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Project Management PDF
Project Management PDF
According to the Project Management Institute (PMI), project management is defined as “the
application of knowledge, _____, _____, and techniques to project activities to meet the project
requirements”.
Select one:
a. skills, analysis
b. tools, analysis
c. analysis, theories
d. skills, tools
e. skills, theories
2. As a project manager, Tyler is so happy that all expected project deliverable have been
accomplished by his project team. What is the next step for his project to proceed in order to verify
the project scope by his project client?
Select one:
a. Ask his client to pay for the completed project deliverables.
b. Award all of his project team members for such a great accomplishment.
c. Offer a party for his project team and client to celebrate the success of the project.
d. Ask his client to conduct an inspection on all of the completed project deliverables.
e. Invite a few experts to judge the quality of all the completed project deliverables.
Answer : (d) Ask his client to conduct an inspection on all of the completed project
deliverables
Select one:
a. Establish the objectives and scope.
b. Determine the budget.
c. Select the team organizational model.
d. Determine project constraints.
e. Inspect the deliverables.
4. While assessing your project processes, you have identified some uncontrolled process variations.
Which of the following would be the appropriate chart you may use for this purpose?
Select one:
a. Pareto diagram
b. PERT chart
c. Control chart
d. HR personnel chart
e. Critical path
Ans:- C. Control chart
5. Once the project is approved and moves into the planning stage, what happens in the next phase
of the project life cycle?
Select one:
a. Agreements for risk sharing need to be concluded.
b. The total risk on the project typically reduces as activities are performed without loss.
c. Risks must be weighed against the potential benefit of the project’s success in order to
decide if the project should be chosen.
d. Risks are identified with each major group of activities.
e. A risk response plan can be used to identify increasing levels of detailed risk analysis
6. Fill in the blank. Risk must be considered in the _____ phase and weighed against the potential
benefit of the project’s success in order to decide if the project should be chosen.
Select one:
a. completion
b. closeout
c. execution
d. planning
e. initiation
7. Due to the rapid expansion of your company, your boss decides to establish a project
management office (PMO) within the company and asks you to take the lead. According to the
PMBOK guide, to be the ideal PMO you can do which of the following?
Select one:
a. Speed up a specific ongoing project.
b. Find opportunities for collaborative project management.
c. Reassign the resources that have been assigned to ongoing projects.
d. Reduce the assigned resources to existing projects.
e. Reduce the number of project managers in the company.
8. Why does the creation of processes for developing teams, establishing priorities, and distributing
work and tasks require different sets of skills?
Select one:
a. Because resources on the project management team may view it as permanent
b. Because resources on the project management team may view it as temporary
c. Because resources on the project team are not aware of the technical aspects of the
initiative
d. Because members of the project management team are not aware of the knowledge and
skills of the other people working on the project
e. Because project management teams do not look after the operational aspects of the
project and are concerned only with the strategy
Ans – b. Because resources on the project management team may view it as temporary
Question 9. According to Bruce Tuckman’s five stages of team development, project team members
compete for control at which stage?
Select one:
a. Forming
b. Storming
c. Norming
d. Performing
e. Adjourning
10. The project management office (PMO) handles all of the following functions EXCEPT:
Select one:
a. maintaining the organization’s project management policies and procedures.
b. supervising the project managers.
c. assigning project managers from other departments but not procuring contract project
managers.
d. monitoring project performance. e. providing functional support to projects like project
scheduling and project cost analysis
Ans – c. assigning project managers from other departments but not procuring
contract project managers.
11. Under which of the following conditions would teams be more effective than individuals?
Select one:
a. When speed is important
b. When the activities involved in solving the problem are very detailed
c. When the actual document needs to be written
d. When innovation is required
e. When a commitment to the solution is needed by small portions of the project tea
12. Which of the following is the process of understanding the knowledge, skills, and abilities
needed to manage a task and then matching the team members with the right skills to do that
work?
Select one:
a. Benchmarking
b. Expediting
c. Procurement
d. Delegation
e. Solicitation
13. Which of the following defines what tasks the project resources are expected to accomplish and,
just as importantly, what is not part of the project team’s responsibilities?
Select one:
a. Punch list
b. Check sheet
c. Project logic diagram
d. Checklist
e. Scope document
14. After Marta obtained her PMP certificate, her boss assigned her to be in charge of a long-term
project, which a recently resigned project manager, Todd, had been working on for three years.
When Marta looks at historical information that Todd achieved for this project, which of the
following is deemed most critical for Marta to manage her project team?
Select one:
a. Project contract
b. Detailed activity lists and WBS dictionary
c. Legal documents
d. Project lessons
e. Learn who are the project investors
15. Fill in the blank. There is _______ correlation between project complexity and project risk.
Select one:
a. an unknown
b. a positive
c. no
d. a negative
e. a general
16. As a new project manager, Karen was worried about a statement from her client: “your project
deliverable is in low quality with low grade”. According to PMBOK, how can you help Karen
distinguish the differences between “quality” and “grade”?
Select one:
a. Quality and grade represent the same thing.
b. Low quality can never be a problem, but low grade is.
c. Low quality represents a true problem, but low grade might not be the case.
d. Low quality with high grade is always desirable to your client. e. High quality always
represents high grade.
Answer – c. Low quality represents a true problem, but low grade might not be the case
17. Complete the following statement. As a project manager, Darrell is excited that he is assigned to
be in charge of the most important project this year. After being chartered for the project, he
analyzes the information in the project charter and the stakeholder register to:
Select one:
a. decide how to draft a scope statement.
b. start to define and develop the stakeholder needs and requirements. c. prepare for
the template to monitor project progress.
d. estimate the entire project budget.
e. learn how to get project budget approved by stakeholders.
Answer – b. start to define and develop the stakeholder needs and requirements.
18. After Ling finished drafting a new project charter, she sent a copy of the charter to all key
project parties including the project sponsor, senior management and key stakeholders, and
scheduled a kick-off meeting with them. What will be the most important goal for Ling to complete
the project charter?
Select one:
a. Make a professional looking project charter to impress the key project parties.
b. Get confirmation from the key parties that they have read the charter.
c. Invite the key parties for a nice lunch to establish a friendly relationship. d. Gather
promises from the key project players.
e. Obtain officially signed project charters from the key parties.
Answer – e. Obtain officially signed project charters from the key parties.
19. Fill in the blank. During the _________ of a project, the project manager focuses on developing
the project infrastructure needed to execute the project and developing clarity around the project
charter and scope.
Select one:
a. completion
b. start-up
c. execution
d. evaluation
e. selection
20. A project budget estimate that is developed with the least amount of knowledge is known as
which of the following?
Select one:
a. Rough order of magnitude (ROM) estimate
b. Scope of work estimate
c. Conceptual estimate
d. Line estimate
e. Milestone schedule estimate
Select one:
a. Analyze the risks.
b. Estimate the likelihood of the risks occurring.
c. Identify potential project risks.
d. Develop a risk mitigation plan.
e. Estimate the potential impact of risk on the project goals.
22. According to the PMBOK guide, which of the following statements is right in terms of using
reserve analysis to determine a project budget?
Select one:
A. Reserve analysis always plans contingency reserves for unexpected project scope and
project costs, which are part of your project budget.
B. Reserves should not be included in the project budget.
C. If you only have limited resources, you may completely ignore reserve analysis when you
try to determine your project budget.
D. Planning contingency reserves for a project is not practical.
E. Contingency reserves have never been a concern when planning a project budget.
Answer – A. Reserve analysis always plans contingency reserves for unexpected project
scope and project costs, which are part of your project budget.
23. Complete the following statement. As the project progresses into the execution phase:
Select one:
a. risks need to be checked off on activities that have been performed.
b. the total risk on the project typically increases.
c. risks are identified with each major group of activities.
d. a risk response plan can be used to identify increasing levels of detailed risk analysis.
e. the risk breakdown structure needs to be examined to be sure all the risk events have
been avoided.
Answer – a. risks need to be checked off on activities that have been performed.
24. Which of the following statements about achieving a common understanding of the project
purpose is true?
Select one:
a. A common understanding means building a consensus and disagreement regarding a
project’s purpose is often fatal to project execution.
b. Developing a common understanding involves defining project success, determining
potential barriers to success, establishing milestones, and identifying decision-makers.
c. The methods and processes employed to develop a common understanding depend on
the duration of the project.
d. Irrespective of the complexity of the project, developing a common understanding usually
involves informal discussions that last a few hours.
e. When developing a common understanding of the purpose of a project, participants are
often instructed to refrain from expressing skepticism.
25. Which of the following is typically a written document that defines what work will
be accomplished by the end of the project?
Select one:
a. Scope of work (SOW)
b. Project logic diagram
c. Milestone schedule
d. Ballpark estimate
e. Work breakdown structure
26. What is considered to be the most useful skill for a project manager who works in a matrix
environment in order to achieve project goals?
Select one:
a. Leadership skill
b. Influencing
c. Conflict management skill
d. Time management
e. Planning skill
Answer – b. Influencing
27. Marco is an investor, and Jon is a project team member. Both have intensive technical
background for the project that you are managing. However, recently they have disagreed on the
next step to take for the project. They both decide to defer to whoever has the authority to make
this decision. Who has the authority to decide which direction should be taken for the project?
Select one:
a. Project manager
b. Stakeholders
c. The project team
d. Investors
e. The board of trustees of this company
28. As a project manager, while Kathy was trying to categorize all potential risks for her new
construction project M based on levels of probability and impact on the project, she identified a
potential risk, regarding a schedule conflict with another project to obtain critical equipment for a
short time period. Overall, because this risk is probable and might impact her project M, Kathy
wants to record this risk; however, she is confused about where she should document this type of
risk. According to the PMBOK guide, where should Kathy document this risk?
Select one:
a. Watch list
b. Risk management plan
c. Project management plan
d. WBS
e. Scope management plan
29. Which of the following is a quality management system that gives titles to specialists and
requires a cost-benefit analysis?
Select one:
a. Lean accounting
b. Business process re-engineering
c. Kaizen
d. Six Sigma
e. Total Quality Management
Select one:
a. The client has accepted the product.
b. Archives are complete.
c. The client appreciates your product.
d. Lessons learned are documented.
e. Temporary staff is released.
31. As a project manager of Project Cool at the company, Samira is responsible for monitoring and
controlling two project management processes: process A and process B. She recently noticed a
high priority risk X has been imposed on her project process A in Project Cool. While she tried to
control the risk X, she also noticed that a new potential risk Y will be added to process B. Which of
the following best explains this situation?
Select one:
a. If risk Y happens, then it is all Samira’s fault, because she did not do a good job of
carefully monitoring the risks for Project Cool.
b. This is common in practice. Risk Y is a secondary risk caused by Risk X.
c. The potential risk might happen, but Samira can ignore risk Y, as risk X takes higher
priority.
d. Samira is not experienced enough for handling risk management, so her boss will
probably fire her.
e. Risk Y is called a low priority risk, which is not considered to be a real concern, so Samira
should not worry about risk Y.
Answer – b. This is common in practice. Risk Y is a secondary risk caused by Risk X.
32. Roberto is in charge of a new project to help Company A upgrade its old HR system to a
cutting-edge, cross-platform system with the most recent mobile technologies. After his project
team assessed the available system documentations, the team found the existing documentations too
large and complicated to implement the system updates. Roberto advised his team to decompose the
major project deliverables into more executable components. In this project process, Robert
advised his team to do which of the following?
Select one:
a. Document requirements
b. Create WBS
c. Define project scope
d. Verify project scope
e. Plan project milestones
33. Complete the following statement. In a weak matrix environment, the project manager, Eric,
has to constantly make an effort to influence his project team and stakeholders to ensure project
success. This is because:
Select one:
a. Eric has a lot of authority.
b. Eric has no or little authority.
c. Eric is controlled by his functional managers.
d. there are no functional managers.
e. Eric has flexibility on authority.
34. Jack is in charge of a project team. Due to an unexpected project change, some issues with the
project have come up. Two key team members, Samantha and Felix, are arguing their solutions to
the project problems. They cannot convince each other, and their conflict is creating a negative
impact on the project’s progress. As a PMP, which of the following would be the best advice for
Jack to manage this conflict?
Select one:
a. Confront the problem early, and invite both Samantha and Felix to private meetings.
b. Force Felix to give up and to support Samantha.
c. Suggest that Samantha concede to Felix.
d. Let Felix and Samantha exercise their concerns through conflict resolution.
e. Delay this issue for now until it becomes a significant conflict.
Answer – a. Confront the problem early, and invite both Samantha and Felix to private
meetings.
35. Ahmed is actively initiating a project, so he plans to invite all relevant internal and external
stakeholders including sponsors, customers, project teams, etc. for a kick-off meeting. To ensure all
of them are covered in the stakeholder register, which document is the most helpful for Ahmed to
look at?
Select one:
a. Project team activities
b. Scope statement
c. Project charter
d. Work packages
e. Project funding agents
36. Which of the following is a personal characteristic that reflects the truthfulness of an individual
that can be checked against observable facts?
Select one:
a. Objective credibility
b. Attribution of benevolence
c. Non-manipulative trust
d. High cost of lying
e. Acknowledgment of munificence
37. When a project manager starts to plan a new project budget, the cost of which project
management process group is expected to be lowest?
Select one:
a. Initiating
b. Executing
c. Monitoring and controlling
d. Closing
e. Planning
Answer – d. Closing
38. CV = $70,000; AC = 90,000; Budget = $200,000. What percent of the project is complete?
Select one: a. 80% b. 53% c. 45% d. 35% e. 75%
Answer – a. 80%
39. As a project manager, John was finally relieved because a major project led by him was just
announced a success. According to the PMBOK, which of the following has likely happened in
order to consider John’s project a success?
Select one:
a. John’s project has met all of the stakeholders’ expectations.
b. The phase completion of John’s project has been approved.
c. John’s client has paid off the project.
d. John’s boss is happy.
e. John and his team are promoted and get salary increases.
40. As a project manager, Neel has a team member, Kate, who has not been performing well. Due to
many repeated mistakes, she has significantly delayed the whole project progress. Neel tried to
offer relevant trainings for Kate to improve her performance, and he was not able to see any
progress in two months. However, Kate is a single mom with three kids, and she needs this job to
support her family. Based on what you know about conflict management, in this situation, how
should Neel proceed?
Select one:
a. Neel should fire Kate and look for a more qualified team member.
b. Neel should help Kate find another job in the firm.
c. Neel should assign Kate more challenging tasks.
d. Neel should let Kate stay on the job and pick up her slack.
e. Neel should reduce Kate’s salary to reflect her performance.
Answer – a. Neel should fire Kate and look for a more qualified team member
. According to the Project Management Institute (PMI), the scope statement should address all of
the following issues EXCEPT:
Select one:
a. project constraints.
b. project assumptions.s
c. project exclusions.
d. code of conduct for the team members working on the project.
e. project deliverables.
Ans – d. code of conduct for the team members working on the project
2. Fill in the blank. The _____ is the difference between the additional money spent on prevention
and the corresponding reduction in the cost of failure.
Select one:
a. cost-benefit analysis
b. implicit cost
c. cost of quality
d. variable cost
e. cost-utility analysis
3. Which of the following project baselines provides the basis for measurement of the expected cash
flow against requirements over time and is often displayed as an S curve?
Select one:
a. Schedule baseline
b. Cost performance baseline
c. Scope baseline
d. Plan baseline
e. Initiation baseline
4. The conceptual estimate is developed with the least amount of knowledge. When more
information is known, the project team can develop a:
Select one:
a. work breakdown structure
b. critical estimate
c. rough order of magnitude (ROM) estimate
d. scope of work
e. ballpark estimate
5. Petri is working for Nokia in Finland. He has completed 10 months of his 12-month project,
budgeted at $800,000. His earned value analysis shows that variance at completion is $75,000. What
is the estimate at completion value for this project?
Select one:
a. 725,000
b. -725,000
c. -$875,000
d. $875,000
e. $800,000
Ans – d. $875,000
6. Which of the following statements about flowcharts is true?
Select one:
a. Most flowcharts use one width of column to represent a category, while the vertical axis represents the
frequency of occurrence.
b. If a particular method is a standard of quality, you can compare your organization’s quality plan to it by
flowcharting.
c. A flowchart shows the ratio of cost of increasing quality to the resulting benefit.
d. If some of the functions of a project are repetitive, flowcharting can be used to identify trends.
e. Flowcharting is useful for communicating responsibility for work processes.
Ans – e. Flowcharting is useful for communicating responsibility for work processes.
7. During the project meeting, the project manager had to leave earlier due to a family emergency.
Afterwards, a few team members started to argue, so the project meeting took very long without
producing outcomes. What is the possible reason that resulted in the inefficient project meeting in
this scenario?
Select one:
a. No project team ground rules were set up.
b. The current communications plan was very poorly designed.
c. The absence of project manager resulted in inefficiency.
d. There was no incentive mechanism set up to encourage team members to take over more
responsibilities.
e. The project team was not very cooperative.
8. Fill in the blank. Work breakdown structure (WBS) is a ______________ of the work with increasing
detail in each layer.
Select one:
a. layered description
b. step change
c. ballpark estimate
d. project execution plan
e. project logic diagram
9. According to the PMBOK guide which of the following statements is right in terms of using
reserve analysis to determine a project budget ?
Select one:
a. Reserve analysis always plans contingency reserves for unexpected project scope and project costs,
which are part of your project budget.
b. Reserves should not be included in the project budget.
c. If you only have limited resources, you may completely ignore reserve analysis when you try to
determine your project budget.
d. Planning contingency reserves for a project is not practical.
e. Contingency reserves have never been a concern when planning a project budget.
Ans – a. Reserve analysis always plans contingency reserves for unexpected project scope and
project costs, which are part of your project budget.
10. Fill in the blanks. It is during the ______________ phase that the decision should be made regarding
whether the project should continue. During this phase, ____________ must be considered and
weighed against the potential benefit of the project’s success.
Select one:
a. completion, cost
b. closeout, resources
c. execution, performance
d. planning, timing
e. initiation, risk
Select one:
a. Assessing risk management
b. Providing documents that specifically comply with the quality standards in use
c. Emphasizing error prevention and customer satisfaction
d. Requiring commitment to quality by all the employees and business partners
e. Developing a project execution plan that matches the complexity level of the project
Ans – e. Developing a project execution plan that matches the complexity level of the project
12. Fill in the blank. Risk represents the likelihood that an event will happen during the life of the
project that will negatively affect the ________________ of project goals.
Select one:
a. scope creep
b. achievement
c. float
d. rough order of magnitude
e. slack
Select one:
a. Create a contingency plan.
b. Create a risk management plan.
c. Create a WBS.
d. Create a statement of work.
e. Create a scope statement.
14. Fill in the blank. During the _________ of a project, the project manager focuses on developing the
project infrastructure needed to execute the project and developing clarity around the project
charter and scope.
Select one:
a. completion
b. start-up
c. execution
d. evaluation
e. selection
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15. After the celebration of the successful milestone completion, a project manager will often do
which of the following?
Select one:
a. Continue to increase the intensity of the project to achieve the next milestone.
b. Continue to follow the exact same project plan that helped the team achieve the milestone.
c. Allow the team to reflect on finding new ways of approaching the project work.
d. Select an upcoming key event and designate it as the next milestone.
e. Stretch the goals of the project team, making them more tough and rigorous.
Ans – c. Allow the team to reflect on finding new ways of approaching the project work.
16. Once the project is approved and moves into the planning stage, what happens in the next
phase of the project life cycle?
Select one:
a. Agreements for risk sharing need to be concluded.
b. The total risk on the project typically reduces as activities are performed without loss.
c. Risks must be weighed against the potential benefit of the project’s success in order to decide if the
project should be chosen.
d. Risks are identified with each major group of activities.
e. A risk response plan can be used to identify increasing levels of detailed risk analysis
Ans – d. Risks are identified with each major group of activities
17. What is the first step in project planning?
Select one:
a. Establish the objectives and scope.
b. Determine the budget.
c. Select the team organizational model.
d. Determine project constraints.
e. Inspect the deliverables.
18. Fill in the blank. Risk must be considered in the _____ phase and weighed against the potential
benefit of the project’s success in order to decide if the project should be chosen.
Select one:
a. completion
b. closeout
c. execution
d. planning
e. initiation
19. According to PMBOK, project management process groups are iterative, which was originally
defined by Walter Shewhart and later modified by Edward Deming. Generally, one outcome from a
previous process can serve as input for the next process. Which of the following best identifies with
the description of this concept?
Select one:
a. Project life cycle
b. Plan-Do-Check-Act cycle
c. Project phases
d. PM processes
e. HR process cycle
20. Determining the policies that are needed for the smooth execution of a project relates to which
of the following agenda items of alignment sessions?
Select one:
a. Developing a common understanding of the project purpose
b. Establishing trust among team members
c. Engaging stakeholders in dialogue
d. Developing role clarification on projects
e. Agreeing on the means and methods for accomplishing the purpose
Ans – e. They are oriented toward developing plans, tracking progress of existing plans, and making
adjustments to plans in response to new information.
22. Do it because I said to” is the mantra for project managers who use _____ as the default approach
to resolve conflict.
Select one:
a. collaborating
b. compromising
c. accommodating
d. forcing
e. avoiding
23. A(n) _ is a review of the quality plan, procedures, data collection, and analysis by an outside
group. Select one:
a. scope document
b. project appraisal
c. cost performance index
d. analogous estimate
e. quality audit
24. Which of the following is an advantage of including the project manager in the project
evaluation process?
Select one:
a. It enables the project manager to have an understanding of the selection criteria that can be used when
making decisions about the project during later phases.
b. It may indicate a need for project manager skills and experiences that are different from the project
manager who is involved in the evaluation.
c. It allows the parent organization to select a project manager whose abilities match the complexity
profile of the project.
d. It improves the project manager’s level of understanding about the project and ensures that the chosen
project manager is the most suitable individual for executing the project.
e. It helps achieve greater buy-in from the top management of the parent organization.
Ans – a. It enables the project manager to have an understanding of the selection criteria that can
be used when making decisions about the project during later phases.
25. Which of the following statements is true regarding contracts?
Select one:
a. They are the filters through which project members screen information that is shared.
b. They do not lend themselves to create an environment of trust.
c. The success of larger, more complex projects is more dependent on contracts than on relationships of
trust.
d. Without contracts, projects that are highly dependent on an information-rich environment will suffer.
e. Contracts promote the growth of a trusting project culture.
26. Role clarification facilitates the development of all of the following, EXCEPT:
Select one:
a. communication planning.
b. key milestones.
c. work flow organization.
d. approval processes.
e. role boundary spanning processes.
27. During a new project planning process to sequence activities, the project manager, Nate,
decides to use the precedence diagraming method to show the identified activity dependencies.
Which of the following logical relationships is Nate’s least favorite choice?
Select one:
a. Finish-to-start
b. Start-to-finish
c. Finish-to-finish
d. Start-to-start
e. All of these answers
28. In today’s global society, many projects become global. To effectively work together, global
virtual teams have been used in practice. As a project manager for a global project, Jim was told by
a local team member, Shan, that women are not allowed to hold positions of authority because of
the culture of his home country, since Jim hired a female local assistant project manager. How
would you respond to this situation as a PMP?
Select one:
a. Inform your local team member that a non-discrimination policy has to be adopted for this global
project.
b. Replace a local female assistant PM with a male candidate.
c. Do nothing.
d. Ask all project team members to attend a training session on treating different gender members for this
global project equally.
e. Fire the local team member because of his discrimination behavior.
Ans – a. Inform your local team member that a non-discrimination policy has to be adopted for this
global project.
Select one:
a. Project managers analyze work processes and explore opportunities to make improvements.
b. Project managers are focused on the long-term health of the organization.
c. Project managers are process focused.
d. Project managers are goal oriented.
e. Project managers standardize the work processes.
30. Shauna has recently been appointed as a project manager for Project SkyNorth, which is
regarded as an important project in her organization. During the project planning meeting, Shauna
is capable of allocating key resources and personnel that she needs for this project. Which
organizational structure is best for Shauna’s company?
Select one:
a. Balanced matrix organization
b. Matrix organization
c. Functional organization
d. Projectized organization
e. Hierarchical organization
MCQ 31 TO 40
31. Complete the following statement. The method of incorporating change into project planning
and execution processes is called the:
Select one:
a. project logic diagram.
b. change management process.
c. milestone schedule
d. critical path
e. rough order of magnitude
Select one:
a. Benefits are greater than the costs.
b. Costs are greater than the benefits.
c. Costs and benefits are well balanced.
d. Benefits are less than the costs
e. Costs are less than the benefits.
Ans – a. Benefits are greater than the costs.
33. Which of the following establishes key dates throughout the life of a project that must be met
for the project to finish on time?
Select one:
a. Critical path
b. Ballpark estimate
c. Pert diagram
d. Slack chart
e. Milestone schedule
Select one:
a. Project risk focuses on identifying, assessing, and eliminating the risks on the project.
b. Risk management is all about eliminating risk.
c. Project risk is an uncertain event that, even if it occurs, has no effect on project objectives.
d. There are no risk-free projects.
e. Risk management involves identification, evaluation, and elevation of risk
Select one:
a. To understand reports
b. To reflect new information
c. To begin planning the project
d. To teach team members what they need to know about their jobs
e. To establish a trusting project culture
36. Fill in the blank. Crashing refers to when the task duration’s are __ along the critical path to
meet the project completion date.
Select one:
a. scope creep
b. floated
c. slack
d. compressed
e. expedited
37. An Expected Monetary Value (EMV) of $100000 on a potential project event in the project
means which of the following?
Select one:
a. A number that can be ignored
b. An opportunity that must be explored
c. Actual losses on the event
d. Actual investment returns on the event
e. A threat that must be considered to minimize the project risk
38. Which of the following is a form of trust that is built on the examination of the person’s motives
and the conclusion that he or she is not hostile?
Select one:
a. Objective credibility
b. Attribution of benevolence
c. Non-manipulative trust
d. Unequivocal liberality
e. High cost of lying
39. When calculating EVM, Peter noticed that the cumulative planned value is 150% of the
cumulative earned value. What does this mean?
Select one:
a. SPI<1, so the project is behind schedule.
b. SPI>1, so the project is OK to complete on time.
c. SPI<1, so the project is ahead of time.
d. SPI>1, so the project is behind schedule.
e. SPI>1, so the project is on schedule.
40. Fill in the blank. A __ represents the sequence of the activities needed to complete the project.
Select one:
a. work break down structure
b. scope of work
c. project logic diagram
d. run chart
e. step change
—————————————————————
3. Assembling project team and assigning their responsibilities are done during which phase of
a project management?
(A) Initiation
(B) Planning
(C) Execution
(D) Closure
Page: 1 | 2 | 3 | 4
2. A process that involves continuously improving and detailing a plan as more detail become
available is termed as
(A) project analysis
(B) project enhancing
(C) progressive deliberation
(D) progressive elaboration
6. If any one factor of a project changes, _____ other factor(s) is/are likely to be affected.
(A) all
(B) one
(C) at least one
(D) at most one
7. Business Value =
(A) Tangible Elements
(B) Intangible Elements
(C) Tangible Elements – Intangible Elements
(D) Tangible Elements + Intangible Elements
11. The strategy used to correct resource over-allocations by balancing demand for resources
and the available supply is known as
(A) resource assignment
(B) resource leveling
(C) resource splitting
(D) resource scheduling
12. A horizontal bar chart that shows project tasks against a calendar is called
(A) milestone
(B) goal
(C) Gantt chart
(D) PERT chart
13. The statistical tool that depicts a project’s tasks and the relationships between those tasks is
known as
(A) milestone
(B) goal
(C) Gantt chart
(D) PERT chart
16. The scope of the work is defined in which phase of the project management?
(A) Initiating
(B) Planning
(C) Executing
(D) Closing
17. How the project work will be carried out, monitored, and controlled? These questions are
answered in which phase of the project management?
(A) Initiating
(B) Planning
(C) Executing
(D) Closing
18. The review of the successes and the mistakes is normally held during _____ phase.
(A) initiation
(B) planning
(C) execution
(D) closure
19. The business case and the justification for the project is determined during the _____
phase.
(A) initiation
(B) planning
(C) execution
(D) closure
20. According to Olivier Mesly, the 4 P’s critical for the success of a project are:
(A) plan, processes, people, policy
(B) plan, processes, people, power
(C) plan, processes, potential, policy
(D) plan, processes, potential, power
21. In the project management theory, balancing scope, schedule, and cost goals is often termed as
(A) triangular dilemma
(B) triple constraint
(C) fundamental tradeoff
(D) project portfolio management
23. The leadership style where focus is on relationships and community rather than exercising of
power, is termed as
(A) laissez-faire
(B) interactional leadership
(C) servant leadership
(D) oligarchy
24. The basic nature of a project is a/an _____ one.
(A) permanent
(B) temporary
(C) (A) or (B)
(D) Both (A) and (B)
25. Several upgradation tasks done in the same area by the same company might best be managed as
part of a/an
(A) portfolio
(B) program
(C) investment
(D) collaboration
(A) targeted
(B) long-term
(C) tangible
(D) intangible
(A) targeted
(B) long-term
(C) tangible
(D) intangible
(A) scope
(B) objectives
(C) team
(D) all above are included
(A) 0
(B) 1
(C) positive
(D) negative
Suppose an investment of $100 has grown to $110 in one year. What is the return on investment?
(A) 0.1%
(B) 1.0%
(C) 10%
(D) none of these
1-A ____ is a set of activities which are networked in an order and aimed towards achieving the goals
of a project.
(A) Project
(B) Process
2-Resources refers to
(A) Manpower
(B) Machinery
(C) Materials
(A) Process
(B) Project
(C) Scope
6-Following are the phases of Project Management Life Cycle. Arrange them in correct order
(A) 3-2-1-4
(B) 1-2-3-4
(C) 2-3-1-4
(D) 4-3-2-1
(A) Time
(B) Cost
(C) Quality
10-Resorce requirement in project becomes constant while the project is in its _____ progress stage.
(A) 40 to 55%
(B) 55 to 70%
(C) 70 to 80%
(D) 80 to 95%
11-The probability of completing the project can be estimated based upon the ____ .
(A) Uniform distribution curve
(B) Normal distribution curve.
(C) U-shaped distribution curve
(D) None of the above
12-In the initial stage of the project the probability of completing the project is ___ .
(A) Zero
(B) High
(C) Low
(D) Any of the above
13-The entire process of a project may be considered to be made up on number of sub process
placed in different stage called the
(A) Technical key resources
(B) Work key structure
(C) Work Breakdown Structure (WBS).
(D) None of the above
14-Tool used for comparison of the proposed project to complete projects of a similar nature whose
costs are known.
(A) Algorithmic model
(B) Expert judgment
(C) Top down
(D) Analogy
15-Each component of the software product is separately estimated and the results aggregated to
produce an estimate for the overall job.
(A) Algorithmic model
(B) Expert judgment
(C) Bottom-up
(D) Top down
16-Following is (are) the component(s) of risk management
(A) Risk Assessment
(B) Risk Control
(C) Risk Ranking
(D) All of the above
17-Following are the characteristics of Project Mindset.
(A) Time, Responsiveness, Information sharing, Processes, structured planning
(B) Time, Project management, Information sharing, Processes, structured planning
(C) Time, Responsiveness, Information sharing, capability, structured planning
(D) Time, Responsiveness, Information sharing, Processes, project planning
18-“Devising and maintaining a workable scheme to accomplish the business need” is
(A) Initiating process
(B) Planning process
(C) Executing process
(D) Controlling process
19-Controlling the changes in the project may affect
(A) The progress of the project
(B) Stage cost
(C) Project scope
(D) All of the above
20-Following is (are) the tool(s) for changing a process
(A) Change Management System (CMS)
(B) Configuration Management (CM)
(C) Both (A) and (B)
(D) None of the above
a. Scope
b. Resources
c. Team
d. Budget
3. The project you are managing has nine stakeholders. How many channel of
communications are there between these stakeholders?
a. 9
b. 8
c. 45
d. 36
a. Contract
b. email
d. Status meeting
5. A Project with a total funding of $100,000 finished with a BAC value of $95,000.
What term can BEST describe the difference of $5,000?
A. Cost Variance
B. Management Overhead
D. Schedule Variance
8. Which of the following types of Organizational Charts can be BEST used to track
project costs :
A. Performance Analysis
B. Quality Metrics
A. Process Analysis
B. Quality Audits
D. Performance Measurements
A. Inspection
B. Statistical Sampling
C. Flowcharting
D. Control Charting
13. Andrew has joined as the Project Manager of a project. One of the project
documents available to Andrew lists down all the risks in a hierarchical fashion.
What is this document called?
a. Risk Management Plan.
b. List of risks.
14. During which stage of Risk planning are risks prioritized based on probability
and impact?
a. Identify Risks
C. Project Officer
D. Project Stakeholder
16. Which of the following does NOT generate changes to the Project documents:
A. Define Activities
B. Sequence Activities
A. Define Activities
B. Sequence Activities
18. A schedule activity may begin 10 days before the predecessor activity finishes.
This is an example of:
A. Finish-to-Start
B. Start-to-Finish
C. Start-to-Start
D. Finish-to-Finish
19. Sam Consultancy is planning to buy ten desktops for $1500 each from a leading
computer store. Which type of contract will get signed in this case?
A. Purchase Order
C. Fixed cost
20. Alice is a Project Manager. She is coordinating a bidder conference to allow
vendors to get clarification on the work that needs to be performed. Which phase
of Project Management is in progress.
A. Conduct Procurements
B. Plan Procurements
C. Control Procurements
D. Close Procurements
21. The process of Control Procurements falls under which process group
A. Planning
B. Closing
D. Executing
b. Quality assurance provides confidence to stakeholders that requirements for quality will be
exceeded.
c. Quality control verifies that the project deliverables conform to specification, are fit for
purpose and meet stakeholder expectations.
d. Quality planning enables the project manager to manage the trade-off between customer
expectations and budget.
b. A problem that the project manager has to deal with on a day-to-day basis.
d. sub-contractor’s responsibilities.
7. Which one of the following statements best defines the purpose of a Product
Breakdown Structure (PBS)?
a. To define the hierarchy of deliverables that are required to be produced on the project.
b. To define how the products are produced by identifying derivations and dependencies.
c. To establish the extent of work required prior to project commissioning and the handover.
d. To identify the health and safety strategies and procedures to be used on the project.
9. Which one of the following is a valid project Key Performance Indicator (KPI)?
a. Staff appraisals.
c. Milestone achievement.
d. Master schedule.
a. The business case is owned by the sponsor and is created during the concept phase of the
project life cycle.
b. The business case is owned by the project manager and is created during the concept phase of
the project life cycle.
c. The business case is owned by the sponsor and is created during definition phase of the
project life cycle.
d. The business case is owned by the project manager and is created during the definition phase
of the project life cycle.
a. to be the sole source of expertise for estimating techniques on cost and time.
d. to delegate all accountability for managing time, cost and quality to team leaders.
14. A project is typically defined in terms of scope, time, cost and which other
parameter?
a. Benefits.
b. Quality.
c. Tolerance.
d. Controls.
16. What is defined as “the ability to influence and align others towards a common
purpose”?
a. Teamwork.
b. Motivation.
c. Management.
d. Leadership.
c. It is best to have a standard set of project reports used for every project.
19. The main outcome of risk identification, in a risk management process, is to:
a. identify and determine the relative importance of the project risks.
b. identify and describe all risks that might occur on the project.
a. Identifying resources.
b. Influencing resources.
21. Which one of the following does project change control primarily seek to
ensure?
22. Which one of the following is captured in the Work Breakdown Structure
(WBS)?
a. An approximation of project time and cost targets, refined throughout the project life cycle.
c. The value of useful work done at any given point in a project to give a measure of progress.
d. A situation that affects or influences the outcome of the project expressed in time or cost
terms.
b. procurement strategy.
c. business case.
26. Which one of the following is a responsibility of the project steering
group/board?
27. One of the reasons a project life cycle is split into phases is to:
a. A project is a set of tools and techniques often used when delivering organisational change.
b. A project is the sum of activities needed to remove uncertainty from a unique piece of work.
c. A unique transient endeavor undertaken to achieve a desired outcome.
30. The document that identifies what information needs to be shared, to whom,
why, when and how is called the:
32. The process that evaluates overall project performance to provide confidence
is called:
a. quality assurance.
b. quality planning.
c. quality control.
d. quality audit.
33. Which one of the following statements about the project risk register is false?
a. A technique to establish the best approach for obtaining the resources for the project.
b. A group of interrelated resources and activities that transform inputs into outputs.
c. The description of the purpose, form and components to support delivery of a product.
d. The process by which products and services required for the project are acquired.
35. Once a change has been requested what is the next step in the change control
process?
a. the reporting structure and current availability of all individuals in the project.
b. technical ability and line of communication for all individuals in the project.
c. lines of communication and responsibility for all the individual managers in the project.
d. the reporting structure and lines of communication for all individuals in the projects.
38. Which one of the following best describes project success criteria?
c. Achievement of milestones.
d. A party who has a financial stake in the organization managing the project.
a. provide justification for undertaking the project in terms of evaluating the benefit, cost and
risk of alternative options.
b. ensure the project sponsor has tight control of the project manager’s activity.
c. document the outcomes of the planning process and provide the reference document for
managing
the project.
d. document the outcome of the risk, change and configuration management processes.
a. Steering group.
b. Risk owner.
c. Project sponsor.
d. Project manager.
43. When a project has completed the handover and closure phase:
b. the project deliverables are ready for handing over to the users.
44. Which one of the following illustrates why effective project management is
beneficial to an organization?
d. It ensures that the chief executive is accountable for the achievement of the defined benefits.
47. A review undertaken to decide whether a project should proceed into its next
phase is known as a:
a. gate review.
b. feasibility study.
c. milestone review.
d. evaluation review.
48. Which one of the following statements best describes the use of an issue log?
49. The main aim of a project risk management process should be to:
50. What is a visual representation of a project’s planned activities against a
calendar called?
a. A Gantt chart.
d. A Pareto chart.
55. Which one of the following is true for the Project Management Plan (PMP)?
a. The Project Management Plan is developed by the project manager and team and owned by
the sponsor.
b. A draft of the Project Management Plan is developed by the sponsor at the same time as the
business case.
c. The Project Management Plan is developed by the sponsor and owned by the project manager.
d. The Project Management Plan is developed by the project manager and team and owned by
the project manager.
a. External stakeholders.
1-A ____ is a set of activities which are networked in an order and aimed towards
achieving the goals of a project.
(A) Project
(B) Process
2-Resources refers to
(A) Manpower
(B) Machinery
(C) Materials
(A) Process
(B) Project
(C) Scope
6-Following are the phases of Project Management Life Cycle. Arrange them in
correct order
(A) 3-2-1-4
(B) 1-2-3-4
(C) 2-3-1-4
(D) 4-3-2-1
(A) Time
(B) Cost
(C) Quality
(B) 55 to 70%
(C) 70 to 80%
(D) 80 to 95%
11-The probability of completing the project can be estimated based upon the ____
.
12-In the initial stage of the project the probability of completing the project is ___
.
(A) Zero
(B) High
(C) Low
(D) Analogy
15-Each component of the software product is separately estimated and the results
aggregated to produce an estimate for the overall job.
(C) Bottom-up
10. An independent relationship must exist between the attribute that can be
measured and the external quality attribute.
a) True
b) False
6. Which of the following is/are main parameters that you should use when
computing the costs of a software development project?
a) travel and training costs
b) hardware and software costs
c) effort costs (the costs of paying software engineers and managers)
d) all of the mentioned
4. The process each manager follows during the life of a project is known as
a) Project Management
b) Manager life cycle
c) Project Management Life Cycle
d) All of the mentioned
2. Project managers have to assess the risks that may affect a project.
a) True
b) False
1. According to the Project Management Institute (PMI), project management is defined as “the
application of knowledge, _____, _____, and techniques to project activities to meet the project
requirements”.
Select one:
a. skills, analysis
b. tools, analysis
c. analysis, theories
d. skills, tools
e. skills, theories
2. As a project manager, Tyler is so happy that all expected project deliverable have been
accomplished by his project team. What is the next step for his project to proceed in order to verify
the project scope by his project client?
Select one:
a. Ask his client to pay for the completed project deliverables.
b. Award all of his project team members for such a great accomplishment.
c. Offer a party for his project team and client to celebrate the success of the project.
d. Ask his client to conduct an inspection on all of the completed project deliverables.
e. Invite a few experts to judge the quality of all the completed project deliverables.
Answer : (d) Ask his client to conduct an inspection on all of the completed project
deliverables
Select one:
a. Establish the objectives and scope.
b. Determine the budget.
c. Select the team organizational model.
d. Determine project constraints.
e. Inspect the deliverables.
4. While assessing your project processes, you have identified some uncontrolled process variations.
Which of the following would be the appropriate chart you may use for this purpose?
Select one:
a. Pareto diagram
b. PERT chart
c. Control chart
d. HR personnel chart
e. Critical path
Ans:- C. Control chart
5. Once the project is approved and moves into the planning stage, what happens in the next phase
of the project life cycle?
Select one:
a. Agreements for risk sharing need to be concluded.
b. The total risk on the project typically reduces as activities are performed without loss.
c. Risks must be weighed against the potential benefit of the project’s success in order to
decide if the project should be chosen.
d. Risks are identified with each major group of activities.
e. A risk response plan can be used to identify increasing levels of detailed risk analysis
6. Fill in the blank. Risk must be considered in the _____ phase and weighed against the potential
benefit of the project’s success in order to decide if the project should be chosen.
Select one:
a. completion
b. closeout
c. execution
d. planning
e. initiation
7. Due to the rapid expansion of your company, your boss decides to establish a project
management office (PMO) within the company and asks you to take the lead. According to the
PMBOK guide, to be the ideal PMO you can do which of the following?
Select one:
a. Speed up a specific ongoing project.
b. Find opportunities for collaborative project management.
c. Reassign the resources that have been assigned to ongoing projects.
d. Reduce the assigned resources to existing projects.
e. Reduce the number of project managers in the company.
8. Why does the creation of processes for developing teams, establishing priorities, and distributing
work and tasks require different sets of skills?
Select one:
a. Because resources on the project management team may view it as permanent
b. Because resources on the project management team may view it as temporary
c. Because resources on the project team are not aware of the technical aspects of the
initiative
d. Because members of the project management team are not aware of the knowledge and
skills of the other people working on the project
e. Because project management teams do not look after the operational aspects of the
project and are concerned only with the strategy
Ans – b. Because resources on the project management team may view it as temporary
Question 9. According to Bruce Tuckman’s five stages of team development, project team members
compete for control at which stage?
Select one:
a. Forming
b. Storming
c. Norming
d. Performing
e. Adjourning
10. The project management office (PMO) handles all of the following functions EXCEPT:
Select one:
a. maintaining the organization’s project management policies and procedures.
b. supervising the project managers.
c. assigning project managers from other departments but not procuring contract project
managers.
d. monitoring project performance. e. providing functional support to projects like project
scheduling and project cost analysis
Ans – c. assigning project managers from other departments but not procuring
contract project managers.
11. Under which of the following conditions would teams be more effective than individuals?
Select one:
a. When speed is important
b. When the activities involved in solving the problem are very detailed
c. When the actual document needs to be written
d. When innovation is required
e. When a commitment to the solution is needed by small portions of the project tea
12. Which of the following is the process of understanding the knowledge, skills, and abilities
needed to manage a task and then matching the team members with the right skills to do that
work?
Select one:
a. Benchmarking
b. Expediting
c. Procurement
d. Delegation
e. Solicitation
13. Which of the following defines what tasks the project resources are expected to accomplish and,
just as importantly, what is not part of the project team’s responsibilities?
Select one:
a. Punch list
b. Check sheet
c. Project logic diagram
d. Checklist
e. Scope document
14. After Marta obtained her PMP certificate, her boss assigned her to be in charge of a long-term
project, which a recently resigned project manager, Todd, had been working on for three years.
When Marta looks at historical information that Todd achieved for this project, which of the
following is deemed most critical for Marta to manage her project team?
Select one:
a. Project contract
b. Detailed activity lists and WBS dictionary
c. Legal documents
d. Project lessons
e. Learn who are the project investors
15. Fill in the blank. There is _______ correlation between project complexity and project risk.
Select one:
a. an unknown
b. a positive
c. no
d. a negative
e. a general
16. As a new project manager, Karen was worried about a statement from her client: “your project
deliverable is in low quality with low grade”. According to PMBOK, how can you help Karen
distinguish the differences between “quality” and “grade”?
Select one:
a. Quality and grade represent the same thing.
b. Low quality can never be a problem, but low grade is.
c. Low quality represents a true problem, but low grade might not be the case.
d. Low quality with high grade is always desirable to your client. e. High quality always
represents high grade.
Answer – c. Low quality represents a true problem, but low grade might not be the case
17. Complete the following statement. As a project manager, Darrell is excited that he is assigned to
be in charge of the most important project this year. After being chartered for the project, he
analyzes the information in the project charter and the stakeholder register to:
Select one:
a. decide how to draft a scope statement.
b. start to define and develop the stakeholder needs and requirements. c. prepare for
the template to monitor project progress.
d. estimate the entire project budget.
e. learn how to get project budget approved by stakeholders.
Answer – b. start to define and develop the stakeholder needs and requirements.
18. After Ling finished drafting a new project charter, she sent a copy of the charter to all key
project parties including the project sponsor, senior management and key stakeholders, and
scheduled a kick-off meeting with them. What will be the most important goal for Ling to complete
the project charter?
Select one:
a. Make a professional looking project charter to impress the key project parties.
b. Get confirmation from the key parties that they have read the charter.
c. Invite the key parties for a nice lunch to establish a friendly relationship. d. Gather
promises from the key project players.
e. Obtain officially signed project charters from the key parties.
Answer – e. Obtain officially signed project charters from the key parties.
19. Fill in the blank. During the _________ of a project, the project manager focuses on developing
the project infrastructure needed to execute the project and developing clarity around the project
charter and scope.
Select one:
a. completion
b. start-up
c. execution
d. evaluation
e. selection
20. A project budget estimate that is developed with the least amount of knowledge is known as
which of the following?
Select one:
a. Rough order of magnitude (ROM) estimate
b. Scope of work estimate
c. Conceptual estimate
d. Line estimate
e. Milestone schedule estimate
Select one:
a. Analyze the risks.
b. Estimate the likelihood of the risks occurring.
c. Identify potential project risks.
d. Develop a risk mitigation plan.
e. Estimate the potential impact of risk on the project goals.
22. According to the PMBOK guide, which of the following statements is right in terms of using
reserve analysis to determine a project budget?
Select one:
A. Reserve analysis always plans contingency reserves for unexpected project scope and
project costs, which are part of your project budget.
B. Reserves should not be included in the project budget.
C. If you only have limited resources, you may completely ignore reserve analysis when you
try to determine your project budget.
D. Planning contingency reserves for a project is not practical.
E. Contingency reserves have never been a concern when planning a project budget.
Answer – A. Reserve analysis always plans contingency reserves for unexpected project
scope and project costs, which are part of your project budget.
23. Complete the following statement. As the project progresses into the execution phase:
Select one:
a. risks need to be checked off on activities that have been performed.
b. the total risk on the project typically increases.
c. risks are identified with each major group of activities.
d. a risk response plan can be used to identify increasing levels of detailed risk analysis.
e. the risk breakdown structure needs to be examined to be sure all the risk events have
been avoided.
Answer – a. risks need to be checked off on activities that have been performed.
24. Which of the following statements about achieving a common understanding of the project
purpose is true?
Select one:
a. A common understanding means building a consensus and disagreement regarding a
project’s purpose is often fatal to project execution.
b. Developing a common understanding involves defining project success, determining
potential barriers to success, establishing milestones, and identifying decision-makers.
c. The methods and processes employed to develop a common understanding depend on
the duration of the project.
d. Irrespective of the complexity of the project, developing a common understanding usually
involves informal discussions that last a few hours.
e. When developing a common understanding of the purpose of a project, participants are
often instructed to refrain from expressing skepticism.
Select one:
a. Scope of work (SOW)
b. Project logic diagram
c. Milestone schedule
d. Ballpark estimate
e. Work breakdown structure
26. What is considered to be the most useful skill for a project manager who works in a matrix
environment in order to achieve project goals?
Select one:
a. Leadership skill
b. Influencing
c. Conflict management skill
d. Time management
e. Planning skill
27. Marco is an investor, and Jon is a project team member. Both have intensive technical
background for the project that you are managing. However, recently they have disagreed on the
next step to take for the project. They both decide to defer to whoever has the authority to make
this decision. Who has the authority to decide which direction should be taken for the project?
Select one:
a. Project manager
b. Stakeholders
c. The project team
d. Investors
e. The board of trustees of this company
28. As a project manager, while Kathy was trying to categorize all potential risks for her new
construction project M based on levels of probability and impact on the project, she identified a
potential risk, regarding a schedule conflict with another project to obtain critical equipment for a
short time period. Overall, because this risk is probable and might impact her project M, Kathy
wants to record this risk; however, she is confused about where she should document this type of
risk. According to the PMBOK guide, where should Kathy document this risk?
Select one:
a. Watch list
b. Risk management plan
c. Project management plan
d. WBS
e. Scope management plan
29. Which of the following is a quality management system that gives titles to specialists and
requires a cost-benefit analysis?
Select one:
a. Lean accounting
b. Business process re-engineering
c. Kaizen
d. Six Sigma
e. Total Quality Management
Select one:
a. The client has accepted the product.
b. Archives are complete.
c. The client appreciates your product.
d. Lessons learned are documented.
e. Temporary staff is released.
31. As a project manager of Project Cool at the company, Samira is responsible for monitoring and
controlling two project management processes: process A and process B. She recently noticed a
high priority risk X has been imposed on her project process A in Project Cool. While she tried to
control the risk X, she also noticed that a new potential risk Y will be added to process B. Which of
the following best explains this situation?
Select one:
a. If risk Y happens, then it is all Samira’s fault, because she did not do a good job of
carefully monitoring the risks for Project Cool.
b. This is common in practice. Risk Y is a secondary risk caused by Risk X.
c. The potential risk might happen, but Samira can ignore risk Y, as risk X takes higher
priority.
d. Samira is not experienced enough for handling risk management, so her boss will
probably fire her.
e. Risk Y is called a low priority risk, which is not considered to be a real concern, so Samira
should not worry about risk Y.
Answer – b. This is common in practice. Risk Y is a secondary risk caused by Risk X.
32. Roberto is in charge of a new project to help Company A upgrade its old HR system to a
cutting-edge, cross-platform system with the most recent mobile technologies. After his project
team assessed the available system documentations, the team found the existing documentations too
large and complicated to implement the system updates. Roberto advised his team to decompose the
major project deliverables into more executable components. In this project process, Robert
advised his team to do which of the following?
Select one:
a. Document requirements
b. Create WBS
c. Define project scope
d. Verify project scope
e. Plan project milestones
33. Complete the following statement. In a weak matrix environment, the project manager, Eric,
has to constantly make an effort to influence his project team and stakeholders to ensure project
success. This is because:
Select one:
a. Eric has a lot of authority.
b. Eric has no or little authority.
c. Eric is controlled by his functional managers.
d. there are no functional managers.
e. Eric has flexibility on authority.
Select one:
a. Confront the problem early, and invite both Samantha and Felix to private meetings.
b. Force Felix to give up and to support Samantha.
c. Suggest that Samantha concede to Felix.
d. Let Felix and Samantha exercise their concerns through conflict resolution.
e. Delay this issue for now until it becomes a significant conflict.
Answer – a. Confront the problem early, and invite both Samantha and Felix to private
meetings.
35. Ahmed is actively initiating a project, so he plans to invite all relevant internal and external
stakeholders including sponsors, customers, project teams, etc. for a kick-off meeting. To ensure all
of them are covered in the stakeholder register, which document is the most helpful for Ahmed to
look at?
Select one:
a. Project team activities
b. Scope statement
c. Project charter
d. Work packages
e. Project funding agents
36. Which of the following is a personal characteristic that reflects the truthfulness of an individual
that can be checked against observable facts?
Select one:
a. Objective credibility
b. Attribution of benevolence
c. Non-manipulative trust
d. High cost of lying
e. Acknowledgment of munificence
Answer – a. Objective credibility
37. When a project manager starts to plan a new project budget, the cost of which project
management process group is expected to be lowest?
Select one:
a. Initiating
b. Executing
c. Monitoring and controlling
d. Closing
e. Planning
Answer – d. Closing
38. CV = $70,000; AC = 90,000; Budget = $200,000. What percent of the project is complete?
Answer – a. 80%
39. As a project manager, John was finally relieved because a major project led by him was just
announced a success. According to the PMBOK, which of the following has likely happened in
order to consider John’s project a success?
Select one:
a. John’s project has met all of the stakeholders’ expectations.
b. The phase completion of John’s project has been approved.
c. John’s client has paid off the project.
d. John’s boss is happy.
e. John and his team are promoted and get salary increases.
40. As a project manager, Neel has a team member, Kate, who has not been performing well. Due to
many repeated mistakes, she has significantly delayed the whole project progress. Neel tried to
offer relevant trainings for Kate to improve her performance, and he was not able to see any
progress in two months. However, Kate is a single mom with three kids, and she needs this job to
support her family. Based on what you know about conflict management, in this situation, how
should Neel proceed?
Select one:
a. Neel should fire Kate and look for a more qualified team member.
b. Neel should help Kate find another job in the firm.
c. Neel should assign Kate more challenging tasks.
d. Neel should let Kate stay on the job and pick up her slack.
e. Neel should reduce Kate’s salary to reflect her performance.
Answer – a. Neel should fire Kate and look for a more qualified team member
1. According to the Project Management Institute (PMI), the scope statement should address all of
the following issues EXCEPT:
Select one:
a. project constraints.
b. project assumptions.s
c. project exclusions.
d. code of conduct for the team members working on the project.
e. project deliverables.
Ans – d. code of conduct for the team members working on the project
2. Fill in the blank. The _____ is the difference between the additional money spent on prevention
and the corresponding reduction in the cost of failure.
Select one:
a. cost-benefit analysis
b. implicit cost
c. cost of quality
d. variable cost
e. cost-utility analysis
3. Which of the following project baselines provides the basis for measurement of the expected cash
flow against requirements over time and is often displayed as an S curve?
Select one:
a. Schedule baseline
b. Cost performance baseline
c. Scope baseline
d. Plan baseline
e. Initiation baseline
4. The conceptual estimate is developed with the least amount of knowledge. When more
information is known, the project team can develop a:
Select one:
a. work breakdown structure
b. critical estimate
c. rough order of magnitude (ROM) estimate
d. scope of work
e. ballpark estimate
5. Petri is working for Nokia in Finland. He has completed 10 months of his 12-month project,
budgeted at $800,000. His earned value analysis shows that variance at completion is $75,000. What
is the estimate at completion value for this project?
Select one:
a. 725,000
b. -725,000
c. -$875,000
d. $875,000
e. $800,000
Ans – d. $875,000
Select one:
a. Most flowcharts use one width of column to represent a category, while the vertical axis represents the
frequency of occurrence.
b. If a particular method is a standard of quality, you can compare your organization’s quality plan to it by
flowcharting.
c. A flowchart shows the ratio of cost of increasing quality to the resulting benefit.
d. If some of the functions of a project are repetitive, flowcharting can be used to identify trends.
e. Flowcharting is useful for communicating responsibility for work processes.
Ans – e. Flowcharting is useful for communicating responsibility for work processes.
7. During the project meeting, the project manager had to leave earlier due to a family emergency.
Afterwards, a few team members started to argue, so the project meeting took very long without
producing outcomes. What is the possible reason that resulted in the inefficient project meeting in
this scenario?
Select one:
a. No project team ground rules were set up.
b. The current communications plan was very poorly designed.
c. The absence of project manager resulted in inefficiency.
d. There was no incentive mechanism set up to encourage team members to take over more
responsibilities.
e. The project team was not very cooperative.
Select one:
a. layered description
b. step change
c. ballpark estimate
d. project execution plan
e. project logic diagram
9. According to the PMBOK guide which of the following statements is right in terms of using
reserve analysis to determine a project budget ?
Select one:
a. Reserve analysis always plans contingency reserves for unexpected project scope and project costs,
which are part of your project budget.
b. Reserves should not be included in the project budget.
c. If you only have limited resources, you may completely ignore reserve analysis when you try to
determine your project budget.
d. Planning contingency reserves for a project is not practical.
e. Contingency reserves have never been a concern when planning a project budget.
Ans – a. Reserve analysis always plans contingency reserves for unexpected project scope and
project costs, which are part of your project budget.
10. Fill in the blanks. It is during the ______________ phase that the decision should be made regarding
whether the project should continue. During this phase, ____________ must be considered and
weighed against the potential benefit of the project’s success.
Select one:
a. completion, cost
b. closeout, resources
c. execution, performance
d. planning, timing
e. initiation, risk
Ans – e. Developing a project execution plan that matches the complexity level of the project
12. Fill in the blank. Risk represents the likelihood that an event will happen during the life of the
project that will negatively affect the ________________ of project goals.
Select one:
a. scope creep
b. achievement
c. float
d. rough order of magnitude
e. slack
13. What should be done by the project manager to ensure that all the work in the project is
included?
Select one:
a. Create a contingency plan.
b. Create a risk management plan.
c. Create a WBS.
d. Create a statement of work.
e. Create a scope statement.
14. Fill in the blank. During the _________ of a project, the project manager focuses on developing the
project infrastructure needed to execute the project and developing clarity around the project
charter and scope.
Select one:
a. completion
b. start-up
c. execution
d. evaluation
e. selection
15. After the celebration of the successful milestone completion, a project manager will often do
which of the following?
Select one:
a. Continue to increase the intensity of the project to achieve the next milestone.
b. Continue to follow the exact same project plan that helped the team achieve the milestone.
c. Allow the team to reflect on finding new ways of approaching the project work.
d. Select an upcoming key event and designate it as the next milestone.
e. Stretch the goals of the project team, making them more tough and rigorous.
Ans – c. Allow the team to reflect on finding new ways of approaching the project work.
16. Once the project is approved and moves into the planning stage, what happens in the next
phase of the project life cycle?
Select one:
a. Agreements for risk sharing need to be concluded.
b. The total risk on the project typically reduces as activities are performed without loss.
c. Risks must be weighed against the potential benefit of the project’s success in order to decide if the
project should be chosen.
d. Risks are identified with each major group of activities.
e. A risk response plan can be used to identify increasing levels of detailed risk analysis
Ans – d. Risks are identified with each major group of activities
Select one:
a. Establish the objectives and scope.
b. Determine the budget.
c. Select the team organizational model.
d. Determine project constraints.
e. Inspect the deliverables.
18. Fill in the blank. Risk must be considered in the _____ phase and weighed against the potential
benefit of the project’s success in order to decide if the project should be chosen.
Select one:
a. completion
b. closeout
c. execution
d. planning
e. initiation
19. According to PMBOK, project management process groups are iterative, which was originally
defined by Walter Shewhart and later modified by Edward Deming. Generally, one outcome from a
previous process can serve as input for the next process. Which of the following best identifies with
the description of this concept?
Select one:
a. Project life cycle
b. Plan-Do-Check-Act cycle
c. Project phases
d. PM processes
e. HR process cycle
20. Determining the policies that are needed for the smooth execution of a project relates to which
of the following agenda items of alignment sessions?
Select one:
a. Developing a common understanding of the project purpose
b. Establishing trust among team members
c. Engaging stakeholders in dialogue
d. Developing role clarification on projects
e. Agreeing on the means and methods for accomplishing the purpose
Select one:
a. They are short meetings to develop a common understanding of what the short-term priorities are for
the project.
b. They focus on short-term activities, usually less than a week in duration.
c. They are purely fact-based meetings with a left-brain type focus.
d. They have very little dialogue except to ask clarification questions.
e. They are oriented toward developing plans, tracking progress of existing plans, and making adjustments
to plans in response to new information.
Ans – e. They are oriented toward developing plans, tracking progress of existing plans, and making
adjustments to plans in response to new information.
22. Do it because I said to” is the mantra for project managers who use _____ as the default approach
to resolve conflict.
Select one:
a. collaborating
b. compromising
c. accommodating
d. forcing
e. avoiding
23. A(n) _ is a review of the quality plan, procedures, data collection, and analysis by an outside
group. Select one:
a. scope document
b. project appraisal
c. cost performance index
d. analogous estimate
e. quality audit
24. Which of the following is an advantage of including the project manager in the project
evaluation process?
Select one:
a. It enables the project manager to have an understanding of the selection criteria that can be used when
making decisions about the project during later phases.
b. It may indicate a need for project manager skills and experiences that are different from the project
manager who is involved in the evaluation.
c. It allows the parent organization to select a project manager whose abilities match the complexity
profile of the project.
d. It improves the project manager’s level of understanding about the project and ensures that the chosen
project manager is the most suitable individual for executing the project.
e. It helps achieve greater buy-in from the top management of the parent organization.
Ans – a. It enables the project manager to have an understanding of the selection criteria that can
be used when making decisions about the project during later phases.
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25. Which of the following statements is true regarding contracts?
Select one:
a. They are the filters through which project members screen information that is shared.
b. They do not lend themselves to create an environment of trust.
c. The success of larger, more complex projects is more dependent on contracts than on relationships of
trust.
d. Without contracts, projects that are highly dependent on an information-rich environment will suffer.
e. Contracts promote the growth of a trusting project culture.
26. Role clarification facilitates the development of all of the following, EXCEPT:
Select one:
a. communication planning.
b. key milestones.
c. work flow organization.
d. approval processes.
e. role boundary spanning processes.
Select one:
a. Finish-to-start
b. Start-to-finish
c. Finish-to-finish
d. Start-to-start
e. All of these answers
28. In today’s global society, many projects become global. To effectively work together, global
virtual teams have been used in practice. As a project manager for a global project, Jim was told by
a local team member, Shan, that women are not allowed to hold positions of authority because of
the culture of his home country, since Jim hired a female local assistant project manager. How
would you respond to this situation as a PMP?
Select one:
a. Inform your local team member that a non-discrimination policy has to be adopted for this global
project.
b. Replace a local female assistant PM with a male candidate.
c. Do nothing.
d. Ask all project team members to attend a training session on treating different gender members for this
global project equally.
e. Fire the local team member because of his discrimination behavior.
Ans – a. Inform your local team member that a non-discrimination policy has to be adopted for this
global project.
Select one:
a. Project managers analyze work processes and explore opportunities to make improvements.
b. Project managers are focused on the long-term health of the organization.
c. Project managers are process focused.
d. Project managers are goal oriented.
e. Project managers standardize the work processes.
30. Shauna has recently been appointed as a project manager for Project SkyNorth, which is
regarded as an important project in her organization. During the project planning meeting, Shauna
is capable of allocating key resources and personnel that she needs for this project. Which
organizational structure is best for Shauna’s company?
Select one:
a. Balanced matrix organization
b. Matrix organization
c. Functional organization
d. Projectized organization
e. Hierarchical organization
MCQ 31 TO 40
31. Complete the following statement. The method of incorporating change into project planning
and execution processes is called the:
Select one:
a. project logic diagram.
b. change management process.
c. milestone schedule
d. critical path
e. rough order of magnitude
Select one:
a. Benefits are greater than the costs.
b. Costs are greater than the benefits.
c. Costs and benefits are well balanced.
d. Benefits are less than the costs
e. Costs are less than the benefits.
33. Which of the following establishes key dates throughout the life of a project that must be met
for the project to finish on time?
Select one:
a. Critical path
b. Ballpark estimate
c. Pert diagram
d. Slack chart
e. Milestone schedule
Select one:
a. Project risk focuses on identifying, assessing, and eliminating the risks on the project.
b. Risk management is all about eliminating risk.
c. Project risk is an uncertain event that, even if it occurs, has no effect on project objectives.
d. There are no risk-free projects.
e. Risk management involves identification, evaluation, and elevation of risk
Ans – d. There are no risk-free projects.
Select one:
a. To understand reports
b. To reflect new information
c. To begin planning the project
d. To teach team members what they need to know about their jobs
e. To establish a trusting project culture
36. Fill in the blank. Crashing refers to when the task duration’s are __ along the critical path to
meet the project completion date.
Select one:
a. scope creep
b. floated
c. slack
d. compressed
e. expedited
37. An Expected Monetary Value (EMV) of $100000 on a potential project event in the project
means which of the following?
Select one:
a. A number that can be ignored
b. An opportunity that must be explored
c. Actual losses on the event
d. Actual investment returns on the event
e. A threat that must be considered to minimize the project risk
38. Which of the following is a form of trust that is built on the examination of the person’s motives
and the conclusion that he or she is not hostile?
Select one:
a. Objective credibility
b. Attribution of benevolence
c. Non-manipulative trust
d. Unequivocal liberality
e. High cost of lying
Select one:
a. SPI<1, so the project is behind schedule.
b. SPI>1, so the project is OK to complete on time.
c. SPI<1, so the project is ahead of time.
d. SPI>1, so the project is behind schedule.
e. SPI>1, so the project is on schedule.
40. Fill in the blank. A __ represents the sequence of the activities needed to complete the project.
Select one:
a. work break down structure
b. scope of work
c. project logic diagram
d. run chart
e. step change