a) The average propensity to consume falls and gets nearer in value to the marginal propensity to
consume
b) The average propensity to consume increases and diverges in value from the marginal propensity
to consume
c) The average propensity to consume stays constant
d) The average propensity to consume always approaches infinity

13. An increase in consumption at any given level of income is likely to lead to:
a) Higher aggregate demand
b) An increase in exports
c) A fall in taxation revenue
d) A decrease in import spending

14. Lower interest rates are likely to:

a) Decrease consumption
b) Increase cost of borrowing
c) Encourage saving
d) Increase borrowing and spending

15. The marginal propensity to consume is equal to:

a) Total spending / total consumption
b) Total consumption / total income
c) Change in consumption / change in income
d) Change in consumption / change in savings

16. A shift in aggregate supply is likely to:

a) Reduce the general price level and reduce national income
b) Reduce the general price level and increase national income
c) Increase the general price level and reduce national income
d) Increase the general price level and increase national income

17. Aggregate demand will increase if:

a) Consumption falls
b) Investment falls
c) Exports fall
d) Imports fall

18. If aggregate supply is totally price inelastic, an increase in aggregate demand will:
a) Increase price but not output
b) Increase output but not price
c) Increase output and price
d) Decrease output and price

19. Fall in interest rates is a typical feature of

a. Recovery
b. Boom
c. Depression
d. Peak

20. The marginal propensity to consume (MPC) is computed as the:

a. change in consumption divided by the change in savings.
b. change in consumption divided by the change in disposable personal income.
c. change in consumption divided by the change in GDP.
d. change in savings divided by Income

21. Speculative motive is influenced by ______________

a) Income
b) Rate of interest
c) Consumption
d) All of the above

23. When prices are falling continuously, the phenomenon is called:

(a) Inflation
(b) Stagflation
(c) Deflation
(a) Reflation
24. . When too much money chases too few goods, the resulting Inflation is called:
(a) Deflation
(b) Demand-pull Inflation
(c) Cost push inflation
(a) Stagflation

25. . Stagflation means:

(a) Inflation with stagnation
(b) Recession with stagnation
(c) Inflation galloping like stage
(d) Inflation & increasing output

26. During recession, RBI will _________________ CRR

a) decrease
b) increase
c) keep constant
d) None of the above

27. Inflation is measured on the basis of:

(a) Pigou’s price index
(b) Consumer price index
(c) Marshall’s index
(d) All of these

28. When price increases due to increase in factor prices it is ______.

(a) Demand pull inflation
(b) Cost push inflation
(c) Stagflation
(d) None of the above.

29. To increase the money supply, the bank central could:

a. Cut taxes
b. Purchase bonds in the open-market
c. Encourage people to held more cash (currency in circulation)
d. Increase the government spending

30. Point out the monetary policy instrument:

a. An increase in direct taxes
b. Open-market operations
c. Freezing pensions
d. A cut in government purchase of goods and services

31. If money supply in a country decrease:

A. Prices will rise
B. Prices will fall
C. Rate of interest falls
D. No change in price

32. Quantity Theory of Money explains that:

A. Value of money depends upon quantity of money
B. Rate of interest depends upon quantity of money
C. Quantity of investment depends upon quantity of money
D. Supply of money depends upon quantity of money

33. Liquidity of a monetary asset means:

A. Velocity of circulation of money
B. Easy availability of money
C. Ready acceptability of monetary asset
D. The monetary asset has lost it value

34. The following is a characteristic of a direct tax –

a) Incidence may be shifted
b) Imposes more burden on poor
c) The impact and incidence are on the same person
d) All of the above

35. After levying of a tax, if the price does not rise at all, it means that –
a) Incidence of the tax remains with producer
b) Tax has been shifted backward
c) Shifting has taken place
d) Any of the above

36. Impact of a tax refers to –

a) Final money burden
b) Immediate money burden
c) Indirect real burden
d) None of the above

37. Which factor has no role in the shifting of a tax?

a) Change in prices
b) Elasticity of demand and supply
c) Nature of Demand
d) Income of the consumer

38. The following is not a characteristic of a tax.

1. It is a compulsory payment
2. Every tax involves a sacrifice by tax payer
3. There is a quid-pro-quo between the tax payer and the Government.
4. Refusal to pay tax is a punishable offence.

39. Pick out the factor which is not a feature of indirect taxes.
a) Convenience
b) Tax evasion is difficult
c) Fair to the poor
d) Powerful tool of economic policy

40. __________________ based on the principle 'higher the income, higher the tax'.
a) Progressive Tax
b) Proportion Tax
c) Regressive Tax
d) Digressive Tax
41. Among the following what causes the market failure
i. Externalities
ii. Information Asymmetry
iii. Perfect Competition
iv. Inflation
Choose the correct answer from the code given below
a. i, ii and iii are correct
b. Only i is correct
c. i, ii, iii, and iv are correct
d. ii and iv are correct

42. Which of the following items are included in revenue receipts?

i. Tax revenue
ii. Non-tax revenue
iii. Recovery loans
iv. Borrowing and other liabilities
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
a) i and ii only
b) i, ii , and iii only
c) iii and iv only
d) i, iii, and iv only

43. Which among the following are advantages of international trade?

i. Export of surplus production
ii. Import of defence material
iii. Dependence on foreign countries
iv. Availability of cheap raw materials
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
a) i and ii only
b) i, ii , and iii only
c) iii and iv only
d) i, ii, and iv only

44. Govt. policy about exports and imports is called:

A. Monetary policy
B. Fiscal policy
C. Commercial policy
D. Finance policy

45. It is drawback of free trade:

A. Prices of local goods rise
B. Government looses income from custom duties
C. National resources are underutilized
D. Monopolies are not possible

46. This is NOT an advantage of foreign trade:

A. We can get gold from abroad
B. New technology comes to the country
C. We can import goods which are in short supply
D. We can made best use of natural resources

47. India’s foreign exchange rate system is?

(A) Free float

(B) Managed float
(C) Fixed .
(D) Fixed target of band

48. Flexible exchange rate system is also known as

a) Pegged Exchange Rate system
b) Dirty Floating
c) Floating Exchange Rate
d) Fixed Exchange Rate

49. Pick the correct option:

Imports of goods and services raises ___________ of foreign exchange
i) Supply
ii) Demand
a) Only i
b) Only ii
c) Both i and ii
d) Neither i and ii

50. The exchange rate at which demand for foreign currency becomes equal to its supply, is
called
a. Equal rate of exchange
b. Mint Parity
c. Equilibrium exchange rate
d. Gold Exchange Rate
 Training & Development

Sample Questions

April 2021

SYBMS HR

1. ________________ is the formal and systematic modification of behaviour through

learning

a. Training b. Education c. Instruction d. None of

the above

2. Training occurs as a result of _____________________________

a. Instruction b. education c. development d. all

of the above

3. Training refers to the process of imparting _______________ skills

a. Specific b. General c. Important d. Over all

4. _______ is any learning activity, which is directed towards future needs rather than
present needs

a. Training b. Education c. Instruction d.

Development

5. ______________________ is concerned more with career growth than immediate

performance

a. Training b. Education c. Instruction d.

Development

6. Development provides __ ____ and _____, which will be helpful to employees in

higher positions

a. general knowledge, Behaviour b. general knowledge

specific skills

c. general knowledge, attitudes d. Specific skills, attitudes

7. Development concerned more with __________________

a. Immediate performance b. succession planning c. career
growth d. All of the above

8. The purpose of ____________ is to teach theoretical concepts and develop a sense of

reasoning and judgment

a. Development b. Training c. Education d.

Teaching

9. __________________________ is a theoretical learning in classrooms

a. Development b. Training c. Education d.

Teaching

10. Which of the below does not describe the nature of Training

a. Application oriented b. Broad perspective c.

11. _________________ is application oriented

a. Training b. Education c. Learning d. None of

the above

12. Training is ______

a. Narrow perspective b. Broad perspective c. long

term d. None of the above

13. ______________ is tangible in nature

a. Development b. Training c. Both a & b d.

Neither a nor b

14. ________ is normally directed at operative employees and relates to technical

aspects.

a. Training b. Education c. Learning d.

Development

15. In general training is related to

a. Conceptual b. developmental c. technical

aspects d. Human skills
16. Development is not related to

a. Conceptual b. developmental c. technical

aspects d. Human skills

17. Which of the following is not a method of Individual training need identification?

a. Attitude survey b. work sample c. exit

interview d. interview

18. Which of the following is a method of group training need identification?

a. Attitude survey b. work sample c. exit

interview d. interview

19. Which of the following is not a method of group training need identification?

a. Quality Circle b. work sample c. exit

interview d. MBO

20. Which of the following is not a method of on the job training

a. Supervision b. Job instruction c. Role play d.

Job rotation

21. Which of the following is method of on the job training

a. Group discussion b. Job instruction c. Role

play d. Case Study

22. Which of the following is method of off the job training

a. Supervision b. Job instruction c. Role play d.

Job rotation

23. Which of the following is not method of off the job training

a. Group discussion b. Job instruction c. Role

play d. Case Study

24. Evaluation helps determine the extent to which _____________ have been achieved
a. efficiency b. profit c. training objectives d.
employee satisfaction

25. Evaluation gives insights for

a. reviewing b. adjusting c. revising goals d. All of

the above

26. Evaluation of training model was developed by

a. Donald Kickmatrix b. Donald Kirkpatrick c. David

Kirkpatrick d. David Kickmatrix

27. The evaluation training model was developed in the year

a. 1985 b. 1970 c. 1975 d. 1980

28. Which of the following is a method used in group or organisational training

needs assessment?

a. Consideration of current and projected changes b. Rating scales

c. Interviews d. Questionnaires

29. Which of these is the benefit of needs assessment?

a. Assessment makes training department more accountable b. Higher training costs

c. Loss of business d. Increased overtime working

30. Which of the following is a learning principle?

a. Recognition of individual differences b. Schedules of learning

c. Transfer of learning d. All of the above

31. Which of these is a hindrance to effective training? a. Career planning workshop

b. Aggregate spending on training is inadequate c. Mentoring d. Career

counselling

32. ________________ is the formal and systematic modification of behaviour through

learning a. Training b. Education c. Instruction d. None of the above
33. _______ is any learning activity, which is directed towards future needs rather

than present needs

a. Training b. Education c. Instruction d. Development

34. The following method is used to give to trainees the important information in
permanent form for immediate of future use

a. Lecture methods b. Conference c. Written instructional method d. Training

within the industry (TWI)

35. Demonstration type of training method is used to train

a. Workers b. Supervisors c. Managers d. All of the above

 Vidyalankar School of Information Technology
SYBMS
Sem:IV
Subject: PTQM
Sample Questions

1. The term productivity refers to the relationship between _______ and factors.
a. Product
b. Production
c. Productivity
d. Process
2. _________ refers to the output, whereas productivity refers to the relative to the inputs.
a. Product
b. Production
c. Productivity
d. Process
3. __________ Management is the controlling process to confirm the quality of product to a
certain pre-determined standard.
a. Material
b. Product
c. Quality
d. Production
4. TQM is a preventive tool to be termed as _____ Defect Approach.
a. Zero
b. Six sigma
c. Minimum
d. Nil
5. The actual implementation of TQM begins from ________ and flows down to bottom.
a. Bottom
b. Middle
c. Top
d. Horizontally
6. _________ helps to improve the quality of goods and cut down costs and thereby satisfy
customers.
a. ABC
b. EOQ
c. TQM
d. Six Sigma
7. TQM emphasis ______ with the high degree of worker’s involvement.
a. Group spirit
b. Leadership spirit
c. Team spirit
d. Management spirit
8. By Japanese, ‘KAI means to change and ‘ZEN’ means to __________.
a. Improvement
b. Better
c. Goods
d. Continuous
9. ___________ wan the first one to introduce the concept of cost of poor quality.
a. Edward Deming
b. J. Juran
c. Masaki Imai
d. P.Crosby
10. The concept of “Quality Circle” is a __________ Resource development technique.
a. Human
b. Material
c. Financial
d. Production
11. Cause –Effect Diagram is used to explore all the _____ that result in a single effect.
a. Reasons
b. Defects
c. Errors
d. Causes
12. __________ implies the ratio of out to input within a defined time and quantity.
a. Product
b. Production
c. Productivity
d. Process
13. Productivity is not influenced by _____.
a. Previous capital
b. Material
c. Method
d. Technology
14. A product can be improved and its cost lowered through __________.
a. Value Engineering
b. Operation research
c. PERT
d. EOQ
15. ___________ is the precision with which the product or service meet the specified standards.
a. Quality
b. Conformance
c. Aesthetics
d. Durability
16. SERQUAL is a __________ measuring instrument.
a. Appraisal
b. Prevention
c. Kaizen
d. Service quality
17. Kaizen is the practice of _________ improvement.
a. Quality
b. Production
c. Continuous
d. Product
18. The concept of six sigma has a ________aspect.
a. Quantitative
b. Qualitative
c. Technical
d. Numerical
19. __________ is a series of generic standard developed by ISO.
a. ISO-9000
b. ISO-9001
c. QS-9000
d. ISO-14000
20. Potential Problem Analysis forms the base of the _________ and contingency actions.
a. Preventive
b. Protective
c. Proactive
d. Reactive
21. ______ is the process of transforming the raw materials into finished products.
a. Product
b. Production
c. Productivity
d. Produce
22. Whose price determines the selection of a particular site?
a. Land
b. Soil
c. Amenities
d. Technology
23. Forecasting is the _____ aspect of Management.
a. Organizing
b. Planning
c. Co-coordinating
d. Controlling
24. Quality Control is the ______ aspect of Management.
a. Organizing
b. Planning
c. Co-coordinating
d. Controlling
25. Jewellery making is a ______ type of production system.
a. Job production
b. Mass Production
c. Analytical production
d. Assembly Production
26. Chemical plant is an example of __________ type of production.
a. Job production
b. Mass Production
c. Analytical production
d. Continuous production
27. For _______ production special purpose automatic machines are used.
a. Job production
b. Mass Production
c. Analytical production
d. Continuous production
28. In ________ stage of Product development Prototype or model of the product is developed.
a. Idea Screening
b. Concept Testing
c. Business Analysis
d. Product development
29. In ________ stage of Product development review of sales Prototype or model of the product
is developed.
a. Idea Screening
b. Concept Testing
c. Business Analysis
d. Product development
30. Plant __________ pertains to planning of the space.
a. Production activity
b. Plant location
c. Plant layout
 d. Process layout
31. ______ line is the shortest distance between any two points.
a. Straight
b. ‘U’ Shaped
c. Circular flow
d. Zig-Zag arrangement

32. ______ means determining then shape, standard and pattern of the product.
a. Product design
b. Product production
c. Product process
d. Product sale
33. _____ is not a step in new product Development process.
a. Concept testing development and testing
b. Mass production
c. Test marketing
d. Commercialization
34. _______ is not a type of consumer products?
a. Convenience products
b. Spatiality products
c. Shopping products
d. Materials and parts
35. _______ is an example of a pure goods.
a. Slat
b. Fast food
c. Attending a play
d. Vehicle repair
36. _________ is an example of pure services.
a. Bank loans
b. Computer diagnosis and repair
c. Attending a play
d. Fast food restaurant
37. ______ is described as creation of a utility and services.
a. Product process
b. Operation
c. Production
d. Inventory
38. ________ Type of layout is adopted in soap manufacturing plants?
a. Stationery layout
b. Combined layout
c. Product layout
d. Process layout
39. Batch production has ______ production runs.
a. Shorter
b. Medium
c. Longer
d. No
40. The flow of product in _________ layout will be smooth and logical.
a. Stationery
b. Combined
c. Product
d. Process