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1. This person Determined the minimum amount of citrate needed for anticoagulation and
demonstrated its nontoxicity in small amounts:
a. Landsteiner
b. Lewisohn
c. Unger
d. Braxton
2. Identify the most immunogenic among the following antigens:
a. A
b. RhD
c. Kell
d. c
3. These are antibodies produced because of exposure to a foreign red cell antigen:
a. Naturally occurring antibodies
b. Immune antibodies
c. Non-RBC stimulated antibodies
d. Expected antibodies
4. Substances that neutralizes ABO antibodies by binding to the antigenic site:
a. Witebsky substances
b. 2-mercapthoethanol
c. Dithiotreitol
d. Both 2-mercapthoethanol and Dithiotreitol
5. Blood group that demonstrates dosage effect:
1. MNSs 2. Duffy 3. Kidd 4. RhD
a. 1
b. 1,2
c. 1,2,3
d. 1,2,3,4
6. All the following are functions of a potentiator, EXCEPT:
a. Reagents that enhances the detection of IgG antibodies by increasing their reactivity
b. Reduces the zeta potential
c. May enhance antibody uptake or promote direct agglutination
d. Confirms a negative AHG result
7. Polyspecific AHG detects:
a. Complement fragments
b. IgM antibodies
c. CD markers
d. Both IgM and Complement fragments
8. The only blood group coded by the X chromosome
a. Rh
b. Xg
c. Duffy
d. Lewis
9. Only blood group system that affects clinical transplantation:
a. ABO
b. Rh
c. Kell
d. Beneth-Goodspeed
10. Identify the Blood Type:
Serum of A plus Patient Red Cell = With agglutination
Serum of B plus Patient Red Cell = Without agglutination
a. A
b. B
c. AB
d. O
11. A patient was admitted in the ER due to a gunshot. His doctor informed the MT on duty that the
driver’s license of the victim showed that he is AB+. The doctor requested for an emergency
transfusion. Of the following blood in the BB, which should be transfused?
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a. A- PRBC
b. O- PRBC
c. AB+ PRBC
d. B+ PRBC
12. ABO Reverse grouping is not required in:
1. For confirmation testing of labeled previously typed donor cells
2. In infant less than 4 months old
3. Patient who will undergo blood transfusion
4. Donor who will donate his blood
a. 1
b. 1,2
c. 1,2,3
d. 1,2,3,4
13. This reagents increases the dielectric constant (a measure of electrical conductivity), which then
reduces the zeta potential of the RBC
1. 22% Bovine albumin
2. Polyethylene Glycol Solution
3. LISS
4. Papain
a. 1
b. 1,2
c. 1,2,3
d. 1,2,3,4
14. The sugar that occupy the terminal positions of this precursor chain and confer A blood group
specificity:
a. D-galactose
b. N-acetyl-D-Galactosamine
c. L-fucose
d. N-acetyl-D-Glucosamine
15. Interpret the following result:
Patient’s saliva + Anti-A + A cell = agglutination
Patient’s saliva + Anti-B + B cell = agglutination
Patient’s saliva + Anti-H + O cell = agglutination
a. A secretor
b. AB secretor
c. O secretor
d. Non secretor
16. After the addition of AHG, the technologist noted that there is no positive result such as
agglutination. What should be the next procedure?
a. Incubate more using LISS reagent
b. Add check cells
c. Release the result as negative
d. Repeat the procedure
17. Established a uniform nomenclature that is both eye- and machine-readable and is in keeping with
the genetic basis of blood groups:
a. ISBT
b. Rosenfield
c. Wiener
d. Fisher-Race
18. The autoantibody that can be produced by DCE/dCE individual:
a. Anti-C
b. Anti-c
c. Anti-e
d. Anti-d
19. In Kleihauer-Betke acid elution test, 50 fetal cells are counted in _____ adult cells.
a. 1,500
b. 2,000
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c. 200
d. 20
20. An Rh negative Mother with an Rh positive baby, her first child, has 30 fetal red cells in her
circulation using the standard technique. Maternal Antibody screen is negative. How many vials of
RhIG should be given to the mother?
a. 3
b. 4
c. 5
d. 6
21. Proteolytic enzymes destroys theses antigens:
1. Fya 2. M 3. D 4. I
a. 1
b. 1,2
c. 1,2,3
d. 1,2,3,4
22. In chronic granulomatous disease (CGD), granulocyte function is impaired. An association exists
between the clinical condition and a depression of which of the following antigens?
a. Kell
b. Ii
c. Duffy
d. P
23. The autoagglutinin formed in Mycoplasma pneumoniae infection:
a. Anti-i
b. Anti-I
c. Anti-P1
d. Anti-Tja
24. The minor blood group that is said to be with Mongolian ancestry:
a. Gerbich
b. Diego
c. Xg
d. Colton
25. Blood group which has a determinant on C4 molecule and linked on HLA:
a. Lutheran
b. Chido/ Rodgers
c. Colton
d. Duffy
26. Choice of blood in exchange transfusion for HFDN is:
1. Blood type O
2. Rh Negative
3. Antigen negative RBC to the antibody
4. Less than 7 days old
a. 1
b. 1,2
c. 1,2,3
d. 1,2,3,4
27. The M and the N antigen are differentiated based on:
a. 1st amino acid
b. 5th amino acid
c. Both 1st amino acid and 5th amino acid
d. 29th amino acid
28. The incubation time of the Low Ionic Strength Solution:
a. 5-15 minutes
b. 15-30 minutes
c. 30 minutes – 1 hour
d. 15 minutes – 1 jour
29. Blood group associated to fatal DHTR
a. Kell
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b. Duffy
c. Kidd
d. Rh
30. Considered as the MOST important and the FIRST step in Pretransfusion Compatibility Testing
a. Proper Crossmatching Procedure
b. Positive identification of the patient
c. Antibody Screening and Identification
d. All of the above choices
31. A technologist is unsure of the result that he obtained after performing the serologic crossmatch.
He is torn between a rouleux formation and an agglutination reaction. What should be performed to
differentiate this uncertainty?
a. Add LISS reagent to the test medium
b. Add NSS to the test medium
c. put Enzymes that will destroy antibodies
d. Add another red cell suspension
32. Indirect antihuman globulin test is performed in:
1. Antibody screening
2. Antibody Identification \
3. Antibody Titration
4. RBC Phenotyping
a. 1
b. 1,2
c. 1,2,3
d. 1,2,3,4
33. Patient’s and blood donor’s sample used in crossmatching must be stored for how many days
after blood transfusion?
a. 3
b. 7
c. 5
d. indefinite
34. Washed donor’s red cell is added to patient serum. The mixture is centrifuged immediately and the result is
read. Identify the test performed.
a. Serologic Crossmatch
b. IAT
c. Computer Crossmatch
d. Antibody Screening
35. Antigens are carried on the hematopoietic isoform of the CD44 marker:
a. Indian
b. Dombrock
c. Cromer
d. Kidd
36. Considered as the single most important in vitro immunologic reaction in blood banking because it
is the endpoint of almost all test systems designed to detect RBC antigens and antibodies:
a. Hemolysis
b. Precipitation
c. Flocculation
d. Agglutination
37. The patient is blood type AB. The Bloodbank’s available blood stock is A, B and O. What is the
blood type of choice to be given to the patient?
a. A
b. B
c. O
d. Any blood type
38. Identify the antigen: 001003
a. AB
b. D
c. C
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d. A1
39. The antigen system that is phenotypically related to Rh:
a. RHAG
b. LW
c. ABO
d. Duffy
40. What are the possible blood type of the offspring of type AB mother and type O father:
1. A 2. B 3. AB 4. O
a. 1
b. 1,2
c. 1,2,3
d. 1,2,3,4
41. The alloantibody that can be produced by DCE/dCe individual:
a. Anti-C
b. Anti-D
c. Anti-c
d. Anti-e
42. Blood selected for intrauterine transfusion must:
a. Lack RBC antigens corresponding to maternal antibodies
b. Be less than 3 days old
c. Be irradiated to prevent graft-vs.-host disease
d. Be ABO compatible with the father
43. The animal used in the preparation of a polyclonal AHG:
a. Rabbits
b. Mice
c. Monkeys
d. Sheep
44. What procedures helps distinguish between an ant-Fya and anti-Jka in an antibody mixture?
a. Lowering the pH of the patients serum
b. Using thiol reagents
c. Testing at colder temperature
d. Testing at ficin-treated panel cells
45. The reagent RBC used in the antibody screening and identification must have all the following
antigens, EXCEPT:
a. A
b. M
c. N
d. k
46. All the following are performed in the Blood Center, EXCEPT:
a. Donor screening
b. Component preparation
c. Blood testing for infectious diseases
d. Pre-transfusion compatibility testing
47. A donor can donate a maximum of ____ blood via Whole Blood Collection:
a. 450 ml
b. 500 ml
c. 525 ml
d. 600 ml
48. A2 individual has this antigen:
1. A 2. A1 3. A2 4. A3
a. 1
b. 1,2
c. 1,2,3
d. 1,2,3,4
49. True for autologous blood donation EXCEPT:
a. Safest type of blood
b. Pre-transfusion compatibility testing is required
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c. Unused unit should be discarded

d. Most autologous blood is used to treat surgical blood loss in very specific situations where
there is a reasonable opportunity to avoid homologous transfusions
50. Considered as the most safest type of allogeneic blood
a. Directed Donor’s blood
b. Voluntary Non Remunerated Donors blood
c. Paid donor’s blood
d. Autologous blood
51. A gene that does not produce any detectable trait:
1. O gene 2. h gene 3. A -gene 4. B gene
a. 1
b. 1,2
c. 1,2,3
d. 1,2,3,4
52. The law that protects the vital information of a donor in blood donation:
a. RA 10173
b. RA 5527
c. RA 7719
d. RA 11469
53. The deferral time for a double RBC apheresis donation:
a. 4 weeks
b. 8 weeks
c. 16 weeks
d. 6 months
54. An Rh phenotype capable of producing anti-D
a. Partial D
b. Quantitative Weak D
c. Position Effect Weak D
d. All of the choices
55. A 500 ml capacity blood bag has how many ml of anticoagulant?
a. 50 ml
b. 63ml
c. 70 ml
d. 80 ml
56. Convert R1R2 to the Fisher-Race Nomenclature
a. DCe/DcE
b. DcE/DCe
c. dCe/dcE
d. DcE/dcE
57. A green colored blood bag label indicates:
a. For Autologous use only
b. Irradiated
c. Biohazard
d. From therapeutic phlebotomy
58. The spirochete that causes syphilis, T. pallidum, cannot survive more than ______ in citrated
blood stored at 1°C to 6°C
a. 24 hours
b. 36 hours
c. 48 hours
d. 72 hours
59. Anti-U will not react with which of the following RBCs?
a. M+N+S+s-
b. M+N+S-s-
c. M+N-S-s+
d. M-N+S+s+
60. The expiration date of an open system platelet concentrate is “
a. 4 hours
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b. 6 hours
c. 12 hours
d. 24 hours
61. This type of ABO precursor substance has terminal galactose attached to the N-
acetylglucosamine in a beta 1 → 4 linkage
a. Type 1
b. Type 2
c. Type 3
d. Type 4
62. The FDA requires an average 24-hour post-transfusion RBC survival of more than ___:
a. 50%
b. 75%
c. 80%
d. 85%
63. Additive solution (AS) must be added to the PRBC within _____ of whole blood collection.
a. 12 hours
b. 24 hours
c. 48 hours
d. 72 hours
64. The accepted quality control for Leukoreduced RBC:
a. <5.0 × 106 residual white blood cells per each whole blood, red blood cells, or apheresis
platelet
b. <3.0 × 1011 residual white blood cells per each whole blood, red blood cells, or apheresis
platelet
c. <5.5 × 1010 residual white blood cells per each whole blood, red blood cells, or apheresis
platelet
d. <1.0 × 1010 residual white blood cells per each whole blood, red blood cells, or apheresis
platelet
65. A newborn has the following blood type:
Forward Typing Backward Typing
Anti-A = 4+ A cell = 0
Anti-B = 0 B cell = 0
Anti-D = 4+
What is the potential blood type?
a. A+
b. B+
c. O+
d. B-
66. Rh4 is also known as:
a. c
b. 004004
c. Both “c”and 004004
d. Hr"
67. The soluble form of the Sda antigen in the urine:
a. Albumin
b. Tamm-horsfall
c. C4
d. Bence-Jones proteins
68. True for Rosenfield Nomenclature, EXCEPT:
a. Demonstrates the presence or absence of the antigen on the RBC
b. A minus sign preceding a number designates the absence of the antigen
c. If an antigen has not been phenotyped, its number will be place inside a parenthesis
d. Not associated with Rh inheritance
69. What information is found on the upper left quadrant In the ISBT 128 blood component label?
a. Donation and collection facility identifiers
b. blood type
c. Product Description
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d. Expiration Date and Special Labels

70. Methods that can produce Leukoreduced RBC:
1. Washing 2. Freezing 3. Thawing 4. Centrifugation
a. 1
b. 1,2
c. 1,2,3
d. 1,2,3,4
71. The phenotype that can convert almost all H antigens into the A or B antigen:
a. O
b. A2
c. A1B
d. A2B
72. Component of choice to prevent TA-GVHD:
a. Leukoreduced RBC
b. Washed RBC
c. Irradiated RBC
d. Frozen RBC
73. Donors who are allergic or sensitive to iodine compounds may use:
a. chlorhexidine gluconate
b. isopropyl alcohol
c. both chlorhexidine gluconate and isopropyl alcohol
d. 10% Bleach
74. All the following are true for Bombay Phenotype, EXCEPT:
a. Contains the H gene
b. Lacks the ABH antigens
c. Contains anti-A, anti-B and Anti-H in the serum
d. Red cells does not agglutinate with the O lectin
75. This solution used in WBC apheresis enhances the separation of the white cells from the red cells
during centrifugation, which increases the amount of leukocytes collected and decreases the
amount of red cell contamination in the final product.
a. Prednisone
b. dexamethasone
c. Hydroxyethyl Starch
d. Both Prednisone or dexamethasone
76. Identify the Rosenfield nomenclature: dCE/dCe
a. Rh: -1,2,3,-4,5
b. Rh: 1,2,-3,4,5
c. Rh: 1,-2,-3,-4,-5
d. Rh: 1,2,3,-4,-5
77. This blood transfusion technique allows for multiple blood components to be transfused at a single
event:
a. Washing
b. Freezing
c. Pooling
d. Deglycerolization
78. The presence of absence of the ABH antigens on the red cells is controlled by the:
a. H gene
b. Se gene
c. A gene
d. Le gene
79. The osmotic force of this freezing agent prevents water from migrating outward as extracellular ice
is formed, preventing intracellular dehydration:
a. Glycerol
b. Penetrating agent
c. Non penetrating agent
d. Both glycerol and penetrating agent
80. The counting chamber used for performing quality control in a leukoreduced blood component:
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a. Neubauer Counting Chamber

b. Improved Neubauer Counting Chamber
c. Nagoette Counting Cahmber
d. Fuchs-Rosental Counting Chamber
81. Whole blood used to prepare platelet concentrates must be drawn by a single nontraumatic
venipuncture, and the concentrate must be prepared within ___ of collection:
a. 8 hours
b. 12 hours
c. 24 hours
d. 48 hours
82. This reagent can agglutinate the acquired B antigen:
a. B lectin
b. Anti-B Clone ES4
c. Acidified Anti-B
d. Alkalinized Anti-B
83. Approximately how many Random Donor Platelet Concentrates is equivalent to 1 platelet
pheresis?
a. 1 -5 units
b. 4-6 units
c. 10 -15 units
d. 15 – 20 units
84. This blood component contains the maximum levels of both stable and labile clotting factors:
1. Fresh Frozen Plasma
2. Plasma Frozen Within 24 Hours
3. Cryoprecipitate
4. Cryosupernate
a. 1
b. 1,2
c. 1,2,3
d. 1,2,3,4
85. The adult dose of cryoprecipitate:
a. 1 unit
b. 5 units
c. 10 units
d. 20 units
86. A granulocyte concentrate must contain at least____ granulocytes per unit:
a. 1.0x10 10
b. 3.0x10 11
c. 5.5x10 10
d. 5.6x10 6
87. Refers to the inheritance of both AB genes from one parent carried on one chromosome and an O
gene inherited from the other parent
a. Chimerism
b. Cis-AB
c. Bombay Phenotype
d. Amorph
88. Platelet concentrates/ FFP should be transfused within _________.
a. 1 hour
b. 4 hours
c. 20 minutes
d. 30 minutes
89. Massive transfusion is defined as the replacement of one or more blood volumes within 24 hours,
or about ___ units of blood in an adult.
a. 5
b. 10
c. 15
d. 20
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90. Washed RBC are stored at 1 to 6C for up to:

a. 24 hours
b. 48 hours
c. 72 hours
d. 4 hours
91. ABO incompatibility will cause:
a. Delayed hemolytic transfusion reaction
b. Immediate hemolytic transfusion reaction
c. Febrile non-hemolytic transfusion reaction
d. Anaphylaxis transfusion reaction
92. As of today, how many blood groups are there (According to the ISBT):
a. 43
b. 39
c. 36
d. 30
93. The only transfusion reaction allowed to continue the blood transfusion even though there is a
transfusion reaction:
a. IHTR
b. TACO
c. Allergic reaction
d. FNHTR
94. A single unit of Random donor platelets can increase your platelet count by:
a. 20,000- 60, 000
b. 5,000 – 10,000
c. 20,000-30,000
d. 15,000-20,000
95. The antigen most commonly implicated in this transfusion reaction is the human platelet antigen
(HPA)1a
a. PTP
b. IHTR
c. DHTR
d. TA-GVHD
96. Occurs when the patient’s cardiovascular system’s ability to handle additional workload is
exceeded, manifesting as congestive heart failure.
a. DHTR
b. TACO
c. TA-GVHD
d. FNHTR
97. A Blood group that is associated with the complement-regulatory glycoprotein also known as the
membrane inhibitor of lysis (MIRL)
a. FORS
b. CD59
c. SID
d. ABCC1
98. A donor unit contains a warm-reacting (37 C) unexpected antibody. That unit should be:
a. treated as any other unit for transfusion
b. used only for purposes other than red-cell transfusion (e.g., plasma components)
c. used only as frozen, deglycerolized red cells
d. used as red blood cells, or the equivalent, with the plasma removed
99. A unit of red blood cells is issued at 10:00 am. At 10:10 am the unit is returned to the blood bank.
The container has not been entered, but the unit has not been refrigerated during this time span.
The best course of action for the technologist is to:
a. Culture the unit for bacterial contamination
b. Store the unit at room temperature
c. Discard the unit if not used within 24 hours
d. Record the return and place the unit back into inventory
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100. Component therapy is important in maximizing the use of whole blood. To prepare platelet-rich
plasma from the whole blood, which centrifugation technique is used?
a. Light spin followed by light spin
b. Light spin followed by heavy spin
c. Heavy spin followed by light spin
d. Heavy Spin followed by Heavy Spin
101. Expired red cells can be used provided a rejuvenation solution is added to the blood. What is the
composition of the rejuvenation solution?
a. CPDA-1
b. PIGPA
c. ADSOL
d. ACD
102. A whole blood is centrifuged at refrigerator temperature and is converted into different blood
components. What component may not be prepared from this type of preparation?
a. PRBC
b. Platelets
c. Cryoprecipitate
d. FFP
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