Geography Chapter 1 – Resources and Development

The solutions for Chapter 1 – Resources and Development are given below. Students should also check
NCERT Solutions for Class 10 for other subjects.
Exercise Page No 12
1. Multiple choice questions.
(i) Which one of the following type of resource is iron ore?
(a) Renewable
(b) Biotic
(c) Flow
(d) Non-renewable
Answer:
Non-renewable
(ii) Under which of the following type of resource tidal energy cannot be put?
(a) Replenishable
(b) Human-made
(c) Abiotic
(d) Non-recyclable
Answer:
Replenishable
(iii) Which one of the following is the main cause of land degradation in Punjab?
(a) Intensive cultivation
(b) Deforestation
(c) Over irrigation
(d) Overgrazing
Answer:
Over irrigation
(iv) In which one of the following states is terrace cultivation practised?
(a) Punjab
(b) Plains of Uttar Pradesh
(c) Haryana
(d) Uttarakhand
Answer:
Uttarakhand
(v) In which of the following states black soil is predominantly found?
(a) Jammu and Kashmir
(b) Maharashtra
(c) Rajasthan
(d) Jharkhand
Answer:
Maharashtra
2. Answer the following questions in about 30 words.
(i) Name three states having black soil and the crop which is mainly grown in it.
Answer:
3 states are
1. Maharashtra
2. Gujarat
3. Madhya Pradesh
The crop grown is cotton.
(ii) What type of soil is found in the river deltas of the eastern coast? Give three main features of this
type of soil.
Answer:
The type of soil found in river deltas is Alluvial Soil.
1. Very fertile, and therefore good for the cultivation of crops
2. Consists of various proportions of sand, silt and clay
3. It has a good quantity of potash, lime and phosphoric acid, which is good for the growth of paddy and
sugarcane.
(iii) What steps can be taken to control soil erosion in the hilly areas?
Answer:
The main techniques that can be used are given below.
1. Contour ploughing
2. Terrace farming
3. Strips of grass are allowed to grow between the crops. This method is known as strip cropping.
(iv) What are the biotic and abiotic resources? Give some examples.
Answer:
Biotic resource:
1. These are resources that are obtained from the biosphere
2. These resources have life
 3. Examples are plants, animals, fish, human beings, livestock etc.
Abiotic resource:
1. These resources are composed of non-living things
2. Examples are water, minerals, metals, wind, solar energy etc.
3. Answer the following questions in about 120 words.
(i) Explain the land use pattern in India and why has the land under forest not increased much since
1960-61?
Answer:
The use of land is determined both by physical factors such as topography, climate, soil types as well as human
factors such as population density, technological capability and culture and traditions etc. The pattern of the
net sown area varies greatly from one state to another. It is over 80 per cent of the total area in Punjab and
Haryana and less than 10 per cent in Arunachal Pradesh, Mizoram, Manipur and Andaman Nicobar Islands.
Forest area in the country is far lower than the desired 33 per cent of geographical area, as it was outlined in
the National Forest Policy (1952). It was considered essential for the maintenance of the ecological balance. A
part of the land is termed as wasteland and land put to other non-agricultural uses. Wasteland includes rocky,
arid and desert areas and land put to other non-agricultural uses includes settlements, roads, railways, industry
etc. Continuous use of land over a long period of time without taking appropriate measures to conserve and
manage has resulted in land degradation.
(ii) How has technical and economic development led to more consumption of resources?
Answer:
There are various reasons for this.
1. Large scale production led to over utilisation of resources.
2. Technological advancement led to greater exploitation of resources.
3. Improved medical and health resources led to huge consumption of resources.

Geography Chapter 2 – Forest and Wildlife Resources

The solutions for Chapter 2 of Forest and Wildlife Resources are given below. Students should also
check NCERT Solutions for Class 10 for other subjects.
Exercise Page No 22
1. Multiple choice questions.
(i) Which of these statements is not a valid reason for the depletion of flora and fauna?
(a) Agricultural expansion.
(b) Large scale developmental projects.
(c) Grazing and fuelwood collection.
(d) Rapid industrialisation and urbanisation.
Answer:
Grazing and fuelwood collection
(ii) Which of the following conservation strategies do not directly involve community participation?
(a) Joint forest management
(b) Beej Bachao Andolan
(c) Chipko Movement
(d) Demarcation of Wildlife sanctuaries
Answer:
Demarcation of wildlife sanctuaries
2. Match the following animals with their category of existence.

Animals/Plants Category of existence

Black Buck Extinct

Asiatic Elephant Rare

Andaman wild pig Endangered

Himalayan Brown Bear Vulnerable

Pink Head Duck Endemic

Answer:

Animals/Plants Category of existence

Black Buck Endangered

Asiatic Elephant Vulnerable

Andaman wild pig Endemic

Himalayan Brown Bear Rare

 Pink Head Duck Extinct

3. Match the following.

Reserved Other forests and wastelands

Forests belonging to both government and
private individuals and
communities

Protected Forests are regarded as most

Forests valuable as far as the conservation
of forest and wildlife resources

Unclassed Forest lands are protected from

Forests any further depletion

Answer:

Reserved Forests are regarded as most valuable

Forests as far as the conservation of forest
and wildlife resources

Protected Forest lands are protected from any

Forests further depletion

Unclassed Other forests and wastelands

Forests belonging to both Government and
private individuals and communities

4. Answer the following questions in about 30 words.

(i) What is biodiversity? Why is biodiversity important for human lives?
Answer:
Biodiversity is made up of various types of life forms found on earth. It is a measure of variation at the
ecosystem, species and genetic level. Biodiversity is abundant in Tropical areas. Tropical areas cover 10 per
cent of the earth surface, but they host 90% of the world species.
Contribution of biodiversity in human lives
1. Agriculture – Variety of Plant species meet our needs for food.
2. Their contribution to business and industry
 3. Leisurely activities
4. Ecological services
(ii) How have human activities affected the depletion of flora and fauna? Explain
Answer:
1. Various river valley projects have affected the flora and fauna
2. Many illegal Mining projects have depleted the flora and fauna
3. Too many development projects for leisure activities in the forests have negatively affected.
4. Too many human activities in the forest area due to rising population and lack of space has created
human-animal conflict.
5. Answer the following questions in about 120 words.
(i) Describe how communities have conserved and protected forests and wildlife in India.
Answer:
Chipko Movement:
The famous Chipko movement in the Himalayas has not only successfully resisted deforestation in several
areas but has also shown that community afforestation with indigenous species can be enormously successful.
Certain societies revere a particular tree which they have preserved from time immemorial. The Mundas and
the Santhal of Chota Nagpur region worship mahua (Bassia latifolia) and kadamba (Anthocaphalus cadamba)
trees. The tribals of Odisha and Bihar worship the tamarind (Tamarindus indica) and mango (Mangifera
indica) trees during weddings. To many of us, peepal and banyan trees are considered sacred.
In Sariska Tiger Reserve, Rajasthan, villagers have fought against mining by citing the Wildlife Protection
Act. In many areas, villagers themselves are protecting habitats and are explicitly rejecting government
involvement. The inhabitants of five villages in the Alwar district of Rajasthan have declared 1,200 hectares of
forest as the Bhairodev Dakav ‘Sonchuri’, declaring their own set of rules and regulations which do not allow
hunting and are protecting the wildlife against any outside encroachments.
(ii) Write a note on good practices towards conserving forest and wildlife.
Answer:
In India, joint forest management (JFM) programme furnishes a good example of involving local communities
in the management and restoration of degraded forests. The programme has been in formal existence since
1988 when the state of Odisha passed the first resolution for joint forest management. JFM depends on the
formation of local (village) institutions that undertake protection activities mostly on degraded forest land
managed by the forest department. In return, the members of these communities are entitled to intermediary
benefits like non-timber forest produces and share in the timber harvested by ‘successful protection’. The clear
lesson from the dynamics of both environmental destruction and reconstruction in India is that local
communities everywhere have to be involved in some kind of natural resource management. But there is still a
long way to go before local communities are at the centre stage in decision-making. Accept only those
economic or developmental activities, that are people-centric, environment-friendly and economically
rewarding.
Geography Chapter 3 – Water Resources
The solutions for Chapter 3 of Water Resources are given below. Students should also check NCERT
Solutions for Class 10 for other subjects.
Exercise Page No 46
1. Multiple choice questions.
(i) Based on the information given below classify each of the situations as ‘suffering from water scarcity’
or ‘not suffering from water scarcity’.
(a) A region with high annual rainfall.
(b) A region having high annual rainfall and large population.
(c) A region having high annual rainfall but water is highly polluted.
(d) A region having low rainfall and low population.
Answer:
(a) A region with high annual rainfall – Not suffering from water scarcity
(b) A region having high annual rainfall and large population – Suffering from water scarcity
(c) A region having high annual rainfall but water is highly polluted – Suffering from water scarcity
(d) A region having low rainfall and low population- Not suffering from water scarcity
(ii) Which one of the following statements is not an argument in favour of multipurpose river projects?
(a) Multi-purpose projects bring water to those areas which suffer from water scarcity.
(b) Multi-purpose projects by regulating water flow help to control floods.
(c) Multi-purpose projects lead to large scale displacements and loss of livelihood.
(d) Multi-purpose projects generate electricity for our industries and our homes.
Answer:
(c) Multi-purpose projects lead to large scale displacements and loss of livelihood
(iii) Here are some false statements. Identify the mistakes and rewrite them correctly.
(a) Multiplying urban centres with large and dense populations and urban lifestyles have helped in
proper utilisation of water resources.
(b) Regulating and damming of rivers does not affect the river’s natural flow and its sediment flow.
(c) In Gujarat, the Sabarmati basin farmers were not agitated when higher priority was given to water
supply in urban areas, particularly during droughts.
(d) Today in Rajasthan, the practice of rooftop rainwater water harvesting has gained popularity
despite high water availability due to the Indira Gandhi Canal.
Answer:
(a) Multiplying urban centres with large and dense populations and urban lifestyles have resulted in improper
utilisation of water resources.
(b) Regulating and damming of rivers does affect the river’s natural flow and its sediment flow.
(c) In Gujarat, the Sabarmati basin farmers were agitated when higher priority was given to water supply in
urban areas, particularly during droughts.
(d) Today in Rajasthan, the practise of rooftop rainwater water harvesting popularity has declined due to high
water availability from Indira Gandhi Canal.
2. Answer the following questions in about 30 words.
(i) Explain how water becomes a renewable resource.
Answer:
Water can be considered as a renewable resource since there will be rains and surface water and groundwater
will get recharged continuously due to the 3 process involved in the hydrological cycle.
The 3 processes of the hydrological cycle are
1. Evaporations
2. Condensation
3. Precipitation
(ii) What is water scarcity and what are its main causes?
Answer:
Many of our cities are such examples. Thus, water scarcity may be an outcome of large and growing
population and consequent greater demands for water, and unequal access to it. A large population requires
more water not only for domestic use but also to produce more food. Hence, to facilitate higher food-grain
production, water resources are being over-exploited to expand irrigated areas for dry-season agriculture.
Irrigated agriculture is the largest consumer of water. Most farmers have their own wells and tube-wells in
their farms for irrigation to increase their productivity. This has adversely affected water availability and food
security of the people.
(iii) Compare the advantages and disadvantages of multi-purpose river projects.
Answer:
Advantages:
1. Irrigation
2. Electricity generation
3. Flood control
4. Water supply for industrial and domestic purposes.
5. Tourist attraction
6. Inland navigation
Disadvantages:
1. The natural flow of water is affected
2. Aquatic life gets affected
3. Submergence of land in the surrounding areas
4. Ecological consequences
5. Large scale displacement of local people.
3. Answer the following questions in about 120 words.
(i) Discuss how rainwater harvesting in semi-arid regions of Rajasthan is carried out.
Answer:
In the semi-arid and arid regions of Rajasthan, particularly in Bikaner, Phalodi and Barmer, almost all the
houses traditionally had underground tanks or tankas for storing drinking water. The tanks could be as large as
a big room; one household in Phalodi had a tank that was 6.1 metres deep, 4.27 metres long and 2.44 metres
wide. The tankas were part of the well-developed rooftop rainwater harvesting system and were built inside the
main house or the courtyard. They were connected to the sloping roofs of the houses through a pipe. Rain
falling on the rooftops would travel down the pipe and be stored in these underground ‘tankas’. The first spell
of rain was usually not collected as this would clean the roofs and the pipes. The rainwater from the
subsequent showers was then collected. The rainwater can be stored in the tankas till the next rainfall, making
it an extremely reliable source of drinking water when all other sources are dried up, particularly in the
summers. Rainwater, or ‘palar pani’, as commonly referred to in these parts, is considered the purest form of
natural water.
(ii) Describe how modern adaptations of traditional rainwater harvesting methods are being carried out
to conserve and store water.
Answer:
Water harvesting system is a viable alternative, both socio-economically and environmentally. In ancient India,
along with the sophisticated hydraulic structures, there existed an extraordinary tradition of water-harvesting
system. People had in-depth knowledge of rainfall regimes and soil types and developed wide-ranging
techniques to harvest rainwater, groundwater, river water and floodwater in keeping with the local ecological
conditions and their water needs. In hill and mountainous regions, people built diversion channels like the
‘guls’ or ‘kuls’ of the Western Himalayas for agriculture. ‘Rooftop rainwater harvesting’ was commonly
practised to store drinking water, particularly in Rajasthan. In the flood plains of Bengal, people developed
inundation channels to irrigate their fields. In arid and semi-arid regions, agricultural fields were converted into
rain-fed storage structures that allowed the water to stand and moisten the soil like the ‘khadins’ in Jaisalmer
and ‘Johads’ in other parts of Rajasthan. In Gendathur, a remote backward village in Mysuru, Karnataka,
villagers have installed, in their household’s rooftop, rainwater harvesting system to meet their water needs.
Nearly 200 households have installed this system and the village has earned the rare distinction of being rich in
rainwater. Rooftop rainwater harvesting is the most common practice in Shillong, Meghalaya. It is interesting
because Cherapunjee and Mawsynram situated at a distance of 55 km. from Shillong receive the highest
rainfall in the world. Yet, the state capital Shillong faces an acute shortage of water. Nearly every household in
the city has a rooftop rainwater harvesting structure. Nearly 15-25 per cent of the total water requirement of the
household comes from rooftop water harvesting. Tamil Nadu is the first state in India which has made rooftop
rainwater harvesting structure compulsory to all the houses across the state.
Geography Chapter 4 – Agriculture
The solutions for Chapter 4 of Agriculture are given below. Students should also check NCERT Solutions for
Class 10 for other subjects.
Exercise Page No 46
1. Multiple choice questions.
(i) Which one of the following describes a system of agriculture where a single crop is grown on a large
area?
(a) Shifting Agriculture (b) Plantation Agriculture (c) Horticulture (d) Intensive Agriculture
Answer:
Plantation agriculture
(ii) Which one of the following is a rabi crop?
(a) Rice (c) Millets (b) Gram (d) Cotton
Answer:
Gram
(iii) Which one of the following is a leguminous crop?
(a) Pulses (c) Millets (b) Jawar (d) Sesamum
Answer:
Pulses
2. Answer the following questions in 30 words.
(i) Name one important beverage crop and specify the geographical conditions required for its growth.
Answer:
One important beverage crop is tea.
The tea plant grows well in tropical and sub-tropical climates endowed with deep and fertile well-drained soil,
rich in humus and organic matter. Tea bushes require warm and moist frost-free climate all through the year.
Frequent showers evenly distributed over the year ensure continuous growth of tender leaves. Tea is a labour-
intensive industry. It requires abundant, cheap and skilled labour. Tea is processed within the tea garden to
restore its freshness.
(ii) Name one staple crop of India and the regions where it is produced.
Answer:
Rice is a major staple crop of India.
It is grown in the following regions.
1. Plains of North
2. North East India
3. Coastal Areas
4. Deltaic Regions
(iii) Enlist the various institutional reform programmes introduced by the government in the interest of
farmers.
Answer:
Various institutional reform programmes introduced by the Government are
1. MSP (Minimum Support Price)
2. Subsidy on Fertilisers
3. Crop insurance
4. Establishment of Grameen banks to provide low-interest loans
(iv) The land under cultivation has got reduced day by day. Can you imagine its consequences?
Answer:
1. Shortage of food
2. The rise in prices of food
 3. Imports increase will put stress on the economy
4. Rise in Unemployment
3. Answer the following questions in about 120 words.
(i) Suggest the initiative taken by the government to ensure the increase in agricultural production.
Answer:
The Government of India embarked upon introducing agricultural reforms to improve Indian agriculture in the
1960s and 1970s. The Green Revolution based on the use of package technology and the White Revolution
(Operation Flood) were some of the strategies initiated to improve a lot of Indian agriculture. But, this too led
to the concentration of development in a few selected areas. Therefore, in the 1980s and 1990s, a
comprehensive land development programme was initiated, which included both institutional and technical
reforms. Provision for crop insurance against drought, flood, cyclone, fire and disease, the establishment of
Grameen banks, cooperative societies and banks for providing loan facilities to the farmers at lower rates of
interest were some important steps in this direction. Kissan Credit Card (KCC), Personal Accident Insurance
Scheme (PAIS) are some other schemes introduced by the Government of India for the benefit of the farmers.
Moreover, special weather bulletins and agricultural programmes for farmers were introduced on the radio and
television. The government also announces minimum support price, remunerative and procurement prices for
important crops to check the exploitation of farmers by speculators and middlemen.
(ii) Describe the impact of globalisation on Indian agriculture.
Answer:
Globalisation is not a new phenomenon. It was there at the time of colonisation. In the nineteenth century,
when European traders came to India, at that time too, Indian spices were exported to different countries of the
world and farmers of south India were encouraged to grow these crops. Till today, it is one of the important
items of export from India. Under globalisation, particularly after 1990, the farmers in India have been exposed
to new challenges. Despite being an important producer of rice, cotton, rubber, tea, coffee, jute and spices, our
agricultural products are not able to compete with the developed countries because of the highly subsidised
agriculture in those countries. Today, Indian agriculture finds itself at the crossroads. To make agriculture
successful and profitable, proper thrust should be given to the improvement of the condition of marginal and
small farmers.
Geography Chapter 5 – Minerals and Energy Resources
The solutions for Chapter 5 of Minerals and Energy Resources are given below. Students should also
check NCERT Solutions for Class 10 for other subjects.
Page No. – 63
Exercises
1. Multiple choice questions.
(i) Which one of the following minerals are formed by the decomposition of rocks, leaving a residual
mass of weathered material?
(a) Coal (b) Bauxite (c ) Gold (d) Zinc
Solution: (b) Bauxite
(ii) Koderma, in Jharkhand, is the leading producer of which one of the following minerals?
(a) Bauxite (b) Mica (c ) Iron Ore (d) Copper
Solution: (b) Mica
(iii) Minerals are deposited and accumulated in the strata of which of the following rocks?
(a) Sedimentary Rocks (b) Metamorphic Rocks
(c ) Igneous Rocks (d) None of the above
Solution: (a) Sedimentary Rocks
(iv) Which one of the following minerals is contained in the Monazite sand?
(a) Oil (b) Uranium (c ) Thorium (d) Coal
Solution: (c ) Thorium
2. Answer the following questions in about 30 words.
(i) Distinguish between the following in not more than 30 words.
a. Ferrous and non-ferrous minerals
 b. Conventional and non-conventional sources of energy
Solution:
a. Ferrous minerals are the metallic minerals containing iron. For e.g.- Iron ore, Manganese, Nickel, Cobalt
etc.
While non-ferrous minerals are also metallic, but they do not contain iron. For e.g.- Manganese, Nickel, Cobalt
etc.
b. Conventional sources of energy include firewood, cattle dung cake, coal, petroleum, natural gas and
electricity (both hydel and thermal).
While non-conventional sources of energy are solar, wind, tidal, geothermal, biogas and atomic energy.
(ii) What is a mineral?
Solution:
Minerals can be defined as a homogenous, naturally occurring substances with a definable internal structure.
Minerals are found in varied forms in nature, ranging from the hardest diamond to the softest talc.
(iii) How are minerals formed in igneous and metamorphic rocks?
Solution:
In igneous and metamorphic rocks, minerals can occur in the cracks, crevices, faults or joints. The smaller
deposits are called veins, and the larger ones are called lodes.
(iv) Why do we need to conserve mineral resources?
Solution:
Mineral deposits form only one per cent of the earth’s crust. We need to conserve mineral resources because
the geological processes of mineral formation are so slow that the rates of replenishment are very small in
comparison to the current rate of consumption.
3. Answer the following questions in about 120 words.
(i) Describe the distribution of coal in India
Solution:
In India, coal can be found in rock series of two main geological ages:
a. Gondwana (200 million years old)
b. Tertiary deposits (55 million years old)
The major resources of Gondwana coal are located in:
a. Damodar Valley (West Bengal – Jharkhand) – Jharia, Raniganj and Bokaro are important coalfields.
b. Godavari valley
c. Mahanadi valley
d. Son valley
e. Wardha valley
Tertiary coal occurs in the northeastern states of Meghalaya, Assam, Arunachal Pradesh and Nagaland.
(ii) Why do you think that solar energy has a bright future in India?
Solution:
Solar Energy has a bright future in India because we are a tropical country with enormous possibilities of
tapping solar energy. Solar energy is fast becoming popular in rural and remote areas. India’s largest solar
power plant is located at Madhapur, near Bhuj, where solar energy is used to sterilise milk cans. It is expected
that the use of solar energy will be able to minimise the dependence of rural households on firewood and dung
cakes, which in turn will contribute to environmental conservation and adequate supply of manure in
agriculture.
Solar energy is a non-conventional source of energy which is also renewable. Use of solar energy will not only
be good for the environment, but it will also reduce our dependence on oil and gas.
Geography Chapter 6 – Manufacturing Industries
The solutions for Chapter 6 – Manufacturing Industries are given below. Students can also check the NCERT
Solutions Class 10 of other subjects.
Page No. – 79
Exercises
1. Multiple choice questions.
(i) Which one of the following industries uses limestone as a raw material.
a) Aluminium (b) Cement (c ) Sugar (d) Jute
Solution: (b) Cement
(ii) Which one of the following agencies markets steel for the public sector plants?
a) HAIL (b) SAIL (c ) TATA Steel (d) MNCC
Solution: (b) SAIL
(iii) Which one of the following industries uses bauxite as a raw material?
a) Aluminium (b) Cement (c ) Jute (d) Steel
Solution: (a) Aluminium
(iv) Which one of the following industries manufactures telephones, computer, etc?
a) Steel (b) Electronic (c ) Aluminium (d) Information Technology
Solution: (b) Electronic
2. Answer the following briefly in not more than 30 words.
(i) What is manufacturing?
Solution:
Manufacturing is the production of goods in large quantities after processing from raw materials to more
valuable products. For e.g.,- paper is manufactured from wood, sugar from sugarcane, iron and steel from iron
ore and aluminium from bauxite.
(ii) Name any three physical factors for the location of the industry.
Solution:
Three physical factors for the location of the industry are:
1. Availability of raw materials
2. Closeness to market
3. Availability of power
For e.g., – Jute textile industry is concentrated in West Bengal as the jute producing areas lie in the Hugli basin
and there is cheap water transport for transportation and for processing of jute.
(iii) Name any three human factors for the location of an industry
Solution:
Three human factors for the location of an industry are:
 1. Labour
2. Capital
3. Closeness to cities
For e.g., – Jute textile industry in West Bengal gets cheap labour from the adjoining states, and Kolkata is a
large urban centre for banking, insurance and port facilities.
(iv) What are the basic industries? Give an example.
Solution:
Basic or key industries are the industries which supply their product or raw materials to manufacture other
goods.
Example – Iron and steel industries provide iron and steel to other industries as the raw material.
(v) Name the important raw materials used in the manufacturing of cement?
Solution:
Important raw materials used in the manufacture of cement are:
1. Limestone
2. Silica
3. Alumina
4. Gypsum
3. Write the answers to the following questions in 120 words.
(i) How are integrated steel plants different from mini steel plants? What problems does the industry
face? What recent developments have led to a rise in the production capacity?
Solution:
Integrated steel plants are large and handle everything in one complex – from putting together raw material to
steel making, rolling and shaping.
Mini steel plants are smaller, have electric furnaces, use steel scrap and sponge iron. They have re-rollers that
use steel ingots as well. They produce mild and alloy steel of given specifications.
The challenges faced by the steel industry are:
1. High cost and limited availability of coking coal
2. Lower productivity of labour
3. Irregular supply of energy
4. Poor infrastructure
Recent developments such as liberalisation and foreign direct investment (FDI) have given a boost to the
industry with the efforts of private entrepreneurs.
(ii) How do industries pollute the environment?
Solution:
Industries are responsible for four types of pollution:
1. Air
2. Water
 3. Land
4. Noise
Air pollution is caused by the presence of a high proportion of undesirable gases, such as sulphur dioxide and
carbon monoxide and airborne particulate matter.
Water pollution is caused by organic and inorganic industrial wastes, and effluents discharged into water
bodies. Paper, refineries and tanneries are the main culprits.
Soil and water pollution are closely related. Dumping of waste makes the soil useless for agricultural activities.
The pollutants then reach the groundwater through the soil and contaminate it.
Noise pollution is caused by industrial machinery and construction activities.
(iii) Discuss the steps to be taken to minimise environmental degradation by industry.
Solution:
The steps that can be taken to minimise environmental degradation by industries are:
1. Adopting the latest techniques and upgrading existing equipment to improve energy efficiency.
2. Providing green belts for nurturing ecological balance.
3. Particulate matter in the air can be reduced by fitting smokestacks to factories with electrostatic
precipitators, fabric filters, scrubbers and inertial separators.
4. Using silencers for noise generating equipment.
5. Minimising water usage by reusing and recycling it in two or more successive stages.
6. Harvesting of rainwater to meet water requirements
7. Treating hot water and effluents before releasing them in rivers and ponds. Treatment of industrial
effluents can be done in three phases:
a. Primary treatment by mechanical means. This involves screening, grinding, flocculation and
sedimentation.
b. Secondary treatment by biological process
c. Tertiary treatment by biological, chemical and physical processes. This involves the recycling
of wastewater

Geography Chapter 7 – Lifelines of National Economy

The Solutions for Chapter 7 – Lifelines of National Economy are given below. Students should also
check NCERT Solutions for Class 10 for other subjects.
Page No. – 92
Exercises
1. Multiple choice questions.
A.Which two of the following extreme locations are connected by the east-west corridor?
a. Mumbai and Nagpur
b. Silcher and Purbandar
c. Mumbai and Kolkata
d. Nagpur and Siligudi
Solution:
(b) Silcher and Purbander
B. Which mode of transportation reduces trans-shipment losses and delays?
a. Railways
b. Roadways
c. Pipelines
d. Waterways
Solution:
(c ) Pipelines
C. Which one of the following states is not connected with the H.V.J. pipeline?
a. Madhya Pradesh
b. Maharashtra
c. Gujarat
d. Uttar Pradesh
Solution:
(b) Maharashtra
D. Which one of the following ports is the deepest land-locked and well protected port along the east
coast?
a. Chennai
b. Paradip
c. Tuticorin
d. Vishakhapatnam
Solution:
(d) Vishakhapatnam
E. Which one of the following is the most important mode of transportation in India?
a. Pipeline
b. Railways
c. Roadways
d. Airways
Solution:
(b) Railways
F. Which one of the following terms is used to describe trade between two or more countries?
a. Internal trade
b. International trade
c. External trade
 d. Local trade
Solution:
(b ) International Trade
2. Answer the following questions in about 30 words.
a.State any three merits of roadways.
Solution:
Three merits of roadways are:
1. The construction cost of roads is much lower than that of railway lines
2. Road transport is economical in the transportation of few persons and relatively smaller amount of
goods over short distances
3. Roads can traverse comparatively more dissected and undulating topography.
b. Where and why is rail transport the most convenient means of transportation?
Solution:
Rail transport is the most convenient means of transportation in the northern plains as there are level stretches
of land with high population density and rich agricultural resources.
c. What is the significance of the border roads?
Solution:
Border roads are of strategic importance and these roads in the bordering areas of the country have improved
accessibility in areas of difficult terrain and have helped in the economic development of these areas.
d. What is meant by trade? What is the difference between international and local trade?
Solution:
The exchange of goods among people, states and countries are referred to as trade.
Trade between countries is called international trade.
Local trade is carried out within cities, towns and villages of a country.
3. Answer the following questions in about 120 words.
a. Why are the means of transportation and communication called the lifelines of a nation and its
economy?
Solution:
The means of transportation and communication are called the lifelines of a nation and its economy because
they are the pre-requisites for fast development. Today, India is well-linked with the rest of the world despite
its vast size, diversity and linguistic and socio-cultural plurality. Railways, airways, waterways, newspapers,
radio, cinema, television and internet etc. have been contributing to its socio-economic progress in many ways.
Along with trade, these different means of transport and communication have enriched our life and added
substantially to growing amenities and facilities for the comforts of life.
b.Write a note on the changing nature of international trade in the last fifteen years.
Solution:
Trade between countries is known as international trade. International trade has undergone a vast change in the
last fifteen years. Exchange of goods and commodities have been superseded by the exchange of information
and knowledge. For e.g., – India has emerged as a software giant at the international level, and it is earning
large foreign exchange through the export of information technology.
International trade also depends on the relationship between the countries and other external factors like duties
and tariffs on the transportation of goods. In the last fifteen years, different trade blocks have emerged which
have changed how international trade was conducted previously.