1.

According to the Project Management Institute (PMI), project management is defined as “the
application of knowledge, _____, _____, and techniques to project activities to meet the project
requirements”.

Select one:
a. skills, analysis
b. tools, analysis
c. analysis, theories
d. skills, tools
e. skills, theories

Answer : (D) skills, tools

2. As a project manager, Tyler is so happy that all expected project deliverable have been
accomplished by his project team. What is the next step for his project to proceed in order to verify
the project scope by his project client?

Select one:
a. Ask his client to pay for the completed project deliverables.
b. Award all of his project team members for such a great accomplishment.
c. Offer a party for his project team and client to celebrate the success of the project.
d. Ask his client to conduct an inspection on all of the completed project deliverables.
e. Invite a few experts to judge the quality of all the completed project deliverables.

Answer : (d) Ask his client to conduct an inspection on all of the completed project
deliverables

3. What is the first step in project planning?

Select one:
a. Establish the objectives and scope.
b. Determine the budget.
c. Select the team organizational model.
d. Determine project constraints.
e. Inspect the deliverables.

Answer : (a) Establish the objectives and scope

4. While assessing your project processes, you have identified some uncontrolled process variations.
Which of the following would be the appropriate chart you may use for this purpose?
Select one:
a. Pareto diagram
b. PERT chart
c. Control chart
d. HR personnel chart
e. Critical path

Ans:- C. Control chart

5. Once the project is approved and moves into the planning stage, what happens in the next phase
of the project life cycle?

Select one:
a. Agreements for risk sharing need to be concluded.
b. The total risk on the project typically reduces as activities are performed without loss.
c. Risks must be weighed against the potential benefit of the project’s success in order to
decide if the project should be chosen.
d. Risks are identified with each major group of activities.
e. A risk response plan can be used to identify increasing levels of detailed risk analysis

Answer : – D. Risks are identified with each major group of activities.

6. Fill in the blank. Risk must be considered in the _____ phase and weighed against the potential
benefit of the project’s success in order to decide if the project should be chosen.

Select one:
a. completion
b. closeout
c. execution
d. planning
e. initiation

Answer is – (E) initiation

7. Due to the rapid expansion of your company, your boss decides to establish a project
management office (PMO) within the company and asks you to take the lead. According to the
PMBOK guide, to be the ideal PMO you can do which of the following?

Select one:
a. Speed up a specific ongoing project.
b. Find opportunities for collaborative project management.
c. Reassign the resources that have been assigned to ongoing projects.
d. Reduce the assigned resources to existing projects.
e. Reduce the number of project managers in the company.

Ans – B. Find opportunities for collaborative project management

8. Why does the creation of processes for developing teams, establishing priorities, and distributing
work and tasks require different sets of skills?

Select one:
a. Because resources on the project management team may view it as permanent
b. Because resources on the project management team may view it as temporary
c. Because resources on the project team are not aware of the technical aspects of the
initiative
d. Because members of the project management team are not aware of the knowledge and
skills of the other people working on the project
e. Because project management teams do not look after the operational aspects of the
project and are concerned only with the strategy

Ans – b. Because resources on the project management team may view it as temporary

Question 9. According to Bruce Tuckman’s five stages of team development, project team members
compete for control at which stage?

Select one:
a. Forming
b. Storming
c. Norming
d. Performing
e. Adjourning

Answer- (b) Storming

10. The project management office (PMO) handles all of the following functions EXCEPT:

Select one:
a. maintaining the organization’s project management policies and procedures.
b. supervising the project managers.
c. assigning project managers from other departments but not procuring contract project
managers.
d. monitoring project performance. e. providing functional support to projects like project
scheduling and project cost analysis
Ans – c. assigning project managers from other departments but not procuring
contract project managers.

11. Under which of the following conditions would teams be more effective than individuals?

Select one:
a. When speed is important
b. When the activities involved in solving the problem are very detailed
c. When the actual document needs to be written
d. When innovation is required
e. When a commitment to the solution is needed by small portions of the project tea

Ans – d. When innovation is required

12. Which of the following is the process of understanding the knowledge, skills, and abilities
needed to manage a task and then matching the team members with the right skills to do that
work?

Select one:
a. Benchmarking
b. Expediting
c. Procurement
d. Delegation
e. Solicitation

Ans – d. Delegation

13. Which of the following defines what tasks the project resources are expected to accomplish and,
just as importantly, what is not part of the project team’s responsibilities?

Select one:
a. Punch list
b. Check sheet
c. Project logic diagram
d. Checklist
e. Scope document

Ans – e. Scope document

14. After Marta obtained her PMP certificate, her boss assigned her to be in charge of a long-term
project, which a recently resigned project manager, Todd, had been working on for three years.
When Marta looks at historical information that Todd achieved for this project, which of the
following is deemed most critical for Marta to manage her project team?

Select one:
a. Project contract
b. Detailed activity lists and WBS dictionary
c. Legal documents
d. Project lessons
e. Learn who are the project investors

Ans – b. Detailed activity lists and WBS dictionary

15. Fill in the blank. There is _______ correlation between project complexity and project risk.
Select one:

a. an unknown
b. a positive
c. no
d. a negative
e. a general

Ans – b. a positive

16. As a new project manager, Karen was worried about a statement from her client: “your project
deliverable is in low quality with low grade”. According to PMBOK, how can you help Karen
distinguish the differences between “quality” and “grade”?

Select one:
a. Quality and grade represent the same thing.
b. Low quality can never be a problem, but low grade is.
c. Low quality represents a true problem, but low grade might not be the case.
d. Low quality with high grade is always desirable to your client. e. High quality always
represents high grade.

Answer – c. Low quality represents a true problem, but low grade might not be the case

17. Complete the following statement. As a project manager, Darrell is excited that he is assigned to
be in charge of the most important project this year. After being chartered for the project, he
analyzes the information in the project charter and the stakeholder register to:
Select one:
a. decide how to draft a scope statement.
b. start to define and develop the stakeholder needs and requirements. c. prepare for
the template to monitor project progress.
d. estimate the entire project budget.
e. learn how to get project budget approved by stakeholders.

Answer – b. start to define and develop the stakeholder needs and requirements.

18. After Ling finished drafting a new project charter, she sent a copy of the charter to all key
project parties including the project sponsor, senior management and key stakeholders, and
scheduled a kick-off meeting with them. What will be the most important goal for Ling to complete
the project charter?

Select one:
a. Make a professional looking project charter to impress the key project parties.
b. Get confirmation from the key parties that they have read the charter.
c. Invite the key parties for a nice lunch to establish a friendly relationship. d. Gather
promises from the key project players.
e. Obtain officially signed project charters from the key parties.

Answer – e. Obtain officially signed project charters from the key parties.

19. Fill in the blank. During the _________ of a project, the project manager focuses on developing
the project infrastructure needed to execute the project and developing clarity around the project
charter and scope.

Select one:
a. completion
b. start-up
c. execution
d. evaluation
e. selection

Answer – b. start-up

20. A project budget estimate that is developed with the least amount of knowledge is known as
which of the following?

Select one:
a. Rough order of magnitude (ROM) estimate
b. Scope of work estimate
c. Conceptual estimate
d. Line estimate
e. Milestone schedule estimate

Answer – c. Conceptual estimate

21. What is the first step in developing a risk management plan?

Select one:
a. Analyze the risks.
b. Estimate the likelihood of the risks occurring.
c. Identify potential project risks.
d. Develop a risk mitigation plan.
e. Estimate the potential impact of risk on the project goals.

Answer – c. Identify potential project risks

22. According to the PMBOK guide, which of the following statements is right in terms of using
reserve analysis to determine a project budget?

Select one:
A. Reserve analysis always plans contingency reserves for unexpected project scope and
project costs, which are part of your project budget.
B. Reserves should not be included in the project budget.
C. If you only have limited resources, you may completely ignore reserve analysis when you
try to determine your project budget.
D. Planning contingency reserves for a project is not practical.
E. Contingency reserves have never been a concern when planning a project budget.

Answer – A. Reserve analysis always plans contingency reserves for unexpected project
scope and project costs, which are part of your project budget.

23. Complete the following statement. As the project progresses into the execution phase:

Select one:
a. risks need to be checked off on activities that have been performed.
b. the total risk on the project typically increases.
c. risks are identified with each major group of activities.
d. a risk response plan can be used to identify increasing levels of detailed risk analysis.
e. the risk breakdown structure needs to be examined to be sure all the risk events have
been avoided.
Answer – a. risks need to be checked off on activities that have been performed.

24. Which of the following statements about achieving a common understanding of the project
purpose is true?

Select one:
a. A common understanding means building a consensus and disagreement regarding a
project’s purpose is often fatal to project execution.
b. Developing a common understanding involves defining project success, determining
potential barriers to success, establishing milestones, and identifying decision-makers.
c. The methods and processes employed to develop a common understanding depend on
the duration of the project.
d. Irrespective of the complexity of the project, developing a common understanding usually
involves informal discussions that last a few hours.
e. When developing a common understanding of the purpose of a project, participants are
often instructed to refrain from expressing skepticism.

Answer – b. Developing a common understanding involves defining project success,

determining potential barriers to success, establishing milestones, and identifying
decision-makers.

25. Which of the following is typically a written document that defines what work will
be accomplished by the end of the project?

Select one:
a. Scope of work (SOW)
b. Project logic diagram
c. Milestone schedule
d. Ballpark estimate
e. Work breakdown structure

Answer – a. Scope of work (SOW)

26. What is considered to be the most useful skill for a project manager who works in a matrix
environment in order to achieve project goals?

Select one:
a. Leadership skill
b. Influencing
c. Conflict management skill
d. Time management
e. Planning skill
Answer – b. Influencing

27. Marco is an investor, and Jon is a project team member. Both have intensive technical
background for the project that you are managing. However, recently they have disagreed on the
next step to take for the project. They both decide to defer to whoever has the authority to make
this decision. Who has the authority to decide which direction should be taken for the project?

Select one:
a. Project manager
b. Stakeholders
c. The project team
d. Investors
e. The board of trustees of this company

Answer – c. The project team

28. As a project manager, while Kathy was trying to categorize all potential risks for her new
construction project M based on levels of probability and impact on the project, she identified a
potential risk, regarding a schedule conflict with another project to obtain critical equipment for a
short time period. Overall, because this risk is probable and might impact her project M, Kathy
wants to record this risk; however, she is confused about where she should document this type of
risk. According to the PMBOK guide, where should Kathy document this risk?

Select one:
a. Watch list
b. Risk management plan
c. Project management plan
d. WBS
e. Scope management plan

Answer – d. WBS

29. Which of the following is a quality management system that gives titles to specialists and
requires a cost-benefit analysis?

Select one:
a. Lean accounting
b. Business process re-engineering
c. Kaizen
d. Six Sigma
e. Total Quality Management

Answer – d. Six Sigma

30. Which one of the following is the last step of project closings?

Select one:
a. The client has accepted the product.
b. Archives are complete.
c. The client appreciates your product.
d. Lessons learned are documented.
e. Temporary staff is released.

Answer – b. Archives are complete.

31. As a project manager of Project Cool at the company, Samira is responsible for monitoring and
controlling two project management processes: process A and process B. She recently noticed a
high priority risk X has been imposed on her project process A in Project Cool. While she tried to
control the risk X, she also noticed that a new potential risk Y will be added to process B. Which of
the following best explains this situation?

Select one:
a. If risk Y happens, then it is all Samira’s fault, because she did not do a good job of
carefully monitoring the risks for Project Cool.
b. This is common in practice. Risk Y is a secondary risk caused by Risk X.
c. The potential risk might happen, but Samira can ignore risk Y, as risk X takes higher
priority.
d. Samira is not experienced enough for handling risk management, so her boss will
probably fire her.
e. Risk Y is called a low priority risk, which is not considered to be a real concern, so Samira
should not worry about risk Y.

Answer – b. This is common in practice. Risk Y is a secondary risk caused by Risk X.

32. Roberto is in charge of a new project to help Company A upgrade its old HR system to a
cutting-edge, cross-platform system with the most recent mobile technologies. After his project
team assessed the available system documentations, the team found the existing documentations too
large and complicated to implement the system updates. Roberto advised his team to decompose the
major project deliverables into more executable components. In this project process, Robert
advised his team to do which of the following?

Select one:
a. Document requirements
b. Create WBS
c. Define project scope
d. Verify project scope
e. Plan project milestones

Answer – b. Create WBS

33. Complete the following statement. In a weak matrix environment, the project manager, Eric,
has to constantly make an effort to influence his project team and stakeholders to ensure project
success. This is because:

Select one:
a. Eric has a lot of authority.
b. Eric has no or little authority.
c. Eric is controlled by his functional managers.
d. there are no functional managers.
e. Eric has flexibility on authority.

Answer – b. Eric has no or little authority.

34. Jack is in charge of a project team. Due to an unexpected project change, some issues with the
project have come up. Two key team members, Samantha and Felix, are arguing their solutions to
the project problems. They cannot convince each other, and their conflict is creating a negative
impact on the project’s progress. As a PMP, which of the following would be the best advice for
Jack to manage this conflict?

Select one:
a. Confront the problem early, and invite both Samantha and Felix to private meetings.
b. Force Felix to give up and to support Samantha.
c. Suggest that Samantha concede to Felix.
d. Let Felix and Samantha exercise their concerns through conflict resolution.
e. Delay this issue for now until it becomes a significant conflict.

Answer – a. Confront the problem early, and invite both Samantha and Felix to private
meetings.
35. Ahmed is actively initiating a project, so he plans to invite all relevant internal and external
stakeholders including sponsors, customers, project teams, etc. for a kick-off meeting. To ensure all
of them are covered in the stakeholder register, which document is the most helpful for Ahmed to
look at?

Select one:
a. Project team activities
b. Scope statement
c. Project charter
d. Work packages
e. Project funding agents

Answer – c. Project charter

36. Which of the following is a personal characteristic that reflects the truthfulness of an individual
that can be checked against observable facts?

Select one:
a. Objective credibility
b. Attribution of benevolence
c. Non-manipulative trust
d. High cost of lying
e. Acknowledgment of munificence

Answer – a. Objective credibility

37. When a project manager starts to plan a new project budget, the cost of which project
management process group is expected to be lowest?

Select one:
a. Initiating
b. Executing
c. Monitoring and controlling
d. Closing
e. Planning

Answer – d. Closing

38. CV = $70,000; AC = 90,000; Budget = $200,000. What percent of the project is complete?
Select one: a. 80% b. 53% c. 45% d. 35% e. 75%

Answer – a. 80%

39. As a project manager, John was finally relieved because a major project led by him was just
announced a success. According to the PMBOK, which of the following has likely happened in
order to consider John’s project a success?

Select one:
a. John’s project has met all of the stakeholders’ expectations.
b. The phase completion of John’s project has been approved.
c. John’s client has paid off the project.
d. John’s boss is happy.
e. John and his team are promoted and get salary increases.

Answer – c. John’s client has paid off the project.

40. As a project manager, Neel has a team member, Kate, who has not been performing well. Due to
many repeated mistakes, she has significantly delayed the whole project progress. Neel tried to
offer relevant trainings for Kate to improve her performance, and he was not able to see any
progress in two months. However, Kate is a single mom with three kids, and she needs this job to
support her family. Based on what you know about conflict management, in this situation, how
should Neel proceed?

Select one:
a. Neel should fire Kate and look for a more qualified team member.
b. Neel should help Kate find another job in the firm.
c. Neel should assign Kate more challenging tasks.
d. Neel should let Kate stay on the job and pick up her slack.
e. Neel should reduce Kate’s salary to reflect her performance.

Answer – a. Neel should fire Kate and look for a more qualified team member

. According to the Project Management Institute (PMI), the scope statement should address all of
the following issues EXCEPT:

Select one:
a. project constraints.
b. project assumptions.s
c. project exclusions.
d. code of conduct for the team members working on the project.
e. project deliverables.
Ans – d. code of conduct for the team members working on the project

2. Fill in the blank. The _____ is the difference between the additional money spent on prevention
and the corresponding reduction in the cost of failure.

Select one:
a. cost-benefit analysis
b. implicit cost
c. cost of quality
d. variable cost
e. cost-utility analysis

Ans- c. cost of quality

3. Which of the following project baselines provides the basis for measurement of the expected cash
flow against requirements over time and is often displayed as an S curve?

Select one:
a. Schedule baseline
b. Cost performance baseline
c. Scope baseline
d. Plan baseline
e. Initiation baseline

Ans – b. Cost performance baseline

4. The conceptual estimate is developed with the least amount of knowledge. When more
information is known, the project team can develop a:

Select one:
a. work breakdown structure
b. critical estimate
c. rough order of magnitude (ROM) estimate
d. scope of work
e. ballpark estimate

Ans – c. rough order of magnitude (ROM) estimate

5. Petri is working for Nokia in Finland. He has completed 10 months of his 12-month project,
budgeted at $800,000. His earned value analysis shows that variance at completion is $75,000. What
is the estimate at completion value for this project?

Select one:
a. 725,000
b. -725,000
c. -$875,000
d. $875,000
e. $800,000

Ans – d. $875,000
6. Which of the following statements about flowcharts is true?

Select one:
a. Most flowcharts use one width of column to represent a category, while the vertical axis represents the
frequency of occurrence.
b. If a particular method is a standard of quality, you can compare your organization’s quality plan to it by
flowcharting.
c. A flowchart shows the ratio of cost of increasing quality to the resulting benefit.
d. If some of the functions of a project are repetitive, flowcharting can be used to identify trends.
e. Flowcharting is useful for communicating responsibility for work processes.

Ans – e. Flowcharting is useful for communicating responsibility for work processes.

7. During the project meeting, the project manager had to leave earlier due to a family emergency.
Afterwards, a few team members started to argue, so the project meeting took very long without
producing outcomes. What is the possible reason that resulted in the inefficient project meeting in
this scenario?

Select one:
a. No project team ground rules were set up.
b. The current communications plan was very poorly designed.
c. The absence of project manager resulted in inefficiency.
d. There was no incentive mechanism set up to encourage team members to take over more
responsibilities.
e. The project team was not very cooperative.

Ans – a. No project team ground rules were set up.

8. Fill in the blank. Work breakdown structure (WBS) is a ______________ of the work with increasing
detail in each layer.

Select one:
a. layered description
b. step change
c. ballpark estimate
d. project execution plan
e. project logic diagram

Ans – a. layered description

9. According to the PMBOK guide which of the following statements is right in terms of using
reserve analysis to determine a project budget ?
Select one:
a. Reserve analysis always plans contingency reserves for unexpected project scope and project costs,
which are part of your project budget.
b. Reserves should not be included in the project budget.
c. If you only have limited resources, you may completely ignore reserve analysis when you try to
determine your project budget.
d. Planning contingency reserves for a project is not practical.
e. Contingency reserves have never been a concern when planning a project budget.

Ans – a. Reserve analysis always plans contingency reserves for unexpected project scope and
project costs, which are part of your project budget.

10. Fill in the blanks. It is during the ______________ phase that the decision should be made regarding
whether the project should continue. During this phase, ____________ must be considered and
weighed against the potential benefit of the project’s success.

Select one:
a. completion, cost
b. closeout, resources
c. execution, performance
d. planning, timing
e. initiation, risk

Ans – e. initiation, risk

11 TO 20 MCQ FOR PROJECT MANAGEMENT

11. What is the most critical aspect in developing a project plan that meets project specifications
within the timeframe and at the lowest costs?

Select one:
a. Assessing risk management
b. Providing documents that specifically comply with the quality standards in use
c. Emphasizing error prevention and customer satisfaction
d. Requiring commitment to quality by all the employees and business partners
e. Developing a project execution plan that matches the complexity level of the project

Ans – e. Developing a project execution plan that matches the complexity level of the project

12. Fill in the blank. Risk represents the likelihood that an event will happen during the life of the
project that will negatively affect the ________________ of project goals.

Select one:
a. scope creep
b. achievement
c. float
d. rough order of magnitude
e. slack

Ans – b. achievement

13. What should be done by the project manager to ensure that all the work in the project is
included?

Select one:
a. Create a contingency plan.
b. Create a risk management plan.
c. Create a WBS.
d. Create a statement of work.
e. Create a scope statement.

Ans – c. Create a WBS

14. Fill in the blank. During the _________ of a project, the project manager focuses on developing the
project infrastructure needed to execute the project and developing clarity around the project
charter and scope.

Select one:
a. completion
b. start-up
c. execution
d. evaluation
e. selection

Ans – b. start-up

Free download e-book Manifestation Magic Guide – The Ultimate Wealth Creation System
Click here to download ( Close if ad opens and double click on download )
15. After the celebration of the successful milestone completion, a project manager will often do
which of the following?

Select one:
a. Continue to increase the intensity of the project to achieve the next milestone.
b. Continue to follow the exact same project plan that helped the team achieve the milestone.
c. Allow the team to reflect on finding new ways of approaching the project work.
d. Select an upcoming key event and designate it as the next milestone.
e. Stretch the goals of the project team, making them more tough and rigorous.

Ans – c. Allow the team to reflect on finding new ways of approaching the project work.

16. Once the project is approved and moves into the planning stage, what happens in the next
phase of the project life cycle?

Select one:
a. Agreements for risk sharing need to be concluded.
b. The total risk on the project typically reduces as activities are performed without loss.
c. Risks must be weighed against the potential benefit of the project’s success in order to decide if the
project should be chosen.
d. Risks are identified with each major group of activities.
e. A risk response plan can be used to identify increasing levels of detailed risk analysis

Ans – d. Risks are identified with each major group of activities
17. What is the first step in project planning?

Select one:
a. Establish the objectives and scope.
b. Determine the budget.
c. Select the team organizational model.
d. Determine project constraints.
e. Inspect the deliverables.

Ans – a. Establish the objectives and scope.

18. Fill in the blank. Risk must be considered in the _____ phase and weighed against the potential
benefit of the project’s success in order to decide if the project should be chosen.

Select one:
a. completion
b. closeout
c. execution
d. planning
e. initiation

Ans – e. initiation

19. According to PMBOK, project management process groups are iterative, which was originally
defined by Walter Shewhart and later modified by Edward Deming. Generally, one outcome from a
previous process can serve as input for the next process. Which of the following best identifies with
the description of this concept?

Select one:
a. Project life cycle
b. Plan-Do-Check-Act cycle
c. Project phases
d. PM processes
e. HR process cycle

Ans – b. Plan-Do-Check-Act cycle

20. Determining the policies that are needed for the smooth execution of a project relates to which
of the following agenda items of alignment sessions?

Select one:
a. Developing a common understanding of the project purpose
b. Establishing trust among team members
c. Engaging stakeholders in dialogue
d. Developing role clarification on projects
e. Agreeing on the means and methods for accomplishing the purpose

Ans – d. Developing role clarification on projects

21 TO 30 MCQ FOR PROJECT MANAGEMENT

21. Which of the following is true about management meetings?
Select one:
a. They are short meetings to develop a common understanding of what the short-term priorities are for
the project.
b. They focus on short-term activities, usually less than a week in duration.
c. They are purely fact-based meetings with a left-brain type focus.
d. They have very little dialogue except to ask clarification questions.
e. They are oriented toward developing plans, tracking progress of existing plans, and making adjustments
to plans in response to new information.

Ans – e. They are oriented toward developing plans, tracking progress of existing plans, and making
adjustments to plans in response to new information.

22. Do it because I said to” is the mantra for project managers who use _____ as the default approach
to resolve conflict.

Select one:
a. collaborating
b. compromising
c. accommodating
d. forcing
e. avoiding

Ans – d. forcing

23. A(n) _ is a review of the quality plan, procedures, data collection, and analysis by an outside
group. Select one:

a. scope document
b. project appraisal
c. cost performance index
d. analogous estimate
e. quality audit

Ans – e. quality audit

24. Which of the following is an advantage of including the project manager in the project
evaluation process?

Select one:
a. It enables the project manager to have an understanding of the selection criteria that can be used when
making decisions about the project during later phases.
b. It may indicate a need for project manager skills and experiences that are different from the project
manager who is involved in the evaluation.
c. It allows the parent organization to select a project manager whose abilities match the complexity
profile of the project.
d. It improves the project manager’s level of understanding about the project and ensures that the chosen
project manager is the most suitable individual for executing the project.
e. It helps achieve greater buy-in from the top management of the parent organization.

Ans – a. It enables the project manager to have an understanding of the selection criteria that can
be used when making decisions about the project during later phases.
25. Which of the following statements is true regarding contracts?

Select one:
a. They are the filters through which project members screen information that is shared.
b. They do not lend themselves to create an environment of trust.
c. The success of larger, more complex projects is more dependent on contracts than on relationships of
trust.
d. Without contracts, projects that are highly dependent on an information-rich environment will suffer.
e. Contracts promote the growth of a trusting project culture.

Ans – b. They do not lend themselves to create an environment of trust.

26. Role clarification facilitates the development of all of the following, EXCEPT:

Select one:
a. communication planning.
b. key milestones.
c. work flow organization.
d. approval processes.
e. role boundary spanning processes.

Ans – b. key milestones.

27. During a new project planning process to sequence activities, the project manager, Nate,
decides to use the precedence diagraming method to show the identified activity dependencies.
Which of the following logical relationships is Nate’s least favorite choice?

Select one:
a. Finish-to-start
b. Start-to-finish
c. Finish-to-finish
d. Start-to-start
e. All of these answers

Ans – b. Start-to-finish

28. In today’s global society, many projects become global. To effectively work together, global
virtual teams have been used in practice. As a project manager for a global project, Jim was told by
a local team member, Shan, that women are not allowed to hold positions of authority because of
the culture of his home country, since Jim hired a female local assistant project manager. How
would you respond to this situation as a PMP?

Select one:
a. Inform your local team member that a non-discrimination policy has to be adopted for this global
project.
b. Replace a local female assistant PM with a male candidate.
c. Do nothing.
d. Ask all project team members to attend a training session on treating different gender members for this
global project equally.
e. Fire the local team member because of his discrimination behavior.
Ans – a. Inform your local team member that a non-discrimination policy has to be adopted for this
global project.

29. Which of the following is true about a project manager?

Select one:
a. Project managers analyze work processes and explore opportunities to make improvements.
b. Project managers are focused on the long-term health of the organization.
c. Project managers are process focused.
d. Project managers are goal oriented.
e. Project managers standardize the work processes.

Ans – d. Project managers are goal oriented.

30. Shauna has recently been appointed as a project manager for Project SkyNorth, which is
regarded as an important project in her organization. During the project planning meeting, Shauna
is capable of allocating key resources and personnel that she needs for this project. Which
organizational structure is best for Shauna’s company?

Select one:
a. Balanced matrix organization
b. Matrix organization
c. Functional organization
d. Projectized organization
e. Hierarchical organization

Ans – d. Projectized organization

MCQ 31 TO 40
31. Complete the following statement. The method of incorporating change into project planning
and execution processes is called the:

Select one:
a. project logic diagram.
b. change management process.
c. milestone schedule
d. critical path
e. rough order of magnitude

Ans – b. change management process

32. BCR>1 indicates which of the following?

Select one:
a. Benefits are greater than the costs.
b. Costs are greater than the benefits.
c. Costs and benefits are well balanced.
d. Benefits are less than the costs
e. Costs are less than the benefits.
Ans – a. Benefits are greater than the costs.

33. Which of the following establishes key dates throughout the life of a project that must be met
for the project to finish on time?

Select one:
a. Critical path
b. Ballpark estimate
c. Pert diagram
d. Slack chart
e. Milestone schedule

Ans – e. Milestone schedule

34. Which of the following statements about risk is true?

Select one:
a. Project risk focuses on identifying, assessing, and eliminating the risks on the project.
b. Risk management is all about eliminating risk.
c. Project risk is an uncertain event that, even if it occurs, has no effect on project objectives.
d. There are no risk-free projects.
e. Risk management involves identification, evaluation, and elevation of risk

Ans – d. There are no risk-free projects.

35. Why are changes to the project scope necessary?

Select one:
a. To understand reports
b. To reflect new information
c. To begin planning the project
d. To teach team members what they need to know about their jobs
e. To establish a trusting project culture

Ans – b. To reflect new information

36. Fill in the blank. Crashing refers to when the task duration’s are __ along the critical path to
meet the project completion date.

Select one:
a. scope creep
b. floated
c. slack
d. compressed
e. expedited

Ans – d. compressed

37. An Expected Monetary Value (EMV) of $100000 on a potential project event in the project
means which of the following?
Select one:
a. A number that can be ignored
b. An opportunity that must be explored
c. Actual losses on the event
d. Actual investment returns on the event
e. A threat that must be considered to minimize the project risk

Ans – b. An opportunity that must be explored

38. Which of the following is a form of trust that is built on the examination of the person’s motives
and the conclusion that he or she is not hostile?

Select one:
a. Objective credibility
b. Attribution of benevolence
c. Non-manipulative trust
d. Unequivocal liberality
e. High cost of lying

Ans – b. Attribution of benevolence

39. When calculating EVM, Peter noticed that the cumulative planned value is 150% of the
cumulative earned value. What does this mean?

Select one:
a. SPI<1, so the project is behind schedule.
b. SPI>1, so the project is OK to complete on time.
c. SPI<1, so the project is ahead of time.
d. SPI>1, so the project is behind schedule.
e. SPI>1, so the project is on schedule.

Ans – a. SPI<1, so the project is behind schedule.

40. Fill in the blank. A __ represents the sequence of the activities needed to complete the project.

Select one:
a. work break down structure
b. scope of work
c. project logic diagram
d. run chart
e. step change

Ans – c. project logic diagram

—————————————————————

 The PERT in project management means program evaluation and _____ technique.

(A) resource
(B) reconciliation
(C) reconsideration
(D) review
2. “Risk” is usually _______ as the project progresses.
(A) increases
(B) reduces
(C) remains same
(D) becomes negligible

3. Assembling project team and assigning their responsibilities are done during which phase of
a project management?
(A) Initiation
(B) Planning
(C) Execution
(D) Closure

ANSWER: PROJECT MANAGEMENT MCQ

1. (D) review
2. (B) reduces
3. (A) Initiation. See below ↓ for regular project management questions. Answers to the
following project management quiz are given after the fifth MCQ.

Page: 1 | 2 | 3 | 4

1. The basic nature of a project is a/an _____ one.

(A) permanent
(B) temporary
(C) (A) or (B)
(D) Both (A) and (B)

2. A process that involves continuously improving and detailing a plan as more detail become
available is termed as
(A) project analysis
(B) project enhancing
(C) progressive deliberation
(D) progressive elaboration

3. A program is usually a group of

(A) plans
(B) people and work
(C) related projects
(D) unrelated projects

4. Which from the following statement(s) is/are NOT true?

I. Projects have defined objectives
II. Programs have a larger scope than projects
III. The projects and programs in a portfolio must be directly related
(A) I only
(B) II only
(C) III only
(D) II and III only

5. Projects management is divided in _____ process groups.

(A) 5
(B) 7
(C) 9
(D) 11

6. If any one factor of a project changes, _____ other factor(s) is/are likely to be affected.
(A) all
(B) one
(C) at least one
(D) at most one

7. Business Value =
(A) Tangible Elements
(B) Intangible Elements
(C) Tangible Elements – Intangible Elements
(D) Tangible Elements + Intangible Elements

8. Which from the following is NOT a tangible element?

(A) Fixtures
(B) Trademarks
(C) Monetary assets
(D) Stockholder equity

9. Which from the following is NOT an intangible element?

(A) Utility
(B) Public benefit
(C) Brand recognition
(D) Good will

10. Which from the following represents the correct project cycle?

(A) Planning→Initiating→Executing→Closing
(B) Planning→Executing→Initiating→Closing
(C) Initiating→Planning→Executing→Closing
(D) Initiating→Executing→Planning→Closing

11. The strategy used to correct resource over-allocations by balancing demand for resources
and the available supply is known as
(A) resource assignment
(B) resource leveling
(C) resource splitting
(D) resource scheduling

12. A horizontal bar chart that shows project tasks against a calendar is called
(A) milestone
(B) goal
(C) Gantt chart
(D) PERT chart

13. The statistical tool that depicts a project’s tasks and the relationships between those tasks is
known as
(A) milestone
(B) goal
(C) Gantt chart
(D) PERT chart

14. Which of the following statement(s) is/are true about a Project?

I. It brings change
II. It has risk
III. The outcome is certain
(A) I only
(B) II only
(C) I and II only
(D) I, II, and III

15. Which of the following is NOT a part of project management?

(A) initiating
(B) monitoring
(C) closing
(D) All above are parts

16. The scope of the work is defined in which phase of the project management?
(A) Initiating
(B) Planning
(C) Executing
(D) Closing

17. How the project work will be carried out, monitored, and controlled? These questions are
answered in which phase of the project management?
(A) Initiating
(B) Planning
(C) Executing
(D) Closing

18. The review of the successes and the mistakes is normally held during _____ phase.
(A) initiation
(B) planning
(C) execution
(D) closure

19. The business case and the justification for the project is determined during the _____
phase.
(A) initiation
(B) planning
(C) execution
(D) closure

20. According to Olivier Mesly, the 4 P’s critical for the success of a project are:
(A) plan, processes, people, policy
(B) plan, processes, people, power
(C) plan, processes, potential, policy
(D) plan, processes, potential, power
21. In the project management theory, balancing scope, schedule, and cost goals is often termed as
(A) triangular dilemma
(B) triple constraint
(C) fundamental tradeoff
(D) project portfolio management

22. People participated in or affected by project activities are known as

(A) staff
(B) stakeholders
(C) project team
(D) project managers

23. The leadership style where focus is on relationships and community rather than exercising of
power, is termed as
(A) laissez-faire
(B) interactional leadership
(C) servant leadership
(D) oligarchy
24. The basic nature of a project is a/an _____ one.

(A) permanent
(B) temporary
(C) (A) or (B)
(D) Both (A) and (B)

25. Several upgradation tasks done in the same area by the same company might best be managed as
part of a/an

(A) portfolio
(B) program
(C) investment
(D) collaboration

26. Portfolio Management focuses on _____ goals.

(A) targeted
(B) long-term
(C) tangible
(D) intangible

27. Project Management focuses on _____ goals.

(A) targeted
(B) long-term
(C) tangible
(D) intangible

28. A program is a group of

(A) related projects

(B) unrelated projects
(C) A and B
(D) A or B

A project charter does not include ____ of the project.

(A) scope
(B) objectives
(C) team
(D) all above are included

The return available by investing the capital elsewhere is known as

(A) profit rate

(B) discount rate
(C) opportunity cost
(D) return on investment

An investment should be accepted if its Net Present Value (NPV) is

(A) 0
(B) 1
(C) positive
(D) negative

Suppose an investment of $100 has grown to $110 in one year. What is the return on investment?

(A) 0.1%
(B) 1.0%
(C) 10%
(D) none of these

SWOT analysis is a strategic planning technique used to identify strengths, weaknesses,

opportunities, and
timing
(B) tenure
(C) totality
(D) threats
Which of the following is NOT a part of project management?
(A) initiating
(B) monitoring
(C) closing
(D) All above are parts
According to Olivier Mesly, the 4 P’s critical for the success of a project are:
(A) plan, processes, people, policy
(B) plan, processes, people, power
(C) plan, processes, potential, policy
(D) plan, processes, potential, power
How much value a project adds to the company is represented by
(A) project benefits
(B) net present value
(C) internal rate of return
(D) none of these
In project management, which of the following is NOT a method of reducing the impact of an
unexpected event?
(A) Risk avoidance
(B) Risk sharing
(C) Risk transfer
(D) Risk elimination
Who among the following are less able to influence a project?
(A) Consultants
(B) Contractors
(C) Stakeholders
(D) Project team

1-A ____ is a set of activities which are networked in an order and aimed towards achieving the goals
of a project.

(A) Project

(B) Process

(C) Project management

(D) Project cycle

 
2-Resources refers to

(A) Manpower

(B) Machinery

(C) Materials

(D) All of the above

3-Developing a technology is an example of

(A) Process

(B) Project

(C) Scope

(D) All of the above

4-The project life cycle consists of

(A) Understanding the scope of the project

(B) Objectives of the project

(C) Formulation and planning various activities

(D) All of the above

5-Following is(are) the responsibility(ies) of the project manager.

(A) Budgeting and cost control

(B) Allocating resources

(C) Tracking project expenditure

(D) All of the above

 
6-Following are the phases of Project Management Life Cycle. Arrange them in correct order

Design, 2. Marketing, 3. Analysis and evaluation, 4. Inspection, testing and delivery

(A) 3-2-1-4

(B) 1-2-3-4

(C) 2-3-1-4

(D) 4-3-2-1

7-Design phase consist of

(A) Input received

(B) Output received

(C) Both (A) and (B)

(D) None of the above

8-Project performance consists of

(A) Time

(B) Cost

(C) Quality

(D) All of the above

9-Five dimensions that must be managed on a project

(A) Constraint, Quality, Cost, Schedule, Staff

(B) Features, Quality, Cost, Schedule, Staff

(C) Features, priority, Cost, Schedule, Staff

(D) Features, Quality, Cost, Schedule, customer

 

10-Resorce requirement in project becomes constant while the project is in its _____ progress stage.

(A) 40 to 55%

(B) 55 to 70%

(C) 70 to 80%

(D) 80 to 95%

11-The probability of completing the project can be estimated based upon the ____ .
(A) Uniform distribution curve
(B) Normal distribution curve.
(C) U-shaped distribution curve
(D) None of the above
 
12-In the initial stage of the project the probability of completing the project is ___ .
(A) Zero
(B) High
(C) Low
(D) Any of the above
 
13-The entire process of a project may be considered to be made up on number of sub process
placed in different stage called the
(A) Technical key resources
(B) Work key structure
(C) Work Breakdown Structure (WBS).
(D) None of the above
 
14-Tool used for comparison of the proposed project to complete projects of a similar nature whose
costs are known.
(A) Algorithmic model
(B) Expert judgment
(C) Top down
(D) Analogy
 
15-Each component of the software product is separately estimated and the results aggregated to
produce an estimate for the overall job.
(A) Algorithmic model
(B) Expert judgment
(C) Bottom-up
(D) Top down
 
16-Following is (are) the component(s) of risk management
(A) Risk Assessment
(B) Risk Control
(C) Risk Ranking
(D) All of the above
 
17-Following are the characteristics of Project Mindset.
(A) Time, Responsiveness, Information sharing, Processes, structured planning
(B) Time, Project management, Information sharing, Processes, structured planning
(C) Time, Responsiveness, Information sharing, capability, structured planning
(D) Time, Responsiveness, Information sharing, Processes, project planning
 
18-“Devising and maintaining a workable scheme to accomplish the business need” is
(A) Initiating process
(B) Planning process
(C) Executing process
(D) Controlling process
 
19-Controlling the changes in the project may affect
(A) The progress of the project
(B) Stage cost
(C) Project scope
(D) All of the above
 
20-Following is (are) the tool(s) for changing a process
(A) Change Management System (CMS)
(B) Configuration Management (CM)
(C) Both (A) and (B)
(D) None of the above

MCQ ON PROJECT MANAGEMENT

1. Which of these is not one of the constraints of a project?

a. Scope

b. Resources

c. Team

d. Budget

2. Which of the following is not correct about initial phase of a project?

a. The cost associated at the beginning of the project is highest.

b. Stakeholders have maximum influence during this phase

c. The highest uncertainty is at this stage of the project.

d. All the above statements are correct.

 
3. The project you are managing has nine stakeholders. How many channel of
communications are there between these stakeholders?

a. 9

b. 8

c. 45

d. 36

4. Which of the following is not an example of formal communication?

a. Contract

b. email

c. Project status report

d. Status meeting

5. A Project with a total funding of $100,000 finished with a BAC value of $95,000.
What term can BEST describe the difference of $5,000?

A. Cost Variance

B. Management Overhead

C. Management Contingency Reserve

D. Schedule Variance

6. If the Earned Value is equal to Actual Cost, it means:

A. Project is on budget and on schedule

B. Schedule Variance Index is 1

C. There is no schedule variance

D. There is no cost variance

7. Which of the following is the most important element of Project Management

Plan that is useful in HR Planning process:

A. Risk Management activities

B. Quality Assurance activities

C. Activity Resource requirements

D. Budget Control activities

8. Which of the following types of Organizational Charts can be BEST used to track
project costs :

A. Hierarchical-type Organizational Chart

B. Organizational Breakdown Structure

C. Resource Breakdown Structure

D. Responsibility Assignment Matrix

9. Which of the following is not true for a Responsibility Assignment Matrix

(RAM):

A. Defines what project team is responsible for each WBS component

B. Defines what project member is responsible for each activity

C. Text description of roles, responsibilities, authorities

D. Defines all people associated with each activity

 

10. Process Analysis is a function of:

A. Performance Analysis

B. Quality Metrics

C. Process Improvement Plan

D. Quality Improvement Plan

11. Root Cause Analysis relates to:

A. Process Analysis

B. Quality Audits

C. Quality Control Measurements

D. Performance Measurements

12. A planning phase for an engineering component generated 80 engineering

drawings. The QA team randomly selected 8 drawings for inspection. This exercise
can BEST be described as example of:

A. Inspection

B. Statistical Sampling

C. Flowcharting

D. Control Charting

13. Andrew has joined as the Project Manager of a project. One of the project
documents available to Andrew lists down all the risks in a hierarchical fashion.
What is this document called?
a. Risk Management Plan.

b. List of risks.

c. Monte Carlo diagram.

d. Risk Breakdown Structure.

14. During which stage of Risk planning are risks prioritized based on probability
and impact?

a. Identify Risks

b. Plan Risk responses

c. Perform Qualitative risk analysis

d. Perform Quantitative risk analysis

15. Activity Definition is typically performed by which of the following:

A. Project Manager who created the WBS

B. Project Team Members responsible for the work package

C. Project Officer

D. Project Stakeholder

16. Which of the following does NOT generate changes to the Project documents:

A. Define Activities

B. Sequence Activities

C. Estimate Activity Resources

D. Estimate Activity Durations

17. Which of the following may generate a milestone list:

A. Define Activities

B. Sequence Activities

C. Estimate Activity Resources

D. Estimate Activity Durations

18. A schedule activity may begin 10 days before the predecessor activity finishes.
This is an example of:

A. Finish-to-Start

B. Start-to-Finish

C. Start-to-Start

D. Finish-to-Finish

19. Sam Consultancy is planning to buy ten desktops for $1500 each from a leading
computer store. Which type of contract will get signed in this case?

A. Purchase Order

B. Cost plus Fee

C. Fixed cost

D. Time and Material

 
20. Alice is a Project Manager. She is coordinating a bidder conference to allow
vendors to get clarification on the work that needs to be performed. Which phase
of Project Management is in progress.

A. Conduct Procurements

B. Plan Procurements

C. Control Procurements

D. Close Procurements

21. The process of Control Procurements falls under which process group

A. Planning

B. Closing

C. Monitoring and Control

D. Executing

MCQ ON PROJECT MANAGEMENT

1. A communication management plan identifies the relevant information that

should be communicated to:

a. the project team.

b. the project stakeholders.

c. the project board.

d. the project sponsor.

2. Which one of the following statements is true?

a. Independent reviews and quality audits form part of quality assurance to ensure the project

manager delivers on time and to budget.

b. Quality assurance provides confidence to stakeholders that requirements for quality will be
exceeded.

c. Quality control verifies that the project deliverables conform to specification, are fit for
purpose and meet stakeholder expectations.

d. Quality planning enables the project manager to manage the trade-off between customer
expectations and budget.

3. Project risk management is best described as:

a. managing responses to threats.

b. identifying and acknowledging threats and opportunities.

c. planning responses to threats.

d. minimising threats and maximising opportunities.

4. Which one of the following best describes a project issue?

a. A major problem that requires formal escalation.

b. A problem that the project manager has to deal with on a day-to-day basis.

c. An uncertain event that may or may not occur.

d. An opportunity that occurs through change control.

5. Scheduling can best be defined as the process used to determine:

a. overall project duration.

b. project cost estimating.

c. the project management plan.

d. sub-contractor’s responsibilities.

6. Which one of the following statements is true?

a. An increase in project scope is likely to increase project cost.

b. A decrease in the project time is likely to increase project quality.

c. An increase in the project quality requirements is likely to decrease project cost.

d. A decrease in the project cost is likely to decrease project time.

7. Which one of the following statements best defines the purpose of a Product
Breakdown Structure (PBS)?

a. To define the hierarchy of deliverables that are required to be produced on the project.

b. To define how the products are produced by identifying derivations and dependencies.

c. To establish the extent of work required prior to project commissioning and the handover.

d. To identify the health and safety strategies and procedures to be used on the project.

8. Which one of the following is least likely to be a success criteria?

a. A target for the project to receive zero change requests.

b. The date by which the project is to be completed.

c. Delivery of products that meet required specifications.

d. The awarding of bonuses to senior management.

 

9. Which one of the following is a valid project Key Performance Indicator (KPI)?

a. Staff appraisals.

b. Management buy in.

c. Milestone achievement.

d. Master schedule.

10. Which one of the following statements is true?

a. The business case is owned by the sponsor and is created during the concept phase of the
project life cycle.

b. The business case is owned by the project manager and is created during the concept phase of
the project life cycle.

c. The business case is owned by the sponsor and is created during definition phase of the
project life cycle.

d. The business case is owned by the project manager and is created during the definition phase
of the project life cycle.

11. Who owns the Project Management Plan (PMP)?

a. The project team.

b. The chief executive.

c. The project manager.

d. The project support office.

12. Which one of the following best describes users?

a. Providers of both strategic and tactical direction to the project.

b. Those intended to receive benefits or operate outputs.

c. Facilitators of an appropriate issue resolution procedure.

d. Those providing full-time commitment to the project.

13. Which statement best describes a responsibility of the project manager:

a. to be the sole source of expertise for estimating techniques on cost and time.

b. to deliver the project objectives to enable benefits to be realised.

c. to take ultimate accountability for the delivery of the business benefits.

d. to delegate all accountability for managing time, cost and quality to team leaders.

14. A project is typically defined in terms of scope, time, cost and which other
parameter?

a. Benefits.

b. Quality.

c. Tolerance.

d. Controls.

15. Which one of the following statements is true?

a. Business-as-usual activities cannot be improved.

b. Business-as-usual activities are more difficult to manage than projects.

c. Projects are transient endeavours that bring about change to business-as-usual.

d. A project is always the starting point for operation refinement.

16. What is defined as “the ability to influence and align others towards a common
purpose”?

a. Teamwork.

b. Motivation.

c. Management.

d. Leadership.

17. Which one is a true statement relating to project communications?

a. A project sponsor is responsible for all communication methods and media.

b. Different stakeholders typically have different communication needs.

c. It is best to have a standard set of project reports used for every project.

d. Email is the only way to communicate with large numbers of people.

18. In project management, the term quality is best defined as:

a. inspection, testing and measurement.

b. reviews and audits.

c. fitness for purpose of deliverables.

d. professionally-bound project reports.

19. The main outcome of risk identification, in a risk management process, is to:
a. identify and determine the relative importance of the project risks.

b. identify and describe all risks that might occur on the project.

c. identify and determine the responses to the project risks.

d. identify and describe risks that have occurred on previous projects.

20. Which one of the following is not considered in resource management?

a. Identifying resources.

b. Influencing resources.

c. Assigning resources to activities.

d. Matching resources to the schedule.

21. Which one of the following does project change control primarily seek to
ensure?

a. All variance to the project scope is evaluated.

b. No reduction in the perceived quality of the project outcome.

c. Management costs of the project do not increase.

d. Any decrease in the scoped deliverable of the project is rejected.

22. Which one of the following is captured in the Work Breakdown Structure
(WBS)?

a. The life cycle phases.

b. The logical order of tasks.

c. The scope of the project.

d. Project costs.

23. Project reporting can best be defined as:

a. informing stakeholders about the project.

b. storing and archiving of project information.

c. gathering stakeholder feedback.

d. collecting project information.

24. Which one of the following statements best defines an estimate?

a. An approximation of project time and cost targets, refined throughout the project life cycle.

b. A prediction of a future condition or event based on information or knowledge available now.

c. The value of useful work done at any given point in a project to give a measure of progress.

d. A situation that affects or influences the outcome of the project expressed in time or cost
terms.

25. The justification for the investment to be made in a project is documented in

the:

a. Cost Breakdown Structure.

b. procurement strategy.

c. business case.

d. Project Management Plan.

 
26. Which one of the following is a responsibility of the project steering
group/board?

a. To identify potential problems for the project team to solve.

b. To provide strategic direction and guidance to the sponsor.

c. To manage the project team in all daily activities.

d. To receive and consider daily reports from team members.

27. One of the reasons a project life cycle is split into phases is to:

a. facilitate formal go/no-go decision making during the project.

b. balance the costs of work in each phase of project development.

c. mirror the major deployments of resources throughout the project.

d. chunk work into time periods of similar durations.

28. Which of the following best describes a project environment?

a. The type of organization concerned with implementation.

b. The structured method used to control the project.

c. The context within which a project is undertaken.

d. An understanding of the risks involved in the project.

29. Which one of the following statements best describes a project?

a. A project is a set of tools and techniques often used when delivering organisational change.

b. A project is the sum of activities needed to remove uncertainty from a unique piece of work.
c. A unique transient endeavor undertaken to achieve a desired outcome.

d. A project is a method of planning work.

30. The document that identifies what information needs to be shared, to whom,
why, when and how is called the:

a. communication management plan.

b. stakeholder mapping grid.

c. document distribution schedule.

d. responsibility assignment matrix.

31. An important aim of a post-project review is to:

a. validate overall progress to date against the budget and schedule.

b. capture learning and document it for future usage.

c. ensure acceptance of all permanent documentation, signed by the sponsor.

d. establish that project benefits have been identified.

32. The process that evaluates overall project performance to provide confidence
is called:

a. quality assurance.

b. quality planning.

c. quality control.

d. quality audit.
 

33. Which one of the following statements about the project risk register is false?

a. It facilitates the review and monitoring of risks.

b. It facilitates the risk appetite.

c. It facilitates the recording of risk responses.

d. It facilitates the recording of risks.

34. Which one of the following statements best defines procurement?

a. A technique to establish the best approach for obtaining the resources for the project.

b. A group of interrelated resources and activities that transform inputs into outputs.

c. The description of the purpose, form and components to support delivery of a product.

d. The process by which products and services required for the project are acquired.

35. Once a change has been requested what is the next step in the change control
process?

a. Evaluate the change.

b. Advise the sponsor.

c. Update the change log.

d. Update the project plan.

36. A Responsibility Assignment Matrix (RAM) can be used to:

a. define the terms of reference of the project manager.

b. define the limits of the project sponsor’s responsibilities.

c. allocate risk management response activities to project personnel.

d. allocate work packages to those responsible for project work.

37. An Organizational Breakdown Structure (OBS) is used to identify:

a. the reporting structure and current availability of all individuals in the project.

b. technical ability and line of communication for all individuals in the project.

c. lines of communication and responsibility for all the individual managers in the project.

d. the reporting structure and lines of communication for all individuals in the projects.

38. Which one of the following best describes project success criteria?

a. Actively seeking some senior management support.

b. Measures by which the success of the project is judged.

c. Achievement of milestones.

d. A motivated project team.

39. Comparative estimating uses:

a. current data from similar projects.

b. historic data from all projects.

c. historic data from similar projects.

d. current data from all projects.

 

40. Which one of the following best describes a project stakeholder?

a. A party who is concerned about the project going ahead.

b. A party with an interest or role in the project or is impacted by the project.

c. A party who has a vested interest in the outcome of the project.

d. A party who has a financial stake in the organization managing the project.

41. The main purpose of the Project Management Plan is to:

a. provide justification for undertaking the project in terms of evaluating the benefit, cost and
risk of alternative options.

b. ensure the project sponsor has tight control of the project manager’s activity.

c. document the outcomes of the planning process and provide the reference document for
managing

the project.

d. document the outcome of the risk, change and configuration management processes.

42. Who has ultimate responsibility for project risk?

a. Steering group.

b. Risk owner.

c. Project sponsor.

d. Project manager.

 
43. When a project has completed the handover and closure phase:

a. the project deliverables are ready for commissioning.

b. the project deliverables are ready for handing over to the users.

c. the project documentation must be disposed of.

d. the capability is now in place for the benefits to be realized.

44. Which one of the following illustrates why effective project management is
beneficial to an organization?

a. It utilizes resources as and when required under direction of a project manager.

b. It advocates employing a consultancy firm which specializes in managing change.

c. It recommends using only highly skilled people in the project team.

d. It ensures that the chief executive is accountable for the achievement of the defined benefits.

45. A key aspect of managing a project involves:

a. defining which operational systems to put in place.

b. identifying routine tasks.

c. ensuring ongoing operations are maintained.

d. planning to achieve defined objectives.

46. Which one of the following statements best defines teamwork?

a. People working collaboratively towards a common goal.

b. Developing skills that will enhance project performance.

c. Gathering the right people together to work on a project.

d. Establishing vision and direction towards a common purpose.

47. A review undertaken to decide whether a project should proceed into its next
phase is known as a:

a. gate review.

b. feasibility study.

c. milestone review.

d. evaluation review.

48. Which one of the following statements best describes the use of an issue log?

a. A summary of all possible alternative resolutions of an issue.

b. A summary of all the project issues, their analysis and status.

c. A tool to ensure that a process is in place for capturing all issues.

d. A tool to ensure that the issue management process is adhered to.

49. The main aim of a project risk management process should be to:

a. identify project risks and then manage them appropriately.

b. identify all project risks and transfer them immediately.

c. identify all the things that are threats or opportunities on a project.

d. satisfy the organization’s project management process.

 
50. What is a visual representation of a project’s planned activities against a
calendar called?

a. A Gantt chart.

b. A critical path network.

c. A product flow diagram.

d. A Pareto chart.

51. Configuration management is best described as:

a. control in the implementation of changes to project schedules.

b. an organization to review proposed changes to the project deliverables.

c. quality control of project deliverables and documentation.

d. creation, maintenance and controlled change of the project deliverables.

52. A Cost Breakdown Structure (CBS) shows costs assigned to:

a. individual work packages using the Work Breakdown Structure (WBS).

b. individual resources using the Work Breakdown Structure (WBS).

c. individual resources using the Responsibility Assignment Matrix (RAM).

d. individual deliverables using the Responsibility Assignment Matrix (RAM)

53. The accuracy of an estimate should:

a. decrease as a project progresses through its life cycle.

b. increase as a project progresses through its life cycle.

c. stay constant throughout the project life cycle.

d. vary independently of where the project is in its life cycle.

54. Which one of the following best defines a benefit?

a. A positive result of stakeholder management.

b. The successful management of a project.

c. An improvement resulting from project deliverables.

d. The successful delivery of project reports and updates.

55. Which one of the following is true for the Project Management Plan (PMP)?

a. The Project Management Plan is developed by the project manager and team and owned by
the sponsor.

b. A draft of the Project Management Plan is developed by the sponsor at the same time as the
business case.

c. The Project Management Plan is developed by the sponsor and owned by the project manager.

d. The Project Management Plan is developed by the project manager and team and owned by
the project manager.

56. Who are project team members primarily accountable to?

a. External stakeholders.

b. The end users.

c. The finance director.

d. The project manager.

 

57. The phases of a project life cycle are:

a. starting, planning, control and closing.

b. concept, definition, development, handover and closure.

c. initiation, definition, planning, monitoring and operations.

d. concept, definition, implementation and operations.

58. A portfolio can best be defined as:

a. a group of projects and programs carried out within an organization.

b. a group of programs carried out under the sponsorship of an organization.

c. a group of projects carried out under the sponsorship of an organization.

d. a range of products and services offered by an organization.

59. Which one of the following best describes project management?

a. Using APM’s Body of Knowledge 6th edition as a guide to all projects.

b. Employing a project manager who has undertaken similar projects.

c. Utilizing team members who can work on a project full time.

d. Application of processes and methods throughout the project life cycle.

60. Which structure shows the reporting relationships and communications

channels for a project?

a. Work Breakdown Structure.

b. Organizational Breakdown Structure.

c. Product Breakdown Structure.

d. Responsibility assignment structure.

Read More:  [MCQ on DESIGN OF MECHANICAL SYSTEMS]

1-A ____ is a set of activities which are networked in an order and aimed towards
achieving the goals of a project.

(A) Project

(B) Process

(C) Project management

(D) Project cycle

2-Resources refers to

(A) Manpower

(B) Machinery

(C) Materials

(D) All of the above

3-Developing a technology is an example of

(A) Process
(B) Project

(C) Scope

(D) All of the above

4-The project life cycle consists of

(A) Understanding the scope of the project

(B) Objectives of the project

(C) Formulation and planning various activities

(D) All of the above

5-Following is(are) the responsibility(ies) of the project manager.

(A) Budgeting and cost control

(B) Allocating resources

(C) Tracking project expenditure

(D) All of the above

6-Following are the phases of Project Management Life Cycle. Arrange them in
correct order

Design, 2. Marketing, 3. Analysis and evaluation, 4. Inspection, testing and delivery

(A) 3-2-1-4

(B) 1-2-3-4

(C) 2-3-1-4
(D) 4-3-2-1

7-Design phase consist of

(A) Input received

(B) Output received

(C) Both (A) and (B)

(D) None of the above

8-Project performance consists of

(A) Time

(B) Cost

(C) Quality

(D) All of the above

9-Five dimensions that must be managed on a project

(A) Constraint, Quality, Cost, Schedule, Staff

(B) Features, Quality, Cost, Schedule, Staff

(C) Features, priority, Cost, Schedule, Staff

(D) Features, Quality, Cost, Schedule, customer

10-Resorce requirement in project becomes constant while the project is in its

_____ progress stage.
(A) 40 to 55%

(B) 55 to 70%

(C) 70 to 80%

(D) 80 to 95%

11-The probability of completing the project can be estimated based upon the ____
.

(A) Uniform distribution curve

(B) Normal distribution curve.

(C) U-shaped distribution curve

(D) None of the above

12-In the initial stage of the project the probability of completing the project is ___
.

(A) Zero

(B) High

(C) Low

(D) Any of the above

13-The entire process of a project may be considered to be made up on number of

sub process placed in different stage called the

(A) Technical key resources

(B) Work key structure

(C) Work Breakdown Structure (WBS).

(D) None of the above

14-Tool used for comparison of the proposed project to complete projects of a

similar nature whose costs are known.

(A) Algorithmic model

(B) Expert judgment

(C) Top down

(D) Analogy

15-Each component of the software product is separately estimated and the results
aggregated to produce an estimate for the overall job.

(A) Algorithmic model

(B) Expert judgment

(C) Bottom-up

(D) Top down

16-Following is (are) the component(s) of risk management

(A) Risk Assessment

(B) Risk Control

(C) Risk Ranking

(D) All of the above

 

17-Following are the characteristics of Project Mindset.

(A) Time, Responsiveness, Information sharing, Processes, structured planning

(B) Time, Project management, Information sharing, Processes, structured planning

(C) Time, Responsiveness, Information sharing, capability, structured planning

(D) Time, Responsiveness, Information sharing, Processes, project planning

18-“Devising and maintaining a workable scheme to accomplish the business

need” is

(A) Initiating process

(B) Planning process

(C) Executing process

(D) Controlling process

19-Controlling the changes in the project may affect

(A) The progress of the project

(B) Stage cost

(C) Project scope

(D) All of the above

20-Following is (are) the tool(s) for changing a process

(A) Change Management System (CMS)

(B) Configuration Management (CM)

(C) Both (A) and (B)

(D) None of the above

Which of the following is not project management goal?

a) Keeping overall costs within budget
b) Delivering the software to the customer at the agreed time
c) Maintaining a happy and well-functioning development team
d) Avoiding customer complaints

10. An independent relationship must exist between the attribute that can be
measured and the external quality attribute.
a) True
b) False

9. Identify the sub-process of process improvement

a) Process introduction
b) Process analysis
c) De-processification
d) Process distribution

8. Which of the following is incorrect activity for the configuration management of

a software system?
a) Internship management
b) Change management
c) Version management
d) System management

7. Quality planning is the process of developing a quality plan for

a) team
b) project
c) customers
d) project manager

6. Which of the following is/are main parameters that you should use when
computing the costs of a software development project?
a) travel and training costs
b) hardware and software costs
c) effort costs (the costs of paying software engineers and managers)
d) all of the mentioned

5. A 66.6% risk is considered as

a) very low
b) low
c) moderate
d) high

4. The process each manager follows during the life of a project is known as
a) Project Management
b) Manager life cycle
c) Project Management Life Cycle
d) All of the mentioned

3. Which of the following is not considered as a risk in project management?

a) Specification delays
b) Product competition
c) Testing
d) Staff turnover

2. Project managers have to assess the risks that may affect a project.
a) True
b) False

1. According to the Project Management Institute (PMI), project management is defined as “the
application of knowledge, _____, _____, and techniques to project activities to meet the project
requirements”.

Select one:
a. skills, analysis
b. tools, analysis
c. analysis, theories
d. skills, tools
e. skills, theories

Answer : (D) skills, tools

2. As a project manager, Tyler is so happy that all expected project deliverable have been
accomplished by his project team. What is the next step for his project to proceed in order to verify
the project scope by his project client?
Select one:
a. Ask his client to pay for the completed project deliverables.
b. Award all of his project team members for such a great accomplishment.
c. Offer a party for his project team and client to celebrate the success of the project.
d. Ask his client to conduct an inspection on all of the completed project deliverables.
e. Invite a few experts to judge the quality of all the completed project deliverables.

Answer : (d) Ask his client to conduct an inspection on all of the completed project
deliverables

3. What is the first step in project planning?

Select one:
a. Establish the objectives and scope.
b. Determine the budget.
c. Select the team organizational model.
d. Determine project constraints.
e. Inspect the deliverables.

Answer : (a) Establish the objectives and scope

4. While assessing your project processes, you have identified some uncontrolled process variations.
Which of the following would be the appropriate chart you may use for this purpose?

Select one:
a. Pareto diagram
b. PERT chart
c. Control chart
d. HR personnel chart
e. Critical path

Ans:- C. Control chart

5. Once the project is approved and moves into the planning stage, what happens in the next phase
of the project life cycle?

Select one:
a. Agreements for risk sharing need to be concluded.
b. The total risk on the project typically reduces as activities are performed without loss.
c. Risks must be weighed against the potential benefit of the project’s success in order to
decide if the project should be chosen.
d. Risks are identified with each major group of activities.
e. A risk response plan can be used to identify increasing levels of detailed risk analysis

Answer : – D. Risks are identified with each major group of activities.

6. Fill in the blank. Risk must be considered in the _____ phase and weighed against the potential
benefit of the project’s success in order to decide if the project should be chosen.

Select one:
a. completion
b. closeout
c. execution
d. planning
e. initiation

Answer is – (E) initiation

7. Due to the rapid expansion of your company, your boss decides to establish a project
management office (PMO) within the company and asks you to take the lead. According to the
PMBOK guide, to be the ideal PMO you can do which of the following?

Select one:
a. Speed up a specific ongoing project.
b. Find opportunities for collaborative project management.
c. Reassign the resources that have been assigned to ongoing projects.
d. Reduce the assigned resources to existing projects.
e. Reduce the number of project managers in the company.

Ans – B. Find opportunities for collaborative project management

8. Why does the creation of processes for developing teams, establishing priorities, and distributing
work and tasks require different sets of skills?

Select one:
a. Because resources on the project management team may view it as permanent
b. Because resources on the project management team may view it as temporary
c. Because resources on the project team are not aware of the technical aspects of the
initiative
d. Because members of the project management team are not aware of the knowledge and
skills of the other people working on the project
e. Because project management teams do not look after the operational aspects of the
project and are concerned only with the strategy
Ans – b. Because resources on the project management team may view it as temporary

Question 9. According to Bruce Tuckman’s five stages of team development, project team members
compete for control at which stage?

Select one:
a. Forming
b. Storming
c. Norming
d. Performing
e. Adjourning

Answer- (b) Storming

10. The project management office (PMO) handles all of the following functions EXCEPT:

Select one:
a. maintaining the organization’s project management policies and procedures.
b. supervising the project managers.
c. assigning project managers from other departments but not procuring contract project
managers.
d. monitoring project performance. e. providing functional support to projects like project
scheduling and project cost analysis

Ans – c. assigning project managers from other departments but not procuring
contract project managers.

11. Under which of the following conditions would teams be more effective than individuals?

Select one:
a. When speed is important
b. When the activities involved in solving the problem are very detailed
c. When the actual document needs to be written
d. When innovation is required
e. When a commitment to the solution is needed by small portions of the project tea

Ans – d. When innovation is required

12. Which of the following is the process of understanding the knowledge, skills, and abilities
needed to manage a task and then matching the team members with the right skills to do that
work?
Select one:
a. Benchmarking
b. Expediting
c. Procurement
d. Delegation
e. Solicitation

Ans – d. Delegation

13. Which of the following defines what tasks the project resources are expected to accomplish and,
just as importantly, what is not part of the project team’s responsibilities?

Select one:
a. Punch list
b. Check sheet
c. Project logic diagram
d. Checklist
e. Scope document

Ans – e. Scope document

14. After Marta obtained her PMP certificate, her boss assigned her to be in charge of a long-term
project, which a recently resigned project manager, Todd, had been working on for three years.
When Marta looks at historical information that Todd achieved for this project, which of the
following is deemed most critical for Marta to manage her project team?

Select one:
a. Project contract
b. Detailed activity lists and WBS dictionary
c. Legal documents
d. Project lessons
e. Learn who are the project investors

Ans – b. Detailed activity lists and WBS dictionary

15. Fill in the blank. There is _______ correlation between project complexity and project risk.
Select one:

a. an unknown
b. a positive
c. no
d. a negative
e. a general

Ans – b. a positive

16. As a new project manager, Karen was worried about a statement from her client: “your project
deliverable is in low quality with low grade”. According to PMBOK, how can you help Karen
distinguish the differences between “quality” and “grade”?

Select one:
a. Quality and grade represent the same thing.
b. Low quality can never be a problem, but low grade is.
c. Low quality represents a true problem, but low grade might not be the case.
d. Low quality with high grade is always desirable to your client. e. High quality always
represents high grade.

Answer – c. Low quality represents a true problem, but low grade might not be the case

17. Complete the following statement. As a project manager, Darrell is excited that he is assigned to
be in charge of the most important project this year. After being chartered for the project, he
analyzes the information in the project charter and the stakeholder register to:

Select one:
a. decide how to draft a scope statement.
b. start to define and develop the stakeholder needs and requirements. c. prepare for
the template to monitor project progress.
d. estimate the entire project budget.
e. learn how to get project budget approved by stakeholders.

Answer – b. start to define and develop the stakeholder needs and requirements.

18. After Ling finished drafting a new project charter, she sent a copy of the charter to all key
project parties including the project sponsor, senior management and key stakeholders, and
scheduled a kick-off meeting with them. What will be the most important goal for Ling to complete
the project charter?

Select one:
a. Make a professional looking project charter to impress the key project parties.
b. Get confirmation from the key parties that they have read the charter.
c. Invite the key parties for a nice lunch to establish a friendly relationship. d. Gather
promises from the key project players.
e. Obtain officially signed project charters from the key parties.
Answer – e. Obtain officially signed project charters from the key parties.

19. Fill in the blank. During the _________ of a project, the project manager focuses on developing
the project infrastructure needed to execute the project and developing clarity around the project
charter and scope.

Select one:
a. completion
b. start-up
c. execution
d. evaluation
e. selection

Answer – b. start-up

20. A project budget estimate that is developed with the least amount of knowledge is known as
which of the following?

Select one:
a. Rough order of magnitude (ROM) estimate
b. Scope of work estimate
c. Conceptual estimate
d. Line estimate
e. Milestone schedule estimate

Answer – c. Conceptual estimate

21. What is the first step in developing a risk management plan?

Select one:
a. Analyze the risks.
b. Estimate the likelihood of the risks occurring.
c. Identify potential project risks.
d. Develop a risk mitigation plan.
e. Estimate the potential impact of risk on the project goals.

Answer – c. Identify potential project risks

22. According to the PMBOK guide, which of the following statements is right in terms of using
reserve analysis to determine a project budget?
Select one:
A. Reserve analysis always plans contingency reserves for unexpected project scope and
project costs, which are part of your project budget.
B. Reserves should not be included in the project budget.
C. If you only have limited resources, you may completely ignore reserve analysis when you
try to determine your project budget.
D. Planning contingency reserves for a project is not practical.
E. Contingency reserves have never been a concern when planning a project budget.

Answer – A. Reserve analysis always plans contingency reserves for unexpected project
scope and project costs, which are part of your project budget.

23. Complete the following statement. As the project progresses into the execution phase:

Select one:
a. risks need to be checked off on activities that have been performed.
b. the total risk on the project typically increases.
c. risks are identified with each major group of activities.
d. a risk response plan can be used to identify increasing levels of detailed risk analysis.
e. the risk breakdown structure needs to be examined to be sure all the risk events have
been avoided.

Answer – a. risks need to be checked off on activities that have been performed.

24. Which of the following statements about achieving a common understanding of the project
purpose is true?

Select one:
a. A common understanding means building a consensus and disagreement regarding a
project’s purpose is often fatal to project execution.
b. Developing a common understanding involves defining project success, determining
potential barriers to success, establishing milestones, and identifying decision-makers.
c. The methods and processes employed to develop a common understanding depend on
the duration of the project.
d. Irrespective of the complexity of the project, developing a common understanding usually
involves informal discussions that last a few hours.
e. When developing a common understanding of the purpose of a project, participants are
often instructed to refrain from expressing skepticism.

Answer – b. Developing a common understanding involves defining project success,

determining potential barriers to success, establishing milestones, and identifying
decision-makers.
25. Which of the following is typically a written document that defines what work will
be accomplished by the end of the project?

Select one:
a. Scope of work (SOW)
b. Project logic diagram
c. Milestone schedule
d. Ballpark estimate
e. Work breakdown structure

Answer – a. Scope of work (SOW)

26. What is considered to be the most useful skill for a project manager who works in a matrix
environment in order to achieve project goals?

Select one:
a. Leadership skill
b. Influencing
c. Conflict management skill
d. Time management
e. Planning skill

Answer – b. Influencing

27. Marco is an investor, and Jon is a project team member. Both have intensive technical
background for the project that you are managing. However, recently they have disagreed on the
next step to take for the project. They both decide to defer to whoever has the authority to make
this decision. Who has the authority to decide which direction should be taken for the project?

Select one:
a. Project manager
b. Stakeholders
c. The project team
d. Investors
e. The board of trustees of this company

Answer – c. The project team

28. As a project manager, while Kathy was trying to categorize all potential risks for her new
construction project M based on levels of probability and impact on the project, she identified a
potential risk, regarding a schedule conflict with another project to obtain critical equipment for a
short time period. Overall, because this risk is probable and might impact her project M, Kathy
wants to record this risk; however, she is confused about where she should document this type of
risk. According to the PMBOK guide, where should Kathy document this risk?

Select one:
a. Watch list
b. Risk management plan
c. Project management plan
d. WBS
e. Scope management plan

Answer – d. WBS

29. Which of the following is a quality management system that gives titles to specialists and
requires a cost-benefit analysis?

Select one:
a. Lean accounting
b. Business process re-engineering
c. Kaizen
d. Six Sigma
e. Total Quality Management

Answer – d. Six Sigma

30. Which one of the following is the last step of project closings?

Select one:
a. The client has accepted the product.
b. Archives are complete.
c. The client appreciates your product.
d. Lessons learned are documented.
e. Temporary staff is released.

Answer – b. Archives are complete.

31. As a project manager of Project Cool at the company, Samira is responsible for monitoring and
controlling two project management processes: process A and process B. She recently noticed a
high priority risk X has been imposed on her project process A in Project Cool. While she tried to
control the risk X, she also noticed that a new potential risk Y will be added to process B. Which of
the following best explains this situation?
Select one:
a. If risk Y happens, then it is all Samira’s fault, because she did not do a good job of
carefully monitoring the risks for Project Cool.
b. This is common in practice. Risk Y is a secondary risk caused by Risk X.
c. The potential risk might happen, but Samira can ignore risk Y, as risk X takes higher
priority.
d. Samira is not experienced enough for handling risk management, so her boss will
probably fire her.
e. Risk Y is called a low priority risk, which is not considered to be a real concern, so Samira
should not worry about risk Y.

Answer – b. This is common in practice. Risk Y is a secondary risk caused by Risk X.

32. Roberto is in charge of a new project to help Company A upgrade its old HR system to a
cutting-edge, cross-platform system with the most recent mobile technologies. After his project
team assessed the available system documentations, the team found the existing documentations too
large and complicated to implement the system updates. Roberto advised his team to decompose the
major project deliverables into more executable components. In this project process, Robert
advised his team to do which of the following?

Select one:
a. Document requirements
b. Create WBS
c. Define project scope
d. Verify project scope
e. Plan project milestones

Answer – b. Create WBS

33. Complete the following statement. In a weak matrix environment, the project manager, Eric,
has to constantly make an effort to influence his project team and stakeholders to ensure project
success. This is because:

Select one:
a. Eric has a lot of authority.
b. Eric has no or little authority.
c. Eric is controlled by his functional managers.
d. there are no functional managers.
e. Eric has flexibility on authority.

Answer – b. Eric has no or little authority.

34. Jack is in charge of a project team. Due to an unexpected project change, some issues with the
project have come up. Two key team members, Samantha and Felix, are arguing their solutions to
the project problems. They cannot convince each other, and their conflict is creating a negative
impact on the project’s progress. As a PMP, which of the following would be the best advice for
Jack to manage this conflict?

Select one:
a. Confront the problem early, and invite both Samantha and Felix to private meetings.
b. Force Felix to give up and to support Samantha.
c. Suggest that Samantha concede to Felix.
d. Let Felix and Samantha exercise their concerns through conflict resolution.
e. Delay this issue for now until it becomes a significant conflict.

Answer – a. Confront the problem early, and invite both Samantha and Felix to private
meetings.

35. Ahmed is actively initiating a project, so he plans to invite all relevant internal and external
stakeholders including sponsors, customers, project teams, etc. for a kick-off meeting. To ensure all
of them are covered in the stakeholder register, which document is the most helpful for Ahmed to
look at?

Select one:
a. Project team activities
b. Scope statement
c. Project charter
d. Work packages
e. Project funding agents

Answer – c. Project charter

36. Which of the following is a personal characteristic that reflects the truthfulness of an individual
that can be checked against observable facts?

Select one:
a. Objective credibility
b. Attribution of benevolence
c. Non-manipulative trust
d. High cost of lying
e. Acknowledgment of munificence
Answer – a. Objective credibility

37. When a project manager starts to plan a new project budget, the cost of which project
management process group is expected to be lowest?

Select one:
a. Initiating
b. Executing
c. Monitoring and controlling
d. Closing
e. Planning

Answer – d. Closing

38. CV = $70,000; AC = 90,000; Budget = $200,000. What percent of the project is complete?

Select one: a. 80% b. 53% c. 45% d. 35% e. 75%

Answer – a. 80%

39. As a project manager, John was finally relieved because a major project led by him was just
announced a success. According to the PMBOK, which of the following has likely happened in
order to consider John’s project a success?

Select one:
a. John’s project has met all of the stakeholders’ expectations.
b. The phase completion of John’s project has been approved.
c. John’s client has paid off the project.
d. John’s boss is happy.
e. John and his team are promoted and get salary increases.

Answer – c. John’s client has paid off the project.

40. As a project manager, Neel has a team member, Kate, who has not been performing well. Due to
many repeated mistakes, she has significantly delayed the whole project progress. Neel tried to
offer relevant trainings for Kate to improve her performance, and he was not able to see any
progress in two months. However, Kate is a single mom with three kids, and she needs this job to
support her family. Based on what you know about conflict management, in this situation, how
should Neel proceed?
Select one:
a. Neel should fire Kate and look for a more qualified team member.
b. Neel should help Kate find another job in the firm.
c. Neel should assign Kate more challenging tasks.
d. Neel should let Kate stay on the job and pick up her slack.
e. Neel should reduce Kate’s salary to reflect her performance.

Answer – a. Neel should fire Kate and look for a more qualified team member

1. According to the Project Management Institute (PMI), the scope statement should address all of
the following issues EXCEPT:

Select one:
a. project constraints.
b. project assumptions.s
c. project exclusions.
d. code of conduct for the team members working on the project.
e. project deliverables.

Ans – d. code of conduct for the team members working on the project

2. Fill in the blank. The _____ is the difference between the additional money spent on prevention
and the corresponding reduction in the cost of failure.

Select one:
a. cost-benefit analysis
b. implicit cost
c. cost of quality
d. variable cost
e. cost-utility analysis

Ans- c. cost of quality

3. Which of the following project baselines provides the basis for measurement of the expected cash
flow against requirements over time and is often displayed as an S curve?

Select one:
a. Schedule baseline
b. Cost performance baseline
c. Scope baseline
d. Plan baseline
e. Initiation baseline

Ans – b. Cost performance baseline

4. The conceptual estimate is developed with the least amount of knowledge. When more
information is known, the project team can develop a:
Select one:
a. work breakdown structure
b. critical estimate
c. rough order of magnitude (ROM) estimate
d. scope of work
e. ballpark estimate

Ans – c. rough order of magnitude (ROM) estimate

5. Petri is working for Nokia in Finland. He has completed 10 months of his 12-month project,
budgeted at $800,000. His earned value analysis shows that variance at completion is $75,000. What
is the estimate at completion value for this project?

Select one:
a. 725,000
b. -725,000
c. -$875,000
d. $875,000
e. $800,000

Ans – d. $875,000

6. Which of the following statements about flowcharts is true?

Select one:
a. Most flowcharts use one width of column to represent a category, while the vertical axis represents the
frequency of occurrence.
b. If a particular method is a standard of quality, you can compare your organization’s quality plan to it by
flowcharting.
c. A flowchart shows the ratio of cost of increasing quality to the resulting benefit.
d. If some of the functions of a project are repetitive, flowcharting can be used to identify trends.
e. Flowcharting is useful for communicating responsibility for work processes.

Ans – e. Flowcharting is useful for communicating responsibility for work processes.

7. During the project meeting, the project manager had to leave earlier due to a family emergency.
Afterwards, a few team members started to argue, so the project meeting took very long without
producing outcomes. What is the possible reason that resulted in the inefficient project meeting in
this scenario?

Select one:
a. No project team ground rules were set up.
b. The current communications plan was very poorly designed.
c. The absence of project manager resulted in inefficiency.
d. There was no incentive mechanism set up to encourage team members to take over more
responsibilities.
e. The project team was not very cooperative.

Ans – a. No project team ground rules were set up.

8. Fill in the blank. Work breakdown structure (WBS) is a ______________ of the work with increasing
detail in each layer.

Select one:
a. layered description
b. step change
c. ballpark estimate
d. project execution plan
e. project logic diagram

Ans – a. layered description

9. According to the PMBOK guide which of the following statements is right in terms of using
reserve analysis to determine a project budget ?

Select one:
a. Reserve analysis always plans contingency reserves for unexpected project scope and project costs,
which are part of your project budget.
b. Reserves should not be included in the project budget.
c. If you only have limited resources, you may completely ignore reserve analysis when you try to
determine your project budget.
d. Planning contingency reserves for a project is not practical.
e. Contingency reserves have never been a concern when planning a project budget.

Ans – a. Reserve analysis always plans contingency reserves for unexpected project scope and
project costs, which are part of your project budget.

10. Fill in the blanks. It is during the ______________ phase that the decision should be made regarding
whether the project should continue. During this phase, ____________ must be considered and
weighed against the potential benefit of the project’s success.

Select one:
a. completion, cost
b. closeout, resources
c. execution, performance
d. planning, timing
e. initiation, risk

Ans – e. initiation, risk

11 TO 20 MCQ FOR PROJECT MANAGEMENT

11. What is the most critical aspect in developing a project plan that meets project specifications
within the timeframe and at the lowest costs?
Select one:
a. Assessing risk management
b. Providing documents that specifically comply with the quality standards in use
c. Emphasizing error prevention and customer satisfaction
d. Requiring commitment to quality by all the employees and business partners
e. Developing a project execution plan that matches the complexity level of the project

Ans – e. Developing a project execution plan that matches the complexity level of the project

12. Fill in the blank. Risk represents the likelihood that an event will happen during the life of the
project that will negatively affect the ________________ of project goals.

Select one:
a. scope creep
b. achievement
c. float
d. rough order of magnitude
e. slack

Ans – b. achievement

13. What should be done by the project manager to ensure that all the work in the project is
included?

Select one:
a. Create a contingency plan.
b. Create a risk management plan.
c. Create a WBS.
d. Create a statement of work.
e. Create a scope statement.

Ans – c. Create a WBS

14. Fill in the blank. During the _________ of a project, the project manager focuses on developing the
project infrastructure needed to execute the project and developing clarity around the project
charter and scope.

Select one:
a. completion
b. start-up
c. execution
d. evaluation
e. selection

Ans – b. start-up

15. After the celebration of the successful milestone completion, a project manager will often do
which of the following?
Select one:
a. Continue to increase the intensity of the project to achieve the next milestone.
b. Continue to follow the exact same project plan that helped the team achieve the milestone.
c. Allow the team to reflect on finding new ways of approaching the project work.
d. Select an upcoming key event and designate it as the next milestone.
e. Stretch the goals of the project team, making them more tough and rigorous.

Ans – c. Allow the team to reflect on finding new ways of approaching the project work.

16. Once the project is approved and moves into the planning stage, what happens in the next
phase of the project life cycle?

Select one:
a. Agreements for risk sharing need to be concluded.
b. The total risk on the project typically reduces as activities are performed without loss.
c. Risks must be weighed against the potential benefit of the project’s success in order to decide if the
project should be chosen.
d. Risks are identified with each major group of activities.
e. A risk response plan can be used to identify increasing levels of detailed risk analysis

Ans – d. Risks are identified with each major group of activities

17. What is the first step in project planning?

Select one:
a. Establish the objectives and scope.
b. Determine the budget.
c. Select the team organizational model.
d. Determine project constraints.
e. Inspect the deliverables.

Ans – a. Establish the objectives and scope.

18. Fill in the blank. Risk must be considered in the _____ phase and weighed against the potential
benefit of the project’s success in order to decide if the project should be chosen.

Select one:
a. completion
b. closeout
c. execution
d. planning
e. initiation

Ans – e. initiation

19. According to PMBOK, project management process groups are iterative, which was originally
defined by Walter Shewhart and later modified by Edward Deming. Generally, one outcome from a
previous process can serve as input for the next process. Which of the following best identifies with
the description of this concept?
Select one:
a. Project life cycle
b. Plan-Do-Check-Act cycle
c. Project phases
d. PM processes
e. HR process cycle

Ans – b. Plan-Do-Check-Act cycle

20. Determining the policies that are needed for the smooth execution of a project relates to which
of the following agenda items of alignment sessions?

Select one:
a. Developing a common understanding of the project purpose
b. Establishing trust among team members
c. Engaging stakeholders in dialogue
d. Developing role clarification on projects
e. Agreeing on the means and methods for accomplishing the purpose

Ans – d. Developing role clarification on projects

21 TO 30 MCQ FOR PROJECT MANAGEMENT

21. Which of the following is true about management meetings?

Select one:
a. They are short meetings to develop a common understanding of what the short-term priorities are for
the project.
b. They focus on short-term activities, usually less than a week in duration.
c. They are purely fact-based meetings with a left-brain type focus.
d. They have very little dialogue except to ask clarification questions.
e. They are oriented toward developing plans, tracking progress of existing plans, and making adjustments
to plans in response to new information.

Ans – e. They are oriented toward developing plans, tracking progress of existing plans, and making
adjustments to plans in response to new information.

22. Do it because I said to” is the mantra for project managers who use _____ as the default approach
to resolve conflict.

Select one:
a. collaborating
b. compromising
c. accommodating
d. forcing
e. avoiding

Ans – d. forcing

23. A(n) _ is a review of the quality plan, procedures, data collection, and analysis by an outside
group. Select one:
a. scope document
b. project appraisal
c. cost performance index
d. analogous estimate
e. quality audit

Ans – e. quality audit

24. Which of the following is an advantage of including the project manager in the project
evaluation process?

Select one:
a. It enables the project manager to have an understanding of the selection criteria that can be used when
making decisions about the project during later phases.
b. It may indicate a need for project manager skills and experiences that are different from the project
manager who is involved in the evaluation.
c. It allows the parent organization to select a project manager whose abilities match the complexity
profile of the project.
d. It improves the project manager’s level of understanding about the project and ensures that the chosen
project manager is the most suitable individual for executing the project.
e. It helps achieve greater buy-in from the top management of the parent organization.

Ans – a. It enables the project manager to have an understanding of the selection criteria that can
be used when making decisions about the project during later phases.

Want to open demat account online to buy stocks , mutual fund easily in 10 Mins ?? Open
Upstox account and gets free market courses and premium tools worth 2000 rs. Sign up now and
gets 30 days brokerage free . Get Now click here  ( For more Comment Down )
25. Which of the following statements is true regarding contracts?

Select one:
a. They are the filters through which project members screen information that is shared.
b. They do not lend themselves to create an environment of trust.
c. The success of larger, more complex projects is more dependent on contracts than on relationships of
trust.
d. Without contracts, projects that are highly dependent on an information-rich environment will suffer.
e. Contracts promote the growth of a trusting project culture.

Ans – b. They do not lend themselves to create an environment of trust.

26. Role clarification facilitates the development of all of the following, EXCEPT:

Select one:
a. communication planning.
b. key milestones.
c. work flow organization.
d. approval processes.
e. role boundary spanning processes.

Ans – b. key milestones.

27. During a new project planning process to sequence activities, the project manager, Nate,
decides to use the precedence diagraming method to show the identified activity dependencies.
Which of the following logical relationships is Nate’s least favorite choice?

Select one:
a. Finish-to-start
b. Start-to-finish
c. Finish-to-finish
d. Start-to-start
e. All of these answers

Ans – b. Start-to-finish

28. In today’s global society, many projects become global. To effectively work together, global
virtual teams have been used in practice. As a project manager for a global project, Jim was told by
a local team member, Shan, that women are not allowed to hold positions of authority because of
the culture of his home country, since Jim hired a female local assistant project manager. How
would you respond to this situation as a PMP?

Select one:
a. Inform your local team member that a non-discrimination policy has to be adopted for this global
project.
b. Replace a local female assistant PM with a male candidate.
c. Do nothing.
d. Ask all project team members to attend a training session on treating different gender members for this
global project equally.
e. Fire the local team member because of his discrimination behavior.

Ans – a. Inform your local team member that a non-discrimination policy has to be adopted for this
global project.

29. Which of the following is true about a project manager?

Select one:
a. Project managers analyze work processes and explore opportunities to make improvements.
b. Project managers are focused on the long-term health of the organization.
c. Project managers are process focused.
d. Project managers are goal oriented.
e. Project managers standardize the work processes.

Ans – d. Project managers are goal oriented.

30. Shauna has recently been appointed as a project manager for Project SkyNorth, which is
regarded as an important project in her organization. During the project planning meeting, Shauna
is capable of allocating key resources and personnel that she needs for this project. Which
organizational structure is best for Shauna’s company?

Select one:
a. Balanced matrix organization
b. Matrix organization
c. Functional organization
d. Projectized organization
e. Hierarchical organization

Ans – d. Projectized organization

MCQ 31 TO 40
31. Complete the following statement. The method of incorporating change into project planning
and execution processes is called the:

Select one:
a. project logic diagram.
b. change management process.
c. milestone schedule
d. critical path
e. rough order of magnitude

Ans – b. change management process

32. BCR>1 indicates which of the following?

Select one:
a. Benefits are greater than the costs.
b. Costs are greater than the benefits.
c. Costs and benefits are well balanced.
d. Benefits are less than the costs
e. Costs are less than the benefits.

Ans – a. Benefits are greater than the costs.

33. Which of the following establishes key dates throughout the life of a project that must be met
for the project to finish on time?

Select one:
a. Critical path
b. Ballpark estimate
c. Pert diagram
d. Slack chart
e. Milestone schedule

Ans – e. Milestone schedule

34. Which of the following statements about risk is true?

Select one:
a. Project risk focuses on identifying, assessing, and eliminating the risks on the project.
b. Risk management is all about eliminating risk.
c. Project risk is an uncertain event that, even if it occurs, has no effect on project objectives.
d. There are no risk-free projects.
e. Risk management involves identification, evaluation, and elevation of risk
Ans – d. There are no risk-free projects.

35. Why are changes to the project scope necessary?

Select one:
a. To understand reports
b. To reflect new information
c. To begin planning the project
d. To teach team members what they need to know about their jobs
e. To establish a trusting project culture

Ans – b. To reflect new information

36. Fill in the blank. Crashing refers to when the task duration’s are __ along the critical path to
meet the project completion date.

Select one:
a. scope creep
b. floated
c. slack
d. compressed
e. expedited

Ans – d. compressed

37. An Expected Monetary Value (EMV) of $100000 on a potential project event in the project
means which of the following?

Select one:
a. A number that can be ignored
b. An opportunity that must be explored
c. Actual losses on the event
d. Actual investment returns on the event
e. A threat that must be considered to minimize the project risk

Ans – b. An opportunity that must be explored

38. Which of the following is a form of trust that is built on the examination of the person’s motives
and the conclusion that he or she is not hostile?

Select one:
a. Objective credibility
b. Attribution of benevolence
c. Non-manipulative trust
d. Unequivocal liberality
e. High cost of lying

Ans – b. Attribution of benevolence

39. When calculating EVM, Peter noticed that the cumulative planned value is 150% of the
cumulative earned value. What does this mean?

Select one:
a. SPI<1, so the project is behind schedule.
b. SPI>1, so the project is OK to complete on time.
c. SPI<1, so the project is ahead of time.
d. SPI>1, so the project is behind schedule.
e. SPI>1, so the project is on schedule.

Ans – a. SPI<1, so the project is behind schedule.

40. Fill in the blank. A __ represents the sequence of the activities needed to complete the project.

Select one:
a. work break down structure
b. scope of work
c. project logic diagram
d. run chart
e. step change

Ans – c. project logic diagram