A.

Health care provider 

 Philippine NLE Board Exam: Community Health Nursing
B. Health educator 
Question & Answer w/ rationale C. Health care coordinator 
D. Environmental manager 
COMMUNITY HEALTH NURSING
1. Which is the primary goal of community health nursing?  Answer: (D) Environmental manager 
A. To support and supplement the efforts of the medical profession in the Ergonomics is improving efficiency of workers by improving the worker’s
promotion of health and prevention of illness  environment through appropriately designed furniture, for example.
B. To enhance the capacity of individuals, families and communities to cope 7. A garment factory does not have an occupational nurse. Who shall provide
with their health needs  the occupational health needs of the factory workers? 
C. To increase the productivity of the people by providing them with services A. Occupational health nurse at the Provincial Health Office 
that will increase their level of health  B. Physician employed by the factory 
D. To contribute to national development through promotion of family welfare, C. Public health nurse of the RHU of their municipality 
focusing particularly on mothers and children.  D. Rural sanitary inspector of the RHU of their municipality 

Answer: (B) To enhance the capacity of individuals, families and communities to Answer: (C) Public health nurse of the RHU of their municipality 
cope with their health needs  You’re right! This question is based on R.A.1054.
To contribute to national development through promotion of family welfare, 8. “Public health services are given free of charge.” Is this statement true or
focusing particularly on mothers and children. false? 
2. CHN is a community-based practice. Which best explains this statement?  A. The statement is true; it is the responsibility of government to provide basic
A. The service is provided in the natural environment of people.  services. 
B. The nurse has to conduct community diagnosis to determine nursing needs B. The statement is false; people pay indirectly for public health services. 
and problems.  C. The statement may be true or false, depending on the specific service
C. The services are based on the available resources within the community.  required. 
D. Priority setting is based on the magnitude of the health problems identified.  D. The statement may be true or false, depending on policies of the government
concerned. 
Answer: (B) The nurse has to conduct community diagnosis to determine
nursing needs and problems.  Answer: (B) The statement is false; people pay indirectly for public health
Community-based practice means providing care to people in their own natural services. 
environments: the home, school and workplace, for example. Community health services, including public health services, are pre-paid
3. Population-focused nursing practice requires which of the following services, though taxation, for example.
processes?  9. According to C.E.Winslow, which of the following is the goal of Public Health? 
A. Community organizing  A. For people to attain their birthrights of health and longevity 
B. Nursing process  B. For promotion of health and prevention of disease 
C. Community diagnosis  C. For people to have access to basic health services 
D. Epidemiologic process  D. For people to be organized in their health efforts 

Answer: (C) Community diagnosis  Answer: (A) For people to attain their birthrights of health and longevity 
Population-focused nursing care means providing care based on the greater According to Winslow, all public health efforts are for people to realize their
need of the majority of the population. The greater need is identified through birthrights of health and longevity.
community diagnosis. 10. We say that a Filipino has attained longevity when he is able to reach the
4. R.A. 1054 is also known as the Occupational Health Act. Aside from number average lifespan of Filipinos. What other statistic may be used to determine
of employees, what other factor must be considered in determining the attainment of longevity? 
occupational health privileges to which the workers will be entitled?  A. Age-specific mortality rate 
A. Type of occupation: agricultural, commercial, industrial  B. Proportionate mortality rate 
B. Location of the workplace in relation to health facilities  C. Swaroop’s index 
C. Classification of the business enterprise based on net profit  D. Case fatality rate 
D. Sex and age composition of employees 
Answer: (C) Swaroop’s index 
Answer: (B) Location of the workplace in relation to health facilities  Swaroop’s index is the percentage of the deaths aged 50 years or older. Its
Based on R.A. 1054, an occupational nurse must be employed when there are inverse represents the percentage of untimely deaths (those who died younger
30 to 100 employees and the workplace is more than 1 km. away from the than 50 years).
nearest health center. 11. Which of the following is the most prominent feature of public health
5. A business firm must employ an occupational health nurse when it has at nursing? 
least how many employees?  A. It involves providing home care to sick people who are not confined in the
A. 21  hospital. 
B. 101  B. Services are provided free of charge to people within the catchment area. 
C. 201  C. The public health nurse functions as part of a team providing a public health
D. 301  nursing services. 
D. Public health nursing focuses on preventive, not curative, services. 
Answer: (B) 101 
Again, this is based on R.A. 1054. Answer: (D) Public health nursing focuses on preventive, not curative, services. 
6. When the occupational health nurse employs ergonomic principles, she is The catchment area in PHN consists of a residential community, many of whom
performing which of her roles?  are well individuals who have greater need for preventive rather than curative
services. Answer: (D) Rural Health Unit 
12. According to Margaret Shetland, the philosophy of public health nursing is R.A. 7160 devolved basic health services to local government units (LGU’s ). The
based on which of the following?  public health nurse is an employee of the LGU.
A. Health and longevity as birthrights  19. R.A. 7160 mandates devolution of basic services from the national
B. The mandate of the state to protect the birthrights of its citizens  government to local government units. Which of the following is the major goal
C. Public health nursing as a specialized field of nursing  of devolution? 
D. The worth and dignity of man  A. To strengthen local government units 
B. To allow greater autonomy to local government units 
Answer: (D) The worth and dignity of man  C. To empower the people and promote their self-reliance 
This is a direct quote from Dr. Margaret Shetland’s statements on Public Health D. To make basic services more accessible to the people 
Nursing.
13. Which of the following is the mission of the Department of Health?  Answer: (C) To empower the people and promote their self-reliance 
A. Health for all Filipinos  People empowerment is the basic motivation behind devolution of basic
B. Ensure the accessibility and quality of health care  services to LGU’s.
C. Improve the general health status of the population  20. Who is the Chairman of the Municipal Health Board? 
D. Health in the hands of the Filipino people by the year 2020  A. Mayor 
B. Municipal Health Officer 
Answer: (B) Ensure the accessibility and quality of health care  C. Public Health Nurse 
(none) D. Any qualified physician 
14. Region IV Hospital is classified as what level of facility? 
A. Primary  Answer: (A) Mayor 
B. Secondary  The local executive serves as the chairman of the Municipal Health Board.
C. Intermediate  21. Which level of health facility is the usual point of entry of a client into the
D. Tertiary  health care delivery system? 
A. Primary 
Answer: (D) Tertiary  B. Secondary 
Regional hospitals are tertiary facilities because they serve as training hospitals C. Intermediate 
for the region. D. Tertiary 
15. Which is true of primary facilities? 
A. They are usually government-run.  Answer: (A) Primary 
B. Their services are provided on an out-patient basis.  The entry of a person into the health care delivery system is usually through a
C. They are training facilities for health professionals.  consultation in out-patient services.
D. A community hospital is an example of this level of health facilities.  22. The public health nurse is the supervisor of rural health midwives. Which of
the following is a supervisory function of the public health nurse? 
Answer: (B) Their services are provided on an out-patient basis.  A. Referring cases or patients to the midwife 
Primary facilities government and non-government facilities that provide basic B. Providing technical guidance to the midwife 
out-patient services. C. Providing nursing care to cases referred by the midwife 
16. Which is an example of the school nurse’s health care provider functions?  D. Formulating and implementing training programs for midwives 
A. Requesting for BCG from the RHU for school entrant immunization 
B. Conducting random classroom inspection during a measles epidemic  Answer: (B) Providing technical guidance to the midwife 
C. Taking remedial action on an accident hazard in the school playground  The nurse provides technical guidance to the midwife in the care of clients,
D. Observing places in the school where pupils spend their free time  particularly in the implementation of management guidelines, as in Integrated
Management of Childhood Illness.
Answer: (B) Conducting random classroom inspection during a measles 23. One of the participants in a hilot training class asked you to whom she
epidemic  should refer a patient in labor who develops a complication. You will answer, to
Random classroom inspection is assessment of pupils/students and teachers for the 
signs of a health problem prevalent in the community. A. Public Health Nurse 
17. When the nurse determines whether resources were maximized in B. Rural Health Midwife 
implementing Ligtas Tigdas, she is evaluating  C. Municipal Health Officer 
A. Effectiveness  D. Any of these health professionals 
B. Efficiency 
C. Adequacy  Answer: (C) Municipal Health Officer 
D. Appropriateness  A public health nurse and rural health midwife can provide care during normal
childbirth. A physician should attend to a woman with a complication during
Answer: (B) Efficiency  labor.
Efficiency is determining whether the goals were attained at the least possible 24. You are the public health nurse in a municipality with a total population of
cost. about 20,000. There are 3 rural health midwives among the RHU personnel.
18. You are a new B.S.N. graduate. You want to become a Public Health Nurse. How many more midwife items will the RHU need? 
Where will you apply?  A. 1 
A. Department of Health  B. 2 
B. Provincial Health Office  C. 3 
C. Regional Health Office  D. The RHU does not need any more midwife item. 
D. Rural Health Unit 
Answer: (A) 1 
Each rural health midwife is given a population assignment of about 5,000. D. Core group formation 
25. If the RHU needs additional midwife items, you will submit the request for
additional midwife items for approval to the  Answer: (D) Core group formation 
A. Rural Health Unit  In core group formation, the nurse is able to transfer the technology of
B. District Health Office  community organizing to the potential or informal community leaders through a
C. Provincial Health Office  training program.
D. Municipal Health Board  31. In which step are plans formulated for solving community problems? 
A. Mobilization 
Answer: (D) Municipal Health Board  B. Community organization 
As mandated by R.A. 7160, basic health services have been devolved from the C. Follow-up/extension 
national government to local government units. D. Core group formation 
26. As an epidemiologist, the nurse is responsible for reporting cases of
notifiable diseases. What law mandates reporting of cases of notifiable Answer: (B) Community organization 
diseases?  Community organization is the step when community assemblies take place.
A. Act 3573  During the community assembly, the people may opt to formalize the
B. R.A. 3753  community organization and make plans for community action to resolve a
C. R.A. 1054  community health problem.
D. R.A. 1082  32. The public health nurse takes an active role in community participation.
What is the primary goal of community organizing? 
Answer: (A) Act 3573  A. To educate the people regarding community health problems 
Act 3573, the Law on Reporting of Communicable Diseases, enacted in 1929, B. To mobilize the people to resolve community health problems 
mandated the reporting of diseases listed in the law to the nearest health C. To maximize the community’s resources in dealing with health problems 
station. D. To maximize the community’s resources in dealing with health problems 
27. According to Freeman and Heinrich, community health nursing is a
developmental service. Which of the following best illustrates this statement?  Answer: (D) To maximize the community’s resources in dealing with health
A. The community health nurse continuously develops himself personally and problems 
professionally.  Community organizing is a developmental service, with the goal of developing
B. Health education and community organizing are necessary in providing the people’s self-reliance in dealing with community health problems. A, B and
community health services.  C are objectives of contributory objectives to this goal.
C. Community health nursing is intended primarily for health promotion and 33. An indicator of success in community organizing is when people are able to 
prevention and treatment of disease.  A. Participate in community activities for the solution of a community problem 
D. The goal of community health nursing is to provide nursing services to people B. Implement activities for the solution of the community problem 
in their own places of residence.  C. Plan activities for the solution of the community problem 
D. Identify the health problem as a common concern 
Answer: (B) Health education and community organizing are necessary in
providing community health services.  Answer: (A) Participate in community activities for the solution of a community
The community health nurse develops the health capability of people through problem 
health education and community organizing activities. Participation in community activities in resolving a community problem may be
28. Which disease was declared through Presidential Proclamation No. 4 as a in any of the processes mentioned in the other choices.
target for eradication in the Philippines?  34. Tertiary prevention is needed in which stage of the natural history of
A. Poliomyelitis  disease? 
B. Measles  A. Pre-pathogenesis 
C. Rabies  B. Pathogenesis 
D. Neonatal tetanus  C. Prodromal 
D. Terminal 
Answer: (B) Measles 
Presidential Proclamation No. 4 is on the Ligtas Tigdas Program. Answer: (D) Terminal 
29. The public health nurse is responsible for presenting the municipal health Tertiary prevention involves rehabilitation, prevention of permanent disability
statistics using graphs and tables. To compare the frequency of the leading and disability limitation appropriate for convalescents, the disabled,
causes of mortality in the municipality, which graph will you prepare?  complicated cases and the terminally ill (those in the terminal stage of a
A. Line  disease)
B. Bar  35. Isolation of a child with measles belongs to what level of prevention? 
C. Pie  A. Primary 
D. Scatter diagram  B. Secondary 
C. Intermediate 
Answer: (B) Bar  D. Tertiary 
A bar graph is used to present comparison of values, a line graph for trends over
time or age, a pie graph for population composition or distribution, and a Answer: (A) Primary 
scatter diagram for correlation of two variables. The purpose of isolating a client with a communicable disease is to protect
30. Which step in community organizing involves training of potential leaders in those who are not sick (specific disease prevention).
the community?  36. On the other hand, Operation Timbang is _____ prevention. 
A. Integration  A. Primary 
B. Community organization  B. Secondary 
C. Community study  C. Intermediate 
D. Tertiary  D. May be done in a variety of ways depending on the home situation, etc. 

Answer: (B) Secondary  Answer: (B) Should minimize if not totally prevent the spread of infection. 
Operation Timbang is done to identify members of the susceptible population Bag technique is performed before and after handling a client in the home to
who are malnourished. Its purpose is early diagnosis and, subsequently, prompt prevent transmission of infection to and from the client.
treatment. 43. To maintain the cleanliness of the bag and its contents, which of the
37. Which type of family-nurse contact will provide you with the best following must the nurse do? 
opportunity to observe family dynamics?  A. Wash his/her hands before and after providing nursing care to the family
A. Clinic consultation  members. 
B. Group conference  B. In the care of family members, as much as possible, use only articles taken
C. Home visit  from the bag. 
D. Written communication  C. Put on an apron to protect her uniform and fold it with the right side out
before putting it back into the bag. 
Answer: (C) Home visit  D. At the end of the visit, fold the lining on which the bag was placed, ensuring
Dynamics of family relationships can best be observed in the family’s natural that the contaminated side is on the outside. 
environment, which is the home.
38. The typology of family nursing problems is used in the statement of nursing Answer: (A) Wash his/her hands before and after providing nursing care to the
diagnosis in the care of families. The youngest child of the de los Reyes family family members. 
has been diagnosed as mentally retarded. This is classified as a  Choice B goes against the idea of utilizing the family’s resources, which is
A. Health threat  encouraged in CHN. Choices C and D goes against the principle of asepsis of
B. Health deficit  confining the contaminated surface of objects.
C. Foreseeable crisis  44. The public health nurse conducts a study on the factors contributing to the
D. Stress point  high mortality rate due to heart disease in the municipality where she works.
Which branch of epidemiology does the nurse practice in this situation? 
Answer: (B) Health deficit  A. Descriptive 
Failure of a family member to develop according to what is expected, as in B. Analytical 
mental retardation, is a health deficit. C. Therapeutic 
39. The de los Reyes couple have a 6-year old child entering school for the first D. Evaluation 
time. The de los Reyes family has a 
A. Health threat  Answer: (B) Analytical 
B. Health deficit  Analytical epidemiology is the study of factors or determinants affecting the
C. Foreseeable crisis  patterns of occurrence and distribution of disease in a community.
D. Stress point  45. Which of the following is a function of epidemiology? 
A. Identifying the disease condition based on manifestations presented by a
Answer: (C) Foreseeable crisis  client 
Entry of the 6-year old into school is an anticipated period of unusual demand B. Determining factors that contributed to the occurrence of pneumonia in a 3
on the family. year old 
40. Which of the following is an advantage of a home visit?  C. Determining the efficacy of the antibiotic used in the treatment of the 3 year
A. It allows the nurse to provide nursing care to a greater number of people.  old client with pneumonia 
B. It provides an opportunity to do first hand appraisal of the home situation.  D. Evaluating the effectiveness of the implementation of the Integrated
C. It allows sharing of experiences among people with similar health problems.  Management of Childhood Illness 
D. It develops the family’s initiative in providing for health needs of its
members.  Answer: (D) Evaluating the effectiveness of the implementation of the
Integrated Management of Childhood Illness 
Answer: (B) It provides an opportunity to do first hand appraisal of the home Epidemiology is used in the assessment of a community or evaluation of
situation.  interventions in community health practice.
Choice A is not correct since a home visit requires that the nurse spend so much 46. Which of the following is an epidemiologic function of the nurse during an
time with the family. Choice C is an advantage of a group conference, while epidemic? 
choice D is true of a clinic consultation. A. Conducting assessment of suspected cases to detect the communicable
41. Which is CONTRARY to the principles in planning a home visit?  disease 
A. A home visit should have a purpose or objective.  B. Monitoring the condition of the cases affected by the communicable disease 
B. The plan should revolve around family health needs.  C. Participating in the investigation to determine the source of the epidemic 
C. A home visit should be conducted in the manner prescribed by the RHU.  D. Teaching the community on preventive measures against the disease 
D. Planning of continuing care should involve a responsible family member. 
Answer: (C) Participating in the investigation to determine the source of the
Answer: (C) A home visit should be conducted in the manner prescribed by the epidemic 
RHU.  Epidemiology is the study of patterns of occurrence and distribution of disease
The home visit plan should be flexible and practical, depending on factors, such in the community, as well as the factors that affect disease patterns. The
as the family’s needs and the resources available to the nurse and the family. purpose of an epidemiologic investigation is to identify the source of an
42. The PHN bag is an important tool in providing nursing care during a home epidemic, i.e., what brought about the epidemic.
visit. The most important principle of bag technique states that it  47. The primary purpose of conducting an epidemiologic investigation is to 
A. Should save time and effort.  A. Delineate the etiology of the epidemic 
B. Should minimize if not totally prevent the spread of infection.  B. Encourage cooperation and support of the community 
C. Should not overshadow concern for the patient and his family.  C. Identify groups who are at risk of contracting the disease 
D. Identify geographical location of cases of the disease in the community  C. Health workers are able to provide care based on identified health needs of
the people. 
Answer: (A) Delineate the etiology of the epidemic  D. Health programs are sustained according to the level of development of the
Delineating the etiology of an epidemic is identifying its source. community. 
48. Which is a characteristic of person-to-person propagated epidemics? 
A. There are more cases of the disease than expected.  Answer: (D) Health programs are sustained according to the level of
B. The disease must necessarily be transmitted through a vector.  development of the community. 
C. The spread of the disease can be attributed to a common vehicle.  Primary health care is essential health care that can be sustained in all stages of
D. There is a gradual build up of cases before the epidemic becomes easily development of the community.
noticeable.  54. Sputum examination is the major screening tool for pulmonary tuberculosis.
Clients would sometimes get false negative results in this exam. This means that
Answer: (D) There is a gradual build up of cases before the epidemic becomes the test is not perfect in terms of which characteristic of a diagnostic
easily noticeable.  examination? 
A gradual or insidious onset of the epidemic is usually observable in person-to- A. Effectiveness 
person propagated epidemics. B. Efficacy 
49. In the investigation of an epidemic, you compare the present frequency of C. Specificity 
the disease with the usual frequency at this time of the year in this community. D. Sensitivity 
This is done during which stage of the investigation? 
A. Establishing the epidemic  Answer: (D) Sensitivity 
B. Testing the hypothesis  Sensitivity is the capacity of a diagnostic examination to detect cases of the
C. Formulation of the hypothesis  disease. If a test is 100% sensitive, all the cases tested will have a positive result,
D. Appraisal of facts  i.e., there will be no false negative results.
55. Use of appropriate technology requires knowledge of indigenous
Answer: (A) Establishing the epidemic  technology. Which medicinal herb is given for fever, headache and cough? 
Establishing the epidemic is determining whether there is an epidemic or not. A. Sambong 
This is done by comparing the present number of cases with the usual number B. Tsaang gubat 
of cases of the disease at the same time of the year, as well as establishing the C. Akapulko 
relatedness of the cases of the disease. D. Lagundi 
50. The number of cases of Dengue fever usually increases towards the end of
the rainy season. This pattern of occurrence of Dengue fever is best described Answer: (D) Lagundi 
as  Sambong is used as a diuretic. Tsaang gubat is used to relieve diarrhea.
A. Epidemic occurrence  Akapulko is used for its antifungal property.
B. Cyclical variation  56. What law created the Philippine Institute of Traditional and Alternative
C. Sporadic occurrence  Health Care? 
D. Secular variation  A. R.A. 8423 
B. R.A. 4823 
Answer: (B) Cyclical variation  C. R.A. 2483 
A cyclical variation is a periodic fluctuation in the number of cases of a disease D. R.A. 3482 
in the community.
51. In the year 1980, the World Health Organization declared the Philippines, Answer: (A) R.A. 8423 
together with some other countries in the Western Pacific Region, “free” of (none)
which disease?  57. In traditional Chinese medicine, the yielding, negative and feminine force is
A. Pneumonic plague  termed 
B. Poliomyelitis  A. Yin 
C. Small pox  B. Yang 
D. Anthrax  C. Qi 
D. Chai 
Answer: (C) Small pox 
The last documented case of Small pox was in 1977 at Somalia. Answer: (A) Yin 
52. In the census of the Philippines in 1995, there were about 35,299,000 males Yang is the male dominating, positive and masculine force.
and about 34,968,000 females. What is the sex ratio?  58. What is the legal basis for Primary Health Care approach in the Philippines? 
A. 99.06:100  A. Alma Ata Declaration on PHC 
B. 100.94:100  B. Letter of Instruction No. 949 
C. 50.23%  C. Presidential Decree No. 147 
D. 49.76%  D. Presidential Decree 996 

Answer: (B) 100.94:100  Answer: (B) Letter of Instruction No. 949 

Sex ratio is the number of males for every 100 females in the population. Letter of Instruction 949 was issued by then President Ferdinand Marcos,
53. Primary health care is a total approach to community development. Which directing the formerly called Ministry of Health, now the Department of Health,
of the following is an indicator of success in the use of the primary health care to utilize Primary Health Care approach in planning and implementing health
approach?  programs.
A. Health services are provided free of charge to individuals and families.  59. Which of the following demonstrates intersectoral linkages? 
B. Local officials are empowered as the major decision makers in matters of A. Two-way referral system 
health.  B. Team approach 
C. Endorsement done by a midwife to another midwife  C. 1-4 year old children 
D. Cooperation between the PHN and public-school teacher  D. School age children 

Answer: (D) Cooperation between the PHN and public-school teacher  Answer: (C) 1-4 year old children 
Intersectoral linkages refer to working relationships between the health sector Preschoolers are the most susceptible to PEM because they have generally been
and other sectors involved in community development. weaned. Also, this is the population who, unable to feed themselves, are often
60. The municipality assigned to you has a population of about 20,000. Estimate the victims of poor intrafamilial food distribution.
the number of 1-4 year old children who will be given Retinol capsule 200,000 66. Which statistic can give the most accurate reflection of the health status of a
I.U. every 6 months.  community?
A. 1,500 
B. 1,800  A. 1-4 year old age-specific mortality rate 
C. 2,000  B. Infant mortality rate 
D. 2,300  C. Swaroop’s index 
D. Crude death rate 
Answer: (D) 2,300 
Based on the Philippine population composition, to estimate the number of 1-4 Answer: (C) Swaroop’s index 
year old children, multiply total population by 11.5%. Swaroop’s index is the proportion of deaths aged 50 years and above. The
61. Estimate the number of pregnant women who will be given tetanus toxoid higher the Swaroop’s index of a population, the greater the proportion of the
during an immunization outreach activity in a barangay with a population of deaths who were able to reach the age of at least 50 years, i.e., more people
about 1,500.  grew old before they died.
A. 265  67. In the past year, Barangay A had an average population of 1655. 46 babies
B. 300  were born in that year, 2 of whom died less than 4 weeks after they were born.
C. 375  There were 4 recorded stillbirths. What is the neonatal mortality rate? 
D. 400  A. 27.8/1,000 
B. 43.5/1,000 
Answer: (A) 265  C. 86.9/1,000 
To estimate the number of pregnant women, multiply the total population by D. 130.4/1,000 
3.5%.
62. To describe the sex composition of the population, which demographic tool Answer: (B) 43.5/1,000 
may be used?  To compute for neonatal mortality rate, divide the number of babies who died
A. Sex ratio  before reaching the age of 28 days by the total number of live births, then
B. Sex proportion  multiply by 1,000.
C. Population pyramid  68. Which statistic best reflects the nutritional status of a population? 
D. Any of these may be used.  A. 1-4 year old age-specific mortality rate 
B. Proportionate mortality rate 
Answer: (D) Any of these may be used.  C. Infant mortality rate 
Sex ratio and sex proportion are used to determine the sex composition of a D. Swaroop’s index 
population. A population pyramid is used to present the composition of a
population by age and sex. Answer: (A) 1-4 year old age-specific mortality rate 
63. Which of the following is a natality rate?  Since preschoolers are the most susceptible to the effects of malnutrition, a
A. Crude birth rate  population with poor nutritional status will most likely have a high 1-4 year old
B. Neonatal mortality rate  age-specific mortality rate, also known as child mortality rate.
C. Infant mortality rate  69. What numerator is used in computing general fertility rate? 
D. General fertility rate  A. Estimated midyear population 
B. Number of registered live births 
Answer: (A) Crude birth rate  C. Number of pregnancies in the year 
Natality means birth. A natality rate is a birth rate. D. Number of females of reproductive age 
64. You are computing the crude death rate of your municipality, with a total
population of about 18,000, for last year. There were 94 deaths. Among those Answer: (B) Number of registered live births 
who died, 20 died because of diseases of the heart and 32 were aged 50 years To compute for general or total fertility rate, divide the number of registered
or older. What is the crude death rate?  live births by the number of females of reproductive age (15-45 years), then
A. 4.2/1,000  multiply by 1,000.
B. 5.2/1,000  70. You will gather data for nutritional assessment of a purok. You will gather
C. 6.3/1,000  information only from families with members who belong to the target
D. 7.3/1,000  population for PEM. What method of data gathering is best for this purpose? 
A. Census 
Answer: (B) 5.2/1,000  B. Survey 
To compute crude death rate divide total number of deaths (94) by total C. Record review 
population (18,000) and multiply by 1,000. D. Review of civil registry 
65. Knowing that malnutrition is a frequent community health problem, you
decided to conduct nutritional assessment. What population is particularly Answer: (B) Survey 
susceptible to protein energy malnutrition (PEM)?  A survey, also called sample survey, is data gathering about a sample of the
A. Pregnant women and the elderly  population.
B. Under-5 year old children  71. In the conduct of a census, the method of population assignment based on
the actual physical location of the people is termed  C. It encourages health centers to focus on disease prevention and control. 
A. De jure  D. Its main strategy is certification of health centers able to comply with
B. De locus  standards. 
C. De facto 
D. De novo  Answer: (D) Its main strategy is certification of health centers able to comply
with standards. 
Answer: (C) De facto  Sentrong Sigla Movement is a joint project of the DOH and local government
The other method of population assignment, de jure, is based on the usual units. Its main strategy is certification of health centers that are able to comply
place of residence of the people. with standards set by the DOH.
72. The Field Health Services and Information System (FHSIS) is the recording 78. Which of the following women should be considered as special targets for
and reporting system in public health care in the Philippines. The Monthly Field family planning? 
Health Service Activity Report is a form used in which of the components of the A. Those who have two children or more 
FHSIS?  B. Those with medical conditions such as anemia 
A. Tally report  C. Those younger than 20 years and older than 35 years 
B. Output report  D. Those who just had a delivery within the past 15 months 
C. Target/client list 
D. Individual health record  Answer: (D) Those who just had a delivery within the past 15 months 
The ideal birth spacing is at least two years. 15 months plus 9 months of
Answer: (A) Tally report  pregnancy = 2 years.
A tally report is prepared monthly or quarterly by the RHU personnel and 79. Freedom of choice is one of the policies of the Family Planning Program of
transmitted to the Provincial Health Office. the Philippines. Which of the following illustrates this principle? 
73. To monitor clients registered in long-term regimens, such as the Multi-Drug A. Information dissemination about the need for family planning 
Therapy, which component will be most useful?  B. Support of research and development in family planning methods 
A. Tally report  C. Adequate information for couples regarding the different methods 
B. Output report  D. Encouragement of couples to take family planning as a joint responsibility 
C. Target/client list 
D. Individual health record  Answer: (C) Adequate information for couples regarding the different methods 
To enable the couple to choose freely among different methods of family
Answer: (C) Target/client list  planning, they must be given full information regarding the different methods
The MDT Client List is a record of clients enrolled in MDT and other relevant that are available to them, considering the availability of quality services that
data, such as dates when clients collected their monthly supply of drugs. can support their choice.
74. Civil registries are important sources of data. Which law requires 80. A woman, 6 months pregnant, came to the center for consultation. Which of
registration of births within 30 days from the occurrence of the birth?  the following substances is contraindicated? 
A. P.D. 651  A. Tetanus toxoid 
B. Act 3573  B. Retinol 200,000 IU 
C. R.A. 3753  C. Ferrous sulfate 200 mg 
D. R.A. 3375  D. Potassium iodate 200 mg. capsule 

Answer: (A) P.D. 651  Answer: (B) Retinol 200,000 IU 

P.D. 651 amended R.A. 3753, requiring the registry of births within 30 days from Retinol 200,000 IU is a form of megadose Vitamin A. This may have a
their occurrence. teratogenic effect.
75. Which of the following professionals can sign the birth certificate?  81. During prenatal consultation, a client asked you if she can have her delivery
A. Public health nurse  at home. After history taking and physical examination, you advised her against
B. Rural health midwife  a home delivery. Which of the following findings disqualifies her for a home
C. Municipal health officer  delivery? 
D. Any of these health professionals  A. Her OB score is G5P3. 
B. She has some palmar pallor. 
Answer: (D) Any of these health professionals  C. Her blood pressure is 130/80. 
D. R.A. 3753 states that any birth attendant may sign the certificate of live birth. D. Her baby is in cephalic presentation. 
76. Which criterion in priority setting of health problems is used only in
community health care?  Answer: (A) Her OB score is G5P3. 
A. Modifiability of the problem  Only women with less than 5 pregnancies are qualified for a home delivery. It is
B. Nature of the problem presented  also advisable for a primigravida to have delivery at a childbirth facility.
C. Magnitude of the health problem  82. Inadequate intake by the pregnant woman of which vitamin may cause
D. Preventive potential of the health problem  neural tube defects? 
A. Niacin 
Answer: (C) Magnitude of the health problem  B. Riboflavin 
Magnitude of the problem refers to the percentage of the population affected C. Folic acid 
by a health problem. The other choices are criteria considered in both family D. Thiamine 
and community health care.
77. The Sentrong Sigla Movement has been launched to improve health service Answer: (C) Folic acid 
delivery. Which of the following is/are true of this movement?  It is estimated that the incidence of neural tube defects can be reduced
A. This is a project spearheaded by local government units.  drastically if pregnant women have an adequate intake of folic acid.
B. It is a basis for increasing funding from local government units.  83. You are in a client’s home to attend to a delivery. Which of the following will
you do first?  Potassium iodate is given during pregnancy; malunggay capsule is not routinely
A. Set up the sterile area.  administered after delivery; and ferrous sulfate is taken for two months after
B. Put on a clean gown or apron.  delivery.
C. Cleanse the client’s vulva with soap and water.  89. Which biological used in Expanded Program on Immunization (EPI) is stored
D. Note the interval, duration and intensity of labor contractions.  in the freezer? 
A. DPT 
Answer: (D) Note the interval, duration and intensity of labor contractions.  B. Tetanus toxoid 
Assessment of the woman should be done first to determine whether she is C. Measles vaccine 
having true labor and, if so, what stage of labor she is in. D. Hepatitis B vaccine 
84. In preparing a primigravida for breastfeeding, which of the following will you
do?  Answer: (C) Measles vaccine 
A. Tell her that lactation begins within a day after delivery.  Among the biologicals used in the Expanded Program on Immunization, measles
B. Teach her nipple stretching exercises if her nipples are everted.  vaccine and OPV are highly sensitive to heat, requiring storage in the freezer.
C. Instruct her to wash her nipples before and after each breastfeeding.  90. Unused BCG should be discarded how many hours after reconstitution? 
D. Explain to her that putting the baby to breast will lessen blood loss after A. 2 
delivery. B. 4 
Answer: (D) Explain to her that putting the baby to breast will lessen blood loss C. 6 
after delivery.  D. At the end of the day 
Suckling of the nipple stimulates the release of oxytocin by the posterior
pituitary gland, which causes uterine contraction. Lactation begins 1 to 3 days Answer: (B) 4 
after delivery. Nipple stretching exercises are done when the nipples are flat or While the unused portion of other biologicals in EPI may be given until the end
inverted. Frequent washing dries up the nipples, making them prone to the of the day, only BCG is discarded 4 hours after reconstitution. This is why BCG
formation of fissures. immunization is scheduled only in the morning.
85. A primigravida is instructed to offer her breast to the baby for the first time 91. In immunizing school entrants with BCG, you are not obliged to secure
within 30 minutes after delivery. What is the purpose of offering the breast this parental consent. This is because of which legal document? 
early?  A. P.D. 996 
A. To initiate the occurrence of milk letdown  B. R.A. 7846 
B. To stimulate milk production by the mammary acini  C. Presidential Proclamation No. 6 
C. To make sure that the baby is able to get the colostrum  D. Presidential Proclamation No. 46 
D. To allow the woman to practice breastfeeding in the presence of the health
worker  Answer: (A) P.D. 996 
Presidential Decree 996, enacted in 1976, made immunization in the EPI
Answer: (B) To stimulate milk production by the mammary acini  compulsory for children under 8 years of age. Hepatitis B vaccination was made
Suckling of the nipple stimulates prolactin reflex (the release of prolactin by the compulsory for the same age group by R.A. 7846.
anterior pituitary gland), which initiates lactation. 92. Which immunization produces a permanent scar? 
86. In a mothers’ class, you discuss proper breastfeeding technique. Which is of A. DPT 
these is a sign that the baby has “latched on” to the breast properly?  B. BCG 
A. The baby takes shallow, rapid sucks.  C. Measles vaccination 
B. The mother does not feel nipple pain.  D. Hepatitis B vaccination 
C. The baby’s mouth is only partly open. 
D. Only the mother’s nipple is inside the baby’s mouth.  Answer: (B) BCG 
BCG causes the formation of a superficial abscess, which begins 2 weeks after
Answer: (B) The mother does not feel nipple pain.  immunization. The abscess heals without treatment, with the formation of a
When the baby has properly latched on to the breast, he takes deep, slow permanent scar.
sucks; his mouth is wide open; and much of the areola is inside his mouth. And, 93. A 4-week old baby was brought to the health center for his first
you’re right! The mother does not feel nipple pain. immunization. Which can be given to him? 
87. You explain to a breastfeeding mother that breast milk is sufficient for all of A. DPT1 
the baby’s nutrient needs only up to ____.  B. OPV1 
A. 3 months  C. Infant BCG 
B. 6 months  D. Hepatitis B vaccine 1 
C. 1 year 
D. 2 years  Answer: (C) Infant BCG 
Infant BCG may be given at birth. All the other immunizations mentioned can be
Answer: (B) 6 months  given at 6 weeks of age.
After 6 months, the baby’s nutrient needs, especially the baby’s iron 94. You will not give DPT 2 if the mother says that the infant had 
requirement, can no longer be provided by mother’s milk alone. A. Seizures a day after DPT 1. 
88. What is given to a woman within a month after the delivery of a baby?  B. Fever for 3 days after DPT 1. 
A. Malunggay capsule  C. Abscess formation after DPT 1. 
B. Ferrous sulfate 100 mg. OD  D. Local tenderness for 3 days after DPT 1. 
C. Retinol 200,000 I.U., 1 capsule 
D. Potassium iodate 200 mg, 1 capsule  Answer: (A) Seizures a day after DPT 1. 
Seizures within 3 days after administration of DPT is an indication of
Answer: (C) Retinol 200,000 I.U., 1 capsule  hypersensitivity to pertussis vaccine, a component of DPT. This is considered a
A capsule of Retinol 200,000 IU is given within 1 month after delivery. specific contraindication to subsequent doses of DPT.
95. A 2-month old infant was brought to the health center for immunization. Answer: (B) Some dehydration 
During assessment, the infant’s temperature registered at 38.1°C. Which is the Using the assessment guidelines of IMCI, a child (2 months to 5 years old) with
best course of action that you will take?  diarrhea is classified as having SOME DEHYDRATION if he shows 2 or more of
A. Go on with the infant’s immunizations.  the following signs: restless or irritable, sunken eyes, the skin goes back slow
B. Give Paracetamol and wait for his fever to subside.  after a skin pinch.
C. Refer the infant to the physician for further assessment.  101. Based on assessment, you classified a 3-month old infant with the chief
D. Advise the infant’s mother to bring him back for immunization when he is complaint of diarrhea in the category of SOME DEHYDRATION. Based on IMCI
well.  management guidelines, which of the following will you do? 
A. Bring the infant to the nearest facility where IV fluids can be given. 
Answer: (A) Go on with the infant’s immunizations.  B. Supervise the mother in giving 200 to 400 ml. of Oresol in 4 hours. 
In the EPI, fever up to 38.5°C is not a contraindication to immunization. Mild C. Give the infant’s mother instructions on home management. 
acute respiratory tract infection, simple diarrhea and malnutrition are not D. Keep the infant in your health center for close observation. 
contraindications either.
96. A pregnant woman had just received her 4th dose of tetanus toxoid. Answer: (B) Supervise the mother in giving 200 to 400 ml. of Oresol in 4 hours. 
Subsequently, her baby will have protection against tetanus for how long?  In the IMCI management guidelines, SOME DEHYDRATION is treated with the
A. 1 year  administration of Oresol within a period of 4 hours. The amount of Oresol is
B. 3 years  best computed on the basis of the child’s weight (75 ml/kg body weight). If the
C. 10 years  weight is unknown, the amount of Oresol is based on the child’s age.
D. Lifetime  102. A mother is using Oresol in the management of diarrhea of her 3-year old
child. She asked you what to do if her child vomits. You will tell her to 
Answer: (A) 1 year  A. Bring the child to the nearest hospital for further assessment. 
The baby will have passive natural immunity by placental transfer of antibodies. B. Bring the child to the health center for intravenous fluid therapy. 
The mother will have active artificial immunity lasting for about 10 years. 5 C. Bring the child to the health center for assessment by the physician. 
doses will give the mother lifetime protection. D. Let the child rest for 10 minutes then continue giving Oresol more slowly. 
97. A 4-month old infant was brought to the health center because of cough.
Her respiratory rate is 42/minute. Using the Integrated Management of Child Answer: (D) Let the child rest for 10 minutes then continue giving Oresol more
Illness (IMCI) guidelines of assessment, her breathing is considered  slowly. 
A. Fast  If the child vomits persistently, that is, he vomits everything that he takes in, he
B. Slow  has to be referred urgently to a hospital. Otherwise, vomiting is managed by
C. Normal  letting the child rest for 10 minutes and then continuing with Oresol
D. Insignificant  administration. Teach the mother to give Oresol more slowly.
103. A 1 ½ year old child was classified as having 3rd degree protein energy
Answer: (C) Normal  malnutrition, kwashiorkor. Which of the following signs will be most apparent in
In IMCI, a respiratory rate of 50/minute or more is fast breathing for an infant this child? 
aged 2 to 12 months. A. Voracious appetite 
98. Which of the following signs will indicate that a young child is suffering from B. Wasting 
severe pneumonia?  C. Apathy 
A. Dyspnea  D. Edema 
B. Wheezing 
C. Fast breathing  Answer: (D) Edema 
D. Chest indrawing  Edema, a major sign of kwashiorkor, is caused by decreased colloidal osmotic
pressure of the blood brought about by hypoalbuminemia. Decreased blood
Answer: (D) Chest indrawing  albumin level is due a protein-deficient diet.
In IMCI, chest indrawing is used as the positive sign of dyspnea, indicating 104. Assessment of a 2-year old child revealed “baggy pants”. Using the IMCI
severe pneumonia. guidelines, how will you manage this child? 
99. Using IMCI guidelines, you classify a child as having severe pneumonia. A. Refer the child urgently to a hospital for confinement. 
What is the best management for the child?  B. Coordinate with the social worker to enroll the child in a feeding program. 
A. Prescribe an antibiotic.  C. Make a teaching plan for the mother, focusing on menu planning for her
B. Refer him urgently to the hospital.  child. 
C. Instruct the mother to increase fluid intake.  D. Assess and treat the child for health problems like infections and intestinal
D. Instruct the mother to continue breastfeeding.  parasitism. 

Answer: (B) Refer him urgently to the hospital.  Answer: (A) Refer the child urgently to a hospital for confinement. 
Severe pneumonia requires urgent referral to a hospital. Answers A, C and D are “Baggy pants” is a sign of severe marasmus. The best management is urgent
done for a client classified as having pneumonia. referral to a hospital.
100. A 5-month old infant was brought by his mother to the health center 105. During the physical examination of a young child, what is the earliest sign
because of diarrhea occurring 4 to 5 times a day. His skin goes back slowly after of xerophthalmia that you may observe? 
a skin pinch and his eyes are sunken. Using the IMCI guidelines, you will classify A. Keratomalacia 
this infant in which category?  B. Corneal opacity 
A. No signs of dehydration  C. Night blindness 
B. Some dehydration  D. Conjunctival xerosis 
C. Severe dehydration 
D. The data is insufficient.  Answer: (D) Conjunctival xerosis 
The earliest sign of Vitamin A deficiency (xerophthalmia) is night blindness.
However, this is a functional change, which is not observable during physical B. Antibiotics to prevent pneumonia 
examination. The earliest visible lesion is conjunctival xerosis or dullness of the C. Tetracycline eye ointment for corneal opacity 
conjunctiva due to inadequate tear production. D. Retinol capsule regardless of when the last dose was given 
106. To prevent xerophthalmia, young children are given Retinol capsule every
6 months. What is the dose given to preschoolers?  Answer: (D) Retinol capsule regardless of when the last dose was given 
A. 10,000 IU  An infant 6 to 12 months classified as a case of measles is given Retinol 100,000
B. 20,000 IU  IU; a child is given 200,000 IU regardless of when the last dose was given.
C. 100,000 IU  112. A mother brought her 10 month old infant for consultation because of
D. 200,000 IU  fever, which started 4 days prior to consultation. To determine malaria risk,
what will you do? 
Answer: (D) 200,000 IU  A. Do a tourniquet test. 
Preschoolers are given Retinol 200,000 IU every 6 months. 100,000 IU is given B. Ask where the family resides. 
once to infants aged 6 to 12 months. The dose for pregnant women is 10,000 C. Get a specimen for blood smear. 
IU. D. Ask if the fever is present everyday. 
107. The major sign of iron deficiency anemia is pallor. What part is best
examined for pallor?  Answer: (B) Ask where the family resides. 
A. Palms  Because malaria is endemic, the first question to determine malaria risk is
B. Nailbeds  where the client’s family resides. If the area of residence is not a known
C. Around the lips  endemic area, ask if the child had traveled within the past 6 months, where
D. Lower conjunctival sac  he/she was brought and whether he/she stayed overnight in that area.
113. The following are strategies implemented by the Department of Health to
Answer: (A) Palms  prevent mosquito-borne diseases. Which of these is most effective in the
The anatomic characteristics of the palms allow a reliable and convenient basis control of Dengue fever? 
for examination for pallor. A. Stream seeding with larva-eating fish 
108. Food fortification is one of the strategies to prevent micronutrient B. Destroying breeding places of mosquitoes 
deficiency conditions. R.A. 8976 mandates fortification of certain food items. C. Chemoprophylaxis of non-immune persons going to endemic areas 
Which of the following is among these food items?  D. Teaching people in endemic areas to use chemically treated mosquito nets 
A. Sugar 
B. Bread  Answer: (B) Destroying breeding places of mosquitoes 
C. Margarine  Aedes aegypti, the vector of Dengue fever, breeds in stagnant, clear water. Its
D. Filled milk  feeding time is usually during the daytime. It has a cyclical pattern of
occurrence, unlike malaria which is endemic in certain parts of the country.
Answer: (A) Sugar  114. Secondary prevention for malaria includes 
R.A. 8976 mandates fortification of rice, wheat flour, sugar and cooking oil with A. Planting of neem or eucalyptus trees 
Vitamin A, iron and/or iodine. B. Residual spraying of insecticides at night 
109. What is the best course of action when there is a measles epidemic in a C. Determining whether a place is endemic or not 
nearby municipality?  D. Growing larva-eating fish in mosquito breeding places 
A. Give measles vaccine to babies aged 6 to 8 months. 
B. Give babies aged 6 to 11 months one dose of 100,000 I.U. of Retinol  Answer: (C) Determining whether a place is endemic or not 
C. Instruct mothers to keep their babies at home to prevent disease This is diagnostic and therefore secondary level prevention. The other choices
transmission.  are for primary prevention.
D. Instruct mothers to feed their babies adequately to enhance their babies’ 115. Scotch tape swab is done to check for which intestinal parasite? 
resistance.  A. Ascaris 
B. Pinworm 
Answer: (A) Give measles vaccine to babies aged 6 to 8 months.  C. Hookworm 
Ordinarily, measles vaccine is given at 9 months of age. During an impending D. Schistosoma 
epidemic, however, one dose may be given to babies aged 6 to 8 months. The
mother is instructed that the baby needs another dose when the baby is 9 Answer: (B) Pinworm 
months old. Pinworm ova are deposited around the anal orifice.
110. A mother brought her daughter, 4 years old, to the RHU because of cough 116. Which of the following signs indicates the need for sputum examination for
and colds. Following the IMCI assessment guide, which of the following is a AFB? 
danger sign that indicates the need for urgent referral to a hospital?  A. Hematemesis 
A. Inability to drink  B. Fever for 1 week 
B. High grade fever  C. Cough for 3 weeks 
C. Signs of severe dehydration  D. Chest pain for 1 week 
D. Cough for more than 30 days 
Answer: (C) Cough for 3 weeks 
Answer: (A) Inability to drink  A client is considered a PTB suspect when he has cough for 2 weeks or more,
A sick child aged 2 months to 5 years must be referred urgently to a hospital if plus one or more of the following signs: fever for 1 month or more; chest pain
he/she has one or more of the following signs: not able to feed or drink, vomits lasting for 2 weeks or more not attributed to other conditions; progressive,
everything, convulsions, abnormally sleepy or difficult to awaken. unexplained weight loss; night sweats; and hemoptysis.
111. Management of a child with measles includes the administration of which 117. Which clients are considered targets for DOTS Category I? 
of the following?  A. Sputum negative cavitary cases 
A. Gentian violet on mouth lesions  B. Clients returning after a default 
C. Relapses and failures of previous PTB treatment regimens  the cycle at this stage is the most effective way of preventing the spread of the
D. Clients diagnosed for the first time through a positive sputum exam  disease to susceptible hosts.
123. When residents obtain water from an artesian well in the neighborhood,
Answer: (D) Clients diagnosed for the first time through a positive sputum exam  the level of this approved type of water facility is 
Category I is for new clients diagnosed by sputum examination and clients A. I 
diagnosed to have a serious form of extrapulmonary tuberculosis, such as TB B. II 
osteomyelitis. C. III 
118. To improve compliance to treatment, what innovation is being D. IV 
implemented in DOTS? 
A. Having the health worker follow up the client at home  Answer: (B) II 
B. Having the health worker or a responsible family member monitor drug A communal faucet or water standpost is classified as Level II.
intake  124. For prevention of hepatitis A, you decided to conduct health education
C. Having the patient come to the health center every month to get his activities. Which of the following is IRRELEVANT? 
medications  A. Use of sterile syringes and needles 
D. Having a target list to check on whether the patient has collected his monthly B. Safe food preparation and food handling by vendors 
supply of drugs  C. Proper disposal of human excreta and personal hygiene 
D. Immediate reporting of water pipe leaks and illegal water connections 
Answer: (B) Having the health worker or a responsible family member monitor
drug intake  Answer: (A) Use of sterile syringes and needles 
Directly Observed Treatment Short Course is so-called because a treatment Hepatitis A is transmitted through the fecal oral route. Hepatitis B is transmitted
partner, preferably a health worker accessible to the client, monitors the through infected body secretions like blood and semen.
client’s compliance to the treatment. 126. Which biological used in Expanded Program on Immunization (EPI) should
119. Diagnosis of leprosy is highly dependent on recognition of symptoms. NOT be stored in the freezer? 
Which of the following is an early sign of leprosy?  A. DPT 
A. Macular lesions  B. Oral polio vaccine 
B. Inability to close eyelids  C. Measles vaccine 
C. Thickened painful nerves  D. MMR 
D. Sinking of the nosebridge 
Answer: (A) DPT 
Answer: (C) Thickened painful nerves  DPT is sensitive to freezing. The appropriate storage temperature of DPT is 2 to
The lesion of leprosy is not macular. It is characterized by a change in skin color 8° C only. OPV and measles vaccine are highly sensitive to heat and require
(either reddish or whitish) and loss of sensation, sweating and hair growth over freezing. MMR is not an immunization in the Expanded Program on
the lesion. Inability to close the eyelids (lagophthalmos) and sinking of the Immunization.
nosebridge are late symptoms. 127. You will conduct outreach immunization in a barangay with a population of
120. Which of the following clients should be classified as a case of about 1500. Estimate the number of infants in the barangay. 
multibacillary leprosy?  A. 45 
A. 3 skin lesions, negative slit skin smear  B. 50 
B. 3 skin lesions, positive slit skin smear  C. 55 
C. 5 skin lesions, negative slit skin smear  D. 60 
D. 5 skin lesions, positive slit skin smear 
Answer: (A) 45 
Answer: (D) 5 skin lesions, positive slit skin smear  To estimate the number of infants, multiply total population by 3%.
A multibacillary leprosy case is one who has a positive slit skin smear and at 128. In Integrated Management of Childhood Illness, severe conditions
least 5 skin lesions. generally require urgent referral to a hospital. Which of the following severe
121. In the Philippines, which condition is the most frequent cause of death conditions DOES NOT always require urgent referral to a hospital? 
associated with schistosomiasis?  A. Mastoiditis 
A. Liver cancer  B. Severe dehydration 
B. Liver cirrhosis  C. Severe pneumonia 
C. Bladder cancer  D. Severe febrile disease 
D. Intestinal perforation 
Answer: (B) Severe dehydration 
Answer: (B) Liver cirrhosis  The order of priority in the management of severe dehydration is as follows:
The etiologic agent of schistosomiasis in the Philippines is Schistosoma intravenous fluid therapy, referral to a facility where IV fluids can be initiated
japonicum, which affects the small intestine and the liver. Liver damage is a within 30 minutes, Oresol/nasogastric tube, Oresol/orem. When the foregoing
consequence of fibrotic reactions to schistosoma eggs in the liver. measures are not possible or effective, tehn urgent referral to the hospital is
122. What is the most effective way of controlling schistosomiasis in an endemic done.
area?  129. A client was diagnosed as having Dengue fever. You will say that there is
A. Use of molluscicides  slow capillary refill when the color of the nailbed that you pressed does not
B. Building of foot bridges  return within how many seconds? 
C. Proper use of sanitary toilets  A. 3 
D. Use of protective footwear, such as rubber boots  B. 5 
C. 8 
Answer: (C) Proper use of sanitary toilets  D. 10 
The ova of the parasite get out of the human body together with feces. Cutting
Answer: (A) 3  C. Destruction of breeding places 
Adequate blood supply to the area allows the return of the color of the nailbed D. Zooprophylaxis 
within 3 seconds.
130. A 3-year old child was brought by his mother to the health center because Answer: (A) Stream seeding 
of fever of 4-day duration. The child had a positive tourniquet test result. In the Stream seeding is done by putting tilapia fry in streams or other bodies of water
absence of other signs, which is the most appropriate measure that the PHN identified as breeding places of the Anopheles mosquito
may carry out to prevent Dengue shock syndrome?  136. Mosquito-borne diseases are prevented mostly with the use of mosquito
A. Insert an NGT and give fluids per NGT.  control measures. Which of the following is NOT appropriate for malaria
B. Instruct the mother to give the child Oresol.  control? 
C. Start the patient on intravenous fluids STAT.  A. Use of chemically treated mosquito nets 
D. Refer the client to the physician for appropriate management.  B. Seeding of breeding places with larva-eating fish 
C. Destruction of breeding places of the mosquito vector 
Answer: (B) Instruct the mother to give the child Oresol.  D. Use of mosquito-repelling soaps, such as those with basil or citronella 
Since the child does not manifest any other danger sign, maintenance of fluid
balance and replacement of fluid loss may be done by giving the client Oresol. Answer: (C) Destruction of breeding places of the mosquito vector 
131. The pathognomonic sign of measles is Koplik’s spot. You may see Koplik’s Anopheles mosquitoes breed in slow-moving, clear water, such as mountain
spot by inspecting the _____.  streams.
A. Nasal mucosa  137. A 4-year old client was brought to the health center with the chief
B. Buccal mucosa  complaint of severe diarrhea and the passage of “rice water” stools. The client
C. Skin on the abdomen  is most probably suffering from which condition? 
D. Skin on the antecubital surface  A. Giardiasis 
B. Cholera 
Answer: (B) Buccal mucosa  C. Amebiasis 
Koplik’s spot may be seen on the mucosa of the mouth or the throat. D. Dysentery 
132. Among the following diseases, which is airborne? 
A. Viral conjunctivitis  Answer: (B) Cholera 
B. Acute poliomyelitis  Passage of profuse watery stools is the major symptom of cholera. Both amebic
C. Diphtheria  and bacillary dysentery are characterized by the presence of blood and/or
D. Measles  mucus in the stools. Giardiasis is characterized by fat malabsorption and,
therefore, steatorrhea.
Answer: (D) Measles  138. In the Philippines, which specie of schistosoma is endemic in certain
Viral conjunctivitis is transmitted by direct or indirect contact with discharges regions? 
from infected eyes. Acute poliomyelitis is spread through the fecal-oral route A. S. mansoni 
and contact with throat secretions, whereas diphtheria is through direct and B. S. japonicum 
indirect contact with respiratory secretions. C. S. malayensis 
133. Among children aged 2 months to 3 years, the most prevalent form of D. S. haematobium 
meningitis is caused by which microorganism? 
A. Hemophilus influenzae  Answer: (B) S. japonicum 
B. Morbillivirus  S. mansoni is found mostly in Africa and South America; S. haematobium in
C. Steptococcus pneumoniae  Africa and the Middle East; and S. malayensis only in peninsular Malaysia.
D. Neisseria meningitidis  139. A 32-year old client came for consultation at the health center with the
chief complaint of fever for a week. Accompanying symptoms were muscle
Answer: (A) Hemophilus influenzae  pains and body malaise. A week after the start of fever, the client noted
Hemophilus meningitis is unusual over the age of 5 years. In developing yellowish discoloration of his sclera. History showed that he waded in flood
countries, the peak incidence is in children less than 6 months of age. waters about 2 weeks before the onset of symptoms. Based on his history,
Morbillivirus is the etiology of measles. Streptococcus pneumoniae and which disease condition will you suspect? 
Neisseria meningitidis may cause meningitis, but age distribution is not specific A. Hepatitis A 
in young children. B. Hepatitis B 
134. Human beings are the major reservoir of malaria. Which of the following C. Tetanus 
strategies in malaria control is based on this fact?  D. Leptospirosis 
A. Stream seeding 
B. Stream clearing  Answer: (D) Leptospirosis 
C. Destruction of breeding places  Leptospirosis is transmitted through contact with the skin or mucous membrane
D. Zooprophylaxis  with water or moist soil contaminated with urine of infected animals, like rats.
140. MWSS provides water to Manila and other cities in Metro Manila. This is an
Answer: (D) Zooprophylaxis  example of which level of water facility? 
Zooprophylaxis is done by putting animals like cattle or dogs close to windows A. I 
or doorways just before nightfall. The Anopheles mosquito takes his blood meal B. II 
from the animal and goes back to its breeding place, thereby preventing C. III 
infection of humans. D. IV 
135. The use of larvivorous fish in malaria control is the basis for which strategy
of malaria control?  Answer: (C) III 
A. Stream seeding  Waterworks systems, such as MWSS, are classified as level III.
B. Stream clearing  141. You are the PHN in the city health center. A client underwent screening for
AIDS using ELISA. His result was positive. What is the best course of action that C. Consult at the health center where rubella vaccine may be given. 
you may take?  D. Consult a physician who may give them rubella immunoglobulin. 
A. Get a thorough history of the client, focusing on the practice of high risk
behaviors.  Answer: (D) Consult a physician who may give them rubella immunoglobulin. 
B. Ask the client to be accompanied by a significant person before revealing the Rubella vaccine is made up of attenuated German measles viruses. This is
result.  contraindicated in pregnancy. Immune globulin, a specific prophylactic against
C. Refer the client to the physician since he is the best person to reveal the German measles, may be given to pregnant women.
result to the client.  147. You were invited to be the resource person in a training class for food
D. Refer the client for a supplementary test, such as Western blot, since the handlers. Which of the following would you emphasize regarding prevention of
ELISA result may be false.  staphylococcal food poisoning? 
A. All cooking and eating utensils must be thoroughly washed. 
Answer: (D) Refer the client for a supplementary test, such as Western blot, B. Food must be cooked properly to destroy staphylococcal microorganisms. 
since the ELISA result may be false.  C. Food handlers and food servers must have a negative stool examination
A client having a reactive ELISA result must undergo a more specific test, such as result. 
Western blot. A negative supplementary test result means that the ELISA result D. Proper handwashing during food preparation is the best way of preventing
was false and that, most probably, the client is not infected. the condition. 
142. Which is the BEST control measure for AIDS? 
A. Being faithful to a single sexual partner  Answer: (D) Proper handwashing during food preparation is the best way of
B. Using a condom during each sexual contact  preventing the condition. 
C. Avoiding sexual contact with commercial sex workers  Symptoms of this food poisoning are due to staphylococcal enterotoxin, not the
D. Making sure that one’s sexual partner does not have signs of AIDS  microorganisms themselves. Contamination is by food handling by persons with
staphylococcal skin or eye infections.
Answer: (A) Being faithful to a single sexual partner  148. In a mothers’ class, you discussed childhood diseases such as chicken pox.
Sexual fidelity rules out the possibility of getting the disease by sexual contact Which of the following statements about chicken pox is correct? 
with another infected person. Transmission occurs mostly through sexual A. The older one gets, the more susceptible he becomes to the complications of
intercourse and exposure to blood or tissues. chicken pox. 
143. The most frequent causes of death among clients with AIDS are B. A single attack of chicken pox will prevent future episodes, including
opportunistic diseases. Which of the following opportunistic infections is conditions such as shingles. 
characterized by tonsillopharyngitis?  C. To prevent an outbreak in the community, quarantine may be imposed by
A. Respiratory candidiasis  health authorities. 
B. Infectious mononucleosis  D. Chicken pox vaccine is best given when there is an impending outbreak in the
C. Cytomegalovirus disease  community. 
D. Pneumocystis carinii pneumonia 
Answer: (A) The older one gets, the more susceptible he becomes to the
Answer: (B) Infectious mononucleosis  complications of chicken pox. 
Cytomegalovirus disease is an acute viral disease characterized by fever, sore Chicken pox is usually more severe in adults than in children. Complications,
throat and lymphadenopathy. such as pneumonia, are higher in incidence in adults.
144. To determine possible sources of sexually transmitted infections, which is 149. Complications to infectious parotitis (mumps) may be serious in which type
the BEST method that may be undertaken by the public health nurse?  of clients? 
A. Contact tracing  A. Pregnant women 
B. Community survey  B. Elderly clients 
C. Mass screening tests  C. Young adult males 
D. Interview of suspects  D. Young infants 

Answer: (A) Contact tracing  Answer: (C) Young adult males 

Contact tracing is the most practical and reliable method of finding possible Epididymitis and orchitis are possible complications of mumps. In post-
sources of person-to-person transmitted infections, such as sexually transmitted adolescent males, bilateral inflammation of the testes and epididymis may
diseases. cause sterility.
145. Antiretroviral agents, such as AZT, are used in the management of AIDS.
Which of the following is NOT an action expected of these drugs. 
A. They prolong the life of the client with AIDS. 
B. They reduce the risk of opportunistic infections 
C. They shorten the period of communicability of the disease. 
D. They are able to bring about a cure of the disease condition. 

Answer: (D) They are able to bring about a cure of the disease condition. 
There is no known treatment for AIDS. Antiretroviral agents reduce the risk of 1. Community Health Nursing is a service that is provided to an environment
opportunistic infections and prolong life, but does not cure the underlying that is constantly changing. This implies that the community health nurse
immunodeficiency. to be able to provide relevant service must:
146. A barangay had an outbreak of German measles. To prevent congenital A. involve other disciplines in carrying out health services in various
rubella, what is the BEST advice that you can give to women in the first settings
trimester of pregnancy in the barangay?  B. provide a service that is community based
A. Advice them on the signs of German measles.  C. provide a service that is integrated and comprehensive
B. Avoid crowded places, such as markets and movie houses. 
 D. update her knowledge on the current and evolving characteristics of D. The coordination of services by different members of the health
the health care system team
2. The concept of community health nursing as a population-based service
means that it should be provided to be: 11. Which is the primary goal of community health nursing?
A. home only A. To support and supplement the efforts of the medical profession in
B. nursing community the promotion of health and prevention of illness
C. individuals only B. To enhance the capacity of individuals, families and communities to
D. individual and families cope with their health needs
C. To increase the productivity of the people
3. The goal of community health nursing is to: D. To contribute to national development
A. lessen caseload of public health nurse
B. provide clinic-nursing services to the populace
C. assist families to be self-reliant and be able to identify and solve own 12. Which DOES NOT describe primary health care?
problem A. It emphasizes partnership between health care providers and the
D. spread information about facilities of rural health units or centers people
B. It is a total approach to community development
4. A phase of the nursing process where the needs of the patient or family C. It aims to provide free health services to the people.
are being observed D. It stresses the use of appropriate technology
A. nursing diagnosis
B. assessment 13. When we determine whether the objectives of a program were attained
C. evaluation or not, we are determining
D. intervention A. Effectiveness
B. Efficiency
5. Health services were devolved to local government units (LGU’s) for the C. Adequacy
following reasons EXCEPT D. Appropriateness
A. to transform LGU’s into self-reliant communities
B. to involve people in the development and progress of their 14. Which is a mark of success in Primary Health Care?
communities A. The people utilize health services according to their needs
C. to empower local officials B. Health workers are able to provide efficient and acceptable services
D. to provide people better access to decision-making C. The people are able to attain the highest level of health through
their own efforts
6. Which of the following public health program are devolved and are made D. Barangay officials participate actively in health related activities
more accessible to the people?
A. Environmental health and communicable disease control 15. Accessibility of health services means all of the following EXCEPT
B. Maternal and Child Health Program A. Health service providers are within 5 kilometers from most of their
C. Control of non-communicable diseases catchment population
D. All these programs B. Health services and the manner of delivery of these services are
acceptable to the people.
7. The Department of Health adopts measures to augment basic health C. The people and the government can afford the health services
services and facilities provided by LGU’s. Which of the following is NOT a provided
priority area for the provision of assistance by the DOH? D. Government and non-government agencies participate in providing
A. Areas where studies/research on health are conducted
B. Selected areas in the city 16. In the present health care delivery system, the public health nurse is a
C. Areas recommended by governors and other local officials A. Manager of the Rural Health Unit
D. Deserving but less developed local government units B. Primary health worker
C. Grassroots health worker
8. Which law mandates devolution of health services to LGU’s? D. Secondary health worker
A. R.A. 7610
B. R.A. 7160 17. In a conference with midwives and the rural sanitary inspector, you
C. R.A. 6170 reviewed the functions of the Rural Health Unit. You agreed that the RHU
D. R.A. 6710 should function as a
A. Health are of the LGU
9. According to C.E. Winslow, public health is directed towards assisting B. Resource of the community
every citizen to C. All of these
A. Be free from illness D. Municipal Clinic
B. Realize his birth rights of health and longevity
C. Get social services and welfare support 18. Which herbal preparation may be recommended for fever, cough and
D. Have medicine at an affordable abdominal pain?
A. Sambong
10. Which best demonstrate the concept that community health nursing is B. Tsaang Gubat
population-focused? C. Yerba Buena
A. The performance of community diagnosis D. Bayabas
B. The provision of services at an affordable cost
C. The provision of nursing care in the natural environment of people 19. Which herbal preparation may be used to relieve pain due to arthritis?
 A. Lagundi Situation: From July to September, there were two outbreaks of typhoid fever in
B. Herba Buena Santa Rosa, Laguna. Epidemiologic investigation was undertaken by the Rural
C. Both of these Health Unit team.
D. None of these
28. As a public health nurse, you know that typhoid fever is caused by:
20. The Public Health Nurse in the Rural Health Unit is expected to participate A. Poor personal hygiene practices
in the planning of the total public health program for the municipality. Her B. Intake of unsafe food and/or water
main contribution is to C. Inhalation of contaminated air
A. Collect and collate community data D. Fomites
B. Prepare the nursing component of the plan
C. Implement the community health plan 29. The primary purpose of conducting an epidemiologic investigation is to
D. Assess the total health needs of the community A. Identify groups who are at risk of contracting the disease
B. Delineate the etiology of the epidemic
21. Epidemiology is used for C. Encourage cooperation and support of the community
A. Determining the factors that brought about occurrence of an D. d.) Identify geographical location of cases of the disease in the
epidemic community
B. Evaluating the effectiveness of the Under Five Clinic Program
C. Determining the efficacy of garlic in preventing hypertension 30. To which step of epidemiologic investigation will ascertaining the number
D. All of these programs of cases of typhoid fever occurring in the community belong?
A. Establishing the epidemic
22. Immunity by antibody formation during the course of a disease is B. Appraisal of facts
A. Active natural C. Formulation of the hypothesis
B. Active artificial D. Testing the hypothesis
C. Passive natural
D. Passive artificial 31. As an epidemiologist, among other living things, you are expected to
A. Institute appropriate control
B. Check the presence of signs and symptoms in patients according to
23. When a factor must necessarily be present for a disease to occur, it is the standard case definition of the disease
described as C. Monitor the occurrence of selected notifiable diseases by weekly
A. Predictive charting or graphing cases.
B. Associative D. Plan and secure necessary resources needed for disease control
C. Contributory measures
D. Causative
32. In the Under Five Clinic, which of the following services can be
24. The chief advantage in conducting a home visit is competently provided by the public health nurse?
A. The nurse is able to save time and effort A. Assessment of the nutritional status of children
B. The nurse is able to provide service to many people’s within a given B. Assessment of children’s motor development
period of time C. All of these services
C. The nurse is able to perform first hand appraisal of the home D. Treatment of common childhood diseases
situation
D. It emphasizes the family initiative in health care 33. The expanded role of the public health nurse includes making a medical
diagnosis when the physician is not around. What is used as a guide in
25. The school nurse provides direct nursing care by performing this task?
A. Guiding pupils in developing health habits A. Management guidelines
B. Enhancing interpersonal relationships among pupils and the teaching B. Diagnostic guidelines
staff C. Assessment guidelines
C. Maintaining a healthy and safe physical environment for the children D. Standard case definition
D. Conducting annual physical exams to pupils

26. Primary level prevention is illustrated by: 34. Which component of the Field Heath Services and Information System is
A. Teaching the mother of a child with diarrhea how to use Oresol most helpful in monitoring PTB cases enrolled in DOTS?
B. Isolation of a child with chickenpox A. Individual health record
C. Conducting Operation Timbang B. Output report
D. Teaching a patient post mastectomy exercises C. Tally report
D. Client List
27. Which is a secondary level facility?
A. San Juan Rural Health Unit 35. Which herbal preparation is specifically recommended for cough and colds
B. Ilocos Norte Provincial Hospital by the DOH?
A. Lagundi
C. San Lazaro Hospital B. Yerba Buena
D. University of Santo C. Both of these
D. None of these

Tomas Hospital
36. Which of the following can give the most accurate reflection of the health
status of a community?
A. 1 – 4 year old age-specific mortality rate
B. Maternal mortality rate
C. Infant mortality rate 45. In gathering data about the community, which of these are important?
D. Crude death rate A. People’s major concerns even if they are not health related
B. Their occupation, geographic distribution and seasonal movement of
37. In a community with insufficient water supply, which type of toilet will you the population
recommend to be constructed? C. Health status, nutrition, housing and sanitation
A. water sealed D. All of these are important
B. Aqua privy
C. Covered Pit privy 46. You will know that you were successful in the social preparation of the
D. Overhung community in relation to a community heath problem if the people
participate in
A. Identify their common concerns and planning and implementing
Situation: You are assigned to a municipality with a total population of 25,000. activities for the solution of the community problem
B. Planning activities to solve the health problem
38. You work with two rural health midwives. How many more midwife items C. Implementing activities to solve the health problem
will you request? D. Identifying the health problem as a common concern
A. 2
B. 3 47. When the nurse collects information about 100% of the population, she is
C. 4 conducting a/an?
D. 5 A. Community survey
B. Epidemiological survey
39. The request for additional midwife items will be submitted for approval to C. Census
the D. None of these is correct
A. Rural Health Unit
B. Municipal Health Board 48. The number of cases of influenza in the past month will be reflected in
C. District Health Office which record/ report of the Rural Health Unit?
D. Provincial Health Office A. Family health record
B. Client list
40. In making the staff schedule, you will see to it that the rural health C. Tally report
midwives visit their Barangay assignments at least D. Output report
A. Twice a week
B. Once a week 49. The public health nurse must be aware that erasures in the client’s record
C. Twice a month must be avoided because the
D. Once a month A. Record will look messy
B. Writing would be blurred and difficult to read.
41. 1, 350 persons died within the past year. 36 persons died due to C. Record is a statistical document
pneumonia. 540 of those who died were aged 50 years and above. What is D. Record is a legal document.
the crude death rate?
A. 52/1,000 50. What law requires the registry of births within 30 days from its
B. 54/1,000 occurrence?
C. 2.7 % A. Act 3573
D. 27 % B. R.A. 3753
C. R.A. 3375
42. What is the Swaroop's index of community? D. P.D. 651
A. 30%
B. 35% 51. Which of the following professionals can sign the death certificate?
C. 40% A. Rural health midwife
D. 45% B. Municipal health officer
C. Public health nurse
43. What numerator will be used in computing neonatal mortality rate? D. any of these health professionals
A. Number of deaths aged 1 week and below
B. Number of deaths aged 1 month and below 52. As a public health nurse, one of the functions that you will perform is
C. Number of deaths aged 28 days and below monitoring of the health status of the community. Weekly monitoring will
D. Number of deaths aged 11 months and below be accomplished for which disease?
A. Severe acute diarrhea
44. What denominator is used in computing general fertility rate? B. Typhoid fever
A. Estimated midyear population C. all of these disease
B. Number of registered live births D. Pneumonia
C. Number of pregnancies in the year
D. Number of females of reproductive age 53. Which cases have to be reported within 24 hours from the time of
diagnosis?
 A. Measles
B. Acute polio 61. Which of the following signs will indicate that Nedi is suffering from severe
C. both of these pneumonia?
D. none of these A. Cyanosis
B. Chest indrawing
54. Which of the following should be given priority in providing care to C. Fast breathing
pregnant and their families? D. Wheezing
A. Pregnant women whose systolic and diastolic pressures have
increased by 5-10 mmHg over her baseline systolic- 62. While assessing Nedi for the above sign, you have to make sure that he is
diastolic pressures A. Not aware you are counting respiratory rate
B. A pregnant woman who weighs 110 lbs. B. Not crying
C. A pregnant woman with a history of hypertension in a previous C. Asleep
pregnancy D. Not playing
D. A women pregnant for the third time and is 33 years old
63. You decide that Nedi has pneumonia. What is the best management that
55. Which of the following statements is INCORRECT regarding measles you can administer?
control? A. Prescribe an antibiotic.
A. Treating measles patients with high dose vitamin A significantly B. Provide close follow-up of his condition
reduces mortality rate. C. All of these measures
B. All cases of measles should be reported. D. Give the mother instructions on how to take care of him at home.
C. As a routine, measles vaccine is given to infants between 9-12
months of age. 64. If Nedi manifests wheezing, you will
D. There are specific contraindications for giving measles vaccine. A. Give him a bronchodilator.
B. Diagnose him as having very severe disease.
56. For prevention of hepatitis A, you decided to conduct health education C. Refer him to the nearest hospital
activities. Which of the following is IRRELEVANT? D. Prescribe an antibiotic and follow up closely.
A. Safe food preparation and food handling by vendors
B. Proper disposal of human excreta and personal hygiene
C. Use of sterile syringes and needles for injection Situation: As a public health nurse, you play an important role in the
D. Immediate reporting of water pipe leaks and illegal water implementation of the Expanded Program on Immunization.
connections
65. Maintenance of the cold chain is necessary to keep the vaccines and
57. Which of the following are strategies implemented by the Department of toxoids potent. Who is the cold chain officer in the Rural Health Unit?
Health to prevent transmission of malaria? A. Rural health midwife
A. Teaching people in endemic areas to use chemically treated B. Public Health Nurse
mosquito nets C. Municipal Health officer
B. All of these strategies D. Rural sanitary inspector
C. Chemoprophylaxis of non immune personal going to endemic areas.
D. Chemoprophylaxis of pregnant women in endemic areas 66. What is the dose f hepatitis B vaccine in the EPI?
A. 0.5 ml.
58. To protect the other members of the household, which of the following is B. 0.05 ml.
a priority objective in the care of a patient with active pulmonary C. 0.1 ml.
tuberculosis? D. 1.0 ml.
A. To offer emotional support
B. To assess the environment for standards of sanitation and provide 67. Which of the following is/are true after giving BCG?
needed health teachings A. You must not use alcohol on the site of injection.
C. To teach the patient about the nature of the disease B. All of these are true.
D. To coordinate with various agency services that the patient requires C. A wheal is formed; it disappears after about 30 mins.
D. The child develops an abscess at the site of injection.
59. Secondary prevention for malaria includes
A. Residual spraying of insecticides at night
B. Planting of neem or eucalyptus trees 68. What reaction/s is/are expected after giving DPT?
C. Determining whether a place is endemic or not A. All of these are expected.
D. Growing larva-eating fish in mosquito breeding places B. The patient will have fever lasting for 24 hrs.
C. The patient will have a permanent scar at the site of injection.
60. Which is the best preventive measure of schistosomiasis? D. The patient will have local tenderness at the site of injection of the
A. Destruction of snails 2nd week.
B. Environmental sanitation
C. Use of protective footwear 69. Which vaccines should not be stored in the freezer?
D. Irrigation of snail breeding places A. DPT
B. Tetanus toxoid vaccine
C. All of these
Situation: Nedi, 3 years old, was brought by his mother to the health center D. Hepatitis B
because of cough and colds.
70. According to Margaret Shetland, public health nursing is based on which D. All of these should be taken into consideration
philosophy?
A. Health and longevity are birthrights. 79. In assessing the family’s coping capacity, you noted that the children have
B. Man has worth and dignity. incomplete immunization. Under which area of assessment in the family
C. Public health nursing functions as party of a total public health coping index will you include the observation?
program. A. Application of principles of general hygiene
D. The public health nurse is responsible for developing the people’s B. Therapeutic competence
health capability. C. Health attitudes
D. Family living
71. In the health center, who is the supervisor of midwives? 80. To which level of prevention does screening of potential blood donors
A. Midwife supervisor belong?
B. Public health nurse A. Primary
C. Health center physician B. Secondary
D. Obstetrician C. Intermediate
D. Tertiary
72. As an epidemiologist, the nurse is responsible for presentations of health
statistics. To compare the frequency of occurrence of pneumonias and
diseases of the heart, which graph will she prepare? Situation: Bennie, 7 weeks old, was brought by his mother to the health center
A. Line because of diarrhea occurring 4 to 5 times a day.
B. Bar
C. Pie 81. Your assessment revealed that Bennie has sunken eyes and he is restless
D. Scatter diagram and irritable. What will be your diagnosis?
A. No sign of dehydration
73. Which step in community organizing involves establishing a two-way B. Some dehydration
communication system with the people? C. Severe dehydration
A. Community study D. You need to assess him further to be able to make a diagnosis.
B. Core group formation
C. Entry/Integration 82. Based on your diagnosis, which of the following is the best that you can do
D. Mobilization for Bennie?
A. Accompany Bennie to the nearest facility where IV fluids can be
74. You are aware that you have to report notifiable diseases to the proper given.
authorities. This is mandated by which law? B. Give Bennie, 200 to 400 ml. Oresol in 4 hours.
A. R.A. 3573 C. Give Bennie’s mother instructions on home management.
B. Act 3573 D. Keep him in your health center for close observation.
C. R.A. 3753
D. Act 3753 83. Bennie’s assessment, what other problems do you have to consider?
A. The presence of blood in his stools
75. You are newly appointed public health nurse. What is the first activity that B. Severe undernutrition
you will be concerned with? C. Fever or hypothermia
A. Establish a working relationship with the people. D. All of these
B. Study the set-up of the local government system.
C. Assess the health needs of the people by conducting a survey. 84. Bennie’s mother says Bennie has been having diarrhea for 6 days now.
D. Make a plan of care together with the doctor and midwives. You will decide that Bennie has
A. Acute diarrhea
76. You were designated to be the public health nurse in a doctor-less B. You cannot be certain
municipality. Who will be the manager of the Rural Health Unit? C. Chronic diarrhea
A. Public health nurse D. Sub-acute diarrhea
B. Rural health midwifer
C. Municipal health officer 85. After your management of Bennie’s condition, your assessment revealed
D. Rural sanitary inspecto that he has no more signs of dehydration. What instructions will you give
Bennie’s mother?
77. When the occupational health nurse applies ergonomic principles, she is A. Continue breastfeeding him frequently.
carrying out which of her functions? B. Give him Oresol, 50-100ml after every loose stool.
A. Health care provider C. Observe him for danger signs.
B. Environmental manager D. All of these instructions.
C. Health educator
D. Health coordinator 86. Primary health care is a total approach to community development. Which
of the following is an indicator of success in the use of the primarily health
78. Which criteria must the nurse take into consideration when determining care approach?
which of the identified health problems should be given priority after A. Health services are affordable to individuals and families.
conducting community diagnosis? B. Health programs are sustained according to the level of
A. Magnitude of the health problem development of the community.
B. Nature of the problem presented C. All of these
C. Modifiability of the problem D. Health workers utilize appropriate technology.
 A. Giardiasis
87. To which level of health care delivery does the Region I Provincial belong? B. Bacillary dysentery
A. Primary C. Amoebiasis
B. Secondary D. All of these
C. Intermediate
D. Tertiary
Situation: Two other diseases endemic in certain parts of the Philippines are
88. Which level of water supply is best in an urban setting? Malaria and Schistosomiasis.
A. Point source
B. Water standpost 96. The most common diagnostic test for Schistosomiasis is through a:
C. Communal A. Stool analysis
D. Waterworks system B. Blood examination
C. Urine examination
89. The Sentrong Sigla Movement has been launched to improve health D. Sputum examination
service delivery. Which of the following is/are true of this movement?
A. All of these are true. 97. Schistosomiasis can be controlled by observing the following:
B. This is a joint project of the Department of Health and Local 1. building of foot bridges
Government Units. 2. wearing of boots by farmers and fishermen
C. It aims to promote availability of quality health services. 3. using sanitary toilets
D. The DOH provides grants and technical assistance to a Sentrong 4. clearing vegetation
Sigla.
A. 1, 2, 4
B. 2, 3, 4
Situation: Marie, 25 years old, G1P0, cam to the center for her first prenatal C. 1, 3, 4
check-up D. 1, 2, 3, 4

90. When is the best time to start preparing Marie for breastfeeding? 98. Malaria is endemic in the following areas except:
A. On the last month of pregnancy A. Q.C.
B. On the first prenatal check-up B. Palawan
C. In the second trimester C. Tawi-Twai
D. Immediate after delivery D. Kalinga and Apayao

91. During her pregnancy, Marie may NOT be given which supplement? 99. To confirm the presence of the disease in a victim, she should be
A. Ferrous sulfate 100 mg. OD from the fifth month of pregnancy until subjected to:
3 months after delivery A. urine exam
B. Retinol 200,000 units once every 6 months B. stool analysis
C. Iodine 200 mg. capsule once during the pregnancy C. blood smear
D. All of these may be given D. sputum mecioscopy

92. Marie is instructed to offer her breasts to the baby for the first time w/in 100. Part of Malarial control in an endemic area are the following EXCEPT:
30 minutes after delivery. What is the purpose for offering the breasts A. Use of mosquito repellant at night
this early? B. Propagating “tilapia” in fish foods
A. To foster early maternal bonding with the child C. Planting Eucalyptus trees
B. All of these Destroy fishes in ponds
C. To lessen blood loss after delivery
D. To stimulate milk production

93. After delivery and based on the recommended schedule in the Under Five
Clinic Program, you will encourage Marie to bring her baby to the health
center.
A. Whenever the baby has a health problem
B. Regularly every 2 months
C. Regularly every month
D. At the time when the baby is scheduled for immunization

94. Mrs. Jose Cruz had a home delivery under the care of a traditional birth
attendant. She was noted to have excessive vaginal bleeding. The
traditional birth attendant will refer her to which of the following?
A. Public health nurse
B. Municipal health officer
C. Rural health midwife
D. Private obstetrician

95. Which diarrhea disease/s warrant/s the prescription of antibiotics?