Thermodynamics

Seat No -
Total number of questions : 60
1000629_T1 THERMODYNAMICS
Time : 1hr
Max Marks : 50
N.B
1) All questions are Multiple Choice Questions having single correct option.
2) Attempt any 50 questions out of 60.
3) Use of calculator is allowed.
4) Each question carries 1 Mark.
5) Specially abled students are allowed 20 minutes extra for examination.
6) Do not use pencils to darken answer.
7) Use only black/blue ball point pen to darken the appropriate circle.
8) No change will be allowed once the answer is marked on OMR Sheet.
9) Rough work shall not be done on OMR sheet or on question paper.
10) Darken ONLY ONE CIRCLE for each answer.
Q.no 1. The water tubes in a simple vertical boiler are
A : Horizontal
B : Vertical
C : Inclined
D : All of the above
Q.no 2. When water is heated without rise of temperature, it consumes
A : Latent heat
B : Enthalpy
C : Sensible heat
D : None
Q.no 3. Cochran boiler is a......

A : Horizontal fire tube boiler
B : Horizontal water tube boiler
C : Vertical water tube type
D : Vertical fire tube type
Q.no 4. Availability function is expressed as
A : a = (u + p0v – T0s)
B : a = (u + p0dv + T0ds)
C : a = (du + p0dv – T0ds)
D : a = (u + p0v + T0s).
Q.no 5. Specific heat at constant pressure and at constant volume for real gases
A : Remain the same always
B : Keep on changing as the temperature changes
C : Cp < Cv always
D : Both B & C are true
Q.no 6. Otto cycle is the air standard cycle of
A : spark ignition (SI) engine
B : compression (CI) ignition engine
C : both SI and CI engines
D : None of above
Q.no 7. Open system
A : Can exchange both mass and energy
B : Can exchange only mass
C : Can exchange only energy
D : Cannot exchange either mass or energy
Q.no 8. For a constant pressure process

A : Work done is maximum and no heat is transferred
B : Work done is minimum and heat transferred is maximum
C : Work done is zero and Heat added is equal to the change in the internal energy of
the system
D : Heat added to the system is equal to the change in Enthalpy of the fluid
Q.no 9. If the system converts all heat into work such a device is
A : PMM-1
B : PMM-2
C : PMM-3
D : None
Q.no 10. The ratio of actual mass of water vapour in a given volume of moist air to
the mass of water vapour in the same volume of saturated air at the same
temperature and pressure, is called
A : Humidity ratio
B : Absolute humidity
C : Relative humidity
D : Degree of saturation
Q.no 11. What is the relative humidity for a saturated air?
A:0
B : 0.5
C:1
D : cannot say
Q.no 12. Which ideal process is carried out at the turbine in vapour power cycle?
A : reversible adiabatic compression
B : reversible adiabatic expansion
C : reversible constant pressure heat addition
D : reversible constant pressure heat rejection

Q.no 13. What is the exergy of a system?
A : The minimum work that can be extracted from a system till it reaches
thermodynamic equilibrium with its surroundings
B : The maximum work that can be extracted from a system till it reaches
C : The maximum entropy that can be increased in a system till it reaches

D : none of the above
Q.no 14. The thermal efficiency of theoretical Otto cycle
A : increases with increase in compression ratio
B : increases with increase in isentropic index γ
C : does not depend upon the pressure ratio
D : follows all the above.
Q.no 15. During heating and dehumidification process, dry bulb temperature
A : Remains constant
B : Increases
C : Decreases
D : None of these
Q.no 16. The Brayton cycle is the air standard cycle for
A : gas turbine power plant
B : SI engine
C : CI engine
Q.no 17. How is the heat added in the Otto cycle?
A : reversibly at constant pressure
B : irreversibly at constant pressure
C : reversibly at constant volume

D : irreversibly at constant volume
Q.no 18. The draught in locomotive boilers is produced by a ........
A : Chimney
B : Centrifugal fan
C : Steam jet
Q.no 19. In diesel engine, the fuel is ignited by
A : spark
B : injected fuel
C : heat resulting from compressing air that is supplied for combustion
D : ignitor
Q.no 20. Dry bulb temperature is the temperature of air recorded by a

thermometer, when
A : It is not affected by the moisture present in the air
B : Its bulb is surrounded by a wet cloth exposed to the air
C : The moisture present in it begins to condense
D : None of the above
Q.no 21. In vapour refrigeration cycle, which of the following is used for
expansion?
A : expansion engine
B : throttling valve or capillary tube
C : Turbine
D : all of the above
Q.no 22. How is the heat added in the Diesel cycle?

Q.no 23. Second Law is the law of
A : Thermal equilibrium
B : Thermodynamic equilibrium
C : Law of entropy generation
D : Conservation of energy principle
Q.no 24. Which of the folling is a water tube boiler........
A : Locomotive boiler
B : Lancashire boiler
C : Cornish boiler
D : Babcock and wilcox boiler
Q.no 25. The change in enthalpy in closed system is equal to the heat transferred
if the reversible process occurs at constant
A : Pressure
B : Volume
C : Temperature
D : Entropy
Q.no 26. The compression ratio is the ratio of ____________
A : Swept volume to total volume
B : Total volume to swept volume
C : Total volume to clearance volume
D : None of the mentioned
Q.no 27. The amount of heat transferred to convert unit mass of solid to vapour
or vice versa is called as
A : latent heat of vaporization

B : latent heat of evaporation
C : latent heat of sublimation
D : specific heat
Q.no 28. The difference between dry bulb temperature and wet bulb temperature,
is called
A : Dry bulb depression
B : Wet bulb depression
C : Dew point depression
Q.no 29. Carnot cycle consists of........
A : Two constant volume and two reversible adibatic processes
B : Two isothermal and two reversible adibatic processes
C : Two constant pressure and two reversible adibatic processes
D : One constant volume,one constant pressure and two reversible adibatic processes
Q.no 30. The air standard Otto cycle comprises
A : two constant pressure processes and two constant volume processes
B : two constant pressure and two constant entropy processes
C : two constant volume processes and two constant entropy processes
D : none of the above.
Q.no 31. In a spray washing system, if the temperature of water is higher than the
dry bulb temperature of entering air, then the air is
A : Heated and dehumidified
B : Heated and humidified
C : Cooled and humidified
D : Cooled and dehumidified
Q.no 32. What is the maximum content of moisture allowed at the turbine
exhaust in the steam power plant?
A : 0.5
B : 0.6
C : 0.3
D : 0.15
Q.no 33. The wet bulb temperature at 100% relative humidity is ________ dew point
temperature.
A : Same as
B : Lower than
C : Higher than
D : None of these
Q.no 34. COP of a heat pump,
A : Would always be less than 1
B : Would always be greater than 1
C : Data insufficient
Q.no 35. A compressor, refrigerator, pump, air conditioner are a
A : Work producing device
B : Work absorbing device
C : Both A &B are correct
D : Both A &B are incorrect
Q.no 36. When dry bulb temperature (DBT) and wet bulb temperature (WBT) are
measured, greater the difference between DBT and WBT,
A : greater the amount of water vapour held in the mixture
B : smaller the amount of water vapour held in the mixture
C : same the amount of water vapour held in the mixture

Q.no 37. The dryness (x) fraction of superheated steam is taken as
A : x= 0
B : x= 0.75
C : x= 0.9
D : x= 1
Q.no 38. The comfort conditions in air conditioning are at (where DBT = Dry bulb
temperature, and RH = Relative humidity)
A : 25°C DBT and 100% RH
B : 20°C DBT and 80% RH
C : 22°C DBT and 60% RH
D : 25°C DBT and 40% RH
Q.no 39. Lost work is given by
A : pdV-dW
B : pdV+dW
C : -pdV-dW
D : pdV*dW
Q.no 40. The specific humidity during heating and humidification process.
B : Increases
C : Decreases
D : None of these
Q.no 41. What is the importance of the freezing point of the working fluid in the
vapour power cycle?
A : freezing point of working fluid should be below the room temperature
B : freezing point of working fluid should be above the room temperature
C : freezing point of working fluid should be equal to the room temperature

D : does not have any importance
Q.no 42. The efficiency of the Otto cycle is independent of
A : Heat supplied
B : Compression ratio
C : Ratio of specific heats
Q.no 43. First applied to Turbine is
A : Q=(H2-H1)
B : Q=(H1-H2)
C : W=(H2-H1)
D : W=(H1-H2)
Q.no 44. What is the state, at which saturated liquid line with respect to
vaporisation and saturated vapour line on p-v diagram of pure substance, meet
called?
A : saturation state
B : critical state
C : vaporisation state
D : superheated vapour state
Q.no 45. The internal energy of saturated water at the triple point is
A : equal to 1
B : equal to 0
C : equal to minus 1
D : infinity
Q.no 46. 1 bar gauge is = ------- bar absolute
A : 213
B : 313
C : 413
D:0
Q.no 47. For any irreversible process the net entropy change is
A : standard temperature conditions
B : constant volume
C : constant pressure
D : constant temperature
Q.no 48. The function of a steam trap is to
A : Lift the steam
B : Separate the steam
C : Discharge the condesate
D : Heat the steam
Q.no 49. The cycle which consists of two reversible adiabatic processes and two
reversible isobaric processess is called as
A : Rankine cycle
B : Carnot cycle
C : Brayton cycle
D : Ericsson cycle
Q.no 50. Which of the following statement is correct?
A : The human body can lose heat even if its temperature is less than the atmospheric
temperature.
B : The increase in air movement increases the evaporation from the human body.
C : The warm air increases the rate of radiation of heat from the human body.
D : Both (A) and (B)
Q.no 51. For unsaturated air, the dew point temperature is __________ wet bulb
temperature.
A : Equal to
B : Less than
C : More than
D : None of these
Q.no 52. Total entropy change of the ice as it melts into water
A : 1.495 KJ/K
B : 1.5549 KJ/K
C : 1.649 KJ/K
D : 1.749 KJ/K
Q.no 53. Enthalpy of the steam at the entry of the condenser is 200 kJ Enthalpy of
the water at the exit of the condenser is 100 kJ. What will be the work done by the
condenser
A : 0 kJ
B : 300 kJ
C : 200 kJ
Q.no 54. Rankine efficiency of a steam power plant
A : improves in summer as compared to that in winter
B : improves in winter as compared to that in summer
C : is unaffected by climatic conditions
Q.no 55. If the COP of a refrigerator is 2.5, COP of the heat pump would be,
A : 3.5
B : 1.5
C : 2.5
D : 4.5
Q.no 56. The dry bulb temperature lines, on the psychrometric chart are
A : Vertical and uniformly spaced
B : Horizontal and uniformly spaced
C : Horizontal and non-uniformly spaced
D : Curved lines
Q.no 57. As relative humidity decreases, the dew point temperature will be
________ wet bulb temperature.
A : Same as
B : Lower than
C : Higher than
D : None of these
Q.no 58. To be sure that steam after throttling is in the single-phase or

superheated vapour, a minimum of ____ is desired.
A : 10 degree Celsius
B : -5 degree Celsius
C : 0 degree Celsius
D : 5 degree Celsius
Q.no 59. In air standard Diesel cycle, at fixed compression ratio and fixed value of
adiabatic index (γ)
A : thermal efficiency increases with increase in heat addition cut-off ratio
B : thermal efficiency decreases with increase in heat addition cut-off ratio
C : thermal efficiency remains same with increase in heat addition cut-off ratio
Q.no 60. Specific internal energy of dry steam is given by
A : u= hg + 100 p Vg
B : u = hg – 100 p Vg
C : u = 100 hg/p Vg
D : None
Answer for Question No 1. is c
Answer for Question No 2. is a
Answer for Question No 3. is d
Answer for Question No 5. is b




Seat No -
Time : 1hr
Max Marks : 50
N.B
Q.no 1. During adiabatic saturation process on unsaturated air __________ remains

constant.
A : Relative humidity
B : Dew point temperature
C : Dry bulb temperature
D : Wet bulb temperature
Q.no 2. Which of the following is a fire tube boiler........
B : Cornish boiler
C : Cochran boiler
D : Babcock and Wilcox boiler

Q.no 3. When the humidity ratio of air increases the air is said to be
A : dehumidified
B : humidified
C : heated
D : cooled
Q.no 4. Entropy is the measure of
A : Order in a system
B : Disorder in a system
C : Internal energy of the system
D : Enthalpy of the system
Q.no 5. How is the condensation process in vapour compression refrigeration

cycle carried out?
A : at constant volume
B : at constant pressure
C : at constant enthalpy
Q.no 6. The latent heat of vaporisation at critical point is
A : less than zero
B : greater than zero
C : equal to zero
Q.no 7. When is artificial draught preferred
A : When quick evacuation of flue gases is required
B : When we choose large power plant systems
C : When draught produced by chimney is not sufficient
D : When there are many components inside the boiler

Q.no 8. Which cycle is more suitable for the reciprocating engines?
A : Brayton cycle
B : Rankine cycle
C : Otto cycle
D : All of the above are similarly efficient for same capacity
D : None of above
Q.no 10. Entropy is
A : Intensive property
B : Extensive property
C : Both A & B
D : None of above
Q.no 11. The properties of water are arranged in the steam tables as functions of
A : pressure
B : temperature
C : pressure and temperature
D : none of the mentioned
Q.no 12. Rankine cycle efficiency of a good steam power plant may be in the range
of
A : 15 to 20%
B : 35 to 45%
C : 70 to 80%
D : 90 to 95%
Q.no 13. Volume is
C : Both A & B
D : None of above
Q.no 14. ………. Law states that equal volume of all gases, at the same temperature
& pressure, contains equal number of molecules
A : Boyle's
B : Gay-lussac
C : Avogadro
D : Charle's
Q.no 15. The humidification process, on the psychrometric chart is shown by
A : Horizontal line
B : Vertical line
C : Inclined line
D : Curved line
Q.no 16. The COP of cycle is given by(Q2=heat absorbed by evaporator and
Wc=work done by compressor)
A : 1- (Q2/Wc)
B : 1- (Wc/Q2)
C : Q2/Wc
D : Wc/Q2
Q.no 17. The value of the universal gas constant is
A : 0.314 J/kg K
B : 83.14 kJ/kg K
C : 848 kJ/kg K
D : 8.314 kJ/kg K
Q.no 18. During heating and humidification, the final relative humidity of air
A : Can be lower or higher than that of the entering air
B : Is lower than that of the entering air
C : Is higher than that of the entering air
Q.no 19. The temperature of air recorded by a thermometer, when it is not

affected by the moisture present in the air, is called
A : Wet bulb temperature
B : Dry bulb temperature
C : Dew point temperature
D : None of these

thermometer, when
Q.no 22. The degree of saturation varies between
A : 1 to infinity
B : 0 to infinity
C : 0 to 1
Q.no 23. If the system converts all heat into work such a device is
A : PMM-1
B : PMM-2
C : PMM-3
D : None
Q.no 24. Which of the following operations occur in a vapour refrigeration cycle?
A : compression
B : cooling and condensing
C : expansion and evaporation
D : all of the mentioned
B : SI engine
C : CI engine
Q.no 26. The horizontal and non-uniformly spaced lines on a psychrometric chart
indicates
A : Dry bulb temperature
B : Wet bulb temperature
D : Specific humidity
Q.no 27. To maximize the work output at turbine, the specific volume of working
fluid should be
A : as small as possible
B : as large as possible
C : constant throughout the cycle
D : specific heat
Q.no 29. In a saturated air-water vapour mixture, the
A : Dry bulb temperature is higher than wet bulb temperature
B : Dew point temperature is lower than wet bulb temperature
C : Dry bulb, wet bulb and dew point temperature are same
D : Dry bulb temperature is higher than dew point temperature
Q.no 30. The dehumidification process, on the psychrometric chart, is shown by
A : Horizontal line
B : Vertical line
C : Inclined line
D : Curved line
Q.no 31. Wet bulb temperature is the temperature of air recorded by a

thermometer, when
Q.no 32. In a Carnot cycle which of the following processes must be carried out at
extremely slow speed?
A : isothermal compression
B : adiabatic expansion
C : adiabatic compression
Q.no 34. A mixture of dry air and water vapour, when the air has diffused the
maximum amount of water vapour into it, is called
A : Dry air
B : Moist air
C : Saturated air
Q.no 35. Volume of the gas goes on decreasing for every 1 C drop in temperature
A : by 1/273th of its original volume
B : By 273times of its original volume
C : Remains same
Q.no 36. The self-ignition temperature of diesel as compared to petrol is
A : same
B : lower
C : higher
D : varies
Q.no 37. When dry saturated steam is further heated, its dryness fraction
A : Increase
B : Decreases
C : Remains same
D : None
Q.no 38. Regarding enthalpy which of the following statements is incorrect?
A : it is the function of specific heat at constant volume
B : it is the extensive property of the system
C : it is the sum of internal energy & the pressure volume product
D : it is the same as heat transfer during constant pressure process
A : Heat supplied
Q.no 42. The wet bulb depression indicates _________ humidity of the air.
A : Absolute
B : Relative
C : Specific
D : None of these
Q.no 43. During humidification process, dry bulb temperature
B : Increases
C : Decreases
D : None of these
Q.no 44. First law applied to Condenser is
A : Q=(H2-H1)
B : Q=(H1-H2)
C : W=(H2-H1)
D : W=(H1-H2)
Q.no 45. For same compression ratio
A : thermal efficiency of Otto cycle is greater than that of Diesel cycle
B : thermal efficiency of Otto cycle is less than that of Diesel cycle
C : thermal efficiency of Otto cycle is same as that for Diesel cycle
D : thermal efficiency of Otto cycle cannot be predicted.
Q.no 46. The specific heat of a gas is a function of
A : temperature only
B : temperature & pressure
C : temperature & entropy
D : temperature, pressure & entropy
Q.no 48. Which one of following is standard condition for equivalent

evaporation?
A : Pressure 1 bar and generation at 100°C
B : From feed water at 100°C and 1 bar
C : From and at 100°C and 1 bar
Q.no 49. A pure substance is said to have ____ degrees of freedom.
A : one
B : two
C : three
D : four
Q.no 51. One kg of carbon requires 8/3 kg of oxygen and the mass of carbon
dioxide produced is
A : 7/ 3 kg
B : 8 /3 kg
C : 11 /3 kg
D : 11/ 7 kg
Q.no 52. The dry bulb temperature lines, on the psychrometric chart are
D : Curved lines
A : Same as
B : Lower than
C : Higher than
D : None of these
Q.no 54. The specific volume of water when heated at 0°C
A : The specific volume of water when heated at 0°C
B : first decreases and then increases
C : increases steadily
D : decreases steadily.
Q.no 55. When the rate of evaporation of water is zero, the relative humidity of
the air is
A:0
B:1
C : 0.5
D : unpredictable
Q.no 56. If m1 and m2 are the masses of liquid and vapour respectively in a liquid-
vapour mixture, then what is the formula for dryness fraction x?
A : x = (m1 + m2) / m1
B : x = (m1 + m2) / m2
C : x = m1 / (m1 + m2)
D : x = m2 / (m1 + m2)
Q.no 57. With the increase in pressure ratio thermal efficiency of a simple gas
turbine plant with fixed turbine inlet temperature
A : decreases
B : increases
C : first increases and then decreases
D : first decreases and then increases.
Q.no 58. Determine the height of chimney above grate level. Where diameter of
chimney is 1.75m and produces a draught of 1.8cms of water. Temperature of flue
gases is 290 C. The flue gases formed per kg of fuel burnt are 23kg. Neglect the
losses and assume atmospheric temperature as 20 C?
A : H = 23.28m
B : H = 18.56m
C : H = 32.77m
D : H = 41.92m
Q.no 59. For water, at pressures below atmospheric;
A : Melting point rises slightly and boiling point drops markedly
B : Melting point rises markedly and boiling point drops markedly
C : Melting point drops slightly and boiling point drops markedly
D : Melting point drops slightly and boiling point drops slightly
Q.no 60. Water at atmospheric pressure is a
A : Far below the critical temperature
B : Ideal gas
C : Far above the critical temperature
D : None




Seat No -
Time : 1hr
Max Marks : 50
N.B
A : Humidity ratio
Q.no 2. In VCR cycle,The evaporation process is a
A : constant volume reversible process
B : constant pressure reversible process
C : adiabatic throttling process
D : reversible adiabatic process

Q.no 3. What is a liquid, whose temperature is less than the saturation
temperature at the given pressure, called?
A : compressed liquid
B : subcooled liquid
C : both a. and b.
A : less than zero
C : equal to zero
Q.no 5. During sensible cooling of air ________ decreases.
Q.no 6. If a system develops work with no input energy such a machine is called as
A : PMM-1
B : PMM-2
C : PMM-3
D : None
Q.no 7. Quasi-static process is
A : Reversible process
B : Irreversible process
C : Both
D : None
Q.no 8. Fire tube boilers are those in which.............
A : Flue gases pass through tubes and water around it
B : Water passes through the tubes and flue gases around it
C : Work is done during adiabatic expansion
D : Change is enthalpy
Q.no 9. The internal energy of a perfect gas does not change during a
A : Adiabatic process
B : Isobaric Process
C : Isochoric Process
Q.no 10. What is the perfect condition for dehumidification of air?
A : air is heated above its dew point temperature
B : air is cooled below its dew point temperature
C : air is cooled up to its dry bulb temperature
D : air is cooled up to its dew point temperature
Q.no 11. When the humidity ratio of air increases the air is said to be
A : dehumidified
B : humidified
C : heated
D : cooled
C : Cp < Cv always

Q.no 13. Which of the following given below as the affect on amount natural
draught
A : Boiler operation
B : Size of the furnace
C : Grade of the fuel
D : Dust content in the fuel is used
Q.no 14. What is the saturated solid state?
A : a state at which solid can change into liquid at constant pressure but changing
temperature
B : a state at which solid can change into liquid at constant temperature but change in
pressure
C : a state at which solid can change into liquid at constant pressure and temperature
Q.no 15. The mechanical draught produces......draught than natural draught
A : More
B : Less
C : Equal
Q.no 16. In the expansion process, which of the following remains constant?
A : work done
B : heat supplied
C : internal energy
D : enthalpy
Q.no 17. The purpose of study of air standard cycle is
A : to simplify the analysis of internal combustion engine
B : to increase the efficiency of internal combustion engine
C : both a. and b.
Q.no 18. In which of the following processes the change in internal energy of a gas
is equal to the work done
A : adiabatic process
B : isothermal process
C : constant volume process
D : constant pressure process
Q.no 19. Entropy is
C : Both A & B
D : None of above
A : Chimney
B : Centrifugal fan
C : Steam jet
Q.no 21. The dew point temperature is less than the wet bulb temperature for
A : saturated air
B : unsaturated air
C : both saturated and unsaturated air
Q.no 22. Water tube boilers are those in which.....

Q.no 23. Open system
Q.no 24. The temperature of air recorded by thermometer when the bulb is
covered by a cotton wick saturated by water is called as
A : dry bulb temperature
B : wet bulb temperature
C : stream temperature
D : psychrometric temperature
Q.no 25. The economiser is used in boilers to........
A : Increase thermal efficiency of boiler
B : Economise on fule
C : Extract heat from the exhaust the gases
D : Increase flue gas temperature
Q.no 26. In a saturated air-water vapour mixture, the
A : Dry bulb temperature is higher than wet bulb temperature
B : Dew point temperature is lower than wet bulb temperature
C : Dry bulb, wet bulb and dew point temperature are same
D : Dry bulb temperature is higher than dew point temperature
Q.no 27. For the same peak pressure and heat input
A : Otto cycle is more efficient
B : Diesel cycle is more efficient
C : Both are equally efficient

Q.no 28. The change in entropy is zero during
A : hyperbolic process
B : constant pressure process
C : adiabatic processes
D : polytropic process
Q.no 29. The necessary condition for work crossing the system boundary is,
A : Temperature difference between the system and the surrounding
B : Temperature difference within the system &boundary
C : Displacement of the mass or body on application of the force applied
Q.no 30. Under which of the following conditions all gases behave ideally?
A : high pressure conditions
B : low pressure conditions
C : vaccum conditions
D : all of the above conditions
Q.no 31. The work output of theoretical Otto cycle
A : increases with increase in compression ratio
B : increases with increase in pressure ratio
C : increases with increase in adiabatic index γ
D : follows all the above.
Q.no 32. Isentropic compression
A : Produces work
B : Consumes work
C : Either of the two options are possible

Q.no 33. The wet bulb temperature during sensible heating of air
B : Increases
C : Decreases
D : None of these
Q.no 34. With the increase of pressure, the boiling point of water
A : Decreases
B : Increases
C : No change
C : Remains same
Q.no 37. In a combined separating and throttling calorimeter,
A : steam is first passed through a separator
B : in separator, some moisture separates out due to sudden change in direction
C : then the partially dry vapour is throttled and taken to the superheated region
Q.no 38. In case of real gases, cp will be equal to cv
A : at absolute zero
B : at triple point
C : at critical temperature
D : above critical temperature
Q.no 39. The ultimate analysis of coal is done to determine the percentage of
A : carbon
B : ash
C : sulphur
D : moisture
Q.no 40. Heat interaction with surrounding in case of Heat Pump is
A : Electrical work supplied to the refrigerator
B : Heat supplied by the low temperature reservoir to the system
C : Heat absorbed by the high temperature reservoir

B : constant volume
A : same
B : lower
C : higher
D : varies
Q.no 45. When dry saturated steam is further heated, its dryness fraction
A : Increase
B : Decreases
C : Remains same
D : None
Q.no 47. The wet bulb depression is zero when relative humidity is
A : Zero
B : 0.5
C : 0.75
D:1
Q.no 48. A human body feels comfortable when the heat produced by the
metabolism of human body is equal to the
A : Heat dissipated to the surroundings
B : Heat stored in the human body
C : Sum of (A) and (B)
D : Difference of (A) and (B)
Q.no 49. First law applied to Throttling device is
A : Q = dH+dKE+dPE+W
B : Q=dU+W
C : Q=W
D : H1=H2
Q.no 50. Dryness fraction of steam is equal to
A : m water/(m water + m dry steam)
B : m dry steam/ (m water + m dry steam)
C : (m water + m dry steam)/ m dry steam
D : None
Q.no 51. One kg of water is heated from 273 K to 373K by first bringing it in contact
with reservoir at 323 K and then with a reservoir at 373 K, what will be the
entropy change of the universe?
A : 0.198 KJ/K
B : 0.98 KJ/K
C : 9.8 KJ/K
D : 0.098 KJ/K
Q.no 52. It is desired to condition the outside air from 70% relative humidity and
45° C dry bulb temperature to 50% relative humidity and 25° C dry bulb
temperature (room condition). The practical arrangement will be
A : Dehumidification
B : Cooling and humidification
C : Cooling and dehumidification
D : Dehumidification and pure sensible cooling
B : Ideal gas
D : None
Q.no 54. In a reversible isothermal expansion process, the fluid expands from 10
bar and 2 m3 to 2 bar and 10 m3, during the process the heat supplied is 100 kW.
What is the work done during the
A : 33.3 kW
B : 100 kW
C : 80 kW
D : 20 kW
Q.no 55. Only throttling calorimeter is used for measuring
A : very low dryness fraction upto 0.7
B : very high dryness fraction upto 0.98
C : dryness fraction of only low pressure steam
D : dryness fraction of only high pressure steam.
Q.no 56. A closed system received 60 kJ heat but its internal energy decreases by
30 kJ. 30 KJ Then the work done by the system is
A : 90 kJ
B : 30 kJ
C : -30 kJ
D : -90 kJ

Q.no 58. The index which correlates the combined effects of air temperature,
relative humidity and air velocity on the human body, is known as
A : Mean radiant temperature
B : Effective temperature
D : None of these
A : decreases
B : increases
Q.no 60. For the same compression ratio, how is the efficiency of the Brayton cycle
compared with the efficiency of Otto cycle?
A : Efficiency of the Brayton cycle is higher than the efficiency of the Otto cycle, for the
same compression ratio
B : Efficiency of the Brayton cycle is equal to the efficiency of the Otto cycle, for the
C : Efficiency of the Brayton cycle is lower than the efficiency of the Otto cycle, for the
D : cannot say




Seat No -
Time : 1hr
Max Marks : 50
N.B
A : Chimney
B : Centrifugal fan
C : Steam jet
A : less than zero
C : equal to zero
Q.no 3. Work is
A : Path function
B : Point function
C : State function
D : none
Q.no 4. Heat is
A : Path function
B : Point function
C : State function
D : none
Q.no 5. What is available energy (A. E.)
A : Energy supplied to a cyclic heat engine
B : Maximum energy utilized to produce maximum work from a certain heat supplied
to a cyclic heat engine
C : Minimum heat energy rejected to sink by second law
D : Maximum heat energy rejected to sink by second law
B : Cornish boiler
C : Cochran boiler

C : both a. and b.

Q.no 8. When we obtain useful work during a process in which a finite system
undergoes a change of state, when should that process terminate?
A : when the pressure of system equals the pressure of surroundings
B : when the temperature of system equals the temperature of surroundings
C : when the system has reached the dead state
Q.no 9. In Rankine cycle, working fluid ____ , in Brayton cycle working fluid ____
A : undergoes phase change, remains in gaseous phase
B : remains in gaseous phase, undergoes phase change
C : undergoes phase change, undergoes phase change
D : remains in gaseous phase, remains in gaseous phase
Q.no 10. Size of boiler tubes is specified by
A : Mean diameter and thickness
B : Inside diameter and thickness
C : Outside diameter and thickness
D : Outside diameter and inside diameter
A : Humidity ratio
Q.no 13. Entropy of the universe
A : tends to zero
B : tends to a minimum
C : tends to a maximum
Q.no 14. For an isochoric process
the system
Q.no 15. Quasi-static process is
A : Reversible process
B : Irreversible process
C : Both
D : None
Q.no 16. Closed system
Q.no 17. During heating and humidification, the final relative humidity of air
A : Can be lower or higher than that of the entering air
B : Is lower than that of the entering air

C : Is higher than that of the entering air
Q.no 18. Which of the following given below as the affect on amount natural
draught
A : Boiler operation
B : Size of the furnace
C : Grade of the fuel
D : Dust content in the fuel is used
Q.no 19. Boyle's law states that, when temperature is constant, the volume of a
given mass of a perfect gas
A : varies directly as the absolute pressure
B : varies inversely as the absolute pressure
C : varies as square of the absolute pressure
D : does not vary with the absolute pressure
Q.no 20. In a closed system with fix boundaries
A : Heat transferred = Work done
B : Heat transferred = Change in the internal energy
C : Work Done = Zero
D : Both B & C are correct
A : saturated air
B : unsaturated air

Q.no 24. When the circulation of water, in a boiler, is by convection currents

which are set up during the heating of water, then the boiler is known as
A : Internally fired boiler
B : Externally fired boiler
C : Natural circulation boiler
D : Forced circulation boiler
Q.no 25. Boiler in working condition is example of
A : Open system
B : Closed system
C : Isolated system
D : Adiabatic System
Q.no 26. Internal energy & enthalpy of an ideal gas are functions of
A : pressure only
B : temperature only
C : specific volume only
D : temperature & pressure
Q.no 27. The specific humidity during dehumidification process
B : Increases
C : Decreases
D : None of these
Q.no 29. In which process, the heat is fully converted into work
A : Rev. adiabatic process
B : Rev. isobaric process
C : Rev. isothermal process
D : Rev. isentropic process
Q.no 30. Entropy increase dS of the system can be expressed as
A : dS=dS(due to external heat interaction)-dS(due to internal irreversibility)
B : dS=dS(due to external heat interaction)+dS(due to internal irreversibility)
C : dS=-dS(due to external heat interaction)-dS(due to internal irreversibility)
D : dS=-dS(due to external heat interaction)+dS(due to internal irreversibility)
A : Rankine cycle
B : Carnot cycle
C : Brayton cycle
D : Ericsson cycle

thermometer, when
Q.no 35. The work ratio of closed cycle gas turbine plant depends upon
A : pressure ratio of the cycle and specific heat ratio
B : temperature ratio of the cycle and specific heat ratio
C : pressure ratio, temperature ratio and specific heat ratio
D : only on pressure ratio.
Q.no 36. Increase in entropy of a system represents
A : increase in availability of energy
B : increase in temperature
C : decrease in pressure
D : degradation of energy

B : Increases
C : Decreases
D : None of these
A : Decreases
B : Increases
C : No change
Q.no 39. Liquid fuels as compared to solid fuels have the calorific value.
A : higher
B : lower
C : same
D : none of above

evaporation?
Q.no 41. Isentropic expansion
A : Produces work
B : Consumes work
C : Either of the two options are possible
Q.no 42. Pressure of water vapour is given by

A : 0.622 Pv/ (Pb - Pv)
B : μ/[1 - (1 - μ) (Ps/Pb)]
C : [Pv (Pb - Pd)]/ [Pd (Pb - Pv)]
D : None of these
vapour power cycle?
temperature.
A : Same as
B : Lower than
C : Higher than
D : None of these
Q.no 46. Which processes do occur in the Brayton cycle?
A : two reversible adiabatic processes and two reversible isochoric processes
B : two reversible adiabatic processes and two reversible isobaric processes
C : two reversible adiabatic processes and two reversible isothermal processes
D : two reversible adiabatic processes and two reversible isentropic processes

A : x= 0
B : x= 0.75
C : x= 0.9
D : x= 1
A : Q=(H2-H1)
B : Q=(H1-H2)
C : W=(H2-H1)
D : W=(H1-H2)
Q.no 49. When two gases suddenly mix up with each other then resultant entropy
of the system will
A : remain unaltered
B : decrease
C : increase
D : becomes zero
A : same
B : lower
C : higher
D : varies
Q.no 51. The enthalpy of evaporation at 100°C
A : 2527 kJ/kg
B : 2257 kJ/kg
C : 2276 kJ/kg
D : 2557 kJ/kg
Q.no 52. A refrigerator and a heat pump operate between the same temperature
limits. COP of heat pump is 4. COP of the refrigerator would be
A:4
B:5
C:3
D:2
A : Same as
B : Lower than
C : Higher than
D : None of these
Q.no 54. If m1 and m2 are the masses of liquid and vapour respectively in a liquid-
vapour mixture, then what is the formula for dryness fraction x?
A : x = (m1 + m2) / m1
B : x = (m1 + m2) / m2
C : x = m1 / (m1 + m2)
D : x = m2 / (m1 + m2)
A : 33.3 kW
B : 100 kW
C : 80 kW
D : 20 kW
Q.no 56. Which of the following statement is true?
A : a subcooled liquid is one which is cooled below its saturation temperature at a

certain pressure
B : subcooling is the difference between the saturation temperature and the actual
liquid temperature
C : both of the mentioned
B : Ideal gas
D : None
Q.no 58. Relative humidity is given by (where pv = Partial pressure of water

vapour, pb = Barometric pressure, ps = Pressure of saturated air, pd = Pressure at
dry bulb temperature, pw = Saturation pressure corresponding to wet bulb
temperature, and μ = Degree of saturation)
A : 0.622 Pv / (Pb - Pv)
B : μ/[1 - (1 - μ) (Ps/Pb)]
C : [Pv (Pb - Pd)]/ [Pd (Pb - Pv)]
D : None of these
Q.no 59. A gas is compressed adiabatically in a cylinder, if the thermal energy of

the gas is increased by 2 kJ, what is the work transfer during the process?
A : 6 KJ
B : -6 kJ
C : 2 kJ
D : -2 kJ
Q.no 60. The index which correlates the combined effects of air temperature,
relative humidity and air velocity on the human body, is known as
A : Mean radiant temperature
B : Effective temperature

D : None of these




Seat No -
Time : 1hr
Max Marks : 50
N.B
B : SI engine
C : CI engine
Q.no 2. As entropy increases,
A : Available energy increases
B : Available energy remains the same
C : Available energy decreases

temperature
pressure
of
A : 15 to 20%
B : 35 to 45%
C : 70 to 80%
D : 90 to 95%
A : Open system
B : Closed system
C : Isolated system
Q.no 7. Heat is
A : Path function
B : Point function
C : State function
D : none
Q.no 8. On psychrometric chart, wet bulb temperature lines are
A : horizontal with uniformly spaced
B : horizontal with non-uniformly spaced
C : inclined with uniformly spaced
D : inclined with non-uniformly spaced
Q.no 9. The dry bulb temperature during sensible heating of air
B : Increases
C : Decreases
D : None of these
Q.no 10. In the expansion process, which of the following remains constant?
A : work done
B : heat supplied
C : internal energy
D : enthalpy
Q.no 11. During adiabatic saturation process on unsaturated air __________

remains constant.
A : Relative humidity
B : Dew point temperature
C : Dry bulb temperature
D : Wet bulb temperature


Q.no 13. Which concept provides the useful measure of quality of energy?
A : entropy
B : exergy
C : energy
A : 1 to infinity
B : 0 to infinity
C : 0 to 1
Q.no 15. The process, generally used in winter air-conditioning to warm and
humidity the air, is called
A : Humidification
B : Dehumidification
C : Heating and humidification
D : Cooling and dehumidification
Q.no 16. Helmholtz function is expressed as
A : (h – Ts)
B : (u – Ts)
C : (– sdT + vdp)
D : (u + pv).
Q.no 17. Free expansion is an example of
A : Quasi-static process
B : Non-Quasi-static process
C : Both
D : None
Q.no 18. The humidity ratio or specific humidity is the mass of water vapour
present in
A : 1 m3 of wet air
B : 1 m3 of dry air
C : 1 kg of wet air
D : 1 kg of dry air
Q.no 21. Which cycle is more suitable for the reciprocating engines?
A : Brayton cycle
B : Rankine cycle
C : Otto cycle
D : All of the above are similarly efficient for same capacity
Q.no 22. Joule's law states that the specific internal energy of a gas depends only
on
A : the pressure of the gas
B : the volume of the gas

C : the temperature of the gas
C : Cp < Cv always
A : Pressure
B : Volume
C : Temperature
D : Entropy
A : Chimney
B : Centrifugal fan
C : Steam jet
vapour power cycle?

Q.no 28. In a combined separating and throttling calorimeter,
A : steam is first passed through a separator
B : in separator, some moisture separates out due to sudden change in direction
C : then the partially dry vapour is throttled and taken to the superheated region
Q.no 29. Area under the temperature entropy diagram gives the amount of
A : Work done
B : Power
C : Heat transfer
D : Entropy change
A : The human body can lose heat even if its temperature is less than the atmospheric
temperature.
B : The increase in air movement increases the evaporation from the human body.
C : The warm air increases the rate of radiation of heat from the human body.
D : Both (A) and (B)
A : Zero
B : 0.5
C : 0.75
D:1
Q.no 32. The amount of heat obtained by complete combustion of 1 kg of fuel

when the products of combustion are cooled to the temperature of supplied air is
known as
A : calorific value
B : higher calorific value
C : lower calorific value
Q.no 33. Which processes do occur in the Brayton cycle?
A : two reversible adiabatic processes and two reversible isochoric processes
B : two reversible adiabatic processes and two reversible isobaric processes
C : two reversible adiabatic processes and two reversible isothermal processes
D : two reversible adiabatic processes and two reversible isentropic processes
Q.no 34. The latent heat of steam at the atmospheric pressure is
A : 2157 kJ/kg
B : 2457 kJ/kg
C : 2257 kJ/kg
D : None
Q.no 35. Mechanical efficiency of a gas turbine as compared to internal

combustion reciprocating engine is
A : higher
B : lower
C : same
D : may be higher or lower
Q.no 36. Internal energy & enthalpy of an ideal gas are functions of
A : pressure only
B : temperature only
C : specific volume only
D : temperature & pressure

A : pdV-dW
B : pdV+dW
C : -pdV-dW
D : pdV*dW
Q.no 38. 1 bar vacuum gauge is = ------- bar absolute
A : 013
B : 113
C : 213
D:0
Q.no 39. Specific enthalpy of wet steam is
A : h= h water + x h steam
B : h = h water — x h steam
C : h= (1—x) h water + x h steam
D : none
Q.no 40. The human body feels comfortable when the heat stored in the body is
A : Positive
B : Negative
C : Zero
D : None of these
temperature.
A : Same as
B : Lower than
C : Higher than
D : None of these
Q.no 42. In a reversible adiabatic process head added is equal to

A : zero
B : Positive
C : Negative
A : Rankine cycle
B : Carnot cycle
C : Brayton cycle
D : Ericsson cycle
A : x= 0
B : x= 0.75
C : x= 0.9
D : x= 1
Q.no 45. A good fuel has
A : low ignition point and high calorific value
B : low ignition point and low calorific value
C : high ignition point and high calorific value
D : high ignition point and low calorific value

Q.no 47. What is the relation between compression ratio (rk) and the efficiency of
the Otto cycle?
A : efficiency decreases with increase in compression ratio
B : efficiency increases with increase in compression ratio
C : efficiency does not affected by change in compression ratio
indicates
Q.no 49. Exergy is not conserved but destroyed in the process. What is the reason
behind this?
A : reversibility
B : irreversibility
C : both reversibility and irreversibility
B : Increases
C : Decreases
D : None of these
Q.no 51. In air standard Diesel cycle, at fixed compression ratio and fixed value of
adiabatic index (γ)
A : thermal efficiency increases with increase in heat addition cut-off ratio
B : thermal efficiency decreases with increase in heat addition cut-off ratio

C : thermal efficiency remains same with increase in heat addition cut-off ratio

A : 6 KJ
B : -6 kJ
C : 2 kJ
D : -2 kJ
A : 3.5
B : 1.5
C : 2.5
D : 4.5
A : 2527 kJ/kg
B : 2257 kJ/kg
C : 2276 kJ/kg
D : 2557 kJ/kg
the air is
A:0
B:1
C : 0.5
D : unpredictable
A:4
B:5
C:3
D:2
Q.no 58. A carnot heat engine recieves 500 kJ per cycle from a high temperature
source of 625 C and rejects heat to a low temperature sink at 30 C. Determine a.
thermal efficiency of this carnot engine b. Amount of heat rejected to the sink per
cycle
A : 66.2 % and 168.8 kJ
B : 6.62 % and 16.8 kJ
C : 76.2 % and 146 kJ
D : 60 % and 100 kJ
D : cannot say
Q.no 60. If a heat pump absorbs 30 kW heat from low temperature reservoir and
rejects 100 kW heat to high temperature reservoir while absorbing 70 kW of
electrical work input.
A : Such a heat pump does not satisfies Kelvin Plancks Statement for first law of
thermodynamics
B : Such a heat pump does not satisfies Clausius Statement for first law of
thermodynamics
C : Such a heat pump satisfies Kelvin Plancks Statement for second law of
thermodynamics
D : Such a heat pump satisfies Clausius Statement for second law of thermodynamics




Seat No -
Time : 1hr
Max Marks : 50
N.B
Q.no 1. What is the dryness fraction (x) on saturated vapour line?
A : x = 0
B:x=1
C : x = 0.9
D : x = 0.5
Q.no 2. Size of boiler tubes is specified by
A : Mean diameter and thickness
B : Inside diameter and thickness
C : Outside diameter and thickness
D : Outside diameter and inside diameter

C : Cp < Cv always
Q.no 5. Bursting of Tyre is an example of
A : Quasi-static process
B : Non-Quasi-static process
C : Both
D : None
Q.no 6. Humidification is the process of addition moisture in air at
A : constant wet bulb temperature
B : constant dry bulb temperature
C : constant latent heatn
A : Humidity ratio
A : tends to zero
A : Chimney
B : Centrifugal fan
C : Steam jet
Q.no 10. Compressor is
A : Open system
B : Closed system
C : Isolated system
D : None of above
Q.no 11. Blow off cock in a boiler is used to
A : Control the flow of steam from the boiler to the main pipe and to shut off the steam
completely when required
B : Empty the boiler when required and to discharge the mud, scale or sediments
which are accumulated at the bottom of the boiler
C : Put off fire in the furnace of the boiler when the level of water in the boiler falls to
an unsafe limit
D : Increase the temperature of saturated steam without raising its pressure
Q.no 12. An economiser in a boiler........
A : Increases steam pressure
B : Increases steam flow
C : Decreases fuel consumption

D : Decreases steam pressure
Q.no 14. Joules experiment is related to
A : First law of thermodynamics
B : Zeroth law of thermodynamics
C : Second law of thermodynamics
D : Third law of thermodynamics
Q.no 15. Open system
Q.no 16. In evaporation process of vapour compression refrigeration system
A : heat is rejected from refrigerant to surroundings
B : heat is rejected from surroundings to refrigerant
C : only pressure change takes place
A : Pressure
B : Volume
C : Temperature
D : Entropy
Q.no 19. The dryness fraction of super-heated steam is
A : equal to 1
B : greater than 1
C : less than 1
D : Zero

thermometer, when
Q.no 22. Availability function is expressed as
A : a = (u + p0v – T0s)
B : a = (u + p0dv + T0ds)
C : a = (du + p0dv – T0ds)
D : a = (u + p0v + T0s).
Q.no 23. The temperature of air recorded by a thermometer, when it is not

affected by the moisture present in the air, is called
D : None of these
Q.no 25. Then biggest loss in the boiler is.....
A : Moisture in fuel
B : Dry in flue gases
C : Steam formation
D : Unburnt carbon
Q.no 26. The equivalent evaporation is defined as
A : steam generated at 100°C
B : dry and saturated steam generated at 100°C from feed water at 100°C
C : steam generated at 1 bar and at 100°C

Q.no 28. The relative humidity lines on a psychrometric chart are
D : Curved lines
Q.no 29. The ultimate analysis of coal is done to determine the percentage of
A : carbon
B : ash
C : sulphur
D : moisture
C : Remains same
Q.no 32. The temperature of a substance at which the vapour pressure is equal to
760 mm Hg is called as
A : normal vapour point
B : normal boiling point
C : normal pressure point
A : Lift the steam
D : Heat the steam
A : Heat supplied
Q.no 35. Which of the following is not a component of Brayton cycle?
A : Compressor
B : Combustion Chamber
C : Turbine
D : Pump
Q.no 36. Which of the following statement is false?
A : for a reversible process, entropy generation is zero
B : the entropy generation does not depend on the path the system follows
C : for an irreversible process, entropy generation is greater than zero
Q.no 39. If a heat engine absorbs 100 kW heat from heat source and develops 100
kW work. Such a engine is a,
A : PMM-1
B : PMM-2
C : PMM-3
D : PMM-4
Q.no 40. When a process followed by a system is irreversibilities, then what is the
entropy generation of the system?
A : less than zero
B : equals to zero
C : greater than zero
A : Decreases
B : Increases
C : No change

Q.no 42. Specific enthalpy of wet steam is
A : h= h water + x h steam
B : h = h water — x h steam
C : h= (1—x) h water + x h steam
D : none
Q.no 43. The temperature, at which the air cannot hold all the water vapour
mixed in it and some vapour starts condensing, is called as
A : humidification temperature
B : dehumidification temperature
C : dew point temperature
D : wet bulb temperature
Q.no 44. The specific humidity during dehumidification process
B : Increases
C : Decreases
D : None of these
B : Increases
C : Decreases
D : None of these
B : Increases
C : Decreases
D : None of these
A : equal to 1
B : equal to 0
D : infinity
Q.no 49. The difference between dry bulb temperature and wet bulb temperature,
is called
A : Dry bulb depression
B : Wet bulb depression
C : Dew point depression
Q.no 50. Polytropic index of compression for an Isobaric process is,
A:1
B : Infinity
C:0
D : Negative
the air is
A:0
B:1
C : 0.5
D : unpredictable

A : 6 KJ
B : -6 kJ
C : 2 kJ
D : -2 kJ
D : cannot say
A : 90 kJ
B : 30 kJ
C : -30 kJ
D : -90 kJ
A : 1.495 KJ/K
B : 1.5549 KJ/K
C : 1.649 KJ/K
D : 1.749 KJ/K
Q.no 57. To increase work capacity of energy transferred by heat transfer from
high temperature to low temperature
A : lower temperature should be lowered keeping temperature difference same
B : higher temperature should be increased keeping temperature difference same
C : temperature difference should be increased
D : temperature difference should be decreased.
A : 0.198 KJ/K
B : 0.98 KJ/K
C : 9.8 KJ/K
D : 0.098 KJ/K
Q.no 59. For unsaturated air, the dew point temperature is __________ wet bulb
temperature.
A : Equal to
B : Less than
C : More than
D : None of these
A : 3.5
B : 1.5
C : 2.5
D : 4.5




Seat No -
Time : 1hr
Max Marks : 50
N.B
Q.no 1. When the circulation of water, in a boiler, is by convection currents which

are set up during the heating of water, then the boiler is known as
B : Cornish boiler
C : Cochran boiler

Q.no 3. The P V = Constant is a
A : Linear process
B : Horizontal line on a P-V diagram
C : Vertical line on a P-V diagram
D : Hyperbolic process on a P-V diagram
Q.no 4. The compression ratio cannot be increased beyond certain limit, because
it results to
A : auto-ignition of fuel
B : detonation
C : engine knocking
Q.no 5. Isolated system

Q.no 7. The mechanical draught produces......draught than natural draught
A : More
B : Less
C : Equal
Q.no 8. What is the condition for increase the chances of corrosion of blades of
turbine?
A : decrease in the pressure difference between which the Rankine cycle operates
B : increase in the pressure difference between which the Rankine cycle operates
C : both a. and b.
Q.no 9. The value of the universal gas constant is
A : 0.314 J/kg K
B : 83.14 kJ/kg K
C : 848 kJ/kg K
D : 8.314 kJ/kg K
Q.no 10. The ratio of heat actually used in producing the steam to the heat
liberated in the furnace is called......
A : Steam efficiency
B : Boiler efficiency
C : Evaporation capacity of a boiler
Q.no 11. ………. Law states that equal volume of all gases, at the same temperature
& pressure, contains equal number of molecules
A : Boyle's
B : Gay-lussac
C : Avogadro
D : Charle's
Q.no 12. During heating and dehumidification process, dry bulb temperature
B : Increases
C : Decreases
D : None of these
Q.no 13. The irreversibility of a process occurs due to
A : lack of equilibrium during the process
B : involvement of dissipative effects
C : either a. or b. or both
A : Horizontal line
B : Vertical line
C : Inclined line
D : Curved line
Q.no 15. During dehumidification process, the relative humidity
B : Increases
C : Decreases
D : None of these

D : None of above
A : x = 0
B:x=1
C : x = 0.9
D : x = 0.5
A : equal to 1
B : greater than 1
C : less than 1
D : Zero
Q.no 21. Enthalpy of saturated steam is
A : Equal to the enthalpy of wet steam
B : Less than the enthalpy of wet steam
C : Greater than the enthalpy of wet steam
D : zero

A : Latent heat
B : Enthalpy
C : Sensible heat
D : None
B : SI engine
C : CI engine
C : both a. and b.

B : Increases
C : Decreases
D : None of these
Q.no 30. Dryness fraction of steam is equal to
A : m water/(m water + m dry steam)
B : m dry steam/ (m water + m dry steam)
C : (m water + m dry steam)/ m dry steam
D : None
A : 0.5
B : 0.6
C : 0.3
D : 0.15
Q.no 32. Carnot cycle consists of........
A : Two constant volume and two reversible adibatic processes
B : Two isothermal and two reversible adibatic processes
C : Two constant pressure and two reversible adibatic processes
D : One constant volume,one constant pressure and two reversible adibatic processes
A : equal to 1
B : equal to 0
D : infinity
B : Increases
C : Decreases
D : None of these
Q.no 37. For the same maximum pressure and temperature, what is the relation
among the efficiencies of the Otto cycle, the Diesel cycle and the Dual cycle?
A : ηDual > ηDiesel > ηOtto
B : ηDiesel > ηDual > ηOtto
C : ηDiesel > ηOtto > ηDual
D : ηOtto > ηDiesel > ηDual

thermometer, when
called?
B : critical state
Q.no 40. The function of a fusible plug is to
A : Superheat the steam
B : Extinguish the fire
C : Maintain constant temperature
B : constant volume
A : Lift the steam
D : Heat the steam
Q.no 44. In a Carnot cycle which of the following processes must be carried out at
extremely slow speed?
A : isothermal compression
B : adiabatic expansion
C : adiabatic compression
Q.no 45. If temperature difference between two bodies in which heat transfer
takes place increases, the irreversibility of the process
A : increases
B : decreases
C : does not change
D : approaches toward reversibility
A : 013
B : 113
C : 213
D:0
Q.no 47. First law applied to Throttling device is
A : Q = dH+dKE+dPE+W
B : Q=dU+W
C : Q=W
D : H1=H2
Q.no 48. The amount of heat obtained by complete combustion of 1 kg of fuel

when the products of combustion are cooled to the temperature of supplied air is
known as
A : calorific value
B : higher calorific value
C : lower calorific value
Q.no 49. In a bomb calorimeter, the fuel burns at constant
A : volume
B : pressure
C : temperature
D : entropy
A : Compressor
C : Turbine
D : Pump

A : 0.622 Pv / (Pb - Pv)
B : μ/[1 - (1 - μ) (Ps/Pb)]
C : [Pv (Pb - Pd)]/ [Pd (Pb - Pv)]
D : None of these
A : Same as
B : Lower than
C : Higher than
D : None of these
A:4
B:5
C:3
D:2
A : The constant enthalpy lines are also constant wet bulb temperature lines
B : The wet bulb and dry bulb temperature are equal at saturation condition
C : The wet bulb temperature is a measure of enthalpy of moist air

thermodynamics
thermodynamics
thermodynamics
Q.no 57. A car uses power of 25 hp for a one hour in a round trip. A thermal
efficiency of 35% can be assumed? Find the change in entropy if we assume
ambient at 20°C
A : 554.1 kJ/K
B : 654.1 kJ/K
C : 754.1 kJ/K
D : 854.1 kJ/K
Q.no 58. If Carnot engine works between 300 K & 800 K & rejects 900 kJ heat, then
heat accepted is
A : 2400 kJ
B : 500 kJ
C : 2700 kJ
D : 1200 kJ
Q.no 59. To be sure that steam after throttling is in the single-phase or

superheated vapour, a minimum of ____ is desired.
A : 10 degree Celsius
B : -5 degree Celsius
C : 0 degree Celsius
D : 5 degree Celsius
A : 90 kJ
B : 30 kJ
C : -30 kJ
D : -90 kJ




Seat No -
Time : 1hr
Max Marks : 50
N.B
Q.no 1. The temperature at which a pure liquid transforms into vapour at

constant pressure is called as
A : vaporisation temperature
B : normal temperature
C : saturation temperature
Q.no 2. For an isochoric process
the system

Q.no 3. Boyle's law states that, when temperature is constant, the volume of a
given mass of a perfect gas
A : varies directly as the absolute pressure
B : varies inversely as the absolute pressure
C : varies as square of the absolute pressure
D : does not vary with the absolute pressure
Q.no 4. Pressure is
C : Both A & B
D : None of above
B : Cornish boiler
C : Cochran boiler
temperature
pressure
Q.no 8. Joule's law states that the specific internal energy of a gas depends only on
A : the pressure of the gas
B : the volume of the gas
C : the temperature of the gas
Q.no 9. At any point on the saturation curve in psychometric chart, the dry bulb
temperature is always
A : less than the corresponding wet bulb temperature
B : more than the corresponding wet bulb temperature
C : equal to the corresponding wet bulb temperature
D : cannot predict
Q.no 10. Which concept provides the useful measure of quality of energy?
A : entropy
B : exergy
C : energy
Q.no 11. Isolated system
Q.no 12. Cochran boiler is a......
A : Horizontal fire tube boiler
B : Horizontal water tube boiler
C : Vertical water tube type

D : Vertical fire tube type
Q.no 13. For an isothermal process select the incorrect statement
A : Temperature changes as the process proceeds
B : Change in the internal energy is zero during the process
C : Change in the enthalpy is zero
D : All of the above are incorrect
Q.no 15. The irreversibility of a process occurs due to
A : lack of equilibrium during the process
B : involvement of dissipative effects
C : either a. or b. or both
A : tends to zero
Q.no 17. What is the specific humidity?
A : the ratio of the mass of water vapour to the mass of the total mixture of air and
water vapour
B : the ratio of the mass of dry air to the mass of the total mixture of air and water
vapour
C : the ratio of the mass of dry air to the mass of water vapour in a mixture of air and
water vapour
D : the ratio of the mass of water vapour to the mass of dry air in a mixture of air and
water vapour

A : Latent heat
B : Enthalpy
C : Sensible heat
D : None
expansion?
C : Turbine
Q.no 21. What is heat rate in steam power plant?
A : the rate of heat input in kJ per heat input in kW
B : the rate of heat output in kJ per heat input in kW
C : the rate of heat input in kJ required to produce unit net shaft work (1 kW)
Q.no 22. Heat is

A : Path function
B : Point function
C : State function
D : none
A : Open system
B : Closed system
C : Isolated system
Q.no 24. Zeroth Law gave birth to concept of
A : Temperature
B : Internal energy
C : Entropy
D : Exergy
D : None of above

thermometer, when

A : Q=(H2-H1)
B : Q=(H1-H2)
C : W=(H2-H1)
D : W=(H1-H2)
Q.no 28. A mixture of dry air and water vapour, when the air has diffused the
maximum amount of water vapour into it, is called
A : Dry air
B : Moist air
C : Saturated air
A : 013
B : 113
C : 213
D:0
A : same
B : lower
C : higher
D : varies
A : 0.5
B : 0.6
C : 0.3
D : 0.15
Q.no 33. First law applied to Boiler is
A : Q=(H2-H1)
B : Q=(H1-H2)
C : W=(H2-H1)
D : W=(H1-H2)

evaporation?
D : specific heat


A : higher
B : lower
C : same
B : Increases
C : Decreases
D : None of these
A : pdV-dW
B : pdV+dW
C : -pdV-dW
D : pdV*dW
Q.no 41. One kg of CO requires 4/7 kg of oxygen and the mass of carbon dioxide
produced is
A : 7/ 3 kg
B : 8 /3 kg
C : 11 /3 kg
D : 11/ 7 kg
Q.no 42. Rankine cycle comprises of
A : two isentropic processes and two constant volume processes
B : two isentropic processes and two constant pressure processes
C : two isothermal processes and two constant pressure processes
A : Lift the steam
D : Heat the steam
Q.no 46. Pressure of water vapour is given by
A : 0.622 Pv/ (Pb - Pv)
B : μ/[1 - (1 - μ) (Ps/Pb)]
C : [Pv (Pb - Pd)]/ [Pd (Pb - Pv)]
D : None of these
Q.no 47. A device in which there is appreciable drop of pressure without change
in energy is
A : Nozzle
B : Diffuser
C : Throttling device
D : Turbine
Q.no 48. If temperature difference between two bodies in which heat transfer
takes place increases, the irreversibility of the process
A : increases
B : decreases
C : does not change
D : approaches toward reversibility
Q.no 49. A pure substance is said to have ____ degrees of freedom.
A : one
B : two
C : three
D : four
A : volume
B : pressure
C : temperature
D : entropy
Q.no 51. Enthalpy of the steam at the entry of the condenser is 200 kJ Enthalpy of
the water at the exit of the condenser is 100 kJ. What will be the work done by the
condenser
A : 0 kJ
B : 300 kJ
C : 200 kJ
A : 0.198 KJ/K
B : 0.98 KJ/K
C : 9.8 KJ/K
D : 0.098 KJ/K
A : 1.495 KJ/K
B : 1.5549 KJ/K
C : 1.649 KJ/K
D : 1.749 KJ/K
A : H = 23.28m
B : H = 18.56m
C : H = 32.77m
D : H = 41.92m
A : 3.5
B : 1.5
C : 2.5
D : 4.5
Q.no 59. Specific internal energy of dry steam is given by
A : u= hg + 100 p Vg
B : u = hg – 100 p Vg
C : u = 100 hg/p Vg
D : None
A : decreases
B : increases





Seat No -
Time : 1hr
Max Marks : 50
N.B
Q.no 1. Entropy is
C : Both A & B
D : None of above
Q.no 2. By what is natural draught produced?
A : Air duct
B : Chimney
C : Locomotive exhaust
D : Air blower

C : Steam formation
D : Unburnt carbon
Q.no 4. In evaporation process of vapour compression refrigeration system
A : heat is rejected from refrigerant to surroundings
B : heat is rejected from surroundings to refrigerant
C : only pressure change takes place
Q.no 5. The temperature of air recorded by a thermometer, when it is not affected

by the moisture present in the air, is called
D : None of these
Q.no 6. During sensible cooling of air ________ decreases.

Q.no 8. Water tube boilers produces steam at a......pressure than that of fire tube
boilers.
A : Higher
B : Lower
C : Same

A : Linear process
A : Horizontal line
B : Vertical line
C : Inclined line
D : Curved line
Q.no 16. Turbine is
A : Open system
B : Closed system
C : Isolated system
D : None of above
Q.no 17. The process, generally used in winter air-conditioning to warm and
humidity the air, is called
A : Humidification
B : Dehumidification
C : Heating and humidification
D : Cooling and dehumidification
Q.no 18. What is the condition for increase the chances of corrosion of blades of
turbine?
A : decrease in the pressure difference between which the Rankine cycle operates
B : increase in the pressure difference between which the Rankine cycle operates
C : both a. and b.
Q.no 19. An economiser in a boiler........
A : Increases steam pressure
B : Increases steam flow
C : Decreases fuel consumption
D : Decreases steam pressure
Q.no 20. Enthalpy of saturated steam is
A : Equal to the enthalpy of wet steam
B : Less than the enthalpy of wet steam
C : Greater than the enthalpy of wet steam
D : zero
Q.no 21. Blow off cock in a boiler is used to
A : Control the flow of steam from the boiler to the main pipe and to shut off the steam
completely when required
B : Empty the boiler when required and to discharge the mud, scale or sediments
which are accumulated at the bottom of the boiler
C : Put off fire in the furnace of the boiler when the level of water in the boiler falls to
an unsafe limit
D : Increase the temperature of saturated steam without raising its pressure

Q.no 22. Where is blower installed in induced draught system
A : Near the boiler
B : Base of the chimney
C : Above the boiler
D : Between economizer and air preheater
Q.no 23. The curved lines on a psychrometric chart indicates
D : Relative humidity
A : x = 0
B:x=1
C : x = 0.9
D : x = 0.5
of
A : 15 to 20%
B : 35 to 45%
C : 70 to 80%
D : 90 to 95%
Q.no 26. During cooling and dehumidification, dry bulb temperature
B : Increases
C : Decreases
D : None of these
indicates
A : 0.5
B : 0.6
C : 0.3
D : 0.15
fluid should be
Q.no 31. Thermal sink is,
A : An infinite energy reservoir supplies heat to the system whose temperature remain
unchanged always
B : A finite energy reservoir supplies heat to the system and whose temperature
decreases after supplying heat to the system
C : An infinite energy reservoir absorbs heat from the system whose temperature
remain unchanged always
D : A finite energy reservoir absorbs heat from the system and whose temperature
changes after absorbing the heat
A : Zero
B : 0.5
C : 0.75
D:1
A : Q=(H2-H1)
B : Q=(H1-H2)
C : W=(H2-H1)
D : W=(H1-H2)
Q.no 34. The specific heat of a gas is a function of
A : temperature only
B : temperature & pressure
C : temperature & entropy
D : temperature, pressure & entropy

A : higher
B : lower
C : same

Q.no 36. The equivalent evaporation is defined as
A : steam generated at 100°C
B : dry and saturated steam generated at 100°C from feed water at 100°C
C : steam generated at 1 bar and at 100°C
Q.no 37. 1 bar gauge is = ------- bar absolute
A : 213
B : 313
C : 413
D:0
Q.no 38. First law efficiency is defined as select the most appropriate answer,
A : Desired input / desired output
B : Desired output / Required Input
C : Required Input / Desired output
D : Curved lines
Q.no 40. When the pressure at which heat is added in Rankine cycle increases, the
moisture content at the turbine exhaust
A : increases
B : decreases
C : remains same
D : cannot say
A : Compressor
C : Turbine
D : Pump
A : volume
B : pressure
C : temperature
D : entropy
A : Lift the steam
D : Heat the steam

evaporation?
B : Increases
C : Decreases
D : None of these
vapour power cycle?
Q.no 48. First law applied to Boiler is
A : Q=(H2-H1)
B : Q=(H1-H2)
C : W=(H2-H1)
D : W=(H1-H2)
B : constant volume

Q.no 51. In order to cool and dehumidify a stream of moist air, it must be passed
over the coil at a temperature
A : Which lies between the dry bulb and wet bulb temperatures of the incoming
stream
B : Which lies between the wet bulb and dew point temperatures of the incoming
stream
C : Which is lower than the dew point temperature of the incoming stream
D : Of adiabatic saturation of incoming stream
ambient at 20°C
A : 554.1 kJ/K
B : 654.1 kJ/K
C : 754.1 kJ/K
D : 854.1 kJ/K
A : 1.495 KJ/K
B : 1.5549 KJ/K
C : 1.649 KJ/K
D : 1.749 KJ/K

A : 0.622 Pv / (Pb - Pv)
B : μ/[1 - (1 - μ) (Ps/Pb)]
C : [Pv (Pb - Pd)]/ [Pd (Pb - Pv)]
D : None of these
A : H = 23.28m
B : H = 18.56m
C : H = 32.77m
D : H = 41.92m
A : 33.3 kW
B : 100 kW
C : 80 kW
D : 20 kW
B : Ideal gas
D : None
Q.no 59. Degree of saturation or percentage humidity is
A : The mass of water vapour present in 1 m³ of dry air
B : The mass of water vapour present in 1 kg of dry air

C : The ratio of the actual mass of water vapour in a unit mass of dry air to the mass of
water vapour in the same mass of dry air when it is saturated at the same temperature
and pressure
D : The ratio of actual mass of water vapour in a given volume of moist air to the mass
of water vapour in the same volume of saturated air at the same temperature and
pressure





Seat No -
Time : 1hr
Max Marks : 50
N.B
Q.no 1. The COP of cycle is given by(Q2=heat absorbed by evaporator and

Wc=work done by compressor)
A : 1- (Q2/Wc)
B : 1- (Wc/Q2)
C : Q2/Wc
D : Wc/Q2

C : both a. and b.

temperature
pressure
Q.no 6. How can exhaust gas be recovered in the induced draught
A : By installing the forced draught fan at the starting point
B : By extending the chimney’s height
C : By inletting high amount of air from multiple air ducts
D : By installing air preheater and economizer along the gas path
Q.no 7. Which in the examples is NOT a pure substance?
A : baking soda
B : diamond
C : sea water
D : table salt

expansion?
C : Turbine
A : Chimney
B : Centrifugal fan
C : Steam jet
A : 1 to infinity
B : 0 to infinity
C : 0 to 1
A : saturated air
B : unsaturated air

Q.no 13. What is the relative humidity for a saturated air?
A:0
B : 0.5
C:1
D : cannot say
A : Linear process
Q.no 15. Entropy is
C : Both A & B
D : None of above

D : None of above
Q.no 18. Where is blower installed in induced draught system
A : Near the boiler
B : Base of the chimney
C : Above the boiler
D : Between economizer and air preheater
Q.no 19. The compression ratio cannot be increased beyond certain limit, because
it results to
A : auto-ignition of fuel
B : detonation
C : engine knocking
Q.no 21. In VCR cycle,The evaporation process is a
A : constant volume reversible process
B : constant pressure reversible process
C : adiabatic throttling process
D : reversible adiabatic process
C : Steam formation
D : Unburnt carbon
A : equal to 1
B : greater than 1
C : less than 1
D : Zero
Q.no 24. Zeroth Law gave birth to concept of
A : Temperature
B : Internal energy
C : Entropy
D : Exergy
Q.no 25. Turbine is
A : Open system
B : Closed system
C : Isolated system
D : None of above
Q.no 26. Change of entropy depends upon which of the following?
A : change of heat
B : change of specific heats
C : change of pressure & volume
Q.no 28. For the same capacity engines, the compression ratio of diesel engine
A : is lower than the compression ratio of SI engine
B : is higher than the compression ratio of SI engine
C : is same as the compression ratio of SI engine
D : cannot say
Q.no 29. A good fuel has
A : low ignition point and high calorific value
B : low ignition point and low calorific value
C : high ignition point and high calorific value
D : high ignition point and low calorific value
Q.no 30. Polytropic index of compression for an Isobaric process is,
A:1
B : Infinity
C:0
D : Negative
Q.no 31. Heat interaction with surrounding in case of Heat Pump is
A : Electrical work supplied to the refrigerator
B : Heat supplied by the low temperature reservoir to the system
C : Heat absorbed by the high temperature reservoir
fluid should be

Q.no 34. The wet bulb depression indicates _________ humidity of the air.
A : Absolute
B : Relative
C : Specific
D : None of these
C : Remains same
D : Curved lines
Q.no 37. When does a vapour become superheated?
A : when the temperature of vapour is less than the saturation temperature at given
pressure
B : when the temperature of vapour is more than the saturation temperature at given
pressure
C : when the temperature of vapour is equal to the saturation temperature at given
pressure
B : constant volume
Q.no 39. Universal gas constant is defined as equal to product of the molecular
weight of the gas &
A : gas constant
B : specific heat at constant volume
C : specific heat a constant pressure
D : ratio of two specific heats
Q.no 40. For the same maximum pressure and temperature, what is the relation
among the efficiencies of the Otto cycle, the Diesel cycle and the Dual cycle?
A : ηDual > ηDiesel > ηOtto
B : ηDiesel > ηDual > ηOtto
C : ηDiesel > ηOtto > ηDual
D : ηOtto > ηDiesel > ηDual
Q.no 41. Critical temperature and critical pressure of steam is
A : 2 ℃ and 374.15 Bar
B : 15℃ and 374.15 Bar
C : 15℃ and 212 Bar
D : 2 ℃ and 212 Bar

A : Compressor
C : Turbine
D : Pump
A : volume
B : pressure
C : temperature
D : entropy
called?
B : critical state
A : Q=(H2-H1)
B : Q=(H1-H2)
C : W=(H2-H1)
D : W=(H1-H2)
Q.no 47. The latent heat of steam at the atmospheric pressure is

A : 2157 kJ/kg
B : 2457 kJ/kg
C : 2257 kJ/kg
D : None
Q.no 48. In Dual cycle,
A : all the heat is added at constant volume
B : all the heat is added at constant pressure
C : some heat is added at constant volume and remaining at constant pressure
Q.no 49. What is the temperature at which the water vapour in the mixture of
water vapour in air, starts condensing called?
A : condensation temperature
B : dew point temperature
C : vaporization temperature
Q.no 50. Thermal source is,
A : An infinite energy reservoir supplies heat to the system whose temperature remain
unchanged always
B : A finite energy reservoir supplies heat to the system and whose temperature
decreases after supplying heat to the system
C : An infinite energy reservoir absorbs heat from the system whose temperature
remain unchanged always
D : A finite energy reservoir absorbs heat from the system and whose temperature
changes after absorbing the heat

A : Same as
B : Lower than
C : Higher than
D : None of these
thermodynamics
thermodynamics
thermodynamics
A : H = 23.28m
B : H = 18.56m
C : H = 32.77m
D : H = 41.92m
A : 0.198 KJ/K
B : 0.98 KJ/K
C : 9.8 KJ/K
D : 0.098 KJ/K
ambient at 20°C
A : 554.1 kJ/K
B : 654.1 kJ/K
C : 754.1 kJ/K
D : 854.1 kJ/K
A : 90 kJ
B : 30 kJ
C : -30 kJ
D : -90 kJ
A : 2527 kJ/kg
B : 2257 kJ/kg
C : 2276 kJ/kg
D : 2557 kJ/kg
Q.no 59. Rankine efficiency of a steam power plant
A : improves in summer as compared to that in winter
B : improves in winter as compared to that in summer
C : is unaffected by climatic conditions
Q.no 60. A carnot heat engine recieves 500 kJ per cycle from a high temperature
source of 625 C and rejects heat to a low temperature sink at 30 C. Determine a.
thermal efficiency of this carnot engine b. Amount of heat rejected to the sink per
cycle
A : 66.2 % and 168.8 kJ
B : 6.62 % and 16.8 kJ
C : 76.2 % and 146 kJ
D : 60 % and 100 kJ




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Seat No -

Total number of questions : 60

2) Attempt any 50 questions out of 60.

3) Use of calculator is allowed.

4) Each question carries 1 Mark.

5) Specially abled students are allowed 20 minutes extra for examination.

6) Do not use pencils to darken answer.

8) No change will be allowed once the answer is marked on OMR Sheet.

9) Rough work shall not be done on OMR sheet or on question paper.

10) Darken ONLY ONE CIRCLE for each answer.

Q.no 1. The water tubes in a simple vertical boiler are

D : All of the above

Q.no 2. When water is heated without rise of temperature, it consumes

Q.no 3. Cochran boiler is a......

B : Horizontal water tube boiler

C : Vertical water tube type

D : Vertical ﬁre tube type

Q.no 4. Availability function is expressed as

C : a = (du + p0dv – T0ds)

A : Remain the same always

B : Keep on changing as the temperature changes

D : Both B & C are true

Q.no 6. Otto cycle is the air standard cycle of

A : spark ignition (SI) engine

B : compression (CI) ignition engine

C : both SI and CI engines

Q.no 7. Open system

A : Can exchange both mass and energy

B : Can exchange only mass

C : Can exchange only energy

D : Cannot exchange either mass or energy

Q.no 8. For a constant pressure process

B : Work done is minimum and heat transferred is maximum

Q.no 11. What is the relative humidity for a saturated air?

A : reversible adiabatic compression

B : reversible adiabatic expansion

C : reversible constant pressure heat addition

D : reversible constant pressure heat rejection

C : The maximum entropy that can be increased in a system till it reaches

D : none of the above

Q.no 14. The thermal eﬃciency of theoretical Otto cycle

A : increases with increase in compression ratio

B : increases with increase in isentropic index γ

C : does not depend upon the pressure ratio

D : follows all the above.

A : gas turbine power plant

D : none of the above

Q.no 17. How is the heat added in the Otto cycle?

A : reversibly at constant pressure

B : irreversibly at constant pressure

C : reversibly at constant volume

Q.no 18. The draught in locomotive boilers is produced by a ........

D : All of the above

Q.no 19. In diesel engine, the fuel is ignited by

C : heat resulting from compressing air that is supplied for combustion

Q.no 20. Dry bulb temperature is the temperature of air recorded by a

A : It is not affected by the moisture present in the air

B : Its bulb is surrounded by a wet cloth exposed to the air

C : The moisture present in it begins to condense

D : None of the above