Unit 1: C) Software Is Set of Programs, Documentation & Configuration of Data

UNIT 1
1. What is a Software ?
a) Software is set of programs
b) Software is documentation and configuration of data
c) Software is set of programs, documentation & configuration of data
d) None of the mentioned
3. Which of these does not account for software failure ?

a) Increasing Demand
b) Low expectation
c) Increasing Supply
d) Less reliable and expensive
4. What are attributes of good software ?

a) Software maintainability
b) Software functionality
c) Software development
d) Software maintainability & functionality
6. Which of these is incorrect ?

a) Software engineering belongs to Computer science
b) Software engineering is a part of more general form of System Engineering
c) Computer science belongs to Software engineering
d) Software engineering is concerned with the practicalities of developing and delivering
useful software
7. Which of these is true ?

a) Generic products and customized products are types of software products
b) Generic products are produced by organization and sold to open market
c) Customized products are commissioned by particular customer
d) All of the mentioned
8. Which of these does not affect different types of software as a whole?

a) Heterogeneity
b) Flexibility
c) Business and social change
d) Security
9. The fundamental notions of software engineering does not account for ?

a) Software processes
b) Software Security
c) Software reuse
d) Software Validation
10. Which of these is not true ?
a) Web has led to availability of software services and possibility of developing highly
distributed service based systems
b) Web based systems have led to degradation of programming languages
c) Web brings concept of software as service
d) Web based system should be developed and delivered incrementally
11. Build & Fix Model is suitable for programming exercises of ___________ LOC (Line of
Code).
a) 100-200
b) 200-400
c) 400-1000
d) above 1000
12. RAD stands for

a) Relative Application Development
b) Rapid Application Development
c) Rapid Application Document
13. Which one of the following models is not suitable for accommodating any change?
a) Build & Fix Model
b) Prototyping Model
c) RAD Model
d) Waterfall Model
14. Which is not one of the types of prototype of Prototyping Model?

a) Horizontal Prototype
b) Vertical Prototype
c) Diagonal Prototype
d) Domain Prototype
15. Which one of the following is not a phase of Prototyping Model?

a) Quick Design
b) Coding
c) Prototype Refinement
d) Engineer Product
16. Which of the following statements regarding Build & Fix Model is wrong?
a) No room for structured design
b) Code soon becomes unfixable & unchangeable
c) Maintenance is practically not possible
d) It scales up well to large projects
17. RAD Model has
a) 2 phases
b) 3 phase
c) 5 phases
d) 6 phases
18. What is the major drawback of using RAD Model?

a) Highly specialized & skilled developers/designers are required
b) Increases reusability of components
c) Encourages customer/client feedback
d) Increases reusability of components, Highly specialized & skilled
developers/designers are required
19. SDLC stands for

a) Software Development Life Cycle
b) System Development Life cycle
c) Software Design Life Cycle
d) System Design Life Cycle
20. Which model can be selected if user is involved in all the phases of SDLC?
a) Waterfall Model
b) Prototyping Model
c) RAD Model
d) both Prototyping Model & RAD Model
21. Which one of the following is not a software process quality?

a) Productivity
b) Portability
c) Timeliness
d) Visibility
22. _____________&_____________ are two kinds of software products.

a) CAD, CAM
b) Firmware, Embedded
c) Generic, Customised
23. Software costs more to maintain than it does to develop.

a) True
b) False
24. Which one of the following is not an application of embedded software product?
a) keypad control of a security system
b) pattern recognition game playing
c) digital function of dashboard display in a car
d) none of the mentioned
25. Purpose of process is to deliver software

a) in time
b) with acceptable quality
c) that is cost efficient
d) both in time & with acceptable quality
26. The work associated with software engineering can be categorized into three generic
phases,regardless of application area, project size, or complexity namely the__________
phase which focuses on what, the_________ phase which focuses on how and
the_________ phase which focuses on change.
i. support
ii. development
iii. definition
a) 1, 2, 3
b) 2, 1, 3
c) 3, 2, 1
d) 3, 1, 2
27. Which of the following activities of a Generic Process framework provides a feedback
report?
a) Communication
b) Planning
c) Modeling & Construction
d) Deployment
28. Process adopted for one project is same as the process adopted from another project.
a) True
b) False
29. Which one of the following is not an Umbrella Activity that complements the five process
framework activities and help team manage and control progress, quality, change, and risk.
a) Reusability management
b) Risk management
c) Measurement
d) User Reviews
30. Four types of change are encountered during the support phase.Which one of the
following is not one that falls into such category?
a) Translation
b) Correction
c) Adaptation
d) Prevention
31. Which one of the following is not a fundamental activity for software processes in
software engineering ?
a) Software Verification
b) Software Validation
c) Software design and implementation
d) Software evolution
32. Choose an internal software quality from given below:

a) scalability
b) usability
c) reusability
d) reliability
33. The longer a fault exists in software

a) the more tedious its removal becomes
b) the more costly it is to detect and correct
c) the less likely it is to be properly corrected
34. Arrange the following steps to form a basic/general Engineering Process Model.
i. Test
ii. Design
iii. Install
iv. Specification
v. Manufacture
vi. Maintain
a) 2, 4, 5, 1, 6, 3
b) 4, 2, 5, 1, 3, 6
c) 2, 4, 5, 1, 3, 6
d) 4, 2, 5, 1, 6, 3
35. Component-based Software Engineering allows faster delivery.

a) True
b) False
36. The Incremental Model is a result of combination of elements of which two models?
a) Build & FIX Model & Waterfall Model
b) Linear Model & RAD Model
c) Linear Model & Prototyping Model
d) Waterfall Model & RAD Model
37. Which one of the following is not an Evolutionary Process Model?
a) WINWIN Spiral Model
b) Incremental Model
c) Concurrent Development Model
38. 3. What is the major advantage of using Incremental Model?

a) Customer can respond to each increment
b) Easier to test and debug
c) It is used when there is a need to get a product to the market early
d) Easier to test and debug & It is used when there is a need to get a product to the
market early
39. The spiral model was originally proposed by

a) IBM
b) Barry Boehm
c) Pressman
d) Royce
40. The spiral model has two dimensions namely _____________ and ____________
a) diagonal, angular
b) radial, perpendicular
c) radial, angular
d) diagonal, perpendicular
41. Identify the disadvantage of Spiral Model.

a) Doesn’t work well for smaller projects
b) High amount of risk analysis
c) Strong approval and documentation control
d) Additional Functionality can be added at a later date
42. How is Incremental Model different from Spiral Model?

a) Progress can be measured for Incremental Model
b) Changing requirements can be accommodated in Incremental Model
c) Users can see the system early in Incremental Model
43. Selection of a model is based on

a) Requirements
b) Development team & Users
c) Project type and associated risk
44. Which two models doesn’t allow defining requirements early in the cycle?
a) Waterfall & RAD
b) Prototyping & Spiral
c) Prototyping & RAD
d) Waterfall & Spiral
45. Which of the following life cycle model can be chosen if the development team has less
experience on similar projects?
a) Spiral
b) Waterfall
c) RAD
d) Iterative Enhancement Model
46. If you were a lead developer of a software company and you are asked to submit a
project/product within a stipulated time-frame with no cost barriers, which model would you
select?
a) Waterfall
b) Spiral
c) RAD
d) Incremental
47. Which two of the following models will not be able to give the desired outcome if user’s
participation is not involved?
a) Waterfall & Spiral
b) RAD & Spiral
c) RAD & Waterfall
d) RAD & Prototyping
48. Choose the correct option from given below:

a) Prototyping Model facilitates reusability of components
b) RAD Model Model facilitates reusability of components
c) Both RAD & Prototyping Model facilitates reusability of components
d) None
49. One can choose Waterfall Model if the project development schedule is tight.
a) True
b) False
50. Spiral Model has high reliability requirements.

a) True
b) False
UNIT 3
1. The Unified Modeling Language (UML) has become an effective standard for software
modelling.How many different notations does it have ?
a) Three
b) Four
c) Six
d) Nine
2. Which model in system modelling depicts the dynamic behaviour of the system ?
a) Context Model
b) Behavioral Model
c) Data Model
d) Object Model
3. Which model in system modelling depicts the static nature of the system ?
a) Behavioral Model
b) Context Model
c) Data Model
d) Structural Model
4. Which perspective in system modelling shows the system or data architecture.

a) Structural perspective
b) Behavioral perspective
c) External perspective
5. Java packages and Fortran subroutine are examples of__________

a) Functions
b) Modules
c) Classes
d) Sub procedures
6. Activity diagrams are used to model the processing of data.

a) True
b) False
7. Model-driven engineering is just a theoretical concept. It cannot be converted into a

working/executable code.
a) True
b) False
8. The UML supports event-based modeling using ____________ diagrams.

a) Deployment
b) Collaboration
c) State chart
9. Cohesion is a qualitative indication of the degree to which a module

a) can be written more compactly
b) focuses on just one thing
c) is able to complete its function in a timely manner
d) is connected to other modules and the outside world
10. 12. Coupling is a qualitative indication of the degree to which a module

a) can be written more compactly
b) focuses on just one thing
c) is able to complete its function in a timely manner
d) is connected to other modules and the outside world
11. Which is the first step in the software development life cycle ?
a) Analysis
b) Design
c) Problem/Opportunity Identification
d) Development and Documentation
12. Which tool is use for structured designing ?

a) Program flowchart
b) Structure chart
c) Data-flow diagram
d) Module
13. A step by step instruction used to solve a problem is known as

a) Sequential structure
b) A List
c) A plan
d) An Algorithm
14. In the Analysis phase, the development of the ____________ occurs, which is a clear
statement of the goals and objectives of the project.
a) documentation
b) flowchart
c) program specification
d) design
15. Actual programming of software code is done during the ____________ step in the
SDLC.
a) Maintenance and Evaluation
b) Design
c) Analysis
d) Development and Documentation
16. Who designs and implement database structures.

a) Programmers
b) Project managers
c) Technical writers
d) Database administrators
17. ____________ is the process of translating a task into a series of commands that a
computer will use to perform that task.
a) Project design
b) Installation
c) Systems analysis
d) Programming
18. Debugging is:

a) creating program code
b) finding and correcting errors in the program code
c) identifying the task to be computerized
d) creating the algorithm
19. In Design phase, which is the primary area of concern ?

a) Architecture
b) Data
c) Interface
20. The importance of software design can be summarized in a single word which is:
a) Efficiency
b) Accuracy
c) Quality
d) Complexity
22. Which of the property of software modularity is incorrect with respect to benefits
software modularity?
a) Modules are robust
b) Module can use other modules
c) Modules Can be separately compiled and stored in a library
d) Modules are mostly dependent
23. _______________ is a measure of the degree of interdependence between modules.

a) Cohesion
b) Coupling
c) None of the mentioned
24. Which of the following is the best type of module coupling?

a) Control Coupling
b) Stamp Coupling
c) Data Coupling
d) Content Coupling
25. Which of the following is the worst type of module coupling?

a) Control Coupling
b) Stamp Coupling
c) External Coupling
d) Content Coupling
26. Which of the following is the worst type of module cohesion?

a) Logical Cohesion
b) Temporal Cohesion
c) Functional Cohesion
d) Coincidental Cohesion
27. Which of the following is the best type of module cohesion?

a) Functional Cohesion
d) Sequential Cohesion
28. A software engineer must design the modules with the goal of high cohesion and low
coupling.
a) True
b) False
29. In what type of coupling, the complete data structure is passed from one module to
another?
a) Control Coupling
b) Stamp Coupling
c) External Coupling
d) Content Coupling
30. If all tasks must be executed in the same time-span, what type of cohesion is being
exhibited?
a) Functional Cohesion
d) Sequential Cohesion
31. Choose the option that does not define Function Oriented Software Design.
a) It consists of module definitions
b) Modules represent data abstraction
c) Modules support functional abstraction
32. Which of the following is a complementary approach to function-oriented approach ?

a) Object oriented analysis
b) Object oriented design
c) Structured approach
d) Both Object oriented analysis and design
33. Function-oriented design techniques starts with functional requirements specified in

a) SDD
b) SRS
c) All of the mentioned
34. Structured Analysis is based on the principles of

a) Top-down decomposition approach
b) Divide and conquer principle
c) Graphical representation of results using DFDs
35. Which of the following is/are true with respect to functions ?

a) A function such as “search-book” is represented using a circle
b) Functions represent some activity
c) Function symbol is known as a process symbol or a bubble in DFD
36. Which of the following is not a use of a CASE tool ?

a) Support structured analysis and design (SA/SD)
b) Maintains the data dictionary
c) Checks whether DFDs are balanced or not
d) It complies with the available system
37. What DFD notation is represented by the Rectangle?

a) Transform
b) Data Store
c) Function
38. Structural decomposition is concerned with function calls.

a) True
b) False
39. A function-oriented design focuses on the entities in the system rather than the data
processing activities.
a) True
b) False
40. In DFDs, user interactions with the system is denoted by

a) Circle
b) Arrow
c) Rectangle
d) Triangle
UNIT 4
Q1. is not a software quality model.

A. McCall model
B. Boehm model
C. ISO 9000
D. ISO 9126
Q2. Which one of the following term describes testing?

A. Evaluating deliverable to find errors
B. A stage of all projects
C. A stage of all projects
D. None of the these
Q3. What is Exhaustive testing ?

A. practically possible
B. impractical but possible
C. impractical and impossible
D. always possible
Q4. What is Exhaustive testing ?

A. practically possible
B. impractical but possible
C. impractical and impossible
D. always possible
Q5. Black box testing is only functional testing.

A. True
B. False
Q6. Black box testing is only functional testing.

A. True
B. False
Q7. Which one of the following technique is applied for usability testing?
A. White box
B. Black box
C. Grey box
D. All of the mentioned above
Q8. Testing of individual components by the developers are comes under

.
A. Integration testing
B. Validation testing
C. Unit testing
D. None of mentioned
Q9. the testing have been stopped When .

A. the faults have been fixed
B. all the tests run
C. the time completed
D. the risk are resolved
Q10. is not Structural Testing?

A. Parallel
B. Acceptance
C. Stress
D. Regression
Q11. Testing comes under category of cost of quality.

A. Appraisal
B. Failure
C. Preventive
D. None of the mentioned
Q12. Which one is the reputed testing standard?

A. QAI
B. M Bridge awards
C. ISO
D. Microsoft
Q13. Testing which performed first is -

A. Dynamic testing
B. Black box testing
C. White box testing
D. Static testing
Q14. testing focuses on heavily testing of one particular module.

A. Gorilla Testing
B. Fuzz Testing
C. Inter-Systems Testing
D. Breadth Testing
Q15. Confidence Testing refers to Smoke Testing .

A. True
B. False
Q16. Verification is .
A. Making sure that it is what the user really wants
B. Checking that we are building the right system
C. Checking that we are building the system right
D. Performed by an independent test team
Q17. Which one is the main focus of acceptance testing.

A. testing the system with other systems
B. testing for a business perspective
C. finding faults in the system
D. testing the system with other systems
Q18. is not static testing technique.

A. Walkthrough
B. Error guessing
C. Inspections
D. Data flow analysis
Q19. Full form of ITG.

A. individual testing group
B. integration testing group
C. instantaneous test group
D. independent test group
Q20. Software mistakes during coding are known as .

A. errors
B. bugs
C. failures
D. defects
Q21. What is cyclomatic complexity in software testing?
A. Black box testing

B. Yellow box testing
C. White box testing
D. Green box testing
Q22. Maintenance testing is performed using which methodology?

A. Retesting
B. Sanity testing
C. Confirmation testing
D. Breadth test and depth test
Q23. White Box techniques are also classified as

A. Structural testing
B. Design based testing
C. Error guessing technique
D. None of above
Q24. What are the various Testing Levels?

A. Unit Testing
B. System Testing
C. Integration Testing
D. All of the Above
Q25. Testing done without planning and Documentation is called ....................
A. Unit testing
B. Adhoc testing
C. Regression testing
D. None of above
1. The testing in which code is checked

a) Black box testing
b) White box testing
c) Red box testing
d) Green box testing
2. Testing done without planning and Documentation is called

a) Unit testing
b) Regression testing
c) Adhoc testing
3. Acceptance testing is also known as

a) Grey box testing
c) Alpha Testing
d) Beta testing
4. Which of the following is non-functional testing?

b) Performance testing
c) Unit testing
5. Beta testing is done at
a) User’s end
b) Developer’s end
c) User’s & Developer’s end
6. SPICE stands for

a) Software Process Improvement and Compatibility Determination
b) Software Process Improvement and Control Determination
c) Software Process Improvement and Capability Determination
7. Unit testing is done by

a) Users
b) Developers
c) Customers
8. Behavioral testing is
a) White box testing
b) Black box testing
c) Grey box testing
9. Which of the following is black box testing

a) Basic path testing
b) Boundary value analysis
c) Code path analysis
10. Which of the following is not used in measuring the size of the software
a) KLOC
b) Function Points
c) Size of module
11. Which of the following term describes testing?

a) Finding broken code
b) Evaluating deliverable to find errors
c) A stage of all projects
12. What is Cyclomatic complexity?

c) Yellow box testing
d) Green box testing
13. Lower and upper limits are present in which chart?

a) Run chart
b) Bar chart
c) Control chart
14. Maintenance testing is performed using which methodology?
a) Retesting
b) Sanity testing
c) Breadth test and depth test
d) Confirmation testing
15. White Box techniques are also classified as

a) Design based testing
b) Structural testing
c) Error guessing technique
16. Exhaustive testing is

a) always possible
b) practically possible
c) impractical but possible
d) impractical and impossible
17. Which of the following is/are White box technique?

a) Statement Testing
b) Decision Testing
c) Condition Coverage
18. What are the various Testing Levels?

a) Unit Testing
b) System Testing
c) Integration Testing
19. Boundary value analysis belong to?

a) White Box Testing
b) Black Box Testing
c) White Box & Black Box Testing
20. Alpha testing is done at

a) Developer’s end
b) User’s end
c) Developer’s & User’s end
1. Which of the following is true about Corrective Maintenance?
A. It includes modifications and updations done in order to correct or fix

problems, which are either discovered by user or concluded by user error
reports.
B. It includes modifications and updations applied to keep the software product
up-to date and tuned to the ever changing world of technology and business
environment.
C. It includes modifications and updates done in order to keep the software
usable over long period of time.
D. It includes modifications and updations to prevent future problems of the
software.
2. Which of the following is not a type of maintenance?
A. Adaptive Maintenance
B. Preventive Maintenance
C. Perfective Maintenance
D. Performative Maintenance
3. Which process is used to achieve system specification by thoroughly analyzing,

understanding the existing system?
A. Program Restructuring
B. Reverse Engineering
C. Forward Engineering
D. None of the above
4. In how many categories software Maintenance is classified?
A. 2
B. 3
C. 4
D. 5
5. What type of software testing is generally used in Software Maintenance?

A. Regression Testing
B. System Testing
C. Black-box testing
D. White-box testing
7. Which regression test selection technique exposes faults caused by
modifications?
A. Precision
B. Efficiency
C. Inclusiveness
D. Generality
8. ACT stands for?
A. Annual component traffic

B. Apply component traffic
C. Annual change track
D. Annual change traffic
9. The process of obtaining desired software from the specifications in hand.
A. Re-engineering
B. Forward Engineering
C. Reconstructing
D. Re-engineering
10. What are legacy systems?
A. new systems
B. old systems
C. under-developed systems
D. None of the above
11. Which of the following is a type of Software Maintenance in SDLC?
a. Corrective Maintenance
b. Adaptive Maintenance
c. Perfective Maintenance
d. All of the above
12. Which of the following software maintenance process models is used when
little changes are to be made in a software?
a. Primary model
b. Secondary model
c. Tertiary model
d. Any of the above
13. Which of the following software maintenance process models is used when
major changes are to be made in software?
A. Primary model
B. Secondary model
C. Tertiary model
D. Any of the above
14.. ___ must plan, motivate, organize and control the practitioners who do
software work.
a) Project Managers
b) Senior Managers
c) Customers
d) End Users
15. The realistic percentage for striving to work in Software Project Development
is ___.
a) 40%
b) 80%
c) 50%
d) 100%
16. ___ defines testing procedures and certification process.

a) Software Support
b) Software Development
c) Software Management
d) Software Testing
17. ___ encompasses e-mail, or electronic dashboards, or video conferencing

system.
a) Formal communication
b) Electronic communication
c) Informal communication
d) Interpersonal networking
18. Testing and Module Integration strategies are addressed in ___ phase.
a) Initiation
b) Implementation
c) Planning and Design
d) Maintenance
19. ___ does not highlight inter-task dependencies.

a) Gantt charts
b) PERT charts
c) Both a) and b)
d) None of the above
20. ___ is the least flexible and most obsolete of the life cycle models.
a) Spiral model
b) Waterfall model
c) Throwaway prototyping model
d) Iterative / incremental development model
21. CMM stands for ___.

a) Capability Maturity Model
b) Capacity Maturity Model
c) Customer Maturity Model
d) Common Maturity Model
22. In ___ mode the project is characterized by tight, stringent constraints and
interface requirements.
a) Organic
b) Embedded
c) Semidetached
23. Six Sigma is a registered service mark and trademark of ___. (Pick right option)
a) Microsoft
b) Sun Microsystems
c) Motorola
24. What is the first step in the software development lifecycle?
A. System Design
B. Coding
C. System Testing
D. Preliminary Investigation and Analysis
25. The types of Software Maintenance are ______

a. Corrective
b. Adaptive
c. Perfective
d. All of these
26. The main aim of Software Configuration Management (SCM) is _____

a. Identify change
b. Control change
c. To ensure that the change is being properly implemented
d. All of these
27. The output of the Software Process is _______

a. Computer programs
b. The Documents which describe the computer programs.
c. Data (within the program or external to program).
d. All of these
28. Which of the following combines procedures and tools to manage different
versions of configuration objects that are created during the software process?
a. Configuration status reporting.
b. Version control
c. Change control
d. None of the above
29. As the reliability increases, what happens to the failure intensity?

a. Increases
b. Decreases
c. No effect
30. A COCOMO model is ________ .
a. Common Cost Estimation Model.

b. Constructive Cost Estimation Model.
c. Complete Cost Estimation Model.
d. Comprehensive Cost Estimation Model
31. _____is the associated with the Product Risk.

A. Test object
B. non-availability of the test environment
C. Negative consequences
D. Control of test item
32. ______is the Risk management most important jobs.
A. Project manager
B. Production team
C. Investor
D. Client
33. _____model is used to Project risk factor.
A. Prototyping model
B. Waterfall model
C. Spiral model
D. None of these
34. ______strategies means that the impact of the risk will be reduced.
A. Contingency plans
B. Avoidance strategies
C. Minimization strategies
D. All of these
35. _____ Risk is the really want Building an excellent product or system.
A. Business
B. Schedule
C. Technical
D. Performance.
36. CASE stands for?
A. Computer Aid Software Engineering

B. Computer Application Software Engineering
C. Computer Aided Software Engineering
D. Computer Analysis Software Engineering
37. Upper CASE tools are used in ___________ stages of SDLC?
A. planning
B. analysis
C. design
D. All of the above.
38. Which of the following tool is helpful in all the stages of SDLC?
A. Central Repository
B. Lower Case Tools
C. Integrated Case Tools
D. Upper Case Tools
39. Which of the following is not a type of CASE tool?
A. Diagram tools
B. Process Modeling Tools
C. Documentation Tools
D. Testing tool
40. In which of the following methodologies CASE tool mainly used?
A. RAD
B. OO Approach
C. JAD
D. All of the above
41. Where CASE tool is used?

A. Project management
B. Schema generation
C. Data modeling
D. All of the above
42. What stores all changes and info related to the project from
development through maintenance in CASE tools?
A. Database
B. Repository
C. Register
D. Files
SOFTWARE ENGINEERING 2020-21
SOFTWARE ENGINEERING
Software Engineering
Course-Outcome(CO)
At the end of course, the student will be able to
understand
Explain various software characteristics and analyze different software Development Models.
CO1
CO2 Demonstrate the contents of a SRS and apply basic software quality assurance practices to ensure that
design, development meet or exceed applicable standards.
Compare and contrast various methods for software design
CO3
CO4 Formulate testing strategy for software systems, employ techniques such as unit testing, Test driven
development and functional testing.
CO5 Manage software development process independently as well as in teams and make use of Various
software management tools for development, maintenance and analysis.
DETAILED SYLLABUS
Unit Topic
Introduction: Introduction to Software Engineering, Software Components, Software Characteristics,

Software Crisis, Software Engineering Processes, Similarity and Differences from Conventional
I Engineering Processes, Software Quality Attributes. Software Development Life Cycle (SDLC) Models:
Water Fall Model, Prototype Model, Spiral Model, Evolutionary Development Models, Iterative
Enhancement Models.
Software Requirement Specifications (SRS): Requirement Engineering Process: Elicitation, Analysis,
II Documentation, Review and Management of User Needs, Feasibility Study, Information Modelling, Data
Flow Diagrams, Entity Relationship Diagrams, Decision Tables, SRS Document, IEEE Standards for SRS.
Software Quality Assurance (SQA): Verification and Validation, SQA Plans, Software Quality
Frameworks, ISO 9000 Models, SEI-CMM Model.
Software Design: Basic Concept of Software Design, Architectural Design, Low Level Design:
Modularization, Design Structure Charts, Pseudo Codes, Flow Charts, Coupling and Cohesion Measures,
III
Design Strategies: Function Oriented Design, Object Oriented Design, Top-Down and Bottom-Up Design.
Software Measurement and Metrics: Various Size Oriented Measures: Halestead’s Software Science,
Function Point (FP) Based Measures, Cyclomatic Complexity Measures: Control Flow Graphs.
Software Testing: Testing Objectives, Unit Testing, Integration Testing, Acceptance Testing, Regression
Testing, Testing for Functionality and Testing for Performance, Top Down and Bottom-Up Testing
IV Strategies: Test Drivers and Test Stubs, Structural Testing (White Box Testing), Functional Testing (Black
Box Testing), Test Data Suit Preparation, Alpha and Beta Testing of Products. Static
1 University Academy
Testing Strategies: Formal Technical Reviews (Peer Reviews), Walk Through, Code Inspection,
Compliance with Design and Coding Standards.
Software Maintenance and Software Project Management: Software as an Evolutionary Entity, Need
V for Maintenance, Categories of Maintenance: Preventive, Corrective and Perfective Maintenance, Cost of
Maintenance, Software Re- Engineering, Reverse Engineering. Software Configuration Management
Activities, Change Control Process, Software Version Control, An Overview of CASE Tools. Estimation
of Various Parameters such as Cost, Efforts, Schedule/Duration, Constructive Cost Models (COCOMO),
Resource Allocation Models, Software Risk Analysis and Management.
Software Engineering
Solved MCQ
Content Page No
1. Unit-I…………….………………………………………………………………...……...….3
2. Unit-II………….……….………………………………………………………...………….14
3. Unit-III……………………….………….…....……………………………………….…......26
4. Unit-IV.…………………………………………………………………....…….….…..……40
5. Unit- V………………………….....................….…...............................................................52
Unit-I
1. What is the first step in the software c. Horizontal Prototype
development lifecycle? d. Diagonal Prototype
a. System Design Answer: Option (d)
b. Coding 6. The major drawback of RAD model is _
c. System Testing a. It requires highly skilled
d. Preliminary Investigation and Analysis developers/designers.
Answer: Option (d) b. It necessitates customer feedbacks.

2. What does the study of an existing system refer c. It increases the component reusability.
to?
a. Both (a) & (c)
a. Details of DFD
Answer: Option (d)
b. Feasibility Study
7. Which of the following does not relate to
c. System Analysis
Evolutionary Process Model?
d. System Planning
Answer: Option (c) a. Incremental Model
3. Which of the following is involved in the system b. Concurrent Development Model
planning and designing phase of the Software c. WINWIN Spiral Model
Development Life Cycle (SDLC)? d. All of the above
Answer: Option (d)
a. Sizing 8. What is the major drawback of the Spiral
b. Parallel run Model?
c. Specification freeze
a.Higher amount of risk analysis
d. All of the above b. Doesn't work well for smaller projects
c.Additional functionalities are added later on
Answer: Option (d)
d. Strong approval and documentation control
4. What does RAD stand for?
Answer: Option (b)
9. Model selection is based on _______
a. Rapid Application Document
b. Rapid Application Development a.Requirements

c. Relative Application Development b. Development team & users
c.Project type & associated risk
d. All of the above
Answer: Option (b) Answer: Option (d)
10. Which of the following option is correct?
5. Which of the following prototypes does not
associated with Prototyping Model? a.The prototyping model facilitates the
a. Domain Prototype reusability of components.
b. Vertical Prototype
b. RAD Model facilitates reusability of

components Answer: Option (d)
c.Both RAD & Prototyping Model facilitates 15. The process of developing a software product
reusability of components using software engineering principles and
d. None methods is referred to as_______.
Answer: Option (c) a. Software Engineering
11. Which of the following models doesn't b. software Evolution
necessitate defining requirements at the earliest c. System Models
in the lifecycle? d. Software Models
Answer: Option (b)
a. RAD & Waterfall
b. Prototyping & Waterfall 16. Which of the following is the Characteristics of
c. Spiral & Prototyping good software?
d. Spiral & RAD a. Transitional
Answer: Option (c) b. Operational
12. When the user participation isn't involved, c. Maintenance
which of the following models will not result in d. All of the above
the desired output? Answer: Option (d)
17. Where there is a need of Software Engineering?
a. Prototyping & Waterfall
a. For Large Software
b. Prototyping & RAD
b. To reduce Cost
c. Prototyping & Spiral
d. RAD & Spiral c. Software Quality Management
Answer: Option (b) d. All of the above
13. Which of the following model will be preferred Answer: Option (d)
by a company that is planning to deploy an 18. The reason for software bugs and failures is due
advanced version of the existing software in the to____________.
market? a. Software Developers

b. Software companies
a. Spiral c. Both A and B
b. Iterative Enhancement d. None of the above
c. RAD Answer: Option (d)
d. Both (b) and (c) 19. Efficiency in a software product does not include
Answer: Option (D) ____
14. Software is considered to be collection
a. Licensing
of
b. processing time
a. programming code
c. responsiveness
b. associated libraries
d. memory utilization
c. documentations
Answer: Option (a)
d. All of the above 20. What are attributes of good software?
a. Software functionality Answer: Option (b)

b. Software development 26. Which of the following statements regarding
c. Software maintainability Build & Fix Model is wrong?
d. Both A and C a. No room for structured design
Answer: Option (d) b. Code soon becomes unfixable &
21. Build & Fix Model is suitable for programming unchangeable
exercises of ____LOC (Line of Code). c. Maintenance is practically not possible
a. 100-200 d. It scales up well to large projects
b. 200-400 Answer: Option (d)
c. 400-1000
d. above 1000 27. RAD Model has
Answer: Option (a) a. 2 phases
22. RAD stands for b. 3 phase
a. Relative Application Development c. 5 phases
b. Rapid Application Development d. 6 phases
c. Rapid Application Document Answer: Option (c)
d. None of the mentioned 28. Which model can be selected if user is involved
Answer: Option (b) in all the phases of SDLC?
23. Which one of the following models is not a. Waterfall Model
suitable for accommodating any change? b. Prototyping Model
a. Build & Fix Model c. RAD Model
b. Prototyping Model d. both Prototyping Model & RAD Model
c. RAD Model Answer: Option (c)
d. Waterfall Model 29. Which of the following are valid step in SDLC
Answer: Option (d) framework?
24. Which is not one of the types of prototype of a. Requirement Gathering
Prototyping Model? b. System Analysis
a. Horizontal Prototype c. Software Design
b. Vertical Prototype d. All of the above
c. Diagonal Prototype
Answer: Option (c) Answer: Option (d)
25. Which one of the following is not a phase of 30. Which of the following is the first step in SDLC
Prototyping Model? framework?
a. Quick Design a. Feasibility Study
b. Coding b. Requirement Gathering
c. Prototype Refinement c. Communication
d. Engineer Product d. System Analysis
e. Domain Prototype. Answer: Option (c)
31. Which of the following is not correct model in d. System Requirements Specification
Software Development Paradigm? Answer: Option (c)
a. Waterfall Model 36. The goal of requirement engineering is to
b. P model develop and maintain sophisticated and
c. Spiral Model descriptive _________________ document.
d. V model a. Feasibility Study
Answer: Option (b) b. Requirement Gathering
32. Waterfall model is not suitable for: c. Software Requirement Validation
a. Small projects d. System Requirements Specification
b. Complex projects Answer: Option (d)
c. Accommodating changes 37. It is the process in which developers discuss with
d. Maintenance Projects the client and end users and know their
Answer: Option (c) expectations from the software.
33. Which one of the following is a functional a. Requirements gathering
requirement? b. Organizing Requirements
a. Maintainability c. Negotiation & discussion
b. Portability d. Documentation
c. Business needs Answer: Option (a)
d. Reliability 38. Which of the following is correct software
Answer: Option (c) metrics?
34. What is the major drawback of using RAD a. Complexity Metrics
Model? b. Quality Metrics
c. Process Metrics
a. Highly specialized & skilled d. All of the above
developers/designers are required Answer: Option (d)
b. Increases reusability of components 39. Why is Requirements Elicitation a difficult task?
c. Encourages customer/client feedback a. Problem of scope
d. Increases reusability of components, b. Problem of understanding
highly specialized & skilled c. Problem of volatility
developers/designers are required d. All of the above
Answer: Option (d) Answer: Option (d)
40. The fundamental notions of software
35. The process to gather the software requirements engineering does not account for?
from client, analyze and document them is A. Software Security B. Software reuse C.
known as _____.. Software processes D. Software Validation
a. Feasibility Study
b. Requirement Gathering Answer: Option (d)
c. Requirement Engineering 41. Which of these software engineering activities
are not a part of software processes?
a. Software development b. Defects are more likely to arise after

b. Software dependence software has been used often
c. Software validation c. Multiple change requests introduce
d. Software specification errors in component interactions
Answer: Option (b) d. Software spare parts become harder to
42. The spiral model was originally proposed by.. order
a. Barry Boehm Answer: Option (c)
b. Pressman 47. Which of the items listed below is not one of
c. Royce the software engineering layers?
d. Pressman
a. Process
Answer: Option (a) b. Manufacturing
c. Methods
43. Usability can be measured in terms of:
d. Tools
a. Time required to become moderately
Answer: Option (b)
efficient in system usage
48. Which of these are the 5 generic software
b. Net increase in productivity
engineering framework activities?
c. Intellectual skill to learn the system
d. All of the mentioned a. Communication, planning, modeling,
Answer: Option (d) construction, deployment
44. What are attributes of good software? b. Communication, risk management,
a. Software functionality measurement, production, reviewing
b. Software maintainability c. Analysis, designing, programming,
c. Software development debugging, maintenance
d. Both Software functionality & d. Analysis, planning, designing,

maintainability programming, testing
Answer: Option (d) Answer: Option (c)
45. Which of the following is also known as 49. The incremental model of software
Verification and Validation Model? development is
a. V-Model
a. A reasonable approach when requirements
b. Waterfall Model
are well defined
c. Prototype Model
b. A good approach when working core
d. Evolutionary Model
product is required.
Answer: Option (a)
c. The best approach to use when large
46. Software deteriorates rather than wears out
development team
because
d. A revolutionary model that is not
a. Software suffers from exposure to hostile
commercially used.
environments
Answer: Option (b)
50. The spiral model of software development
a. Ends with the software delivery of the 54. Software deteriorates rather than wears out
product because
b. Is more chaotic than incremental model
c. Calculate risk at each phase a. Software suffers from exposure to hostile
d. All the three environments

b. Defects are more likely to arise after
Answer: Option (c) software has been used often
51. The prototyping software model is c. Multiple change requests introduce

errors in component interactions
a. A reasonable approach when requirements d. Software spare parts become harder to
are well defined order
b. Useful only when customer can not define
requirement clearly Answer: Option (c)
c. best for large development team
d. A risky model for producing meaningful 55. WebApps are a mixture of print publishing and
product software development, making their
Answer: Option (b) development outside the realm of software
52. Which question no longer concerns the modern engineering practice.
software engineer?
a. True
a. Why does computer hardware cost so b. False
much?
Answer: Option (b)
b. Why does software take a long time to
finish?
5. There are no real differences between creating
c. Why does it cost so much to develop a
WebApps and MobileApps
piece of software?
d. Why can’t software errors be removed a. True
from products prior to delivery? b. False
Answer: Option (a) Answer: Option (b)
53. Software is a product and can be manufactured 56. In its simplest form an external computing
using the same technologies used for other device may access cloud data services using a
engineering artifacts web browser.
a. True
a. True
b. False
b. False
Answer: Option (b)

Answer: Option (a)
c. Software is easier to build without using

someone else's components.
57. Product line software developments depends the d. Off-the-shelf software components are
reuse of existing software components to unavailable in many application
provide software engineering leverage. domains.
a. True Answer: Option (d)

b. False
61. The nature of software applications can be
Answer: Option (a) characterized by their information
58. Which of the items listed below is not one of a. Complexity

the software engineering layers? b. Content
c. Determinacy
a. Process
d. both b and c
b. Manufacturing
c. Methods Answer: Option (d)
Tools Answer: Option (b) 62. Process models are described as agile because
they
59. Which of these are the 5 generic software
engineering framework activities? a. Eliminate the need for cumbersome
documentation
a. communication, planning, modeling,
b. Emphasize maneuverability and
construction, deployment
adaptability
b. communication, risk management,
c. Do not waste development time on
measurement, production, reviewing
planning activities
c. analysis, designing, programming,
d. Make extensive use of prototype creation
debugging, maintenance
d. analysis, planning, designing, Answer: Option (b)
programming, testing
63. Which of these terms are level names in the
Answer: Option (a) Capability Maturity Model?
60. Most software continues to be custom built a. Performed

because b. Repeated
c. Optimized
a. Component reuse is common in the
d. both a and c
software world.
b. Reusable components are too expensive to Answer: Option (d)
use.
64. The best software process model is one that has 68. In the Unified Process model requirements are
been created by the people who will actually be determined iteratively and may span more than
doing the work. one phase of the process.
a. True a. True
b. False b. False
Answer: Option (a) Answer: Option (a)
65. Which of the following are recognized process 69. The waterfall model of software development is
flow types?
a. A reasonable approach when
a. Concurrent process flow requirements are well defined.
b. Iterative process flow b. A good approach when a working
c. Linear process flow program is required quickly.
d. both b and c c. The best approach to use for projects with
large development teams
Answer: Option (d) d. An old fashioned model that is rarely used
any more
66. Which of these are standards for assessing
software processes? Answer: Option (a)
a. SPICE 70. The incremental model of software

b. ISO 9000 development is
c. ISO 9001
d. both a and c a. A reasonable approach when requirements
Answer: Option (d) are well defined.
67. The rapid application development model is b. A good approach when a working core
product is required quickly.
a. Another name for component-based c. The best approach to use for projects with
development large development teams
b. A useful approach when a customer d. A revolutionary model that is not used for
cannot define requirements clearly. commercial products.
c. A high speed adaptation of the linear
sequential model. Answer: Option (b)
d. All of the above.
71. Evolutionary software process models
Answer: Option (c)
a. Are iterative in nature
b. Can easily accommodate product
requirements changes
c. Do not generally produce throwaway Answer: Option (c)

systems
d. All of the above. 75. The component-based development model is
a. Only appropriate for computer hardware

Answer: Option (d)
design
72. The prototyping model of software b. Not able to support the development of
development is reusable components.

c. Dependent on object technologies for
a. A reasonable approach when requirements support.
are well defined. d. Not cost effective by known quantifiable
b. A useful approach when a customer software metrics
cannot define requirements clearly.
c. The best approach to use for projects with Answer: Option (c)
large development teams.

76. The formal methods model of software
d. A risky model that rarely produces a
development makes use of mathematical
meaningful product.
methods to
Answer: Option (b)

a. Define the specification for computer-
based systems
73. The spiral model of software development
b. Develop defect free computer-based
systems.
a. Ends with the delivery of the software
product. c. Verify the correctness of computer-based
systems.
b. Is more chaotic than the incremental
model. d. All of the above.
c. Includes project risks evaluation during

Answer: Option (d)
each iteration
d. All of the above 77. Which of these is not one of the phase names
defined by the Unified Process model for
Answer: Option (c)
software development?
74. The concurrent development model is a. Inception phase
a. Another name for concurrent engineering.

b. Elaboration phase
c. Construction phase
b. Defines events that trigger engineering
activity state transitions. d. Validation phase
c. Only used for development of parallel or

Answer: Option (d)
distributed systems.
d. Both a and b
78. Which of these is not a characteristic of Answer: Option (d)

Personal Software Process?
80. SDLC stands for
a. Emphasizes personal measurement of
work product. a. Software Development Life Cycle
b. Practitioner requires careful b. System Development Life cycle
supervision by the project manager. c. Software Design Life Cycle
c. Individual practitioner is responsible for d. System Design Life Cycle

estimating and scheduling.
Answer: Option (a)
d. Practitioner is empowered to control
quality of software work products.
81. Which model can be selected if user is involved
in all the phases of SDLC?
Answer: Option (b)
a. Waterfall Model
79. Which of these are objectives of Team Software
b. Prototyping Model
Process?
c. RAD Model
a. Accelerate software process improvement d. both Prototyping Model & RAD Model
b. Allow better time management by highly
Answer: Option (c)
trained professionals
c. Build self-directed software teams
d. Both b and c
Unit- II
1. The process to gather the software requirements 5. What are the types of requirement in Quality
from client, analyze and document them is Function Deployment (QFD)?
known as ______ a. Known, Unknown, Undreamed
a. Feasibility Study b. User, Developer
b. Requirement Gathering c. Functional, Non-Functional
c. Requirement Engineering d. Normal, Expected, Exciting
d. System Requirements Specification
Answer: Option (d)
Answer: Option (c)
6. Why is Requirements Elicitation a difficult
2. The goal of requirement engineering is to task?
develop and maintain sophisticated and a. Problem of scope
descriptive _______________document. b. Problem of understanding
c. Problem of volatility
a. Feasibility Study d. All of the above
b. Requirement Gathering
Answer: Option (d)
c. Software Requirement Validation
d. System Requirements Specification 7. How many phases are there in Brainstorming?
a. 2
Answer: Option (d)
b. 3
3. It is the process in which developers discuss c. 4
with the client and end users and know their d. 5
expectations from the software.
Answer: Option (b)
a. Requirements gathering
b. Organizing Requirements 8. Which type of DFD concentrates on the system
c. Negotiation & discussion process and flow of data in the system?
d. D. Documentation a. Physical DFD
b. Logical DFD
Answer: Option (b)
c. Flowchart DFD
4. Which of the following is correct software d. System DFD
metrics?
Answer: Option (b)
a. Complexity Metrics
b. Quality Metrics 9. How many levels of DFD is?
c. Process Metrics a. 2
d. All of the above b. 3
Answer: Option (b)

c. 4
d. 5
Answer: Option () b. Reliability

c. Usability
10. Which of the following is not a component in
d. All of the mentioned
DFD?
a. Entities Answer: Option (d)
b. Attributes
15. Select the developer-specific requirement?
c. Process
a. Portability
d. Data Flow
b. Maintainability
Answer: Option (b) c. Availability
d. Both Portability and Maintainability
11. What is level 2 in DFD means?
Answer: Option (d)
a. Highest abstraction level DFD is known as
16. Which one of the following is not a step of
Level 2.
requirement engineering?
b. Level 2 DFD depicts basic modules in the
a. Elicitation
system and flow of data among various
b. Design
modules.
c. Analysis
c. Level 2 DFD shows how data flows
d. documentation
inside the modules mentioned in Level 1.
d. All of the above Answer: Option (b)
Answer: Option (c) 17. FAST stands for

a. Functional Application Specification
12. The context diagram is also known as __.
Technique
a. Level-0 DFD
b. Fast Application Specification Technique
b. Level-1 DFD
c. Facilitated Application Specification
c. Level-2 DFD
Technique
d. All of the above
d. None of the mentioned
Answer: Option (a)
Answer: Option (c)
13. A directed arc or line in DFD represents
18. The user system requirements are the parts of
a. Data Store
which document?
b. Data Process
a. SDD
c. Data Flow
b. SRS
d. All of the above
c. DDD
Answer: Option (c) d. SRD
14. What are the types of requirements? ` Answer: Option (b)

a. Availability
19. Which is one of the most important c. the less likely it is to be properly
stakeholders from the following? corrected
a. Entry level personnel d. All of the mentioned
b. Middle level stakeholder
Answer: Option (d)
c. Managers
d. Users of the software 24. Which one of the following is not a software
process quality?
Answer: Option (D)
a. Productivity
20. Choose an internal software quality from given b. Portability
below: c. Timeliness
a. Scalability d. Visibility
b. Usability
Answer: Option (b)
c. Reusability
d. reliability 25. _____________&_____________ are two
kinds of software products.
Answer: Option (c)
a. CAD, CAM
b. Firmware, Embedded
c. Generic, Customized
21. RUP stands for______created by a division of
_______
a. Rational Unified Program, IBM Answer: Option (C)
b. Rational Unified Process, Infosys
c. Rational Unified Process, Microsoft
d. Rational Unified Process, IBM 26. Purpose of process is to deliver software
a. in time
Answer: Option (d)
b. with acceptable quality
22. Which phase of the RUP is used to establish a c. that is cost efficient
business case for the system? d. both in time & with acceptable quality
a. Transition
Answer: Option (d)
b. Elaboration
c. Construction
d. Inception
27. Which one of the following is not an Umbrella
Answer: Option (d) Activity that complements the five process
framework activities and help team manage and
23. The longer a fault exists in software
control progress, quality, change, and risk.
a. the more tedious its removal becomes
a. Reusability management
b. the more costly it is to detect and correct
b. Risk management
c. Measurement
d. User Reviews c. The ability of the system to behave

consistently in a user-acceptable manner
Answer: Option (d)
when operating within the environment for
28. Which one of the following is a functional which the system was intended.
requirement? d. None of the mentioned

a. Maintainability
Answer: Option (a)
b. Portability
c. Robustness 32. Choose the incorrect statement with respect to
d. None of the mentioned Non-Functional Requirement (NFR).
a. Product-oriented Approach – Focus on
Answer: Option (d)
system (or software) quality
29. Which one of the following is a requirement b. Process-oriented Approach – Focus on how
that fits in a developer’s module? NFRs can be used in the design process
a. Availability c. Quantitative Approach – Find
b. Testability measurable scales for the functionality
c. Usability attributes
d. Flexibility d. Qualitative Approach – Study various

relationships between quality goals
Answer: Option (b)
Answer: Option (c)
30. “Consider a system where, a heat sensor
detects an intrusion and alerts the security 33. What is the first step of requirement elicitation?
company.” What kind of a requirement the a. Identifying Stakeholder
system is providing? b. Listing out Requirements
a. Functional c. Requirements Gathering
b. Non-Functional d. All of the mentioned
c. Known Requirement
Answer: Option (a)
34. Arrange the tasks involved in requirements
Answer: Option (A)
elicitation in an appropriate manner.
31. Which of the following statements explains i. Consolidation
portability in non-functional requirements? ii. Prioritization

iii. Requirements Gathering
a. It is a degree to which software running
iv. Evaluation
on one platform can easily be converted
to run on another platform. a. iii, i, ii, iv
b. It cannot be enhanced by using languages, b. iii, iv, ii, i
OS’ and tools that are universally available c. iii, ii, iv, i
and standardized. d. ii, iii, iv, i
Answer: Option (b) 39. What is noise in terms of software

development?
35. Which of the following is not a SQA plan for a
a. Writing irrelevant statement to the
project?
software development in the SRS
a. Evaluations to be performed
document
b. amount of technical work
b. Adding contradictory requirements in SRS
c. audits and reviews to be performed
document
d. documents to be produced by the SQA
c. Writing over-specification
group
d. None of these above
Answer: Option (b)
Answer: Option (a)
36. Who writes the Software Requirement

40. Which of the following is not a UML diagram?
Specifications Document (SRS)?
a. Activity diagram
a. System Developer
b. Use case
b. System tester
c. State diagram
c. System analyst
d. DFD
Answer: Option (d)
Answer: Option (c)
41. Degree to which design specifications are
37. What is the goal of the requirements analysis
followed in manufacturing the product is called
and specifications phase of software
a. Quality Control
development life cycle?
b. Quality of conformance
a. Understanding the customer
c. Quality Assurance
requirements and organize them in an
informal document.
b. Analysing the cost of development Answer: Option (B)
c. Determining scope of the software
42. Who identifies, documents, and verifies that
corrections have been made to the software?
Answer: Option (a) a. Project manager
b. Project team
38. Which of the following is not a desirable
c. SQA group
characteristic of SRS document?
a. Concise
b. Ambiguous Answer: Option (c)
c. Traceable
43. What is Six Sigma?
d. Verifiable
a. It is the most widely used strategy for
Answer: Option (b) statistical quality assurance
b. The “Six Sigma” refers to six standard 47. Which of the following is not included in
deviations External failure costs?
c. It is the most widely used strategy for a. Testing
statistical quality assurance and The b. Help line support
“Six Sigma” refers to six standard c. Warranty work
deviations d. Complaint resolution
d. A Formal Technical Review (FTR) Answer: Option ()
guideline for quality walkthrough or
inspection
48. Validation refers to the set of tasks that ensure

Answer: Option (c)
that software correctly implements a specific
44. The degree to which the design specifications function.
are followed during manufacturing is known as a. True
a. Quality of design b. False
b. Quality of conformance
Answer: Option (b)
c. Quality of testing
d. None of the mentioned 49. Quality of design encompasses requirements
and specifications of the system.
Answer: Option (b)
a. True
45. Quality also can be looked at in terms of user b. False
satisfaction which includes
Answer: Option (a)
a. A compliant product
b. Good quality output 50. Which of the following is not the primary
c. Delivery within budget and schedule objectives in the preliminary investigation of
d. All of the mentioned system development?
a. Assess cost and benefit of alternative
Answer: Option (d)
approces
46. The primary objective of formal technical b. Determining the size of the project
reviews is to find _________ during the process c. Preparing the SRS to cover all the
so that they do not become defects after release system specifications
of the software. d. Report finding to the management with
a. Errors recomendation to accept or reject the
b. Equivalent faults proposal
c. Failure cause Answer: Option (c)
d. None of the mentioned 51. If every requirement can be checked by a cost-
effective process, then the SRS is _____?
Answer: Option (a)
a. Verifiable
b. Complete
c. Traceable c. Continuously changed during project

d. Modifiable implementation
Answer: Option (a) d. Changed and finalized after feasibility
52. Information requirements of an organization study
can be determined by ____? Answer: Option (a)
a. Finding out what similar organizations do 56. It is necessary to consult the following while
b. Interviewing managers and users and drawing up requirement specification.
arriving at the requirements based on a. Only top managers
consensus b. Only top and middle management
c. Sending a questionnaire to all employees c. Only top, middle and operational
of the organization managers
d. Telling organization what they need based d. Top, middle and operational managers
on your experience and also all who will use the system
Answer: Option (d)
Answer: Option (b)
57. It is necessary to prioritize information
53. _____ and _____ are not the subject matter of requirements of an organization at the
requirement analysis. requirements determination phase as _____?
a. Performance, modelling present system a. It is always good to prioritize
b. Functional, non-functional b. There are conflicting demands from users

c. Internal controls, present system work c. There are constraints on budgets,
load available time, human resource and
d. Stakeholder knowledge of computers, requirement
developer’s staff d. All good organization do it

Answer: Option (d) Answer: Option (c)
58. Which of the following statements about SRS
54. In which testing strategy requirements is/are true?
established during requirements analysis are

i). SRS is written by customer
validated against developed software?
a. Validation testing ii). SRS is written by a developer
b. Regression testing
iii). SRS serves as a contract between customer and
c. Integration testing
developer
d. System testing
Answer: Option (a) a. Only i is true
b. Both ii and iii are true
55. Initial requirements specification is _____? c. All are true
a. Only a rough indication of the d. None of the above
requirement Answer: Option (c)
b. Not changed till the end of the project 59. Requirement specification is carried out _____?
a. Simultaneously with requirements Answer: Option (a)

determination 64. Which one from the following is highly
b. Before requirements are determined associated activity of project planning?
c. After requirements are determined a. Keep track of the project
d. Independent of requirements b. Compare actual and planned progress and
determination costs
Answer: Option (c) c. Identify the activities, milestones and
60. Which of the following is not included in SRS? deliverables produced by a project
a. Performance d. Both B and C
b. Functionality Answer: Option (c)
c. Design solutions 65. The final specifications are arrived at _____?
d. External Interfaces a. During feasibility study
Answer: Option (c) b. After feasibility study
61. The main goal of arriving at a final c. Just before implementation phase
specification is _____? d. When the system is being designed
a. To compute the cost of implementing the Answer: Option (b)
system 66. Arrange the given sequence to form a SRS
b. To assist in designing the system prototype outline as per SRS standard.
c. To tell the organization’s managers how
i). General description
the system will function
d. To tell the organization’s managers ii). Introduction
what the proposed system will achieve
iii). Review
in a language understood by them
Answer: Option (d) iv). Appendices
62. Final specifications are drawn up by _____?
a. System designers along with users v). Specific Requirements
b. The managers of user organization

a. iii, i, ii,v, iv
c. System analyst in consultation with
b. iii, ii, i, v, iv
programmers
c. ii, i, v, iv, iii
d. System analyst in consultation with the
d. iii, i, ii,v,iv
management of the organization
Answer: Option (c)
Answer: Option (d)
67. Requirement prioritization and negotiation
63. The role of a system analyst drawing up a
belongs to _____?
requirements specification is similar to _____?
a. Feasibility study
a. Architect designing a building
b. Requirement elicitation
b. A structural engineer designing a building
c. Requirement validation
c. A contractor constructing a building
d. Requirements reviews
d. The workers who construct a building
Answer: Option (b)
68. System approval criteria are specified _____? b. Complete

a. During feasibility study c. Consistent
b. During the requirements specifications d. Modifiable
stage
Answer: Option (b)
c. During system study stage
d. When the final specifications are drawn 73. The SRS is said to be consistent if and only if
up a. its structure and style are such that any
Answer: Option (d) changes to the requirements can be made
69. Which of the following is used to determine the easily while retaining the style and
specificity of requirements? Where n1 is the structure
number of requirements for which all reviewers b. every requirement stated therein is one
have identical interpretations, n2 is number of that the software shall meet
requirements in a specification. c. every requirement stated therein is
a. n1/n2 verifiable
b. n2/n1 d. no subset of individual requirements
c. n1+n2 described in it conflict with each other
d. n1–n2
Answer: Option (d)
Answer: Option (a)
70. Requirementmanalysis is critical to the success 74. The SRS document is also known as
of a development project. _____________ specification.
a. True a. black-box
b. False b. white-box
c. Depends upon the size of project c. grey-box
d. None of the mentioned d. none of the mentioned
Answer: Option (a)
Answer: Option (a)
71. How many feasibility studies is conducted in 75. The dynamic behaviour of the system is
Requirement Analysis? represented by which model?
a. Two a. Context Model
b. Three b. Behavioral Model
c. Four c. Data Model
d. None of the mentioned d. Object Model
Answer: Option (b) Answer: Option (b)
72. The statement “Conformity to a standard is

maintained” depicts _____________ property
76. Which aspect in system modelling shows the
of SRS.
system or data architecture.
a. Correct
a. Structural aspect
b. Behavioral aspect b. Internal Failure

c. External aspect c. External Failure
d. All of the mentioned d. Appraisal
Answer: Option (a) Answer:Option (d)
77. Which of the following statement is incorrect 81. According to Pareto’s principle, __________%
regarding the Class-responsibility-collaborator of defects can be traced to __________% of all
(CRC) modeling ? causes.
a. All use-case scenarios (and corresponding a. 60, 40
use-case diagrams) are organized into b. 70, 30
categories in CRC modelling c. 80, 20
b. The review leader reads the use-case d. No such principle exists
deliberately
Answer: Option (c)
c. Only developers in the review (of the
CRC model) are given a subset of the 82. Quality Management includes __________ .
CRC model index cards a. Defining procedures and standards
d. All of the mentioned b. Checking that procedures are followed
c. Collecting and analyzing various quality
Answer: Option (c)
data
78. Quality Management in software engineering is d. All of the above mentioned
also known as __________.
Answer: Option (d)
a. SQA
b. SQM 83. Non-conformance to software requirements is
c. SQI known as __________ .
d. SQA and SQM a. Software availability
b. Software reliability
Answer: Option (a)
c. Software failure
79. Quality in software can be looked at in terms of d. None of the mentioned
user satisfaction which includes
Answer: Option (c)
a. A compliant product
b. Good quality output 84. Software safety is equivalent to software
c. Delivery within budget and schedule reliability.
d. All of the mentioned a. TRUE
b. FALSE
Answer: Option (d)
Answer: Option (b)

80. Inspections and testing are __________ kinds
of Quality Costs. 85. Misinterpretation of customer communication is
a. Prevention a sample of possible cause defects.
a. TRUE 90. __________ is not one of the activities

b. FALSE recommended to be performed by an
independent SQA group.
Answer: Option (a)
a. Prepare SQA plan for the project
86. __________ kind of quality cost is incurred b. Review software engineering activities to
when an error is detected in a product prior to verify process compliance
shipment. c. Report any evidence of noncompliance to

a. Prevention senior management
b. Internal Failure d. Serve as the sole test team for any
c. External Failure software produced
d. Appraisal
Answer: Option (d)
Answer: Option (b)
91. __________ is not a section in the standard for
87. The degree to which the design specifications SQA plans recommended by IEEE.
are followed during development is known as a. Budget
a. Quality of design b. Documentation
b. Quality of conformance c. Reviews and audits

c. Quality of testing d. Test

Answer: Option (a)
Answer: Option (b) 92. Statistical quality assurance involves
__________.
88. An informal review may consist of__________. a. Using sampling in place of exhaustive
a. Casual meeting testing of software
b. Correction b. Surveying customers to find out their
c. Inspection opinions about product quality
d. Pair programming c. Tracing each defect to its underlying
cause, isolating the "vital few"
Answer: Option (a)
causes, and moving to correct them
89. Which of the following are objectives for FTR? d. Tracing each defect to its underlying
a. Allow senior staff members to correct errors causes and using the Pareto principle to
b. Assess programmer productivity correct each problem found
c. Determining who introduced an error into a Answer: Option (c)
program 93. Software safety is a quality assurance activity
d. Uncover errors in software work that focuses on hazards that __________.
products a. Affect the reliability of a software
component
Answer: Option (d)
b. May cause an entire system to fail
c. May result from user input errors
d. Prevent profitable marketing of the final 95. According to ISO 9001, inspection and testing
product comes under which management responsibility?
Answer: Option (b) a. Process control
94. Which of the following is not a core step of Six b. Document control
Sigma? c. Control of nonconforming products
a. Define d. Servicing
b. Control
Answer: Option (a)
c. Measure
d. Analyse
Answer: Option (b)
Unit-III
1. Software design yields ______ levels of b. Coupling

results. c. Design Verification
a. 2 d. None of the above
b. 3 Answer: Option (a)
c. 4 5. When multiple modules share common data
d. 5 structure and work on different part of it, it is called
___________.
Answer: Option (b)
a. Common coupling
2. Which of the following is not an Advantage of
b. Share coupling
modularization?
c. Data coupling
d. Stamp coupling
a. Smaller components are easier to
Answer: Option (d)
maintain.
b. Concurrent execution can be made
6. Which tool is use for structured designing?
possible.
c. Program cannot be divided based on
a. Program Chart
functional aspects.
b. Structure Chart
d. Desired level of abstraction can be brought
c. Module Chart
in the program.
d. All the above
Answer: Option (c) Answer: Option (b)
3. How many types of cohesion are there in 7. In Design phase, which is the primary area of
software design? concern?
a. 5 a. Architecture
b. 6 b. Data
c. 7 c. Interface
d. 8 d. All of the above
Answer: Option (c) Answer: Option (d)
4. Which of the following defines the degree of 8. Which of the following is the best type of
intra-dependability within elements of a module cohesion?
module?
a. Functional Cohesion
a. Cohesion b. Temporal Cohesion
c. Functional Cohesion 13. Which of the following is not a direct measure

d. Sequential Cohesion of SE process?
Answer: Option (a)
a. Efficiency
9. Which of the following is the worst type of b. Cost
module coupling? c. Effort Applied
d. All of the above
a. Control Coupling Answer: Option (a)
b. Stamp Coupling
c. External Coupling 14. Which of the following is false?
d. Content Coupling
Answer: Option (D) a. The user has no control over the contents
of a static web page.
10. Choose the option that does not define Function b. The static content objects are dependent
Oriented Software Design. on the actions of the user.
c. It is expected to have less number of
a. It consists of module definitions. connections for a good web application.
b. Modules represent data abstraction. d. Both A and B
c. Modules support functional abstraction. Answer: Option (b)
Answer: Option (b) 15. Function Point Computation is given by the
formula
11. Defects removal efficiency (DRE)depends on:
a. FP = [count total * 0.65] + 0.01 * sum(Fi)
a. E: errors found before software delivery b. FP = count total * [0.65 + 0.01 *
b. D: defects found after delivery to user sum(Fi)]
c. Both A and B c. FP = count total * [0.65 + 0.01] * sum(Fi)
d. None of the above d. FP = [count total * 0.65 + 0.01] * sum(Fi)
Answer: Option (c) Answer: Option (b)
12. Which of the following is an indirect measure 16. SMI stands for?
of product?
a. Software Mature Indicator
a. Quality b. Software Mature Index
b. Complexity c. Software Maturity Index
c. Reliability d. Software Maturity Indicator
d. All of the above Answer: Option (c)
Answer: Option (d)
17. Statement and branch coverage metrics are part b. Determine Component based quality
of attribute.
c. Modify an existing architecture.
a. Analysis Model d. All of the mentioned
b. Source Code Answer: Option (d)
c. Design Model
d. Testing 22. Which of the following truly describes the
Answer: Option (d) approach determining functional component?
a. This approach is based on studying the
18. Size and Complexity are a part of SRS and brainstorming candidate
architectural constituents responsible for
a. Product Metrics coherent collections of functional and
b. Process Metrics data requirements.
c. Project Metrics b. This approach begins by forming
d. None of the above constituent and constituent relationship
Answer: Option (a) to satisfy non-functional requirements.
c. This approach is used for similar
19. Number of errors found per person hours program if architecture is available, it
expended is an example of a can be used as starting point.4
d. This approach describes the problem.
a. Measurement Answer: Option (a)
b. Measure
c. Metric 23. Functional components for a working model
d. None of the above can be stated as which of the following?
Answer: Option (c) a. Configuring Process Start up
b. Providing User interface
20. The arc-to-node ratio is given as r = a/n. What c. Allowing user to monitor and repa1ir
does "a" represent in the ratio? the system.
a. maximum number of nodes at any level Answer: Option (d)
b. longest path from the root to a leaf
c. number of modules 24. The Non-functional components consist of
d. lines of control ____________
Answer: Option (d)
a. Re usability
21. Which of these are the various techniques to b. Adaptability
generate design alternatives? c. Reliability
a. Determine Functional Component Answer: Option (d)
c. Have a simple and consistent

25. Which of the following statement is true? interface meeting the needs of the
a. Device interface module is a software rest of the program.
simulation of, or interface to, a real d. Never change its interface
hardware device or system.
b. A virtual device is a way to design a Answer: Option (C)
program with complex interfaces to
device or other systems. 29. Which among these are the methods to
c. The program units in the device improve software architecture?
interface module hides all details of a. Combine Alternatives
interaction with hardware devices. b. Impose an architectural style.
d. None of the mentioned. c. Apply a mid-level design pattern.
Answer: Option (c) d. All of the mentioned
Answer: Option (d)
26. Which of these are followed for an ideal
device? 30. Which among these signifies applying mid-
level design pattern?
a. Do exactly one job completely. a. The best features of two or more design
b. Be loosely coupled to the rest of the alternatives can be combined into an
program. improved design.
c. Never change interface. b. The approximate particular style may
d. All of the mentioned be improved by modifying them to fit
Answer: Option (d) the style exactly.
c. The architectural styles applied at
27. Which among these best represents Coupling low level of abstraction.
for an ideal device? d. None of the mentioned
Answer: Option (c)
a. Do exactly one job completely.
b. Be loosely coupled to the rest of the 31. The intent of project metrics is:
program. a. Minimization of development schedule.
c. Hide its Implementation. b. for strategic purposes
d. Never change its interface c. assessing project quality on ongoing
Answer: Option (b) basis.
d. minimization of development
28. Which among these best represents schedule and assessing project
simplicity for an ideal device? quality on ongoing basis.
a. Do exactly one job completely. Answer: Option (d)
b. Be loosely coupled to the rest of the
program.
32. Which of the following is an indirect a. DRE (Defect Removal Efficiency)

measure of product? b. Function points analysis
c. Control Chart
a. Quality d. All of the mentioned
b. Complexity Answer: Option (c)
c. Reliability
d. All of the Mentioned 37. Which of the following does not affect the
Answer: Option (d) software quality and organizational
performance?
33. In size-oriented metrics, metrics are
developed based on the ___________________ a. Market
b. Product
a. number of Functions c. Technology
b. number of user inputs d. People
c. number of lines of code Answer: Option (a)
d. amount of memory usage
Answer: Option (c) 38. Size and complexity are part of
34. Which of the following is not an information a. Process metrics

domain required for determining function point b. Project metrics
in FPA? c. Product metrics
a. Number of user Input d. All of the mentioned
b. Number of user Inquiries Answer: Option (b)
c. Number of external Interfaces
d. Number of errors 39. Architectural design metrics focus on
Answer: Option (d)
35. Usability can be measured in terms of a. Program architect

a. Intellectual skill to learn the system b. Data structure
b. Time required to become moderately c. Internal module complexity.
efficient in system usage d. Module effectiveness and Architectural
c. Net increase in productivity design
d. All of the mentioned Answer: Option (d)
Answer: Option (d)
40. Which are not measurable characteristics of
36. A graphical technique for finding if changes object-oriented design?
and variation in metrics data are meaningful is
known as a. Efficiency
b. Cost
c. Size a. Data structures and algorithms

d. Volatability b. Control structure
Answer: Option (d) c. Data flow structure
d. Module call relationships
41. Which of the following is not an objective of Answer: Option (a)
high-level design activity?
45. Which one of the following is the correct
a. To identify the important components of ordering of the coupling of modules from strongest
the system. to weakest?
b. To design the layering among the
components of the system. a. Content, common, control, stamp, data
c. To design the algorithms used in b. Common, content, control, stamp, data
different components c. Content, data, common, stamp, common
d. To identify the call relationships among d. Data, control, common, stamp, content
different components Answer: Option (a)
Answer: Option (C)
46. Which of the following objectives are not the
42. In which of the following design phases, do the one that the software designing phase claim to
software designers free to make any alterations, offer?
corrections and modifications?
i. Identify software design activities
a. Preliminary design phase ii. Identify important items developed during
b. Detailed design phase the software design phase
c. Both a and b iii. To improve the designing skills of the

developers
Answer: Option (a)
a. All i, ii and iii are correct.
b. Only i and ii are correct.
43) Which one of the following types of cohesion
c. Only i and iii are correct.
can be considered as the best form of cohesion?
d. None of the given options is correct.
Answer: Option (b)
a. Logical
b. Coincidental
47. Which of the following statements is true?
c. Temporal
d. Functional i. The software design phase comes after the
Answer: Option (d) feasibility and resources analysis phase.
ii. The quality of the software depends upon
44. During the detailed design of a module, which the design phase a lot.
one of the following is designed?
a. Only i is true.
b. Only ii is true. a. Efficiency

c. Both i and ii are true. b. Cost
d. None of them is true. c. Effort Applied
Answer: Option (c) d. All of the above
Answer: Option (a)
48. What encapsulates both data and data 52. Function Point Computation is given by the
manipulation functions? formula
a. Object a. FP = [count total * 0.65] + 0.01 * sum(Fi)

b. Class b. FP = count total * [0.65 + 0.01 *
c. Super Class sum(Fi)]
d. Sub Class c. FP = count total * [0.65 + 0.01] * sum(Fi)
Answer: Option (a) d. FP = [count total * 0.65 + 0.01] * sum(Fi)
49. Which of the following is a mechanism that Answer: Option (B)

allows several objects in a class hierarchy to have
different methods with the same name? 51. Which of the following does not belong to
FURPS?
a. Aggregation a. Functionality
b. Polymorphism b. Usability
c. Inheritance c. Reliability
d. All of the mentioned d. Speed Efficiency
Answer: Option (A) Answer:Option (d)
50. Which of the following points related to 52. __________ is the first step in the software
Object-oriented development (OOD) is true? development life cycle.
a. Analysis
a. OOA is concerned with developing an b. Design
object model of the application domain. c. Problem/Opportunity Identification
b. OOD is concerned with developing an d. Development and Documentation
object-oriented system model to Answer:Option (c)
implement requirements.
c. All of the mentioned 53. __________ tool is used for structured
d. None of the mentioned designing.
Answer: Option (c) a. Program flowchart
b. Structure chart
51. Which of the following is not a direct measure c. Data-flow diagram
of SE process? d. Module
Answer: Option (b)
b. Data
54. A clear statement of the goals and objectives of c. Interfaces
the project is; in the analysis phase, the d. Project scope
development of the ________________ occurs. Answer: Option (d)
a. documentation 59. Which of these are characteristics of a good

b. flowchart design?
c. program specification
d. design a. The design must implement all explicit
Answer: Option (c) requirements available in requirement
model.
55. __________ designs and implement database
structures. b. The design must accommodate all implicit
a. Programmers requirements given by stakeholders.
b. Project managers c. voice recognition commands
c. Technical writers d. All of the above options
d. Database administrators Answer: Option (d)
Answer: Option (d)
60. Which of the following is not a characteristic
56. In the design phase, __________ is the primary common to all design methods?
area of concern. a. configuration management
a. Architecture b. functional component representation
b. Data c. quality assessment guidelines
c. Interface d. refinement heuristics
d. All of the mentioned Answer: Option (a)
Answer: Option (d)
61. __________ is not a characteristic common to
57. m A single word __________ summarize the all design methods.
importance of software design. a. configuration management
(a) Efficiency b. functional component representation
(b) Accuracy c. quality assessment guidelines
(c) Quality d. refinement heuristics
(d) Complexity Answer: Option (a)
Answer: Option (c)
62. Which are the characteristics of good software
design?
58. __________ is not an area of concern in the
design model.
a. Architecture
a. The design must implement all explicit a. Data Design

requirements available in requirement b. Architectural Design
model. c. Interface Design
b. The design must accommodate all implicit d. Procedural Design
requirements given by stakeholders. Answer: Option (d)
c. The design must be readable &
understandable. 67. Which of the following is wrong with reference
d. All of the above options to Software Design Principles.
Answer: Option (d) a. Design process should not suffer from
“tunnel vision”.
63. __________ transforms class models into b. Design should be traceable to the analysis
design class realization and prepares data structure model.
(data design) required to implement the software. c. Design should not reinvent the wheel.
a. Data Design d. Design should “maximize the
b. Architectural Design intellectual distance” between the
c. Interface Design software and the real-world problem.
d. Procedural Design Answer: Option (d)
Answer: Option (a)
68. Which of the following is Architectural Styles
64. __________ defines the relationship between a. Data-centered architecture style
major structural elements of the software. b. Data-flow architectures
a. Data Design c. Call and return architecture.
b. Architectural Design d. All of the above options
c. Interface Design Answer: Option (d)
d. Procedural Design
Answer: Option (b) 69. Filter & Pipes are the concept of which
Architectural Style
65. __________ defines how software a. Data-centered architecture style
communicates with systems & with humans. An b. Data-flow architectures
interface implies a flow of information & behavior. c. Call and return architecture.
a. Data Design d. Layered architecture
b. Architectural Design Answer: Option (b)
c. Interface Design
d. Procedural Design 70. Main program/subprogram architectures &
Answer: Option (c) Remote procedure call architectures are sub styles
of __________.
66. __________ transforms structural elements of a. Data-centered architecture style
software into procedural description of software b. Data-flow architectures
components. c. Call and return architecture.
d. Layered architecture Answer: Option (b)

Answer: Option (c)
76. The system is denoted by __________ in DFD.
71. Which option does not define Function a. Circle
Oriented Software Design? b. Arrow
a. It consists of module definitions. c. Rectangle
b. Modules represent data abstraction. d. Triangle
c. Modules support functional abstraction. Answer: Option (a)
Answer: Option (b) 77. Which of the following is not an activity of
Structured Analysis (SA)?
72. Structured Analysis is based on, which a. Functional decomposition
principles? b. Transformation of a textual problem
a. Top-down decomposition approach description into a graphic model
b. Divide and conquer principle. c. All the functions represented in the
c. Graphical representation of results using DFD are mapped to a module structure.
DFDs. d. All of the mentioned
d. All of the mentioned Answer: Option (c)
Answer: Option (d)
78. The results of structured analysis can be easily
73. Rectangle represents __________ DFD understood by ordinary customers.
notation. a. TRUE
a. Transform b. FALSE
b. Data Store Answer: Option (a)
c. Function
d. None of the mentioned 79. Structured Analysis is based on the principle of
Answer: Option (b) Bottom-Up Approach.
a. TRUE
74. Structural decomposition is concerned with b. FALSE
function calls. Answer: Option (b)
a. TRUE
b. FALSE 80. Which of the following points are true, with
Answer: Option (a) reference to the Object-oriented development
(OOD)?
75. A function-oriented design focuses on the a. OOA is concerned with developing an
entities in the system rather than the data object model of the application domain.
processing activities. b. OOD is concerned with developing an
a. TRUE object-oriented system model to
b. FALSE implement requirements.
c. All of the mentioned. c. Cyclomatic complexity and modularity

d. None of the mentioned d. None of the above
Answer: Option (c) Answer: Option (a)
81. __________ is a disadvantage of OOD. 86. Cohesion is a qualitative indication of the

a. Easier maintenance degree to which a module
b. Objects may be understood as stand-alone a. can be written more compactly.
entities. b. focuses on just one thing.
c. Objects are potentially reusable c. is able to complete its function in a timely
components. manner.
d. None of the mentioned d. is connected to other modules and the
Answer: Option (d) outside world.
Answer: Option (b)
82. A software component
a. Implements some functionality. 87. Coupling is a qualitative indication of the
b. Has explicit dependencies through degree to which a module
provides and required interfaces. a. can be written more compactly.
c. Communicates through its interfaces only. b. focuses on just one thing.
d. All of the mentioned c. is able to complete its function in a timely
Answer: Option (d) manner.
d. is connected to other modules and the
83. Design patterns are not applicable to the design outside world.
of object-oriented software? Answer: Option (d)
a. TRUE
b. FALSE 88. Which of the property of software modularity is
Answer: Option (b) incorrect with respect to benefits software
modularity?
84. __________ is/are the characteristics of a well- a. Modules are robust.
formed design class. b. Module can use other modules.
a. Primitiveness c. Modules Can be separately compiled and
b. High cohesion stored in a library.
c. Low coupling d. Modules are mostly dependent.
d. All of the above Answer: Option (d)
Answer: Option (d)
89. __________ is an indication of the relative
85. Independence of module is assessed using two functional strength of a module.
qualitative criteria. What are those criteria? a. Cohesion
a. Cohesion and coupling b. Coupling
b. Module and modularity c. Modularity
d. Cohesion and coupling. c. Functional Cohesion

Answer: Option (a) d. Sequential Cohesion
Answer: Option (b)
90. Independent modules are easier to maintain and
test because of __________ . 95. Which of the following is / are the type of
a. Code modification is limited. Cohesion?
b. Error propagation is reduced. a. Functional
c. Reusable modules are possible. b. Coincidental
d. All of the above c. Communicational
Answer: Option (d) d. All of the above.
Answer: Option (d)
91. __________ is a measure of the degree of
interdependence between modules. 96.What is the meaning of Functional Cohesion?
a. Cohesion a. Operations are part of single functional
b. Coupling task and are placed in same procedures.
c. None of the mentioned b. All operations that access the same data
d. All of the mentioned are defined within one class.
Answer: Option (b) c. All operations that access the data from
outside the module.
92. A software engineer must design the modules d. None of the above.
with the goal of high cohesion and low coupling. Answer: Option (a)
a. TRUE
b. FALSE 97. Which is the worst type of coupling?
Answer: Option (a) a. Control coupling
b. Data coupling
93. In __________ coupling, the complete data c. Content coupling
structure is passed from one module to another. d. Stamp coupling
a. Control Coupling Answer: Option (c)
b. Stamp Coupling
c. External Coupling 98. Which is the most desirable form of coupling?
d. Content Coupling a. Control coupling
Answer: Option (b) b. Data coupling
c. Common coupling
94. If all tasks must be executed in the same time- d. Stamp coupling
span, __________type of cohesion is being Answer: Option (b)
exhibited.
99. Which from the following is the most desirable
a. Functional Cohesion form of cohesion?
b. Temporal Cohesion a. Logical cohesion
b. Functional cohesion c. Show technical internals from the

c. Procedural cohesion casual user
d. Communicational cohesion d. design for direct interaction with objects
Answer: Option (b) that appear on the screen
Answer: Option (c)
100. Which from the following is the worst form of
cohesion? 104. __________is not a user interface design
a. Functional cohesion process.
b. Sequential cohesion a. User, task, and environment analysis and
c. Temporal cohesion modelling.
d. Coincidental cohesion b. Interface design
Answer: Option (a) c. Knowledgeable, frequent users
d. Interface validation
101. "Three statements are given below regarding Answer: Option (c)
the User Interface Design,
1. Place the user in control. 105. When users are involved in complex tasks, the
2. Reduce the user’s memory load. demand on __________can be significant.
3. Make the interface consistent. a. short-term memory
These rules are called as __________." b. shortcuts
a. Golden Rule c. objects that appear on the screen
b. Silver Rule d. all of the mentioned
c. User Rule Answer: Option (a)
d. Interface rule
Answer: Option (a) 106. __________is not considered by the Interface
design.
102. Which of the following is golden rule for a. the design of interfaces between software
interface design? components
a. Place the user in control b. the design of interfaces between the
b. Reduce the user’s memory load software and human producers and
c. Make the interface consistent consumers of information
d. All of the given options c. the design of the interface between two
Answer: Option (d) computers
d. all of the mentioned
103. __________is not a design principle that Answer: Option (c)
allows the user to maintain control.
a. Provide for flexible interaction
b. Allow user interaction to be interrupt-able 107. A software might allow a user to interact via
and undo-able a. keyboard commands
b. mouse movement
c. voice recognition commands d. system image

d. all of the mentioned Answer: Option (a)
108. A software engineer designs the user interface 110. What establishes the profile of end-users of
by applying an iterative process that draws on the system?
predefined design principles. a. design model
a. TRUE b. user’s model
b. FALSE c. mental image
Answer: Option (a) d. system image
Answer: Option (b)
109. What incorporates data, architectural,
interface, and procedural representations of the
software?
a. design model
b. user’s model
c. mental image
Unit-IV
1. The order in which test levels are performed is: b. Grey box
a. Unit, Integration, Acceptance, System c. Black box
b. Unit, System, Integration, Acceptance d. Regression Testing
c. Unit, Integration, System, Acceptance Answer: Option (c)
d. It depends on the nature of a project
6. Which of the following is not a Test Type?
Answer: Option (d)
a. Database Testing
a. System testing is a Black box testing.
b. Security Testing
b. Grey box testing
c. Statement Testing
c. White box testing
d. Functional Testing
d. Both a and b
Answer: Option (c)
Answer: Option (a)
7. Static analysis can be best described as:

2. What is “V” Model?
a. The reviewing of test plans
a. Test Design Technique
b. The analysis of batch programs
b. Test Type
c. The use of black box testing
c. SDLC Model
d. The analysis of program code
d. Test Level
Answer: Option (d)
Answer: Option (c)
8. Exhaustive testing is:

3. Test cases are designed during which of the
a. Always possible
following stages?
b. impractical but possible
a. Test recording
c. practically possible
b. Test configuration
d. impractical and impossible
c. Test planning
Answer: Option (b)
d. Test specification
Answer: Option (d)
9. Which is not a type of incremental testing
approach?
4. which is not the other name for structural
a. Bottom up
testing?
b. Top down
a. Behavioural testing
c. Big-bang
b. Glass box testing
Answer: Option (c)
c. White box testing
10. White-box testing can be started:
Answer: Option (a)
a. After installation
5. The technique applied for usability testing is: b. After SRS creation
a. White box c. After programming
d. After designing. c. Difficult to write.

Answer: Option (c) d. Difficult to test.
Answer: Option (d)
11. What is Fault Masking?
a. Creating a test case which does not reveal 16. Unit testing is done by:
a fault. a. Users
b. Error condition hiding another error b. Developers
condition. c. Customers
c. Masking a fault by developer d. None of the mentioned
d. Masking a fault by a tester Answer: Option (b)
Answer: Option (b)
17. Which of the following is not a Software

12. Which of the following is the component test Development Life Cycle Phase?
standard? a. Requirements Gathering
a. BS7925-2 b. Test Closure
b. IEEE 829 c. Coding
c. BS7925-1 d. Testing
d. IEEE 610 Answer: Option (b)
Answer: Option (a)
18. In order to control cost, defects should ideally

13. Testing of software with actual data and in be detected in which phase:
actual environment is known as? a. Coding
a. Regression testing b. Design
b. Beta testing c. Implementation
c. Alpha testing d. Requirements Gathering
d. None of the above Answer: Option (d)
Answer: Option (b)
20) Error guessing is a:

14. Beta Testing is done at: a. Test verification techniques
a. Developer’s end b. Test data management techniques
b. User’s end c. Test control management techniques
c. User’s & Developer’s end d. Test execution techniques
d. None of the mentioned Answer: Option (b)
Answer: Option (b)
20. Which of the following is not a white box

15. A program with high cyclomatic complexity is technique?
likely to be: a. State transition testing
a. Large b. Path testing
b. Small c. Statement testing
d. Data flow testing. b. Decision Testing

Answer: Option (a) c. Condition Coverage
21. Alpha testing is: Answer: Option (d)
a. Post-release testing by end user
representatives at the developer’s site 26. What are the various Testing Levels?
b. The first testing that is performed. a. Unit Testing
c. Pre-release testing by end user b. System Testing
representatives at their sites c. Integration Testing
d. Pre-release testing by end user d. All of the mentioned
representatives at the developer’s site Answer: Option (d)
Answer: Option (d)
22. Which of the following term describes testing? 27. Boundary value analysis belongs to?
a. Finding broken code a. White Box Testing
b. Evaluating deliverable to find errors. a. Black Box Testing
c. A stage of all projects b. White Box & Black Box Testing
d. None of the mentioned c. None of the mentioned

28. Alpha testing is done at
23. What is Cyclomatic complexity? a. Developer’s end

b. User’s end
a. Black box testing c. Developer’s & User’s end
b. White box testing d. None of the mentioned
c. Yellow box testing Answer: Option (a)
d. Green box testing
Answer: Option (b) 29. Which of the following is also known as
"Behavioural" testing?
24. Maintenance testing is performed using which
methodology? a. Black-box testing
a. Retesting b. White-box testing
b. Sanity testing c. C. Both A and B
c. Breadth test and depth test d. None of the above
d. Confirmation testing Answer: Option (a)
Answer: Option (c) 30. Which methodology is used to perform
Maintenance testing?
25. Which of the following is/are White box a. Breadth test and depth test
technique? b. Confirmation testing
a. Statement Testing c. Retesting
d. Sanity testing b. Test Summary Report

Answer: Option (a) c. Test Case
d. Test Plan
31. Which of the following is not part of the Test Answer: Option (d)
document?
36. Which testing technique is used for usability
a. Test Case
testing?
b. Requirements Traceability Matrix [RTM]
a. White-box testing
c. Test strategy
b. Grey box testing
d. Project Initiation Note [PIN]
c. Black Box testing
Answer: Option (d)
d. Combination of all
Answer: Option (c)
32. Which of the following testing is related to the
boundary value analysis?
37. Which is not the right approach of Incremental
a. White box and black box testing
testing approach?
b. White-box testing
a. Big bang approach
c. Black box testing
b. Top-down approach
c. Functional incrimination
Answer: Option (c)
d. Bottom-up approach
Answer: Option (a)
33. Exploratory testing is a -----?
a. Experience-based Test Design
38. The test levels are performed in which of the
Technique
following order?
b. White Box Test Design Technique
a. Unit, Integration, System, Acceptance
c. Black Box Test Design Technique
b. It is based on the nature of the project.
d. Grey Box Test Design Technique
c. Unit, Integration, Acceptance, System
Answer: Option (a)
d. Unit, System, Integration, Acceptance
Answer: Option (b)
34. What is the best time to perform Regression
testing?
39. Which of the below testing is executed without
a. After the software has been modified
documentation and planning is known as?
b. As frequently as possible
a. Regression Testing
c. When the environment has been modified
b. Adhoc Testing
d. Both option a & c
c. Unit Testing
Answer: Option (d) d. None of the above
35. Which Test Document is used to define the Exit Answer: Option (b)
Criteria of Testing?
a. Defect Report 40. The Regression test case is not a ------?
a. Tests that focus on the software 44. Who is responsible for sprint meeting?
components, which have been modified. a. Scrum team
b. Low-level components are combined b. Scrum master
into clusters, which perform a specific c. Product owner
software sub-function. d. All of the above
c. Additional tests that emphasize software Answer: Option (d)
functions, which are likely to be affected by
the change. 45. Generally, which testing is used when shrink-
d. A representative sample of tests, which will wrapped software products are being established
exercise all software functions. and part of an integration testing?
Answer: Option (b) a. Integration Testing
b. Validation testing
41. Which of the following abbreviation is correct
c. Regression Testing
for the terms SPICE?
d. Smoke testing
a. Software Process Improvement and
Control Determination
Answer: Option (d)
b. Software Process Improvement and
Capability Determination
46. Given the following sets of test management
c. Software Process Improvement and
terms (v-z), and activity descriptions (1-5), which
Compatibility Determination
one of the following best pairs the two sets?
Answer: Option (b)
v – Test control
w – Test monitoring
42. "Automation testing should be performed
x – Test estimation
before starting the manual testing" is the true
y – Incident management
statement or false?
z – Configuration control
a. True
b. False
1 – Calculation of required test resources
Answer: Option (b)
2 – Maintenance of record of test results
3 – Re-allocation of resources when tests overrun
43. --------- is the process of re-testing the modules
4 – Report on deviation from test plan
that connected to the program or components after
5 – Tracking of anomalous test results
the modification has occurred.
a. Regional regression Testing
b. Re-testing a. v-3,w-2,x-1,y-5,z-4
c. Full Regression Testing

d. Unit Regression Testing b. v-2,w-5,x-1,y-4,z-3
Answer: Option (a)
c. v-3,w-4,x-1,y-5,z-2
d. v-2,w-1,x-4,y-3,z-5 50. Which of the following characterizes the cost of

faults?
Answer: Option (C) a. They are easiest to find during system
testing but the most
47. The oracle assumption: expensive to fix then.
a. Is that there is some existing system b. They are cheapest to find in the early
against which test output may be checked. development phases and the
b. Is that the tests are reviewed by most expensive to fix in the latest test
experienced testers? phases.
c. Is that the tester knows everything about c. Faults are cheapest to find in the early
the software under test. development phases but the

most expensive to fix then.
d. Is that the tester can routinely identify

the correct outcome of a test. d. Although faults are most expensive to find
during early development
phases, they are cheapest to fix then.
Answer: Option (d)
48. Static analysis is best described as: Answer: Option (b)
a. The analysis of batch programs.

b. The reviewing of test plans. 51. The objective of __________ phase is to
transform the design of the system into high-level
language.
c. The use of black box testing.
a. Design phase
b. Unit testing
d. The analysis of program code.
c. Coding
d. Testing
Answer: Option (d)
Answer: Option (c)
49. Increasing the quality of the software, by better 52. The main advantage of adhering to coding
development methods, will affect the time needed standard is
for testing (the test phases) by: a. Uniform appearance to the codes written
a. Reducing test time by different engineers.
b. Increasing test time b. Enhances code understanding.
c. No change c. Good programming practice
d. Can’t say d. All of the above
Answer: Option (a) Answer: Option (d)
53. Which of the following is/are representative 58. Which of the following is Stress/Overload
coding guidelines. fault?
a. Do not use a coding style that is too clever a. Logic is wrong Code reviews.
or too difficult to understand. b. Wrong syntax; typos Compiler
b. Do not use an identifier for multiple c. Not enough accuracy
purposes. d. Maximum load violated.
c. The code should be well-documented. Answer: Option (d)
d. All of the above
Answer: Option (d) 59. Which of the following are type of code
review?
54. Which activity should be undertaken after the a. Code inspection
module successfully compiles? b. Code walkthrough
a. Code review c. Both
b. Unit testing d. None
c. Integration testing Answer: Option (c)
d. All of the given options
Answer: Option (a) 60. __________ helps to detect the algorithmic
55. Which of the following is Algorithmic fault? and logical error in code.
a. Logic is wrong Code reviews a. Code walkthrough
b. Wrong syntax; typos Compiler b. Code inspection
c. Not enough accuracy c. Both
d. Maximum load violated d. None
Answer: Option (a) Answer: Option (a)
56. Which of the following is Syntax fault? 61.__________ helps to detect common
a. Logic is wrong Code reviews programming errors in code.
b. Wrong syntax; typos Compiler a. Code walkthrough
c. Not enough accuracy b. Code inspection
d. Maximum load violated. c. Both
Answer: Option (b) d. None
Answer: Option (b)
57. Which of the following is Precision fault?
a. Logic is wrong Code reviews. 62. Which of the following are some classical
b. Wrong syntax; typos Compiler programming errors?
c. Not enough accuracy a. Use of uninitialized variables.
d. Maximum load violated. b. Jumps into loops.
Answer: Option (c) c. Array indices out of bound.
Answer: Option (d)
68. Unit testing is performed by __________.

63. Which of the following defines Static Analysis? a. Users
a. The analysis of batch programs. b. Developers
b. The reviewing of test plans. c. Customers
c. The analysis of program code d. None of the mentioned
d. The use of black box testing. Answer: Option (b)
Answer: Option (c)
69. __________ serve to replace modules that are
64. Which of the following is true regarding Static subordinate (called by) the component to be tested.
Analysis Tools? a. Stubs
a. It compares actual and expected results. b. Driver
b. It can detect memory leaks. c. Carrier
c. It gives quality information about code d. All of the given options
without executing it. Answer: Option (a)
d. It tells about percentage of a code
coverage. 70. __________ is used in Bottom-up testing
Answer: Option (c) approach.
a. Stubs
65. ITG stands for __________. b. Driver
a. instantaneous test group c. Carrier
b. integration testing group d. All of the given options
c. individual testing group Answer: Option (b)
d. independent test group
Answer: Option (d) 71. __________ is used in Top-down testing
approach.
66. Which term describes testing? a. Stubs
a. Finding broken code b. Driver
b. Evaluating deliverable to find errors. c. Carrier
c. A stage of all projects d. All of the given options
d. None of the mentioned Answer: Option (a)
Answer: Option (b)
72. __________ is the process of testing the
67. What are the various Testing Levels? interface between two software units or modules?
a. Unit Testing a. Unit Testing
b. System Testing b. Integration Testing
c. Integration Testing c. Validation Testing
d. All of the mentioned d. System Testing
Answer: Option (d) Answer: Option (b)
73. __________ is repeated testing of an already Answer: Option (a)

tested program, after modification, to discover any
defects introduced or uncovered as a result of the 78. Which testing level focuses on customer usage?
changes in the software being tested? a. Alpha Testing
a. Unit Testing b. Beta Testing
b. Regression Testing c. Validation Testing
c. Validation Testing d. Both Alpha and Beta
d. System Testing Answer: Option (d)
Answer: Option (b)
79. Black Box techniques are also known as
74. When to do regression testing? __________.
a. When new functionalities are added to a. Design based testing.
the application? b. Specification-based testing
b. When there is a change requirement. c. Error guessing technique
c. When there is a defect fix. d. None of the mentioned
d. All of the given options Answer: Option (b)
Answer: Option (d)
80. White Box techniques are also classified as
75. __________ is the process of evaluating __________.
software to determine whether it satisfies specified a. Design based testing
business requirements/client’s need? b. Structural testing
a. Unit Testing c. Error guessing technique
b. Integration Testing d. None of the mentioned
c. Validation Testing Answer: Option (b)
d. System Testing
Answer: Option (c) 81. Lower and upper limits are present in
__________ chart.
76. Alpha testing is done at __________. a. Run chart.
a. Developer’s end b. Bar chart
b. User’s end c. Control chart
c. Developer’s & User’s end d. None of the mentioned
Answer: Option (a)
82. Behavioural testing is __________.
77. Beta testing is done at __________. a. White box testing
a. User’s end b. Black box testing
b. Developer’s end c. Grey box testing
c. User’s & Developer’s end d. None of the mentioned
d. None of the mentioned Answer: Option (b)
88. Which of the following terms defines the

83. __________ is Equivalence Partitioning. statement, "Every statement in a program is
a. Black box testing executed at least once"?
b. White box testing a. Statement Coverage
c. Yellow box testing b. Branch coverage
d. Green box testing c. Path coverage
Answer: Option (a) d. Program overage
Answer: Option (a)
84. __________ is Boundary Value Analysis
(BVA). 89. Which of the following terms defines the
a. Black box testing statement, "Test cases are designed to make each
b. White box testing branch condition to assume true and false values in
c. Yellow box testing turn"?
d. Green box testing a. Statement Coverage
Answer: Option (a) b. Branch coverage
c. Path coverage
85. __________ is Cyclomatic complexity. d. Program overage
a. Black box testing Answer: Option (b)
b. White box testing 90. Which of the following terms defines the
c. Yellow box testing statement, "Every path is executed at least once"?
d. Green box testing a. Statement Coverage
Answer: Option (b) b. Branch coverage
c. Path coverage
86. Which of the following is/are White box d. Program overage
technique? Answer: Option (c)
a. Statement Testing
b. Decision Testing 91. __________ testing checks code.
c. Condition Coverage a. Black box testing
d. All of the mentioned b. White box testing
Answer: Option (d) c. Red box testing
d. Green box testing
87. Boundary value analysis belong to? Answer: Option (b)
a. White Box Testing
b. Black Box Testing 92. Testing done without planning and
c. White Box & Black Box Testing Documentation is called
d. None of the mentioned a. Unit testing
Answer: Option (b) b. Regression testing
c. Adhoc testing
Answer: Option (c)

98. Which of the following issues must be
93. Acceptance testing is also known addressed if a successful software testing strategy
as__________. is to be implemented?
a. Grey box testing a. Use effective formal technical reviews as
b. White box testing a filter prior to testing
c. Alpha Testing b. Develop a testing plan that emphasizes
d. Beta testing “rapid cycle testing.”
Answer: Option (d) c. State testing objectives explicitly
94. __________ is non-functional testing. Answer: Option (d)
a. Black box testing
b. Performance testing 99. Test cases should uncover errors like
c. Unit testing __________.
d. None of the mentioned a. Non-existent loop termination
Answer: Option (b) b. Comparison of different data types
c. Incorrect logical operators or precedence
95. __________ is black box testing. d. All of the mentioned
a. Basic path testing Answer: Option (a)
b. Boundary value analysis
c. Code path analysis 100. __________ is considered as an adjunct to the
d. None of the mentioned coding step.
Answer: Option (b) a. Integration testing
b. Unit testing
96. Software Debugging is a set of activities that c. Completion of Testing
can be planned in advance and conducted d. Regression Testing
systematically. Answer: Option (a)
a. TRUE
b. FALSE 101. __________ is not regression test case.
Answer: Option (b) a. A representative sample of tests that will
exercise all software functions.
97. By collecting ________ during software b. Additional tests that focus on software
testing, it is possible to develop meaningful functions that are likely to be affected by
guidelines to halt the testing process. the change.
a. Failure intensity c. Tests that focus on the software
b. Testing time components that have been changed.
c. Metrics d. Low-level components are combined
d. All of the mentioned into clusters that perform a specific
Answer: Option (c) software sub-function.
Answer: Option (d) 106. In which of the following testing strategies, a

smallest testable unit is the encapsulated class or
102. __________ testing integrates the set of object?
classes required to respond to one input or event for a. Unit testing
the system. b. Integration testing
a. cluster testing c. System testing
b. thread-based testing d. None of the mentioned
c. use-based testing Answer: Option (a)
d. none of the mentioned
Answer: Option (b) 107. Software Testing with real data in real
environment is known as__________.
103. Which of the following is one of the steps in a. Alpha testing
the integration testing of OO software? b. Beta testing
a. cluster testing c. Regression testing
b. thread-based testing d. None of the given options.
c. use-based testing Answer: Option (b)
Answer: Option (a) 108. Beta Testing is done by__________.
a. Developers
104. Which methods can be used to drive b. Testers
validations tests? c. Users
a. Yellow-box testing d. All of the mentioned
b. Black-box testing Answer: Option (c)
c. White-box testing
Answer: Option (b)
105 __________ is a part of testing OO code.

a. Validation tests
b. Integration tests
c. Class tests
d. System tests
Answer: Option (c)
57.
Unit- V
1. Software Maintenance includes d. Maximization

a. Error corrections Answer: Option (c)
b. Enhancements of capabilities 6. _____________ measures the ability of a
c. Deletion of obsolete capabilities regression test selection technique to handle
d. All of the mentioned realistic applications.
Answer: Option (d) a. Efficiency
b. Precision
2. Maintenance is classified into how many c. Generality
categories? d. Inclusiveness
a. Two Answer: Option (c)
b. Three 7. Which regression test selection technique
c. Four exposes faults caused by modifications?
d. five a. Efficiency
Answer: Option (c) b. Precision
c. Generality
3. The modification of the software to match d. Inclusiveness
changes in the ever-changing environment, falls Answer: Option (d)
under which category of software maintenance? 8. Which of the following is true about Corrective
Maintenance?
a. Corrective a. It includes modifications and updations
a. Adaptive done in order to correct or fix problems,
b. Perfective which are either discovered by user or
c. Preventive concluded by user error reports.
Answer: Option (b)
4. What type of software testing is generally used b. It includes modifications and updations
in Software Maintenance? applied to keep the software product up-to
a. Regression Testing date and tuned to the ever-changing world
b. System Testing of technology and business environment.
c. Integration Testing
d. Unit Testing
c. It includes modifications and updates done
Answer: Option (a)
in order to keep the software usable over
5. Which selective retest technique selects every
long period of time.
test case that causes a modified program to produce
d. It includes modifications and updations to
a different output than its original version?
prevent future problems of the software.
a. Coverage
Answer: Option (a)
b. Minimization
c. Safe
9.Which of the following is not a type of d. Forward engineering

maintenance?
Answer: Option (c)
a. Adaptive Maintenance
14. The Maintenance of software includes.
b. Preventive Maintenance
c. Perfective Maintenance a. Error corrections Different activity of a
d. Performative Maintenance project management
Answer: Option (d)
b. Enhancements of capabilities
10.Which process is used to achieve system
specification by thoroughly analyzing, c. Deletion of obsolete capabilities
understanding the existing system? d. All of the mentioned
Answer: Option (d)

a. Program Restructuring
15. Different activity of a project management is
b. Reverse Engineering
c. Forward Engineering a. Project planning
b. project control
Answer: Option (b)
c. project monitoring
11.What type of software testing is generally used in
d. All the above
Software Maintenance?
a. System Testing Answer: Option (d)
b. Black-box testing 16. Which of the following activity is undertaken
c. White-box testing immediately after feasibility study and before the
d. Regression Testing requirement analysis and specification phase?
Answer: Option (d) a. Project planning
b. project control
12. What are legacy systems?
a. new systems c. project monitoring
b. old systems
d. Project scheduling
c. under-developed systems
d. None of the above Answer: Option (a)
Answer: Option (b) 17. This activity is undertaken once the
development activities start?
13. The continued evolution of legacy systems
a. Project planning
applies which techniques to ensure?
b. project monitoring & control
a. Reverse Engineering and Reengineering
c. project cost estimation
d. Project size estimation
c. Reengineering
Answer: Option (b) Answer: Option (d)

18. Which of the following activity is not the part 22. Which of the following is not considered as a
of project planning? risk in project management?
a. Risk Management a. Specification delays
b. Project control b. Product competition
c. Project monitoring c. Testing
d. Project scheduling d. Staff turnover
Answer: Option (c) Answer: Option (c)

19. In the project planning, which of the following 23. The process each manager follows during the
is considered as the most basic parameter based on life of a project is known as
which all other estimates are made?
a. Project Management
a. project cost
b. Manager life cycle
b. project size
c. Project Management Life Cycle
c. project effort
d. project duration
Answer: Option (c)
Answer: Option (b) 24. A 66.6% risk is considered as
20. During project estimation, project manager
a. very low
estimates following
b. low
a. ALL
c. moderate
b. Project size
d. high
c. Project effort
Answer: Option (d)
d. project duration.
25. Which of the following is/are main parameters
Answer: Option (a) that you should use when computing the costs of a
21. Which of the following is not project software development project?
management goal?
a. travel and training costs
a. Keeping overall costs within budget
b. hardware and software costs
b. Delivering the software to the customer at
c. effort costs (the costs of paying software
the agreed time
engineers and managers)
c. Maintaining a happy and well-functioning
d. all of the mentioned
development tea
Answer: Option (d)
d. Avoiding customer complaints
26.Quality planning is the process of developing a 30._________ is not a project manager’s activity.
quality plan for
a. project design
a. team
b. project management
b. project
c. project planning
c. customers
d. project control
d. project manager
Answer: Option (a)
Answer: Option (b) 31. Which of the following software maintenance
27. Which of the following is incorrect activity for process models is used when major changes are to
the configuration management of a software be made in a software?
system?
a. Primary model
a. Internship management
b. Secondary model
b. Change management c. Tertiary model
d. Any of the above
c. Version management
d. System management Answer: Option (a)
Answer: Option (a) 32. Which of the following statements is true?

28.A software project that meets all the given
objectives is a success of _________. i. Reverse software engineering cycle is
done when the client’s need, old code, etc.
a. Project fundamental purpose
are not available.
b. Project quality ii. Reverse software engineering cycle is
c. Project requirement done when the client’s need, old code, etc.
are available.
d. Project management myth
Answer: Option (d) Options:
29___________ is not an effective software project

a. Only i is true
management focus.
b. Only ii is true
a. People c. Both i and ii are true
d. None of them is true.
b. Product
c. Process Answer: Option (a)
d. popularity. 33. The Software Configuration Management

(SCM) is called the umbrella activity.
Answer: Option (d)
a. False
b. True 38. The Software Configuration items are

Answer: Option (a) ________
a. Software Requirements
34. The main aim of Software Configuration b. Design Specification
Management (SCM) is _____ c. Source Code
a. Identify change d. All of these
b. Control change Answer: Option (d)
c. To ensure that the change is being
properly implemented 39. The task that is not a part of Software
d. All of these Configuration Management (SCM) is ______
Answer: Option (d) a. Change control
b. Version control
35. Select the process that will ensure different c. Configuration status reporting
versions of the system and components of the d. None of the above
system are recorded and maintained? e. None of these
Answer: Option (d)
a. Workspace
b. code control 40. Which of the following combines procedures
c. Configuration Control and tools to manage different versions of
d. Versions configuration objects that are created during the
Answer: Option (c) software process?
a. Configuration status reporting.
36. Select the Software Configuration Management b. Version control
concept that aids to control change? c. Change control
a. Procedure d. None of the above
b. Baseline Answer: Option (b)
c. Audit
d. None of the above 41. As the reliability increases, what happens to the
Answer: Option (b) failure intensity?
a. Increases
37. The output of the Software Process is _______ b. Decreases
a. Computer programs c. No effect
b. The Documents which describe the d. None of the above
computer programs. e. None of these
c. Data (within the program or external to Answer: Option (b)
program). 42. The process each manager follows during the
d. All of these life of a project is known as ___________?
Answer: Option (d) a. Project Management
b. Manager life cycle
c. Project Management Life Cycle a. Project team

d. All of the mentioned b. Investor
Answer: Option (c) c. Developer
43. What stores all changes and info related to the d. Customer
project from development through maintenance in Answer: Option (a)
CASE tools?
a. Database 48. one of the following ways to deal with a Risk?
b. Repository
a. Transfer
c. Register
b. Ignore
d. Files
c. Mitigate
Answer: Option (b)
d. All of these
44. _____is the associated with the Product Risk. Answer: Option (d)
a. Test object
b. non-availability of the test environment 49. _____model is used to Project risk factor.
c. Negative consequences
a. Prototyping model
d. Control of test item
b. Waterfall model
e. None of these
c. Spiral model
Answer: Option (a)
d. None of these
45. one of the following factors affect the probable
Answer: Option (c)
consequences?
50. ______strategies means that the impact of the
a. Risk timing risk will be reduced.
b. Contingency planning
a. Contingency plans
c. Risk avoidance
b. Avoidance strategies
d. Risk monitoring
c. Minimization strategies
e. None of these
d. All of these
Answer: Option (a) Answer: Option (c)
51. RE indicates_____.
46.______is the Risk management most important
a. Risk exposure
jobs.
b. Related expense
a. Project manager c. Risk expense
b. Production team d. Risk evaluation
c. Investor Answer: Option (a)
d. Client 52. one of the following is Risk?
Answer: Option (a) a. The negative consequence that must occur

47. one of the following is Risk management b. The negative consequence that will occur
responsibility?
c. The negative consequence that could b. Forward engineering

occur c. Reverse Engineering
d. The negative consequence that shall occur d. Reverse Engineering and Reengineering
e. None of these Answer: Option (a)
Answer: Option (c)
53. _____ Risk is the really want Building an 58. Reverse engineering is the last activity in a
excellent product or system. reengineering project.
a. TRUE
a. Business
b. FALSE
b. Schedule
Answer: Option (b)
c. Technical
59. __________ activity transformes a model into
d. Performance
source code.
Answer: Option (a)
a. Forward engineering
b. Reverse engineering
54. Legacy systems are __________ .
c. Re-engineering
a. new systems
d. Reconstructing
b. old systems
Answer: Option (a)
c. under-developed systems
60. Software evolution does not comprises:
Answer: Option (b)
a. Development activities
b. Negotiating with client
55. __________ is applied to ensure the continued
c. Maintenance activities
evolution of legacy systems.
d. Re-engineering activities
a. Forward engineering
Answer: Option (b)
c. Reengineering
61. Processes for evolving a software product
d. Reverse Engineering and Reengineering
depend on:
Answer: Option (d)
a. Type of software to be maintained
b. Development processes used
56. Software Maintenance includes
c. Skills and experience of the people
a. Deletion of obsolete capabilities
involved
b. Enhancements of capabilities
c. Error corrections
Answer: Option (d)
Answer: Option (d)
62. Which of the following is not a type of
software maintenance?
57. Program modularization and Source code
a. Corrective Maintenance
translation are the activities of __________
b. Adaptive Maintenance
a. Reengineering
c. Predictive Maintenance
d. Preventive Maintenance Answer: Option (d)

Answer:Option (c)
63. Which type of software maintenance deals 67. __________ can extract design information
with the repair of defects found in day-to-day from source code.
system functions? a. Forward engineering
a. Corrective Maintenance b. Reverse Engineering
b. Adaptive Maintenance c. Reengineering
c. Perfective Maintenance d. Reverse Engineering and Reengineering
d. Preventive Maintenance Answer: Option (b)
Answer: Option (a) 68. What is the full form of SCM with reference
to Software Engineering?
64. Which type of software maintenance includes a. Supply Chain Management
modifications applied to keep the software b. Service Control Manager
product up-to-date? c. Software Configuration Management
a. Corrective Maintenance d. System Control Module
b. Adaptive Maintenance Answer: Option (c)
c. Perfective Maintenance 69. Which is a software configuration
d. Preventive Maintenance management concept that helps us to control
Answer: Option (b) change without seriously impeding justifiable
change?
65. Which type of software maintenance includes a. Data model
modifications done in order to keep the b. Source code
software usable over a long period of time, c. Baselines
e.g. new features, new user requirements for d. None of the given options
refining the software and improve its Answer: Option (c)
reliability and performance?
a. Corrective Maintenance 70. Software Configuration Management can be
b. Adaptive Maintenance administered in several ways. These include
c. Perfective Maintenance a. A separate configuration management
d. Preventive Maintenance team for each project
Answer: Option (c) b. A single software configuration
66. Which type of software maintenance includes management team for the whole
modifications to prevent future problems of organization
software? c. Software Configuration Management
a. Corrective Maintenance distributed among the project members
b. Adaptive Maintenance d. All of the given options
c. Perfective Maintenance Answer: Option (b)
d. Preventive Maintenance
71. __________ combines procedures and tools to b. CMM

manage different versions of configuration c. CMMI
objects that are created during the software d. All of the mentioned
process. Answer: Option (d)
a. Change control 76. _________ involves preparing software for
b. Version control external release and keeping track of the
c. SCIs system versions that have been released for
d. None of the mentioned customer use.
Answer: Option (b) a. System building
72. __________ complements the formal b. Release management
technical review by assessing a configuration c. Change management
object for characteristics that are generally not d. Version management
considered during the review. Answer: Option (b)
a. Software configuration audit 77. __________ process ensures that versions of
b. Software configuration management systems and components are recorded and
c. Baseline maintained.
d. None of the mentioned a. Codeline
Answer: Option (a) b. Configuration control
c. Version
73. __________ is the process of assembling d. Workspace
program components, data, and libraries, and Answer: Option (b)
then compiling and linking these to create an
executable system. 78. Which of the following process is concerned
a. System building with analyzing the costs and benefits of
b. Release management proposed changes?
c. Change management a. Version management
d. Version management b. System building
Answer: Option (a) c. Change management
74. __________ is not a Software Configuration d. Release management
Management Activity. Answer: Option (c)
a. Configuration item identification
b. Risk management 79. Which of the following is not a Version
c. Release management management feature?
d. Branch management a. Build script generation
Answer: Option (b) b. Version and release identification
75. The definition and use of configuration c. Change history recording
management standards is essential for quality d. Project support
certification in Answer: Option (a)
a. ISO 9000
80. Which method recommends that very frequent d. Mainline

system builds should be carried out with Answer: Option (a)
automated testing to discover software 85. Effective software project management
problems? focuses on
a. Agile method a. people, performance, payoff, product
b. Parallel compilation method b. people, product, performance, process
c. Large systems method c. people, product, process, project
d. All of the given options d. people, process, payoff, product
Answer: Option (a) Answer: Option (c)
86. Organizations that achieve high levels of
81. _________ is a collection of component maturity in people management have a higher
versions that make up a system. likelihood of implementing effective software
a. Version engineering processes
b. Codeline a. True
c. Baseline b. False
Answer: Option (c) 87. The first step in project planning is to
a. determine the budget.
82. Which of the following is a configuration b. select a team organizational model.
item? c. determine the project constraints
a. Log information d. establish the objectives and scope
b. Source code Answer: Option (d)
c. Design & Test specification 88. Process framework activities are populated
d. All of the given options with
Answer: Option (d)
a. milestones
b. work products
83. A sequence of baselines representing different
c. QA points
versions of a system is known as __________.
d. all of the above
a. System building
Answer: Option (d)
b. Mainline
89. Project management is less important for
c. Software Configuration Item(SCI)
modern software development since most
projects are successful and completed on time
Answer: Option (b)
a. True
84. The statement “The creation of a new
b. False
codeline from a version in an existing
Answer: Option (b)
codeline” define the term __________.
90. Which of the following is not considered a
a. Branching
stakeholder in the software process?
b. Merging
a. customers
c. Codeline
b. end-users
c. project managers c. scale

d. sales people d. uncertainty
Answer: Option (d) Answer: Option (b)
91. The best person to hire as a project team 96. Which of these software characteristics are
leader is the most competent software used to determine the scope of a software
engineering practitioner available project?
a. True a. context, lines of code, function
b. False b. context, function, communication
Answer: Option (b) requirements
c. information objectives, function,
92. The best project team organizational model to performance
use when tackling extremely complex d. communications requirements,
problems is the performance, information objectives
a. closed paradigm Answer: Option (c)
b. open paradigm
c. random paradigm 97. The major areas of problem decomposition
d. synchronous paradigm during the project scoping activity are the
Answer: Option (b) a. customer workflow
93. One of the best ways to avoid frustration b. functionality to be delivered
during the software development process is to c. process used to deliver functionality
a. give team members more control over d. software process model
process and technical decisions e. b and c
b. give team members less control over Answer: Option (c)
process and technical decisions. 98. Product and process decomposition occurs
c. hide bad news from the project team simultaneously as the project plan evolves.
members until things improve. a. True
d. reward programmers based on their b. False
productivity. Answer: Option (a)
Answer: Option (b)
94. Small agile teams have no place in modern 99. When can selected common process
software development. framework activities be omitted during
a. True process decomposition?
b. False a. when the project is extremely small in size
Answer: Option (b) b. any time the software is mission critical
95. Which of these software characteristics is not c. rapid prototyping does not require their
a factor contributing to project coordination use
difficulties? d. never the activities are invariant
a. interoperability Answer: Option (d)
b. performance
100. How does a software project manager need to d. all of the above
act to minimize the risk of software failure? Answer: Option (d)
a. double the project team size 105. Proactive risk management is sometimes
b. request a large budget described as fire fighting
c. start on the right foot a. True
d. track progress b. False
e. c and d Answer: Option (b)
Answer: Option (e) 106. Software risk always involves two
characteristics
101. The W5HH principle contains which of the a. fire fighting and crisis management
following questions? b. known and unknown risks
a. Why is the system being developed? c. uncertainty and loss
b. What will be done by whom? d. staffing and budget
c. Where are they organizationally located? Answer: Option (c)
d. How much of each resource is required? 107. Three categories of risks are
e. a, c d a. business risks, personnel risks, budget
Answer: Option (e) risks
102. Which of these are critical practices for b. project risks, technical risks, business
performance-based project management? risks
a. assessing product usability c. planning risks, technical risks, personnel
b. defect tracking against quality targets risks
c. empirical cost estimation d. management risks, technical risks, design
d. formal risk management risks
e. b, c, d Answer: Option (b)
Answer: Option (e) 108. Generic risks require far more attention than
product-specific risks.
103. A risk referent level is a risk component value a. True
(performance, cost, support, schedule) or b. False
combination of values that cause a project to Answer: Option (b)
be terminated. 109. A risk item checklist would contain known
a. True and predictable risks from which of these
b. False categories?
Answer: Option (a) a. product size
104. An effective risk management plan will need b. development environment
to address which of the following issues? c. staff size
a. risk avoidance d. process definition
b. risk monitoring e. all of the above
c. contingency planning Answer: Option (e)
110. Questions that should be asked to assess the 115. Which factors affect the probable
overall project risk include: consequences likely if a risk does occur?
a. Have top managers formally committed to a. risk cost
support the project? b. risk timing
b. Are end-users committed to the project c. risk scope
and proposed system being built? d. risk resources
c. Are requirement fully understood by e. b and c
development team and customers? Answer: Option (e)
d. Does the proposed budget have time 116. The reason for refining risks is to break them
allocated for marketing? into smaller units having different
e. a, b, c consequences.
Answer: Option (e) a. True
111. Software risk impact assessment should focus b. False
on consequences affecting Answer: Option (b)
a. planning, resources, cost, schedule 117. Effective risk management plan needs to
b. marketability, cost, personnel address which of these issues?
c. business, technology, process a. risk avoidance
d. performance, support, cost, schedule b. risk monitoring
Answer: Option (d) c. contingency planning
112. Risk projection attempts to rate each risk in d. all of the above
two ways Answer: Option (d)
a. likelihood and cost 118. Risk monitoring involves watching the risk
b. likelihood and impact indicators defined for the project and not
c. likelihood and consequences determining the effectiveness of the risk
d. likelihood and exposure mitigation steps themselves.
Answer: Option (c) a. True
113. Risk tables are sorted by b. False
a. probability and cost Answer: Option (b)
b. probability and impact 119. Hazard analysis focuses on the identification
c. probability and consequences and assessment of potential hazards that can
d. probability and exposure cause
Answer: Option (b) a. project termination
114. Individual team members can make their own b. schedule slippage
estimate for a risk probability and then c. cost overruns
develop a consensus value. d. an entire system to fail
a. True Answer: Option (d)
b. False 120. Risk information sheets (RIS) are never an
Answer: Option (a) acceptable substitute for a full risk mitigation,
monitoring, and management (RMMM) plan.
a. True a. True
b. False b. False
121. A new __________ is defined when major 126. Business process reengineering is often
changes have been made to one or more accompanied by software reengineering.
configuration objects. a. True
a. entity b. False
b. item Answer: Option (a)
c. variant
d. version 127. Which of the following is not an example of a
Answer: Option (d) business process?
122. WebApp configuration objects can be a. designing a new product
managed in much the same way as b. hiring an employee
conventional software configuration objects c. purchasing services
except for: d. testing software
a. content items Answer: Option (d)
b. functional items
c. graphic items 128. Business process reengineering does not have
d. user items a start or end, it is an evolutionary process.
Answer: Option (a) a. True
b. False
123. SCI standards take a formal view and do not Answer: Option (a)
address guidelines for applying change
management in agile environments. 129. Which of the following activities is not part of
a. True the software reengineering process model?
b. False a. forward engineering
Answer: Option (b) b. inventory analysis
124. How much effort is typically expended by a c. prototyping
software organization on software d. reverse engineering
maintenance? Answer: Option (c)
a. 20 percent
b. 40 percent 130. Software reengineering process model
c. 60 percent includes restructuring activities for which of
d. 80 percent the following work items?
Answer: Option (c) a. code
125. Software supportability is not concerned with b. documentation
either the provision of hardware or c. data
infrastructure. d. all of the above
Answer: Option (d) a. True

b. False
131. Which of the following is not an issue to Answer: Option (b)
consider when reverse engineering? 137. Which of these is not an example of data
a. abstraction level restructuring?
b. completeness a. data analysis
c. connectivity b. data name rationalization
d. directionality c. data record standardization
Answer: Option (c) d. none of the above
132. Reverse engineering of data focuses on Answer: Option (a)
a. database structures
b. internal data structures 138. Forward engineering is not necessary if an
c. both a and b existing software product is producing the
d. none of the above correct output.
Answer: Option (c) a. True
b. False
133. The first reverse engineering activity involves Answer: Option (b)
seeking to understand
a. data 139. Reengineering client/server systems begins
b. processing with a thorough analysis of the business
c. user interfaces environment that encompasses the existing
d. none of the above computing system
Answer: Option (b) a. True
134. Reverse engineering should proceed the b. False
reengineering of any user interface. Answer: Option (a)
a. True
b. False 140. The only time reengineering enters into work
Answer: Option (a) with a legacy system is when it components
will be implemented as objects.
135. Which of these benefits can be achieved when a. True
software is restructured? b. False
a. higher quality programs Answer: Option (b)
b. reduced maintenance effort 141. The cost benefits derived from reengineering
c. software easier to test are realized largely due to decreased
d. all of the above maintenance and support costs for the new
Answer: Option (d) software product.
136. Code restructuring is a good example of a. True

software reengineering b. False
Answer: Option (a)

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UNIT 1

3. Which of these does not account for software failure ?

4. What are attributes of good software ?

6. Which of these is incorrect ?

7. Which of these is true ?

8. Which of these does not affect different types of software as a whole?

9. The fundamental notions of software engineering does not account for ?

12. RAD stands for

14. Which is not one of the types of prototype of Prototyping Model?

15. Which one of the following is not a phase of Prototyping Model?

18. What is the major drawback of using RAD Model?

19. SDLC stands for

21. Which one of the following is not a software process quality?

22. _____________&_____________ are two kinds of software products.

23. Software costs more to maintain than it does to develop.

25. Purpose of process is to deliver software

32. Choose an internal software quality from given below:

33. The longer a fault exists in software

35. Component-based Software Engineering allows faster delivery.

38. 3. What is the major advantage of using Incremental Model?

39. The spiral model was originally proposed by

41. Identify the disadvantage of Spiral Model.

42. How is Incremental Model different from Spiral Model?

43. Selection of a model is based on

48. Choose the correct option from given below:

50. Spiral Model has high reliability requirements.

4. Which perspective in system modelling shows the system or data architecture.

5. Java packages and Fortran subroutine are examples of__________

6. Activity diagrams are used to model the processing of data.

7. Model-driven engineering is just a theoretical concept. It cannot be converted into a

8. The UML supports event-based modeling using ____________ diagrams.

9. Cohesion is a qualitative indication of the degree to which a module

10. 12. Coupling is a qualitative indication of the degree to which a module

12. Which tool is use for structured designing ?

13. A step by step instruction used to solve a problem is known as

16. Who designs and implement database structures.

18. Debugging is:

19. In Design phase, which is the primary area of concern ?

23. _______________ is a measure of the degree of interdependence between modules.

24. Which of the following is the best type of module coupling?

25. Which of the following is the worst type of module coupling?

26. Which of the following is the worst type of module cohesion?

27. Which of the following is the best type of module cohesion?

32. Which of the following is a complementary approach to function-oriented approach ?

33. Function-oriented design techniques starts with functional requirements specified in

34. Structured Analysis is based on the principles of

35. Which of the following is/are true with respect to functions ?

36. Which of the following is not a use of a CASE tool ?

37. What DFD notation is represented by the Rectangle?

38. Structural decomposition is concerned with function calls.

40. In DFDs, user interactions with the system is denoted by

Q1. is not a software quality model.

Q2. Which one of the following term describes testing?

Q3. What is Exhaustive testing ?

Q4. What is Exhaustive testing ?

Q5. Black box testing is only functional testing.

Q6. Black box testing is only functional testing.

Q8. Testing of individual components by the developers are comes under

22. _&_ are two kinds of software products.