A HANDOUT OF

TOEFL PREPARATION SHORT COURSE PROGRAMME

FOR HEALTH STUDENTS

Desi Rochmawati

MINISTRY OF HEALTH OF REPUBLIC OF INDONESIA

HEALTH POLYTECHNIC OF YOGYAKARTA
LANGUAGE LABORATORY
 PRACTICE TEST I

SECTION 1 : LISTENING COMPREHENSION

Time : Approximately 30 Minutes

50 Questions

For Practice Test 1, insert your listening comprehension cassette in your tape
player. Begin on side 1. On the actual TOEFL you will be given extra time to go on to the
next page when you finish a page in the listening comprehensions section. In the
following test, however, you will have only the 12 seconds given after each question.
Turn the page as soon as you have marked your answer. Start the cassette now.

Part A

DIRECTION

For each problem in Part A, you will hear a short statement. The statements will be
spoken just on time. They will not be written out for you, and you must listen carefully in
order to understand what the speaker says.
When you hear a statement, read the four sentences in your test book and decide
which one is closest in meaning to the statement you have heard. Then, on your answer
sheet, find the number of the problem and mark your answer.

1. (A) Sally went to the wrong class.

(B) Sally was late for class because she got lost.
(C) Sally missed the class.
(D) Sally had some trouble finding the class, but she arrived on time.

2. (A) Jane is going on vocation.

(B) Jane is leaving her job temporarily for health reasons.
(C) During the summer, Jane often misses work because of illness.
(D) Jane is sick of working all the time.

3. (A) Henry arrived at work on time this morning

(B) Henry was two hours late this morning.
(C) Henry worked late today.
(D) I appreciate Jane’s sending me flowers when I was ill.

4. (A) I’m not sure which type of flowers Jane sent me.
(B) Jane received many kinds of flowers.
(C) I received many kinds of flowers from Jane.
(D) I appreciate Jane’s sending me flowers when I was ill.

5. (A) William slept all the way from Georgia to New York.
(B) George didn’t sleep at all on the trip.
(C) William was half asleep all the time that he was driving.
(D) William didn’t sleep at all on the trip.

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6. (A) Too many people came to the meeting.
(B) There were not enough people at the meeting to inspect the documents.
(C) We had expected more people to come to the meeting.
(D) There were not enough seats for all the people.

7. (A) The professor said he was sorry that he had not announced the test sooner.
(B) The professor was sorry that he had forgotten to bring the tests to class.
(C) The professor was sorry that he hadn’t given the test earlier.
(D) The professor said he was sorry that he had not given the result of the test sooner.

8. (A) Mary is taking a leave of absence from her job because of her health.
(B) Mary is not going to return to her job.
(C) Mary is right to quit her job.
(D) Mary did very good work, but now she is quitting her job.

9. (A) John will be able to buy groceries.

(B) John doesn’t have enough money to buy groceries.
(C) John wouldn’t buy groceries even if he had enough money.
(D) John can’t find his grocery money.

10. (A) Harry sold no magazines.

(B) Harry sold only one magazine.
(C) Harry has never sold as many magazines as he sold today.
(D) Harry sold five magazines at one house.

11. (A) Eighty people came to the rally.

(B) Forty people came to the rally.
(C) One hundred sixty people came to the rally.
(D) One hundred people came to the rally.

12. (A) We are going to meet Fred and Mary at the movies if we have time.
(B) We went to the movies with Fred and Mary, but the theater was closed.
(C) We couldn’t meet Fred and Mary at the movies because we didn’t have any
money.
(D) Fred and Mary were supposed to meet us at the movies, but their car broke down.

13. (A) Frank told the contractor to do the work in spite of the cost.
(B) Frank told the contractor that the price was too high.
(C) Frank cannot afford the work on his house.
(D) Frank repaired his own house.

14. (A) I studied last night because I had to.

(B) I tried to study last night, but the material was too hard.
(C) I couldn’t study last night because I was very tired.
(D) I studied last night because I was bored.

15. (A) John was supposed to give the awards at the banquet, but he didn’t.
(B) John was given an award, but he refused it.

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 (C) John didn’t go to the banquet.
(D) John went to the awards banquet, but he refused to give a speech.

16. (A) Edna goes to a movie every year.

(B) Edna hasn’t gone to a movie yet this year, but last year she did.
(C) Edna doesn’t go to a movie unless she has the time.
(D) Edna hasn’t seen a movie for a long time.

17. (A) He is out of sugar.

(B) He puts only sugar in his coffee.
(C) There isn’t enough sugar in his coffee.
(D) He likes sugar, but the coffee he is drinking has too much.

18. (A) Arnold was embarrassed because his date wanted to pay for her own meal.
(B) Arnold had less than $ 15.
(C) Arnold didn’t want his date to know how much the food cost.
(D) Arnold didn’t want to pay for his date’s meal.

19. (A) George didn’t have $ 1,000 for the man.

(B) George wanted more than $ 1,000 for the car.
(C) George agreed to take $ 1,000 for his car.
(D) George thought that $ 1,000 was too much to pay for a used car.

20. (A) Harvey turned around to answer the teacher’s question.

(B) Harvey is an intelligent student.
(C) Harvey must have been embarrassed.
(D) Harvey looked in the red book for the answer to the question.

GO ON TO PART B

Part B

DIRECTIONS

In Part B, you will hear 15 short conversations between two speakers. At the end of
each conversation, a third voice will ask a question about what was said. The question
will be spoken just one time. After you hear a conversation and the question about it, read
the four possible answers and decide which one would be the best answer to the question
you have heard. Then, on your answer sheet, find the number of the problem and mark
your answer.

21. (A) She’s tired of teaching. (C) She’s changing jobs

(B) She was dismissed from her job (D) The school is too hot.

22. (A) She got up later than usual (C) She forgot her class.
(B) The bus was late. (D) Her clock was wrong

23. (A) $ 39 (B) $ 35 (C) $ 4 (D) $ 5

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24. (A) She thinks his lectures are boring.
(B) She thinks his tests are too long.
(C) She doesn’t like his choice of test questions.
(D) She doesn’t think he prepares well enough.

25. (A) getting a suntan (C) taking a bath

(B) swimming (D) watching for an eclipse

26. (A) looking for water (C) looking for something

(B) planting something (D) getting dirty

27. (A) a movie (C) a soccer game

(B) a documentary (D) a comedy

28. (A) America (B) England (C) Switzerland (D) Sweden

29. (A) 2 : 50 (B) 2 : 15 (C) 3 : 50 (D) 3 : 15

30. (A) The woman will go home for dinner.

(B) The woman won’t go to the concert.
(C) The man and woman will eat together.
(D) Both of them will go home before going to the concert.

31. (A) Wiwtner (B) Wittner (C) Wittmer (D) Witner

32. (A) 7:55 (B) 7:45 (C) 7:50 (D) 8:00

33. (A) $17.50 (B) $19.95 (C) $35 (D) $70

34. (A) 5 (B) 3 (C) 2 (D) 8

35. (A) on a train (C) on a plane

(B) on a boat (D) on a bus

GO ON TO PART C

Part C

DIRECTIONS

In this part of the test, you will hear several short talks and/or conversations. After
each talk or conversation, you will be asked some question. The talks and questions will
be spoken just one time. They will not be written out for you, so you will have to listen
carefully in order to understand and remember what the speaker says.
When you hear a question, read the four possible answers in your test book and
decide which one would be the best answer to the question you have heard. Then, on your
answer sheet, find the number of the problem and fill in the space that corresponds to the
letter of the answer you have chosen.

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36. (A) Spain (C) Florida
(B) Latin America (D) America

37. (A) Soccer (C) football

(B) handball (D) horse racing

38. (A) Jai alai is one of the fastest-moving games

(B) Jai alai requires a great deal of skill and endurance
(C) Jai alai can be played as singles or doubles
(D) It is illegal to bet on Florida jai alai games

39. (A) baseball (C) handball

(B) Ping-Pong (D) badminton

40. (A) in a clothing store (C) at a bank

(B) in customs (D) in a liquor store

41. (A) 1 (B) 2 (C) 3 (D) 4

42. (A) four weeks (C) four months

(B) three weeks (D) two months

43. (A) plants (B) rum (C) meat (D) $ 100

44. (A) multiple telegraph (C) aviation

(B) telephone (D) acoustics

45. (A) acoustical science (C) adventure

(B) aviation (D) architecture

46. (A) He worked very hard, but never achieved success

(B) He spent so many years working in aviation because he wanted to be a pilot’
(C) He dedicated his life to science and the well-being of mankind
(D) He worked with the deaf so that he could invent the telephone

47. (A) Bell was born in the eighteenth century

(B) Bell worked with the deaf
(C) Bell experimented with the science of acoustics
(D) Bell invented a multipled telegraph

48. (A) 100 (B) 23 (C) 35 (D) 50

49. (A) He wrote an adventure novel

(B) an account of bullfighting
(C) a history of Spain
(D) a biography of Ernest Hemingway

STOP. THIS IS THE END THE LISTENING COMPREHENSION SECTION

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 PRACTICE TEST 2

SECTION 1: LISTENING COMPREHENSION

Time: Approximately 30 Minutes

50 Questions

For Practice Test 2, restart your listening comprehension cassette immediately

following Practice Test 1 on side 1. On the actual TOEFL you will be given extra time to
go on to the next page when you finish a page in the listening comprehension section. In
the following test, however, you will have only the 12 seconds given after each question.
Turn the page as soon as you have marked you answer. Start the cassette now.

Part A

DIRECTION
For each problem in Part A, you will hear a short statement. The statements will be
spoken just one time. They will not be written out of you, and you must listen carefully in
order to understand what the speaker says.
When you hear a statement, read the four sentences in your test book and decide
which one is closest in meaning to the statement you have heard. Then, on your answer
sheet, find the number of the problem and mark your answer.

1. (A) John believes that Swiss cheese is no longer delicious

(B) John says that the Swiss cheese makes delicious butter
(C) Swiss cheese is the best cheese in John’s opinion
(D) There are many better cheeses than Swiss in John’s eyes

2. (A) The game is temporarily delayed because of rain

(B) There will be no game if it rain
(C) There will be a game regardless of the weather
(D) It rains every time there is a game

3. (A) The class began at 1:45 (C) The class began at 1:00
(B) The professor arrived at 1:15 (D) The class will begin at 2:00

4. (A) Mary works in a nursery

(B) Mary’s children stay in a nursery while she works
(C) Mary takes her children to work with her
(D) Mary’s children are ill today

5. (A) She knew the answer to the question

(B) She had the material, but she didn’t know the answer
(C) She was not prepared for class
(D) Eventhough she hadn’t read the material, she knew the answer

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6. (A) Thirty people returned the evaluation forms
(B) Sixty people filled out the evaluation forms
(C) Eight people returned their forms
(D) Only thirty people received the evaluation forms

7. (A) Peter is a professional musician

(B) Peter is very talented, but he will never be a professional musician because he
doesn’t practice.
(C) Peter practices every day, but he will never be a professional musician.
(D) Peter doesn’t want to be a professional musician because he wants to practice
law.

8. (A) If the weather is nice, we intend to spend the weekend at home.

(B) If the nice weather holds out, we’ll spend the weekend in the country.
(C) If the weather were nicer, we would spend the weekend in the country.
(D) If the weather gets nicer, we’ll spend the weekend in the country.

9. (A) Dan and his family will move to Florida when he quits his job here.
(B) As soon as Dan’s new job in Florida is confirmed, he and his family will move
there.
(C) Dan wants to move to Florida is, but he can’t find a job there.
(D) Dan plans to move to Florida when he retires.

10.(A) Only the seven-year-old boy saw the terrible accident.

(B) No one at all saw the seven-year-olds terrible accident.
(C) The seven-year-old boy saw no one in the accident.
(D) no one in the terrible accident saw the seven-year-old boy.

11.(A) My father doesn’t like fishing on a hot, summer day.

(B) Although my father likes fishing, he doesn’t want to do it on a hot, summer day.
(C) Fishing is my father’s favorite enjoyment on a hot, summer day.
(D) My father loves to eat hot fish for breakfast in the summer.

12.(A) Louise writes and speaks Spanish equally well

(B) Louise both writes and speaks Spanish, but she writes better
(C) Even though Louise writes Spanish, she speaks it better
(D) Louise doesn’t like to write Spanish, but she speaks it.

13.(A) When the production had begun, the actors realized that they should have
practiced more
(B) Before the production began, the actors reviewed their lines one more time
(C) Although the actors had practiced for months, the production was a flop
(D) The actors went to the theater in two separate cars

14.(A) Ms. Daly gave the class an assignment

(B) Ms. Daly gave the students a hand with their assignment
(C) Ms. Daly asked the students to turn in their

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 (D) Ms. Daly asked the students to raise their hands if they wanted to ask a question
about the assignment

15.(A) Peter and Lucy missed the homework assignment, but they turned it in later
(B) Peter and Lucy hate each other since their assignment
(C) Peter and Lucy caught a baby squirrel, but they soon let it go
(D) Peter and Lucy had an argument, but now they are friends again

16.(A) This morning I woke up after 7:30

(B) My alarm clock did not work this morning
(C) This morning I woke up at 7:30, but I usually wake up earlier
(D) I slept over at a friend’s house last night

17.(A) If we go on vacation, Mary will stay at our house

(B) After we return from vacation, we are going to buy a dog
(C) Mary will take care of our dog while we are on a vacation
(D) Mary will be very tired after the long vacation

18.(A) John arrived at 9:00

(B) John arrived at 8:00
(C) John should have arrived at 8:00, but he didn’t
(D) John arrived too late to eat

19.(A) The game of golf originated in the United States

(B) The game of golf is very popular in Scotland
(C) The game of golf originated in the United States, but now it is more popular in
Scotland
(D) The game of golf originated in Scotland, but now it is more popular in the United
States

20.(A) I saw my aunt and uncle thirteen years ago

(B) My aunt and uncle arrived thirty years ago
(C) I haven’t seen my aunt and uncle for thirty years
(D) I see my aunt and uncle once every thirteen years

GO ON TO PART B

Part B
DIRECTION
In Part B, you will hear 15 short conversations between two speakers. At the end
each conversation, a third will ask a question about what was said. The question will be
spoken just one time. After you hear a conversation and the question about it, read the
four possible answers and decide which one would be the best answer to the question you
have heard. Then, on your answer sheet, find the number of the problem and mark your
answer.

21.(A) $ 100 (B) $115 (C) $126 (D) $ 150

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22.(A) They both liked it
(B) Neither liked it
(C) The mother didn’t like it, but the father did
(D) The mother didn’t like it because it wasn’t in English

23.(A) a taxi (B) a plane (C) a boat (D) a bus

24.(A) a supermarket (C) a drugstore

(B) a department store (D) a car repair shop

25.(A) The teacher postponed the conference.

(B) There won’t be a test this afternoon.
(C) The students will be attending the conference
(D) The students took a science test that afternoon

26.(A) The program was on too late

(B) The rain didn’t let up until after the speech
(C) He doesn’t like the president
(D) He had a late class

27.(A) lawyer-client (C) dentist-patient

(B) doctor-patient (D) bank teller-customer

28.(A) 4:54 (B) 5:15 (C) 5:45 (D) 8:45

29.(A) She’s not hungry

(B) She’s at the dentist’s
(C) The food tastes like an old shoe
(D) She’s in too much pain

30.(A) $3.75 (B) $ 3.25 (C) $7.50 (D) $15.00

31.(A) packing her own groceries

(B) not enough variety in meats
(C) the unreasonable prices
(D) the attitude of the employees

32.(A) Spain (B) Sweden (C) Scotland (D) Switzerland

33.(A) sail a boat (C) catch a horse

(B) hang clothes (D) fish

34.(A) 12:15 (B) 1:00 (C) 1:10 (D) 12:30

35.(A) home economics (C) microbiology

(B) business administration (D) history

GO ON TO PART C

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Part C
DIRECTION

In this part of the test, you will hear several short talks and/or conversation. After
each talk or conversation, you will be asked some question. The talks and question will be
spoken just one time. They will not be written out for you, so you will have to listen
carefully in order to understand and remember what the speaker says.
When you hear a question, read the four possible answers in your test book and
decide which one would be the best answer to the question you have heard. Then, on your
answer sheet, find the number of the problem and fill in the space that corresponds to the
letter of the answer you have chosen.

36.(A) She was sick

(B) She couldn’t make up her mind as to which countries she should visit
(C) She couldn’t think of a topic for her composition
(D) She was totally disorganized

37.(A) that she take a cruise (C) that she ride a camel
(B) that she try to get organized (D) that she write about her trip

38.(A) Hungary (B) North Africa (C) Egypt (D) The Holy Land

39.(A) to pack his bags for his trip (B) He’s not feeling well
(B) to write his own composition (D) to pick up some photographs

40.(A) Nathaniel Bacon and his Friends fought against Indian marauders
(B) Bacon and his Friend were Piedmont farmers
(C) bacon and a few farmers marched on the capital to protest the Indian raids
(D) Governor Berkeley did not listen to the demands of the farmers

41.(A) less than 1 year (B) 10 years

(B) 5 years (D) 23 years

42.(A) He was killed by Indians

(B) Governors Berkeley had him hanged
(C) He succumbed to malaria
(D) He was accidentally shot by one of the farmers

43.(A) type his paper

(B) help him with his research
(C) present his findings at the July conference
(D) verify his findings

44.(A) He’s about to leave for a new job

(B) He wants to present it at a conference
(C) His employer has requested it
(D) It’s very important for his livelihood

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45.(A) July (B) September (C) May (D) February

46.(A) death of its sculptor (C) disinterest in the project

(B) lack of funds (D) too many Indian raids

47.(A) Abraham Lincoln (C) Thomas Jefferson

(B) Franklin Roosevelt (D) George Washington

48.(A) 27 years old (C) 60 years old

(B) 41 years old (D) 74 years old

49.(A) They bear little resemblance to the people they represent

(B) The figures are gigantic, but too serious
(C) They portray the characteristics of the people they represent
(D) Because they are old and weather beaten, the faces are disfigured

50.(A) This magnificent work of art is located very high in the Black Hills
(B) Four American presidents have been sculpted as a lasting memorial to their
leadership
(C) It took fourteen years to complete the project
(D) Gutzon Borglum was near retirement age when he began this project

STOP. THIS IS THE END OF THE LISTENING COMPREHENSION SECTION

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 PRACTISE TEST 3

SECTION 1: LISTENING COMPREHENSION

Time : Approximately 30 Minutes
50 Questions

For Practice Test 3 have friends read the script (found in Part V) aloud to you or
use the cassette available by mail. (See ordering information, page 485) On the actual
TOEFL you will be given extra time to go on to the next page when you finish a page in
the listening comprehension section. In the following test, however, you will have only
the 12 seconds given after each question. Turn the page as soon as you have marked yo
answer.

Part A

DIRECTIONS

For each problem in Part A, you will hear a short statement. The statements will be
spoken just one time. They will not be written out for you, and you must listen carefully
in order to understand what the speaker says.
When you hear a statement, read the four sentences in your test book and decide
which one is closest in meaning to the statement you have heard. Then, on your answer
sheet, find the number of the problem and mark your answer.

1. (A) John probably called his office at 9:50.

(B) John had to call his office at 9:15.
(C) John wasn’t supposed to call his office before 9:15
(D) John was supposed to call his office at 9:50.

2. (A) Please give me your hand.

(B) Would you help me carry these packages?
(C) Please remove your hands from those packages.
(D) My hand is stuck under the packages.

3. (A) Every week, there are three direct flights from Atlanta to Chicago.
(B) Next week, the three flights from Atlanta to Chicago will be stopped.
(C) Three planes which travel from Atlanta to Chicago each week make nine stops
enroute.
(D) The number planes that travel from Atlanta to Chicago will be reduced within the
next three weeks.

4. (A) Mr. Roberts is pleased his family is coming up from South America to see him
for vacation.
(B) Mr. Roberts is considering several maps to decide where to go on his vacation.
(C) Mr. Roberts is rather excited because he has a vacation soon.
(D) Mr. Roberts is coming up to see us on his vacation.

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5. (A) Louise is trying to find a new typing job.
(B) Louise is looking for somebody to type her research paper.
(C) Louise is trying to find somebody to move her typewriter to another table.
(D) Louise has accepted employment as a typist.

6. (A) Maria is angry because there is too much chlorine in the pool.
(B) The chlorine in the swimming pool bothers Maria’s eyes.
(C) According to Maria, the correct amount of chlorine is essential to a clean
swimming pool.
(D) Maria doesn’t believe that there is enough chlorine in the pool.

7. (A) The coat cost $20 on sale.

(B) Ted said that he had bought a coat for $20, but he was lying.
(C) The coat actually cost $2 less than the advertised price.
(D) The coat actually cost $2 more than the advertised price.

8. (A) There was a fire alarm at 2:20 yesterday.

(B) Because of a fire, class was cancelled.
(C) The class began at 2:20 because it was delayed by a fire drill.
(D) The fire drill was postponed until 2:20 so the students could finish class first.

9. (A) Sandra returned the shoes and took a pair of pants instead.
(B) Sandra took the shoes back to the store and got some different ones.
(C) One of Sandra’s shoes didn’t fit properly so she returned them both.
(D) Because of a problem with the heel of her shoes, Sandra returned them.

10.(A) John didn’t go to class because he didn’t know there was going to be a test.
(B) John didn’t want to take the test, so he skipped class.
(C) John went to class although he didn’t want to take the test.
(D) John was happy that yesterday’s test was postponed.

11.(A) They were supposed to arrive at 12:15, but they’re late.

(B) They arrived at 11:45.
(C) They didn’t arrive until 12:15.
(D) After a delay of a quarter of an hour, they arrived at 12 o’clock.

12.(A) Janet was not able to read her assignment because she broke her glasses.
(B) Janet could have read the assignment if she hadn’t had to wash dishes.
(C) Janet won’t go to class tomorrow because she must go to the optometrist.
(D) Because she cut herself on some broken glass, Janet didn’t do her homework.

13.(A) Anne sold all the tickets to the show last week.
(B) Anne is a policewoman.
(C) Anne received a citation last week for driving too fast.
(D) Anne received an award for her good driving habits.

14.(A) They arrived at 3 o’clock because they had been delayed two hours.
(B) They finally arrived at 5 o’clock.

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 (C) They were supposed to arrive at 2 o’clock, but they were delayed three hours.
(D) They had planned to arrive at 11 o’clock.

15.(A) Drive for 90 miles on East Highway 16, and then turn left and go 50 miles more.
(B) Go east on Highway 19 for 16 miles; after that, drive 50 miles on North Highway.
(C) Travel east on Highway 90 for 60 miles; after that, drive 50 miles on North
Highway.
(D) After you travel for 90 miles on East Highway 90, go right on Highway 15.

16.(A) This project will be cancelled as a result of mismanagement of funds.

(B) They probably made an error in figuring the expenses for this project.
(C) They must give a complete report on the estimated cost of this project.
(D) They have to charge the calculations to the company office.

17.(A) Jane was able to go to the conference because her employer paid her expenses.
(B) Jane couldn’t go to the conference because her boss wouldn’t pay her while she
was a way.
(C) Although Jane’s employer had offered to pay her expenses to the conference, she
didn’t go.
(D) Jane’s boss refused to give her money to attend the conference, but she went
anyway.

18.(A) John uses some strange methods when he studies.

(B) John receives very good grades although he doesn’t study.
(C) John is very fond of studying dangerous situations.
(D) It’s to bad that John dislikes studying.

19.(A) George has entered the university hospital for treatment.

(B) George met his wife while she was working as a nurse at the university hospital.
(C) George wants to find a place close to the university to keep his children during
the day.
(D) George likes the university because it has a good nursing program.

20.(A) Although Janet doesn’t like television, her husband watches it every night.
(B) Janet refuses to let her husband watch television.
(C) Although Janet hates television, her husband is a TV salesman.
(D) Janet’s husband refuses to have to TV repaired.

GO ON TO PART B

Part B

DIRECTIONS

In Part B, you hear 15 short conversations between two speakers. At the end of
each conversation, a third voice will ask a question about what was said. The question
will be spoken just one time. After you hear a conversation and the question about it, read
the four possible answers and decide which one would be the best answer to the question

14
you have heard. Then, on your answer sheet, find the number of the problem and mark
your answer.

21.(A) a love story

(B) one about jail escapes and mental hospitals
(C) one that is very realistic and touching
(D) one that is not realistic or sentimental

22.(A) They were extremely displeased.

(B) They found it extremely sad.
(C) They thought it was shocking, but very funny.
(D) They became angry at the promiscuity.

23.(A) to the beach (C) to a movie theater

(B) to a play (D) to a restaurant

24.(A) He’s dying

(B) He doesn’t hear too well.
(C) He was at a party.
(D) He was reading something important.

25.(A) The Kehoes got a bargain.

(B) John bought a new house.
(C) The Kehoes bought a house out of the country.
(D) Mr. Kehoe is a real estate agent.

26.(A) The food spoiled.

(B) The group was shameful.
(C) The weather was bad.
(D) The program director wanted to have it on another day.

27.(A) Sebring High School (C) Melrose Community College

(B) Clark High School (D) Enrold College

28.(A) The class thought the demonstration was too complex.

(B) Too many students showed up.
(C) The professor didn’t show up.
(D) The professor cancelled it.

29.(A) Monday, Wednesday, and Friday

(B) Saturday and Sunday
(C) Tuesday, Thursday, and Sunday
(D) Monday, Friday, and Saturday

30.(A) a bicyle (C) a shirt

(B) a game (D) baseball shoes

15
31.(A) It’s more direct (C) It’s faster
(B) There’s a traffic jam (D) It’s less expensive

32.(A) He got a none-way plane ticket.

(B) He went the wrong direction on a none-way street.
(C) He made an improper turn.
(D) He slowed down at the wrong time.

33.(A) Susan Flannigan rings a bell

(B) Her name sounds familiar.
(C) Susan Flannigan is ringing the bell now.
(D) Her name sounds melodic.

34.(A) Roy’s standing in line for a gold medal.

(B) Roy was the best, so he got a gold medal.
(C) Nobody’s better than Roy at getting gold medals.
(D) Roy probably won’t win a gold medal.

35.(A) $3.00 (B) $3.75 (C) $3.25 (D) $4.00

Part C

DIRECTION

In this part of the test, you will hear several short talks and/or conversation. After
each talk or conversation, you will be asked some question. The talks and question will be
spoken just one time. They will not be written out for you, so you will have to listen
carefully in order to understand and remember what the speaker says.
When you hear a question, read the four possible answers in your test book and
decide which one would be the best answer to the question you have heard. then, on your
answer sheet, find the number of the problem and fill in the space that corresponds to the
letter of the answer you have chosen.

36.(A) mechanic (C) TV repairman

(B) policeman (D) car salesman

37.(A) broken fuel pump (C) dirty oil

(B) dirty carburetor (D) leaky radiator

38.(A) He was struck by lightning.

(B) He was very old.
(C) He was in car accident.
(D) He slowed down at the wrong time.

39.(A) his wife (B) a tree (C) a clock (D) lighting

16
40.(A) Edwards had been blind for nine years
(B) Edwards was unconscious for twenty minutes after the lighting had struck him
(C) Doctors believe that Edwards was never really blind for deaf
(D) Edwards a woke with his face in a puddle of water

41.(A) hiding from the storm under a tree

(B) climbing a tree
(C) driving a car
(D) lying on the ground

42.(A) He regained his sight from a head injury when he fell from a tree
(B) He was happy after his wife entered his room for the first time in nine years
(C) The lighting took the feeling from his legs and gave feeling in his eyes
(D) Because the blow that blinded him was very severe, it took another very severe
blow to restore his sight

43.(A) All her expenses will be paid

(B) She’ll earn a great deal of money
(C) She can practice her Spanish
(D) She can spend her free time at the beach

44.(A) one week (C) six weeks

(B) immediately (D) a few hours

45.(A) swim suit (C) passport

(B) a Spanish dictionary (D) money

46.(A) two (B) three (C) four (D) five

47.(A) cotton (B) Nylon (C) grains (D) rayon

48.(A) It is the smallest state in size

(B) It was the first to discover nylon
(C) It was the first to ratify the Constitution
(D) It was the “bread basket” in colonial days

49.(A) Irish (B) Swedish (C) English (D) Dutch

50.(A) It was at the heart of the country

(B) It was extremely small
(C) They sold baskets which they made by hand
(D) They produced corn, wheat, and other grains, which were sold throughout the
country

STOP. THIS IS THE END OF THE LISTENING COMPREHENSION SECTION

17
2 ● 2 ● 2 ● 2 ● 2 ● 2 ● 2 ● 2
SECTION 2
STRUCTURE AND WRITTEN EXPRESSION
Time – 25 minutes
(including the reading of the direction)
Now set your clock for 25 minutes.

This section is designed to measure your ability to recognize language that is appropriate
for standard written English. There are two types of question in this section, with special
directions for each type.

Structure

Direction: Question 1 – 15 are incomplete sentences. Beneath each sentence you will see
four words or phrase, marked (A), (B), (C), and (D). Choose the one word of phrase that
best competes the sentence. Then, on your answer sheet, find the number of the question
and fill in the space that corresponds to the letter of the answer you have chosen. Fill in
the space so that the letter inside the oval cannot be seen.

Look at the following examples.

Example I Sample Answer

B C D
The president ____ the election by a landslide
(A) won
(B) he won
(C) yesterday
(D) fortunately

The sentence should read, “The president won the election by a landslide.” Therefore,
you should choose (A).

Example II Sample Answer

A B C D
When ____ the conference?

(A) the doctor attended

(B) did the doctor attend
(C) the doctor will attend
(D) the doctor’s attendance

the sentence should read, “When did the doctor attend the conference?” Therefore, you
should choose (B).

Now begin work on the question.

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1. The North Pole ____ a latitude of 90 (A) takes
degrees north. (B) it takes
(C) which takes
(A) it has (D) took
(B) is having
(C) which is having 7. Experiments _____ represent a giant
(D) has step into the medicine of the future.

2. The city of Beverly Hills is (A) using gene therapy

surrounded on _____ the city of Los (B) use gene therapy
Angeles. (C) they use
(D) gene therapy uses
(A) its sides
(B) the sides are 8. ______ off the Hawaiian coastline
(C) it is the side of are living others are dead
(D) all side by
(A) While some types of coral reefs
3. _____ greyhound, can achieve speeds (B) Some types of coral reefs
up to thirty-six miles per hour (C) There are many types of coral
reefs
(A) The (D) Coral reefs
(B) The fastest
(C) The fastest dog 9. Nimbostratus clouds are thick, dark
(D) The fastest dog, the gray clouds _____ forebode rain.

4. Marmots spend their time foraging (A) what

among meadow plants and flowers or (B) which
______ on rocky cliffs (C) what they
(D) which they
(A) Gets sun
(B) sunning 10. Some economists now suggest that
(C) the sun home equity loans are merely a new
(D) sunny trap to push consumers beyond ____

5. The greenhouse effect occurs _____ (A) they can afford

heat radiated from the Sun. (B) they can afford it
(C) what is affordable
(A) when does the Earth’s (D) able to afford
atmosphere trap
(B) does the Earth’s atmosphere trap 11. People who reverse the letters of
(C) when the Earth’s atmosphere words _____ to read suffer from
traps dyslexia
(D) the Earth’s atmosphere traps
(A) when trying
6. The Rose Bowl, ______ place on (B) is they tried
New Year’s Day, is the oldest (C) when tried
postseason collegiate football game (D) is he tries
in the United States.
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12. Featured at the Henry Ford Museum
_____ of antique cars dating from
1865.

(A) is an exhibit
(B) an exhibit
(C) an exhibit is
(D) which is an exhibit

13. Rubber ____ from vulcanized

silicones with a high molecular
weight is difficult to distinguish from
natural rubber.

(A) is produced
(B) producing
(C) that produces
(D) produced

14. ______ appears considerably larger

at the horizon than it does overhead
is merely an optical illusion.

(A) The Moon

(B) That the Moon
(C) When the Moon
(D) The Moon which

15. According to the World Health

Organization. _____ any of the six
most dangerous disease to break out,
it could be cause for quarantine.

(A) were
(B) they were
(C) there were
(D) were they

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20
 Written Expression

Direction: In question 16 – 40, each sentence has four underlined words or phrases. The
four underlined parts of the sentence are marked (A), (B), (C) and (D). Identify the one
underlined word or phrases that must be changed in order for the sentence to be correct.
Then, on your answer sheet, find the number of the question and fill in the space that
corresponds to the letter of the answer you have chosen.

Look at the following examples.

Example I Sample Answer
A B C D
The four string on a violin are tuned in fifths
A B C D

The sentence should read, “The four strings on a violin are tuned in fifths” Therefore, you
should choose (B).

Example II Sample Answer

A B C D
The research for the book Roots taking
A B C

Alex Haley twelve years

D

The sentence should read, “The research for the book Roots took Alex Haley twelve
years” Therefore, you should choose (C).

Now begin work on the question.

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16. On the floor of the Pacific Ocean is hundreds of flat-toped mountains more than a
A B C D
mile beneath see level.

17. Because of the Flourish with which John Hancock signed the Declaration of
A
Independence, his name become synonymous with signature.
B C D
18. Segregation in public schools was declare unconstitutional by the Supreme Court
A B C
in 1954
D
19. Sirius, the Dog Star, is the most brightest star in the sky with an absolute magnitude
A B
about twenty-three times that of the Sun.
C D
20. Killer whales tend to wander in family clusters that hunt, play, and resting together.
A B C D
21. Some of the most useful resistor material are carbon, metals, and metallic alloys.
A B C D
22. The community of Bethesda, Maryland, was previous known as Darcy’s Store.
A B C D
23. Alloys of gold and copper have been widely using in various types of coins.
A B C D
24. J. H. Pratt used group therapy early in this century when he brought tuberculosis
A B C
patients together to discuss its disease
D
25. The United States has import all carpet wools in recent years because domestic wools
A B C
are too fine and soft for carpets.
D
26. Irving Berlin wrote “Oh How I Hate to Get Up in the Morning” while serving in a
A B C
U.S Army during World War I.
D
27. Banks are rushing to merge because consolidations enable them to slash theirs costs
A B C
and expand.
D

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28. That water has a very high specific heat means that without a large temperature
A B
change water can add or lose a large number of heat.
C D
29. Benny Goodman was equally talented as both a jazz performer as well as a
A B C
classical musician
D
30. The state seal still used in Massachusetts designed by Paul Revere, who also designed
A B C
the first Continental currency
D
31. Quarter horses were developed in eighteenth-century Virginia to race on courses short
A B
of about a quarter of a mile in length.
C D
32. No longer satisfied with the emphasis of the Denishawn School, Marta Graham
A B C
has moved to the staff of the Eastman School in 1925
D
33. William Hart was an act best known for his roles as western heroes in silent films.
A B C D
34. Prior to an extermination program earlier this century, alive wolves roamed
A B C
across nearly all of North America.
D
35. During the 1960s the Berkeley campus of the University of California came to
A B
national attention as a result its radical political activity
C D
36. Artist Gutzon Borglum designer the Mount Rusmore Memorial and worked on
A
project from 1925 until his death in 1941.
B C D

37. It is roving less costly and more profitably for drugmakers to market directly to
A B C D
patients.

38. Sapphires weighing as much as two pounds have on occasion mined.

A B C D

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39. Like snakes, lizard can be found on all others continents except Antartica.
A B C D

40. Banks, saving and loans, and finance companies have recently been doing home
A B
equity loans with greater frequency than ever before.
C D
This is the end of the Structures and Written Expression Pre-Test.

STOP STOP STOP STOP STOP STOP STOP

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SECTION 2
STRUCTURE AND WRITTEN EXPRESSION
Time – 25 minutes
(including the reading of the directions )
Now set your clock for 25 minutes

This section is designed to measure your ability to recognize language that is appropriate
for standard written English. There are two types of question in this section, with special
direction for each type.

Structure
Direction: Question 1 – 15 are incomplete sentence. Beneath each sentence will see four
words of phrases, marked (A), (B), (C) and (D). Choose the one word of phrase that best
competes the sentence. Then, on your answer sheet, find the number of the question and
fill in the space that corresponds to the letter of the answer you have chosen. Fill in the
space so that the letter inside the oval cannot be seen.

Look at the following examples.

Example I Sample Answer

A
The president ____ the election by a landslide B
(A) Won C
(B) he won D
(C) yesterday
(D) fortunately

The sentence should read, “The president won the election by a landslide.” Therefore,
you should choose (A).

Example II Sample Answer

When ____ the conference? A

(A) The doctor attended B
(B) did the doctor attend C
(C) the doctor will attend D
(D) the doctor’s attendance

the sentence should read, “When did the doctor attend the conference?” Therefore, you
should choose (B).

Now begin work on the question.

GO ON TO THE NEXT
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2 ● 2 ● 2 ● 2 ● 2 ● 2 ● 2 ● 2
1. ____ range in color from pale yellow (A) However
to bright orange. (B) Because of
(C) Although
(A) Canaries (D) That
(B) Canaries which
(C) That canaries 7. The Caldecott Medal _____ for the
(D) Canaries that are best children’s pictures book, is
awarded each January.
2. Carnivorous plants _____ insects to
obtain nitrogen. (A) is a prize which
(B) which prize
(A) are generally trapped (C) which is a prize
(B) trap generally (D) is a prize
(C) are trapped generally
(D) generally trap 8. Sports medicine is a medical
specially that deals with the
3. A Federal type of government result identification and treatment of
in _______ injuries to persons ______

(A) a vertical distribution of power (A) sports are involved

(B) power is distribution vertically (B) involved in sports
(C) vertically distributed (C) they are involved in sports
(D) the distribution of power is (D) sports involve them
vertical
9. The Wilmington Oil Field, in Long
4. February normally has twenty-eight Beach California, is one of ____ oil
days, but every fourth year, _____ fields in the continental United
has twenty nine. States.

(A) there (A) productive

(B) its (B) the most productive
(C) is a leap year (C) most are productive
(D) a leap year, it (D) productive

5. evidence suggest that one-quarter of 10. Thunder occurs as _____ through air,
operations _____ bypass surgery may causing the heated air to expand and
be unnecessary. collide with layers of cooler air.
(A) they involve
(B) involve (A) an electrical charge
(C) involving (B) passes an electrical charge
(D) which they involve (C) the passing of an electrical
charge
6. ______ a tornado spins in a (D) an electrical charge passes
counterclockwise direction in the
northern hemisphere, it spins in the 11. The population of Houston was
opposite direction in the southern ravage by yellow fever in 1839 ____
hemisphere. in 1867.

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(A) it happened again
(B) and again
(C) was ravage
(D) again once more

12. Researchers have long debated ____

Saturn’s moon Titan contains
hydrocarbon oceans and lakes

(A) over it
(B) whether the
(C) whether over
(D) whether

13. According to Bernoulli’s principle,

the higher speed of a Fluid gas, ____
the pressure.

(A) it will be lower

(B) lower than the
(C) the lower
(D) lower it is

14. The flight instructor _____ at the air

base said that orders not to fight has
been issued.

(A) when interviewed

(B) when he interviewed
(C) when the interview
(D) when interviewing

15. In the northern and central parts of

the state of Idaho _____ and
churning rivers.

(A) majestic mountains are found

(B) are majestic mountains found
(C) are found majestic mountains
(D) finding majestic mountains.

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Written Expression

Direction: In question 16 – 40, each sentence has four underlined words or phrases. The
four underlined parts of the sentence are marked (A), (B), (C) and (D). Identify the one
underlined word or phrases that must be changed in order for the sentence to be correct.
Then, on your answer sheet, find the number of the question and fill in the space that
corresponds to the letter of the answer you have chosen.

Look at the following examples.

Example I Sample Answer
A B C D
The four string on a violin are tuned in fifths
A B C D

The sentence should read, “The four strings on a violin are tuned in fifths” Therefore, you
should choose (B).

Example II Sample Answer

A B C D
The research for the book Roots taking
A B C

Alex Haley twelve years

D

The sentence should read, “The research for the book Roots took Alex Haley twelve
years” Therefore, you should choose (C).

Now begin work on the question.

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16. Light can travels from the Sun to the Earth in eight minutes and twenty seconds.
A B C D

17. Every human typically have twenty-three pairs of chromosomes in most cells.
A B C D

18. In the sport of fencing, three type of swords are used: the foil, the epee, and the sabre.
A B C D

19. The Internal Revenue Service uses computers to check tax return computation, to
A B
determine the reasonableness of deductions, and for verifying the accuracy
C
of reported income.
D
20. There was four groups of twenty rats each involved in the test.
A B C D

21. The type of jazz known as “swing” introduced by Duke Ellington when he wrote and
A B C
record “It Don’t Mean a Thing If It Ain’t Got That Swing”
D

22. The bones of mammals, not alike those of other vertebrates, show a high degree of
A B C D
differentiation

23. The United States receives a lager amount of revenue from taxation of a tobacco
A B C D
products.

24. Much fats are composed of one molecule of glycerin combined with three molecules
A B C
of fatty acids.
D

25. The capital of the Confederacy was originally in Mobile, but they were moved to
A B C D
Richmond.

26. A pearl develops when a tiny grain of sand or some another irritant accidentally enter
A B C D
into the shell of a pearl oyster.

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27. The English horn is an alto oboe with a pitch one fifth lower as that of the soprano
A B C D
oboe.

28. In the Milky Way galaxy, the most recent observed supernova appeared in 1604.
A B C D

29. Although the name suggests otherwise, the ship known as Old Ironsides was built of
A B C
oak and cedar rather than it was built of iron.
D
30. Never in the history of humanity there have been more people living on this relative
A B C D
small planet.

31. Because of the mobile of Americans today, it is difficult for them to put down real
A B C D
roots.

32. For five years after the Civil War, Robert E. Lee served to president of Washington
A B
College, which later was called Washington and Lee.
C D
33. Doctors successfully used hypnosis during World War II to treat fatigue battle.
A B C D

34. The lobster, like many crustaceans, can cast off a damaging appendage and
A B C
regenerate a new appendage to nearly normal size.
D

35. The main cause of the oceans’ tides is the gravitation pull of the Moon.
A B C D

36. The curricula of American public schools are set in individual states; they do not
A B C D
determine by the federal government.

37. The fact that the sophisticated technology has become part of revolution in travel
A B
delivery system has not made travel schedules less hectic.
C D

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38. Balanchin’s plotless ballets, such Jewels and The Four Temperaments, present dance
A B C
purely as a celebration of the movement of the human body.
D
39. In a solar battery, a photosensitive semiconducting substance such as silicon crystal is
A B
the source of electrician.
C D

40. In early days hydrochloric acid was done by heating a mixture of sodium chloride
A B C
with iron sulfate.
D

This is the end of Section 2

If you finish before 25 minutes has ender,
Check your work on Section 2 only.

31
33333333
SECTION 3
READING COMPHREHENSION
Time – 55 minutes
(including the reading of the directions)
Now set your clock for 55 minutes

This section is designed to measure your ability to read and understand short passages
similar in topic and style to those that students are likely to encounter in North American
universities and colleges.

Directions: In this section you will read several passages. Each one is followed by a
number of on your answer sheet, find the number of the question and fill in the space that
corresponds to the letter of the answer you have chosen.

Answer all questions about the information in a passage on the basis of what is stated or
implied in that passage.

Read the following passage :

John Quincy Adam, who served as the sixth president of the United States
from 1825 to 1829, is today recognized for his masterful statesmanship and
diplomacy. He dedicated his life to public service, both in the presidency an in the
Line various other political offices that he held. Throughout his political career he
(5) demonstrated his unswerving belief in freedom of speech, the antislavery cause, and
the right of Americans to be free from European and Asian domination.

Example I Sample Answer

A B C D

To what did John Quincy Adams devote his life?

(A) Improving his personal life
(B) Serving the public
(C) Increasing his fortune
(D) Working on his private business

According to the passage, John Quincy Adams “dedicated his life to public service”.
Therefore, you should choose (B)

Example II Sample Answer

A B C D

In line 4, the word “unswerving” is closest in meaning to

(A) Improving his personal life
(B) Serving the public
(C) Increasing his fortune
(D) Working on his private business

The passage states that John Quincy Adams demonstrated his unswerving believe
“throughout his career”. This implies that the belief did not change. Therefore, you
should choose (C).

Now begin work on the questions.

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32
33333333
Questions 1 – 9

Carbon tetrachloride is a colorless and inflammable liquid that can be produced by

combining carbon disulfide and chlorine. This compound is widely used in industry today
because of its effectiveness as a solvent as well as its use in the production of propellants.
Despite its widespread use in industry, carbon tetrachloride has been banned for
home use. In the past, carbon tetrachloride was a common ingredient in cleaning
compounds that were used throughout the home, but it was found to be dangerous: when
heated, it changes into a poisonous gas that can cause severe illness and even death if it is
inhaled. Because of this dangerous characteristic, the United States revoked permission
for the home use of carbon tetrachloride in 1970. The United the United States has taken
similar action with various other chemical compounds.

1. The main point of this passage is that (B) colorless

(A) carbon tetrachloride can be very (C) a cleaning compound
dangerous when it is heated (D) inflammable
(B) the government banned carbon 6. The word “inhaled” in line 7 is
tetrachloride in 1970 closest in meaning to
(C) although carbon tetrachloride can (A) warmed
legally be used in industry, it is (B) breathed in
not allowed in home products (C) carelessly used
(D) carbon tetrachloride used to be a (D) blown
regular part of cleaning 7. The word “revoked” in line 8 could
compounds most easily be replaced by
2. the word “widely” in line 2 could (A) gave
most easily be replaced by (B) granted
(A) grandly (C) instituted
(B) extensively (D) took away
(C) largely 8. It can be inferred from the passage
(D) hugely that one role of the U.S government
3. The word “banned” in line 4 is is to
closest in meaning to (A) Regulate product safety
(A) forbidden (B) Prohibit any use of carbon
(B) allowed tetrachloride
(C) suggested (C) Instruct industry on cleaning
(D) instituted methodologies
4. According to the passage, before (D) Ban the use of any chemicals
1970 carbon tetrachloride was 9. The paragraph following the passage
(A) used by itself as a cleanser most likely discusses
(B) banned in industrial use (A) additional uses for carbon
(C) often used as a component of tetrachloride
cleaning products (B) the banning of various chemical
(D) not allowed in home cleaning compounds by the U.S.
products government
5. It is stated in the passage that when (C) further dangerous effects of
carbon tetrachloride is heated, it carbon tetrachloride
becomes (D) the major characteristics of
(A) harmful carbon tetrachloride

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33
33333333
Questions 10 – 19

The next artist in this survey of American artists is James Whistler; he is included
in this survey of American artists because he was born in the United States, although the
majority of his artwork was completed in Europe. Whistler was born in Massachusetts in
1834, but nine years later his father moved the family to St. Petersburg, Russia, to work
on the construction of a railroad. The family returned to the United States in 1849. Two
years later Whistler entered the U.S. military academy at West Point, but he was unable
to graduate. At the age of twenty-one, Whistler went to Europe to study art despite
familial objections, and he remained in Europe until his death.
Whistler worked in various art forms, including etchings and lithographs.
However, he is most famous for his paintings, particularly Arrangement in Gray and
Black No.1:Portrait of the Artist’s Mother or Whistler’s Mother, as it is more commonly
known. This painting shows a side view of Whistler’s mother, dressed in black posing
against a gray wall. The asymmetrical nature of the portrait, with his mother seated off-
center, is highly characteristic of Whistler’ work.

10. The paragraph preceding this passage (B) highly supportive of his desire to
most likely discusses . family was
(A) a survey of eighteenth-century (C) working class
art. (D) military
(B) a different American artist. 15. The word “objections” in line 7 is
(C) Whistler’s other famous closest in meaning to .
paintings. (A) protests
(D) European artist. (B) goals
11. Which of the following best (C) agreements
describes the information in the (D) battles
passage ? 16. In line 8, the “etchings” are .
(A) Several artists are presented. (A) a type of painting
(B) One artist’s life and works are (B) the same as a lithograph
described. (C) an art form introduced by
(C) Various paintings are contrasted. Whistler
(D) Whistler’s family life is outlined. (D) an art form involving engraving.
12. Whistler is considered an American 17. The word “asymmetrical” in line 11
artist because . is closest in meaning to .
(A) he was born in America (A) proportionate
(B) he spent most of his life in (B) uneven
America (C) balanced
(C) he served in the U.S. military (D) lyrical
(D) he created most of his famous art 18. Which of the following is NOT true
in America according to the passage ?
13. The word “majority” in line 2 is (A) Whistler worked with a variety
closets in meaning to . of art forms.
(A) seniority (B) Whistler’s Mother is the not the
(B) maturity official name of his painting.
(C) large pieces (C) Whistler is best known for his
(D) high percentage etchings.
14. It is implied in the passage that (D) Whistler’s Mother is painted in
Whistler’s family was . somber tones.
(A) unable to find any work at all in
the Russia

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19. Where in the passage does the author (B) Lines 4 – 5
mention the types of artwork that (C) Lines 6 – 7
Whistler was involved in ? (D) Lines 8 – 10
(A) Lines 1 – 3

Questions 20 – 30

The locations of stars in the sky relative to one another do not appear to the naked
eye to change, and as a result stars are often considered to be fixed in position. Many
unaware stargazers falsely assume that each star has its own permanent home in the
nighttime sky.
In reality, though, stars are always moving, but because of the tremendous
distances between stars themselves and from stars to Earth, the changes are barely
perceptible here. An example of a rather fast-moving star demonstrates why this
misconception prevails; it takes approximately 200 years for a relatively rapid star like
Bernard’s star to move a distance in the skies equal to the diameter of the earth’s moon.
When the apparently negligible movement of the stars is contrasted with the movement of
the planets, the stars are seemingly unmoving.

20. Which of the following is the best 25. This passage states that in 200 years.
title for this passage ? Bernard’s star can move.
(A) What the Eye Can See in the Sky (A) around Earth’s moon
(B) Bernard’s Star (B) next to Earth’s moon
(C) Planetary Movement (C) a distance equal to he distance
(D) The Ever moving Stars from Earth to the Moon
21. The expression “naked eye” in line 1 (D) a distance seemingly equal to the
most probably refers to. diameter of the Moon
(A) a telescope 26. This passage implies that from Earth
(B) a scientific method for observing it appears that the planets.
stars (A) are fixed in the sky
(C) unassisted vision (B) move more slowly than the stars
(D) a camera with a powerful lens (C) show approximately the same
22. According to the passage, the amount of movement as the stars
distances between the stars and Earth (D) travel through the sky
are … considerably more rapidly than
(A) Barely perceptible the stars
(B) huge 27. The word “negligible” in line 8 could
(C) fixed most easily be replaced by.
(D) moderate (A) negative
23. The word = “ perceptible” in line 5 is (B) insignificant
closets in meaning to which of the (C) rapid
following. (D) distant
(A) Noticeable 28. Which of the following is NOT true
(B) Persuasive according to the passage ?
(C) Conceivable (A) Stars do not appear to the eye to
(D) Astonishing move
24. In line 6, a “misconception” is (B) The large distance between stars
closest in meaning to a(n) and the earth tend to magnify
(A) idea movement to the eye
(B) proven fact (C) Bernard’s star moves quickly
(C) erroneous belief comparison with other stars.
(D) theory (D) Although stars move, they seem
to be fixed.

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29. The paragraph following the passage 30. This passage would most probably be
most probably discusses. assigned reading in which course ?
(A) The movement of the planets (A) Astrology
(B) Bernard’s Star (B) Geophysics
(C) The distance from Earth to the (C) Astronomy
Moon . (D) Geography
(D) Why stars are always moving

Questions 31 – 40

It has been noted that, traditionally, courts have granted divorces on fault grounds :
one spouse is deemed to be at fault in causing the divorce. More and more today,
however, divorces are being granted on a no-fault basis.
Proponents of no-fault divorce argue that when a marriage fails, it is rarely the case
that one marriage partner is completely to blame and the other blameless. A failed
marriage is much more often the result of mistakes by both partners.
Another argument in favor of no-fault divorce is that proving fault in court, in a
public arena, is a destructive process that only serves to lengthen the divorce process and
that dramatically increases the negative feelings present in a divorce. If a couple can
reach a decision to divorce without first deciding which partner is to blame, the divorce
settlement can be negotiated more easily and equitably and the post divorce healing
process can begin more rapidly.

31. What does the passage mainly 35. The word “Proponents” in line 4 is
discuss ? closest in meaning to which of the
(A) Traditional grounds for divorce following ?
(B) Who is at fault in a divorce (A) Advocates
(C) Why no-fault divorces are (B) Recipients
becoming more common (C) Authorities
(D) The various reasons for divorces (D) Enemies
32. The word “spouse” in line 1 is 36. The passage states that a public trial
closest in meaning to a . to prove the fault of one spouse can .
(A) judge (A) be satisfying to the wronged
(B) problem spouse
(C) divorce decree (B) lead to a shorter divorce process
(D) marriage partner (C) reduce negative feelings
33. According to the passage, no-fault (D) be a harmful process
divorces . 37. Which of following is NOT listed in
(A) are on the increase this passage as an argument in favor
(B) are the traditional form of of no-fault divorce ?
divorce (A) Rarely is only one marriage
(C) are less popular than they used to partner to blame for a divorce
be (B) A no-fault divorce generally
(D) were granted more in the past costs less in legal fees
34. It is implied in the passage that . (C) Finding fault in a divorce
(A) there recently has been a increases negative feelings
decrease in no-fault divorces (D) A no-fault divorce settlement is
(B) not all divorces today are no- generally easier to negotiate.
fault divorces 38. The word “present” in line 9 could
(C) a no-fault divorce is not as most easily be replaced by .
equitable as a fault divorce (A) existing
(D) people recover more slowly from (B) giving
a no-fault divorce. (C) introducing

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(D) resulting (D) agreement
39. The word “Settlement” in line 10 is 40. The tone of this passage is .
closest in meaning to . (A) emotional
(A) development (B) enthusiastic
(B) serenity (C) expository
(C) discussion (D) reactionary

Questions 41 – 50

Whereas literature in the first half of the eighteenth century in America had been
largely religious and moral in tone, by the latter half of the century the revolutionary
fervor that was coming to life in the colonies began to be reflected in the literature of the
time, which in turn served to further influence the population. Although not all writers of
this period supported the Revolution, the two best-known and most influential writers,
Ben Franklin and Thomas Paine, were both strongly supportive of that cause.
Ben Franklin first attained popular success through his writings in his brother’s
newspaper, the New England Current. In these articles he used a simple style of language
and common sense argumentation to defend the point of view of the farmer and the
Leather Apron man. He continued with the same common sense practicality and appeal to
the common man with his work on Poor Richard’s Almanac from 1733 until 1758.
Firmly established in his popular acceptance by the people, Franklin wrote a variety of
extremely effective articles and pamphlets about the colonists’ revolutionary cause
against England.
Thomas Paine was an Englishman working as a magazine editor in Philadelphia at
the time of the Revolution. Hus pamphlet Common Sense, which appeared in 1976, was a
force in encouraging the colonists to declare their independence from England. Them
throughout the long and desperate war years he published a series of Crisis papers (from
1776 until 1783) to encourage the colonists to continue on with the struggle. The
effectiveness of his writing was probably due to his emotional yet oversimplified
depiction of the cause of the colonists against England as a classic struggle of good and
evil.

41. The paragraph preceding this passage 44. It is implied in the passage that .
most likely discusses . (A) some writers in the American
(A) how literature influences the colonies supported England
population during the Revolution
(B) religious and moral literature (B) Franklin and Paine were the only
(C) literature supporting the cause of writers to influence the
the American Revolution Revolution
(D) what made Thomas Paine’s (C) because Thomas Paine was an
literature successful Englishman, he supported
42. The word “fervor” in line 2 is closest England against the colonies
in meaning to . (D) authors who supported England
(A) war did not remain in the colonies
(B) anxiety during the Revolution
(C) spirit 45. The pronoun “he” in line 8 refers to .
(D) action (A) Thomas Paine
43. The word “time” in line 3 could best (B) Ben Franklin
be replace by . (C) Ben Franklin’s brother
(A) hour (D) Poor Richard
(B) period 46. The expression “point of view” in
(C) appointment line 9 could best be replaced by .
(D) duration (A) perspective
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(B) sight 49. Where is the passage does the author
(C) circumstance describe Thomas Paine’s style of
(D) trait writing ?
47. According to the passage. The tone (A) Lines 4 – 6
of Poor Richard’s Almanac is . (B) Lines 8 – 9
(A) pragmatic (C) Lines 14 – 15
(B) erudite (D) Lines 18 – 20
(C) theoretical 50. The purpose of the passage is to .
(D) scholarly (A) discuss American literature in the
48. The word “desperate” on line 16 first half of the eighteenth
could best be replaced by . century
(A) unending (B) give biographical data on two
(B) hopeless American writers
(C) strategic (C) explain which authors supported
(D) combative the Revolution
(D) describe the literary influence
during revolutionary America

This is the end of the Reading Diagnostic Pre Test

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