Trueman's Elementary Biology PDF Androbose

1
THE LIVING WORLD

1. Employment of hereditary principles in the (d) dependent on the amount of oxygen in the
improvement of human race is [1990] atmosphere
(a) Euthenics (b) Eugenics 8. The most important feature of all living
(c) Euphenics (d) Ethnology systems is to [2000]
2. Pedology is science of [1991] (a) utilize oxygen to generate energy
(a) earth (b) soil (b) replicate the genetic information
(c) diseases (d) pollution (c) produce gametes
(d) utilize solar energy for metabolic activities
3. Study of fossils is [1991]
(a) Palaeontology (b) Herpetology 9. Most abundant organic compound on earth is
(c) Saurology (d) Organic evolution [2001]
(a) protein (b) cellulose
4. Glycogen is a polymer of [1998]
(c) lipids (d) steroids
(a) galactose (b) glucose
(c) fructose (d) sucrose 10. Reason of diversity in living being is[2001]
(a) mutation
5. Adenine is [1992]
(b) gradual change
(a) purine (b) pyrimidine
(c) long term evolutionary change
(c) nucleoside (d) nucleotide
(d) short term evolutionary change
6. The CO2 content by volume, in the atmospheric 11. First life on earth was [2001]
air is about [1997]
(a) cyanobacteria
(a) 0.0314 % (b) 0.34 %
(b) chemoheterotrophs
(c) 3.34 % (d) 4 %
(c) autotrophs
7. If there was no CO2 in the earth’s atmosphere (d) photoautotrophs
the temperature of earth’s surface would be
12. What is true for photolithotrophs? [2001]
[l998]
(a) Obtain energy from radiations and
(a) higher than the present hydrogen from organic compounds
(b) less than the present (b) Obtain energy from radiations and
(c) the same hydrogen from inorganic compounds
(c) Obtain energy from organic compounds
1
Trueman’s AIPMT Biology Rebooster Specific
(d) Obtain
energy from inorganic compounds Answers
13. There is no life on moon due to the absence of (a) Constriction of skin blood vessels and
[2002] contraction of skeletal muscles when it is
(a) O2 (b) water too cold
(c) light (d) temperature (b) Secretion of tears after falling of sand
particles into the eye
14. According to Oparin, which one of the
(c) Salivation of mouth at the sight of delicious
following was not present in the primitive at-
food
mosphere of the earth? [2004]
(d) Secretion of sweat glands and constriction
(a) Methane (b) Oxygen
of skin blood vessels when it is too hot
(c) Hydrogen (d) Water vapour
19. Biological organization starts with [2007]
15. More then 70% of world’s fresh water is
(a) submicroscopic molecular level
contained in [2005]
(b) cellular level
(a) Antarctica
(c) organismic level
(b) Greenland
(d) atomic level
(c) Glaciers and Mountains
(d) Polar ice 20. The living organisms can be unexceptionally
distinguished from the non-living things on the
16. Carbohydrates, the most abundant bio- basis of their ability for [2007]
molecules on earth, are produced by [2005]
(a) responsiveness to touch
(a) all bacteria, fungi and algae
(b) interaction with the environment and
(b) fungi, algae and green plant cells progressive evolution
(c) some bacteria, algae and green plant cells (c) reproduction
(d) viruses, fungi and bacteria
(d) growth and movement
17. Which one of the following is not a living fossil?
21. Which one of the following aspects is an
[2006]
exclusive characteristic of living things ?
(a) King crab (b) Sphenodon [Mains 2011]
(c) Archaeopteryx (d) Peripatus (a) Increase in mass by accumulation of
18. Which one of the following is an example of material both on surface as well as
negative feedback loop in humans? [2007] internally.
(b) Isolated metabolic reactions occur in vitro.
(c) Increase in mass from inside only
(d) Perception of events happening in the
environment and their memory.
1 -b 2 -b 3 -a 4 -b 5 -a 6 -a 7 -b 8 -b 9 -b 10 -c
11 -b 12 -b 13 -b 14 -b 15 -d 16 -c 17 -c 18 -a 19 -d 20 -c
21 -c
oster Specific 3
2A
BIOLOGICAL CLASSIFICATION – SYSTEMATICS
1. Basic unit or smallest taxon of taxonomy/ (c) Theophrastus (d) Linnaeus
classification is [1990]
7. Binomial nomenclature means [1993]
(a) species (b) kingdom (a) one name given by two scientists
(c) family (d) variety (b) one scientific name consisting of a generic
2. Linnaeus evolved a system of nomenclature and a specific name
called [1990, 93, 94] (c) two names, one Latinised, other of a
(a) mononomial (b) vernacular person
(c) binomial (d) polynomial (d) None of the above
3. A taxon is [1990, 96] 8. “Taxonomy without phylogeny is similar to
(a) a group of related families bones without flesh” is the statement of
(b) a group of related species [1994]
(c) a type of living organisms (a) Oswald Tippo
(d) a taxonomic group of any ranking (b) John Hutchinson
(c) Takhtajan
4. An important criterion for modern day
(d) Bentham and Hooker
classification is [1991]
(a) resemblances in Morphology 9. Binomial nomenclature consists of two words
(b) anatomical and physiological traits [1994]
(c) breeding habits (a) genus and species
(d) presence or absence of notochord (b) order and family
(c) family and genus
5. Sequence of taxonomic categories is [1992]
(d) species and variety
(a) class-phylum-tribe-order-family-
genusspecies 10. Phylogenetic classification is based on
(b) division-class-family-tribe-order- [1994]
genusspecies (a) utilitarian system
(c) division-class-order-family-tribe- (b) habits
genusspecies (c) overall similarities
(d) phylum-order-class-tribe-family- (d) common evolutionary descent
genusspecies
11. Species is [1994,2003]
6. The term “Phylum” was given by
(a) basic unit of classification
[1992]
(b) unit in the evolutionary history of a tree
(a) Cuvier (b) Haeckel
(c) specific class of evolution
(d) not related to evolution (b) Live in same habitat

12. The closely related morphologically similar (c) Interbreeding
sympatric populations, but reproductively (d) live in different habitat
isolated, are designated as [1995] 20. In five-kingdom system, the main basis of
(a) clines (b) demes classification is [2002]
(c) clones (d) sibling species (a) structure of nucleus
13. If two or more species occupy overlapping (b) mode of nutrition
areas, they are [1996] (c) structure of cell wall
(a) sibling (b) allochronic (d) asexual reproduction
(c) keystone (d) sympatric 21. Biosystematics aims at [2003]
14. In the five-kingdom system of classification, (a) identification and arrangement of
which single kingdom out of the following can organisms on the basis of their cytological
include blue-green algae, nitrogen-fixing characteristics
bacteria and methanogenic archaebacteria? (b) the classification of organisms based on
[1998] broad morphological characters
(a) Fungi (b) Plantae (c) delimiting various taxa of organisms and
(c) Protista (d) Monera establishing their relationships
(d) the classification of organisms based on
15. A system of classification in which a large their evolutionary history and establishing
number of traits are considered, is [1999]
their phylogeny on the totality of various
(a) artificial system parameters from all fields of studies
(b) synthetic system
22. In which kingdom would you classify the
(c) natural system
archaebacteria and nitrogen-fixing organisms,
(d) phylogenetic system if the five kingdom system of classification is
16. The book “Genera Plantarum” was written by used? [2003]
[1999] (a) Monera (b) Plantae
(a) Bessey (c) Fungi (d) Protista
(b) Hutchinson 23. Plants reproducing by spores such as mosses
(c) Engler and Prantl and ferns are grouped under the general term
(d) Bentham and Hooker [2003]
17. Species restricted to a given area are called as (a) thallophytes (b) cryptogams
[1999] (c) bryophytes (d) sporophytes
(a) sibling (b) sympatric 24. Phenetic classification is based on
(c) allopatric (d) endemic [2003]
18. One of the following includes most closely (a) sexual characteristics
linked organisms [2001] (b) the ancestral lineage of existing organisms
(a) species (b) genus (c) observable characteristics of existing
(c) family (d) class organisms
(d) dendrograms based on DNA
19. What is true for individuals of same species? characteristics
[2002]
25. Which of the following is not true for a
(a) live in same niche
species? [2005]
er Specific 5
(a) Members of a species can interbreed (b) Floral characters

(b) Gene flow does not occur between the (c) Evolutionary relationships
populations of a species (d) Morphological features
(c) Each species is reproductively isolated
29. Which one of the following animals is correctly
from every other species
matched with its particular named taxonomic
(d) Variations occur among members of a category ? [Pre 2011]
species
(a) Tiger - tigris, the species
26. ICBN stands for [2007] (b) Cuttlefish - Mollusca, a class
(a) Indian Congress of Biological Names (c) Humans - Primata, the family
(b) International Code of Botanical (d) Housefly - Musca, an order
Nomenclature
30. Which one of the following is not a correct
(c) International Congress of Biological Names
statement ? [NEET 2013]
(d) Indian Code of Botanical Nomenclature
(a) Herbarium houses dried, pressed and
27. Two plants can be conclusively said to belong preserved plant specimens
to the same species if they [2007] (b) Botanical gardens have collection of living
(a) can reproduce freely with each other and plants for reference
form seeds (c) A museum has collection of photographs
(b) have more than 90% similar genes of plants and animals
(c) look similar and possess identical (d) Key is a taxonomic aid for identification of
secondary metabolites specimens
(d) have same number of chromosomes 31. Five kingdom system of classification
28. Phylogenetic system of classification is based suggested by R.H. Whittaker is not based on
on: [2009] [AIPMT 2014]
(a) Presence or absence of a well defined
nucleus
(b) Mode of reproduction

Answers
(c) Mode of nutrition
(a) Chemical constituents (d) Complexity of body organization
1-a 2-c 3-d 4-b 5-c 6-a 7-b 8-c 9-a 10-d
11-a 12-d 13-d 14-d 15-c 16-d 17-d 18-a 19-c 20-b
21-d 22-a 23-b 24-c 25-b 26-b 27-a 28-c 29-a 30-c
31-a
2B
BIOLOGICAL CLASSIFICATION – KINGDOM
PROTISTA
1. The vector for sleeping sickness is 7. Genetic information in Paramecium is
[1989] contained in [1990]
(a) house fly (b) tse-tse fly (a) micronucleus (b) macronucleus
(c) sand fly (d) fruit fly (c) Both (a) & (b) (d) mitochondria
2. The infective state of malarial parasite 8. What is true about Trypanosoma?
Plasmodium that enters human body is [1990]
[1989] (a) Polymorphic (b) Monogenetic
(a) merozoite (b) sporozoite (c) Facultative parasite
(c) trophozoite (d) minuta form (d) Non-pathogenic
3. Trypanosoma belongs to class [1989] 9. African sleeping sickness is due to

[1991]
(a) Sarcodina (b) Zooflagellata
(c) Ciliata (d) Sporozoa (a) Plasmodium vivax transmitted by tse-tse
fly
4. Malaria fever coincides with liberation of (b) Trypanosoma lewsii transmitted by bed
(a) cryptomerozoites [1989] bug
(b) metacryptomerozoites (c) Trypanosoma gambiense transmitted by
(c) merozoites (d) trophozoites Glossina palpalis
5. Plasmodium, the malarial parasite, belongs to (d) Entamoeba gingivalis spread by house fly
class [1990] 10. Who discovered Plasmodium in RBC of
(a) Sarcodina (b) Ciliata human beings? [1991]
(c) Sporozoa (d) Dinophyceae (a) Ronald Ross (b) Mendel
6. Amoebiasis is prevented by [1990] (c) Laveran (d) Stephen
(a) eating balanced food 11. Malignant tertian malaria is caused by [1991]
(b) eating plenty of fruits (a) Plasmodium falciparum
(c) drinking boiled water (b) P. vivax
(d) using mosquito nets (c) P. ovale (d) P. malariae
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12. In Amoeba and Paramecium osmoregulation (d) contractile vacuole

occurs through [1991, 2002] 20. Which of the following organisms possesses
(a) pseudopodia (b) nucleus characteristics of both a plant and an animal?
(c) contractile vacuole (d) general surface (a) Bacteria (b) Mycoplasma [1995] (c)
Euglena (d) Paramecium
13. The part of life cycle of malarial parasite
Plasmodium vivax, that is passed in female 21. The chief advantage of encystment to an
Anopheles is [1992] Amoeba is [2003]
(a) sexual cycle (a) the chance to get rid of accumulated
(b) pre-erythrocytic schizogony waste products
(c) exo-erythrocytic schizogony (b) the ability to survive during adverse
(d) post-erythroeytic schizogony physical conditions
(c) the ability to live for some time without
14. If all ponds and puddles are destroyed, the
ingesting food
organism likely to be destroyed is [1993]
(d) protection from parasites and predators
(a) Leishmania (b) Trypanosoma
(c) Ascaris (d) Plasmodium 22. When a fresh water protozoan possessing a
contractile vacuole is placed in a glass
15. Entamoeba coli causes [1994] containing marine water, the vacuole will
(a) pyorrhoea (b) diarrhoea [2004]
(c) dysentery (d) None of these (a) increase in number (b) disappear
16. Protists obtain food as [1994] (c) increase in size (d) decrease in size
(a) photosynthesizers, symbionts and 23. What is common about Trypanosoma,
holotrophs Noctiluca, Monocystis and Giardia [2006]
(b) photosynthesizers (a) These are all unicellular protists
(c) chemosynthesizers (d) holotrophs (b) They have flagella
17. Protistan genome has [1994] (c) They produce spores
(a) membrane bound nucleoproteins (d) These are all parasites
embedded in cytoplasm 24. Single-celled eukaryotes are included in
(b) free nucleic acid aggregates
(a) Protista (b) Fungi [2010]
(c) gene containing nucleoproteins
(c) Archaea (d) Monera
condensed together in loose mass
(d) nucleoprotein in direct contact with cell 25. Which one of the following organisms is not
substance an example of eukaryotic cells ? [2011]
(a) Paramecium caudatum
18. Macro and micronucleus are the
(b) Escherichia coli (c) Euglena viridis
characteristic feature of [1995, 2002, 05]
(a) Paramecium and Vorticella
(b) Opalina and Nictotherus
(c) Hydra and Balantidium
(d) Vorticella and Nictotherus
19. Excretion in Amoeba occurs through[1995]
(a) lobopodia (b) uroid portion
(c) plasma membrane
(d) Amoeba proteus (d) Dinoflagellates

26. Which of the following sets of items in option 1-4 are correctly categorized with one exception in it?
[2012]
Items Category Exception
(a) Kangaroo, Koala, Wombat Australian marsupials Wombat
(b) Plasmodium, Cuscuta, Trypanosoma Protozoan parasites Cuscuta
(c) Typhoid, Pneumonia, Diphtheria Bacterial diseasesDiphtheria
(d) UAA, UAG, UGA Stop codons UAG
27. In which group of Answers
organisms the cells walls form two thin
overlapping shells which fit together? [RE- 28. Which of the following diseases is caused by a
AIPMT 2015] protozoan ? [RE-AIPMT 2015]
(a) Slime moulds (a) Blastomycosis
(b) Chrysophytes (b) Syphilis
(c) Euglenoids (c) Influenza
(d) Babesiosis
1 -b 2 -b 3 -b 4 -c 5 -c 6 -c 7 -a 8 -a 9 -c 10 -c
11 -a 12 -c 13 -a 14 -d 15 -b 16 -a 17 -a 18 -a 19 -d 20 -c
21 -b 22 -b 23 -a 24-a 25 -b 26 -b 27 -b 28 -d
cific 9
2C
BIOLOGICAL CLASSIFICATION – KINGDOM MONERA
1. Which one belongs to Monera? (d) easily multiplied in host
[1990]
8. Rickettsiae constitute a group under [1994]
(a) Amoeba (b) Escherichia
(a) bacteria (b) viruses
(c) Gelidium (d) Spirogyra
(c) independent group between bacteria and
2. A non-photosynthetic aerobic nitrogen fixing viruses
soil bacterium is [1990,94, 97] (d) fungi
(a) Rhizobium (b) Clostridium 9. The term antibiotic was first used by [1994]
(c) Azotobacter (d) Klebsiella (a) Fleming (b) Pasteur
3. The main difference in Gram (+)ve and Gram (c) Waksman (d) Lister
(-)ve bacteria resides in their [1990, 2001] 10. Temperature tolerance of thermal blue-green
(a) cell wall (b) cell membrane algae is due to [1994]
(c) cytoplasm (d) flagella (a) cell wall structure
4. Bacteria lack alternation of generation (b) cell organization
because there is [1991] (c) mitochondrial structure
(a) neither syngamy nor reduction division (d) homopolar bonds in their proteins
(b) distinct chromosomes are absent 11. Non-symbiotic nitrogen fixers are
(c) no conjugation [1994]
(d) no exchange of genetic material (a) Azotobacter (b) Pseudomonas
5. Name the organisms which do not derive (c) soil fungi (d) blue-green algae
energy directly or indirectly from sun 12. Nitrogen fixer soil organisms belong to
[1991]
[1994]
(a) chemosynthetic bacteria
(a) mosses (b) bacteria
(b) pathogenic bacteria
(c) green algae (d) soil fungi
(c) symbiotic bacteria
(d) mould 13. The plasmid [1995]
(a) helps in respiration
6. Genophore bacterial genome or nucleoid is
(b) genes found inside nucleus
made of [1993]
(c) is a component of cell wall of bacteria
(a) histones and nonhistones
(d) is the genetic part in addition to DNA in
(b) RNA and histones
micro-organisms
(c) a single double stranded DNA
(d) a single stranded DNA 14. Azotobacter and Bacillus polymyxa are the
examples of [1996]
7. Escherichia coli is used extensively in biological
(a) symbiotic nitrogen-fixers
research as it is [1993]
(b) non-symbiotic nitrogen-fixers
(a) easily cultured (b) easily available
(c) ammonifying bacteria
(c) easy to handle
(d) disease-causing bacteria
15. In bacterial chromosomes, the nucleic acid (d) physical contact between donor and
polymers are [1996] recipient strain
(a) linear DNA molecule 22. A few organisms are known to grow and
(b) circular DNA molecule multiply at temperatures of 100-105°C. They
(c) of two types-DNA and RNA belong to [1998]
(d) linear RNA molecule (a) marine archaebacteria
16. Sex factor in bacteria is [1996] (b) thermophilic sulphur bacteria
(a) chromosomal replicon (c) hot-spring blue-green algae
(b) F-replicon (cyanobacteria)
(c) RNA (d) sex-pilus (d) thermophilic, subaerial fungi
17. The site of respiration in bacteria is 23. Due to which of the following organisms, yield
[1997] of rice has been increased? [1998]
(a) episome (b) mesosome (a) Anabaena
(c) ribosome (d) microsome (b) Bacillus papilliae
(c) Sesbania
18. The hereditary material present in the
(d) Bacillus polymyxa
bacterium Escherichia coli is [1997,98]
24. Photosynthetic bacteria have pigments in
(a) single stranded DNA
[1999]
(b) deoxyribose sugar
(c) double stranded DNA (a) leucoplasts (b) chloroplasts
(d) single stranded.RNA (c) chromoplasts (d) chromatophores
19. The main role of bacteria in the carbon cycle 25. Plasmid is [2000,01]
involves [1998] (a) fragment of DNA which acts as vector
(a) photosynthesis (b) fragment which joins two genes
(b) chemosynthesis (c) mRNA which acts as carrier
(c) digestion or breakdown of organic (d) autotrophic fragment
compounds 26. What is true for cyanobacteria?
(d) assimilation of nitrogenous compounds [2001]
20. Two bacteria found to be very useful in genetic (a) Oxygenic with nitrogenase
engineering experiments are [1998] (b) Oxygenic without nitrogenase
(a) Escherichia and Agrobacterium (c) Non-oxygenic with nitrognase
(b) Nitrobacter and Azotobacter (c) Rhizobium (d) Non-oxygenic without nitrogenase
and Diplococcus
27. What is true for archaebacteria?
(d) Nitrosomonas and Klebsiella
[2001]
21. Transfer of genetic information from one (a) All halophiles (b) All photosynthetic
bacterium to another in the transduction (c) All fossils (d) Oldest living beings
process is through [1998]
28. The semilog of per minute growing bacteria is
(a) conjugation
plotted against time. What will be the shape of
(b) bacteriophages released from the donor
graph? [2002]
bacterial strain
(c) another bacterium (a) Sigmoid (b) Hyperbola
(c) Ascending straight line
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(d) Descending straight line (b) gall formation on certain angiosperms by

Agrobacterium
29. Which statement is correct for bacterial
transduction? [2002] (c) nodulation of Sesbania stems by nitrogen
fixing bacteria
(a) Transfer of some genes from one bacteria
(d) plant growth stimulation by phosphate
to another bacteria through virus
solublising bacteria
(b) Transfer of genes from one bacteria to
another bacteria by conjugation 35. Which one of the following pairs is not
(c) Bacteria obtained its DNA directly correctly matched? [2004]
(d) Bacteria obtained DNA from other external (a) Streptomyces — Antibiotic
source (b) Serratia — Drug addiction
30. In bacteria, plasmid is [2002] (c) Spirulina — Single cell protein
(d) Rhizobium — Biofertilizer
(a) extra-chromosomal material
(b) main DNA 36. For retting of jute the fermenting microbe
(c) non-functional DNA used is [2005]
(d) repetitive gene (a) Methophilic bacteria
(b) Butyric acid bacteria
31. Which bacteria is utilized in gobar gas plant?
(c) Helicobacter pylori
[2002]
(d) Streptococcus lactis
(a) Methanogens
(b) Nitrifying bacteria 37. All of the following statements concerning the
(c) Ammonifying bacteria Actinomycetes filamentous soil bacterium and
(d) Denitrifying bacteria Frankia are correct except that
Frankia [2005]
32. Choose the correct sequence of stages of (a) can induce root nodules on many plant
growth curve for bacteria [2002] species
(a) lag, log, stationary, decline phase (b) cannot fix nitrogen in the free-living state
(b) lag, log, stationary phase (c) forms specialized vesicles in which the
(c) stationary, lag, log, decline phase nitrogenase is protected from oxygen by a
(d) decline, lag, log phase chemical involving triterpene hepanoids
33. Chromosomes in a bacterial cell can be 1-3 in (d) like Rhizobium, it usually infects its host
number and [2003] plant through root hair deformation and
stimulates cell proliferation in the host’s
(a) can be circular as well as linear within the
cortex
same cell
38. Basophilic prokaryotes [2005]
(b) are always circular
(c) are always linear (a) grow slowly in highly alkaline frozen lakes
at high altiudes
(d) can be either circular or linear, but never
both within the same cell (b) occur in water containing high
concentrations of barium hydroxide
34. The most thoroughly studied of the known (c) grow and multiply in very deep marine
bacteria-plant interactions is the sediments
[2004]
(d) readily grown and divides in sea water
(a) cyanobacterial symbiosis with some enriched in any soluble salt of barium
aquatic ferns
39. Which antibiotic inhibits interaction between (b) archaebacteria that lack any histones
tRNA and mRNA during bacterial protein resembling those found in eukaryotes but
synthesis? [2006] whose DNA is negatively supercoiled
(a) Neomycin (b) Streptomycin (c) bacteria whose DNA is relaxed or positively
(c) Tetracycline (d) Erythromycin supercoiled but which have a cytoskeleton
as well as mitochondria
40. The bacterium (Clostridium botulinum) that
(d) bacteria that contain a cytoskeleton and
causes botulism is [2006]
ribosomes
(a) a facultative anaerobe
(b) an obligate anaerobe 45. Bacterial leaf blight of rice is caused by a
species of [2008]
(c) a facultative aerobe
(d) an obligate aerobe (a) Xanthomonas (b) Pseudomonas
(c) Alternaria (d) Erwinia
41. Which one of the following pairs is not correct
matched ? [2007] 46. Consider the following four measures (A-D)
that could be taken to successfully grow chick
(a) Methanogens — Gobar gas
pea in an area where bacterial blight disease is
(b) Yeast — Ethanol
common [2008]
(c) Streptomycetes — Antibiotic
(A) Spray with Bordeaux mixture
(d) Coliforms — Vinegar
(B) Control of the “insect vector of the disease
42. Which one of the following statements about pathogen”
mycoplasma is wrong ? [2007] (C) Use of only disease-free seeds
(a) They are also called PPLO (D) Use of varieties resistant to the disease
(b) They are pleomorphic Which two of the above measures can
(c) They are sensitive to penicillin control the disease?
(d) They cause disease in plants (a) B and C (b) A and B
43. In the light of recent classification of living (c) C and D (d) A and D
organisms into three domains of life (bacteria, 47. Membrane-bound organelles are absent in :
archaea and eukarya), which one of the [Pre. 2010]
following statement is true about archaea?
(a) Saccharomyces (b) Streptococcus
[2008]
(c) Chlamydomonas (d) Plasmodium
(a) Archaea resemble eukarya in all respects
(b) Archaea have some novel features that are 48. Some hyperthermophilic organisms that grow
in highly acidic (pH=2) habitats belong to the
absent in other prokaryotes and
eukaryotes two groups: [Pre. 2010]
(c) Archaea completely differ from both (a) Eubacteria and archaea
prokaryotes and eukaryotes (b) Cyanobacteria and diatoms
(d) Archaea completely differ from (c) Protists and mosses
prokaryotes (d) Liverworts and yeasts
44. Thermococcus, Methanococcus and 49. Which one of the following is a wrong
Methanobacterium exemplify [2008] matching of a microbe and its industrial
product, while the remaining three are correct
(a) archaebacteria that contain protein
? [Pre. 2011]
homologous to eukaryotic core histones
(a) Aspergillus niger - citric acid
(b) Yeast – Statins
er Specific 13
(c) Acetobacter aceti - acetic acid 56. Maximum nutritional diversity is found in the
(d) Clostridium butylicum - lactic acid group [Pre. 2012]
50. Which of the following are used in gene (a) Monera (b) Plantae
cloning ? [Mains 2010] (c) Fungi (d) Animalia
(a) Lomasomes (b) Mesosmes 57. Nuclear membrane is absent in [Pre. 2012]
(c) Plasmids (d) Nucleoids (a) Volvox (b) Nostoc
51. Which one of the following cannot be used for (c) Penicillium (d) Agaricus
preparation of vaccines against plague ? 58. Which one of the following does not differ in
[Mains 2010] E.coli and Chlamydomonas ? [Pre. 2012]
(a) Avirulent live bacteria (a) Cell wall (b) Cell membrane
(b) Synthetic capsular polysaccharide material (c) Ribosomes
(c) Heat-killed suspension of virulent bacteria (d) Chromosomal Organization
(d) Formalin-inactivated suspensions of
59. The cyanobacteria are also referred to as
virulent bacteria
(a) Slime moulds [Pre. 2012]
52. Select the correct combination of the
(b) Blue green algae
statement (a-d) regarding the characteristics
(c) Protists (d) Golden algae
of cer-
tain organisms – [Mains 2010] 60. The most abundant prokaryotes helpful to
(1) Methanogens are Archaebacteria which humans in making curd from milk and in
produce methane in marshy areas production of antibiotics are ones categorised
(2) Nostoc is filamentous blue-green alga as [Pre. 2012]
which fixes atmospheric nitrogen (a) Chemosynthetic autotrophs
(3) Chemosynthetic autotrophic bacteria (b) Heterotrophic bacteria
synthesize cellulose from glucose (c) Cyanobacteria
(4) Mycoplasma lack cell wall and can survive (d) Archaebacteria
without oxygen The correct statements 61. Besides paddy fields, cyanobacteria are also
are : found inside vegetative part of [2013]
(a) (1), (2), (3) (b) (2), (3), (4)
(a) Pinus (b) Cycas
(c) (1), (2), (4) (d) (2), (3)
(c) Equisetum (d) Psilotum
53. A prokaryotic autotrophic nitrogen fixing
62. Pigment-containing membranous extensions
symbiont is found in [Pre. 2011]
in some cyanobacteria are [2013]
(a) Alnus (b) Cycas
(a) Heterocysts (b) Basal bodies
(c) Cicer (d) Pisum
(c) Pneumatophores (d) Chromatophores
54. In eubacteria, a cellular component that
63. Which of the following are likely to be present
resemble eukaryotic cell is :- [Pre. 2011]
in deep sea water ? [2013]
(a) Plasma membrane (b) Nucleus
(a) Archaebacteria (b) Eubacteria
(c) Ribosomes (d) Cell wall
(c) Blue-green algae
55. Organisms called Methanogens are most (d) Saprophytic fungi
abundant in a [Pre. 2011]
64. Archaebacteria differ from eubacteria in
(a) Sulphur rock (b) Cattle yard
[AIPMT 2014]
(c) Polluted stream (d) Hot spring
(a) Cell membrane structure
(b) Mode of nutrition 68. Cell wall is absent in : [RE-AIPMT 2015]

(c) Cell shape (a) Nostoc (b) Aspergillus
(d) Mode of reproduction (c) Funaria (d) Mycoplasma
65. Which one of the following living organisms 69. The structures that help some bacteria to
completely lacks a cell wall?[AIPMT 2014] (a) attach to rocks and/or host tissues are :
Cyanobacteria (b) Sea - fan (Gorgonia) [RE-AIPMT 2015]
(c) Saccharomyces (a) Holdfast (b) Rhizoids (c) Fimbriae (d)
(d) Blue - green algae Mesosomes
66. The motile bacteria are able to move by 70. Pick up the wrong statement :
[AIPMT 2014] [RE-AIPMT 2015]
(a) Fimbriae (b) Flagella (a) Nuclear membrane is present in Monera
(c) Cilia (d) Pili Answers (b) Cell wall is absent in Animalia
(c) Protista have photosynthetic and
heterotrophic modes of nutrition
67. True nucleus
is absent in : [AIPMT 2015] (d) Some fungi are edible
(a) Mucor (b) Vaucheria (c) Volvox (d)
Anabaena
1 -b 2 -c 3 -a 4 -a 5 -a 6 -c 7 -a 8 -a 9 -c 10 -a
11 -a 12 -b 13 -d 14 -b 15 -b 16 -b 17 -b 18 -c 19 -c 20 -a
21 -b 22 -a 23 -a 24 -d 25 -a 26 -a 27 -d 28 -c 29 -a 30 -a
31 -a 32 -a 33 -b 34 -b 35 -b 36 -b 37 -b 38 -c 39 -a 40 -b 41 -d 42 -c 43 -b 44 -a 45 -a 46 -c 47 -b 48 -a 49
-d 50 -c
51 -c 52 -c 53 -b 54 -a 55 -b 56 -a 57 -b 58 -b 59 -b 60 -b 61 -b 62 -d 63 -a 64 - a 65 -b 66 - b 67 - d 68 - d
69 - c 70 -a
2D
BIOLOGICAL CLASSIFICATION – KINGDOM
FUNGI
1. Absorptive heterotrophic nutrition is exhibited (a) they parasitise cereals
by [1990] (b) mycelium is black
(a) algae (b) fungi (c) they develop sooty masses of spores
(c) bryophytes (d) pteridophytes (d) affected parts become completely black
2. Ustilago caused plant diseases are called 3. Decomposers are organisms that
smuts because [1994] [1994]
er Specific 15
(a) elaborate chemical substances, causing (c) uredia and aecia on barbery leaves
death of tissues (d) uredia and pycnia on barbery leaves
(b) operate in living body and simplifying 11. Black rust of wheat is caused by
organic substances of cells step by step [2000]
(c) attack and kill plants as well as animals (a) Puccinia
(d) operate in relay terms, simplifying step by (b) Mucor
step the organic constituents of dead body (c) Aspergillus
4. Claviceps purpurea is causal organism of (d) Rhizopus
[1994] 12. In fungi stored food material is [2000]
(a) smut of barley (a) glycogen
(b) rust of wheat (b) starch
(c) ergot of rye (c) sucrose
(d) powdery mildew of pea (d) glucose
5. The chemical compounds produced by the 13. Adhesive pad of fungi penetrates the host with
host plants to protect themselves against fun- the help of [2001]
gal infection is [1995] (a) mechanical pressure and enzymes
(a) phytotoxin (b) pathogen (b) hooks and suckers
(c) phytoalexins (d) hormone (c) softening by enzymes
6. White rust disease is caused by [1995] (d) only by mechanical pressure
(a) Claviceps (b) Alternaria 14. Plant decomposers are [2001]
(c) Phytophthora (d) Albugo candida (a) Monera and Fungi
7. Most of the lichens consist of [1997] (b) Fungi and Plants
(a) blue-green algae and Basidomycetes (c) Protista and Animalia
(b) blue-green algae and Ascomycetes (d) Animalia and Monera
(c) red algae and Ascomycetes 15. During the formation of bread it becomes
(d) brown algae and Phycomycetes porous due to release of CO2 by the action of
8. Yeast-Saccharomyces cerevisiae is used in the [2002]
industrial production of [1998] (a) yeast (b) bacteria
(a) citric acid (b) tetracycline (c) virus (d) protozoans
(c) ethanol (d) butanol 16. Which fungal disease spreads by seed and
9. Which one of the following micro-organisms is flowers? [2002]
used for production of citric acid in industries? (a) Loose smut of wheat
[1998] (b) Corn stunt
(a) Penicillium citrinum (c) Covered smut of barley
(b) Aspergillus niger (d) Soft rot of potato
(c) Rhizopus nigricans 17. Which of the following environmental
(d) Lactobacillus bulgaricus conditions are essential for optimum growth
10. Puccinia forms [1998] of
(a) uredia and aecia on wheat leaves Mucor on a piece of bread? [2006]
(b) uredia and telia on wheat leaves (i) Temperature of about 25ºC
(ii) Temperature of about 5°C
(iii) Relative humidity of about 5% (a) Pythium

(iv) Relative humidity of about 95% (b) Xanthomonas
(v) A shady place (c) Pseudomonas
(vi) A brightly illuminated place (d) Saccharomyces
Choose the answer from the following options 24. Which one is the wrong pairing for the disease
(a) (i), (iv) and (v) only and its causal organism ? [2009]
(b) (ii), (iv) and (v) only
(a) Loose smut of wheat - Ustilago nuda
(c) (ii), (iii) and (vi) only
(b) Root-knot of vegetables - Meloidogyne sp
(d) (i), (iii) and (v) only
(c) Late blight of potato - Alternaria solani (d)
18. The thalloid body of a slime mold Black rust of wheat - Puccinia graminis
(Myxomycetes) is known as [2006]
25. An example of endomycorrhiza is ?
(a) Plasmodium [Mains 2010]
(b) fruiting body
(a) Glomus (b) Agaricus
(c) mycelium
(c) Rhizobium (d) Nostoc
(d) protonema
26. Black (stem) rust of wheat is caused by
19. Ergot of rye is caused by a species of [2007]
[Mains 2010]
(a) Phytophthora
(a) Ustilago nuda
(b) Uncinula
(b) Puccinia graminis
(c) Ustilago
(c) Xanthomonas oryzae
(d) Claviceps
(d) Alternaria solani
20. Which pair of the following belongs to
27. Ethanol is commercially produced through a
Basidiomycetes? [2007]
particular species of [Pre. 2011]
(a) Birds nest fungi and Pufballs
(a) Saccharomyces
(b) Pufballs and Claviceps (c) Peziza and Stink
(b) Clostridium
horns
(c) Trichoderma
(d) Morchella and Mushrooms
(d) Aspergillus
21. Which of the following is a slime mold?
28. Which one of the following is wrongly matched
[2007]
[Pre. 2011]
(a) Rhizopus
(a) Root pressure – Guttation
(b) Physarum
(b) Puccinia – Smut
(c) Thiobacillus
(c) Root – Exarch
(d) Anabaena
(d) Cassia - Imbricate aestivation
22. Trichoderma harzianum has proved a useful
29. Yeast is used in the production of
micro-organism for [2008]
(a) Bread and beer [Pre. 2012]
(a) bioremediation of contaminated soils
(b) Cheese and butter
(b) reclamation of wastelands
(c) Citric acid and lactic acid
(c) gene transfer in higher plants
(d) Lipase and pectinase
(d) biological control of soil-borne plant
pathogens 30. Which one single organism or the pair of
organisms is correctly assigned to its or their
23. Cellulose is the major component of cell walls
named taxonomic group ? [Pre. 2012]
of [2008]
er Specific 17
(a) Yeast used in making bread and beer is a (d) Phytophthora - Aseptate mycelium
fungus Basidiomycetes
(b) Nostoc and Anabaena are examples of 35. The imperfect fungi which are decomposers of
protista litter and help in mineral cycling belong to :
(c) Paramecium and Plasmodium belong to [RE-AIPMT 2015]
the same kingdom as that of Penicillium
(a) Ascomycetes (b) Deuteromycetes
(d) Lichen is a composite organism formed
(c) Basidiomycetes (d) Phycomycetes
from the symbiotic association of an algae
36. Which the following are most suitable
and a protozoan
indicator of SO2 pollution in the environment?
31. Monascus purpureus is a yeast used [RE-AIPMT 2015]
commercial in the production of [Pre. 2012] (a) Fungi (b) Lichens
(a) Citric acid (c) Conifers (d) Algae
(b) Blood chlolesterol lowering statins
37. Which one is a wrong statement ?
(c) Ethanol
[RE-AIPMT 2015]
(d) Streptokinase for removing clots from the
blood vessels. (a) Brown algae have chlorophyll a and c,and
fucoxanthin
32. A good producer of citric acid is (b) Archegonia are found in
[2013] Bryophyta,Pteridophyta and
(a) Aspergillus Gymnosperms
(b) Pseudomonas (c) Mucor has biflagellate zoospores
(c) Clostridium
(d) Saccharomyces
Answers
33. Which one of the following fungi contains
hallucinogens? [AIPMT 2014] (d) Haploid endosperm is typical feature of
gymnosperms
(a) Morchella esculenta (b) Amanita muscaria
(c) Neurospora sp. (d) Ustilago sp. 38. Choose the wrong statement :
[RE-AIPMT 2015]
34. Which one one of the following matches is
correct ? [AIPMT 2015] (a) Yeast is unicellular and useful in
fermentation
(a) Alternaria - Sexual reproduction absent
Deuteromycetes (b) Penicillium is multicellular and produces
antibiotics
(b) Mucor - Reproduction by Conjugation
Ascomycetes (c) Neurospora is used in the study
(c) Agaricus - Parasitic fungus Basidiomycetes ofbiochemical genetics
(d) Morels and truffles are
poisonousmushrooms
1-b 2-c 3-d 4-c 5-c 6-d 7-b 8-c 9-b 10-b
11-a 12-a 13-a 14-a 15-a 16-a 17-a 18-a 19-d 20-a
21-b 22-d 23-a 24-c 25-a 26-b 27-a 28-b 29-a 30-a
31-b 32-a 33-b 34-a 35-b 36-b 37-c 38-d
2E
BIOLOGICAL CLASSIFICATION – VIRUS
1. Reverse transcriptase is [1994] (a) double stranded RNA
(a) RNA dependent RNA polymerase (b) single stranded RNA
(b) DNA dependent RNA polymerase (c) polyribonucleotides
(c) DNA dependent DNA polymerase (d) proteinaceous
(d) RNA dependent DNA polymerase 3. Interferons are [1996]
2. Tobacco Mosaic Virus (TMV) genes are (a) antiviral proteins
[1994] (b) antibacterial proteins
(c) anticancer proteins
(d) complex proteins
r Specific 19
4. In which one of the following pairs of diseases (c) viruses (d) fungi
both are caused by viruses? [1996]
11. Which one of the following statements about
(a) Tetanus and typhoid viruses is correct? [2003]
(b) Whooping cough and sleeping sickness (a) Nucleic acid of viruses is known as capsid
(c) Syphilis and AIDS (b) Viruses possess their own metabolic
(d) Measles and rabies system
5. Influenza virus has [1996] (c) All viruses contain both RNA and DNA (d)
Viruses are obligate parasites
(a) DNA
(b) RNA 12. Viruses are no more “alive” than isolated
(c) Both (a) and (b) chromosomes because [2003]
(d) only proteins and no nucleic acids (a) both require the environment of a cell to
6. Which one of the following statements about replicate
viruses is correct? [1997] (b) they require both RNA and DNA
(a) Viruses possess their own metabolic (c) they both need food molecules
system (d) they both require oxygen for respiration
(b) Viruses contain either DNA or RNA 13. Tobacco mosaic virus is a tubular filament of
(c) Viruses are facultative parasites size [2003]
(d) Viruses are readily killed by antibiotics (a) 700 × 30 nm (b) 300 × 10 nm
7. Human Immunodeficiency Virus (HIV) has a (c) 300 × 5 nm (d) 300 × 18 nm
protein coat and a genetic material which is 14. Which of the following statements is not true
[1998] for retroviruses? [2004]
(a) single stranded DNA (b) single stranded (a) DNA is not present at any stage in the life
RNA cycle of retroviruses
(c) double stranded RNA (d) (b) Retroviruses carry gene for RNA
double stranded DNA dependent DNA polymerase
8. Small proteins produced by vertebrate cells (c) The genetic material in mature
naturally in response to viral infections and retroviruses is RNA
which inhibit multiplication of viruses are (d) Retroviruses are causative agents for
called [2000] certain kinds of cancer in man
(a) immunoglobulins 15. Viruses that infect bacteria, multiply and
(b) interferons cause their lysis, are called [2004]
(c) antitoxins (a) lysozymes (b) lytic
(d) lipoproteins (c) lipolytic (d) lysogenic
9. Cauliflower mosaic virus contains 16. The causative agent of mad-cow disease is a
[2001] [2006]
(a) ssRNA (a) bacterium (b) prion
(b) dsRNA (c) dsDNA (c) worm (d) virus
(d) ssDNA 17. Which of the following is a pair of viral
10. Interferons are synthesized in response to diseases ? [2009]
[2001] (a) Dysentery, Common cold
(a) mycoplasma (b) bacteria (b) Typhoid, Tuberculosis
(c) Ringworm, AIDS (c) Fungus (d) Viroid

(d) Common cold, AIDS 24. Common cold is not cured by antibiotics
18. T.O. Diener discovered a : [2009] because it is: [Mains 2011]
(a) Infectious protein (a) not an infectious disease
(b) Bacteriophage (b) caused by a virus
(c) Free infectious RNA (c) caused by a Gram-positive bacterium (d)
(d) Free infectious DNA caused by a Gram-negative bacterium
19. Virus envelope is known as: [Pre. 2010] 25. Which statement is wrong for viruses ?
(a) Capsid (b) Virion [Pre. 2012]
(c) Nucleoprotein (d) Core (a) They have ability to synthesize nucleic
acids and proteins
20. Which one of the following does not follow
(b) Antibiotics have no effect on them
the central dogma of molecular biology?
[Pre. 2010] (c) All are parasites
(d) All of them have helical symmetry
(a) Pea (b) Mucor
(c) Chlamydomonas (d) HIV 26. Which part would be most suitable for raising
virus-free plants for micropropagation? [Pre.
21. Infectious proteins are present in : [Pre. 2010]
2012]
(a) Gemini viruses (b) Prions
(a) Meristem
(c) Viroids (d) Satellite viruses
(b) Node
22. Given below is the diagram of a (c) Bark
bacteriophage. In which one of the options all (d) Vascular tissue
the four parts A, B, C and D are correct ?
27. Which of the following shows coiled RNA
[Mains 2010]
strand and capsomeres? [AIPMT 2014]
(a) Polio virus
(b) Tobacco mosaic virus
(c) Measles virus
(d) Retrovirus
28. Viruses have [AIPMT 2014]
(a) DNA enclosed in a protein coat
(b) Prokaryotic nucleus
(c) Single chromosome
Options : (d) Both DNA and RNA
A B C D 29. Select the wrong statement :
(1) Sheath Collar Head Tail fibres [RE-AIPMT 2015]
(2) Head Sheath Collar Tail fibres
(a) Mosaic disease in tobacco and AIDS in
(3) Collar Tail fibres Head Sheath
human being are caused by viruses
(4) Tail fibres Head Sheath Collar
(b) The viroids were discovered by D.J.
23. The unequivocal proof of DNA as the genetic
Ivanowski
material came from the studies on a :
(c) W.M. Stanley showed that viruses could
[Mains 2011]
be crystallized
(a) Bacterial virus (b) Bacterium
r Specific 21
(d) The term 'contagium vivum fluidum' was [1990]

coined by M.W. Beijerinek
3
PLANT KINGDOM
1. In Pinus / gymnosperms, the haploid (a) lower part (b) upper part
structure are [1989] (c) middle part (d) fertile part
(a) megaspore, endosperm and embryo 6. Protonema occurs in the life cycle of
(b) megaspore, pollen grain and endosperm [1990, 93]
(c) megaspore, integument and root (a) Riccia
10-
11- 12- 13- 14- 15- 16- 17- 18- 19- 20-
21- 22- 23- 24- 25- 26- 27- 28- 29-
(d) pollen grain, leaf and root (b) Funaria
2. Sperms of both Funaria and Pteris were (c) Chlamydomonas
released together near the archegonia of (d) Spirogyra
Pteris. 7. The product of conjugation in Spirogyra or
Only Pteris sperms enter the archegonia as fertilization of Chlamydomonas is [1991]
[1989] (a) zygospore (b) zoospore
(a) Pteris archegonia repel Funaria sperms (c) oospore (d) carpospore
(b) Funaria sperms get killed by Pteris
8. The common mode of sexual reproduction in
sperms
Chlamydomonas is [1991]
(c) Funaria sperms are less mobile
(a) isogamous (b) anisogamous
(d) Pteris archegonia release chemical to
attract its sperms (c) oogamous (d) hologamous
9. Which one has the largest gametophyte?
3. Evolutionary important character of
Selaginella is [1989] [1991]
(a) heterosporous nature (a) Cycas (b) Angiosperm
(b) rhizophore (c) Selaginella (d) Moss
(c) strobili 10. Bryophytes are amphibians because
(d) ligule [1991, 96]
4. Moss peristome takes part in [1990] (a) they require a layer of water for carrying
(a) spore dispersal (b) photosynthesis out sexual reproduction
(b) they occur in damp places
(c) protection (d) absorption
(c) they are mostly aquatic
5. Apophysis in the capsule of Funaria is
(d) All of the above (a) independent gametophyte

11. The plant group that produces spores and (b) well developed vascular system
embryo but lacks vascular tissues and seeds (c) archegonia
is [1992] (d) flagellate spermatozoids
(a) Pteridophyta (b) Rhodophyta 19. Pyrenoids are the centres for formation of
(c) Bryophyta (d) Phaeophyta [1993]
(a) porphyra (b) enzymes
12. In Pinus, the pollen grain has 6 chromosomes
(c) fat (d) starch
then its endosperm will have the
chromosome [1992] 20. Chloroplast of Chlamydomonas is [1993]
(a) 12 (b) 18 (a) stellate (b) cup-shaped
(c) 6 (d) 24 (c) collar-shaped (d) spiral
13. A plant having seeds but lacking flowers and 21. Pinus differs from mango in having [1993]
fruits belongs to [1992] (a) tree habit
(a) pteridophytes (b) green leaves
(b) mosses (c) ovules not enclosed in ovary
(c) ferns (d) wood
(d) gymnosperms 22. Which one is the most advanced from
evolutionary point of view? [1993]
14. Resin and terpentine are obtained from
[1992] (a) Selaginella
(b) Funaria
(a) Cycas (b) Pinus (c) Cedrus (d) Abies
(c) Chlamydomonas
15. Which one of the following is not common (d) Pinus
between Funaria and Selaginella? [1992]
23. The ‘wing’ of Pinus seed is derived from
(a) Archegonium
[1994]
(b) Embryo
(c) Flagellate sperms (a) testa
(d) Roots (b) testa and tegmen
(c) surface of ovuliferous scale
16. A plant in which sporophytic generation is
(d) All of the above
represented by zygote is [1992]
24. Unique features of bryophytes is that they
(a) Pinus
[1994]
(b) Selaginella
(c) Chlamydomonas (a) produce spores
(d) Dryopteris (b) have sporophyte attached to
gametophyte
17. In Ulothrix / Spirogyra, reduction division
(c) lack roots
(meiosis) occurs at the time of [1993]
(d) lack vascular tissues
(a) gamete formation
25. In Chlorophyceae, sexual reproduction occurs
(b) zoospore formation
by [1994]
(c) zygospore germination
(a) isogamy and anisogamy
(d) vegetative reproduction
(b) isogamy, anisogamy and oogamy
18. Pteridophytes differ from mosses / (c) oogamy only
bryophytes in possessing [1993]
(d) anisogamy and oogamy
r Specific 23
26. Which of the following cannot fix nitrogen? 33. In which one of these the elaters are present
[1994] along with mature spores in the capsule (to
(a) Nostoc (b) Azotobacter help in spore dispersal)? [1996]
(c) Spirogyra (d) Anabaena (a) Riccia
27. A well developed archegonium with neck (b) Marchantia
consisting of 4-6 rows of neck canal cells, (c) Funaria (d) Sphagnum
characterises [1995] 34. Ulothrix filaments produce [1997]
(a) gymnosperms only (a) isogametes
(b) bryophytes and pteridophytes (b) anisogametes
(c) pteridophytes and gymnosperms (c) heterogametes
(d) gymnosperms and flowering plants (d) basidiospores
28. Agar is commercially obtained from [1995] 35. An alga very rich in protein is [1997]
(a) red algae (a) Spirogyra
(b) green algae (b) Ulothrix
(c) brown algae (c) Oscillatoria
(d) blue-green algae (d) Chlorella
29. The absence of chlorophyll, in the lowermost 36. Bryophytes can be separated from algae
cell of Ulothrix, shows [1995] because they [1997]
(a) functional fission (a) are thalloid forms
(b) tissue formation (b) have no conducting tissue
(c) cell characteristic (c) possess archegonia with outer layer of
(d) beginning of labour division sterile cells
(d) contain chloroplasts in their cells
30. The plant body of moss (Funaria) is
[1995, 2006] 37. Which one of the following is a living fossil?
(a) completely sporophyte [1997]
(b) completely gametophyte (a) Pinus longifolia
(c) predominantly sporophyte with (b) Dalbergia sissoo
gametophyte (c) Mirabilis
(d) predominantly gametophyte with (d) Ginkgo biloba
sporophyte
38. Brown algae is characterized by the presence
31. Which one of the following is a living fossil? of [1997]
[1996] (a) phycocyanin
(a) Pinus (b) Opuntia (b) phycoerythrin
(c) Ginkgo (d) Thuja (c) fucoxanthin
32. Blue-green algae belong to [1996] (d) haematochrome
(a) eukaryotes 39. Multicellular branched rhizoids and leafy
(b) prokaryotes gametophytes are characteristics of [1997]
(c) Rhodophyceae (a) all bryophytes
(d) Chlorophyceae (b) some bryophytes (c) all pteridophytes
(d) some pteridophytes
40. Bryophytes are dependent on water because
[1998] (d) All of the above

(a) water is essential for fertilization for their 46. The “walking fern” is so named because
homosporous nature [1998]
(b) water is essential for their vegetative
(a) it is dispersed through the agency of
propagation
walking animals
(c) the sperms can easily reach upto egg in
(b) it propagates vegetatively by its leaf tips
the archegonium
(c) it knows how to walk by itself
(d) archegonium has to remain filled with
(d) its spores are able to walk
water for fertilization
47. The antherozoids of Funaria are
[1999]
Cycas is incorrect? [1998]
(a) aciliated
(a) It does not have a well-organised female
(b) biflagellated
flower
(c) multiciliated
(b) It has circinate vernation
(d) monociliated
(c) Its xylem is mainly composed of xylem
vessels 48. Dichotomous branching is found in [1999]
(d) Its roots contain some blue-green algae (a) fern (b) Funaria
42. Largest sperms in the plant world are found in (c) liverworts (d) Marchantia
[1998] 49. In which of the following would you place the
(a) Pinus (b) Banyan plants having vascular tissue, lacking seeds?
(c) Cycas (d) Thuja [1999]
(a) Algae (b) Bryophytes
43. Ulothrix can be described as a [1998]
(c) Pteridophytes (d) Gymnosperms
(a) non-motile colonial alga lacking
zoospores 50. Columella is a specialised structure found in
(b) filamentous alga lacking flagellated the sporangium of [1999]
reproductive stages (a) Ulothrix (b) Rhizopus
(c) membranous alga producing zoospores (c) Spirogyra (d) None of these
(d) filamentous alga with flagellated 51. The largest ovules, largest male and female
reproductive stages gametes and largest plants are found among
44. Bryophytes comprise [1999] [2000]
(a) sporophyte of longer duration (a) angiosperms
(b) dominant phase of sporophyte which is (b) tree ferns and some monocots
parasitic (c) gymnosperms
(c) dominant phase of gametophyte which (d) dicotyledonous plants
produces spores
52. A research student collected certain alga and
(d) small sporophyte phase generally found that its cells contained both
parasitic on gametophyte chlorophyll-a and chlorophyll-d as well as
45. Which of the following is true about phycoerythrin. The alga belongs to [2000]
bryophytes? [1999] (a) Rhodophyceae
(a) They possess archegonia (b) They contain (b) Bacillariophyceae
chloroplast (c) Chlorophyceae
(c) They are thalloid (d) Phaeophyceae
r Specific 25
53. In ferns meiosis occurs when [2000] 60. Sexual reproduction in Spirogyra is an
(a) spore germinates advanced feature because it shows [2003] (a)
(b) gametes are formed physiologically differentiated sex organs
(c) spores are formed (b) different size of motile sex organs
(d) antheridia and archegonia are formed (c) same size of motile sex organs
54. Cycas has two cotyledons but not included in (d) morphologically different sex organs
angiosperms because of [2001] 61. Which one of the following is categorised
(a) naked ovules under living fossils? [2003,04]
(b) seems like monocot (a) Selaginella (b) Pinus
(c) circinate ptyxis (c) Cycas (d) Metasequoia
(d) compound leaves
62. Which of the following propagates through
55. Which of the following is without exception in leaf-tip? [2004]
angiosperms? [2002] (a) Walking fern
(a) Presence of vessels (b) Sproux-leaf plant
(b) Double fertilization (c) Marchantia
(c) Secondary growth (d) Moss
(d) Autotrophic nutrition
63. Match items in column-I with those in column-
56. Which of the following plants produces seeds II [2005]
but not flowers? [2002] Column I Column II
(a) Maize (b) Mint A. Peritrichous 1. Ginkgo flagellation
(c) Peepal (d) Pinus B. Living fossil 2. Macrocystis
57. Which one the following pairs of plants are not C. Rhizophore 3. Escherichia coli
seed producers? [2003] D. Smallest flow- 4. Selaginella ering plant
(a) Ficus and Chlamydomonas E. Largest peren- 5. Wolffia nial alga
(b) Punica and Pinus A B C D E
(c) Fern and Funaria (a) 3 1 4 5 2
(d) Funaria and Ficus (b) 2 1 3 4 5
(c) 5 3 2 5 1
58. Which one of the following is categorised
(d) 1 2 5 3 2
under living fossils? [2003]
(a) Metasequoia 64. Which one of the following is a living fossil?
(b) Pinus (c) Cycas [2004]
(d) Selaginella (a) Cycas
(b) Moss
59. Which one pair of examples will correctly
(c) Saccharomyces
represent the grouping spermatophyta
(d) Spirogyra
according to one of the schemes of classifying
plants? [2003] 65. A free living nitrogen-fixing cyanobacterium
(a) Rhizopus, Triticum which can also form symbiotic association
(b) Ginkgo, Pisum with the water fern Azolla is [2004]
(c) Acacia, Sugarcane (a) Tolypothrix
(d) Pinus, Cycas (b) Chlorella
(c) Nostoc
(d) Anabaena (d) it is easily available

66. Angiosperms have dominated the land flora 72. Flagellated male gametes are present in all the
primarily because of their [2004] three of which one of the following sets ?
(a) power of adaptability in diverse habitat [2007]
(b) property of producing large number of (a) Anthoceros, Funaria and Spirogyra
seeds (b) Zygnema, Saprolegnia and Hydrilla
(c) nature of some pollination (c) Fucus, Marsilea and Calotropis
(d) domestication by man (d) Riccia, Dryopteris and Cycas
67. Ectophloic siphonostele is found in [2005] 73. In gymnosperms, the pollen chamber
(a) Adiantum and Cucurbitaceae represents [2007]
(b) Osmunda and Equisetum (a) a cell in the pollen grain in which the
(c) Marsilea and Botrychium sperms are formed
(d) Dicksonia and Maiden hair fern (b) a cavity in the ovule in which pollen grains
are stored after pollination
68. Top-shaped, multiciliate male gametes and
(c) an opening in the megagametophyte
the mature seed which bears only one embryo
through which the pollen tube
with two cotyledons, are characteristic
approaches the egg
features of [2005]
(d) the microsporangium in which pollen
(a) polypetalous angiosperms grains develop
(b) gamopetalous angiosperms
74. If you are asked to classify the various algae
(c) conifers
into distinct groups, which of the following
(d) cycads
characters you should choose? [2007]
69. In which one pair both the plants can be (a) Types of pigments present in the cell
vegetatively propagated by leaf pieces? (b) Nature of stored food materials in the cell
[2005] (c) Structural organization of thallus
(a) Bryophyllum and Kalanchoe (d) Chemical composition of the cell wall
(b) Chrysanthemum and Agave
75. In the prothallus of a vascular cryptogam, the
(c) Agave and Kalanchoe
antherozoids and eggs mature at different
(d) Asparagus and Bryophyllum times, as a result [2007]
70. Conifers differ from grasses in the (a) there is no change in success rate of
[2006] fertilization
(a) lack of xylem tracheids (b) there is high degree of sterility
(b) absence of pollen tubes (c) one can conclude that the plant is
(c) formation of endosperm before apomictic
fertilization (d) self fertilization is prevented
(d) production of seeds from ovules 76. Spore dissemination in some liverworts is
71. Peat moss is used as a packing material for aided by [2007]
sending flowers and live plants to distant (a) elaters (b) indusium
places because [2006] (c) calyptra
(a) it is hygroscopic (d) peristome teeth
(b) it reduces transpiration
(c) it serves as a disinfectant
r Specific 27
77. In which one of the following, male and female (b) Papaya
gametophytes don’t have free living (c) Marchantia
independent existence? [2008] (d) Pinus
(a) Pteris (b) Funaria 84. Which one of the following has haplontic life
(c) Polytrichum (d) Cedrus cycle? [2009]
78. Replum is present in the ovary of flower of (a) Ustilago (b) Wheat
[2008] (c) Funaria (d) Potytrichum
(a) lemon (b) mustard 85. Mannitol is the stored food in: [2009]
(c) sunflower (d) pea (a) Fucus (b) Gracillaria
79. Select one of the following pairs of important (c) Chara (d) Porphyria
features distinguishing Gnetum from Cycas
86. Algae have cell wall made up of
and Pinus and showing affinities with
[Pre. 2010]
angiosperms [2008]
(a) Cellulose, galactans and mannans
(a) absence of resin duct and leaf venation
(b) Hemicellulose, pectins and proteins
(b) presence of vessel elements and absence
of archegonia (c) Pectins, cellulose and proteins
(c) perianth and two integuments (d) Cellulose, hemicellulose and pectins
(d) embryo development and apical 87. Examine the figure A, B, C and D. In which one
meristem of the four options all the items A, B, C
and D are correct ? [Mains 2010]
80. Which one of the following is heterosporous?
[2008]
(a) Dryopteris
(b) Salvinia
(c) Adiantum
(d) Equisetum
81. Which one of the following is considered
important in the development of seed habit ?
[2009]
(a) Haplontic life cycle
(b) Free-living gametophyte
(c) Dependent sporophyte
(d) Heterospory
82. Which one of the following is a vascular
cryptogam? [2009]
(a) Marchantia
(b) Cedrus
(c) Equisetum
(d) Ginkgo
Options :
83. Which one of the following plants is
A B C D
monoecious ? [2009]
(1) Equisetum Ginkgo Selaginella Lycopodium
(a) Cycas
(2) Selaginella Equisetum Salvinia tend to be [Pre. 2011]

Ginkgo (a) Smaller but to have larger sex organs
(3) Funaria AdiantumSalvinia Riccia
(b) Larger but to have smaller sex organs
(4) Chara Marchantia Fucus Pinus
(c) Larger and to have larger sex organs
88. Examine the figures (A-D) given below and (d) Smaller and to have smaller sex organs
select the right option out of 1-4, in which all
92. The gametophyte is not an independent, free
the four structures A, B, C and D are identified
living generation in [Pre. 2011]
correctly [Mains 2010]
(a) Polytrichum (b) Adiantum
Structures :
(c) Marchantia (d) Pinus
93. Examine the figure given below and select
the right option giving all the four parts (a, b,
c, d) correctly identified. [Mains 2011]
A B C D
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(1) Runner Archegoniophore Synergid Antheridium
(1) Antheridi- Male Globule Roots ophore thallus
(2) Archego- Female Gemma Rhizoids niophore
(2) Offset Antheridiophore Antipodals Oogonium
thallus cup
(3) Archego- Female Bud Foot niophore thallus
(3) Sucker Seta MegasporeGemma
mother cup (4) Seta Sporo- Proto- Rhizoids phyte nema
cell 94. Selaginella and Salvinia are considered to
(4) Rhizome Sporangiophore Polar cell Globule represent a significant step toward evolution
of
89. Archegoniophore is present in [Pre. 2011] seed habit because [Mains 2011]
(a) Marchantia (b) Chara (a) Embryo develops in female gametophyte
(c) Adiantum (d) Funaria which is retained on parent sporophyte
90. Agarose extracted from sea weeds finds use (b) Female gametophyte is free and gets
in [Pre. 2011] dispersed like seeds.
(a) Spectrophotometry (c) Female gametophyte lacks archegonia
(b) Tissue Culture (d) Megaspores possess endosperm and
(c) PCR embryo surrounded by seed coat.
(d) Gel electrophoresis 95. Consider the following four statements
whether they are correct or wrong
91. Compared with the gametophytes of the
[Mains 2011]
bryophytes, the gametophytes of vascular
plants
r Specific 29
(a) The sporophyte in liverworts is more (B) In Ginkgo male gametophyte is not
elaborate than that is mosses. independent
(b) Salvinia is heterosporous (C) The sporophyte in Riccia is more
(c) The life-cycle in all seed-bearing plants is developed than that in Polytrichum
diplontic. (D) Sexual reproduction in Volvox is
(d) In Pinus male and female cones are borne isogamous
on different trees. (E) The spores of slime molds lack cell walls
The two wrong statements together are : How many of the above statements are
(1) Statements (a) and (b) correct ?
(2) Statements (a) and (c) (a) Three (b) Four (c) One (d)
(3) Statements (a) and (d) Two
(4) Statements (b) and (c) 99. Which one of the following pairs is wrongly
96. How many organisms in the list given below matched ? [Mains 2012]
are autotrophs ? [Mains 2012] (a) Salvinia – Prothallus
Lactobacillus, Nostoc, Chara, Nitrosomonas, (b) Viroids – RNA
Nitrobacter, Streptomyces, Sacharomyces, (c) Mustard - Synergids
Trypanosoma, Porphyra, Wolfia (d) Ginkgo-Archegonia
(a) Five (b) Six 100. Cycas and Adiantum resemble each other in
(c) Three (d) Four having. [Pre. 2012]
97. Consider the following four statements (a-d) (a) Cambium (b) Vessels
and select the option which includes all the (c) Seeds (d) Motile sperms
correct ones only : [Mains 2012]
101. Which one of the following is common to
(A) Single cell Spirulina can produce large multicellular fungi, filamentous algae and
quantities of food rich in protein, minerals, protonema of mosses [Pre. 2012]
vitamins etc.
(a) Mode of Nutrition
(B) Body weight-wise the microorganisms
(b) Multiplication by fragmentation
Methylophilus methylotrophus may be able
to produce several times more (c) Diplontic life cycle
proteins than the cow per day (d) Members of kingdom Plantae
(C) Common button mushrooms are a very rich 102. In the five-kingdom classification,
source of vitamin C Chlamydomonas and Chlorella have been
(D) A rice variety has been developed which is included in [Pre. 2012]
very rich in calcium Options : (a) Algae (b) Plantae
(a) Statements (A), (C) and (D) (b) (c) Monera (d) Protista
Statements (B), (C) and (D)
103. Which one of the following is a correct
(c) Statements (A), (B)
statement ? [Pre. 2012]
(d) Statements (C), (D)
(a) Antheridiophores and archegoniophores
98. Read the following five statements (A - E) and are present in pteridophytes
answer as asked next to them. (b) Origin of seed habit can be traced in
[Mains 2012] pteridophytes
(A) In Equisetum the female gametophyte is (c) Pteridophyte gametophyte has a
retained on the parent sporophyte protonemal and leafy stage
(d) In gymnosperms female gametophyte is (a) Antheridiophore and archegoniophore

free living on the same plant
104. Which of the following is not correctly (b) Stamen and carpel on the same plant
matched for the organism and its cell wall (c) Upper antheridium and lower oogonium
degrading enzyme ? [2013] on the same plant
(a) Bacteria - Lysozyme (d) Upper oogonium and lower antheridium
on the same plant
(b) Plant cell – Cellulase
109. Which one of the following shows isogamy
(c) Algae – Methylase
with non-flagellated gametes?
(d) Fungi - Chitinase
[AIPMT 2014]
105. Select the wrong statement [2013] (a) Sargassum
(a) Isogametes are similar in structure, (b) Ectocarpus
function and behavior (c) Ulothrix
(b) Anisogametes differ either in structure, (d) Spirogyra
function of behavior
110. Which one of the following is wrong about
(c) In Oomycetes female gamete is smaller
and motile, while male gamete is larger Chara? [AIPMT 2014]
and non-motile (a) Upper oogonium and lower
(d) Chlamydomonas exhibits both isogamy roundantheridium
and anisogamy and Fucus shows oogamy (b) Globule and nucule present on the same
plant
106. Isogamous condition with non-flagellated
(c) Upper antheridium and lower oogonium
gametes is found in [2013]
(d) Globule is male reproductive structure
(a) Chlamydomonas (b) Spirogyra
(c) Volvox (d) Fucus 111. Which of the following is responsible for peat
formation? [AIPMT 2014]
107. Read the following statements (A– E) and
(a) Marchantia
answer the question which follows them
[2013] (b) Riccia
(c) Funaria
(A) In liverworts, mosses and ferns
(d) Sphagnum
gametophytes are free-living
(B) Gymnosperms and some ferns are 112. An alga which can be employed as food for
heterosporous human being is - [AIPMT 2014]
(C) Sexual reproduction in Fucus, Volvox and (a) Ulothrix
Albugo is oogameous (b) Chlorella
(D) The sporophytes in liverworts is more (c) Spirogyra
elaborate than that in mosses (d) Polysiphonia
(E) Both, Pinus and Marchantia are dioecious
113. In which of the following gametophyte is not
How many of the above statements are independent/free living ? [AIPMT 2015]
correct? (a) Marchantia
(a) One (b) Two (b) Pteris (c) Pinus
(c) Three (d) Four (d) Funaria
108. Monoecious plant of Chara shows occurrence 114. Read the following five statements (A to E)
of [2013] and select the option with all correct
r Specific 31
statements :- [AIPMT 2015] (A) Mosses and 116. Which one of the following statements is
Lichens are the first organisms to colonise a wrong ? [AIPMT 2015]
bare rock. (a) Agar - agar is obtained from Gelidium and
(B) Selaginella is a homosporous Gracilaria
pteridophyte (b) Chlorella and Spirulina are used as space
(C) Coralloid roots in Cycas have VAM food
(D) Main plant body in bryophytes is (c) Mannitol is stored food in Rhodophyceae
gametophytic, whereas in pteridophytes (d) Algin and carragen are products of algae.
it is sporophytic
117. Which of the following pairs is not correctly
(E) In gymnosperms, male and female
matched? (Mode of reproduction – Example)
gametophytes are present within
[RE-AIPMT 2015]
sporangia located on sporophyte
(a) (B), (C) (a) Conidia - Penicillium
and (D) (b) Offset - Water hyacinth
(b) (A), (D) and (E) (c) Rhizome - Banana
(c) (B), (C) and (E) (d) Binary fission – Sargassum
(d) (A), (C) and (D)
115. Male gemetes are flagellated in :
[AIPMT 2015]
(a) Anabaena
(b) Ectocarpus
(c) Spirogyra
(d) Polysiphonia Answers
1-b 2-d 3-a 4-a 5-a 6-b 7-a 8-a 9-d 10-a
11-c 12-c 13-d 14-b 15-d 16-c 17-c 18-b 19-d 20-b
21-c 22-d 23-c 24-b 25-b 26-c 27-b 28-a 29-d 30-d 31-c 32-b 33-b 34-a 35-d 36-c 37-d 38-c 39-b 40-
c 41-c 42-c 43-d 44-d 45-d 46-b 47-b 48-d 49-c 50-b 51-c 52-a 53-c 54-a 55-b 56-d 57-c 58-c 59-b 60-
a 61-c 62-a 63-a 64-a 65-d 66-a 67-b 68-d 69-a 70-c
71-a 72-d 73-b 74-a 75-d 76-a 77-a 78-b 79-b 80-b
81-d 82-c 83-d 84-a 85-a 86-a 87-b 88-b 89-a 90-d 91-d 92-d 93-b 94-a 95-c 96-b 97-c 98-c 99-a 100-
d 101-b 102-b 103-b 104-c 105-c 106-b 107-c 108-d 109-d 110-c
111-d 112-b 113-c 114-b 115-b 116-c 117-d
4A
ANIMAL KINGDOM – NON-CHORDATE
PHYLA
1. Jelly fish belongs to class [1989] (b) blue with haemocyanin in plasma
(a) Hydrozoa (b) Scyphozoa (c) red with haemoglobin in corpuscles
(c) Anthozoa (d) None of these (d) red with haemoglobin in plasma
2. Earthworms are [1989] 7. Pheretima posthuma is highly useful as
(a) useful [1990]
(b) harmful (a) their burrows make the soil loose
(c) more useful than harmful (b) they make the soil porous, leave their
(d) more harmful castings and take organic debris in the
soil
3. Photoreceptors of earthworm occur on
(c) they are used as fish meal
[1989]
(d) they kill the birds due to biomagnification
(a) clitellum (b) many eyes of chlorinated hydrocarbons
(c) dorsal surface (d) lateral sides
8. Malpighian tubules are [1990]
4. Transfer of Taenia to secondary host occurs (a) excretory organs of insects
as [1989, 90]
(b) excretory organs of annelids (c)
(a) oncosphere (b) cysticercus respiratory organs of insects
(c) morula (d) egg (d) respiratory organs of annelids
5. In hot summer and cold winter, the number 9. Kala-azar and oriental sore are spread by
of malaria cases as well as Anopheles [1990]
declines, reappearance of malaria in humid
(a) housefly (b) bed bug
warm conditions is due to [1990]
(c) sand fly (d) fruit fly
(a) surviving malarial parasites in human
carriers 10. Bladderworm/cysticercus is the larval stage
(b) surviving sporozoites in surviving of [1991]
mosquitoes (a) tapeworm (b) roundworm
(c) monkeys (c) pinworm (d) liver fluke
(d) mosquito larvae in permanent waters 11. Earthworm possesses hearts [1991]
6. Blood of Pheretima is [1990] (a) 6 pair (b) 4 pair
(a) blue with haemocyanin in corpuscles (c) 2 pair (d) 1 pair
r Specific 33
12. The excretory structures of flat (c) sycon type (d) radial type
worms/Taenia are [1991] 20. Ascaris larva is called [1992]
(a) flame cells (a) cysticercus (b) rhabditiform
(b) protonephridia
(c) hexacanth (d) onchosphere
(c) Malpighian tubules
(d) green glands 21. What is correct about Taenia? [1992]
(a) Male organs occur in posterior
13. Which one occurs in Echinodermata? proglottids
[1991] (b) Male organs occur in anterior proglottids
(a) Bilateral symmetry (c) Female organs occur in anterior
(b) Radial symmetry proglottids
(c) Porous body (d) Mature proglottids contain both male
(d) Soft skin and female organs
14. An insect regarded as greatest mechanical 22. Assertion: Periplaneta americana is
carrier of diseases is [1991] nocturnal, omnivorous, household pest
(a) Pediculus (b) Cimex [1992] Reason: It is because it acts as
(c) Musca (d) Xenopsylla scavenger
(a) A is true but R is false
15. Male and female cockroaches can be
(b) A is false but R is true
distinguished externally through [1991]
(c) Both A and R are true and R is correct
(a) anal styles in male
explanation of A
(b) anal cerci in female
(d) Both A and R are true but R is not correct
(c) anal style and antennae in females explanation of A
(d) Both (b) and (c)
23. Aristotle’s lantern occurs in class [1992]
16. Metamorphosis of insects is regulated
(a) Echinoidea (b) Asteroidea
through hormone [1991]
(c) Holothuroidea (d) Ophiuroidea
(a) pheromone
(b) thyroxine 24. Eye of the molluscan group that resembles
vertebrate eye is [1992]
(c) ecdysone
(d) All of these (a) Bivalvia (b) Gastropoda
(c) Pelecypoda (d) Cephalopoda
17. Ascaris lumbricoides infection occurs
through [1991] 25. Star fish belongs to [1992]
(a) sole of uncovered feet (a) Asteriodea (b) Ophiuroidea
(b) contaminated cooked measly pork (c) Holothuroidea (d) Crinoidea
(c) improperly cooked measly pork 26. Adult Culex and Anopheles can be
(d) from air through inhalation distinguished with the help of [1992]
18. Classification of Porifera is based on [1991] (a) mouth parts/colour
(a) branching (b) spicules (b) sitting posture
(c) reproduction (d) symmetry (c) antennae/wings
19. The simplest type of canal system in Porifera (d) feeding habits
is [1992] 27. Trachea of cockroach and mammal are
similar in having [1993]
(a) ascon type (b) leucon type
(a) paired nature
(b) non-collapsible walls 35. Radial symmetry is often exhibited by

(c) ciliated inner lining animals having [1994]
(d) origin from head (a) one opening of alimentary canal
28. A larval stage occurs in the life history of all (b) aquatic mode of living
members of the group [1993] (c) benthos/sedentary
(a) frog, lizard and cockroach (b) Ascaris, (d) ciliary mode of feeding
housefly and frog 36. Point out a non-parasite [1994]
(c) housefly, earthworm and mosquito (a) tapeworm (b) mosquito
(d) butterfly, frog and mosquito (c) leech (d) sea anemone
29. What is true about Taenia saginata? [1993] 37. Tube feet occur in [1994]
(a) Life history has pig as intermediate host (a) cockroach (b) starfish
(b) There are two large suckers on scolex (c) cuttle fish (d) cat fish
(c) Rostellar hooks are absent 38. Special character of coelenterates is [1994]
(d) Rostellum has double circle of hooks
(a) polymorphism (b) nematocysts
30. Which one of the following animals (c) flame cells
possesses nerve cells but no nerves? [1993] (d) hermaphroditism
(a) Hydra (b) Tapeworm
39. Closed circulatory system occurs in [1994]
(c) Earthworm (d) Frog’s tadpole
(a) snail (b) cockroach
31. Budding is a normal mode of asexual (c) cuttle fish (d) All of these
reproduction in [1993]
40. Which one belongs to Platyhelminthes?
(a) starfish and Hydra
[1994]
(b) Hydra and sponges
(a) Schistosoma (b) Trypansoma
(c) tapeworm and Hydra
(c) Plasmodium (d) Wuchereria
(d) sponge and starfish
41. The organisms attached to the substratum
32. Give the correct matching of causative
generally, possess [1995]
agent/ germ and disease [1993]
(a) radial symmetry
(a) Anopheles—malaria
(b) one single opening of digestive canal
(b) Leishmania—sleeping sickness
(c) asymmetrical body
(c) Glossina—kala-azar
(d) cilia on surface to create water current
(d) Wuchereria—filariasis
42. True coelom is the space lying between the
33. Which one assists in locomotion? [1993]
alimentary canal and body wall enclosed by
(a) Trichocysts in Paramecium the layers of [1996]
(b) Pedicellariae of starfish
(a) ectoderm on both sides
(c) Clitellum in Pheretima
(b) endoderm on one side and ectoderm on
(d) Posterior sucker in Hirudinaria
the other
34. Coelom derived from blastocoel is known as (c) mesoderm on one side and ectoderm on
[1994] the other
(a) enterocoelom (b) schizocoelom (d) mesoderm on both sides
(c) pseudocoelom (d) haemocoelom 43. Radial symmetry is usually associated with
[1996]
r Specific 35
(a) aquatic mode of life 51. Which one of the following statements is
(b) lower grade of organisation correct with reference to honey bees?
(c) creeping mode of locomotion [2000]
(d) sedentary mode of life (a) Bees wax is a waste (excretory) product of
honey bees
44. What is true about all sponges without
exception? [1996] (b) Communication among honey bees was
discovered by von Frisch
(a) They are all marine
(c) Apis indica is largest wild bee in India
(b) They have flagellated collar cells
(d) Honey is predominantly sucrose and
(c) They have a mixed skeleton consisting of
arabinose .
spicules and spongin fibres
(d) They reproduce only asexually by budding 52. What is common between Ascaris
lumbricoides and Anopheles stephensi?
45. Functionwise, just as there are nephridia in [2000]
an earthworm, so are [1996]
(a) Hibernation
(a) parotid glands in toad
(b) Metamerism
(b) statocysts in prawn
(c) Anaerobic respiration
(c) flame cells in liver fluke
(d) Sexual dimorphism
(d) myotomes in fish
53. The enteronephric nephridia of earthworms
46. What is common among silver fish, scorpion, are mainly concerned with [2000]
crab and honeybee? [1997]
(a) digestion
(a) Compound eyes
(b) respiration
(b) Poison glands
(c) osmoregulation
(c) Jointed appendages
(d) excretion of nitrogenous wastes
(d) Metamorphosis
54. In which of the following chlorocruorin
47. Most appropriate term to describe the life pigment is found ? [2001]
cycle of Obelia is [1998]
(a) Annelida
(a) neoteny (b) metagenesis
(b) Echinodermata
(c) metamorphosis(d) All of these
(c) Insecta
48. Solenocytes are the main excretory (d) Lower Chordata
structures in [1998]
55. In Hydra, waste material of food digestion
(a) annelids and nitrogenous waste material are removed
(b) molluscs from [2001]
(c) echinodermates (a) mouth and mouth
(d) Platyhelminthes (b) body wall and body wall
49. The canal system is a characteristic feature of (c) mouth and body wall
[1999] (d) mouth and tentacles
(a) echinoderms (b) helminthes 56. In which animal, dimorphic nucleus is found
(c) coelenterates (d) sponges ? [2002]
50. Life-span of a worker bee is [1999] (a) Amoeba
(a) 10 weeks (b) 10 days (b) Trypanosoma gambiense
(c) 6 weeks (d) 15 days (c) Plasmodium vivax
(d) Paramecium caudatum (b) multicellular having tissue organization,

but no body cavity
57. In which animal nerve cell is present but
brain is absent ? [2002] (c) unicellular or acellular
(d) multicellular without any tissue
(a) Sponge
organization
(b) Earthworm
(c) Cockroach 63. The chief advantage of encystment of an
(d) Hydra Amoeba is [2003]
(a) protection from parasites and predators
58. In Protozoa like Amoeba and Paramecium,
an organelle is found for osmoregulation (b) the chance to get rid of accumulated
which is [2002] waste products
(c) the ability to survive during adverse
(a) contractile vacuole
physical conditions
(b) mitochondria
(d) the ability to live for some time without
(c) nucleus
ingesting food
(d) food vacuole
64. During its life cyde, Fasciola hepatica (liver
59. Ommatidia serve the purpose of fluke) infects its intermediate host and
photoreception in [2003] primary host at the following larval stages
(a) human respectively [2003]
(b) sunflower (c) cockroach (a) metacercaria and cercaria
(d) frog (b) miracidium and metacercaria
60. Which one of the following is matching pair (c) redia and miracidium
of an animal and a certain phenomenon it (d) cercaria and redia
exhibits ? [2003]
65. The animal with bilateral symmetry in young
(a) Chameleon — Mimicry stage and radial pentamerous symmetry in
(b) Taenia — Polymorphism the adult stage belong to the phylum
(c) Pheretima — Sexual dimorphism [2004]
(d) Musca — Complete (a) Annelida (b) Mollusca
metamorphosis (c) Cnidaria
61. Given below are four matchings of an animal (d) Echinodermata
and its kind of respiratory organ[2003] 66. When a fresh water protozoan possessing a
(i) silver fish — trachea contractile vacuole, is placed in a glass
(ii) scorpion — book lung containing marine water, the vacuole will
(iii) sea squirt — pharyngeal gills [2004]
(iv) dolphin — skin (a) increase in number
The correct matchings are (b) disappear
(a) (ii) and (iv) (c) increase in size
(b) (iii) and (iv) (d) decrease in size
(c) (i) and (iv) 67. In Arthropoda, head and thorax are often
(d) (i), (ii) and (iii) fused to form cephalothorax, but in which
62. Sycon belongs to a group of animals, which one of the following classes, is the body
are best described as [2003] divided into head, thorax and abdomen?
(a) multicellular with a gastrovascular system [2004]
r Specific 37
(a) Insecta (d) book lungs and antennae

(b) Myriapoda 73. What is common about Trypanosoma,
(c) Crustacea Noctiluca, Monocystis and Giardia ?[2006]
(d) Arachnida and Crustacea
(a) These are all unicellular protists
68. From the following statements select the (b) They have flagella
wrong one. [2005] (c) They produce spores
(a) Millipedes have two pairs of appendages (d) These are all parasites
in each segment of the body
74. Biradial symmetry and lack of cnidoblasts are
(b) Prawn has two pairs of antennae
the characteristics of [2006]
(c) Animals belonging to phylum-Porifera are
(a) Starfish and sea anemone
exclusively marine
(b) Ctenoplana and Beroe
(d) Nematocysts are characteristic of the
phylum-Cnidaria (c) Aurelia and Paramecium
(d) Hydra and starfish
69. Which of the following unicellular organism
has a macro-nucleus for trophic function and 75. Which one of the following is matching pair
one or more micro-nuclei for reproduction ? of a body feature and the animal possessing
[2005] it? [2007]
(a) Euglena (b) Amoeba (a) Post-anal tail – Octopus
(c) Paramecium (b) Ventral central nervous system – Leech
(d) Trypanosoma (c) Pharyngeal gills slits absent in embryo –
Chameleon
70. Which one of the following is a matching set (d) Ventral heart – Scorpion
of phylum and its three examples ? [2006]
76. What is true about Nereis, scorpion,
(a) Cnidaria — Bonellia, Physalia, Aurelia
cockroach and silver fish ? [2007]
(b) Platyhelminthes — Planaria,
Schistosoma, Enterobius (a) They all have jointed paired appendages
(c) Mollusca — Loligo, Teredo, Octopus (b) They all possess dorsal heart
(d) Porifera—Spongilla, Euplectella, (c) None of them is aquatic
Pennatula (d) They all belong to the same phylum
71. Earthworms are [2006] 77. Which one of the following phyla is correctly
matched with its two general
(a) ureotelic when plenty of water is
available characteristics? [2008]
(b) uricotelic when plenty of water is (a) Arthropoda — Body divided into head,
available thorax and abdomen and respiration by
(c) uricotelic under conditions of water tracheae
scarcity (b) Chordata — Notochord at some stage and
(d) ammonotelic when plenty of water is separate
available anal and urinary
72. Two common characters found in centipede, openings to the
cockroach and crab are [2006] outside
(c) Echinodermata— Pentamerous radial
(a) compound eyes and anal cerci
symmetry and mostly internal
(b) jointed legs and chitinous exoskeleton
fertilization
(c) green gland and tracheae
(d) Mollusca — Normally oviparous 81. Which one of the following is not a
and development through a trochophore characteristic of phylum-Annelida? [2008]
or veliger larva (a) Closed circulatory system
78. Which one of the following groups of three (b) Segmentation
animals each is correctly matched with their (c) Pseudocoelom
one characteristic morphological feature? (d) Ventral nerve cord
[2008]
82. Earthworms have no skeleton but during
Animals Morphological burrowing, the anterior end becomes turgid
feature and acts as a hydraulic skeleton. It is due to
(a) Liver fluke, sea Bilateral [2008]
anemone, sea symmetry cucumber (a) coelomic fluid (b) blood
(b) Centipede, prawn, Jointed (c) gut peristalsis
sea urchin appendages (d) setae
(c) Scorpion, spider, Ventral solid central
cockroach nervous system 83. Which one of the following pair of items
correctly belongs to the category of organs
(d) Cockroach, locust, Metameric
men-
Taenia segmentation
tioned against it? [2008]
79. Which one of the following is the true (a) Thorn of Bougainvillea and tendrils of
description about an animal concerned? Cucurbita - Analogous organs
[2008] (b) Nictitating membrane and blind spot in
(a) Earthworm — The alimentary canal human eye - Vestigial organs
consists of a sequence of (c) Nephridia of earthworm and Malpighian
pharynx, oesophagus, tubules of cockroach - Excretory organs
stomach, gizzard and
(d) Wings of honey bee and wings of crow
intestine Homologous organs
(b) Frog — Body divisible into three
regions—head, neck and 84. Which one of the following groups of animals
trunk is bilaterally symmetrical and triploblastic?
(c) Rat — Left kidney is slightly [2009]
higher in position than (a) Ctenophores (b) Sponges
the right one (c) Coelenterates (Cnidarians)
(d) Cockroach — 10 pairs of spiracles (2 (d) Aschelminthes (round worms)
pairs on thorax and 8 85. If a live earthworm is pricked with a needle
pairs on abdomen) on its outer surface without damaging its gut,
80. Ascaris is characterized by [2008] the fluid that comes out is: [2009]
(a) absence of true coelom but presence of (a) haemolymph
metamerism (b) slimy mucus
(b) presence of neither true coelom nor (c) excretory fluid
metamerism (d) coelomic fluid
(c) presence of true coelom but absence of 86. Which one of the following correctly
metamerism describes the location of some of parts in the
(d) presence of true coelom and earthworm Pheretima? [2009] (a) One pair of
metamerism (metamerization)
r Specific 39
ovaries attached at intesegmental septum of 92. In which one of the following organisms its
14th and 15th segments. excretory organs are correctly stated ?
(b) Two pairs of testes in 10th and 11th [2010]
segments. (1) Earthworm – Pharyngeal
(c) Two pairs of accessory glands in 16-18 integumentary and
segments. septal
(d) Four pairs of spermathecae in 4-7 nephridia
segments. (2) Cockroach – Malpighian tubules and
enteric caeca
87. Peripatus is a connecting link between
(3) Frog – Kidneys, skin and
[2009] buccal epithelium
(a) Annelida and Arthropoda (4) Humans – Kidneys, sebaceous
(b) Coelenterata and Porifera glands and tear glands.
(c) Ctenophora and Platyhelminthis
(d) Mollusca and Echinodermata 93. The figure shows four animals (1), (2), (3) and
(4). Select the correct answer with respect to
88. One example of animals having a single
a common characteristics of two of
opening to the outside that serves both as
these animals. [Mains 2011]
mouth as well as anus is [Pre. 2010]
(a) Octopus (b) Asterias
(c) Ascidia (d) Fasciola
89. Which one of the following kinds of animals
are triploblastic? [Pre. 2010]
(a) Flatworms (b) Sponges
(c) Ctenophores (d) Corals
certain given animals is correct?[Pre. 2010]
(a) Round worms (Aschelminthes) are
pseudocoelomates
(b) Molluses are acoelomates
(c) Insects are pseudocoelomates
(d) Flat worms (Platyhelminthes) are
coelomates (1)
all the four of Spongilla, Leech, Dolphin and
Penguin is Correct? [Pre. 2010]
(a) Penguin is homoiothermic while the
remaining three are poikilothermic
(b) Leech is a fresh water form while all
(3)
others are marine
(a) (3) and (4) have a true coelom
(c) Spongilla has special collared cells called
(b) (1) and (4) respire mainly through body
choanocytes, not found in the remaining
wall
three
(c) (2) and (3) show radial symmetry
(d) All are bilaterally symmetrical
(d) (1) and (2) have cnidoblasts for self (a) There are 16 very long Malpighian tubules
defence. present at the junction of midgut and
hindgut.
94. Which one of the following have the highest
number of species in nature ? [Pre. (b) Grinding of food is carried out only by the
2011] mouth parts
(c) Nervous system is locate dorsally ,
(a) Fungi
consists of segmentally arranged ganglia
(b) Insects
joined by a pair of longitudinal
(c) Birds
connectives
(d) Angiosperms
(d) Males bear a pair of short thread like anal
95. Which one of the following structure in styles
Pheretima is correctly matched with its
99. Pheretima and its close relative derive
function? [Pre. 2011]
nourishment from [Pre. 2012]
(a) Typhlosole–Storage of extra nutrients
(a) Soil insects
(b) Clitellum–secretes cocoon
(b) Small pieces of fresh fallen leave of maize,
(c) Gizzard–absorbs digested food etc
(d) Setae–defence against predators (c) Sugar roots
96. One very special feature in the earthworm (d) Decaying fallen leave and soil organic
Pheretima is that [Pre. 2011] matter
(a) Fertilisation of eggs occurs inside the 100. In which one of the following, the genus
body name, its two characters and its phylum are
(b) The typhlosole greatly increases the not correctly matched, whereas the
effective absorption area of the digested remaining three are correct? [Pre. 2012]
food in the intestine Genus Name Two characters Phylum
(c) The S-shaped setae embeded in the (a) Sycon (1) Pore bearing Porifera
integument are the defensive weapons (2) Canal system
used against the enemies. (b) Periplaneta (1) Jointed Arthropoda
appendages
(d) It has a long dorsal tubular heart
(2) Chitinuous
97. Which of the following is correctly stated as exoskeleton
it happens in the common cockroach ? (c) Pila (1) Body segmented Mollusca
[Pre. 2011] (2) Mouth with
(a) Malpighian tubules are excretory organs Radula
projecting out from the colon.
(d) Asterias (1) Spiny skinned
(b) Oxygen is transported by haemoglobin in Echinodermata
blood. (2) Water vascular system
(c) Nitrogenous excretory product is urea. 101. Which of the following are correctly matched
(d) The food is ground by mandibles and with respect of their taxonomic
gizzard classification? [2013]
98. Select the correct statement from the ones (a) Flying fish, cuttlefish, silverfish – Pisces
given below with respect to Periplaneta (b) Centipede, millipede, spider, scorpion–
americana [Pre. 2012] Insecta
(c) House fly, butterfly, tsetsefly, silverfish–
Insecta
r Specific 41
(d) Spiny anteater, sea urchin, sea (d) Cnidaria

cucumber–Echinodermata
107. Planaria possess high capacity of
102. Which group of animals belong to the same [AIPMT 2014]
phylum ? [2013] (a) Metamorphosis
(a) Malarial parasite, Amoeba, Mosquito (b) Regeneration
(b) Earthworm, Pinworm, Tapeworm (c) Alternation of generation
(c) Prawn, Scorpion, Locusta (d) Bioluminescence
(d) Sponge, Sea anemone, Starfish
108. Which of the following characteristics is
103. One of the representatives of Phylum mainly responsible for diversification of
Arthropoda is [2013] insects on land ? [AIPMT 2015]
(a) cuttlefish (b) silverfish (a) Bilateral symmetry
(c) pufferfish (b) Exoskeleton
(d) flying fish (c) Eyes
104. What external changes are visible after the (d) Segmentation
last moult of a cockroach nymph ? [2013] 109. Metagenesis refers to : [RE-AIPMT

(a) Mandibles become harder 2015]
(b) Anal cerci develop (a) Presence of a segmented body
(c) Both fore wings and hind wings develop andparthenogenetic mode of
(d) Labium develops reproduction
(b) Presence of different morphic forms
105. Infection of Ascaris usually occurs by :
(c) Alternation of generation between
asexual and sexual phases of an organism
[2013]
(d) Occurrence of a drastic change in form
(a) drinking water containing eggs of Ascaris during post-embryonic development
(b) eating imperfectly cooked pork
110. Body having meshwork of cells, internal
(c) Tse-tse fly
cavities lined with food filtering flagellated
(d) mosquito bite cells and indirect development are the
106. Select the Taxon mentioned that represents characteristics of phylum : [RE-AIPMT 2015]
both marine and fresh water species (a) Protozoa
[AIPMT 2014] (b) Coelenterata
(a) Echinoderms (c) Porifera
(b) Ctenophora (d) Mollusca
(c) Cephalochordata
Answers
1-b 2-a 3-c 4-a 5-d 6-d 7-b 8-a 9-c 10-a
11-b 12-a 13-b 14-c 15-a 16-c 17-b 18-b 19-a 20-b 21-d 22-a 23-a 24-d 25-a 26-b 27-b 28-d 29-c 30-a
31-b 32-d 33-d 34-c 35-c 36-d 37-b 38-b 39-c 40-a
41-a 42-d 43-b 44-b 45-c 46-c 47-b 48 -d 49-d 50-a 51-b 52-d 53-d 54-a 55-c 56-d 57-d 58-a 59-c 60-
d 61-d 62-d 63-c 64-b 65-d 66-b 67-a 68-b 69-c 70-c 71-d 72-b 73-a 74-b 75-b 76-c 77-a 78-c 79-d
80-b 81-c 82-a 83-c 84-d 85-d 86-b 87-a 88-d 89-a 90-a 91-c 92-a 93-a 94-b 95-b 96-b 97-d 98-d 99-
d 100-c
101-c 102-c 103-b 104-c 105-a 106-d 107-b 108-b 109-c 110-c
ster Specific 43
4B
ANIMAL KINGDOM – PHYLUM CHORDATA
6. Skin is a respiratory organ in [1990]
(a) lizards
(b) birds
(c) primitive mammals
(d) frog
1. A chordate character is [1989] 7. Penguin occurs in [1990]

(a) gills (a) Australia
(b) spiracles (b) Antarctica
(c) post-anal tail (c) Africa
(d) chitinous exoskeleton (d) America
2. Fish which can be used in biological control of 8. Kidney of adult rabbit is [1991]
mosquitoes/larvicidal fish is (a) pronephros
[1989,1999, 2001] (b) metanephros
(a) eel (c) mesonephros
(b) carp (d) opisthonephros
(c) cat fish
9. Bull frog of India is [1992]
(d) Gambusia
(a) Rana tigrina
3. Eutherians are characterised by [1989] (b) R. sylvatica
(a) hairy skin (c) R. Catesbiana
(b) true placentation (d) R. esculenta
(c) ovoviviparity
10. An egg laying mammal is [1992, 2000]
(d) glandular skin
(a) kangaroo
4. Flight muscles of bird are attached to[1989]
(b) platypus
(a) clavicle (c) koala
(b) keel of sternum (d) whale
(c) scapula
(d) coracoid
5. Wish bone of birds is formed from
[1989]
(a) pelvic girdle
(b) skull
(c) hindlimbs
(d) pectoral girdle/clavicles
11. Sound box of birds is called [1992] (c) Extra-abdominal testes to avoid high
(a) pygostyle (b) larynx temperature of body
(c) syrinx (d) synsacrum (d) Presence of external ears
14. Mucus helps frog in forming [1993]
12. Gorilla, chimpanzee, monkeys and human
belong to the same [1993] (a) thick skin
(b) dry skin
(a) species (b) genus
(c) smooth skin
(c) family (d) order
(d) moist skin
13. What is common in whale, bat and rat?
15. All vertebrates possess [1993]
[1993, 2000, 04]
(a) renal portal system
(a) Absence of neck
(b) dorsal, hollow central nervous system
(b) Muscular diaphragm between thorax and
abdomen (c) four chambered ventral heart
er Specific 45
(d) pharyngeal gill slits 23. Pneumatic bones are expected to be found in
16. What is common between ostrich, penguin [1996]
and kiwi? [1993] (a) pigeon
(a) Running birds (b) house lizard
(b) Migratory birds (c) frog’s tadpole
(c) Flightless birds (d) flying fish
(d) Four toed birds 24. The flightless bird Cassowary is found in
17. Golden era/age of reptiles is [1994] [1996]
(a) Palaeozoic (a) Mauritius
(b) Mesozoic (b) Australia
(c) Recent (c) New Zealand
(d) Proterozoic (d) Indonesia
18. A common characteristic of all vertebrates is 25. The long bones are hollow and connected by
[1994] air passage. They are the characteristics of
(a) presence of skull [1998]
(b) division of body into head, neck, trunk and (a) Aves (b) mammals
tail (c) Reptilia (d) land vertebrates
(c) presence of two pairs of functional 26. Which of the following is not found in birds?
appendages [1999]
(d) body is covered with an exoskeleton (a) Hindlimb (b) Pectoral girdle
19. Closed circulatory system occurs in [1994] (c) Pelvic girdle (d) Forelimb
(a) cockroach 27. In which of the following animal, post-anal tail
(b) tadpole/fish is found? [2001]
(c) mosquito (a) Earthworm (b) Lower invertebrate
(d) house fly (c) Scorpion (d) Snake
20. All chordates possess [1994] 28. In which of the following notochord is present
(a) exoskeleton in embryonic stage ? [2002]
(b) limbs (a) All chordates (b) Some chordates
(c) skull (c) Vertebrates (d) Non-chordates
(d) axial skeletal rod of notochord 29. Presence of gills in the tadpole of frog indicates
21. Besides Annelida and Arthropoda, the that [2004]
metamerism is exhibited by [1995] (a) fishes were amphibious in the past
(a) Cestoda (b) Chordata (b) fishes evolved from frog like ancestors
(c) Mollusca (d) Acanthocephala (c) frogs will have gills in future
22. Which one of the following is an exotic Indian (d) frogs evolved from gilled ancestors
fish? [1996] 30. A terrestrial animal must be able to
(a) Catla catla [2004]
(b) Heteropneustes fossilis (a) excrete large amounts of water in urine
(c) Cyprinus caprio (b) conserve water
(d) Labeo rohita (c) actively pump salts out through the skin (d)
excrete large amounts of salts in urine
31. Which one of the following characters is not (c) Two special chambers crop and gizzard in
typical of the class-Mammalia ? their digestive tract
[2005] (d) Eggs with a calcareous shell
(a) Seven cervical vertebrae 38. Which one of the following pairs of animals
(b) Thecodont dentition comprises ‘jawless fishes’ ? [2009]
(c) Ten pairs of cranial nerves (a) Lampreys and hag fishes
(d) Alveolar lungs (b) Guppies and hag fishes
32. Which one of the following is not a living fossil (c) Lampreys and eels
? [2006] (d) Mackerals and Rohu
(a) King crab (b) Sphenodon 39. Crocodile and Penguin are similar to Whale
(c) Archaeopteryx (d) Peripatus and Dogfish in which one of the following
33. In which one of the following sets of animals features ? [Mains 2010]
do all the four give birth to young ones? (a) Lay eggs and guard them till they hatch.
(a) Lion, bat, whale, ostrich [2006] (b) Possess bony skeleton
(b) Platypus, penguin, bat, hippopotamus (c) Have gill slits at some stage
(c) Shrew, bat, cat, kiwi (d) Possess a solid single stranded central
(d) Kangaroo, hedgehog, dolphin, loris nervous system.
34. What is common between parrot, platypus 40. What will you look for to identify the sex of the
and kangaroo ? [2007] following ? [Pre. 2011]
(a) Homeothermy (b) Toothless jaws (a) Female Ascaris-Sharply curved posterior
(c) Functional post-anal tail end
(d) Oviparity (b) Male frog-A copulatory pad on the first
digit of the hind limb.
35. Which of the following pairs are correctly
(c) Female cockroach-Anal cerci
matched ? [2007]
(d) Male shark-Claspers borne on pelvic fins
Animals Morphological features
(i) Crocodile — 4-chambered heart 41. Which one of the following groups of animals
(ii) Sea urchin — Parapodia is correctly matched with its one characteristic
(iii) Obelia — Metagenesis feature without even a single exception ?
(iv) Lemur — Thecodont [Pre. 2011]
(a) (i), (iii) and (iv) (b) (ii), (iii) and (iv) (a) Reptilia : Possess 3-chambered heart with
(c) Only (i) and (iv) (d) Only (i) and (ii) one incompletely divided ventricle
(b) Chordata : Possess a mouth provided with
36. What is common to whale, seal and shark ?
an upper and a lower jaw
(a) Seasonal migration [2007] (c) Chondrichthyes : Possess cartilaginous
(b) Thick subcutaneous fat endoskeleton
(c) Convergent evolution (d) Mammalia : Give birth to young ones
(d) Homeothermy
42. In which one of the following the genus name,
37. Which one of the following in birds, indicates its two characters and its class/phylum are
their reptilian ancestry? [2008] correctly matched ? [Pre. 2011]
(a) Scales on their hind limbs Genus name Two Class/
(b) Four chambered heart characters Phylum
er Specific 47
(a) Ascaris (1) Body segmented 46. Which one of the following statement is totally
Annelida wrong about the occurrence of notochord
(2) Males and femalesdistinct while the other three are correct ?
(b) Salamendra (1) A tympanum Amphibia [Mains 2011]
represents ear
(2) Fertilization isexternal (a) It is present through life in Amphioxus
(b) It is present only in larval tail in Ascidians
(c) Pteropus (1) Skin prossesses Mammalia hair (c) It is replaced by a vertebral column in adult
(2) Oviparous frog
(d) Aurelia (1) Cnidoblasts Coelenterata (d) It is absent throughout life in humans from
(2) Organ level oforganization the very beginning
47. Which one of the following categories of
43. Frogs differ from the humans in possessing :
animals, is correctly described with no single
[Pre. 2011] exception in it ? [Mains 2012] (a) All bony
(a) Thyroid as well as parathyroid fishes have four pairs of gills and an operculum
(b) Paired cerebral hemispheres on each side.
(c) Hepatic portal system (b) All sponges are marine and have collared
(d) Nucleated red blood cells cells.
44. Ureters act as urinogenital ducts in (c) All mammals are viviparous and possess
diaphragm for breathing.
[Pre. 2011]
(d) All reptiles possess scales, have a three
(a) frog’s males
chambered heart and are cold blooded
(b) human males (poikilothermal).
(c) human females
48. Which one of the following pairs of animals are
(d) frog’s both males and females
similar to each other pertaining to the feature
45. Consider the following four statements (AD)
stated against them ? [Mains 2012]
related to the common frog Rana tigrina, and
(a) Garden lizard and Crocodile - Three
select the correct option stating which ones
chambered heart
are true (T) and which ones are false (F).
[Pre. 2011] (b) Ascaris and Ancylostoma - Metameric
segmentation
Statements :
(c) Sea horse and Flying fish - Cold blooded
(A) On dry land it would die due to lack of O2 if
(poikilothermal)
its mouth is forcibly kept closed for
(d) Pteropus and Ornithorhyncus-
a new days
Viviparity
(B) It has four-chambered heart
(C) On dry land it turns uricotelic from 49. Which one of the following characteristics is
ureotelic common both in humans and adult frogs?
(D) Its life-history is carried out in pond water (a) Internal fertilization [Pre. 2012]
Options : (b) Nucleated RBCs
(A) (B) (C) (D) (c) Ureotelic mode of excretion
(a) F T T F (d) Four – chambered heart
(b) T F F T
50. Compared to those of humans , the
(c) T T F F erythrocytes in frog are [Pre. 2012]
(d) F F T T
(a) very much smaller and fewer
(b) nucleated and without haemoglobin
(c) without nucleus but with haemoglobin (a) Elephant (b) Platypus
(d) nucleated and with haemoglobin (c) Whale (d) Flying fox (Bat)
51. Match the name of the animal (Column I), with 55. Which of the following represents the correct
one characteristics (Column II), and the combination without any exception?
phylum / class (column III) to which it be- Characteristics Class [AIPMT 2015]
longs : [2013] (a) Mouth ventral, gills without operculum;
Column I Column II Column III skin with placoid scales; persistent
(a) Petromyzon Ectoparasite Cyclostomata notochord-Chondrichthyes
(b) Ichthyophis Terrestrial Reptilia (b) Sucking and circular mouth; jaws absent,
(c) Limulus Body covered by integument without scales; paired
chitinous Pisces appendages-Cyclostomata
exoskeleton
(c) Body covered with feathers; skin moist and
(d) Adamsia Radially Porifera
glandular; fore-limbs form wings; lungs
symmetrical
with air sacs- Aves
52. A marine cartilaginous fish that can produce
electric current is [AIPMT 2014] (d) Mammary gland; hair on body; pinnae; two
pairs of Limbs - Mammalia.
(a) Pristis (b) Torpedo
(c) Trygon (d) Scoliodon 56. Which one of the following animals has two
separate circulatory pathways ?
[RE-AIPMT 2015]
Answers
(a) Shark (b) Frog
53. Which of the following endoparasites of (c) Lizard (d) Whale
humans does show viviparity ? [AIPMT 2015]
57. A jawless fish, which lays eggs in fresh water
(a) Enterobius vermicularis
and whose ammocoete larvae after
(b) Trichinella spiralis
metamorphosis return to the ocean is :
(c) Ascaris lumbricoides [RE-AIPMT 2015]
(d) Ancylostoma duodenale
(a) Petromyzon (b) Eptatretus
54. Which of the following animals is not (c) Myxine (d) Neomyxine
viviparous? [AIPMT 2015]
1-c 2-d 3-b 4-b 5-d 6-d 7-b 8-b 9-a 10-b
11-c 12-d 13-b 14-d 15-b 16-c 17-b 18-a 19-b 20-d
21-b 22-c 23-a 24-b 25-a 26-d 27-d 28-a 29-d 30-b
31-c 32-c 33-d 34-a 35-a 36-c 37-a 38-a 39-c 40-d
41-c 42-b 43-d 44-a 45-b 46-d 47-a 48-c 49-c 50-d
51-a 52-b 53-b 54-b 55-a 56-d 57-a
5
MORPHOLOGY OF FLOWERING PLANTS
er Specific 49
1. Floral formula of tomato/tobacco is 9. Fruit of Mangifera indica is [1991]

[1989, 92] (a) berry (b) drupe
(a) 4–5A10G(2) (c) capsule (d) siliqua
10. Hypanthodium is [1994]
(b) 2+2 C4A2+4G1
(a) thalamus (b) fruit
(c) P A3G1 (c) inflorescence (d) ovary
11. Plant having column of vascular tissues,
(d) Br K(5)C(5)A5G(2) bearing fruits and having a tap root system is
[1994]
2. Mango juice is got from [1989]
(a) monocot (b) dicot
(a) epicarp
(c) gymnosperm or dicot
(b) mesocarp
(d) gymnosperm or monocot
(c) endocarp
(d) pericarp and thalamus 12. A perennial plant differs from biennial in
[1994]
3. A family delimited by type of inflorescence is
[1990] (a) having underground
perennatingstructure
(a) Fabaceae (b) Asteraceae
(b) having asexual
(c) Solanaceae. (d) Liliaceae
reproductive structures
4. New banana plants develop from (c) being tree species
[1990] (d) not dying after seasonal
(a) rhizome (b) sucker production of flowers
(c) stolon (d) seed
13. Buttress roots are found in [1995]
5. Oil reserve of groundnut is present in (a) Sorghum (b) Banyan
[1990] (c) Terminalia (d) Pandanus
(a) embryo (b) cotyledons
14. Tetradynamous stamens are found in family
(c) endosperm (d) underground tubers [1995, 2001]
6. Botanical name of cauliflower is (a) Malvaceae (b) Solanaceae
[1991] (c) Cruciferae (d) Liliaceae
(a) Brassica oleracea var. capitata
15. Which part of the coconut produces coir?
(b) Brassica campestris
[1996]
(c) Brassica oleracea var. botrytis
(a) Seed coat (b) Mesocarp
(d) Brassica oleracea var. gemmifera
(c) Epicarp (d) Pericarp
7. Epipetalous and syngenesious stamens occur
16. Which one of the following is a true fruit?
in [1991]
[1996]
(a) Solanaceae (b) Brassicaceae
(a) Apple (b) Pear
(c) Fabaceae (d) Asteraceae
(c) Cashewnut (d) Coconut
8. Vegetative reproduction of Agave occurs
17. Heterospory and seed habit are often
through [1991]
discussed in relation to a structure called
(a) rhizome (b) stolon [1997]
(c) bulbils (d) sucker
(a) spathe (b) bract
(c) petiole (d) ligule (b) Malvaceae — Cotton

18. The embryo in sunflower has [1998] (c) Brassicaceae —
Wheat
(a) one cotyledon
(d) Leguminosae —
(b) two cotyledons
Sunflower
(c) many cotyledons
(d) no cotyledon 25. What is eye of potato? [2001]
(a) Axillary bud
19. Floral features are chiefly used in angiosperms
(b) Accessory bud
identification because [1998]
(c) Adventitious bud
(a) flowers are of various
(d) Apical bud
colours
(b) flowers can be safely 26. Which is correct pair for edible part? [2001]
pressed (a) Tomato — Thalamus
(c) reproductive parts are (b) Maize — Cotyledons
more stable and (c) Guava — Mesocarp
conservative than (d) Date palm — Pericarp
vegetative parts
27. Edible part of banana is [2001]
(d) flowers are nice to work
with (a) epicarp
(b) mesocarp and less
20. Edible part in litchi is [1999, 2005, 06]
developed endocarp
(a) mesocarp (b) fleshy aril (c) endocarp and less
(c) endosperm (d) pericarp developed mesocarp
21. Angiosperm to which the largest flowers (d) epicarp and mesocarp
belong is [1999]
28. Bicarpellary gynoecium and oblique ovary
(a) total stem parasite
occurs in [2001]
(b) partial stem parasite
(a) mustard (b) banana
(c) total root parasite
(c) Pisum (d) brinjal
(d) partial root parasite
29. Roots of which plant contains an oxidising
22. The plant, which bears clinging roots, is agent? [2001]
[1999]
(a) Carrot (b) Soyabean
(a) Trapa (b) orchid (c) Mustard (d) Radish
(c) screw pine (d) Podostemon
30. Which of the following is a correct pair?
23. The type of placentation in which ovary is [2002]
syncarpous, unilocular and ovules on sutures is
(a) Cuscuta — Parasite
called [1999]
(b) Dischidia — Insectivorous
(a) apical placentation (c) Opuntia — Predator
(b) parietal placentation (d) Capsella — Hydrophyte
(c) marginal placentation 31. Edible part in mango is [2002, 04]
(d) superficial placentation
(a) mesocarp (b) epicarp
24. Match the following and indicate which is (c) endocarp (d) epidermis
correct? [2000]
32. Geocarpic fruit is [2002]
(a) Cucurbitaceae — Orange
er Specific 51
(a) potato (b) groundnut (a) pomegranate (b)

(c) onion (d) garlic orange
(c) guava (d) cucumber
33. Juicy hair-like structures observed in the
lemon fruit develop from [2003] 40. The fleshy receptacle of syconous of fig
(a) mesocarp and endocarp encloses a number of [2008]
(b) exocarp (a) achenes (b) samaras
(c) mesocarp (c) berries (d) mericarps
(d) endocarp
41. The floral formula is that of
34. What type of placentation is seen in sweet [2009]
pea? [2006]
(a) Sunnhemp (b) Tobacco
(a) Axile (b) Free (c) Tulip (c) Soyabean
central
(c) Marginal (d) Basal 42. A fruit developed from hypanthodium
inflorescence is called [2009]
35. Pineapple (ananas) fruit develops from (a) Syconus (b) Caryopsis
[2006] (c) Hesperidium (d) Sorosis
(a) a multipistillate
43. An example of axile placentation is [2009]
syncarpous flower
(a) Lemon (b) Marigold
(b) a cluster of compactly
borne flowers on a (c) Argemone (d) Dianthus
common axis 44. In unilocular ovary with a single ovule the
(c) a multilocular placentation is : [Pre. 2010]
monocarpellary flower (a) Marginal (b) Basal
(d) a unilocular polycarpellary (c) Free Central (d) Axile
flower
45. Keel is characteristic of the flowers of
36. Long filamentous threads protruding at the [Pre. 2010]
end of the young cob of maize are (a) Gulmohur (b) Cassia
[2006] (c) Calotropis (d) Bean
(a) styles (b) ovaries
46. Ovary is half-inferior in the flowers of:
(c) hairs (d) anthers
[Pre. 2010]
37. In a cereal grain the single cotyledon of
(a) Guava (b) Plum
embryo is represented by [2006]
(c) Brinjal (d) Cucumber
(a) scutellum (b) prophyll
47. Male and female gametophytes are
(c) coleoptile (d) coleorhiza
independent and free-living in [Pre. 2010]
38. Dry indehiscent single-seeded fruit formed (a) Mustard
from bicarpellary syncarpous inferior ovary is (b) Castor
[2008]
(c) Pinus
(a) caryopsis (b) cypsela (d) Sphagnum
(c) berry (d) cremocarp
48. The technical term used for the androecium in
39. The fruit is chambered, developed from a flower of China rose (Hibiscus rosa sinensis)
inferior ovary and has seeds with succulent is : [Pre. 2010]
testa in [2008]
(a) Monadelphous
(b) Diadelphous (c) 53. Aestivation of petals in the flower of cotton is

Polyandrous correctly shown in [Mains 2010]
(d) Polyadelphous
(a) (b)
49. Consider the following four statements A, B, C
and D and select the right option for two
correct statements : [Mains 2010]
(c)(d)
(A) In vexillary aestivation, the large posterior
petal is called - standard, two lateral ones
54. Which one of the following is a xerophytic
are wings and two small anterior petals are
plant which the stem is modified into a flat,
termed keel.
green a succulent structure ? [Mains 2010]
(B) The floral formula for Liliaceae is
(a) Casuarina (b) Hydrilla
(c) Acacia (d) Opuntia
(C) In pea flower the stamens are 55. Which one of the following diagrams
monadelphous represents the placentation in Dianthus ?
(D) The floral formula for Solanaceae is [Mains 2011]
K(3)C(3)A(4)A(2)
The correct statements are :(a)
(A) and (B)
(b) (B) and (C)
(c) (C) and (D)
(d) (A) and (C)
50. Vegetative propagation in Pistia occurs by :
[Mains 2010]
(a) Offset
(b) Runner
(c) Sucker
(d) Stolen (a) (b)
51. Which one of the following is monoecious ?

[Mains 2010]
(a) Cycas (b) Pinus
(c) Date plam (d) Marchantia
(c) (d)
52. The corect floral formula of soyabean is :-
[Mains 2010]
56. Sweet potato is homologous to
(a) %K5 C1+(2)+2A(9)+1G1 [Mains 2011]
(a) Turnip (b) Potato
(b) %K(5) C1+2+(2)A(9)+1G1 (c) Colocasia (d) Ginger
57. Whorled, simple leaves with reticulate
(c) %K5 C1+(2)+2A(9)+1G1
venation are present in [Mains 2011]
(d) %K(5) C1+(2)+2A(9)+1G1 (a) Alstonia
(b) Calotropis
er Specific 53
(c) Neem (a) Mango (b) Wheat

(d) China rose (c) Pea (d) Tomato
58. Which one of the following pairs is wrongly 65. How many plants in the list given below have
matched while the remaining three are correct marginal placentation ? [Mains 2012]
? [Mains 2011] Mustard, Gram, Tulip, Asparagus, Arhar,
(a) Agave – Bulbils Sunhemp, Chilli, Colchicine, Onion, Moong,
(b) Penicillium – Conidia Pea, Tobacco, Lupin
(c) Water hyacinth – Runner (a) Five (b) Six
(d) Bryophyllum - Leaf buds (c) Three (d) Four
59. The “Eyes” of the potato tuber are 66. Cuscuta is an example of [Mains 2012]
[Pre. 2011] (a) Brood parasitism
(a) Root buds (b) Predation
(b) Flower buds (c) Endoparasitism
(c) Shoot buds (d) Ectoparasitism
(d) Axillary buds 67. Which one of the following organisms is
60. Which one of the following statements is correctly matched with its three
correct ? [Pre. 2011] characteristics? [Mains 2012]
(a) In tomato, fruit is a (a) Tomato : Twisted
capsule aestivation, Axile
(b) Seeds of orchids have oil- placentation, Berry
rich endosperm (b) Onion : Bulb, Imbricate
(c) Placentation in Primrose aestivation, Axile
is basal placentation
(d) Flower of tulip is a (c) Maize : C3 pathway,
modified shoot Closed vascular bundles,
Scutellum
61. The correct floral formula of chilli is (d) Pea : C3 pathway,
[Pre. 2011] Endospermic seed,
Vexillary aestivation
68. Read the following four statements (A-D)
[Mains 2012]
(a) (b) (A) Both, photophosphorylation and oxidative
phosphorylation involve uphill transport of
(c)(d) protons across the membrane
(B) In dicot stems, a new cambium originates
62. Flowers are Zygomorphic in [Pre. 2011] from cells of pericycle at the time of
(a) Mustard (b) Gulmohur secondary growth
(c) Tomato (d) Datura (C) Stamens in flowers of Gloriosa and Petunia
63. The ovary is half inferior in flowers of are polyandrous
[Pre. 2011] (D) Symbiotic nitrogen-fixers occur in
(a) Peach (b) Cocumber freeliving state also in soil
(c) Cotton (d) Guava How many of the above statements are right
64. A drupe develops in [Pre. 2011]
(a) Three (b) Four (c) One (d) (a) Papaver

Two (b) Michelia
69. Placentation in tomato and lemon is (c) Aloe
[Pre. 2012] (d) Tomato
(a) Marginal 76. Which one of the following is correctly
(b) Axile matched ? [Pre. 2012]
(c) Parietal (a) Chlamydomonas - Conidia
(d) Free-central (b) Yeast-Zoospores
70. Vexillary aestivation is characteristic of the (c) Onion-Bulb
family [Pre. 2012] (d) Ginger-sucker
(a) Solanaceae 77. Among bitter gourd, mustard, brinjal,
(b) Brassicaceae pumpkin, china rose, lupin, cucumber,
(c) Fabaceae sunnhemp, gram, guava, bean, chilli, plum,
(d) Asteraceae petunia, tomato, rose, withania, potato,
onion, aloe and tulip how many plants have
71. Phyllode is present in [Pre. 2012] hypogynous flower ? [2013]
(a) Australian Acacia (a) Six (b) Ten
(b) Opuntia (c) Fifteen (d) Eighteen
(c) Asparagus
78. In china rose the flowers are [2013]
(d) Euphorbia
(a) Actinomorphic,
72. How many plants in the list given below have hypogynous with twisted
composite fruits that develop from an aestivation
inflorescence? Walnut, poppy, radish, fig,
(b) Actinomorphic, epigynous
pineapple, apple, tomato, mulberry
with valvate aestivation
[Pre. 2012]
(c) Zygomorphic, hypogynous
(a) Two (b) Three with imbricate aestivation
(c) Four (d) Five (d) Zygomorphic, epigynous
73. Cymose inflorescence is present in with twisted aestivation
[Pre. 2012] 79. Placenta and pericarp are both edible portions
(a) Trifolium in [AIPMT 2014]
(b) Brassica (a) Apple
(c) Solanum (b) Banana (c) Tomato
(d) Sesbania (d) Potato
74. The coconut water and the edible part of 80. When the margins of sepals or petals overlap
coconut are equivalent to [Pre. 2012] one another without any particular direction,
(a) Mesocarp the condition is termed as
(b) Embryo [AIPMT 2014]
(c) Endosperm (a) Vexillary
(d) Endocarp (b) Imbricate
(c) Twisted
75. The ........... consists of many free pistils in
flowers of [Pre. 2012] (d) Valvate
er Specific 55
81. Which one of the following statements is [AIPMT 2015]

correct? [AIPMT 2014] (a) Indigofera (b) Aloe
(a) The seed in grasses is not (c) Tomato (d) Tulip
endospermic
87. Perigynous flowers are found in -
(b) Mango is a
[AIPMT 2015]
parthenocarpic fruit
(c) A proteinaceous aleurone (a) Cucumber (b) China rose
layer is present in maize (c) Rose (d) Guava
grain 88. Axile placentation is present in :
(d) A sterile pistil is called a [RE-AIPMT 2015]
staminode
82. An example of edible underground stem is
[AIPMT 2014]
(a) Carrot
(b) Groundnut
Answers
(c) Sweet potato (d)
Potato (a) Argemone (b) Dianthus
83. An aggregate fruit is one which develops from (c) Lemon (d) Pea
[AIPMT 2014] 89. The wheat grain has an embryo with one large,
(a) Multicarpellary shield-shaped cotyledon known as :
syncarpous gynoecium [RE-AIPMT 2015]
(b) Multicarpellary apocarpus (a) Coleoptile (b) Epiblast
gynoecium (c) Coleorrhiza (d) Scutellum
(c) Complete inflorescence
(d) Multicarpellary 90. Among china rose, mustard, brinjal, potato,
superior ovary guava, cucumber, onion and tulip, how many
plants have superior ovary?
84. Leaves become modified into spines in : [RE-AIPMT 2015]
[AIPMT 2015] (a) Four (b) Five (c) Six (d) Three
(a) Pea (b) Onion
91. Flowers are unisexual in :
(c) Silk Cotton (d) Opuntia
[RE-AIPMT 2015]
85. is the floral formula of : (a) Onion (b) Pea
[AIPMT 2015] (c) Cucumber (d) China rose
(a) Sesbania (b) Petunia 92. Roots play insignificant role in absorption of
(c) Brassica (d) Allium water in : [RE-AIPMT 2015]
86. Keel is the characteristic feature of flower of: (a) Wheat (b) Sunflower
(c) Pistia (d) Pea
1-d 2-b 3-b 4-b 5-b 6-c 7-d 8-c 9-b 10-c
11-b 12-d 13-c 14-c 15-b 16-d 17-d 18-b 19-c 20-b
21-c 22-b 23-b 24-b 25-a 26-d 27-b 28-d 29-b 30-a
31-a 32-b 33-d 34-c 35-b 36-a 37-a 38-b 39-a 40-a
41-b 42-a 43-a 44-b 45-d 46-b 47-c 48-a 49-a 50-a 51-b 52-c 53-c 54-d 55-c 56-a 57-a 58-c 59-d 60-
d 61-b 62-b 63-a 64-a 65-b 66-d 67-b 68-d 69-b 70-c
71-a 72-b 73-c 74-c 75-b 76-c 77-c 78-a 79-c 80-b 81-c 82-d 83-b 84-d 85-b 86-a 87-c 88-c 89-d 90-c
91-c 92-c
6
ANATOMY OF FLOWERING PLANT
1. Out of diffuse porous and ring porous woods, 5. What is true about a monocot leaf?
which is correct? [1989] [1990]
(a) Ring porous wood, carries more water for (a) Reticulate venation
short period (b) Absence of bulliform cells from epidermis
(b) Diffuse porous wood carries more water (c) Mesophyll not differentiated into palisade
(c) Ring porous wood carries more water and spongy tissues
when need is higher (d) Well diffferentiated mesophyll
(d) Diffuse porous wood is less specialized but
6. Pericycle of roots produces [1990]
conducts water rapidly through out
(a) mechanical support
2. Organization of stem apex into corpus and (b) lateral roots
tunica is determined mainly by [1989]
(c) vascular bundles
(a) planes of cell division (d) adventitious buds
(b) regions of meristematic activity
7. Cork cambium and vascular cambium are
(c) rate of cell growth
[1990]
(d) rate of shoot tip growth
(a) parts of secondary xylem and
3. For union between stock and scion in grafting phloem
which one is the first to occur? [1990]
(b) parts of pericycle (c) lateral
(a) Formation of callus meristems
(b) Production of plasmodesmata (d) apical meristems
(c) Differentiation of new vascular tissues
8. Monocot leaves possess [1990]
(d) Regeneration of cortex and epidermis
(a) intercalary meristem
4. Collenchyma occurs in the stem and petioles (b) lateral meristem
of [1990]
(c) apical meristem
(a) xerophytes (b) monocots (c) dicot (d) mass meristem
herbs (d) hydrophytes
9. Vascular cambium produces [1990,92]
er Specific 57
(a) primary xylem and primary phloem 17. A narrow layer of thin walled cells found
(b) secondary xylem and secondary phloem between phloem/bark and wood of a dicot is
(c) primary xylem and secondary phloem [1993]
(d) secondary xylem and primary phloem (a) cork cambium
10. Where do the Casparian bands occur? (b) vascular cambium
[1990,94,99] (c) endodermis
(a) Epidermis (b) Endodermis (d) pericycle
(c) Pericycle (d) Phloem 18. Abnormal/anomalous secondary growth
occurs in [1993]
11. Angular collenchyma occurs in [1991]
(a) Dracaena (b) ginger
(a) Cucurbita (b) Tagetes
(c) wheat (d) sunflower
(c) Althaea (d) Salvia
19. Periderm is produced by [1993]
12. An organized and differentiated cellular
structure having cytoplasm but no nucleus is (a) vascular cambium
[1991] (b) fascicular cambium
(c) phellogen
(a) vessels (b) xylem parenchyma
(d) intrafascicular cambium
(c) sieve tubes (d) tracheids
13. Commercial cork is obtained from 20. As the secondary growth takes place
[1991] (proceeds) in a tree, thickness of [1994]
(a) Berberis/Barberry (a) heartwood increases

(b) Salix/Willow (b) sapwood increases
(c) Quercus/Oak (c) both increase
(d) both remain the same
(d) Betula/Birch
14. A bicollateral vascular bundle is characterised 21. Procambium forms [1994]
by [1992] (a) only primary vascular bundles
(a) phloem being sandwitched between (b) only vascular cambium
xylem (c) only cork cambium
(b) transverse splitting of vascular bundle (d) primary vascular bundles and vascular
(c) longitudinal splitting of vascular bundle cambium
(d) xylem being sandwitched between 22. What is not true about sclereids?
phloem [1996]
15. Which exposed wood will decay faster? (a) These are parenchyma cells with
[1993] thickened lignified walls
(b) These are elongated and flexible with
(a) Sapwood (b)
tapered ends
Softwood
(c) These are commonly found in the shells of
(c) Wood with lot of fibres
nuts and in the pulp of guava, pear etc (d)
(d) Heartwood
These are also called the stone cells
16. Bordered pits are found in [1993]
23. At maturity which of the following is
(a) sieve cells (b) vessel wall enucleate? [1997]
(c) companion cells (d) sieve tube wall
(a) Sieve cell (b) Companion cell
(c) Palisade cell
(d) Cortical cell 29. Axillary bud and terminal bud are derived
from the activity of [2002]
24. A leaf primordium grows into the adult leaf
lamina by means of [1998] (a) lateral meristem
(a) apical meristem (b) intercalary meristem
(b) lateral meristem (c) apical meristem
(c) marginal meristem (d) parenchyma
(d) at first by apical meristem and later 30. Vessels are found in [2002]
largely by marginal meristem (a) all angiosperms and some gymnosperms
25. Which of the following meristems is (b) most of angiosperms and few
responsible for extrastelar secondary growth gymnosperms
in dicotyledonous stem? [1998] (c) all angiosperms and few gymnosperms
(a) Intrafascicular cambium and some pteridophytes
(b) Interfascicular cambium (d) all pteridophytes
(c) Intercalary meristem 31. Four radial vascular bundles are found in
(d) Phellogen [2002]
26. What happens during vascularization in (a) dicot root (b) monocot root
plants? [2000] (c) dicot stem (d) monocot stem
(a) Differentiation of procambium is
32. The apical meristem of the root is present
immediately followed by the
[2003]
development of secondary xylem and
phloem (a) in all the roots (b) only in radicals
(b) Differentiation of procambium followed (c) only in tap roots
by the development of xylem and phloem (d) only in adventitious roots
(c) Differentiation of procambium, xylem and 33. The cells of the quiescent centre are
phloem is simultaneous characterised by [2003]
(d) Differentiation of procambium followed (a) dividing regularly to add to tunica
by the development of primary phloem
(b) having dense cytoplasm and prominent
and then by primary xylem
nuclei
27. Loading of phloem is related to [2001] (c) having light cytoplasm and small nuclei
(a) increase of sugar in phloem (d) dividing regularly to add to the corpus
(b) elongation of phloem cell 34. Chlorenchyma is known to develop in the
(c) separation of phloem parenchyma [2003]
(d) strengthening of phloem fibre
(a) pollen tube of Pinus
28. Which of the following statements is true? (b) cytoplasm of Chlorella
[2002] (c) mycelium of a green mould such as
(a) Vessels are multicellular with narrow Aspergillus
lumen (d) spore capsule of a moss
(b) Tracheids are multicellular with narrow 35. In a longitudinal section of root, starting from
lumen the tip upward, the four zones occur in the 3
(c) Vessels are unicellular with wide lumen following order [2004]
(d) Tracheids are unicellular with wide lumen (a) root cap, cell division, cell enlargement,
cell maturation
er Specific 59
(b) root cap, cell division, cell maturation, cell (b) plerome
enlargement (c) periblem
(c) cell division, cell enlargement, cell (d) dermatogen
maturation, root cap
41. The length of different internodes in a culm of
(d) cell division, cell maturation, cell
sugarcane is variable because of
enlargement, root cap
[2008]
36. In a woody dicotyledonous tree, which of the (a) shoot apical meristem
following parts will mainly consist of primary (b) position of axillary buds
tissues? [2005] (c) size of leaf lamina at the node below each
(a) All parts internode
(b) Stem and root (d) intercalary meristem
(c) Flowers, fruits and leaves 42. Anatomically fairly old dicotyledonous root is
(d) Shoot tips and root tips distinguished from the dicotyledonous stem
37. A common structural feature of vessel by: [2009]
elements and sieve tube elements are [2006] (a) Presence of cortex
(a) pores on lateral walls (b) Position of protoxylem
(b) presence of p-protein (c) Absence of secondary xylem
(c) enucleate condition (d) Absence of secondary phloem
(d) thick secondary walls 43. The annular and spirally thickened conducting
38. For a critical study of secondary growth in elements generally develop in the protoxylem
plants, which one of the following pairs is when the root or stem is: [2009]
suitable? [2007] (a) widening
(a) Sugarcane and sunflower (b) differentiating
(b) Teak and pine (c) maturing
(c) Deodar and fern (d) elongating
(d) Wheat and maiden hair fern 44. Reduction in vascular tissue, mechanical
39. Passage cells are thin walled cells found in tissue and cuticle is characteristic of: [2009]
[2007] (a) Epiphytes
(a) endodermis of roots facilitating rapid (b) Hydrophytes
transport of water from cortex to (c) Xerophytes
pericycle (d) Mesophytes
(b) phloem elements that serve as entry 45. The chief water conducting elements of xylem
points for substances for transport to in gymnosperms are [Pre. 2010]
other plant parts
(a) Vessels
(c) testa of seeds to enable emergence of (b) Fibres
growing embryonic axis during seed
(c) Transfusion tissue
germination
(d) Tracheids
(d) central region of style through which the
pollen tube grows towards the ovary 46. Which one of the following is not a lateral
meristem? [Pre. 2010]
40. Vascular tissues in flowering plants develop
from [2008] (a) Intrafascicular cambium
(b) Interfascicular cambium
(a) phellogen
(c) Phellogen (c) Cambium

(d) Intercalary meristem (d) Phloem fibres
47. Heartwood differs from sapwood in 53. An organic substance that can withstand
[2010] environmental extremes and cannot be
(a) Presence of rays and fibres degraded by any enzyme is [Pre. 2012]
(a) Absence of vessels and parenchyma (a) Lignin
(c) Having dead and non-conducting (b) Cellulose
elements (c) Cuticle
(d) Being susceptible to pests and pathogens (d) Sporopollenin
48. Function of companion cells is [Mains 2011] 54. Closed vascular bundles lack [Pre. 2012]
(a) Loading of sucrose into sieve elements. (a) Cambium
(b) Providing energy to sieve elements for (b) Pith
active transport. (c) Ground tissue
(c) Providing water to phloem (d) Conjuctive tissues
(d) Loading of sucrose into sieve elements by 55. Companion-cells are closely associated with
passive transport.
[Pre. 2012]
49. Some vascular bundles are described as open (a) Trichomes
because these [2011] (b) Guard cells
(a) Are not surrounded by pericycle (c) Sieve elements
(b) Are surrounded by pericycle but no (d) Vessel elements
endodermis
56. The common bottle cork is a product of :-
(c) Are capable of producing secondary xylem
[Pre. 2012]
and phloem.
(d) Possess conjunctive tissue between xylem (a) Xylem
and phloem. (b) Vascular Cambium
(c) Dermatogen
50. The cork cambium, cork and secondary cortex
(d) Phellogen
are collectively called – [Pre. 2011]
(a) Phelloderm 57. As compared to a dicot root, a monocot root
(b) Phellogen has [Mains 2012]
(c) Periderm (a) Many xylem bundles
(d) Phellem (b) Inconspicuous annual rings
(c) Relatively thicker periderm
51. Ground tissue includes [Pre. 2011]
(d) More abundant secondary xylem
(a) All tissues external to endodermis
(b) All tissues except epidermis and vascular 58. Age of a tree can be estimated by
bundles [2013]
(c) Epidermis and cortex (a) Its height and girth
(d) All tissues internal to endodermis (b) Biomass
(c) Number of annual rings
52. Gymnosperms are also called soft wood
(d) Diameter of its heartwood
spermatophytes because they lack [Pre. 2012]
(a) Thick-walled tracheids 59. Interfascicular cambium develops from the
(b) Xylem fibres cells of [2013]
er Specific 61
(a) Medullary rays closed because: [AIPMT 2015] (a) Cambium is

(b) Xylem parenchyma
(c) Endodermis
(d) Pericycle
60. You are given a fairly old piece of dicot stem
and a dicot root. Which of the following absent Answers
anatomical structures will you use to
distinguish between the two? [AIPMT 2014]
(a) Secondary xylem
(b) Secondary phloem
(c) Protoxylem
(d) Cortical cells (b) There are no vessels with perforations
61. Tracheids differ from other tracheary (c) Xylem is surrounded all around by phloem
elements in : [AIPMT 2014] (d) A bundle sheath surrounds each bundle
(a) Having casparian strips 64. Read the different components from (a) to (d)
(b) Being imperforated in the list given below and tell the correct
(c) Lacking nucleus order of the components with reference to
(d) Being lignified their arrangement from outer side to inner
side in a woody dicot stem:
62. A major characteristic of the monocot root is
the presence of : [AIPMT 2015] (a) Secondary cortex
(b) Wood
(a) Scattered vascular bundles
(c) Secondary phloem (d) Phellem.
(b) Vasculature without cambium
The correct order is : [RE-AIPMT 2015]
(c) Cambium sandwiched between phloem
and xylem along the radius (a) (d), (c), (a), (b)
(b) (c), (d), (b), (a)
(d) Open vascular bundles
(c) (a), (b), (d), (c)
63. Vascular bundles in monocotyledons are (d) (d), (a), (c), (b)
considered
1-c 2-a 3-a 4-c 5-c 6-b 7-c 8-a 9-b 10-b
11-b 12-c 13-c 14-d 15-a 16-b 17-b 18-a 19-c 20-c
21-d 22-a 23-a 24-d 25-d 26-b 27-a 28-a 29-c 30-b
31-a 32-a 33-c 34-d 35-a 36-d 37-c 38-b 39-a 40-b 41-d 42-
b 43-c 44-b 45-d 46-d 47-c 48-a 49-c 50-c
51-b 52-b 53-d 54-a 55-c 56-d 57-a 58-c 59-a 60-c
61-b 62-b 63-a 64-d
7
STRUCTURAL ORGANISATION IN ANIMALS
1. Mineral found in red pigment of vertebrate (b) faulty blood clotting
blood is [1989] (c) Both (a) and (b)
(a) magnesium (b) iron (d) mosquito having haemocoel
(c) calcium (d) copper 7. A person with blood group A requires blood.
2. Lymph differ from blood in possessing The blood group which can be given is
[1989] [1989]
(a) only WBC (a) A and B (b) A and AB
(b) more RBC and WBC (c) A and O (d) A, B, AB and O
(c) more RBC and few WBC 8. Which one engulfs pathogens rapidly?
(d) more WBC and few RBC [1989]
3. Histamine secreting cells are found in (a) Acidophils (b) Monocytes
[1989] (c) Basophils (d) Neutrophils
(a) connective tissue 9. Characteristics of smooth muscle fibres are
(b) lungs [1990]
(c) muscular tissue (a) spindle-shaped, unbranched, unstriated,
(d) nervous tissue uninucleate and involuntary
4. Haversian canal occurs in [1989] (b) spindle-shaped, unbranched, unstriped,
(a) humerus (b) pubis multinucleate and involuntary
(c) scapula (d) clavicle (c) cylindrical, unbranched, unstriped,
multinucleate and involuntary
5. Removal of calcium from freshly collected (d) cylindrical, unbranched, unstriated,
blood would [1989] multinucleate and voluntary
(a) cause delayed clotting
10. Brush border is characteristic of
(b) prevent clotting
[1990]
(c) cause immediate clotting
(a) Neck of nephron
(d) prevent destruction of haemoglobin
(b) collecting tube
6. Haemophilia is [1989] (c) proximal convoluted tubule
(a) royal disease (d) All of the above
er Specific 63
11. Blood group AB has [1991] ents of blood groups [1994]

(a) no antigen (a) AB and AB/O
(b) no antibody (b) A and B
(c) neither antigen nor antibody (c) B and B
(d) Both (a) and (b) (d) O and O
12. Component of blood responsible for 19. Antigens are present (a) [1995]
producing antibodies is [1992] inside the nucleus
(a) thrombocytes (b) on cell surface
(b) monocytes (c) inside the cytoplasm
(c) erythrocytes (d) on nuclear membrane
(d) lymphocytes 20. At high altitude, the RBCs in the human blood
will [1995]
13. The genotype of B group father of an O group
child is [l 992] (a) increase in size
(a) I°I° BB
(b) I I (b) decrease in size
(c) IAIB (d) IoIB (c) increase in number
(d) decrease in number
14. A man with blood group A, marries AB blood
21. Stratum germinativum is an example of which
group woman. Which type of progeny
kind of epithelium? [1997]
indicate that the man is not
homozygous?[1993] (a) Cuboidal
(a) AB (b) B (c) A (d) O (b) Ciliated
(c) Columnar
15. Vitamin-K is required for [1993]
(d) Squamous
(a) formation of thromboplastin
22. Protein present in the matrix of cartilage is
(b) conversion of fibrinogen to fibrin
known as [1997]
(c) conversion of prothrombin to thrombin
(a) chondrin
(d) synthesis of prothrombin
(b) casein
16. Formation of cartilage bones involves[1993] (c) cartilagin
(a) deposition of bony matter by osteoblasts (d) ossein
and resorption by chondroclasts
23. Basement membrane is made up of
(b) deposition of bony matter by osteoclasts
[1997]
and resorption by chondroblasts
(c) deposition of bony matter by osteoclasts (a) epidermal cells only
only (b) endodermal cells only
(d) deposition of bony matter by osteoblasts (c) Both (a) and (b)
only (d) no cell at all, but is a product of epithelial
cells
17. Epithelial tissue with thin flat cells appearing
like packed tiles occurs on [1994] 24. The Nissl’s granules of nerve cell are made up
(a) inner lining of cheek of [1997]
(b) inner lining of stomach (a) ribosomes
(c) inner lining of fallopian tubes (b) protein
(d) inner lining of ovary (c) DNA
18. A child of blood group O cannot have par- (d) RNA
25. Which of the following is agranulocyte? (a) B (b) A

[1997] (c) O (d) AB
(a) Lymphocyte 33. Ligament is a [1999]
(b) Eosinophil (c) Basophil (a) modified yellow elastic fibrous tissue
(d) Neutrophil (b) inelastic white fibrous tissue
26. The life span of human WBC is approximately (c) modified white fibrous tissue
[1997] (d) None of the above
(a) less than 10 days 34. Tendon is made up of [1999]
(b) between 20 to 30 days (a) adipose tissue
(c) between 2 to 3 months (b) modified white fibrous tissue
(d) more than 4 months (c) areolar tissue
27. In mammals, histamine is secreted by[1998] (d) yellow fibrous connective tissue
(a) fibroblasts 35. What is correct regarding leucocytes ?[2000]
(b) histocytes (a) These can squeeze out through (can cross)
(c) lymphocytes the capillary walls
(d) mast cells (b) These are enucleated
28. Which of the following is not exclusively (c) Sudden fall in their number indicates
supplied with involuntary muscles? [1998] cancer
(a) Muscular coats of blood vessels (d) These are produced in thymus
(b) Muscles of the ducts of glands 36. Child death may occur in the marriage of
(c) Muscles of iris [2000]
(d) Muscles of urethra (a) Rh+ man and Rh+ woman (b)
29. The functional unit of contractile system in Rh+ man and Rh– woman (c) Rh–
striated muscle is [1998] man and Rh– woman
(a) myofibril (d) Rh– man and Rh+ woman
(b) sarcomere 37. The polysaccharide present in the matrix of
(c) Z-lines cartilage is known as [2000]
(d) cross bridges (a) cartilagin (b) ossein
30. Haemoglobin is a type of [1999] (c) chondroitin (d) casein
(a) carbohydrate 38. Simple epithelium is a tissue in which the cells
(b) vitamin are [2000]
(c) skin pigment (a) hardened and provide support to the
(d) respiratory pigment organ
31. Which is the principal cation in the plasma of (b) cemented directly to one another to form
the blood ? [1999] a single layer
(a) Magnesium (c) continuously dividing to provide form to
(b) Sodium an organ
(c) Potassium (d) loosely connected to one another to form
(d) Calcium an irregular organ
32. The blood group with antibody-a and b is 39. An action potential in the nerve fibre is
produced when positive and negative charges
[1999]
er Specific 65
on the outside and the inside of the axon (d) A, B antigens and a, b antibodies
membrane are reversed, because [2000]
45. Which cartilage is present at the end of long
(a) more potassium ions enter the axon as bones? [2002]
compared to sodium ions leaving it
(a) Calcified cartilage
(b) more sodium ions enter the axon as
(b) Hyaline cartilage
compared to potassium ions leaving it
(c) Elastic cartilage
(c) all potassium ions leave the axon
(d) Fibrous cartilage
(d) all sodium ions enter the axon
46. Which of the following statements is correct
40. A piece of bone such as femur of frog if kept in
about node of Ranvier ? [2002]
dilute HC1 for about a week will
[2000] (a) Axolemma is discontinuous
(b) Myelin sheath is discontinuous
(a) assume black colour
(c) Both neurilemma and myelin sheath are
(b) shrink in size
discontinuous
(c) turn flexible
(d) Covered by myelin sheath
(d) crack into pieces
47. Collagen is [2002]
41. During an injury nasal septum gets damaged
(a) fibrous protein
and for its recovery which cartilage is
preferred? [2001] (b) globular protein
(c) lipid
(a) Hyaline cartilage
(d) carbohydrate
(b) Elastic cartilage
(c) Calcified cartilage 48. Which one of the following contains the
(d) Fibrous cartilage largest quantity of extracellular material?
[2003]
42. Which cells do not form layer and remain
(a) Myelinated nerve fibres
structurally separate? [2001]
(b) Striated muscle
(a) Epithelial cells
(c) Areolar tissue
(b) Muscle cells
(d) Stratified epithelium
(c) Nerve cells
(d) Gland cells 49. What used to be described as Nissl’s granules
in a nerve cell are now identified as
43. Sickle cell anaemia is due to [2001] [2003]
(a) change of amino acid in a-chain of (a) ribosomes
haemoglobin
(b) mitochondria
(b) change of amino acid in b-chain of
(c) cell metabolites
haemoglobin
(d) fat granules
(c) change of amino acid in both a and b
chains of haemoglobin 50. Mast cells of connective tissue contain
(d) change of amino acid in either a or bchain [2004]
of haemoglobin (a) vasopressin and relaxin
44. What is correct for blood group ‘O’? [2001] (b) heparin and histamine (c) heparin
and calcitonin
(a) No antigens but both a and b antibodies
(d) serotonin and melanin
are present
(b) A antigen and b antibody
(c) Antigen and antibody both absent
51. In the ABO system of blood groups, if both 57. During the transmission of nerve impulse
antigens are present but no antibody, the through a nerve fibre, the potential on the
blood group of the individual would be inner side of the plasma membrane has which
[2004] type of electric charge ? [2006]
(a) B (b) O (c) AB (d) A (a) First negative, then positive and again back
to negative
52. You are required to draw blood from a patient
and to keep it in a test tube for analysis of (b) First positive, then negative and continue
blood corpuscles and plasma. You are also to be negative
provided with the following four types of test (c) First negative, then positive and continue
tubes. Which of them will you not use for the to be positive
purpose? [2004] (d) First positive, then negative and again back
(a) Test-tube containing calcium bicarbonate to positive
(b) Chilled test-tube 58. People living at sea level have around 5 million
(c) Test-tube containing heparin RBCs per cubic millimeter of their blood
(d) Test-tube containing sodium oxalate whereas those living at an altitude of 5400
metres have around 8 million. This is because
53. In the resting state of the neural membrane, at high altitude [2006]
diffusion due to concentration gradients, if
(a) people get pollution-free air to breathe
allowed, would drive [2004]
and more oxygen is available
(a) K+ into the cell
(b) atmospheric O2 level is less and hence,
(b) K+ and Na+ out of the cell more RBCs are needed to absorb the
(c) Na+ into the cell required amount of O2 to survive
(d) Na+ out of the cell (c) there is more UV radiation which enhances
54. ATPase enzyme needed for muscle RBC production
contraction is located in [2004] (d) people eat more nutritive food, therefore,
(a) actinin more RBCs are formed
(b) troponin 59. A drop of each of the following, is placed
(c) myosin separately on four slides. Which of them will
(d) actin not coagulate ? [2007]
55. Which of the following substances, if (a) Blood plasma
introduced into the blood stream, would cause (b) Blood serum
coagulation of blood at the site of its (c) Sample from the thoracic duct of
introduction? [2005] lymphatic system
(a) Prothrombin (d) Whole blood from pulmonary vein
(b) Fibrinogen 60. Which one of the following mammalian cells is
(c) Thromboplastin not capable of metabolizing glucose to car-
(d) Heparin bon-dioxide aerobically ? [2007]
56. Areolar connective tissue joins [2006] (a) White blood cells
(b) Unstriated muscle cells
(a) integument with muscles
(c) liver cells
(b) bones with muscles
(d) Red blood cells
(c) bones with bones
(d) fat body with muscles
er Specific 67
61. In which one of the following preparations are (d) Na+ ions from extracellular fluid to
you likely to come across cell junctions most intracellular fluid
frequently? [2007] 67. The cell junctions called tight, adhering and
(a) Ciliated epithelium gap junctions are found in: [2009]
(b) Thrombocytes (a) Epithelial tissue
(c) Tendon (b) Neural tissue
(d) Hyaline cartilage (c) Muscular tissue
62. Which one of the following pairs of structures (d) Connective tissue
distinguishes a nerve cell from other types of 68. The epithelial tissue present on the inner
cell? [2007] surface of bronchioles and fallopian tubes is
(a) Perikaryon and dendrites [2009]
(b) Vacuoles and fibres (a) Ciliated (b) Squamous
(c) Flagellum and medullary sheath (c) Cuboidal (d) Glandular
(d) Nucleus and mitochondria
69. Palisade parenchyma is absent in leaves of
63. The most active phagocytic white blood cells [2009]
are [2008] (a) Soybean (b) Gram
(a) neutrophils and eosinophils (c) Sorghum (d) Mustard
(b) lymphocytes and macrophages
70. Globulins contained in human blood plasma
(c) eosinophils and lymphocytes
are primarily involved in: [2009]
(d) neutrophils and monocytes
(a) oxygen transport in the blood
64. Which one of the following items gives its (b) clotting of blood
correct total number? [2008] (c) defence mechanisms of body
(a) Floating ribs in humans—4 (d) osmotic balance of body fluids
(b) Amino acids found in proteins—16
71. The most popularly known blood grouping is
(c) Types of diabetes—3
the ABO grouping. It is named ABO and not
(d) Cervical vertebrae in humans—8 ABC, because “O” in it refers to having:
65. Which type of white blood cells are concerned [2009]
with the release of histamine and the natural (a) one antibody only - either anti-A or antiB
anticoagulant heparin? [2008] on the RBCs
(a) Neutrophils (b) no antigens A and B on RBCs
(b) Basophils (c) other antigens besides A and B on RBCs
(c) Eosinophils (d) overdominance of this type on the genes
(d) Monocytes for A and B types
66. During the propagation of a nerve impulse, the 72. The kind of tissue that forms the supportive
action potential results from the movement of structure in our pinna (external ears) is also
[2008] found in: [2009]
(a) K+ ions from extracellular fluid to (a) ear ossicles
intracellular fluid (b) tip of the nose
(b) Na+ ions from intracellular fluid to (c) vertebrae
extracellular fluid (d) nails
(c) K+ ions from intracellular fluid to
extracellular fluid
73. Which one of the following is the correct 79. The cells lining the blood vessels belong to
matching of three items and their grouping category of [Mains 2011]
category? [2009] Items Group (a) Connective tissue
(a) actin, myosin, rhodopsin muscle (b) Smooth muscle tissue
proteins (b) cytosine, uracil, thiamine (c) Squamous epithelium
pyrimidines
(d) Columnar epithelium
(c) malleus, incus, cochlea ear ossicles
(d) ilium, ischium, pubis coxal bones of pelvic 80. Which one of the following plasma proteins is
girdle involved in the coagulation of blood ?
[Pre. 2011]
74. In barley stem vascular bundles are: [2009]
(a) An albumin (b) Serum amylase
(a) open and in a ring (c) A globulin (d) Fibrinogen
(b) closed and radial
(c) open and scattered 81. The ciliated columnar epithelial cells in
humans are known to occur in [Pre. 2011]
(d) closed and scattered
(a) Eustachian tube and stomach lining
75. Compared to blood our lymph has:
(b) Bronchioles and Fallopian tubes
[2009]
(c) Bile duct and oesophagus
(a) more WBCs and no RBCs
(d) Fallopian tubes and urethra
(b) more RBCs and less WBCs
(c) no plasma 82. The supportive skeletal structures in the
human external ears and in the nose tip are
(d) plasma without proteins
examples of [Mains 2012]
76. The kind of epithelium which forms the inner (a) Areolar tissue (b) Bone
walls of blood vessels is [Pre. 2010]
(c) Cartilage (d) Ligament
(a) cuboidal epithelium
83. Given below is the diagrammatic sketch of a
(b) columnar epithelium
certain type of connective tissue. identify the
(c) ciliated columnar epithelium
parts labeled A, B, C and D and select the right
(d) squamous epithelium option about them [Mains 2012]
77. ABO blood groups in humans are controlled by
the gene I It has three alleles-IA, IB and i. Since
there are three different alleles, six different
genotypes are possible. How many
phenotypes can occur? [Pre. 2010]
(a) Three (b) One
(c) Four (d) Two
Option
78. What is true about RBCs in humans?[2010] Part-A Part-B Part-C Part-D
(a) They carry about 20-35 per cent of CO2 (a) Mast cell Marco- Fibroblast Collagen
(b) They transport 99.5 per cent of O2 phage fibres
(c) They transport about 80 per cent oxygen
(b)Macro- Collegen Fibroblast Mast cell
only and the rest 20 per cent of it is
phage fibres
transported in dissolved state in blood
plasma (c) Mast cell Collagen Fibroblast Macrophage
(d) They do not carry CO2 at all fibres
(d)Macro- Fibroblast Collagen Mast cell
er Specific 69
phage fibres (b) (D) SmoothHeart Heart contraction

muscle tissue
84. The four sketches (A, B, C and D) given below, (c) (A) Columnar Nephron Secretion and
represent four different types of animal epithelium absorption
tissues. Which one of these is correctly (d) (B) Glandular
identified in the options given, along with its epithelium Intestine Secretion
correct location and function ? [Mains 2012] 85. Choose the correctly matched pair :
[AIPMT 2014]
(a) Tendon - Specialized connective tissue
(b) Adipose tissue - Dense connective tissue
(c) Areolar tissue - Loose connective tissue
(d) Cartilage - Loose connective tissue
86. Choose the correctly matched pair:
[AIPMT 2014]
(a) Inner lining of salivary ducts - Ciliated
epithelium
(b) Moist surface of buccal cavity-Glandular
epithelium
(c) Tubular parts of nephrons-Cuboidal
epithelium
(d) Inner surface of bronchioles-Squamous
epithelium
87. The terga, sterna and pleura of cockroach
(A) body are joined by : [AIPMT 2015]
(a) Muscular tissue
(b) Arthrodial membrane (c) Cartilage (d)
Cementing glue
88. The function of the gap junction is to :
[RE-AIPMT 2015]
(a) Stop substance from leaking across a
(C) tissue
(b) Performing cementing to keep
neighbouring cells together
(c) Facilitate communication between
adjoining cells by connecting the
cytoplasm for rapid transfer of ions, small
molecules and some large molecules
(d) Separate two cells from each other.
89. The body cells in cockroach discharge their
Tissue Location Function nitrogenous waste in the haemolymph mainly
(a) (C) Collagen Cartilage Attach skeletal in the form of : [RE-AIPMT 2015] (a) Calcium
fibres muscles to bones carbonate (b) Ammonia
(c) Potassium urate (d) Urea Answers
1-b 2-a 3-a 4-a 5-b 6-c 7-c 8-d 9-a 10-c
11-b 12-d 13-d 14-b 15-d 16-d 17-a 18-a 19-b 20-c
21-c 22-a 23-d 24-a 25-a 26-a 27-d 28-b 29-b 30-d
31-b 32-c 33-b 34-b 35-a 36-b 37-c 38-b 39-b 40-c
41-a 42-c 43-b 44-a 45-b 46-b 47-a 48-c 49-a 50-b
51-c 52-a 53-c 54-c 55-c 56-a 57-a 58-b 59-b 60-d
61-a 62-a 63-d 64-a 65-b 66-d 67-a 68-a 69-c 70-c 71-b 72-b 73-d 74-d 75-a 76-d 77-c 78-a 79-c 80-d
81-b 82-c 83-d 84-d 85-c 86-c 87-b 88-c 89-c
8A
CELL : THE UNIT OF LIFE – TOOLS AND
TECHNIQUES
1. Organelles can be separated from cell (d) tube length
homogenate through [1989]
4. Resolution power is the ability to
(a) chromatography [1991]
(b) X-rays diffraction (a) distinguish two trees
(c) differential centrifugation (b) distinguish two close objects
(d) auto-radiography (c) distinguish amongst organelles
2. Electron microscope has a high resolution (d) magnify image
power. This is due to [1990,92]
5. Angstrom (Å) is equal to [1992]
(a) electromagnetic lenses (a) 0.01 µm (b) 0.001µm
(b) very low wavelength of electron beam (c) 0.0001µm (d) 0.00001 µm
(c) low wavelength of light source used 6. Binding of specific protein on regulatory
(d) high numerical aperture of glass lenses DNA sequence can be studied by means of
used
[1993]
3. Magnification of compound microscope is not (a) ultra centrifugation
connected with [1990] (b) electron microscope
(a) numerical aperture (c) light microscope
(b) focal length of objective (d) X-rays crystallography
(c) focal length of eye piece
ster Specific 71
7. A student wishes to study the cell structure (a) the resolving power of the electron
under a light microscope having 10X eyepiece microscope is 200-350 nm as compared to
and 45X objective. He should illuminate the 0.1- 0.2 for the light microscope
object by which one of the following colours of (b) electron beam can pass through thick
light so as to get the best possible resolution? materials, whereas light microscopy
[2004] required thin sections
(a) Blue (b) Green (c) the electron microscope is more powerful
(c) Yellow (d) Red than the light microscope as it uses a beam
of electrons which has wavelength much
8. A major break through in the studies of cells longer than that of photons
came with the development of electron
microscope. This is because [2006]
(d) the resolution power of the electron (b) separation of DNA fragments according microscope is much higher
than that of to their size
the light microscope (c) construction of recombinant DNA by
joining with cloning vectors
9. Gel electrophoresis is used for [2008]
(a) cutting of DNA into fragments (d) isolation of DNA molecule
72 Trueman’s AIPMT Biology Rebooster Specific
8B
CELL : THE UNIT OF LIFE – CELL
STRUCTURE
1. Polyribosomes are aggregates of (b) semi-permeability differential
[1989] permeability impermeability
(a) ribosomes and rRNA 6. Ribosomes were discovered by [1991]
(b) only rRNA (a) Golgi (b) Porter
(c) peroxisomes (c) de Robertis (d) Palade
(d) several ribosomes held together by string 7. Ribosomes are the centre for [1992]
of mRNA (a) respiration
2. Plasma membrane is made up of (b) photosynthesis
[1989] (c) protein synthesis
(a) proteins and carbohydrates (d) fat synthesis
(b) proteins and lipids 8. An outer covering membrane is absent over
(c) proteins, lipids and carbohydrates [1992]
(d) proteins, some nucleic acid and lipids (a) nucleolus
3. Fluid mosaic model of cell membrane was put (b) lysosome
forward by [1991] (c) mitochondrion
(a) Danielli and Davson (d) plastids
(b) Singer and Nicolson 9. All plastids have similar structure because
(c) Garner and Allard they can [1992]
(d) Watson and Crick (a) store starch, lipids and proteins
4. Addition of new cell wall particles amongst the (b) get transformed from one type to another
existing ones is [1991] (c) perform same function
(a) deposition (b) apposition (d) be present together
(c) intussusception 10. Oxysomes or F0-F1 particles occur on
(d) aggregation [1992]
5. Cell wall shows [1991] (a) thylakoids
(a) complete permeability (b) mitochondrial surface
(c) inner mitochondrial membrane
(c)
(d)
ogy Rebooster Specific 73
(d) chloroplast surface (a) higher plants (b) yeast bacteria and blue-
11. Which one is apparato reticulare interno? green algae None of the above
[1992] 17. Inner membrane convolutions of a
(a) Golgi apparatus mitochondrion are known as [1994]
(b) Endoplasmic reticulum (a) lamellae (b) thylakoids
(c) Microfilaments (c) grana (d) cristae
(d) Microtubules 18. Cell organelles having hydrolases/digestive
12. Which is correct about cell theory in view of enzymes are [1994]
current status of our knowledge about cell (a) peroxisomes (b) lysosomes
structure? [1993] (c) ribosomes (d) mesosomes
(a) It needs modification due to discovery of 19. Organelle/organoid involved in genetic
subcellular structures like chloroplasts and engineering is [1994]
mitochondria
(a) plasmid
(b) Modified cell theory means that all living
(b) mitochondrion
beings are composed of cells capable of
(c) Golgi apparatus
reproducing
(d) lomasome
(c) Cell theory does not hold good because all
living beings do not have cellular 20. Mitochondrial cristae are sites of
organisation (eg, viruses) [1994]
(d) Cell theory means that all living objects (a) breakdown of macromolecules
consist of cells whether or not capable of (b) protein synthesis
reproducing (c) phosphorylation of flavoproteins
13. In plant cells, peroxisomes are associated (d) oxidation-reduction reactions
with [1993] 21. Organelle having flattened membrane bound
(a) photorespiration (b) phototropism cisternae and lying near the nucleus is
(c) photoperiodism (d) photosynthesis [1994]
14. Name of Schleiden and Schwann are (a) Golgi apparatus
associated with [1993] (b) mitochondrion
(a) protoplasm as the physical basis of life (c) centriole
(b) cell theory (d) nucleolus
(c) theory of cell lineage 22. Series of reactions which can convert fatty
(d) nucleus functions as control centre of cell acids to sugars in plants but not in animals is
[1994]
15. Membranous bag with hydrolytic enzymes
which is used for controlling intracellular (a) Krebs cycle (b) glyoxylate cycle
digestion of macromolecules is [1993] (c) Ornithine cycle(d) glycolysis
(a) endoplasmic reticulum 23. The prokaryotic flagella possess
(b) nucleosome [1995]
(c) lysosome (a) unit membrane enclosed fibre
(d) phagosome (b) protein membrane enclosed fibre
16. Golgi apparatus is absent in [1993] (c) ‘9+2’ membrane enclosed structure
(d) helically arranged protein molecule
24. The desmosomes are concerned with (a) liposomes

[1995] (b) Golgi bodies microsomes glyoxysomes
(a) cytolysis (b) cell division 32. Photosynthetic bacteria have pigments in
(c) cell adherence (d) cellular excretion [1999]
25. The function of rough endoplasmic reticulum (a) chromoplasts
is [1995] (b) leucoplasts
(a) fat synthesis (c) chloroplasts
(b) lipid synthesis (d) chromatophore
(c) protein synthesis 33. Which of the following organ has single
(d) steroid synthesis membrane? [1999]
26. Lysosomes have a high content of (a) Nucleus (b) Cell wall
[1996] (c) Mitochondria (d) Spherosomes
(a) hydrolytic enzymes 34. Lysosomes are reservoirs of [2000]
(b) lipoproteins
(a) RNA and protein
(c) polyribosomes
(b) fats
(d) DNAligases
(c) secretory glycoproteins
27. Protein synthesis in an animal cell takes place (d) hydrolytic enzymes
[1997]
35. In an animal cell, protein synthesis takes
(a) only in cytoplasm place [2000]
(b) in the nucleolus as well as in the cytoplasm
(a) only on the ribosomes present in cytosol
(c) in the cytoplasm as well as in mitochondria
(b) only on ribosomes attached to nuclear
(d) only on ribosomes attached to nucleus envelope and ER
28. The mechanism of ATP formation both in (c) on ribosomes present in the nucleolus as
chloroplast and mitochondria is explained by well as in cytoplasm
[1997] (d) on ribosomes present in the cytosol as well
(a) Relay pump theory of Godlewski as in the mitochondria
(b) Cholodny-Went’s model 36. The cell organelle involved in glycosylation of
(c) Chemiosmotic theory protein is [2000]
(d) Munch’s mass flow hypothesis (a) ribosome
29. The proteins are synthesized at (b) peroxisome
[1998] (c) endoplasmic reticulum
(a) ribosomes (b) mitochondria (d) mitochondria
(c) centrosomes (d) Golgi bodies 37. Microtubules absent in [2001]
30. Microtubule is involved in the [1998] (a) mitochondria (b) centriole
(a) cell division (c) flagella (d) spindle fibres
(b) membrane architecture 38. In fluid mosaic model of plasma membrane
(c) muscle contraction [2002]
(d) DNA recognition (a) upper layer is non-polar and hydrophilic
31. Some of the enzymes which are associated in (b) upper layer is polar and hydrophobic
converting fats into carbohydrates, are
present in [1999]
ogy Rebooster Specific 75
(c) phospholipids form a bimolecular layer in

middle part
(d) proteins form a middle layer
39. In which one of the following is nitrogen not a (c) stroma (d) Both (a) and (c)
constituent? [2003] 46. Protein synthesis in an animal cell occurs
(a) Pepsin [2005]
(b) Idioblast
(a) only on the ribosomes present in cytosol
(c) Bacteriochlorophyll
(b) only on ribosomes attached to the nuclear
(d) Invertase envelope and endoplasmic reticulum
40. Flagella of prokaryotic and eukaryotic cells (c) on ribosomes present in the nucleolus as
differ in [2004] well as in cytoplasm
(a) type of movement and placement in cell (b) (d) on ribosomes present in cytoplasm as well
location in cell and mode of functioning as in mitochondria
(c) microtubular organization and type of 47. According to widely accepted “fluid mosaic
movement model” cell membranes are semi-fluid, where
(d) microtubular organization and function lipids and integral proteins can diffuse
41. Extra nuclear inheritance is a consequence of randomly. In recent years, this model has
presence of genes in [2004] been modified in several respects. In this
regard, which of the following statements is
(a) mitochondria and chloroplasts
incorrect? [2005]
(b) endoplasmic reticulum and mitochondria
(a) Proteins in cell membranes can travel
(c) ribosomes and chloroplast
within the lipid bilayer
(d) lysosomes and ribosomes
(b) Proteins can also undergo flip-flop
42. In chloroplasts, chlorophyll is present in the movements in the lipid bilayer
[2004] (c) Proteins can remain confined within
(a) outer membrane certain domains of the membrane
(b) inner membrane (d) Many proteins remain completely
(c) thylakoids embedded within the lipid bilayer
(d) stroma 48. Which of the following statements regarding
43. The main organelle involved in modification mitochondrial membrane is not correct?
and routing of newly synthesized proteins to [2006]
their destinations is [2005] (a) The enzymes of the electron transfer chain
(a) chloroplast are embedded in the outer membrane
(b) mitochondria (b) The inner membrane is highly convoluted
(c) lysosome forming a series of infoldings
(d) endoplasmic reticulum (c) The outer membrane resembles a sieve
(d) The outer membrane is permeable to all
44. Genes for cytoplasmic male sterility in plants kinds of molecules
are generally located in [2005]
49. During photorespiration, the oxygen
(a) mitochondrial genome
consuming reaction occurs in [2006]
(b) cytosol
(a) stroma of chloroplasts and mitochondria
(c) chloroplast genome
(b) stroma of chloroplasts and peroxisomes
(d) nuclear genome
(c) grana of chloroplasts and peroxisomes
45. Chlorophyll in chloroplast is located in (d) stroma of chloroplasts
[2005] 50. Select the wrong statement from the
(a) grana (b) pyrenoid following [2007]
Trueman’s AIPMT Biology Rebooster Specific 77
(a) both chloroplasts and mitochondria (d) Locomotary structures
contain an inner and an outer membrane
56. Middle lamella is composed mainly of
(b) both chloroplasts and mitochondria have
[2009]
an internal compartment, the thylakoid
space bounded by the thylakoid membrane (a) Calcium pectate(b) Phosphoglycerides
(c) both chloroplasts and mitochondria (c) Hemicellulose (d) Muramic acid
contain DNA 57. Which one of the following structures
(d) the chloroplasts are generally much larger between two adjacent cells is an effective
than mitochondria trans-
port pathway? [Pre. 2010]
51. Vacuole in a plant cell [2008]
(a) Plasmodesmata
(a) is membrane-bound and contains storage
proteins and lipids (b) Plastoquinones
(b) is membrane-bound and contains water (c) Endoplasmic reticulum
and excretory substances (d) Plasmalemma
(c) lacks membrane and contains air 58. Which one of the following has its own
(d) lacks membrane and contains water and DNA? [Pre.
excretory substances 2010]
52. Keeping in view the ‘fluid mosaic model’ for (a) Mitochondria (b) Dictyosome
the structure of cell membrane, which one of (c) Lysosome (d) Peroxisome
the following statements is correct with
59. The main arena of various types of activities of
respect to the movement of lipids and
a cell is [Pre. 2010]
proteins from one lipid monolayer to the
other (described as flip-flop movement)? (a) Plasma membrane
[2008] (b) Mitochondria
(a) Both lipids and proteins can flip-flop (c) Cytoplasm (d) Nucleus
(b) While lipids can rarely flip-flop, proteins 60. The plasma membrane consists mainly of
cannot [Pre. 2010]
(c) While proteins can flip-flop, lipids cannot (a) phospholipids embedded in a protein
(d) Neither lipids, nor proteins can flip-flop bilayer
53. In germinating seeds fatty acids are degraded (b) proteins embedded in a phospholipid
exclusively in the [2008] bilayer
(a) proplastids (b) glyoxysomes (c) proteins embedded in a polymer of glucose
(c) peroxisomes (d) mitochondria molecules
(d) proteins embedded in a carbohydrate
54. The two subunits of ribosome remain united bilayer
at a critical ion level of [2008]
61. An elaborate network of filamentous
(a) copper (b) manganese
proteinaceous structures present in the
(c) magnesium (d) calcium
cytoplasm which helps in the maintenance of
55. Plasmodesmata are : [2009] cell shape is called [Mains 2010]
(a) Membranes connecting the nucleus with (a) Endosplasmic Reticulum
plasmalemma (b) Plasmalemma
(b) Connections between adjacent cells (c) Cytoskeleton
(c) Lignified cemented layers between cells (d) Thylakoid
62. Identify the components labelled A, B,C and 66. The figure below shows the structure of a
D in the diagram below mitochondrion with
from the list (i) to its four parts labelled
(viii) given with [Mains (A), (B), (C) and (D).
2010] Select the part
correctly matched
with its function.
[Mains 2011]
D
B
A C
Components :
(i) Cristae of mitochondria
(ii) Inner membrane of mitochondria
(iii) Cytoplasm (a) Part (A): Matrix - major site for respiratory
(iv) Smooth endoplasmic reticulum chain enzymes
(v) Rough endoplasmic reticulum (b) Part (D) : Outer membrane - gives use to
(vi) Mitochondrial matrix inner membrane by splitting
(vii) Cell vacuole (viii) Nucleus The correct (c) Part (B) : Inner membrane - forms
component are : infoldings called cristae
A B C D (d) Part (C) : Cristae - possess single circular
(a) (i) (iv) (viii) (vi) DNA molecule and ribosomes
(b) (vi) (v) (iv) (vii) 67. Which one of the following cellular parts is
(c) (v) (i) (iii) (ii) correctly described ? [Mains 2012]
(d) (v) (iv) (viii) (iii) (a) Centrioles - sites for active RNA synthesis
63. Important site for formation of glycoproteins (b) Ribosomes - those on chloroplasts are
and glycolipids is [Pre. 2011] larger (80s) while those in the cytoplasm
(a) Vacuole (b) Golgi apparatus are smaller (70s)
(c) Plastid (d) Lysosome (c) Lysosomes - optimally active at a pH of
64. Peptide synthesis inside a cell takes place in about 8.5
[Pre. 2011] (d) Thylakoids - flattened membranous sacs
forming the grana of chloroplasts
(a) Chloroplast (b) Mitochondria
(c) Chromoplast (d) Ribosomes 68. Which one of the following structures is an
organelle within an organelle ?
65. Which one of the following is not considered
as a part of the endomembrane system ? (a) Peroxisome (b) ER [Mains 2012]
[Mains 2011] (c) Mesosome (d) Ribosome
(a) Lysosome (b) Golgi complex 69. Select the correct statement from the
(c) Peroxisome (d) Vacuole following regarding cell membrane [Pre.
2012]
(a) Lipids are arranged in a bilayer with polar
heads towards the inner part
(b) Fluid mosaic model of cell membrane was
proposed by Singer and Nicolson
(c) Na+ and K+ ions move across cell membrane
by passive transport
(d) Proteins make up 60 to 70% of the cell
membrane (a) Rough endopolasmic reticulum, formation
70. What is true about ribosomes ? [Pre. 2012] (a) of glycoproteins
These are found only in eukaryotic cells (b) Golgi apparatus, protein synthesis
(c) Golgi apparatus, formation of glycolipids
(b) These are self-splicing introns of some
(d) Rough endoplasmic reticulum, protein
RNAs
synthesis
(c) The prokaryotic ribosomes are 80s
where”S” stands for sedimentation 76. Which structures perform the function of
coefficient mitochondria in bacteria? [AIPMT 2014]
(d) These are composed of ribonucleic acid (a) Nucleoid (b) Ribosomes
and proteins (c) Cell wall (d) Mesosomes
71. Ribosomal RNA is actively synthesized in 77. The solid linear cytoskeletal elements having a
[Pre. 2012] diameter of 6 nm and made up of a single type
(a) Nucleoplasm (b) Ribosomes of monomer are known as
(c) Lysosomes (d) Nucleolus [AIPMT 2014]
(a) Microtubules (b) Microfilaments
72. A major site for synthesis of lipids is
(c) Intermediate filaments
(a) RER (b) SER [Pre. 2013]
(d) Lamins
(c) Symplast (d) Nucleoplasm
78. The osmotic expansion of a cell kept in water
73. Which of the following criteria does not
is chiefly regulated by - [AIPMT 2014]
pertain to facilitated transport ? [ 2013]
(a) Mitochondria (b) Vacuoles
(a) Requirement of special membrane proteins
(c) Plastids (d) Ribosomes
(b) High selectivity
(c) Transport saturation 79. Match the following and select the correct
(d) Uphill transport answer [AIPMT 2014]
74. The Golgi complex plays a major role[2013] Column I Column II
(a) in trapping the light and transforming it A. Centriole (i) Infoldings in
into chemical energy mitochondria
(b) in digensting proteins and carbohydrates B. Chlorophyll (ii) Thylakoids
(c) as energy transferring organelles C. Cristae (iii) Nucleic acids
(d) in post translational modification of D. Ribozymes (iv) Basal body cilia or
proteins and glycosidation of lipids flagella
(a) A (iv); B (ii); C (i); D (iii)
75. Which one of the following organelle in the
figure correctly matches with its function ? (b) A (i); B (ii); C (iv); D (iii)
[2013] (c) A (i); B (iii); C (ii); D (iv)
(d) A (iv); B (iii); C (i); D (ii)
80. Cytochromes are found in :- [AIPMT 2015]
(a) Outer wall of mitochondria 86. Which of the following structures is not found
(b) Cristae of mitochondria in prokaryotic cells?
(c) Lysosomes
(d) Matrix of
mitochondria Answers
81. DNA is not present in : [AIPMT 2015] (a) Plasma membrane [RE-AIPMT
2015]
(a) Ribosomes (b) Nucleus
(b) Nuclear envelope
(c) Mitochondria (d) Chloroplast
(c) Ribosome (d) Mesosome
82. Nuclear envelope is a derivative of :-
[AIPMT 2015] 87. Which of the following are not
membranebound? [RE-AIPMT 2015]
(a) Membrane of Golgi complex
(b) Microtubules (a) Mesosomes (b) Vacuoles
(c) Rough endoplasmic reticulum (c) Ribosomes (d) Lysosomes
(d) Smooth endoplasmic reticulum 88. Cellular organelles with membranes are :
83. The structures that are formed by stacking of [RE-AIPMT 2015]
organized flattened membranous sacs in the (a) Lysosomes, Golgi apparatus and
chloroplasts are: [AIPMT 2015] mitochondria
(b) Nuclei, ribosomes and mitochondria
(c) Chromosomes, ribosomes and
endoplasmic reticulum
(d) Endoplasmic reticulum, ribosomes and
nuclei
89. Match the columns and identify the correct
option: [RE-AIPMT 2015]
(a) Grana (b) Stroma lamellae Column-I Column-II
(c) Stroma (d) Cristae (a) Thylakoids (i) Disc-shaped sacs in
84. Which one of the following is not an inclusion Golgi apparatus
body found in prokaryotes ? (b) Cristae (ii) Condensed structure
(a) Cyanophycean granule [AIPMT 2015] of DNA
(b) Glycogen granule (c) Cisternae (iii) Flat membranous
(c) Polysome(d) Phosphate granule sacs in stroma
(d) Chromatin (iv) Infoldings in
85. Select the correct matching in the following
mitochondria
pairs : [AIPMT 2015]
(a) (a) (iii), (b) (iv), (c) (ii), (d) (i) (b) (a)
(a) Smooth ER – Synthesis of lipids
(iv), (b) (iii), (c) (i), (d) (ii)
(b) Rough ER– Synthesis of glycogen
(c) (a) (iii), (b) (iv), (c) (i), (d) (ii)
(c) Rough ER – Oxidation of fatty acids
(d) Smooth ER – Oxidation of phospholipids (d) (a) (iii), (b) (i), (c) (iv), (d) (ii)
1-d 2-c 3-b 4-b 5-a 6-d 7-c 8-a 9-b 10-c
11-a 12-c 13-a 14-b 15-c 16-c 17-d 18-b 19-a 20-d 21-a 22-b 23-d 24-c 25-c 26-a 27-c 28-c 29-a 30-a
31-d 32-d 33-d 34-d 35-d 36-c 37-a 38-c 39-b 40-c
41-a 42-c 43-d 44-a 45-a 46-d 47-b 48-a 49-b 50-b
51-b 52-b 53-b 54-c 55-b 56-a 57-a 58-a 59-c 60-b
61-c 62-d 63-b 64-d 65-c 66-c 67-d 68-d 69-b 70-d
71-d 72-b 73-d 74-d 75-d 76-d 77-b 78-b 79-a 80-b
81-a 82-c 83-a 84-c 85-a 86-b 87-c 88-a 89-c
9
BIOMOLECULES
1. Which of the following is not a part of enzyme 6. Enzymes having slightly different molecular
but it activates the enzyme? [1989] structure but performing identical activity are
(a) K (b) C (c) N (d) Si [1991]
(a) homoenzymes
2. Which is not consistent with double helical
structure of DNA? [1990] (b) isoenzymes
(c) apoenzymes
(a) A=T == C = G
(d) coenzymes
(b) Density of DNA decreases on heating
(c) A + T/C + G is not constant 7. The basic unit of nucleic acid is
(d) Both (a) and (b) [1991]
(a) pentose sugar
3. DNA is composed of repeating units of
(b) nucleoid (c) nucleoside (d) nucleotide.
[1991]
(a) ribonucleosides 8. A nucleotide is formed of [1991]
(b) deoxyribonucleosides (a) purine, pyrimidine and phosphate
(c) ribonucleotides (b) purine, sugar and phosphate
(d) deoxyribonucleotides (c) nitrogen base, sugar and phosphate
(d) pyrimidine, sugar and phosphate
4. A segment of DNA has 120 adenine and 120
cytosine bases. The total number of 9. In RNA, thymine is replaced by [1991]
nucleotides present in the segment is [1991] (a) adenine (b) guanine
(a) 120 (b) 240 (c) cytosine (d) uracil
(c) 60 (d) 480 10. Glycogen is a polymer of (a) [1992]
5. A nucleotide is formed of [1991] galactose (b) glucose
(a) purine, pyrimidine and phosphate (c) fructose (d) sucrose
(b) purine, sugar and phosphate 11. In RNA, thymine is replaced by [1992]
(c) nitrogen base, sugar and phosphate (a) adenine (b) guanine
(d) pyrimidine, sugar and phosphate (c) cytosine (d) uracil
12. Living cell contains 60-75% water. Water (d) core of nucleic acid surrounded by
present in human body is [1992] protein sheath
(a) 60-65% (b) 50-55% 21. Two free ribonucleotide units are interlinked
(c) 75-80% (d) 65-70% with [1995]
13. Adenine is [1992] (a) peptidebond
(a) purine (b) pyrimidine (b) covalent bond
(c) nucleoside (d) nucleotide (c) hydrogen bond
(d) phosphodiester bond
14. Which is distributed more widely in a cell?
(a) DNA (b) RNA 22. Most diverse macromolecules, found in the
(c) Chloroplasts (d) Spherosomes cell both physically and chemically are
[1996]
15. An enzyme brings about [1993]
(a) proteins (b) carbohydrates
(a) decrease in reaction time (c) nucleic acids (d) lipids
(b) increase in reaction time
23. The nitrogenous organic base purine
(c) increase in activation energy
occurring in RNA is [1996]
(d) reduction in activation energy
(a) cytosine (b) thymine
16. Which is wrong about nucleic acids?[1993] (c) guanine (d) uracil
(a) DNA is single stranded in some viruses
24. In which one of the following groups, all the
(b) RNA is double stranded occasionally three are examples of polysaccharides?
(c) Length of one helix is 45 Å in B-DNA [1996]
(d) One turn of Z-DNA has 12 bases (a) Starch, glycogen, cellulose
17. Which one contains four pyrimidine bases? (b) Sucrose, maltose, glucose
[1994] (c) Glucose, fructose, lactose
(a) GATCAATGC (d) Galactose, starch, sucrose
(b) GCUAGACAA (c) UAGCGGUAA 25. What is common among amylase, rennin and
(d) TGCCTAACG trypsin? [1997]
18. The four elements making 99% of living (a) These are all proteins
system are [1994] (b) These are proteolytic enzymes
(a) CHOS (b) CHOP (c) These are produced in stomach
(c) CHON (d) CNOP (d) These act at a pH lower than 7
19. A polysaccharide, which is synthesized and 26. Cofactor (coenzyme) is a part of holoenzyme
stored in liver cells, is [1995] it is [1997]
(a) lactose (b) galactose (a) loosely attached inorganic part
(c) arabinose (d) glycogen (b) accessory non-protein substance
attached firmly
20. The pyrenoids are made up of [1995] (a)
(c) loosely attached organic part
proteinaceous centre and starchy sheath
(d) None of the above
(b) core of protein surrounded by fatty
sheath 27. Genes are packaged into a bacterial
chromosome by [1997]
(c) core of starch surrounded by sheath of
protein (a) histones (b) basic proteins
(c) acidic proteins (d) actin
28. The RNA that picks up specific amino acids chain and 1,6 glycosidic bond at the site
from the amino acid pool in the cytoplasm to of branching
ribosome during protein synthesis is called (c) unbranched chain of glucose molecules
(a) mRNA (b) tRNA linked by 1, 4 glycosidic bond
(c) rRNA (d) carrier RNA (d) branched chain of glucose molecules
29. Protein synthesis in an animal cell takes place linked by 1, 6 glycosidic bond at the
[1997] site of branching
(a) only in the cytoplasm 34. Which one of the following statements about
(b) in the nucleolus as well as in cytoplasm (c) cytochrome 450 is wrong? [1999]
in cytoplasm as well as in mitochondria (a) It contains iron
(d) only on ribosomes attached to the nuclear (b) It is a coloured cell
envelope (c) It has an important role in metabolism
30. DNA synthesis can be specifically measured (d) It is an enzyme involved in oxidation
by estimating the incorporation of radio reactions
labelled [1997] 35. Which is an essential amino acid?
(a) uracil (b) adenine [2000]
(c) thymidine (d) deoxyribose sugar (a) Serine (b) Aspartic acid
31. Lactose is composed of [1998] (c) Glycine (d) Phenylalanine
(a) glucose + glucose 36. ATP is a [2000]
(b) glucose + fructose (a) nucleotide (b) nucleosome
(c) fructose + galactose (c) nucleoside (d) purine
(d) glucose + galactose
37. Conjugated proteins containing
32. Radioactive thymidine when added to the carbohydrates as prosthetic group are known
medium surrounding living mammalian cells as
gets incorporated into the newly synthesized [2000]
DNA. Which of the following types of (a) chromoproteins
chromatin is expected to become radioactive
(b) glycoproteins
if cells are exposed radioactive thymidine as
(c) lipoproteins
soon as they enter the S-phase?
[1998] (d) nucleoproteins
(a) Heterochromatin 38. Enzymes are absent in [2000]
(b) Euchromatin (a) algae (b) fungi
(c) Both (a) and (b) (c) cyanobacteria (d) viruses
(d) Neither heterochromatin nor 39. Enzymes enhance the rate of reaction by
euchromatin but only the nucleolus [2000]
33. Cellulose, the most important constituent of (a) forming a reactant-product complex
plant cell wall is made of [1998] (b) changing the equilibrium point of the
(a) unbranched chain of glucose molecules reaction
linked by 1, 4 glycosidic bond (c) combining with the product as soon as it
(b) branched chain of glucose molecules is formed
linked by 1, 4 glycosidic bond in straight (d) lowering the activation energy of the
reaction
40. Feedback inhibition of an enzymatic reaction (a) reserve materials

is caused by [2000] (b) wastes
(a) end product (b) substrate (c) excretory material
(c) enzyme (d) rise in temperature (d) insect-attracting material
41. Length of one turn of the helix in a B-form 49. Enzyme first used for nitrogen fixation is
DNA is approximately [2000] [2001]
(a) 3.4 nm (b) 2nm (a) nitrogenase
(c) 0.34 nm (d) 20 nm (b) nitroreductase
42. The transfer RNA molecule in 3D appears (c) transferase
[2000] (d) transaminase
(a) L-shaped (b) E-shaped 50. Most abundant organic compound on earth
(c) Y-shaped (d) S-shaped is [2001, 04]
(a) protein (b) cellulose
43. One of the similarities between DNA and
(c) lipids (d) steroids
RNA is that both [2000]
(a) are polymers of nucleotides 51. Hydrolytic enzymes which act at low pH are
(b) are capable of replicating called as [2002]
(c) have similar sugars (a) proteases (b) a-amylases
(d) have similar pyrimidine bases (c) hydrolases (d) peroxidases
44. Due to discovery of which of the following in 52. Which of the following enzymes are used to
1980 the evolution was termed as RNA join bits of DNA? [2002]
world? [2001] (a) Ligase
(a) mRNA, tRNA, rRNA synthesize proteins (b) Primase
(b) In some virus RNA is genetic material (c) DNA polymerase
(c) RNA have enzymatic property (d) Endonudease
(d) RNA is not found in all cells 53. Collagen is [2002]
45. Cytochrome is [2001] (a) fibrous protein
(a) metallo flavoprotein (b) globular protein
(b) Fe containing porphyrin pigment (c) lipid
(c) glycoprotein (d) carbohydrate
(d) lipid 54. Which steroid is used for transformation?
46. Types of RNA polymerase required in nucleus [2002]
for RNA synthesis [2001] (a) Cortisol (b) Cholesterol
(a) 1 (b) 2 (c) Testosterone (d) Progesterone
(c) 3 (d) 4 55. Lipids are insoluble in water because lipid
47. Spoilage of oil can be detected by which fatty molecules are [2002]
acid? [2001] (a) hydrophilic (b) hydrophobic
(a) Oleic acid (b) Linolenic acid (c) neutral (d) Zwitter ions
(c) Linoleic acid (d) Erucic acid 56. Which of the following is a reducing sugar?
48. In plants, inulin and pectin are [2002]
[2001] (a) Galactose
(b) Gluconic acid 65. Which of the following is the simplest amino
(c) p-methyl galactoside acid? [2005]
(d) Sucrose (a) Alanine (b) Asparagine
57. If DNA percentage of thymine is 20. What is (c) Glycine (d) Tyrosine
the percentage of guanine? [2002] 66. Nucleotides are building blocks of nucleic
(a) 20% (b) 40% acids. Each nucleotide is a composite
(c) 30% (d) 60% molecule formed by [2005]
58. Sequence of which of the following is used to (a) base-sugar-phosphate

know the phylogeny? [2002] (b) base-sugar-OH
(c) (base-sugar-phosphate)
(a) mtDNA (b) rRNA
(d) sugar-phosphate
(c) tRNA (d) DNA
67. Which one of the following hydrolyses
59. Mitotic spindle is mainly composed of which
internal phosphodiester bonds in a
proteins? [2002]
polynucleotide chain? [2005]
(a) Actin (b) Myosin
(a) Lipase (b) Protease
(c) Actomyosin (d) Myoglobin
(c) Endonuclease (d) Exonuclease
60. Which is a reducing sugar ? [2002]
68. Which of the following statements regarding
(a) Galactose
enzyme inhibition is correct? [2005]
(b) Gluconic acid
(a) Competitive inhibition is seen when a
(c) -methyl galactoside substrate competes with an enzyme for
(d) Sucrose binding to an inhibitor protein
61. During anaerobic digestion of organic waste, (b) Competitive inhibition is seen when the
such as in producing biogas, which one of the substrate and the inhibitor compete for
following is left undergraded? [2003] the active site on the enzyme
(a) Hemicellulose (b) Lipids (c) Non-competitive inhibition of an enzyme
(c) Cellulose (d) Lignin can be overcome by adding large amount
of substrate
62. The major portion of the dry weight of plants (d) Non-competitive inhibitors often bind to
comprises of [2003] the enzyme irreversibly
(a) carbon, nitrogen and hydrogen
69. Enzymes, vitamins and hormones can be
(b) carbon, hydrogen and oxygen
classified into a single category of biological
(c) nitrogen, phosphorus and potassium
chemicals, because all of these [2005]
(d) calcium, magnesium and sulphur
(a) help in regulating metabolism
63. The most abundant element present in plants (b) are exclusively synthesized in the body of
is [2004] a living organism as at present
(a) carbon (b) nitrogen (c) are conjugated proteins
(c) manganese (d) iron (d) enhance oxidative metabolism
64. Which form of RNA has a structure 70. The catalytic efficiency of two different
resembling clover leaf? [2004] enzymes can be compared by the [2005]
(a) rRNA (b) taRNA (a) formation of the product
(c) mRNA (d) tRNA (b) pH optimum value
(c) Km value
(d) molecular size of the enzyme (a) phosphorus and sulphur

71. Telomerase is an enzyme which is a [2005] (b) sulphur and magnesium
(c) magnesium and sodium
(a) repetitive DNA(b) RNA
(d) calcium and phosphorus
(c) simple protein (d) ribonucleoprotein
79. Which one of the following is not a
72. An organic substance bound to an enzyme
constituent of cell membrane?
and essential for its activity is called [2006]
[2007]
(a) holoenzyme (b) apoenzyme
(a) Cholesterol
(c) isoenzyme (d) coenzyme
(b) Glycolipids
73. An enzyme that can stimulate germination of (c) Proline
barley seeds is [2006] (d) Phospholipids
(a) a-amylase (b) lipase
80. Which one of the following pairs of
(c) protease (d) invertase
nitrogenous bases of nucleic acids, is wrongly
74. Antiparallel strands of a DNA molecule means matched with the category mentioned
that [2006] against it? [2008]
(a) the phosphate groups of two DNA (a) Thymine, Uracil – Pyrimidines
strands, at their ends, share the same (b) Uracil, Cytosine – Pyrimidines
position (c) Adenine, Thymine – Purines
(b) the phosphate groups at the start of two (d) Guanine, Adenine – Purines
DNA strands are in opposite position 81. In the DNA molecule [2008]
(pole)
(a) the total amount of purine nucleotides
(c) one strand turns clockwise
and pyrimidine nucleotides is not always
(d) one strands turns anti-clockwise equal
75. Antibodies in our body are complex [2006] (b) there are two strands which run parallel
(a) steroids in the 5' 3' direction
(b) prostaglandins (c) the proportion of adenine in relation
(c) glycoproteins tothymine varies with the organism
(d) lipoproteins (d) there are two strands which run
antiparallel-one in 5' 3' direction and
76. One turn of the helix in a B-form DNA is
approximately [2006] other in 3' 5'
(a) 0.34 nm (b) 3.4 nm 82. Modern detergents contain enzyme
(c) 2nm (d) 20 nm preparation of [2008]
(a) acidophiles (b) alkaliphiles
77. The two polynucleotide chains in DNA are
(c) thermoacidophiles
[2007]
(d) thermophiles
(a) parallel
(b) discontinuous 83. A competitive inhibitor of succinic
(c) antiparallel dehydrogenase is [2008]
(d) semiconservative (a) malonate
(b) oxaloacetate
78. About 98 percent of the mass of every living
organism is composed of just six elements (c) -ketoglutarate
including carbn, hydrogen, nitrogen, oxygen (d) malate
and [2007]
84. The uniting of antibiotic resistance gene with enzyme enzyme

the plasmid vector became possible with
(3) Activation Transition Activation Potential
[2008] energy with stage energy energy
(a) DNAligase (b) endonucleases enzyme wihtout enzyme
(c) DNA polymerase (d) exonucleases
(4) Potential Transition Activation Activation
85. There is no DNA in [2009] energy state energy energy
(a) A mature spermatozoan with enzyme without
(b) Hair root enzyme
(c) An enucleated ovum 88. Which one of the following structural

(d) Mature RBCs formulae of two organic compounds is
correctly identified along with its related
86. Three of the following statements about function ?
enzymes are correct and one is wrong. Which [Pre. 2011]
one is wrong? [Mains 2010]
(a) Enzymes are denatured at high
temperature but in certain exceptional
organisms they are effective even at
temperatures 80°–90°C
(b) Enzymes are highly specific
(c) Most enzymes are proteins but some are (a) B : adenine - a nucleotide that makes up
lipids nucleic acids
(d) Enzymes require optimum pH for maximal (b) A : Triglyceride-major source of energy
activity (c) B : Uracil - a component of DNA
87. The figure given below shows the conversion (d) A : Lecithin - a component of cell
of a substrate into product by an enzyme. In membrane
which one of the four options (1-4) the 89. The curve given below shows enzymatic
components of reaction labelled as A, B, C activity with relation to three conditions (pH,
and D are identified correctly? temperature and substrate concentration)
[Mains 2010] [Pre. 2011]
What do the two axises (x and y) represent ?

x-axis y-axis
Options: (a) Enzymatic activity pH
A B C D (b) Temperature Enzyme activity
(1) Transition Potential Activation Activation (c) Substrate concentration Enzymatic activity
state energy energy with- energy with
(d) Enzymatic
out enzyme enzyme
activity Temperature
(2) Potential Transition Activation Activation
90. Which one of the following biomolecules is
energy state energy energy
without with
correctly characterised ? [Mains 2012]
(a) Palmitic acid - an unsaturated fatty acid (d) Haemoglobin

with 18 carbon atoms
94. Which one of the following is wrong
(b) Adenylic acid - adenosine with a glucose statement ? [Pre. 2012]
phosphate molecule
(a) Phosphorus is a constituent of cell
(c) Alanine amino acid - Contains an amino
membranes, certain nucleic acids and all
group and an acidic group anywhere in the
proteins
molecule
(b) Nitrosomonas and Nitrobacter are
(d) Lecithin - a phosphorylated glyceride
chemoautotrophs
found in cell membrane
(c) Anabaena and Nostoc are capable of fixing
91. Which one out of A-D given below correctly
nitrogen in free-living state also
represents the structural formula of the basic
(d) Root nodule forming nitrogen fixers live as
amino acid ? [Pre. 2012]
aerobes under free-living conditions
95. Transition state structure of the substrate
formed during an enzymatic reaction is
[2013]
(a) Transient but stable
(b) Permanent but unstable
(c) Transient and unstable
(d) Permanent and stable
Options 96. A phosphoglyceride is always made up of
(a) A (b) B (c) C (d) D [2013]
92. Given below is the diagrammatic (a) Only a saturated fatty acid esterified to a
representation of one of the categories of glycerol molecule to which a phosphate
small molecular weight organic compounds group is also attached
in the living tissues. Identify the category (b) Only an unsaturated fatty acid esterified to
shown and the one blank component “X” in it a glycerol molecule to which a phosphate
[Pre. 2012] group is also attached
(c) A saturated or unsaturated fatty acid
esterified to a glycerol molecule to which
a phosphate group is also attached
(d) A saturated or unsaturated fatty acid
esterified to a phosphate group which is
Category Component also attached to a glycerol molecule
(a) Nucleotide Adenine 97. Macro molecule chitin is [2013]
(b) Nucleoside Uracil (a) nitrogen containing polysaccharide
(c) Cholesterol Guanin (b) phosphorus containing polysaccharide
(d) Amino acid NH2 (c) sulphur containing polysaccharide
93. Which one is the most abundant protein in (d) simple polysaccharide
the animal world ? [Pre. 2012]
98. Select the option which is not correct with
(a) Collagen respect to enzyme action [AIPMT 2014]
(b) Insulin (a) Substrate binds with enzyme at its active
(c) Trypsin site
(b) Addition of
lot of succinate does not reverse the Answers
inhibition of succinic dehydrogenase by
(d) A competitive inhibitor reacts reversibly
malonate
withthe enzyme to form an
(c) A non-competitive inhibitor binds the enzymeinhibitor complex.
enzyme at a site distinct from that which
binds the substrate 101. Which of the following biomolecules does
(d) Malonate is a competitive inhibitor of have a phosphodiester bond ?
succinic dehydrogenase [RE-AIPMT 2015]
99. Which one of the following is a non-reducing (a) Nucleic acids in a nucleotide
carbohydrate ? [AIPMT 2014] (b) Fatty acids in a diglyceride
(a) Maltose (b) Sucrose (c) Monosaccharides in a polysaccharide
(c) Lactose (d) Amino acids in a polypeptide
(d) Ribose 5-phosphate 102. The chitinous exoskeleton of arthropods is
100. Which one of the following statements in formed by the polymerisation of :
incorrect ? [AIPMT 2015] [RE-AIPMT 2015]
(a) In competitive inhibition, the inhibitor (a) lipoglycans
molecule is not chemically changed by the (b) keratin sulphate and chondroitin
enzyme. sulphate
(b) The competitive inhibitor does not affect (c) D-glucosamine
the rate of breakdown of the (d) N-acetyl glucosamine
enzymesubstrate complex.
(c) The presence of the competitive inhibitor
decreases the Km of the enzyme for the
substrate.
1-a 2-c 3-d 4-d 5-c 6-b 7-d 8-c 9-d 10-b
11-d 12-a 13-a 14-b 15-d 16-c 17-a 18-c 19-d 20-a 21-d 22-a 23-c 24-a 25-a 26-c 27-b 28-b 29-c 30-
c 31-d 32-b 33-c 34-b 35-d 36-a 37-b 38-d 39-d 40-a
41-a 42-a 43-a 44-c 45-b 46-c 47-d 48-a 49-a 50-b
51-c 52-a 53-a 54-b 55-b 56-a 57-c 58-a 59-a 60-a 61-d 62-
b 63-a 64-d 65-c 66-a 67-c 68-b 69-a 70-c
71-d 72-d 73-a 74-b 75-c 76-b 77-c 78-a 79-c 80-d
81-d 82-b 83-a 84-a 85-d 86-c 87-a 88-d 89-b 90-d
91-d 92-b 93-a 94-a 95-c 96-c 97-a 98-b 99-b 100-c
101-a 102-d
10
CELL CYCLE AND CELL DIVISION
1. A bivalent consists of [1989] (a) segregation, independent assortment and
(a) two chromatids and one centromere crossing over
(b) two chromatids and two centromeres (b) segregation and crossing over
(c) four chromatids and two centromeres (c) independent assortment and crossing over
(d) four chromatids and four centromeres (d) segregation and independent assortment
6. Mitotic anaphase differs from metaphase in
2. Nucleoproteins are synthesized in
possessing [1991]
[1989]
(a) same number of chromosomes and same
(a) nucleoplasm (b) nuclear envelope (c)
number of chromatids
nucleolus (d) cytoplasm.
(b) half number of chromosomes and half
3. Segregation of Mendelian factor (Aa) occurs number of chromatids
during [1990] (c) half number of chromosomes and same
(a) diplotene number of chromatids
(b) anaphase-I (d) same number of chromosomes and half
(c) zygotene/pachytene number of chromatids
(d) anaphase-II 7. Number of chromatids at metaphase is
4. Hammerling’s experiments of Acetabularia [1992]
involved exchanging [1990] (a) two each in mitosis and meiosis
(a) cytoplasm (b) nucleus (b) two in mitosis and one in meiosis
(c) rhizoid and stalk (c) two in mitosis and four in meiosis
(d) gametes (d) one in mitosis and two in meiosis
5. In meiosis, the daughter cells differ from 8. Experiments on Acetabularia by Hammerling
parent cell as well as amongst themselves due proved the role of [1992]
to [1991] (a) cytoplasm in controlling differentiation
(b) nucleus in heredity
(c) chromosomes in heredity (b) centromere

(d) nucleo-cytoplasmie ratio (c) chromomere
9. Genophore/bacterial genome or nucleoid is (d) chromocentre
made of [1993] 16. Lampbrush chromosomes occur during
(a) histones and non-histones [1996]
(b) RNA and histones (a) prophase of mitosis
(c) a single double stranded DNA (b) diplotene of meiosis
(d) a single stranded DNA (c) metaphase of meiosis
10. Balbiani rings (puffs) are sites of (d) interphase
[1993] 17. In cell cycle, DNA replication takes place in
(a) DNA replication [1996]
(b) RNA and protein synthesis (a) G1 – phase
(c) synthesis of polysaccharides (b) G2–phase
(d) synthesis of lipids
(c) mitotic metaphase
11. In salivary gland chromosomes/polytene (d) S-phase
chromosomes pairing is [1993]
18. The exchange of genetic material between
(a) absent chromatids of paired homologous
(b) occasional chromosomes during first meiotic division is
(c) formed between non-homologous called [1996]
chromosome (a) transformation
(d) formed between homologous (b) chiasmata
chromosomes
(c) crossing over
12. Meiosis-II performs [1993] (d) synapsis
(a) separation of sex chromosomes 19. During cell division in apical meristem the
(b) synthesis of DNA and centromeres nuclear membrane appears in [1997]
(c) separation of homologous chromosomes (a) metaphase (b) anaphase
(d) separation of chromatids (c) telophase (d) cytokinesis
13. Best stage to observe shape, size and number 20. Which one of the following structures will not
of chromosomes is [1994] be common to mitotic cells of higher plants?
(a) interphase (b) metaphase [1997]
(c) prophase (d) telophase (a) Cell plate (b) Centriole
14. Meiosis has evolutionary significance because (c) Centromere (d) Spindle fibres
it results in [1994] 21. Genes located on mitochondrial DNA
(a) genetically similar daughters [1997]
(b) four daughter cells (a) generally show maternal inheritance
(c) eggs and sperms (b) are always inherited from the male parent
(d) recombinations (c) show biparental inheritance like the
15. The point, at which polytene chromosomes nuclear genes
appear to be attached together, is called (d) are not inherited
[1995] 22. Centromere is a part of [1997]
(a) centriole (a) ribosomes
(b) chromosome 30. Extra nuclear DNA (genes) are located in

(c) mitochondria [2000]
(d) endoplasmic reticulum (a) lysosomes and chloroplasts
23. How many mitotic divisions are needed for a (b) Golgi complex and ribosomes
single cell to make 128 cells? [1997] (c) chloroplasts and mitochondria
(a) 7 (b) 14 (d) ribosomes and mitochondria
(c) 28 (d) 64 31. Extra nuclear chromosomes occur in[2001] (a)
24. Bacterium divides every 35 minutes. If a peroxisome, ribosome
culture containing 105 cells per mL is grown (b) chloroplast, mitochondria
for 175 minutes, what will be the cell
(c) mitochondria, ribosome
concentration per mL after 175
(d) chloroplast, lysosome
minutes?[1998]
(a) 5 ×105 cells (b) 35 × 105 cells 32. Mitotic spindle is mainly composed of which
5
(c) 32 × 10 cells (d) 175 × 105 cells protein? [2002]
(a) Actin (b) Myosin
25. Crossing over in diploid organism is
(c) Actomyosin (d) Myoglobin
responsible for [1998]
(a) dominance of genes 33. Which of the following occurs more than one
(b) linkage between genes and less than five in a chromosome? [2002]
(c) segregation of alleles (a) Chromatid (b) Chromosome
(d) recombination of linked alleles (c) Centromere (d) Telomere
26. DNA is mainly found in [1999] 34. Ribosomes are produced in [2002]
(a) nucleus only (b) cytoplasm only (a) nucleolus (b) cytoplasm
(c) Both (a) and (b)(d) nucleolus (c) mitochondria (d) Golgibody
27. The eukaryotic genome differs from the 35. Best material for the study of mitosis in
prokaryotic genome because [1999] laboratory is [2002]
(a) DNA is complexed with histones in (a) anther (b) root tip
prokaryotes (c) leaf tip (d) ovary
(b) repetitive sequences are present in 36. If a diploid cell is treated with colchicine then
eukaryotes it becomes [2002]
(c) genes in the former cases are organised
(a) triploid (b) tetraploid
into operons
(c) diploid (d) monoploid
(d) DNA is circular and single stranded in
prokaryotes 37. In the somatic cell cycle [2004]
28. During cell cycle, the DNA replication occurs in (a) in G1-phase DNA content is double the
amount of DNA present in the original cell
(a) M-phase (b) S-phase
(b) DNA replication takes place in S-phase
(c) G1-phase (d) G2-phase
(c) a short interphase is followed by a long
29. During cell division, the spindle fibres attach to mitotic phase
the chromosome at a region called (d) G2-phase follows mitotic phase
[2000]
38. If you are provided with root tips of onion in
(a) chromocentre (b) kinetochore
your class and are asked to count the
(c) centriole (d) chromomere
chromosomes, which of the following stages (c) crossing over (d) transcription
can
44. Given below is a schematic break-up of the
you most conveniently look into? [2004]
phases / stages of cell cycle: [2009]
(a) Metaphase (b) Telophase
(c) Anaphase (d) Prophase
39. Which one of the following precedes
reformation of the nuclear envelope during
Mphase of the cell cycle? [2004]
(a) Decondensation from chromosomes and
reassembly of the nuclear lamina
(b) Transcription from chromosomes and Which one of the following is the correct
reassembly of the nuclear lamina indication of the stage/phase in the cell cycle?
(c) Formation of the contractile ring and (a) D - Synthetic phase
formation of the phragmoplast
(b) A – Cytokinesis
(d) Formation of the contractile ring and
(c) B - Metaphase
transcription from chromosomes
(d) C – Karyokinesis
40. Crossing over that results in genetic
45. Cytoskeleton is made up of: [2009]
recombination in higher organisms occur
between [2004] (a) Cellulosic microfibrils
(b) Proteinaceous filaments
(a) sister chromatids of bivalent
(c) Calcium carbonate granules
(b) non-sister chromatids of a bivalent
(c) two daughter nuclei (d) Callose deposits
(d) two different bivalents 46. Synapsis occurs between: [2009]
41. At what stage of the cell cycle are histone (a) spindle fibres and centromere
proteins synthesized in a eukaryotic cell? (b) two homologous chromosomes
[2005] (c) a male and a female gamete
(a) During G2-stage of prophase (d) mRNA and ribosomes
(b) During S-phase 47. During mitosis ER and nucleolus begin to
(c) During entire prophase disappear at [Pre. 2010]
(d) During telophase (a) Late prophase
42. The salivary gland chromosomes in the (b) Early metaphase
dipteran larvae are useful in gene mapping (c) Late metaphase
because [2005] (d) Early prophase
(a) these are much longer in size 48. Which stages of cell division do the following
(b) these are easy to stain figures A and B represent respectively?
(c) these are fused [Pre. 2010]
(d) they have endoreduplicated
chromosomes
43. Centromere is required for [2005]
(a) movement of chromosomes towards
poles
(b) cytoplasmic cleavage
53. Select the correct option with respect to

mitosis [Pre. 2011]
(a) Chromatids separate but remain in the
centre of the cell in anaphase.
(b) Chromatids start moving towards
opposite poles in telophase.
(c) Golgi complex and endoplasmic
reticulum are still visible at the end of
prophase.
(a) Metaphase – Telophase
(d) Chromosomes move to the spindle
(b) Telophase – Metaphase
equator and get aligned along equatorial
(c) Late Anaphase – Prophase plate in metaphase
(d) Prophase – Anaphase
54. At metaphase, chromosomes are attached to
49. Which one of the following statements about the spindle fibres by their [Mains 2011]
the particular entity is true ? [Mains 2010] (a) Centromere
(a) The gene for producing insulin is present (b) Satellites
in every body cell (c) Secondary constrictions
(b) Nucleosome is formed of nucleotides (d) Kinetochores
(c) DNA consists of a core of eight histones
55. Identify the meiotic stage in which the
(d) Centromere is found in animal cells,
homologous chromosomes separate while the
which produces aster during cell division.
sister chromatids remain associated at their
50. The 3'-5' phosphodiester linkages inside a centromeres [2012]
polynucleotide chain serve to join (a) Metaphase-II
[Mains 2010]
(b) Anaphase-I
(a) One nucleoside with another nucleoside (c) Anaphase-II
(b) One nucleotide with another nucleotide (d) Metaphase-I
(c) One nitrogenous base with pentose sugar
56. During gamete formation, the enzyme
(d) One DNA strand with the other DNA
recombinase participates during [2012]
strand.
(a) Prophase-I
51. What are those structures that appear as
(b) Prophase-II
‘beads-on-string’ in the chromosomes, when
(c) Metaphase-I
viewed under electron microscope ?
[Pre. 2011] (d) Anaphase-II
(a) Genes 57. Given below is the representation of a certain
(b) Nucleotides event at a particular stage of a type of cell
(c) Nucleosomes division. Which is this stage ? [2012]
(d) Base pairs
52. What would be the number of chromosomes
of the aleurone cells of a plant with 42
chromosomes in its root tip cells ? [Pre. 2011]
(a) 42 (b) 63
(c) 84 (d) 21
(a) Equatorial plate

(b) Kinetochore
(c) Bivalent
(d) Axoneme
60. During which phase(s) of cell cycle, amount of
DNA in a cell remains at 4C level if the initial
amount is denoted as 2C?
[AIPMT 2014]
(a) G0 and G1
(b) G1 and S
(a) Prophase of Mitosis (c) Only G2
(b) Both prophase and metaphase of mitosis
(d) G2 and M
(c) Prophase I during meiosis
(d) Prophase II during meiosis 61. In ‘S’ phase of the cell cycle [AIPMT 2014]
58. A stage in cell division is shown in the figure. (a) Amount of DNA doubles in each cell
Select the answer which gives correct (b) Amount of DNA remains same in each cell
identification of the stage with its (c) Chromosome number is increased
characteristics. [2013] (d) Amount of DNA is reduced to half in each
cell
62. The enzyme recombinase is required at which
stage of meiosis? [AIPMT 2014]
(a) Pachytene
(b) Zygotene
(c) Diplotene
(d) Diakinesis
63. Select the correct option :- [AIPMT 2015]
Column-I Column-II
A. Synapsis aligns (i) Anaphase-II
(a) Telophase nuclear envelop reforms, golgi
homologous chromosomes
complex reforms
B. Synthesis of RNA (ii) Zygotene and
(b) Late anaphase chromosomes move
protein
away from equatorial
C. Action of enzyme (iii) G2 –phase
plate, golgi complex not
recombinase
present
D. Centromeres do (iv) Anaphase-I not
(c) Cytokinesis cell plate formed,
separate but chromatids move
mitochondria distributed towards opposite poles
between two daughter
(v) Pachytene
cells
(a) A (ii), B (iii), C (v), D (iv)
(d) Telophase endoplasmic reticulum
and nucleolus not (b) A (i), B (ii), C (v), D (iv)
reformed yet (c) A (ii), B (iii), C (iv), D (v)
59. The complex formed by a pair of synapsed (d) A (ii), B (i), C (iii), D (iv)
homologous chromosomes is called [2013]
64. Which is the most common mechanism of (d) twice the number of chromosomes and
genetic variation in the population of sexually twice the amount of DNA
reproducing organism? [AIPMT 2015]
66. Arrange the following events of meiosis in
(a) Chromosomal aberrations correct sequence : [RE-AIPMT 2015]
(b) Genetic drift
(a) Crossing over Answers
(c) Recombination
(d) Transduction
65. A somatic cell that has just completed the S
phase of its cell cycle, as compared to gamete
of the same species, has :
[AIPMT 2015]
(a) same
(b) Synapsis
number of chromosomes but twice the
amount of DNA (c) Terminalisation of chaismata
(b) twice the number of chromosomes and (d) Disappearance of nucleolus
four times the amount of DNA (a) (b), (c), (d), (a)
(c) four times the number of chromosomes (b) (b), (a), (d), (c) (c) (b), (a),
and twice the amount of DNA (c), (d) (d) (a), (b), (c), (d)
1-c 2-d 3-b 4-b 5-b 6-d 7-a 8-b 9-c 10-b
11-d 12-d 13-b 14-d 15-d 16-b 17-d 18-c 19-c 20-b
21-a 22-b 23-a 24-c 25-d 26-a 27-b 28-b 29-b 30-c 31-b 32-
a 33-d 34-a 35-b 36-b 37-b 38-a 39-a 40-b
41-b 42-d 43-a 44-a 45-b 46-b 47-a 48-c 49-a 50-b
51-c 52-b 53-d 54-d 55-b 56-a 57-c 58-a 59-c 60-c
61-a 62-a 63-a 64-c 65-b 66-c
11
TRANSPORT IN PLANTS
1. In a terrestrial habitat which of the following (a) transport of sap
is affected by temperature and rainfall (b) transport of food
condition? [1989] (c) absorption of water
(a) Translocation (b) Transpiration (d) gaseous exchange
(c) Transformation
3. Sieve tubes are suited for translocation of
(d) Thermodenaturation food because they possess [1989]
2. Death of protoplasm is a pre-requisite for a (a) bordered pits
vital function like [1989] (b) no ends walls
(c) broader lumen and perforated cross walls (b) hygroscopic water
(d) no protoplasm (c) gravitational water
4. Mainly conduction of water in an (d) chemically bound water
angiosperm occurs through [1990] 10. In guard cells when sugar is converted into
(a) tracheids (b) xylem vessels starch the stomatal pore [1992]
(c) sieve tubes (d) All of these (a) opens fully
5. Root system in a plant is well developed (b) opens partially
[1990] (c) closes completely
(a) due to deficiency of auxins (d) remains unchanged
(b) due to deficiency of cytokinins 11. Conversion of starch to organic acid is
(c) due to deficiency of minerals essential for [1992]
(d) for increased absorption of water (a) stomatal closure
(b) stomatal opening
6. An innovative professor who wanted to give
a live demonstration of a physiological (c) stomatal initiation
process, filled a glass bottle with previously (d) stomatal growth
moistened mustard seeds and water. He 12. Guttation is caused by [1992]
screwcapped the bottle and kept it away in a
(a) transpiration (b) osmosis/DPD
corner and resumed his lecture. Towards the
(c) root pressure (d) osmotic pressure
end of his lecture there was a sudden
explosion with glass pieces of bottle thrown 13. Meaningful girdling (ringing) experiment can
around. Which of the following phenomena not be performed within sugarcane because
did the professor want to demonstrate? [1992]
[1990] (a) its phloem is situated interior to xylem
(a) Diffusion (b) its stem surface is covered with waxy
(b) Osmosis coating
(c) Anaerobic respiration (c) its vascular bundles are not present in a
(d) Imbibition ring
(d) its stem is thin
7. Water potential can be obtained by
[1991] 14. The direction and rate of water movement
(a) OP + TP (b) OP = WP (c) s+ P (d) OP–DPD
from cell to cell is based on [1992]
(a) WP
8. Which is correct about transport or
(b) TP
conduction of substances? [1991, 97]
(c) DPD
(a) Organic food moves up through phloem
(d) incipient plasmolysis
(b) Organic food moves up through xylem
(c) Inorganic food moves upwardly and 15. Translocation of carbohydrate nutrients
downwardly through xylem usually occurs in the form of [1992]
(d) Organic food moves upwardly and (a) glucose (b) maltose
downwardly through phloem (c) starch (d) sucrose
9. In soil, water available for roots (to plants) is 16. Which of the following is an effective
[1991,99] adaptation for better gas exchange in plants?
(a) capillary water [1993
] (a) Presence of multiple epidermis
(b) Presence of hair on the lower epidermis (d) guttation

(c) Presence of waxy cuticle covering the 23. If turgidity of a cell surrounded by water
epidermis of the leaves increases, the wall pressure will [1997]
(d) The location of the stomata primarily on (a) increase
the lower surface of the leaf, the side
(b) decrease (c) fluctuate
turned away from the direct sun rays
(d) remain unchanged
17. Some of the growth regulators affect
24. The water potential and osmotic potential of
stomatal opening. Closure of stomata is
pure water are [1998]
brought about by [1994]
(a) indole butyric acid (a) 100 and zero (b) zero and zero
(c) 100 and 200 (d) zero and 100
(b) abscisic acid
(c) kinetin 25. Water enters a cell due to [2001]
(d) gibberellic acid (a) OP (b) SP
18. Which of the following is used to determine (c) TP (d) WP
the rate of transpiration in plants? [1994] 26. Passive absorption of minerals depend on
(a) Porometer (b) Potometer [2001]
(c) Auxanometer (a) temperature
(d) Tensiometer (b) temperature and metabolic inhibitor
19. The movement of water from one cell of the (c) metabolic inhibitor
cortex to the adjacent one in roots is due to (d) humidity
[1995] 27. Glycolate induces opening of stomata in
(a) accumulation of inorganic salts in the cells [2001]
(b) accumulation of organic compounds in (a) presence of oxygen
the cells
(b) low CO 2 concentration
(c) chemical potential gradient
(c) high CO2 concentration
(d) water potential gradient
(d) absence of CO2
20. Water entering root due to diffusion is part
of [1996] 28. In which of the following plant sunken
(a) endosmosis stomata are found? [2001]
(b) osmosis (a) Nerium (b) Hydrilla
(c) passive absorption (c) Mango (d) Guava
(d) active absorption 29. Main function of lenticel is [2002]
21. Bidirectional translocation of minerals takes (a) transpiration
place in [1997] (b) guttation
(a) xylem (b) phloem (c) gaseous exchange
(c) parenchyma (d) cambium (d) bleeding
22. Osmotic pressure in the leaf cells is positive 30. Opening and closing of stomata is due to
during [1997] [2002
(a) excessive transpiration ] (a) hormonal change in guard cells
(b) low transpiration (b) change in turgor pressure of guard cells
(c) excessive absorption (c) gaseous exchange
(d) respiration (c) (A), (C) and (E) (d) (A) and (E)
31. Stomata of CAM plants [2003] 36. The rupture and fractionation do not usually
(a) open during the night and close during the occur in the water column in vessel/
day tracheids during the ascent of sap because of
(b) never open [2008]
(c) are always open (a) lignified thick walls
(d) open during the day and close at night (b) cohesion and adhesion (c) weak
gravitational pull
32. Stomata of a plant open due to
(d) transpiration pull
[2003]
(a) influx of calcium ions 37. Guard cells help in [2009]
(b) influx of potassium ions (a) Guttation
(c) efflux of potassium ions (b) Fighting against infection
(d) influx of hydrogen ions (c) Protection against grazing
(d) Transpiration
33. The translocation of organic solutes in sieve
tube members is supported by 38. Transport of food material in higher plants
[2006] takes place through [Mains 2010]
(a) P-proteins (a) Transfusion tissue
(b) mass flow involving a carrier and ATP (b) Tracheids
(c) cytoplasmic streaming (c) Sieve elements
(d) root pressure and transpiration pull (d) Companion cells
34. Two cells A and B are contiguous. Cell A has 39. Given below is the diagram of a stomatal
osmotic pressure 10 atm, turgor pressure 7 apparatus. [Mains 2010]
atm and diffusion pressure deficit 3 atm. Cell In which of the following all the four parts
B has osmotic pressure 8 atm, turgor labelled as A, B, C and D are correctly
pressure 3 atm and diffusion pressure deficit identified?
5 atm. The result will be [2007]
(a) movement of water from cell B to A
(b) no movement of water
(c) equilibrium between the two
(d) movement of water from cell A to B
35. Carbohydrates are commonly found as
starch in plant storage organs, which of the A B C D
following five properties of starch (A-E) make (a) Guard Stomatal Subsidiary Epidermal
it useful as a storage material? [2008] cell aperture cell cell
(b) Epidermal Guard Stomatal Subsidiary
(A) Easily translocated
cell cell aperture cell
(B) chemically non-reactive (c) Epidermal Subsidiary Stomatal Guard
(C) easily digested by animals cell cell aperture cell
(D) osmotically inactive (d) Subsidiary Epidermal Guard Stomatal
(E) synthesized during photosynthesis The cell cell cell aperture
useful properties are 40. Guttation is the result of [Mains 2011] (a)
(a) (B) and (C) (b) (B) and (D) Root pressure (b) Diffusion
(c) Transpiration (d) Osmosis
41. In land plants, the guard cells differ from 45. Transpiration and root pressure cause water
other epidermal cells in having [Pre. 2011] to rise in plants by : [AIPMT 2015]
(a) Cytoskeleton (b) Mitochondria (a) Pulling and pushing it, respectively
(c) Endoplasmic reticulum (b) Pushing it upward
(d) Chloroplasts (c) Pushing and pulling it, respectively
42. Lenticels are involved in [2013] (d) Pushing it upward
(a) Transpiration (b) Gaseous exchange 46. Root pressure develops due to :
(c) Food transport (d) Photosynthesis [RE-AIPMT 2015]
43. Which one gives the most valid and recent (a) Increase in transpiration
explanation for stomatal movements ? (b) Active absorption
[AIPMT 2015] (c) Low osmotic potential in soil
(a) Potassium influx and efflux (d) Passive absorption
(b) Starch hydrolysis 47. A column of water within xylem vessels of
(c) Guard cell photosynthesis tall trees does not break under its weight
(d) Transpiration because of : [RE-AIPMT 2015]
44. In a ring girdled plant: [AIPMT 2015] (a) Positive root pressure
(a) The root dies first (b) Dissolved sugars in water
(b) The shoot and root die together (c) Tensile strength of water
(c) Neither root nor shoot will die (d) Lignification of xylem vessels
(d) The shoot dies first
Answers
1-b 2-a 3-c 4-b 5-d 6-d 7-c 8-d 9-a 10 -c 11-b 12-c 13-c 14-c 15-d 16-d 17-b 18-b 19-d 20 -c
21-a 22-a 23-a 24-b 25-b 26-a 27-b 28-a 29-c 30 -b
31-a 32-b 33-b 34-d 35-b 36-b 37-d 38-c 39-c 40 -a
41-d 42-b 43-a 44-a 45-a 46-b 47-c
12
MINERAL NUTRITION
1. Mineral associated with cytochrome is 9. The plants grown in magnesium deficient but
(a) Cu (b) Mg [1991] urea sprayed soil would show [2000]
(c) Fe and Mg (d) Fe and Cu (a) deep green foliage
(b) early flowering
2. The association between blue-green algae and
fungi occurs in [1995] (c) yellowing of leaves
(a) lichens (b) symbiosis (d) loss of pigments in petals
(c) cannibalism (d) mycorrhiza 10. Which aquatic fern performs nitrogen
fixation? [2001]
3. Which one of the following is a micronutrient
for plants? [1996] (a) Azolla (b) Nostoc
(a) Calcium (b) Magnesium (c) Salvia (d) Salvinia
(c) Manganese (d) Nitrogen 11. Enzyme involved in nitrogen assimilation
[2001]
4. Which one of the following is not an essential
element for plants? [1996] (a) nitrogenase (b) nitrate reductase
(a) Potassium (b) Iron (c) transferase (d) transaminase
(c) Iodine (d) Zinc 12. Element necessary for the middle lamella
5. The core metal of chlorophyll is (a) Ca (b) Zn [2001] (c) K (d) Cu
[1997] 13. Choose the correct match Bladderwort,
(a) iron (b) magnesium sundew, venusfly trap [2002]
(c) nickel (d) copper (a) Nepenthes, Dionea, Drosera
6. Which of the following is not caused by (b) Nepenthes, Utricularia, Vanda
deficiency of mineral nutrition? (c) Utricularia, Drosera, Dionea
[1997] (d) Dionea, Trapa, Vanda
(a) Necrosis (b) Chlorosis 14. Boron in green plants assists in [2003]
(c) Etiolation (a) sugar transport
(d) Shortening of internodes (b) activation of enzymes
7. Which of the following is a free living aerobic (c) acting as enzyme cofactor
non-photosynthetic nitrogen-fixer?[1997] (d) photosynthesis
(a) Rhizobium (b) Azotobacter 15. Grey spots of oat are caused by deficiency of
(c) Azospirillum (d) Nostoc (a) Fe (b) Cu [2003] (c) Zn (d) Mn
8. Zinc as a nutrient is used by the plants in the 16. The major role of minor elements inside living
form of [2000] organisms is to act as [2003]
(a) Zn (b) Zn2+ (a) binder of cell structure
(c) ZnO (d) ZnSO4 (b) co-factors of enzymes
(c) building blocks of important amino acids 22. A plant requires magnesium for
(d) constituent of hormones [2007]
17. Which one of the following mineral elements (a) holding cells together
plays an important role in biological nitrogen (b) protein synthesis
fixation? [2003] (c) chlorophyll synthesis
(a) Molybdenum (b) Copper (d) cell wall development
(c) Manganese (d) Zinc 23. Which one of the following elements is not an
18. The major portion of the dry weight of plants essential micronutrient for plant growth?
comprises of [2003] (a) Mn (b) Zn [2007] (c) Cu (d) Ca
(a) carbon, hydrogen and oxygen 24. Which of the following is a flowering plant with
(b) nitrogen, phosphorus and potassium nodules containing filamentous nitrogen-fixing
(c) calcium, magnesium and sulphur microorganism ? [2007]
(d) carbon, nitrogen and hydrogen (a) Casuarina equisetifolia
19. A free living, nitrogen-fixing cyanobacterium (b) Crotalaria juncea
which can also form symbiotic association with (c) Cycas revoluta
the water fern Azolla is [2004] (d) Cicer arietinum
(a) Tolypothrix (b) Chlorella 25. Nitrogen-fixation in root nodules of Alnus is
(c) Nostoc (d) Anabaena brought about by [2008]
20. The deficiencies of micronutrients, not only (a) Bradyrhizobium
affects growth of plants but also vital functions (b) Clostridium
such as photosynthetic and mitochondrial (c) Frankia
electron flow. Among the list given below, (d) Azorhizobium
which group of three elements shall affect
most, both photosynthetic and mitochondrial 26. Which of the following is a symbiotic nitrogen
electron transport? [2005] fixer ? [2009]
(a) Co, Ni, Mo (b) Ca, K, Na (a) Frankia (b) Azolla

(c) Mn, Co, Ca (d) Cu, Mn, Fe (c) Glomus (d) Azotobacter
27. Manganese is required in [2009]
21. Farmers in a particular region were concerned
(a) Photolysis of water during photosynthesis
that pre-mature yellowing of leaves
(b) Chlorophyll synthesis
of a pulse crop might cause decrease in the
yield. Which treatment could be most (c) Nucleic acid synthesis
beneficial to obtain maximum seed yield? (d) Plant cell wall formation
[2006] 28. An element playing important role in nitrogen
fixation is: [Pre. 2010]
(a) Frequent irrigation of the crop
(b) Treatment of the plants with cytokinins (a) Molybdenum (b) Copper
alongwith a small dose of nitrogenous (c) Manganese (d) Zinc
fertilizer 29. Which one of the following is not a
(c) Removal of all yellow leaves and spraying micronutrient? [Pre. 2010]
the remaining green leaves with 2,4, 5- (a) Molybdenum (b) Magnesium
trichlorophenoxy acetic acid (c) Zinc (d) Boron
(d) Application of iron and magnesium to 30. One of the free-living, anaerobic nitrogenfixer
promote synthesis of chlorophyll is [Pre. 2010]
(a) Beijernickia (b) Rhodospirillum 36. Nitrifying bacteria [Pre. 2011]

(c) Rhizobium (d) Azotobacter (a) Oxidize ammonia to nitrates
31. The common nitrogen-fixer in paddy fields is (b) Convert free nitrogen to nitrogen
[Pre. 2010] compounds
(a) Rhizobium (b) Azospirillum (c) Convert proteins into ammonia
(c) Oscillatoria (d) Frankia (d) Reduce nitrates to free nitrogen
32. Study the cycle shown below and select the 37. The function of leghaemoglobin in the root
option which gives correct words for all the nodules of legumes is [Pre. 2011]
four blanks A, B, C and D. [Mains 2010]
33. Legumious plants are able to fix
atmosphere nitrogen through the
process of symbiotic nitrogen fixation.
Which one of the following statement is
not correct during this process of
nitrogen fixation. [Mains 2010]
(a) Nodules act as sites for nitrogen
fixation
(b) The enzyme nitrogense catalyses the
conversion of atmospheric N2 to NH3
(c) Nitrogenase is insensitive to oxygen
(d) Leghaemoglobin scavenges oxygen
and in colour
A B C D (a) Inhibition of nitrogenase activity

(a) Denitri- Ammoni- Plants Animals (b) Oxygen removal
fication fication
(c) Nodule differentiation
(b) Nitrifi- Dentrifi- Animals Plants (d) Expression of nif gene
cation cation
38. Which one of the following helps in absorption
(c) Denitrifi- Nitrifi- Plants Animals of phosphorus from soil by plants ?
cation cation [Pre. 2011]
(a) Glomus (b) Rhizobium
(d) Nitrifi- Ammoni- Animals Plants
(c) Frankia (d) Anabaena
cation fication
39. For its action, nitrogenase requires
34. Which one of the following is not an essential [Mains 2012]
mineral element for plants while the re-
(a) Light (b) Mn2+
maining three are ? [Mains 2011]
(c) Super oxygen radicals
(a) Phosphorus (b) Iron
(d) High input of energy
(c) Manganese (d) Cadmium
40. For its activity, carboxypeptidase requires :
35. Which one of the following elements in plants
[Mains 2012]
is not remobilised ? [Pre. 2011]
(a) Iron (b) Niacin
(a) Phosphorus (b) Calcium
(c) Copper (d) Zinc
(c) Potassium (d) Sulphur
41. Best defined

function of Manganese in green plants is Answers
[Pre. 2012]
(a) Senescent leaves (b) Young leaves
(a) Nitrogen fixation
(c) Roots (d) Buds
(b) Water absorption
(c) Photolysis of water 45. Minerals known to be required in large
(d) Calvin cycle amounts for plant growth include:-
[AIPMT 2015]
42. A nitrogen fixing microbe associated with
Azolla in rice-fields is [Pre. 2012] (a) calcium, magnesium, manganese, copper
(b) potassium, phosphorus, selenium, boron
(a) Frankia (b) Tolypothrix
(c) magnesium, sulphur, iron, zinc
(c) Spirulina (d) Anabaena
(d) phosphorus, potassium, sulphur, calcium
43. The first stable product of fixation of
atmospheric nitrogen in leguminous plants is 46. The oxygen evolved during photosynthesis
[2013] comes from water molecules. Which one of
(a) NO2– (b) Ammonia the following pairs of elements is involved in
this reaction? [RE-AIPMT 2015]
(c) NO3– (d) Glutamate
(a) Magnesium and Chlorine
44. Deficiency symptoms of nitrogen and (b) Manganese and Chlorine
potassium are visible first in - [AIPMT 2014] (c) Manganese and Potassium
(d) Magnesium and Molybdenum
47. During biological nitrogen fixation, inactivation
of nitrogenase by oxygen poisoning prevented
by : [RE-AIPMT 2015]
(a) Cytochrome (b) Leghaemoglobin
(c) Xanthophyll (d) Carotene
1-d 2-a 3-c 4-c 5-b 6-c 7-b 8-b 9-c 10-a
11-a 12-a 13-c 14-a 15-d 16-b 17-a 18-a 19-d 20-d
21-d 22-c 23-d 24-a 25-c 26-a 27-a 28-d 29-b 30-b
31-d 32-a 33-c 34-d 35-b 36-a 37-b 38-a 39-d 40-d 41-c 42-d
43-b 44-a 45-d 46-b 47-b
13
PHOTOSYNTHESIS IN HIGHER PLANTS
1. A very efficient converter of solar energy with 6. Kranz anatomy is typical of [1990, 95] net productivity
of 2-4 kg/m2 or more is the (a) C4-plants (b) C3-plants
crop of [1989] (c) C2-plants (d) CAM plants

(a) wheat (b) sugarcane
7. Ferredoxin is a constituent of [1991]
(c) rice (d) bajra
(a) PS-I (b) PS-II
2. In C4-plants, Calvin cycle operates in[1989] (c) Hill reaction (d) P680
(a) stroma of bundle sheath chloroplasts 8. During monsoon, the rice crop of Eastern states of India
shows lesser yield due to lim-
(b) grana of bundle sheath chloroplasts iting factor of [1991]
(c) grana of mesophyll chloroplasts
(a) CO2 (b) light
(d) stroma of mesophyll chloroplasts
(c) temperature (d) water
3. The substrate for photorespiration is[1989]
9. Dark reactions of photosynthesis occur in
(a) ribulose bis-phosphate [1991]
glycolate
(b) (a) granal thylakoid membranes
serine
(c) (b) stromal lamella membranes
glycine
(d) (c) stroma outside photosynthetic lamellae
4. Greatest producers of organic matter are (d) periplastidial space
[1989,94]
10. Photosynthetic pigments found in the chlo-
(a) crop plants (b) forests roplasts occur in [1991]
(c) plants of the land area (a) thylakoid membranes

(d) phytoplankton of oceans (b) plastoglobules
5. The first carbon dioxide acceptor in C 4- (c) matrix
plants is [1990,92] (d) chloroplast envelope
(a) phosphoenol-pyruvate 11. Which technique has helped in investiga-

(b) ribulose 1,5-diphosphate tion of Calvin cycle? [1991]
(c) oxalo acetic acid (a) X-ray crystallography
(d) phosphoglyceric acid (b) X-ray technique
(c) Radioactive isotope technique (b) ferredoxin
(d) Intermittent light (c) electrons
12. Which one is a C4 plant? [1992] (d) carbon dioxide
(a) Papaya (b) Pea 17. A photosynthesizing plant is releasing 18O

more than the normal. The plant must have
(c) Potato (d) Maize/corn
been supplied with [1993]
13. The enzyme that catalyses initial carbon
(a) O3 (b) H2O with 18O
dioxide fixation in C4 plants is [1992, 2002]
(c) CO2 with 18O (d) C6H12O6 with 18O
(a) RuBP carboxylase
(b) PEP carboxylase 18. Maximum solar energy is trapped by[1993]
(c) carbonic anhydrase (a) planting trees
(d) carboxydismutase (b) cultivating crops
14. Photosystem-II occurs in [1992] (c) growing algae in tanks
(a) stroma (d) growing grasses
(b) cytochrome 19. The carbon dioxide acceptor in Calvin cycle/
(c) grana C3 plants is [1993, 95, 96, 99]
(d) mitochondrial surface (a) Phosphoenol pyruvate (PEP)
15. Chlorophyll-a occurs in [1992] (b) Ribulose 1,5-diphosphate (RuDP)
(a) all photosynthetic autotrophs (c) Phosphoglyceric Acid (PGA)
(b) in all higher plants (d) Ribulose Monophosphate (RMP)
(c) all oxygen liberating autotrophs 20. C4-cycle was discovered by [1994]
(d) all plants except fungi (a) Hatch and Slack
16. Formation of ATP in photosynthesis and (b) Calvin (c) Hill
respiration is an oxidation process which (d) Arnon
utilises the energy from [1992]
21. Which one occurs both during cyclic and non-
(a) cytochromes cyclic modes of photophosphorylation? [1994]
(a) Involvement of both PS-I and PS-II (c) low temperature and high O2
(b) Formation of ATP (d) low O2 and high CO2
(c) Release of O2
29. NADPH is generated through [1997]
(d) Formation of NADPH
(a) photosystem-I
22. Pigment acting as a reaction centre during (b) photosystem-II
photosynthesis is [1994]
(c) anaerobic respiration
(a) carotene (b) phytochrome (d) glycolysis
(c) P700 (d) cytochrome
30. Protochlorophyll differs from chlorophyll in
23. Nine-tenth of all photosynthesis of world (85- lacking [1998]
90%) is carried out by [1994] (a) 2 hydrogen atoms in one of its pyrrole rings
(a) large trees with millions of branches and (b) 2 hydrogen atoms in two of its pyrrole rings
leaves (c) 4 hydrogen atoms in one of its pyrrole rings
(b) algae of the ocean (d) 4 hydrogen atoms in two of its pyrrole rings
(c) chlorophyll containing ferns of the forest
(d) scientists in the laboratories
cytochrome P450 is wrong? [1998]
24. Chlorophyll-a molecule at its carbon atom 3 of (a) It contains iron
the pyrrole ring-II has one of the following
(b) It is an enzyme involved in oxidation
[1996]
reactions
(a) aldehyde group (b) methyl group (c) It is a coloured cell
(c) carboxyl group (d) magnesium (d) It has an important role in metabolism
25. Which one of the following is represented by 32. Which enzyme is most abundantly found on
Calvin cycle? [1996] earth? [1999]
(a) Reductive carboxylation (a) Catalase (b) Rubisco
(b) Oxidative carboxylation (c) Nitrogenase (d) Invertase
(c) Photophosphorylation
33. Fixation of one CO2 molecule through Calvin
(d) Oxidative phosphorylation
cycle requires [2000]
26. Photosynthetically active radiation is
(a) 1 ATP and 2NADPH2
represented by the range of wavelength
(b) 2 ATP and 2NADPH2
[1996, 2004, 05]
(a) 340-450 nm (b) 400-700 nm (c) 3 ATP and 2NADPH2
(c) 500-600 nm (d) 400-950 nm (d) 2ATP and 1NADPH2
27. The principle of limiting factors was proposed 34. How many turns of Calvin cycle yield one
by [1996] molecule of glucose? [2000]
(a) Blackmann (b) Hill (a) 8 (b) 2
(c) Arnon (d) Liebig (c) 6 (d) 4
28. Photorespiration is favoured by 35. The first step of photosynthesis is
[1996] [2000]
(a) high O2 and low CO2 (a) excitation of electron of chlorophyll by a
(b) low light and high O2 photon of light
(b) formation of ATP
(c) attachment of CO2 to 5 carbon sugar (a) Manganese

(d) ionisation of water (b) Calcium
(c) Magnesium
36. Photochemical reactions in the chloroplast are
directly involved in [2000] (d) Potassium
(a) formation of phosphoglyceric acid 43. In sugarcane plant 14CO2 is fixed in malic acid,
(b) fixation of carbon dioxide in which the enzyme that fixes CO2 is
(c) synthesis of glucose and starch [2003]
(d) photolysis of water and phosphorylation of (a) fructose phosphatase
ADP to ATP
(b) ribulose bisphosphate carboxylase
37. Which pigment system is inactivated in red (c) phosphoenol pyruvic acid carboxylase
drop? [2001] (d) ribulose phosphate kinase
(a) PS-Iand PS-II 44. Stomata of CAM plants [2003]
(b) PS-I
(a) never open
(c) PS-II
(b) are always open
(d) None of these
(c) open during the day and close at night
38. Cytochrome is [2001] (d) open during the night and close during the
(a) metallo flavo protein day
(b) Fe-containing porphyrin pigment 45. Which fractions of the visible spectrum of solar
(c) glycoprotein radiations are primarily absorbed by
(d) lipid carotenoids of the higher plants? [2003]
39. Which pair is wrong? [2001] (a) Violet and blue
(a) C3—Maize (b) Blue and green
(c) Green and red
(b) C4—Kranz anatomy
(d) Red and violet
(c) Calvin cycle—PGA
(d) Hatch and Slack Pathway—Oxalo acetic 46. Which one of the following is wrong in relation
acid to photorespiration? [2003]
(a) It is a characteristic of C3 -plants
40. In photosynthesis energy from light reaction to
dark reaction is transferred in the form of (b) It occurs’in chloroplasts
[2002] (c) It occurs in day time only
(a) ADP (b) ATP (d) It is a characteristic of C4-plants
(c) RuDP (d) chlorophyll 47. In C3-plants, the first stable product of
photosynthesis during the dark reaction is
41. Which of the following absorb light energy for
[2004]
photosynthesis? [2002]
(a) malic acid
(a) Chlorophyll
(b) oxaloacetic acid
(b) Water molecule
(c) 3-phosphoglyceric acid
(c) O2
(d) phosphoglyceraldehyde
(d) RuBP
48. Chlorophyll in chloroplasts is located in
42. Which element is located at the centre of the
[2004]
porphyrin ring in chlorophyll? [2003]
(a) outer membrane
(b) inner membrane (a) cytochrome (b) iron-sulphur protein (c)

(c) thylakoids ferredoxin (d) quinone
(d) stroma 55. The C4-plants are photosynthetically more
49. As compared to a C3-plant, how many efficient than C3-plants because [2008]
additional molecules of ATP are needed for net (a) the CO2 compensation point is more
production of one molecule of hexose sugar by
(b) CO2 generated during photorespiration is
C4-plants [2005]
trapped and recycled through PEP
(a) 2 (b) 6 carboxylase
(c) 12 (d) zero (c) the CO2 efflux is not prevented
50. Photosynthesis in C4-plants is relatively less (d) they have more chloroplasts
limited by atmospheric CO2 levels because 56. Stroma in the chloroplasts of higher plant
[2005] contains [2009]
(a) effective pumping of CO2 into bundle (a) Ribosomes
sheath cells (b) Chlorophyll
(b) rubisco in C4-plants has higher affinity for (c) Light-independent reaction enzymes
CO2 (d) Light-dependent reaction enzymes
(c) four carbon acids are the primary initial 57. Oxygenic photosynthesis occurs in [2009]
CO2 fixation products (a) Rhodospirillum (b) Chlorobium
(d) the primary fixation of CO2 is mediated via (c) Chromatium (d) Oscillatoria
PEP carboxylase
58. PGA as the first CO2 fixation product was
51. In photosystem-I the first electron acceptor is discovered in photosynthesis of [Pre. 2010]
[2006] (a) Bryophyte
(a) cytochrome (b) Gymnosperm
(b) plastocyanin (c) Angiosperm alga
(c) an iron-sulphur protein (d) Alga
(d) ferredoxin 59. C4 plants are more efficient in photosynthesis
52. During photorespiration, the oxygen than C3 plants due to [Pre. 2010]
consuming reaction(s) occur in [2006] (a) (a) Higher leaf area
stroma of chloroplasts and peroxisomes
(b) Presence of larger number of chloroplasts
(b) grana of chloroplasts and peroxisomes in the leaf cells
(c) stroma of chloroplasts (c) Presence of thin cuticle
(d) stroma of chloroplasts and mitochondria (d) Lower rate of photorespiration
53. In the leaves of C4-plants, malic acid formation 60. Kranz anatomy is one of the characteristics of
during CO2 fixation occurs in the cells of the leaves of [Mains 2010]
[2007,08]
(a) Wheat (b) Sugarcane
(a) mesophyll (b) bundle sheath
(c) Mustard (d) Potato
(c) phloem (d) epidermis
61. Study the pathway given below
54. The first acceptor of electrons from an excited
[Mains 2010]
chlorophyll molecule of photosystem-
II is [2007, 08]
(2) Only PSI is functional in cyclic

photophosphorylation
(3) Cyclic photophosphorylation results into
synthesis of ATP and NADPH2
(4) Stroma lamellae lack PSII as well as NADP.
(a) 1 and 2 (b) 2 and 3
(c) 3 and 4 (d) 2 and 4
63. Which one of the following is essential for
photolysis of water ? [Mains 2011]
(a) Boron (b) Manganese
(c) Zinc (d) Copper
64. In Kranz anatomy, the bundle sheath cells have
[Mains 2011]
(a) Thick walls, many intercellular spaces and
few chloroplasts
(b) Thin walls, many intercellular spaces and
In which of the following options correct words
no chloroplasts.
for all the three blanks A, B and C are indicated
? (c) Thick walls, no intercellular spaces and
large number of chloroplasts.
(d) Thin walls, no intercellular spaces and
several chlorplasts.
65. Of the total incident solar radiation the
proportion of PAR is [Pre. 2011]
(a) About 70% (b) About 60%
(c) Less than 50% (d) More than 80%
66. CAM helps the plants in [Pre. 2011]
A B C (a) Conserving water

(b) Secondary growth
(a) Fixation Transamination Regeneration
(c) Disease resistance (d) Reproduction
(b) Fixation DecarboxylationRegeneration 67. A process that makes important difference
between C3 and C4 plants is [Pre. 2012]
(c) Carboxy- Decarboxy- Reduction
lation lation
Answers
(d) DecarboxylationReduction Regeneration
(a) Photosynthesis (b) Photorespiration
62. Read the following four statements A, B, C and (c) Transpiration (d) Glycolysis
D and select the right option having both 68. The correct sequence of cell organelles during
correct statements [Mains 2010] STATEMENTS photorespiration is [Pre. 2012]
:
(a) Chloroplast-mitochondria-peroxisome
(1) Z scheme of light reaction takes place in
(b) Chloroplast-vacuole-peroxisome
presence of PSI only
(c) Chloroplast-Golgibodies-mitochondria (a) Mutated (b) Embolised

(d) Chloroplast-rough endoplasmic reticulum- (c) Etiolated (d) Defoliated
dictyosomes
71. Chromatophores take part in :
69. Anoxygenic photosynthesis is characteristic of [RE-AIPMT 2015]
[AIPMT 2014] (a) Respiration (b) Photosynthesis
(a) Rhodospirillum (b) Spirogyra (c) Growth (d) Movement
(c) Chlamydomonas (d) Ulva
72. In photosynthesis, the light-independent
70. A few normal seedlings of tomato were kept in reactions take place at : [RE-AIPMT 2015]
a dark room. After a few days they were found (a) Stromal matrix
to have become white-coloured like albinos. (b) Thylakoid lumen
Which of the following terms will
(c) Photosystem – I
you use to describe them? [AIPMT 2014]
(d) Photosystem-II
1-b 2-a 3-b 4-d 5-a 6-a 7-a 8-b 9-c 10-a
11-c 12-d 13-b 14-c 15-c 16-c 17-b 18-d 19-b 20-a
21-b 22-c 23-b 24-b 25-a 26-b 27-a 28-a 29-b 30-a
31-c 32-b 33-c 34-c 35-a 36-d 37-c 38-b 39-a 40-b
41-a 42-c 43-c 44-d 45-a 46-d 47-c 48-c 49-c 50-d
51-c 52-a 53-a 54-d 55-d 56-c 57-d 58-d 59-d 60-b 61-b 62-d 63-a 64-c 65-c 66-a 67-b 68-a 69-a 70-c
71-b 72-a
14
RESPIRATION IN PLANTS
1. End product of glycolysis is [1990] 4. Out of 36 ATP molecules produced per glucose
(a) acetyl Co-A (b) pyruvic acid molecule during respiration [1991]
(c) glucose 1-phosphate (a) 2 are produced outside glycolysis and 34
(d) fructose 1-phosphate during respiratory chain
(b) 2 are produced outside mitochondria and
2. EMP can produce a total of [1990]
34 inside mitochondria
(a) 6 ATP (b) 8 ATP
(c) 2 during glycolysis and 34 during Krebs
(c) 24 ATP (d) 38 ATP cycle
3. Connecting link between glycolysis and Krebs (d) all are formed inside mitochondria
cycle is (before entering Krebs cycle pyruvate
5. End products of aerobic respiration are
changed to) [1990]
[1992]
(a) oxaloacetate (b) PEP
(a) sugar and oxygen
(c) pyruvate (d) acetyl Co-A
(b) water and energy
(c) carbon dioxide, water and energy (d) both decline simultaneously
(d) carbon dioxide and energy 13. Life without air would be [1993]
6. Amino acids are mostly synthesized from (a) reductional
[1992] (b) free from oxidative damage
(a) mineral salts (b) fatty acids (c) impossible
(c) volatile acids (d) -ketoglutaric acid (d) anaerobic
7. Apparatus to measure rate of respiration and 14. Out of 38 ATP molecules produced per
RQ is [1992] glucose, 32 ATP molecules are formed from
(a) auxanometer (b) potometer NADH/FADH2in [1993]
(c) respirometer (d) manometer (a) respiratory chain
8. When one glucose molecule is completely (b) Krebs cycle
oxidised, it changes [1992] (c) oxidative decarboxylation
(a) 36 ADP molecules into 36 ATP molecules (d) EMP
(b) 38 ADP molecules into 38 ATP molecules 15. End product of citric acid/Krebs cycle is
(c) 30 ADP molecules into 30 ATP molecules [1993]
(d) 32 ADP molecules into 32 ATP molecules
(a) citric acid (b) lactic acid
9. Link between glycolysis, Krebs cycle and (c) pyruvic acid (d) CO2 + H2O
poxidation of fatty acid or carbohydrate and
fat metabolism is [1992] 16. In animal cells, the first stage of glucose break
down is [1994]
(a) oxaloacetic acid
(a) Krebs cycle
(b) succinic acid
(b) glycolysis
(c) citric acid
(c) oxidative phosphorylation
(d) acetyl Co-A
(d) ETC
10. Oxidative phosphorylation is production of
17. Respiratory substrate yielding maximum
[1992]
number of ATP molecule is [1994]
(a) ATP in photosynthesis
(a) ketogenic amino acids
(b) NADPH in photosynthesis
(b) glucose
(c) ATP in respiration
(c) amylose
(d) NADH in respiration
(d) glycogen
11. Terminal cytochrome of respiratory chain
which donates electrons to oxygen is 18. ATP is injected in cyanide poisoning because it
is [1994]
[1992]
(a) necessary for cellular functions
(a) cyt. b (b) cyt. c
(b) necessary for Na+ –K+ pump
(c) cyt. a1 (d) cyt.-a3
(c) Na+–K+ pump operates at the cell
12. At a temperature above 35°C [1992] membranes
(a) rate of photosynthesis will decline earlier (d) ATP breaks down cyanide
than that of respiration 19. Fermentation products of yeast are
(b) rate of respiration will decline earlier than [1994]
that of photosynthesis
(a) H2O + CO2
(c) there is no fixed pattern
(b) methyl alcohol + CO2 27. Net gain of ATP molecules during aerobic
(c) methyl alcohol + H2O respiration is [1999]
(a) 36 molecules (b) 38 molecules
(d) ethyl alcohol + CO2
(c) 40 molecules (d) 48 molecules
20. Which of the following is essential for
28. How many ATP molecules are produced by
conversion of pyruvic acid into acetyl Co-A?
aerobic oxidation of one molecule of glucose?
[1995]
[2002]
(a) LAA (b) NAD+
(a) 2 (b) 4
(c) TPP (d) All of these
(c) 38 (d) 34
21. Respiratory quotient (RQ) for fatty acid is
29. Which one of the following concerns
[1995]
photophosphorylation? [2003]
(a) > 1 (b) < 1
(c) 1 (d) 0 (a) AMP + inorganic PO4 Lightenergy
ATP
22. Krebs cycle occurs in [1996] (b) ADP + AMP Lightenergy

ATP
(a) mitochondria (b) cytoplasm (c) ADP + inorganic PO4 Lightenergy
ATP
(c) chloroplast (d) ribosomes
(d) ADP + inorganic PO4 ATP
23. Oxidative phosphorylation involves
simultaneous oxidation and phosphorylation 30. In which one of the following do the two
to finally form [1996] names refer to one and the same thing?
[2003]
(a) pyruvate (b) NADP
(a) Tricarboxylic acid cycle and urea cycle
(c) DPN (d) ATP
(b) Krebs cycle and Calvin cycle
24. Fermentation is anaerobic production of (c) Tricarboxylic acid cycle and citric acid cycle
[1996] (d) Citric acid cycle and Calvin cycle
(a) protein and acetic acid
31. In alcoholic fermentation [2003]
(b) alcohol, lactic acid or similar compounds
(a) oxygen is the electron acceptor
(c) ethers and acetones
(b) triose phosphate is the electron donor
(d) alcohol and lipoproteins
while acetaldehyde is the electron
25. The mechanism of ATP formation both in acceptor
chloroplast and mitochondria is explained by (c) triose phosphate is the electron donor
[1997] while pyruvic acid is the electron
(a) relay pump theory of Godlewski acceptor
(b) Munch’s pressure/mass flow model (d) there is no electron donor
(c) chemiosmotic theory of Mitchell 32. In glycolysis, during oxidation electrons are
(d) Cholondy-Went’s model removed by [2004]
26. In Krebs cycle FAD participates as electron (a) ATP
acceptor during the conversion of [1997] (b) glyceraldehyde-3-phosphate
(a) succinyl Co-A to succinic acid (c) NAD+
(d) molecular oxygen
(b) -ketoglutarate to succinyl Co-A
(c) succinic acid to fumaric acid
(d) fumaric acid to malic acid
33. During which stage, in the complete oxidation 38. The chemiosmotic coupling hypothesis of
of glucose are the greatest number of ATP oxidative phosphorylation proposes that
molecules formed from ADP [2005] Adenosine Triphosphate (ATP) is formed
(a) glycolysis because [2008]
(b) Krebs cycle (a) high energy bonds are formed in
(c) conversion of pyruvic acid to acetyl Co- mitochondrial proteins
A (b) ADP is pumped out of the matrix into the
(d) electron transport chain intermembrane space
(c) a proton gradient forms across the inner
34. Chemiosmotic theory of ATP synthesis in the membrane
chloroplast and mitochondria is based on
(d) there is a change in the permeability of the
[2005]
inner mitochondrial membrane toward
(a) membrane potential Adenosine Diphosphate (ADP)
(b) accumulation of Na+ions
39. The energy-releasing process in which the
(c) accumulation of K+ ions
substrate is oxidized without an external
(d) proton gradient
electron acceptor is called [2008]
35. How many ATP molecules could maximally be (a) fermentation
generated from one molecule of glucose, if the (b) photorespiration
complete oxidation of one mole of glucose to
(c) aerobic respiration
CO2 and H2O yields 686 kcal and the useful
(d) glycolysis
chemical energy available in the high energy
phosphate bond of one mole of ATP is 12 kcal? 40. Aerobic respiratory pathway is appropriately
[2006] termed [2009]
(a) 30 (b) 57 (a) Amphibolic (b) Anabolic
(c) 1 (d) 2 (c) Catabolic (d) Parabolic
36. The overall goal of glycolysis, Krebs cycle and 41. Cyclic photophosphorylation results in the
the electron transport system is the formation formation of: [2009]
of [2007] (a) ATP, NADPH and O2
(a) ATP in small stepwise units (b) ATP
(b) ATP in one large oxidation reaction (c) NADPH
(c) sugars (d) ATP and NADPH
(d) nucleic acids 42. The energy-releasing metabolic process in
37. All enzymes of TCA cycle are located in the which substrate is oxidised without an
mitochondrial matrix except one which is external electron acceptor is called[Pre. 2010]
located in inner mitochondrial membranes in (a) Glycolysis (b) Fermentation
eukaryotes and in cytosol in prokaryotes. (c) Aerobic respiration
This enzyme is [2007] (d) Photorespiration
(a) lactate dehydrogenase
43. In mitochondria, protons accumulate in the
(b) isocitrate dehydrogenase (c) malate
[Mains 2011]
dehydrogenase
(d) succinate dehydrogenase (a) Matrix (b) Outer membrane
(c) Inner membrane
(d) Inter-membrane space
44. Which of the metabolites is common to

respiration mediated breakdown of fats,
carbo-
hydrates and proteins ? [2013]
(a) Glucose-6-phosphate Arrows numbered 4, 8, and 12 can all be
(b) Fructose1, 6-bisphosphate (a) NADH (b) ATP
(c) Pyruvic acid (c) H2O (d) FAD+ or FADH
(d) Acetyl CoA
46. In which one of the following processes, CO2 is
45. The three boxes in this diagram represent the
not released? [AIPMT 2014]
three major biosynthetic pathways in aerobic
respiration. Arrows represent net re- (a) Aerobic respiration in plants
actants or products [2013] (b) Aerobic respiration in
animals
(c) Alcoholic fermentation
(d) Lactate fermentation
Answers
1-b 2-b 3-d 4-b 5-c 6-d 7-c 8-b 9-d 10-c
11-d 12-a 13-d 14-a 15-d 16-b 17-b 18-a 19-d 20-d 21-b 22-a 23-d 24-b 25-c 26-c 27-b 28-c 29-c 30-
c 31-b 32-b 33-d 34-d 35-a 36-a 37-d 38-c 39-d 40-a
41-b 42-d 43-d 44-d 45-b 46-d
15A
PLANT GROWTH AND DEVELOPMENT – PLANT
HORMONES
1. Leaf fall can be prevented with the help of 3. Mowing grass lawn facilitates better
[1989] maintenance because [1989]
(a) abscisic acid (a) wounding stimulates regeneration
(b) auxins (b) removal of apical dominance and
(c) florigen stimulation of intercalary meristem
(d) cytokinins (c) removal of apical dominance
(d) removal of apical dominance and
2. Which of the following hormones can replace
promotion of lateral meristem
vernalization? [1989]
(a) Auxin 4. Highest auxin concentration occurs [1990]
(b) Cytokinin (a) in growing tips
(c) Gibberellins (b) in leaves
(d) Ethylene (c) at base of plant organs
(d) in xylem and phloem (a) photoperiod less than 12 hr

5. Phytohormones are [1990] (b) photoperiod below a critical length and
(a) chemicals regulating flowering uninterrupted long night
(b) chemicals regulating secondary growth (c) long night
(c) hormones regulating growth from seed to (d) short photoperiod and interrupted long
adulthood night
(d) regulators synthesized by plants and 13. Bananas can be prevented from over-ripening
influencing physiological processes by [1992]
6. Abscisic acid controls [1990,99,2000] (a) maintaining them at room temperature
(a) cell division (b) refrigeration
(b) leaf fall and dormancy (c) dipping in ascorbic acid solution
(c) shoot elongation (d) storing in a freezer
(d) Cell elongation and wall formation 14. Cytokinins [1992]
7. Hormone primarily connected with cell (a) promote abscission
division is [1991] (b) influence water movement
(a) IAA (c) help retain chlorophyll
(b) NAA (d) inhibit protoplasmic streaming
(c) cytokinin/zeatin 15. Flowering dependent on cold treatment is
(d) gibberellic acid [1992]
8. Abscisic acid causes [1991] (a) cryotherapy
(a) stomatal closure (b) cryogenics
(b) stem elongation (c) cryoscopy
(c) leaf expansion (d) vernalization
(d) root elongation 16. Dwarfness can be controlled by treating the
9. The hormone responsible for apical plant with [1992,2002]
dominance is [1991,92] (a) cytokinin
(a) IAA (b) GA (b) gibberellic acid
(c) ABA (d) florigen (c) auxin
10. A chemical believed to be involved in (d) antigibberellin
flowering is [1991,95] 17. Which is a stress hormone? or the hormone
(a) gibberellin (b) kinetin produced during adverse environmental
(c) florigen (d) IBA conditions is [1993]
(a) benzyl aminopurine
11. Which is employed for artificial ripening of
banana fruits? [1992] (b) dichlorophenoxy acetic acid
(c) ethylene
(a) Auxin
(d) abscisic acid
(b) Cumarin
(c) Ethylene 18. Removal of apical bud results in
(d) Cytokinin [1993, 2000]
12. In short-day plants, flowering is induced by (a) formation of new apical bud
[1992] (b) elongation of main stem
(c) death of plant (a) A biodegradable insecticide

(d) formation of lateral branching (b) A weedicide containing dioxin
19. Movement of auxin is [1994] (c) Colour used in fluorescent lamp
(a) centripetal (d) A hazardous chemical used in luminous
paints
(b) basipetal
(c) acropetal 26. Which combination of gases is suitable for
(d) both (b) and (c) fruit ripening? [1998]
20. Ethylene gas is used for [1995] (a) 80% CO2 and 20%CH2
(a) growth of plants (b) 80% CH4 and 20%CO2
(b) delaying fruit’s abscission (c) 80% CO2 and 20% O2
(c) ripening of fruits (d) 80% C2H4 and 20% CO2
(d) stopping the leaf abscission
27. The response of different organisms to
21. The pigment, that absorbs red and far-red environmental rhythms of light and darkness
light in plants, is [1995, 2002] is called [1998]
(a) xanthophyll (a) phototaxis (b) photoperiodism
(b) cytochrome (c) phototropism (d) vernalization
(c) phytochrome
28. A plant hormone used for inducing
(d) carotene morphogenesis in plant tissue culture is
22. What will be the effect on phytochrome in a [1998]
plant subjected to continuous red light? (a) gibberellins (b) cytokinins
[1997] (c) ethylene (d) abscisic acid
(a) Level of phytochrome decreases
29. The method that renders the seed coat
(b) Phytochrome is destroyed
permeable to water so that embryo
(c) Phytochrome synthesis increases expansion is not physically retarded, is [2000]
(d) Destruction and synthesis of (a) vernalization (b) stratification
phytochrome remain in equilibrium
(c) denudation (d) scarification
23. If a tree, flowers thrice in a year (Oct., Jan.
and July) in Northern India, it is said to be 30. What reason will you assign for coconut milk
used in tissue culture? [2000, 03]
[1997]
(a) Gibberellins (b) Cytokinins
(a) photosensitive but thermoinsensitive (b)
thermosensitive but photoinsensitive (c) Auxins (d) Ethylene
(c) photo and thermosensitive 31. Which of the following prevents fall of fruits?
(d) photo and thermoinsensitive (a) GA3 (b) NAA [2001]
24. Gibberellins induce [1997] (c) Ethylene (d) Zeatin
(a) flowering 32. Hormone responsible for senescence is
(b) production of hydrolyzing enzymes in (a) ABA (b) auxin [2001]
germinating seeds (c) GA (d) cytokinin
(c) cell division
33. Glycolate induces opening of stomata in
(d) hasten leaf senescence
[2001]
25. What is agent orange? [1998] (a) presence of oxygen
(b) low CO2 concentration (a) vernalization (b) chelation

(c) high CO2 concentration (c) stratification (d) scarification
(d) absence of CO2 42. An enzyme that can stimulate germination of
barley seeds is [2006]
34. Proteinaceous pigment which control
(a) lipase (b) protease
activities concerned with light [2001]
(c) invertase (d) -amylase
(a) phytochrome (b) chlorophyll
(c) anthocyanin (d) carotenoids 43. How does pruning help in making the hedge
dense? [2006]
35. Which breaks bud dormancy of potato tuber?
(a) It frees axillary buds from apical
[2001]
dominance
(a) Gibberellin (b) IAA
(b) The apical shoot grows faster after
(c) ABA (d) Zeatin pruning
36. Which one is a long-day plant? [2001] (c) It releases wound hormones
(a) Tobacco (b) Glycine max (d) It induces the differentiation of new
(c) Mirabilis jalapa (d) Spinach shoots from the rootstock
37. Plants deficient of element zinc, show its 44. Which one of the following pairs, is not
effect on the biosynthesis of plant growth correctly matched ? [2007]
hormone [2003] (a) Abscisic acid – Stomatal
(a) abscisic acid (b) auxin closure
(c) cytokinin (d) ethylene (b) Gibberellic acid – Leaf fall
38. Differentiation of shoot is controlled by (c) Cytokinin – Cell division
[2003] (d) IAA – Cell wall elongation
(a) high gibberellin—cytokinin ratio 45. “Foolish seedling” disease of rice led to the
(b) high auxin—cytokinin ratio discovery of [2007]
(c) high cytokinin—auxin ratio (a) GA (b) ABA
(d) high gibberellin—auxin ratio (c) 2, 4D (d) IAA
39. One set of a plant was grown at 12 hr day and 46. The wavelength of light absorbed by Pr form
12 hr night period cycles and it flowered while of phytochrome is [2007]
in the other set night phase was interrupted (a) 640 nm (b) 680 nm (c) 720 nm (d) 620 nm
by flash of light and it did not produce flower. 47. Importance of day length in flowering of
Under which one of the following categories plants was first shown in [2008]
will you place this plant? [2004]
(a) Lemna (b) tobacco
(a) Long-day (b) Darkness neutral
(c) cotton (d) Petunia
(c) Day neutral (d) Short-day
48. Senescence as an active developmental
40. Cell elongation in internodal regions of the
cellular process in the growth and functioning
green plants takes place due to [2004]
of a flowering plant, is indicated in [2008]
(a) indole acetic acid (b) cytokinins
(a) vessels and tracheid differentiation
(c) gibberellins (d) ethylene
(b) leaf abscission
41. Treatment of seed at low temperature under (c) annual plants (d) floral parts
moist conditions to break its dormancy is
called [2006] 49. One of the synthetic auxin is [2009]
(a) GA (b) IBA (c) NAA (d) IAA 58. During seed germination its stored food is
mobilized by [2013]
50. Which one of the following acids is a
derivative of carotenoids? [2009] (a) Ethylene (b) Cytokinin
(a) Gibberellic acid (b) Abscisic acid (c) ABA (d) Gibberellin
(c) Indole butyric acid 59. Dr. F. Went noted that if coleoptile tips were
(d) Indole-3-acetic acid removed and placed on agar for one hour, the
agar would produce a bending when placed
51. Photoperiodism was first characterised in
on one side of freshly cut coleoptile stumps.
(a) Tobacco (b) Potato [Pre. 2010] Of what significance is this experiment?
(c) Tomato (d) Cotton [AIPMT 2014]
52. One of the commonly used plant growth (a) It made possible the isolation and exact
hormone in tea plantation is [Mains 2010] identification of auxin
(a) Abscisic acid (b) Zeatin (b) It is the basis for quantitative
(c) Indole-3-acetic acid determination of small amounts of
(d) Ethylene growth-promoting substances
(c) It supports the hypothesis that IAA is auxin
53. Root development is promoted by
[Mains 2010]
(a) Auxin (b) Gibberellin
(c) Ethylene (d) Abscisic acid
54. Through their effect on plant growth
regulators, what do the temperature and light
control in the
plants ? [Mains 2012] Answers
(a) Flowering(b) Closure of stomata (d) It demonstrated polar movement of auxins
(c) Fruit elongation 60. Which one of the following growth regulators
(d) Apical dominance is known as ‘stress hormone’?
55. Vernalisation stimulates flowering in – [AIPMT 2014]
[Mains 2012] (a) Abscisic acid (b) Ethylene
(a) Turmeric (b) Carrot (c) GA3 (d) Indole acetic acid
(c) Ginger (d) Zamikand 61. Typical growth curve in plants is :-
56. Which one of the following generally acts as [AIPMT 2015]
an antagonist to gibberellins? (a) Linear (b) Stair-steps shaped
[Mains 2012]
(c) Parabolic (d) Sigmoid
(a) Ethylene (b) ABA
62. What causes a green plant exposed to the
(c) IAA (d) Zeatin
light on only one side, to bend toward the
57. Which one of the following is correctly source of light as it grows ? [AIPMT 2015]
matched ? [Pre. 2012] (a) Green plants seek light because they are
(a) Potassium-Readily immobilization phototropic
(b) Bakane of rice seedlings-F. Skoog (b) Light stimulates plant cells on the lighted
(c) Passive transport of nutrients-ATP side to grow faster
(d) Apoplast-Plasmodesmata
(c) Auxin accumulates on the shaded side, [RE-AIPMT 2015]

stimulating greater cell elongation there. (a) Lettuce hypocotyl elongation
(d) Green plants need light to perform (b) Avena coleoptile curvature
photosynthesis (c) Hydroponics
63. Auxin can be bioassayed by : (d) Potometer
1-d 2-c 3-d 4-a 5-d 6-b 7-c 8-a 9-a 10-c
11-c 12-b 13-c 14-c 15-d 16-b 17-d 18-d 19-d 20-c 21-c 22-b 23-d 24-b 25-b 26-d 27-b 28-b 29-d 30-b
31-b 32-a 33-b 34-a 35-a 36-d 37-b 38-c 39-d 40-c
41-c 42-d 43-a 44-b 45-a 46-b 47-b 48-b 49-b 50-b
51-a 52-c 53-a 54-a 55-b 56-b 57-b 58-d 59-a 60-a
61-d 62-c 63-b
15B
PLANT GROWTH AND DEVELOPMENT – PLANT
MOVEMENTS
1. Leaves of many grasses are capable of folding (c) Nyctinastic leaf movements
and unfolding because they [1989] (d) Movement of sunflower head tracking the
(a) are very thin sun
(b) are isobilateral 5. Tendrils exhibit/twining of tendrils is due to
(c) have specialized bulliform cells [1991,95]
(d) have parallel vascular bundles (a) thigmotropism (b) seismonasty
2. Which one increases in the absence of light? (c) heliotropism (d) diageotropism
[1989] 6. Klinostat is employed in the study of[1993]
(a) Uptake of minerals (a) osmosis
(b) Uptake of water (b) growth movements
(c) Elongation of internodes (c) photosynthesis
(d) Ascent of sap (d) respiration
3. Phototropic and geotropic movements are 7. The closing and opening of the leaves of
linked to [1990] Mimosa pudica is due to [1999]
(a) gibberellins (b) enzymes (a) thermonastic movement
(c) auxins (d) cytokinins (b) hydrotropic movement
(c) seismonastic movement
4. Which of the following movement is not
related to auxin level? [1990] (d) chemonastic movement
(a) Bending of shoot towards light 8. Geocarpic fruits are produced by [2000,02]
(b) Movement of root towards soil (a) onion (b) watermelon
(c) ground nut (d) carrot 10. Opening of floral buds into flowers, is a type
of [2007]
9. Anthesis is a phenomenon which refers to
[2004] (a) autonomic movement of locomotion

(a) reception of pollen by stigma (b) autonomic movement of variation
(b) formation of pollen (c) paratonic movement of growth
(c) development of anther (d) autonomic movement of growth
(d) opening of flower bud
11. Phototropic curvature is the result of uneven 12. Coiling of garden pea tendrils around any distribution of :
[Pre. 2010] support is an example of [Pre. 2010]
(a) Gibberellin (b) Phytochrome (a) Thigmotaxis (b) Thigmonasty
(c) Cytokinins (d) Auxin (c) Thigmotropism (d) Thermotaxis
10-
11- 12-
16A
DIGESTION AND ABSORPTION – ANIMAL
NUTRITION
1. Release of pancreatic juice is stimulated by (a) sub-mucosa of duodenum
[1989, 90] (b) sub-mucosa of stomach
(a) enterokinase (b) cholecystokinin (c) mucosa of oesophagus
(c) trypsinogen (d) secretin (d) mucosa of ileum
2. In man the zymogen or chief cells are mainly 8. Most of the fat digestion occurs in
found in [1990] [1993]
(a) cardiac part of stomach (a) rectum (b) stomach
(b) pyloric part of stomach (c) duodenum (d) small intestine
(c) duodenum 9. Kupffer’s cells occur in [1993]
(d) fundic part of stomach (a) spleen (b) kidney
3. Emulsification of fat will not occur in the (c) brain (d) liver
absence of [1990]
10. Secretion of gastric juice is stopped by
(a) lipase (b) bile pigments [1993]
(c) bile salts (d) pancreatic juice
(a) gastrin (b) pancreozymin
4. Pancreatic juice and hormones of pancreas are (c) cholecystokinin (d) enterogasterone
produced by [1990]
11. Rennin acts on [1994,2000]
(a) same cells
(a) milk changing casein into calcium
(b) same cells at different times
paracaseinate at 7.2-8.2 pH
(c) statement is wrong
(b) protein in stomach
(d) different cells
(c) fat in intestine
5. Pancreas produces [1991] (d) milk changing casein into calcium
(a) three digestive enzymes and one paracaseinate at 1-3 pH
hormone 12. Inhibition of gastric and stimulation of gastric,
(b) three digestive enzymes and two pancreatic and bile secretions are controlled
hormones by hormones [1994]
(c) two digestive enzymes and one (a) gastrin, secretin, enterokinin and
hormone (d) three digestive enzymes cholecystokinin
and no hormone (b) enterogasterone, gastrin, pancreozymin
6. Where is protein digestion accomplished? and cholecystokinin
[1991] (c) gastrin, enterogasterone,
(a) Stomach (b) IIeum cholecystokinin and pancreozymin
(c) Rectum (d) Duodenum (d) secretin, enterogasterone, gastrin and
enterokinin
7. Brunner’s glands occur in [1992]
13. The enzyme enterokinase helps in the 20. The contraction of gall bladder is due to
conversion of [1995] [1998]
(a) pepsinogen into pepsin (a) gastrin
(b) trypsinogen into trypsin (b) secretin
(c) caseinogen into casein (c) cholecystokinin
(d) proteins into polypeptides (d) enterogasterone
14. Which one of the following is a matching pair 21. Lactose is composed of [1998]
of a substrate and its particular digestive (a) glucose + fructose
enzyme? [1996] (b) glucose+ glucose
(a) Maltose — Maltase (c) glucose + galactose
(b) Lactose — Rennin (c) Starch — Steapsin (d) fructose + galactose
(d) Casein — Chymotrypsin
22. In vertebrates lacteals are found in
15. In frog, the surface of attachment of tongue is [1998]
[1997] (a) ileum
(a) sphenoid (b) ischium
(b) palatine (c) oesophagous
(c) pterygoid (d) ear
(d) hyoid apparatus
23. Which one of the following is a protein
16. What is common among amylase, renin and deficiency disease ? [1998]
trypsin? [1997] (a) Eczema
(a) These all are proteins (b) Cirrhosis
(b) These all are proteolytic enzymes (c) Kwashiorkor
(c) These are produced in stomach (d) Night blindness
(d) These act at a pH lower than 7
24. Cholecystokinin and duocrinin are secreted by
17. If pancreas is removed, the compound which [1999]
remain undigested is [1997] (a) adrenal cortex
(a) carbohydrates (b) thyroid gland
(b) fats (c) pancreas
(c) proteins (d) intestine
(d) All of these 25. Which part of body secretes the hormone
18. The hormone that stimulates the stomach to secretin ? [1999]
secrete gastric juice is [1998] (a) Oesophagus
(a) gastrin (b) Duodenum
(b) renin (c) Stomach
(c) enterokinase (d) Ileum
(d) enterogasterone
26. A certain person eats boiled potato; one of the
19. The layer of cells that secrete enamel of tooth food component in it is [2000]
is [1998] (a) lactose which is indigestible
(a) dentoblast (b) amiloblast (b) starch which does not get digested
(c) osteoblast (c) cellulose which is digested by intestinal
(d) odontoblast cellulase
(d) DNA which gets digested by pancreatic 32. Secretin and cholecystokinin are digestive
DNAase hormones. They are secreted in [2005]
27. In a person of advanced age, the hair become (a) oesophagus
thinner gradually. It happens because of (b) ileum
decrease in [2000] (c) duodenum
(a) synthesis of glucose (d) pyloric stomach
(b) synthesis of proteins 33. Which one of the following is the correct
(c) energy availability matching of the site of action on the given
(d) blood supply substrate, the enzyme acting upon it and the
end product? [2008]
28. Stool of a person contains whitish grey colour
(a) Duodenum : Triglycerides, trypsin
due to malfunction of which type of organ?
monoglycerides
[2003]
(b) Small intestine : Starch, amylase
(a) Pancreas
disaccharide (maltose)
(b) Spleen
(c) Small intestine : Proteins pepsin amino
(c) Kidney
acids
(d) Liver
(d) Stomach : Fats, Lipase micelles
29. During prolonged fasting, in what sequence 34. What will happen if the secretion of parietal
are the following organic compounds used up cells of gastric glands is blocked with an
by the body ? [2003] inhibitor? [2008]
(a) First carbohydrates, next proteins and (a) Gastric juice will be deficient in
lastly lipids chymosin
(b) First proteins, next lipids and lastly (b) Gastric juice will be deficient in
carbohydrates pepsinogen
(c) First carbohydrates, next fats and lastly (c) In the absence of HC1 secretion, inactive
proteins pepsinogen is not converted into the
(d) First fats, next carbohydrates and lastly active enzyme pepsin
proteins (d) Enterokinase will not be released from
30. Duodenum has characteristic Brunner’s glands the duodenal mucosa and so
which secrete two hormones called trypsinogen is not converted to trypsin
[2004] 35. Which one of the following statements is true
(a) kinase, estrogen regarding digestion and absorption of food in
(b) secretin, cholecystokinin humans ? [2009]
(c) prolactin, parathormone (a) Chylomicrons are small lipoprotein
(d) estradiol, progesterone particles that are transported from
intestine into blood capillaries.
31. Epithelial cells of the intestine involved in food
(b) About 60% of starch is hydrolysed by
absorption have on their surface[2005]
salivary amylase in our mouth.
(a) pinocytic vesicles
(c) Oxyntic cells in our stomach secrete the
(b) phagocytic vesicles proenzyme pepsinogen.
(c) zymogen granules (d) Fructose and amino acids are absorbed
(d) microvilli through intestinal mucosa with the help
of carrier ions like Na +.
36. A young infant may be feeding entirely on / 41. Which one of the following correctly
mother’s milk which is white in colour but the represents the normal adult human dental
stools which the infant passes out is quite formula? [Mains 2011]
yellowish. What is this yellow colour due to?
[2009]
3133
(a) Undigested milk protein casein
(a) ,, ,
(b) Pancreatic juice poured into duodenum 2 133
(c) Intestinal juice 3 131
(d) Bile pigments passed through bile juice (b) ,, ,
37. Which one of the following pairs of food 3121
components in humans reaches the stomach 2 133
totally undigested [2009] (c) ,, ,
(a) Fat and cellulose 2 123
(b) Starch and cellulose 2123
(c) Protein and starch (d) ,, ,
(d) Starch and fat
2 123
38. Carrier ions like Na+ facilitate the absorption of 42. One of the constituents of the pancreatic juice
substances like [Pre. 2010] while poured into the duodenum in humans is
(a) amino acids and glucose [Mains 2011]
(b) glucose and fatty acids (a) Enterokinase
(c) fatty acids and glycerol (b) Trypsinogen
(d) fructose and some amino acids (c) Chymotrypsin
39. If for some reason our goblet cells are (d) Trypsin
nonfunctional, this will adversely affect: 43. Which one of the following enzymes carries
[Pre. 2010] out initial step in the digestion of milk in
(a) production of somatostatin humans [Pre. 2011]
(b) secretion of sebum from the sebaceous (a) Pepsin
glands (b) Rennin
(c) maturation of sperms (c) Lipase
(d) smooth movement of food down the (d) Trypsin
intestine
44. Where do certain symbiotic microorganisms
40. If for some reason the parietal cells of the gut
normally occur in human body ?
epithelium become partially non-functional,
[Mains 2012]
what is likely to happen ? [Mains 2010]
(a) Oral lining and tongue surface
(a) The pH of stomach will fall abruptly
(b) Vermiform appendix and rectum
(b) Steapsin will be more effective
(c) Duodenum
(c) Proteins will not be adequately
(d) Caecum
hydrolysed by pepsin into proteoses and
peptones 45. Anxiety and eating spicy food together in an
(d) The pancreatic enzymes and specially otherwise normal human may lead to
the trypsin and lipase will not work [Pre. 2012]
efficiently (a) Diarrhoea
(b) Vomiting (c) Simple diffusion

(c) indigestion (d) Co-transport mechanism
(d) jaundice 49. Gastric juice of infants contains :
46. Select the correct match of the digested [AIPMT 2015]
products in humans given in column I with (a) nuclease, pepsinogen, lipase
their absorption site and mechanism in column (b) pepsinogen, lipase, rennin
II. [2013] (c) amylase, rennin, pepsinogen
Column I Column II (d) maltase, pepsinogen, rennin
(a) Glycine, glucose small intestine,
50. Which of the following statements is not
active
+ correct ? [AIPMT 2015]
(b) Fructose, Na small intestine,
passive absorption (a) Goblet cells are present in the mucosa of
(c) Glycerol, fatty duodenum, move intestine and secrete mucus
acids as chilomicrons (b) Oxyntic cells are present in the mucosa of
(d) Cholesterol, large intestine, stomach and secrete HCl.
maltose active absorption (c) Acini are present in the pancreas and
47. The initial step in the digestion of milk in secrete carboxypeptidase
humans is carried out by? [AIPMT 2014] (d) Brunner’s glands are present in the
submucosa of stomach and secrete
(a) Lipase (b) Trypsin
pepsinogen
(c) Rennin (d) Pepsin
51. The primary dentition in human differs from
48. Fructose is absorbed into the blood through
permanent dentition in not having one of the
mucosa cells of intestine by the process called
following type of teeth : [RE-AIPMT 2015]
[AIPMT 2014]
(a) Incisors (b) Canine
(a) Active transport
(c) Premolars (d) Molars
52. The enzymes that is not present in succus
entericus is : [RE-AIPMT 2015]
(a) lipase (b) maltase
Answers
(c) nucleases (d) nucleosidase
(b) Facilitated transport
1-d 2-d 3-c 4-d 5-b 6-b 7-a 8-d 9-d 10-d
11-d 12-b 13-b 14-a 15-d 16-a 17-d 18-a 19-d 20-c
21-c 22-a 23-c 24-d 25-b 26-d 27-b 28-d 29-c 30-b 31-d 32-c 33-b 34-c 35-d 36-d 37-a 38-a 39-d 40-
c 41-d 42-b 43-b 44-d 45-c 46-a 47-c 48-b 49-b 50-d
51-c 52-c
16B
DIGESTION AND ABSORPTION – VITAMINS
AND MINERALS
1. Which of the following pair is characterised by (a) Mercury (b) Chlorine

swollen lips, thick pigmented skin of hands and (c) Fluorine (d) Boron
legs and irritability?
7. The haemorrhagic disease of new born is
[1993, 94, 96]
caused due to the deficiency of [1995]
(a) Thiamine — Beri-beri
(a) vitamin-A(b) vitamin-B1
(b) Protein — Kwashiorkor
(c) Nicotinamide — Pellagra (c) vitamin-B12 (d) vitamin-K
(d) Iodine — Goitre 8. For person suffering from high blood
2. Vitamin-K is required for [1993] cholesterol, the physicians recommend [1996]
(a) change of prothrombin to thrombin (a) pure ‘deshi ghee’ or butter
(b) synthesis of prothrombin (b) vegetable oil such as groundnut oil
(c) change of fibrinogen to fibrin (c) red meat with layers of fats
(d) formation of thromboplastin (d) vanaspati margarine
3. Calcium deficiency occurs in the absence of 9. Which one of the following vitamin can be
vitamin [1994] synthesized by bacteria inside the gut ?
[1997]
(a) D (b) C (c) E (d) B
(a) B1 (b) C (c) D (d) K
4. Maximum amount of energy/ATP is liberated
on oxidation of [1994] 10. One of the factors required for the maturation
of erythrocytes is [1998] (a) vitamin-D (b)
(a) fats (b) proteins
vitamin-A
(c) starch (d) vitamins
(c) vitamin-B12 (d) vitamin-C
5. The vitamin-C or ascorbic acid prevents
[1995] 11. Which of the following is mismatched ?
[1999]
(a) rickets (b) pellagra
(c) scurvy (d) antibody synthesis (a) Vitamin-K — Beri-beri
(b) Vitamin-D — Rickets
6. A dental disease characterised by moltting of (c) Vitamin-C — Scurvy
teeth is due to the presence of a certain
(d) Vitamin-A — Xerophthalmia
chemical element in drinking water. Which
of the following is that element? [1995] 12. To which of the following family do folic acid
and pantothenic acid belong ? [1999]
(a) Vitamin-C (b) Vitamin-K (a) goat’s liver and Spirulina (b) chocolate and
(c) Vitamin-A (d) Vitamin-B complex green gram
(c) rice and hen’s egg
13. Which one of the following amino acids is an
essential part of human diet ? [2000] (d) carrot and chicken’s breast
(a) Glycine (b) Phenylalanine 20. A patient is generally advised to specially,
(c) Serine (d) Aspartic acid consume more meat, lentils, milk and eggs in
diet only when he suffers from [2005]
14. A person suffering from the deficiency of the
(a) kwashiorkor (b) rickets
visual pigment rhodopsin is advised to take
more [2000] (c) anaemia (d) scurvy
(a) radish and potato 21. Which group of three of the following five
(b) apple and grapes statements (A-E) contains all three correct
(c) carrot and ripe papaya statements regarding beri-beri ? [2005]
(d) guava and ripe banana A. A crippling disease prevalent among the
native population of sub-Sahara Africa.
15. Which one is correctly matched ?
B. A deficiency disease caused by lack of
[2001]
thiamine (vitamin-B1)
(a) Vit-E-Tocopherol (b) Vit.-D-Riboflavin
C. A nutritional disorder in infants and young
(c) Vit.-B-Calciferol children when the diet is persistently
(d) Vit.-A-Thiamine deficient in essential protein. D. Occurs in
16. Continuous bleeding from an injured part of those countries where the staple diet is
body is due to deficiency of [2002] polished rice.
(a) vitamin-A(b) vitamin-B E. The symptoms are pain from neuritis,
paralysis, muscle wasting, progressive
(c) vitamin-K (d) vitamin-E
oedema, mental deterioration and finally
17. Which one of the following pairs is not heart failure.
correctly matched? [2003, 04] (a) A, Band D (b) B, C and E
(a) Vitamin-B12 — Pernicious anaemia (c) A, C and E (d) B, D and E
(b) Vitamin-B1 — Beri-beri 22. Which one of the following is a fat-soluble
(c) Vitamin-C — Scurvy vitamin and it’s related deficiency disease ?
(d) Vitamin-B2 — Pellagra [2007]
(a) Ascorbic acid — Scurvy
18. Which one of the following is the correct
(b) Retinol — Xerophthalmia
matching of a vitamin, its nature and its
deficiency disease ? [2004] (c) Cobalamine — Beri-beri
(d) Calciferol — Pellagra
(a) Vitamin-A—Fat soluble—Night blindness
(b) Vitamin-K—Fat soluble—Beri-beri 23. Low Ca++ in the body fluid may be the cause of
(c) Vitamin-A—Fat soluble—Beri-beri [Pre 2010]
(d) Vitamin-K—Water soluble—Pellagra (a) Tetany
19. The richest sources of vitamin-B12 are (b) Anaemia
[2004] (c) Angina pectoris
(d) Gout
24. The purple red pigment rhodopsin con- 25. The essential chemical components of many tained the rods type of
photoreceptor cells of coenzymes are [2013] the human eye, is a derivative of[Pre. 2011] (a) Proteins (b) Nucleic
acids
(a) Vitamin B1 (b) Vitamin C (c) Carbohydrates (d) Vitamins (c) Vitamin D (d) Vitamin A
10-
11- 12- 13- 14- 15- 16- 17- 18- 19- 20-
21- 22- 23- 24- 25-
17
BREATHING AND EXCHANGE OF GASES
1. The alveolar epithelium in the lung is[1990] (d) it is continuously diffused through tissues
(a) non-ciliated columnar and is not allowed to accumulate
(b) non-ciliated squamous 7. The carbon dioxide is transported via blood to
(c) ciliated columnar lungs as [1995]
(d) ciliated squamous (a) dissolved in blood plasma
2. Skin is an accessory organ of respiration in (b) in the form of carbonic acid only
(a) human (b) frog [1990] (c) in combination with haemoglobin only
(c) rabbit (d) lizard (d) carbaminohaemoglobin and as carbonic
acid
3. Carbon dioxide is transported from tissues to
respiratory surface by only [1993] 8. The quantity 1500 mL in the respiratory
volumes of a normal human adult refers to
(a) plasma and erythrocytes
[1996]
(b) plasma
(a) maximum air that can be breathed in and
(c) erythrocytes
breathed out
(d) erythrocytes and leucocytes
(b) residual volume
4. Air is breathed through [1994] (c) expiratory reserve volume
(a) trachea—lungs—larynx—pharynx— (d) total lung capacity
alveoli
9. In alveoli of the lungs, the air at the site of gas
(b) nose—larynx—pharynx—bronchus—
exchange, is separated from the blood by
alveoli—bronchioles
[1997]
(c) nostrils—pharynx—larynx—trachea—
(a) alveolar epithelium only
bronchi—bronchioles—alveoli
(b) alveolar epithelium and capillary
(d) nose — mouth — lungs
endothelium
5. Oxygen dissociation curve of haemoglobin is (c) alveolar epithelium, capillary
[1994] endothelium and tunica adventitia
(a) sigmoid (b) hyperbolic (d) alveolar epithelium, capillary
(c) linear (d) hypobolic endothelium, a thin layer of tunica media
6. Although much CO2 is carried in blood, yet and tunica adventitia
blood does not become acidic, because [1995] 10. The exchange of gases in the alveoli of the
(a) it is absorbed by the leucocytes lungs takes place by [1998]
(b) blood buffers play an important role in CO2
(a) simple diffusion (b) osmosis
transport
(c) active transport (d) passive transport
(c) it combines with water to form H2CO3 which
11. Which one of the following organs in the
is neutralized by Na2CO3
human body is most affected due to shortage
of oxygen? [1999]
(a) Intestine (b) Skin 16. What is the vital capacity of our lungs? [2008]
(c) Kidney (d) Brain (a) Inspiratory reserve volume plus tidal
12. The process of migration of chloride ions from volume
plasma to RBC and of carbonate ions from (b) Total lung capacity minus expiratory
RBC to plasma is [1999] reserve volume
(a) chloride shift (b) ionic shift (c) Inspiratory reserve volume plus
expiratory reserve volume
(c) atomic shift (d) Na+ pump
(d) Total lung capacity minus residual volume
13. When CO2 concentration in blood increases,
breathing becomes [2004] 17. The haemoglobin of a human foetus [2008]
(a) shallower and slow (a) has a lower affinity for oxygen than that
of the adult
(b) there is no effect on breathing
(b) its affinity for oxygen is the same as that
(c) slow and deep
of an adult
(d) faster and deeper
(c) has only 2 protein subunits instead of 4
14. Blood analysis of a patient reveals an (d) has a higher affinity for oxygen than that
unusually high quantity of of an adult
carboxyhaemoglobin content. Which of the
following conclusions is most likely to be 18. Listed below are four respiratory capacities
correct? [2004] (a-d) and four jumbled respiratory volumes of
a normal human adult [Pre. 2010] Respiratory
(a) The patient has been inhaling polluted air
capacities Respiratory volumes
containing unusually high content of
(i) Residual volume 2500 mL
carbon disulphide
(ii) Vital capacity 3500 mL
(b) The patient has been inhaling polluted air
containing unusually high content of (iii)Inspiratory reserve
chloroform volume 1200 mL
(c) The patient has been inhaling polluted air (iv)Inspiratory
containing unusually high content of capacity 4500 mL (a) (ii) 2500 mL,
carbon dioxide (iii) 4500 mL
(d) The patient has been inhaling polluted air (b) (iii) 1200 mL, (iv) 2500 mL
containing unusually high content of (c) (iv) 3500 mL, (i) 1200 mL
carbon monoxide (d) (i) 4500 mL, (ii) 3500 mL
15. People living at sea level have around 5 19. Which one of the following is a possibility for
million RBC per cubic millimeter of their blood most of us in regard to breathing, by making a
whereas those living at an altitude of 5400 conscious effort ? [Mains 2011]
metre have around 8 million. This is because
(a) The lungs can be made fully empty by
at high altitude [2006]
forcefully breathing out all air from them
(a) atmospheric O2 level is less and hence, (b) One can breathe out air totally without
more RBCs are needed to absorb the oxygen.
required amount of O2 to survive
(c) One can breathe out air through
(b) there is more UV radiation which eustachian tubes by closing both the nose
enhances RBC production and the mouth
(c) people eat more nutritive food, (d) One can consciously breath in and breath
therefore, more RBCs are formed out by moving the diaphragm alone,
(d) people get pollution-free air to breathe without moving the ribs at all.
and more oxygen is available
20. The figure given below shows a small part of (d) 70% carbamino-haemoglobin and 30% as
human lung where exchange of gases takes bicarbonate
place. In which one of the options given
below, the one part, A, B, C or D is correctly
statement for respiration in humans
identified along with its function [Pre. 2011]
[Pre. 2012]
(a) Workers in grinding and stone-breaking
industries may suffer from lung fibrosis
(b) About 90% of carbon dioxide is carried by
haemoglobin as carbaminohaemoglobin
(c) Cigarette smoking may lead to
Options : inflammation of bronchi
(a) C : arterial capillary-passes oxygen to (d) Neural signals from pneumotaxic centre
tissue in pons region of brain can increase the
(b) A : alveolar cavity-main site of duration of inspiration
exchangeof respiratory gases 25. The figure shows a diagrammatic view of
(c) D : Capillary wall-exchange of O2 and CO2 human respiratory system with labels A, B, C
takes place here and D. Select the option which gives correct
identification and main function and / or
(d) B : red blood cell-transport of CO2 mainly
characteristic. [2013]
21. A large proportion of oxygen is left unused in
the human blood even after its uptake by the
body tissues. This O2 [Pre. 2011]
(a) Acts as a reserve during muscular
exercise
(b) Raises the pCO2 of blood to 75 mm of Hg.
(c) Is enough to keep oxyhaemoglobin
sturation at 96%
(d) Helps in releasing more O2 to the (a) A-trachea – long tube supported by
epithelial tissues complete cartilaginous rings for
22. Two friends are eating together on a dining conducting inspired air
table. One of them suddenly starts coughing (b) B-pleural membrane – surround ribs on
while swallowing some food. This coughing both sides to provide cushion against
would have been due to improper movement rubbing.
of [Pre. 2011] (c) C-Alveoli – thin walled vascular bag like
(a) Epiglottis (b) Diaphragm structures for exchange of gases.
(c) Neck (d) Tongue (d) D-Lower end of lungs – diaphragm pulls it
down during inspiration.
23. Bulk of carbon dioxide (CO2) released from
26. Approximately seventy percent of
body tissues into the blood is present as
carbondioxide absorbed by the blood will be
[Pre. 2011]
trans-
(a) Carbamino-haemoglobin in RBCs ported to the lungs [AIPMT 2014]
(b) Bicarbonate in blood plasma and RBCs
(a) As bicarbonate ions
(c) Free CO2 in blood plasma
(b) In the form of dissolved gas molecules (c)
By binding to R.B.C.
(d) As carbamino-haemoglobin
27. When you hold your breath, which of the
following gas changes in blood would first
lead to the urge to breathe? [AIPMT 2015]
(a) rising CO2 concentration
(b) falling CO2 concentration
(c) rising CO2 and falling O2 concentration (d)
falling O2 concentration
28. Name the pulmonary disease in which
alveolar surface area involved in gas exchange
is drastically reduced due to damage in the
alveolar walls : [RE-AIPMT 2015]
(a) Asthma
(b) Pleurisy
(c) Emphysema
(d) Pneumonia
10-
11- 12- 13- 14- 15- 16- 17- 18- 19- 20-
21- 22- 23- 24- 25- 26- 27- 28-
18
BODY FLUIDS AND CIRCULATION
1. Arteries carry oxygenated blood except [1993]
[1989] (a) RBC (b) RBC and leucocytes (c) leucocytes
(a) pulmonary (b) cardiac (d) lymphocytes
(c) hepatic (d) systemic 8. Pacemaker of heart is [1994, 99,
2. Tricuspid valve is found in between [1989] 2002, 04]
(a) sinus venosus and right auricle (a) AVnode (b) bundle of His
(b) right auricle and right ventricle (c) SA node (d) Purkinje fibres
(c) left ventricle and left auricle 9. ‘Dup’ sound is produced during closure of
(d) ventricle and aorta [1994]
3. Splenic artery arises from [1990] (a) semilunar valves
(a) anterior mesenteric artery (b) bicuspid valve
(b) coeliac artery (c) tricuspid valve
(c) posterior mesenteric artery (d) Both (b) and (c)
(d) intestinal artery 10. The lymph serves to [1995]
4. A vein possesses a large lumen because (a) transport oxygen to the brain
[1990] (b) transport carbon dioxide to the lungs
(a) tunica media and tunica externa form a (c) return the interstitial fluid to the blood
single coat (d) return the WBCs and RBCs to the lymph
(b) tunica interna and tunica media form a nodes
single coat 11. The blood cancer is known as [1995]
(c) tunica interna, tunica media and tunica (a) leukemia (b) thrombosis
externa are thin (c) haemolysis (d) haemophilia
(d) tunica media is a thin coat
12. The correct route through which pulse-
5. Carbonic anhydrase occurs in [1991] making impulse travels in the heart is [1995]
(a) lymphocytes (b) blood plasma (a) AV node Bundle of His SA node
(c) RBC (d) leucocytes
Purkinje fibres Heart muscles
6. Wall of blood capillary is formed of
(b) AV node SA node Purkinje fibres
[1991,93]
Bundle of His Heart muscles
(a) haemocytes
(c) SA node Purkinje fibres Bundle of
(b) parietal cells
His AV node Heart muscles
(c) endothelial cells
(d) SA node AV node Bundle of His
(d) oxyntic cells
Purkinje fibres Heart muscles
7. Cells formed in bone marrow include
13. Which one of the following statements about (a) larger lumen
blood constituents and transport of (b) thick muscular walls
respiratory gases is most accurate? [1995] (c) no endothelum
(a) RBCs transport oxygen whereas WBCs (d) valves
transport CO 2
21. Which of the following statements is true for
(b) RBCs transport oxygen whereas plasma
lymph? [2002]
transports only CO 2
(a) WBC and serum
(c) RBCs as well as WBCs transport
bothoxygen and CO 2 (b) All components of blood except RBCs and
some proteins
(d) RBCs as well as plasma transport
bothoxygen and CO2 (c) RBCs, WBCs and plasma
(d) RBCs, proteins and platelets
14. Which one of the following vertebrate organs
receives the oxygenated blood only? [1996] 22. What is true about T-lymphocytes in
mammals ? [2003]
(a) Gill (b) Lung
(c) Liver (d) Spleen (a) They scavenge damaged cells and cellular
debris
15. An adult human with average health has (b) These are produced in thyroid
systolic and diastolic pressures as [1998] (c) There are of three main types—cytotoxic
(a) 80 mm Hg and 80 mm Hg T-cells, helper T-cells and suppressor Tcells
(b) 70 mm Hg and 120 mm Hg (d) These originate in lymphoid tissues
(c) 120 mm Hg and 80 mm Hg
23. Systemic heart refers to [2003]
(d) 50 mm Hg and 80 mm Hg
(a) enteric heart in lower vertebrates
16. Which of the following is not main function of (b) the two ventricles together in humans
lymph glands ? [1998] (c) the heart that contracts under stimulation
(a) Forming WBC from nervous system
(b) Forming antibodies (c) Forming RBC (d) left auricle and left ventricle in higher
(d) Destroying bacteria vertebrates
17. Glucose is carried from digestive tract to liver 24. Bundle of His is a network of [2003]
by [1999]
(a) nerve fibres distributed in ventricles
(a) pulmonary vein (b) nerve fibres found throughout the heart
(b) hepatic portal vein (c) muscle fibres distributed throughout the
(c) hepatic artery heart walls
(d) None of the above (d) muscle fibres found only in the ventricle
18. The antibodies are [1999] wall
(a) germs (b) carbohydrates 25. Short-lived immunity acquired from mother
(c) proteins (d) lipids to foetus across placenta or through
mother’s milk to the infant is categorised as
19. The thickening of walls of arteries is called
[2003]
[1999]
(a) cellular immunity
(a) arthritis (b) atherosclerosis
(b) innate non-specific immunity
(c) aneurysm (d) Both (a) and (c)
(c) active immunity
20. Pulmonary artery is different from (d) passive immunity
pulmonary vein because it has [2000]
26. Damage to thymus in a child may lead to
[2005] (b) suction pull

(a) a reduction in haemoglobin content of (c) stimulation of the sino auricular node
blood (d) pressure difference between the post
(b) a reduction in stem cell production caval and atrium
(c) loss of antibody mediated immunity 33. In a standard ECG which one of the following
(d) loss of cell mediated immunity alphabets is the correct representation of the
27. Which of the following substances, if respective activity of the human heart?
introduce in the blood stream, would cause [2009]
coagulation, at the site of its introduction ? (a) T-end of diastole
[2005] (b) P-depolarisation of the atria
(a) Fibrinogen (b) Prothrombin (c) R-repolarisation of ventricles
(c) Heparin (d) Thromboplastin (d) S-start of systole
28. AIDS is caused by HIV that principally infects 34. If due to some injury the chordae tendinae of
[2005] the tricuspid valve of the human heart is
(a) all lymphocytes (b) activator B-cells (c) T4 partially non-functional, what will be the
lymphocytes immediate effect? [Pre. 2010]
(d) cytotoxic T-cells (a) The flow of the blood into the aorta will be
slowed down
29. Examination of blood of a person suspected (b) The ‘pacemaker’ will stop working
of having anaemia, shows large, immature,
(c) The blood will tend to flow back into the
nucleated erythrocytes without
left atrium
haemoglobin. Supplementing his diet with
(d) The flow of blood into the pulmonary
which of the following, is likely to alleviate his
artery will be reduced
symptoms ? [2006]
35. Fastest distribution of some injectible
(a) Thiamine
material/ medicine and with no risk of any
(b) Folic acid and cobalamin
kind can be achieved by injecting it into the
(c) Riboflavin
[Mains 2010]
(d) Iron compounds
(a) Arteries (b) Veins
30. Antibodies in our body are complex [2006] (c) Lymph vessesls (d) Muscles
(a) lipoproteins
36. Given below are four statements (a-d)
(b) steroids regarding human blood circulatory system
(c) prostaglandins [Mains 2010]
(d) glycoproteins (1) Arteries are thick-walled and have
31. If you suspect major deficiency of antibodies narrow lumen as compared to veins.
in a person, to which of the following would (2) Angina is acute chest pain when the
you look for confirmatory evidence ? [2007] blood circulation to the brain is reduced
(a) Serum albumins (b) Serum globulins (3) Persons with blood group AB can donate
(c) Fibrinogen in the plasma blood to any person with any blood group
(d) Haemocytes under ABO system.
(4) Calcium ions play a very important role in
32. In humans, blood passes from the post caval
blood clotting.
to the diastolic right atrium of heart due to
[2008] Which two of the above statements are
(a) pushing open of the venous valves correct ?
(a) (1) and (2) (b) (2) and (3) (d) Carry blood from one visceral organ to
(c) (3) and (4) (d) (1) and (4) another visceral organ
37. Jaundice is a disorder of [Mains 2010] 42. Which one of the following statements is
(a) Skin and eyes correct regarding blood pressure ? [Pre.
(b) Digestive system 2011]
(c) Circulatory system (a) 130/90 mmHg is considered high and
(d) Excretory system requires treatment
38. The haemoglobin content per 100 ml of blood (b) 100/55 mmHg is considered an ideal blood
pressure
o a normal healthy human adult is :-
[Mains 2010] (c) 105/50 mmHg makes one very active
(a) 25-30 g (b) 17-20 g (d) 190/110 mmHg may harm vital organs like
(c) 12-16 g (d) 5-11 g brain and kidney
39. Given below is the ECG of a normal human. 43. Which one of the following human organs is
Which one of its components is correctly often called the “graveyard” of RBCs?
interpreted below [Mains 2011] [Mains 2012]
(a) Kidney
(b) Spleen
(c) Liver
(d) Gall bladder
44. Figure shows schematic plant of blood
circulation in humans with labels A to D.
Identify the label and give its function/s.
[2013]
(a) Peak P - Initiation of left atrial contraction
only
(b) Complex QRS - One complete pulse
(c) Peak T-Initiation of total cardiac
contraction
(d) Peak P and Peak R together - systolic and
diastolic blood pressures.
40. Bundle of His’ is a part of which one of the
(a) A -Pulmonary vein - takes impure blood
following organs in humans ? [Pre. 2011]
from body parts, PO2 = 60 mm Hg
(a) Brain (b) Heart (b) B -Pulmonary artery - takes blood from
(c) Kidney (d) Pancreas heart to lungs, PO2 = 90 mm Hg
41. Arteries are best defined as the vessels which (c) C-Vena Cava - takes blood from body parts
[Pre. 2011] to right auricle, PCO2 = 45 mm Hg
(a) Supply oxygenated blood to the different (d) D-Dorsal aorta - takes blood from heart to
organs body parts, PO2 = 95 mm Hg
(b) Carry blood away from the heart to 45. The diagram given here is the standard ECG
different organs of a normal person. The P-wave represents
(c) Break up into capillaries which reunite to the [2013]
from a vein
(c) Both heart rate and cardiac output

increase
(d) Heart rate decreases but cardiac output
increases
48. Which one of the following is correct ?
[AIPMT 2015]
(a) Contraction of both the atria (a) Serum = Blood + Fibrinogen
(b) Initiation of the ventricular contraction (b) Lymph = Plasma + RBC + WBC
(c) Beginning of the systole (c) Blood = Plasma + RBC + WBC
(d) End of systole (d) Plasma = Blood – Lymphocytes
46. Person with blood group AB is considered as 49. Blood pressure in the mammalian aorta is
universal recipient because he has maximum during : [AIPMT 2015]
[AIPMT 2014] (a) Diastole of the right ventricle
(a) Both A and B antigens on RBC but no (b) Systole of the left ventricle
antibodies in the plasma (c) Diastole of the right atrium
(b) Both A and B antibodies in the plasma (d) Systole of the left atrium
50. Doctors use stethoscope to hear the sound;
Answers
produced during each cardiac cycle. The
(c) No antigen on RBC and no antibody in the second sound is heard when [RE-AIPMT 2015]
plasma
(a) AV node receives signal from SA node
(d) Both A and B antigens in the plasma but no
(b) AV valves open up
antibodies
(c) Ventricular walls vibrate due to gushing of
47. How do parasympathetic neural signals affect blood from atria
the working of the heart?[AIPMT 2014] (d) Semilunar valves close down after the
(a) Reduce both heart rate and cardiac output blood flows into vessels from ventricles.
(b) Heart rate is increased without affecting
the cardiac output
1-a 2-b 3-b 4-d 5-c 6-c 7-b 8-c 9-a 10-c
11-a 12-d 13-d 14-d 15-c 16-c 17-b 18-c 19-b 20-b
21-b 22-c 23-a 24-d 25-d 26-d 27-d 28-c 29-b 30-d
31-b 32-d 33-b 34-d 35-b 36-d 37-c 38-c 39-b 40-b
41-b 42-d 43-b 44-c 45-a 46-a 47-a 48-c 49-b 50-d
19
EXCRETORY PRODUCTS AND THEIR ELIMINATION
1. Reabsorption of useful substances from [1994]

glomerular filtrate occurs in [1989] (a) glomerulus
(a) collecting tube (b) Henle’sloop
(b) loop of Henle (c) distal convoluted tubule
(c) proximal convoluted tubule (d) connecting tubule
(d) distal convoluted tubule 9. In ornithine cycle, which one pair of the
2. Proximal and distal convoluted tubules are following wastes are removed from the
parts of [1990] blood? [1994]
(a) seminiferous tubules (a) CO2 and urea (b) CO2 and ammonia
(b) nephron (c) Ammonia and urea
(c) oviduct (d) Urea and sodium salts
(d) vas deferens 10. A patient suffering from cholera is given
saline drip because [1996, 2000]
3. Under normal conditions which one is
completely reabsorbed in the renal tubule? (a) Cl– ions are important component of blood
[1991] plasma
(b) Na+ ions help to retain water in the body
(a) Urea (b) Uric acid
(c) Na+ ions are important in transport of
(c) Salts (d) Glucose
substances across membrane
4. Nitrogenous waste products are eliminated (d) Cl– ions help in the formation of HCl in
mainly as [1991] stomach for digestion
(a) urea in tadpole and ammonia in adult frog 11. The kidney of an adult frog is [1997]
(b) ammonia in tadpole and urea in adult frog
(a) pronephros (b) mesonephros
(c) urea in both tadpole and adult frog
(c) metanephros (d) opisthonephros
(d) urea in tadpole and uric acid in adult frog
5. Glucose is taken back from glomerular filtrate 12. The basic functional unit of human kidney is
through [1993] [1997]
(a) active transport(b) passive transport (a) nephron (b) pyramid
(c) osmosis (d) diffusion (c) nephridia (d) Henle’s loop
6. Uric acid is nitrogenous waste in 13. In ureotelic animals, urea is formed by[1997]
[1994] (a) ornithine cycle (b) Cori cycle
(a) mammals and molluscs (c) Krebs cycle (d) EMP pathway
(b) birds and lizards 14. A condition of failure of kidney to form urine
(c) frog and cartilaginous fishes is called [1998]
(d) insects and bony fishes (a) deamination (b) entropy
7. If kidneys fail to reabsorb water, the effect on (c) anuria (d) None of these
tissue would [1994] 15. Aquatic reptiles are [1999]
(a) remain unaffected (a) ammonotelic (b) ureotelic
(b) shrink and shrivel (c) ureotelic in water
(c) absorb water from blood plasma (d) ureotelic over land
(d) take more O2 from blood
16. In living beings, ammonia is converted into
8. Part not belonging to uriniferous tubule is urea through [2000]
(a) ornithine cycle (b) citrulline cycle (a) more sodium in his urine
(c) fumarine cycle (d) arginine cycle (b) less amino acids in his urine
17. The ability of the vertebrates to produce (c) more glucose in his blood
concentrated (hyperosmotic) urine usually (d) less urea in his urine
depends upon the [2000] 24. Consider the following four statements (AD)
(a) area of Bowman’s capsule epithelium about certain desert animals such as
(b) length of Henle’s loop kangaroo rat [2008] (A) They have
(c) length of the proximal convoluted tubule dark colour and high rate of reproduction and
(d) capillary network forming glomerulus excrete solid urine.
(B) They do not drink water, breathe at a
18. If Henle’s loop were absent from mammalian
slow rate to conserve water and have
nephron, which of the following is to be
their body covered with thick hairs.
expected ? [2002]
(C) They feed on dry seeds and do not
(a) The urine will be more concentrated
require drinking water.
(b) The urine will be more dilute
(D) They excrete very concentrated urine and
(c) There will be no urine formation do not use water to regulate body
(d) There will be hardly any change in the temperature.
quality and quantity of urine formed
Which two of the above statements for such
19. Uricotelism is found in [2004] animals are true?
(a) mammals and birds (a) C and D (b) B and C
(b) fishes and fresh water protozoans (c) C and A (d) A and D
(c) birds, reptiles and insects 25. What will happen if the stretch receptors of
(d) frogs and toads the urinary bladder wall are totally removed?
20. The net pressure gradient that causes the [2009]
fluid to filter out of the glomeruli into the (a) Urine will continue to collect normally in
capsule is [2005] the bladder
(a) 20mmHg (b) 75mmHg (b) There will be no micturition
(c) 30mmHg (d) 50mmHg (c) Urine will not collect in the bladder
(d) Micturition will continue
21. A person is undergoing prolonged fasting. His
urine will be found to contain abnormal 26. Uric acid is the chief nitrogenous component
quantities of [2005] of the excretory products of [2009]
(a) fats (b) ketones (a) Cockroach (b) Frog
(c) amino acids (d) glucose (c) Man (d) Earthworm
22. Angiotensinogen is a protein produced and 27. Which one of the following statements in
secreted by [2006] regard to the excretion by the human kidneys
(a) macula densa cells is correct? [Pre. 2010]
(b) endothelial cells (cells lining the blood (a) Descending limb of Loop of Henle is
vessels) impermeable to water (b) Distal
(c) liver cells convoluted tubule is incapable of
reabsorbing HCO3–
(d) Juxtaglomerular (JG) cells
(c) Nearly 99 per cent of the glomercular
23. A person who is on a long hunger strike and
filtrate is reabsorbed by the renal tubules
is surviving only on water, will have[2007]
(d) Ascending limb of Loop of Henle is (d) Afferent arteriole : carries the blood away
impermeable to electrolytes from the glomerulus towards renal vein.
28. The principal nitrogenous excretory 31. Which one of the following statements is
compound in humans is synthesized[Pre. correct with respect to kidney function
2010] regulation ? [Pre. 2011]
(a) in kidneys but eliminated mostly through (a) When someone drinks lot of water, ADH
liver release is suppressed.
(b) in kidneys as well as eliminated by kidneys (b) Exposure to cold temperature stimulates
(c) in liver and also eliminated by the same ADH release.
through bile (c) An increase in glomerular blood flow
(d) in the liver, but eliminated mostly through stimulates formation of Angiotensin II.
kidneys (d) During summer when body loses lot of
29. Which one of the following is not a part of a water by evaporation, the release of ADH
renal pyramid ? [Pre. 2011] is suppressed.
(a) Peritubular capillaries 32. Uricotelic mode of passing out nitrogenous
34. Which one of the following option gives the correct categorization of six animals according to the type
of nitrogenous wastes (A, B, C,), they give out ? [Mains 2012]
A AMMONOTELIC B UREOTELIC CURICOTELIC
a) Frog, Lizards Aquatic Amphibia, Humans Cockroach, Pigeon
b) Aquatic Amphibia Frog, Humans Pigeon, Lizards, Cockroach
(c) Aquatic Amphibia Cockroach, Humans Frog, Pigeon, Lizards
d) Pigeon, Humans AquaticAmphibia, Lizards Cockroach, Forg
(
(
(
(b) Convoluted tubules wastes is found in [Pre. 2011]
(c) Collecting ducts (a) Reptiles and Birds
(d) Loops of Henle (b) Birds and Annelids
30. Which one of the following correctly explains (c) Amphibians and Reptiles
the function of a specific part of a human (d) Insects and Amphibians
nephron? [Pre. 2011] 33. A fall in glomerular filtration rate (GFR)
(a) Podocytes : Create minute spaces (slit activates – [Mains 2012]
pores) for the filtration of blood into the (a) Adrenal cortex to release aldosterone
Bowman’s capsule (b) Adrenal medulla to release adrenaline
(b) Henle’s loop : most reabsorption of the (c) Posterior pituitary to release vasopressin
major substances from the glomerular
(d) Juxta glomerular cells to release renin
filtrate
35. The maximam amount of electrolytes and
(c) Distal convoluted tubule: reabsorption of
water (70-80 percent) from the glomerular
K+ ions into the surrounding blood
filtrate is reabsorbed in which part of the
capillaries
nephron? [Pre. 2012]
(a) Proximal convoluted tubule
(b) Descending limb of loop of Henle 37. The shared terminal duct of the reproductive
(c) Ascending limb of loop of Henle and urinary system in the human male is
(d) Distal convoluted tubule [AIPMT 2014]
36. Figure shows human urinary system with (a) Urethra (b) Ureter
structures labeled A to D. Select option which (c) Vas deferens (d) Vasa efferentia
correctly identifies them and gives their 38. Removal of proximal convoluted tubule from
characteristics and/or functions. [2013] the nephron will result in: [AIPMT 2015]
10-
11- 12- 13- 14- 15- 16- 17- 18- 19- 20-
21- 22- 23- 24- 25- 26- 27- 28- 29- 30-
31- 32- 33- 34- 35- 36- 37- 38- 39-
(a) More concentrated urine
(b) No change in quality and quantity of urine
(c) No urine formation
20
LOCOMOTION AND MOVEMENT
(d) More diluted urine
39. Human urine is usually acidic because :
[RE-AIPMT 2015]
(a) hydrogen ions are actively secreted into
the filtrate.
(b) the sodium transporter exchanges one
hydrogen ion for each sodium ion, in
peritubular capillaries.
(a) A - Adrenal gland-located at the anterior (c) excreted plasma proteins are acidic
part of Kidney. Secrete catecholamines (d) potassium and sodium exchange
which stimulate glycogen breakdown generates acidity
(b) B - Pelvis-broad funnel shaped space inner 1. Extremities of long bones possess cartilage
to hilum, directly connected to loops of (a) calcified (b) fibrous [1989]
Henle. (c) elastic (d) hyaline
(c) C - Medulla-inner zone of kidney and
2. Number of cervical vertebrae in camel is
contains complete nephrons.
(d) D - Cortex-outer part of kidney and do not (a) more than that of rabbit [1990]
contain any part of nephrons. (b) less than that of rabbit
(c) same as that of whale 12. Which of the following is the contractile
(d) more than that of horse protein of a muscle? [1998]
3. A deltoid ridge occurs in [1990] (a) Myosin (b) Tropomyosin
(c) Actin (d) Tubulin
(a) radius (b) ulna
(c) femur (d) humerus 13. Which one of the following is a skull bone?
4. The cervical vertebrae in humans is [1993] [2000]
(a) same as in whale (a) Atlas (b) Coracoid
(b) more than that in rabbit (c) Arytenoid (d) Pterygoid
(c) double than that of horse 14. The joint found between sternum and the
ribs in humans is [2000]
(d) less than that in giraffe
(a) angular joint
5. Long bones function in [1993]
(b) fibrous joint
(a) support (c) cartilaginous joint
(b) support, erythrocyte and leucocyte (d) gliding joint
synthesis
(c) support and erythrocyte synthesis 15. Which statement is correct for muscle
contraction? [2001]
(d) erythrocyte formation
(a) Length of H-zone decrease
6. Which ion is essential for muscle contraction?
(b) Length of A-band remains constant
[1994]
(c) Length of I-band increases
(a) Na (b) K
(d) Length of two Z-line increases
(c) Ca (d) Cl
7. Which is a part of pectoral girdle? 16. What is sarcomere? [2001]
[1994] (a) Part between two H-lines
(a) Glenoid cavity (b) Sternum (b) Part between two A-lines
(c) Ilium (d) Acetabulum (c) Part between two I-bands
(d) Part between two Z-lines
8. The number of floating ribs, in the human
body, is [1995] 17. What will happen if ligaments are cut or
(a) 6 pairs (b) 5 pairs broken? [2002]
(c) 3 pairs (d) 2 pairs (a) Bones will move freely at joints
(b) No movement at joint
9. The roof of the cranium of frog is formed by
(c) Bone will become unfix
[1997]
(d) Bone will become fixed
(a) parasphenoid (b) alisphenoid
(c) frontoparietal (d) orbitosphenoid 18. ATPase enzyme needed for muscle
contraction is located in [2004]
10. The lower jaw in mammals is made up of
(a) actinin (b) troponin
(a) mandible (b) dentary [1998] (c) myosin (d) actin
(c) maxilla (d) angulars
19. Which of the following pairs, is correctly
11. Total number of bones in the hind limb of matched? [2005]
man is [1998]
(a) Hinge joint—between vertebrae
(a) 14 (b) 30 (b) Gliding joint—between zygapophyses of
(c) 24 (d) 21 the successive vertebrae
(c) Cartilaginous joint—skull bones 25. Which one of the following pairs of structures
(d) Fibrous joint—between phalanges is correctly matched with their correct
description? [Mains 2010] Structures
20. An acromian process is characteristically
Description
found in the [2005]
(a) Cartilage and No blood supply but cornea
(a) pelvic girdle of mammals
– do require oxygen
(b) pectoral girdle of mammals
for respiratory need
(c) skull of frog
(b) Shoulder joint – Ball and socket type and
(d) sperm of mammals elbow joint of joint
21. The contractile protein of skeletal muscle (c) Premolars and – 20 in all and molars 3-
involving ATPase activity is [2006] rooted
(a) myosin (d) Tibia & fibula – Both form parts of knee
(b) -actinin joint
(c) tropomyosin 26. The type of muscles present in our
(d) troponin [Mains 2011]
22. Which one of the following is correct pairing (a) upper arm are smooth muscle fibres
of a body part and the kind of muscle fusiform in shape.
tissue that moves it ? [2009] (b) heart are involuntary and unstriated
(a) Abdominal wall — Smooth muscle smooth muscles.
(c) intestine are striated and involuntary. (d)
(b) Iris — Involuntary smooth thigh are striated and voluntary.
muscle 27. Three of the following pairs of the human
(c) Heart wall — Involuntary skeleton parts are correctly matched with
unstriated muscle their respective skeletal category and one
(d) Biceps of upper — Smooth muscle pair is matched. Identify the non-matching
arm fibres pair
23. Elbow joint is an example of [2009] [Mains 2011]
(a) gliding joint Pairs of skeletal parts Category
(b) ball and socket joint (a) Malleus and stapes Ear ossicles
(c) pivot joint (b) Sternum and Ribs Axial skeleton
(d) hinge joint (c) Clavicle and Glenoid Pelvic girdle
24. Which one of the following is the correct Cavity
description of a certain part of a normal (d) Humerus and ulna Appendicular
human skeleton
skeleton ? [Mains 2010] (a) First vertebra is 28. Which one of the following pairs of chemical
axis which articulates with the occipital substances, is correctly categorized ?
condyles. [Mains 2012]
(b) The 9th and 10th pairs of ribs are called the (a) Pepsin and prolactin - Two digestive
floating ribs. enzymes secreted in stomach
(c) Glenoid cavity is a depression to which (b) Troponin and myosin - Complex proteins
the thigh bone articulates. in striated muscles
(d) Parietal bone and the temporal bone of (c) Secretin and rhodopsin - Polypeptide
the skull are joined by fibrous joint. hormones
(d) Calcitonin and thymosin - Thyroid (a) Cartilaginous joint - between frontal and
hormones parietal
29. Select the correct statement with respect to (b) Pivot joint - between third and fourth
locomotion in humans [2013] cervical vertebrae
(c) Hinge joint - between humerus and
(a) A decreased level of progesterone causes
pectoral girdle
osteoporosis in old people.
(d) Gliding joint - between carpals
(b) Accumulation of uric acid crystals in joints
causes their inflammation. 33. Stimulation of a muscle fiber by a motor
neuron occurs at [AIPMT 2014]
(c) The vertebral column has 10 thoracic
vertebrae. (a) The neuromuscular junction
(d) The joint between adjacent vertebrae is a (b) The transverse tubules
fibrous joint. (c) The myofibril
(d) The sacroplasmic reticulum
30. The characteristics and an example of a syn-
ovial joint in humans is [2013] 34. Sliding filament theory can be best explained
Characteristics Examples as :- [AIPMT 2015]
(a) Fluid cartilage Knee joint (a) Actin and Myosin filaments shorten and
between two bones, slide pass each other
limited movements (b) Actin and Myosin filaments do not
(b) Fluid filled between Skull bones shorten but rather slide and pass each
two joints, provides other
cushion (c) When myofilaments slide pass each other
(c) Fluid filled synovial Joint between Myosin filaments shorten while Actin
cavity between two atlas and axis filaments do not shorten.
bones (d) When myofilaments slide pass each other
(d) Lymph filled between Gliding joint Actin filaments shorten while Myosin
filaments do not shorten.
two bones, limited between carpals
movement 35. Glenoid cavity articulates : [AIPMT 2015]
31. The H-zone in the skeletal muscle fibre is due
to – [2013]
(a) the absence of myofibrils in the central
portion of A-band
(b) the central gap between myosin filaments
in the A-band
(c) the central gap between actin filaments
extending through myosin filaments in the
A-band
(d) extension of myosin filaments in the
central portion of the A-band.
32. Select the correct matching of the type of the
joint with the example in human skeletal
system : Type of joint - Example.
[AIPMT 2014]
(a) Scapula with acromion Answers (d) Clavicle with acromion

36. Erythropoiesis starts in : [AIPMT 2015]
(a) Liver
(b) Spleen
(c) Red bone marrow
(d) Kidney
37. Which of the following is not a function of the
skeletal system? [RE-AIPMT 2015]
(a) Locomotion
(b) Production of erythrocytes
(c) Storage of minerals
(d) Production of body heat
38. Which of the following joints would allow no
movement ? [RE-AIPMT 2015]
(a) Ball and Socket joint
(b) Fibrous joint
(b) Clavicle
with scapula (c) Cartilaginous joint
(c) Humerus with scapula (d) Synovial joint
1-d 2-c 3-d 4-a 5-b 6-c 7-a 8-d 9-c 10-b
11-b 12-a 13-d 14-c 15-b 16-d 17-c 18-c 19-b 20-b
21-a 22-b 23-d 24-d 25-a 26-d 27-c 28-b 29-b 30-c 31-c 32-d
33-a 34-b 35-c 36-a 37-d 38-b
21
NEURAL CONTROL AND COORDINATION
1. Which of the following cranial nerves can 3. Third ventricle of brain is also known as
regulate heart beat? [1989] (a) metacoel (b) rhinocoel [1990] (c) paracoel
(a) X (b) IX (d) diacoel
(c) VIII (d) VII 4. One function of parasympathetic nervous
2. Sensitive pigmented layer of eye is system is [1990]
[1989] (a) contraction of hair muscles
(a) cornea (b) retina (b) stimulation of sweat glands
(c) sclerotic (d) iris (c) acceleration of heart beat
(d) constriction of pupil
5. Ecdysis is shedding of [1990] (c) association neurons

(a) stratum corneum (d) motor neurons and
(b) epidermis association neurons
(c) dermis 14. The layer of actively dividing cells of skin is
(d) stratum Malpighi termed as [1993]
6. Vagus nerve is [1992, 97] (a) stratum compactum
(a) X (b) IX (b) stratum corneum
(c) VII (d) V (c) stratum Malpighi/stratum
germinativum
7. Afferent nerve fibres carry impulses from (d) stratum lucidum
(a) effector organs to CNS [1992]
15. Hair present in the skin are [1993]
(b) receptors to CNS (c) CNS to receptors
(d) CNS to muscles (a) epidermal in origin and made
of dead cells
8. Iris is part of [1992]
(b) epidermal in origin and made
(a) sclerotic
of living cells
(b) choroid/uvula
(c) dermal in origin and made of
(c) choroid and retina living cells
(d) sclerotic and choroid (d) dermal in origin and made of
9. Retina is most sensitive at [1993] dead cells
(a) optic disc (b) periphery 16. Respiratory centre is situated in [1994, 99]
(c) macula lutea (d) fovea centralis
(a) cerebellum (b) medulla
10. Light rays entering the eye are controlled by oblongata
(a) pupil (b) iris [1993] (c) hypothalamus (d) cerebrum
(c) comea (d) lens 17. The sympathetic nerves, in mammals arise
11. Ivan Pavlov performed experiments on from [1995]
[1993] (a) sacral nerves
(a) simple reflexes (b) (b) cervical nerves
conditioned reflexes (c) thoraco-lumbar nerves
(c) cardiac reflexes(d) origin of life (d) III, VII, IX and X cranial nerves
12. Function of iris is to [1993] 18. In humans, visceral organs are innervated by
(a) move lens forward and [1996]
backward (a) sympathetic nerves and are
(b) refract light rays under conscious control
(c) bring about movements of (b) parasympathetic nerves and
eye lids are under conscious control
(d) alter the size of pupil (c) Both (a) and (b)
(d) both sympathetic and
13. CNS is mostly made of [1993]
parasympathetic nerves but
(a) motor neurons and sensory are not under conscious
neurons control
(b) sensory neurons and
association neurons 19. Cornea transplantation is outstandingly
successful because [1996]
(a) cornea is easy to preserve 26. Which one of the following is correctly
(b) cornea is not linked up with matched pair of the given secretion and its
blood vascular and immune primary role in human physiology ? [2000]
systems (a) Sebum — Sexual attraction
(c) the technique involved is very (b) Sweat — Thermoregulation
simple (c) Saliva — Tasting food
(d) cornea is easily available (d) Tears — Excretion of salts
20. In the chemistry of vision in mammals, the 27. What is the intensity of sound in normal
photosensitive substance is called conversation? [2001]
[1997] (a) 10-20 dB
(a) sclerotin (b) retinal (b) 35-60 dB
(c) rhodopsin (d) melanin (c) 70-90 dB
21. In frog, “fenestra ovalis” is [1997] (d) 120-150 dB
(a) the opening in the auditory 28. Characteristic feature of human cornea is that
capsule which separates the [2001]
middle ear from internal ear (a) it is secreted by conjunctiva
(b) the air-filled cavity of the and glandular tissue
middle ear (b) it is lacrimal gland which
(c) the communication between secretes tears
the pharynx and the (c) blood circulation is absent in
tympanic cavity cornea
(d) the external opening of the (d) in old age it become hard and
tympanic cavity which is white layer deposits on it
covered by the tympanic which causes the cataract
membrane
29. When we migrate from dark to light, we fail to
22. Sympathetic nervous system induces [1997] see for some time but after a time visibility
(a) heart beat becomes normal. It is an example of [2001]
(b) secretion of digestive juices (a) accommodation
(c) secretion of saliva (b) adaptation
(d) All of the above (c) mutation
23. Which cranial nerve has the highest number of (d) photoperiodism
branches? [1999] 30. Injury to vagus nerve in human is not likely to
(a) Facial nerve (b) Trigeminal affect [2004]
(c) Vagus nerve (d) None of these (a) tongue movements
24. Which of the following is regarded as a unit of (b) gastrointestinal movements
nervous tissue ? [1999] (c) pancreatic secretion
(a) Myelin sheath (b) Axons (d) cardiac movements
(c) Dendrites (d) Neurons 31. Parkinson’s disease (characterized by tremors
and progressive rigidity of limbs) is caused by
25. The junction between the axon of one neuron
degeneration of brain neurons that are
and the dendrite of the next is called (a)
involved in movement control and make
junction point (b) a synapse [1999] (c) a joint
(d) constant bridge use of neurotransmitter [2005]
(a) acetylcholine (a) olfactory epithelium

(b) norepinephrine (b) external auditory canal
(c) dopamine (c) cortical nephrons only
(d) GABA (d) juxtamedullary nephrons
32. In a man, abducens nerve is injured. Which 37. Which one of the following not act as a
one of the following functions will be affected? neurotransmitter ? [2006]
[2005] (a) Acetylcholine
(a) Movement of the eye ball (b) Epinephrine
(b) Swallowing (c) Norepinephrine
(c) Movement of the tongue (d) Cortisone
(d) Movement of the neck 38. Bowman’s glands are located in the [2007]
33. One of the examples of the action of the (a) proximal end of uriniferous
autonomous nervous system is [2005] tubules
(a) knee-jerk response (b) anterior pituitary
(b) pupillary reflex (c) female reproductive system
(c) swallowing of food of cockroach (d) olfactory
epithelium of our nose
(d) peristalsis of the intestine
39. Given below is a diagrammatic cross section of
34. Four healthy people in their twenties got
a single loop of human cochlea. [2008]
involved in injuries resulting in damage and
death of a few cells of the following. Which of
the cells are least likely to be replaced by new
cells ? [2005]
(a) Osteocytes
(b) Malpighian layer of the skin
(c) Liver cells
(d) Neurons
35. Which one of the following statements is Which one of the following options correctly
correct ? [2006] represents the names of three different
(a) Neurons regulate endocrine parts?
activity, but not vice versa (a) B : Tectorial membrane C :
(b) Endocrine glands regulate Perilymph D : Secretory cells
neural activity and nervous (b) C : Endolymph D : Sensory
system regulates endocrine hair cells A : Serum
glands (c) D : Sensory hair cells A :
(c) Neither hormones control Endolymph B : Tectorial
neural activity nor the membrane
neurons control endocrine (d) A : Perilymph B : Tectorial
activity membrane C : Endolymph
(d) Endocrine glands regulate
neural activity, but not vice 40. Which one of the following is the correct
versa difference between rod cells and cone cells of
our retina? [2008]
36. Bowman’s glands are found in [2006]
Features Rod CellCone Cell (b) Hypothalamus Fore brain Controls body temperature,
urge for eating
(a) Visual acuity High Low and drinking
(c) Blind spot Near the place Rods and cones where optic are
(b) Visual pigment Iodopsin Rhodopsin present but
contained nerve leaves inactive here
(c) Overall function Vision Colour vision the eye
in poor and detailed (d) Eustachian Anterior Equalizes air tube part of pressure
on either
internal ear side of tympanic
light vision in bright
membrane
light
(d) Distribution More Evenly 45. When a neuron is in resting state i.e. not
concent- distributed conducting any impulse, the axonal
membrane is [Pre. 2011]
rated in all over retina (a) Comparatively more permeable to Na+
centre of ions and nearly impermeable to K+ ions
retina
(b) Equally permeable to both Na+ and K+ ions
41. Cornea transplant in human is almost never
(c) Impermeable to both Na+ and K+ ions
rejected. This is because [2008]
(d) Comparatively more permeable to K+ ions
(a) its cells are least penetrable
and nearly impermeable to Na+ ions
by bacteria
46. The human hind brain comprises three parts,
(b) it has no blood supply
one of which is [Pre. 2012]
(c) it is composed of enucleated
cells (a) Cerebellum
(d) it is a non-living layer (b) Hypothalamus
(c) Spinal cord
42. Which part of human brain is concerned with
(d) Corpus callosum
the regulation of body temperature?
[2009] 47. Which part of the human ear plays no role in
(a) Cerebrum hearing as such but is otherwise very much
required ? [Pre. 2012]
(b) Hypothalamus
(c) Medulla Oblongata (a) Vestibular Apparatus
(d) Cerebellum (b) Ear ossicles
(c) Eustachian tube
43. The nerve centres which control the body
(d) Organ of Corti
temperature and the urge for eating are con-
tained in [Pre. 2010] 48. A diagram showing axon terminal and synapse
(a) Hypothalamus is given. Identify correctly at least two of A-D.
(b) Pons [2013]
(c) Cerebellum
(d) Thalamus
44. Select the answer with correct matching of the
structure, its location and function.
[Mains 2010]
Structure Location Function
(a) Cerebellum Mid brain Controls
respiration and
gastric secretions
52. Which one of the following statements is not

correct? [AIPMT 2014]
(a) Retinal is the light absorbing portion of
visual photo pigments
(b) In retina the rods have the photopigment
rhodopsin while cones have three
different photopigments
(c) Retinal is a derivative of vitamin C
(d) Rhodopsin is the purplish red protein
present in rods only
(a) A-Receptor ; C-Synaptic vesicles
(b) B-Synaptic connection ; D-K+ 53. A gymnast is able to balance his body upside
down even in the total darkness because
(c) A-Neurotransmitter ; B- Synaptic cleft
of [AIPMT 2015]
(d) C-Neurotransmitter ; D-Ca++
(a) Vestibular apparatus
49. Parts A, B, C and D of the human eye are shown (b) Tectorial membrane
in the diagram. Select the option which gives (c) Organ of corti
correct identification along with its functions /
(d) Cochlea
characteristics [2013]
54. Which of the following regions of the brain is
incorrectly paired with its function?
[AIPMT 2015]
(a) Cerebellum- language comprehension
(b) Corpus callosum-communication between
the left and right cerebral cortices
(c) Cerebrum- calculation and contemplation
(d) Medulla oblongata - homeostatic control
(a) A – Retina - Contains photo receptorsrods 55. In mammalian eye, the ‘fovea’ is the center of
and cones. the visual field, where [RE-AIPMT 2015]
(b) B - Blind spot - Has only a few rods and (a) more rods than cones are found.
cones (b) high density of cones occur, but has no
(c) C - Aqueous chamber - Reflects the light rods
which does not pass through the lens
(d) D - Choroid – Its anterior part forms ciliary
body
50. The most abundant intracellular cation is
(a) Na+ (b) Ca++ [2013] (c) H+ (d) K+
51. Injury localized to the hypothalamus would
most likely disrupt [AIPMT 2014]
(a) Short term memory
(b) Co-ordination during locomotion
(c) Executive function, such as
decision making
(d) Regulation of body temperature
Answers
[RE-AIPMT 2015]
(c) the optic nerve leaves the eye
(a) Integrating impulses
(d) only rods are present
(b) Sensory impulses
56. Destruction of the anterior horn cells of the (c) Voluntary motor impulses
spinal cord would result in loss of : (d) Commissural impulses
1 -a 2 -b 3 -d 4 -d 5 -a 6 -a 7 -b 8 -c 9 -d 10 -a
11 -b 12 -d 13 -c 14 -c 15 -a 16 -b 17 -c 18 -c 19 -b 20 -c
21 -a 22 -a 23 -c 24 -d 25 -b 26 -b 27 -b 28 -c 29 -b 30 -a
31 -c 32 -a 33 -d 34 -d 35 -a 36 -a 37 -d 38 -d 39 -d 40 -c 41 -b 42
-b 43 -a 44 -b 45 -d 46 -a 47 -a 48 -a 49 -a 50 -d
51 -d 52 -c 53 -a 54 -a 55 -b 56 -c
22
CHEMICAL COORDINATION AND
INTEGRATION
1. Insulin is [1990] [1993,94]
(a) vitamin (b) lipid (a) enterogesterone (b) gastrin
(c) hormone (d) enzyme (c) pancryeozymin (d) cholecystokinin
2. Addition of a trace of thyroxine or iodine in 5. According to the accepted concept of
water containing tadpoles will [1990] hormone action, if receptor molecules are
(a) keep them in larval stage removed from target organs, then the target
(b) hasten their metamorphosis organ will [1995]
(c) slow down their metamorphosis (a) not respond to the hormone
(d) kill the tadpoles (b) continue to respond to hormone without
any difference
3. ADH or vasopressin is [1991]
(c) continue to respond to the hormone but in
(a) enzyme that hydrolyses peptides the opposite way
(b) hormone secreted by pituitary that (d) continue to respond to the hormone but
promotes reabsorption of water from will require higher concentration
glomerular filtrate
(c) hormone that promotes glycogenolysis 6. Which of the following endocrine gland stores
its secretion in the extracellular space
(d) energy rich compound connected with
before discharging into the blood? [1995]
muscle contraction
(a) Pancreas (b) Adrenal (c) Testis (d) Thyroid
4. Gastric secretion is stopped by hormone
7. Nicotine acts as a stimulant, because it mimics (c) pituitary (d) pineal gland
the effect of [1995]
16. Melanocyte Stimulating Hormone (MSH) is
(a) thyroxine (b)acetylcholine produced by [2000]
(c) testosterone (d) dopamine (a) anterior pituitary
8. Which of the following radioactive isotope is (b) posterior pituitary
used in the detection of thyroid cancer? (c) pars intermedia of pituitary
[1995,2002] (d) parathyroid
(a) Iodine-131 (b) Carbon-14
17. A common scent-producing gland among
(c) Uranium-238 (d) Phosphorus-32 mammals is [2000]
9. Which one of the following hormones (a) anal gland (b) prostate gland
stimulates the “let down” (release) of milk (c) adrenal gland (d) Bartholin’s gland
from the mother’s breasts when the baby is
18. Acromegaly is caused by [2002]
sucking? [1995]
(a) excess of STH
(a) Progesterone (b) Oxytocin
(b) excess of thyroxin
(c) Prolactin (d) Relaxin
(c) deficiency of thyroxin
10. Hormones thyroxine, adrenalin and the (d) excess of adrenalin
pigment melanin are formed from
[1997] 19. Melanin protects from [2002]
(a) tryptophan (b) glycine (c) tyrosine (d) (a) UV rays (b) visible rays
proline (c) infra-red rays (d) X-rays
11. The hormone which regulates the basal 20. Adrenaline directly affects [2002]
metabolism in our body is secreted from[1998] (a) SA node
(a) pituitary (b) thyroid (b) -cells of Langerhans
(c) adrenal cortex (d) pancreas (c) dorsal root of spinal cord
12. Diabetes is due to [1999] (d) epithelial cells of stomach
(a) iodine deficiency 21. Which steroid is used for transformation ?
(b) hormonal deficiency (a) Cortisol (b) Cholesterol [2002] (c)
(c) Na+ deficiency Testosterone (d) Progesterone
(d) enzyme deficiency 22. Chemically hormones are [2004]
13. The gonadotropic hormones are produced in (a) biogenic amines only
[1999] (b) proteins, steroids and biogenic amines
(a) interstitial cells of testes (c) proteins only
(b) adrenal cortex (d) steroids only
(c) adenohypophysis of pituitary 23. Which one of the following pairs correctly
(d) posterior part of thyroid matches a hormone with a disease resulting
14. The function of oxytocin is to help in[1999] from its deficiency ? [2004]
(a) growth (b) lactation (a) Luteinizing hormone — Failure of
(c) child birth (d) gametogenesis ovulation
(b) Insulin — Diabetes insipidus
15. Melatonin is secreted by [2000]
(c) Thyroxine — Tetany
(a) skin (b) thymus
(d) Parathyroid hormone — Diabetes mellitus one of the following glands may not be
functioning properly ? [2007]
24. Which of the following hormones is not a
secretion product of human placenta ? [2004] (a) Parathyroid
(a) Human chorionic gonadotropin (b) Parotid
(b) Prolactin (c) Pancreas
(c) Estrogen (d) Thyroid
(d) Progesterone 31. Compared to a bull a bullock is docile because
of [2007]
25. Which one of the following hormones is a
modified amino acid ? [2004] (a) higher levels of thyroxin
(a) Epinephrine (b) Progesterone (b) higher levels of cortisone
(c) Prostaglandin (d) Estrogen (c) lower levels of blood testosterone
(d) lower levels of adrenalin/ noradrenalin in
26. A steroid hormone which regulates glucose its blood
metabolism is [2006]
32. Which one of the following pairs of organs
(a) cortisol
includes only the endocrine glands? [2008]
(b) corticosterone
(a) Parathyroid and adrenal
(c) 11-deoxycorticosterone
(b) Pancreas and parathyroid
(d) cortisone
(c) Thymus and testes
27. Which of the following is an accumulation and (d) Adrenal and ovary
release centre of neurohormones ?
33. The blood calcium level is lowered by the
(a) Posterior pituitary lobe [2006] deficiency of [2008]
(b) Intermediate lobe of the pituitary
(a) parathormone
(c) Hypothalamus
(b) thyroxine
(d) Anterior pituitary lobe
(c) calcitonin
28. Which hormone causes dilation of blood (d) Both (a) and (c)
vessels, increased oxygen consumption and
glucogenesis ? [2006] 34. In human adult females, oxytocin
[2008]
(a) ACTH
(a) is secreted by anterior pituitary
(b) Insulin
(b) stimulates growth of mammary glands
(c) Adrenalin
(c) stimulates pituitary to secrete vasopressin
(d) Glucagon
(d) causes strong uterine contractions during
29. Feeling the tremors of an earthquake a scared parturition
resident of seventh floor of a multistoryed
building starts climbing down the stairs 35. Injury to adrenal cortex is not likely to affect
rapidly. Which hormone initiated this action ? the secretion of which one of the following?
(a) Thyroxin [2007] (a) Aldosterone [Pre. 2010]
(b) Adrenalin (b) Both Androstenedione and
Dehydroepiandrosterone
(c) Glucagon
(c) Adrenaline
(d) Gastrin
(d) Cortisol
30. A person is having problems with calcium and
phosphorus metabolism in his body. Which
36. Which one of the following pairs is incorrectly (b) cretinism

matched ? [Pre. 2010] (c) simple goitre
(a) Glucagon - Beta cells (source) (d) thyrotoxicosis
(b) Somatostatin - Delta cells (source) 38. The 24 hour (diurnal) rhythm of our body such
(c) Corpus luteum - Relaxin (secretion) the sleep awake cycle is regulated by the
(d) Insulin - Diabetes mellitus (disease) hormone [Mains 2011]
37. Toxic agents present in food which interfere (a) Melatonin (b) Calcitonin
with thyroxine synthesis lead to the (c) Prolactin
development of [Pre. 2010] (d) Adrenaline
(a) toxic goitre
39. Select the correct matching of a hormone, its source and function. [Mains 2010]
Hormone Source Function
(a) Norepinephrine Adrenal medulla Increases heart beat, rate of respiration and
alertness
(b) Glucagon Beta-cells of Islets of langerhans Stimulates glycogenolysis
(c) Prolactin Posterior pituitary Regulates growth of mammary glands and

milk formation in female
(d) Vasopressin Posterior pituitary Increases loss of water through urine
40. Match the source gland with its respective hormone as well as the functions [Pre. 2011]
Source gland Hormone Function
(a) Anterior pituitary Oxytocin Contraction of uterus muscles during child birth
(b) Posterior pituitary Vasopressin Stimulates resorption of water in the distal tubules
in nephron
(c) Corpus luteum Estrogen Supports pregnancy
(d) Thyroid Thyroxine Regulates blood calcium level
41. Given below is an incomplete table about certain hormones, their source glands and one major effect
of each on the body in humans. Identify the correct option for the three blanks A, B and C
Gland Secretion Effect on Body [Pre. 2011]
A Oestrogen Maintenance of secondary sexual characters
Alpha cells of Islets of Langerhans B Raises blood sugar level
Anterior pituitary C Over secretion leads to gigantism
Options :
A B C
(a) Ovary Glucagon Growth hormone
(b) Placenta Insulin Vasopressin
(c) Ovary Insulin Calcitonin
(d) Placenta Glucagon Calcitonin
42. Which one of the following pairs of hormones happen in his neurohormonal control sys-
are the examples of those that can easily pass tem [Pre. 2012]
through the cell membrane of the target cell (a) Hypothalamus actives the
and bind to a receptor inside it parasympathetic divison of brain
(mostly in the nucleus) [Pre. 2012]
(b) Sympathetic nervous system is activated
(a) Somatostain, oxytocin releasing epinephrine and
(b) Cortisol, testosterone norepinephrine from adrenal cortex
(c) Insulin, glucagon (c) Sympathetic nervous system is activated
(d) Thyroxin, insulin releasing epinephrine and
norepinephrine from adrenal cortex
43. A person entering an empty room suddenly
finds a snake right in front on opening the (d) Nurotransmitters diffuse rapidly across
door. Which one of the following is likely to the cleft and transmit a nerve impulse.
44. A pregnant female delivers a baby who suffers (a) Adenohypophysis is under direct neural
from stunted growth, mental retardation, low regulation of the hypothalamus
intelligence quotient and abnormal skin. (b) Organs in the body like gastrointestinal
This is the result of : [2013] tract, heart, kidney and liver do not
46. Select the answer which correctly matches the endocrine gland with the hormone it secretes and its
function/deficiency symptom [2013]
Endocrine gland Hormone Function/deficiency symptoms
(a) Anterior pituitary Oxytocin Stimulates uterus contraction during child
birth
(b) Posterior pituitary Growth Hormone (GH) Oversecretion stimulates abnormal growth
(c) Thyroid gland Thyroxine Lack of iodine in diet results in goiter

(d) Corpus luteum Testosterone Stimulates spermatogenesis
(a) Deficiency of iodine in diet produce any hormones
(b) Low secretion of growth hormone (c) Non-nutrient chemicals produced by the
(c) Cancer of the thyroid gland body in trace amount that act as
(d) Over secretion of pars distalis intercellular messenger are known as
hormones
45. Which of the following statements is correct in
(d) Releasing and inhibitory hormones are
relation to the endocrine system ? [2013]
produced by the pituitary gland
47. Which of the following causes an increase in (b) Melatonin - pineal gland, regulates the
sodium reabsorption in the distal convoluted normal rhythm of sleepwake cycle
tubule? [AIPMT 2014] (c) Progesterone - corpus-luteum, stimulation
(a) Increase in aldosterone levels of growth and activities of female
(b) Increase in antidiuretic hormone levels secondary sex organs
(c) Decrease in aldosterone levels (d) Atrial natriuretic factor - ventricular wall,
(d) Decrease in antidiuretic hormone levels increases the blood pressure
49. Fight-or-flight reactions cause activation of
48. Identify the hormone with its correct matching
[AIPMT 2014]
of source and function [AIPMT 2014]
(a) The parathyroid glands, leading to
(a) Oxytocin - posterior pituitary, growth and
increased metabolic rate
maintenance of mammary glands
(b) The kidney, leading to suppression of (d) Insulin

rennin angiotensin-aldosterone pathway
(c) The adrenal medulla, leading to increased
secretion of epinephrine and
norepinephrene
(d) The pancreas leading to a reduction in the
blood sugar levels
50. A chemical signal that has both endocrine and
neural roles is ? [AIPMT 2015]
(a) Calcitonin
(b) Epinephrine
(c) Cortisol
(d) Melatonin
51. Which one of the following hormones is not
involved in sugar metabolism ?
[RE-AIPMT 2015]
(a) Glucagon (b) Cortisone
(c) Aldosterone
Answers
52. Which one of the following hormones though
synthesized elsewhere, is stored and released
by the master gland ?
[RE-AIPMT 2015]
(a) Melanocyte stimulating hormone
(b) Antidiuretic hormone
(c) Luteinizing hormone
(d) Prolactin
1 -c 2 -b 3 -b 4 -a 5 -a 6 -d 7 -b 8 -a 9 -b 10 -c 11 -b 12
-b 13 -c 14 -c 15 -d 16 -c 17 -a 18 -a 19 -a 20 -a
21 -b 22 -b 23 -a 24 -b 25 -a 26 -a 27 -c 28 -c 29 -b 30 -a
31 -c 32 -a 33 -a 34 -d 35 -c 36 -a 37 -c 38 -a 39 -a 40 -b
41 -a 42 -b 43 -c 44 -a 45 -c 46 -c 47 -a 48 -b 49 -c 50 -b
51 -c 52 -b
23
REPRODUCTION IN ORGANISMS
1. Which is correct? [1989] 6. A population of genetically identical
(a) Gametes are invariably haploid individuals, obtained from asexual
(b) Spores are invariably haploid reproduction is [1993]
(c) Gametes are generally haploid (a) callus (b) clone
(d) Both (a) and (b) (c) deme (d) aggregate
2. Cellular totipotency was demonstrated by 7. Which plant will lose its economic value if its
fruits are produced by induced
(a) Theodore Schwann [1991]
parthenocarpy? [1997]
(b) A v Leeuwenhoek
(a) Grape (b) Pomegranate
(c) F C Steward
(c) Banana (d) Orange
(d) Robert Hooke
8. In oogamy, fertilization involves
3. Syngamy means [1991]
[2004]
(a) fusion of gametes
(a) a small non-motile female gamete and a
(b) fusion of cytoplasms
large motile male gamete
(c) fusion of two similar spores
(b) a large non-motile female gamete and a
(d) fusion of two dissimilar spores small motile male gamete
4. Meiosis is best observed in dividing [1992] (c) a large non-motile female gamete and a
(a) cells of apical meristem small non motile male gamete
(b) cells of lateral meristem (d) a large motile female gamete and a small
(c) microspores and anther wall non-motile gamete
(d) microsporocytes 9. In which one pair both the plants can be
5. Which of the following plant cells will show vegetatively propagated by leaf pieces?
totipotency? [1993] [2005]
(a) Sieve tubes (b) Xylem vessels (a) Agave and Kalanchoe
(c) Meristems (d) Cork cells (b) Bryophyllum and Kalanchoe
(c) Asparagus and Bryophyllum

(d) Chrysanthemum and Agave
10. Why is vivipary an undesirable character for
annual crop plants? [2005]
(a) It reduces the vigour of the plant
(b) It adversely affects the fertility of the plant
(c) The seeds exhibit long dormancy
(d) The seeds cannot be stored under normal
conditions for the next season
11. Vegetative propagation in mint occurs [2009]
(a) Rhizome (b) Sucker
(c) Runner (d) Offset
12. What is common between vegetative
reproduction and apomixis ? [Mains 2011]
(a) Both produces progeny identical to the
parent.
(b) Both are applicable to only dicot plants.
(c) Both bypass the flowering phase. (d) Both
occur round the year.
13. In ginger vegetative propagation occurs
through: [AIPMT 2015]
(a) Offsets (b) Bulbils
(c) Runners (d) Rhizome
24
SEXUAL REPRODUCTION IN FLOWERING PLANTS
1. A diploid female plant and a tetraploid male (b) nucellus
plant are crossed. The ploidy of endosperm (c) microspore
shall be [1989, 2004] (d) stamen
(a) tetraploid (b) triploid 7. Sperm and egg nuclei fuse due to
(c) diploid (d) pentaploid [1990]
2. Generative cell was destroyed by laser but a (a) base pairing of their DNA and RNA
normal pollen tube was still formed because (b) formation of hydrogen bonds
[1989] (a) vegetative cell is not damaged (c) mutual attraction due to differences in
(b) contents of killed generative cell stimulate electrical charges
pollen growth (d) attraction of their protoplasts
(c) laser beam stimulates growth of pollen
8. Female gametophyte of angiosperms is
tube
represented by [1990,91]
(d) the region of emergence of pollen tube is
not harmed (a) ovule
(b) megaspore mother cell
3. Development of an organism from female
(c) embryo sac
gamete/egg without involving fertilization is
(d) nucellus
[1989]
(a) adventitive embryony 9. Which one produce androgenic haploids in
(b) polyembryony anther cultures? [1990, 94]
(c) parthenocarpy (a) Anther wall
(d) parthenogenesis (b) Tapetal layer of anther wall
(c) Connective tissue
4. Nucellus embryo is [1989]
(d) Young pollen grains
(a) amphimictic haploid
(b) amphimictic diploid 10. Pollination occurs in [1991]
(c) apomictic haploid (a) bryophytes and angiosperms
(d) apomictic diploid (b) pteridophytes and angiosperms
(c) angiosperms and gymnosperms
5. Entry of pollen tube through micropyle is
(d) angiosperms and fungi
[1990]
(a) chalazogamy (b) mesogamy 11. Point out the odd one [1991]
(c) porogamy (d) pseudogamy (a) nucellus (b) embryo sac
(c) micropyle (d) pollen grain
6. Male gametophyte of angiosperms/monocots
is [1990] 12. Which of the following pair has haploid
(a) microsporangium structures? [1991]
(a) Nucellus and antipodal cells 21. Haploid plant cultures are got from [1994]
(b) Antipodal cells and egg cell (a) leaves (b) root tip
(c) Antipodal cells and megaspore mother cell (c) pollen grain (d) buds
(d) Nucellus and primary endosperm nucleus
22. Transfer of pollen to the stigma of another
13. Double fertilization is fusion of [1991] (a) two flower of the same plant is [1994]
eggs (a) autogamy (b) allogamy
(b) two eggs and polar nuclei with pollen (c) xenogamy (d) geitonogamy
nuclei 23. One of the most resistant biological material is
(c) one male gamete with egg and other with [1994]
synergid
(a) lignin (b) hemicellulose
(d) one male gamete with egg and other with
(c) lignocellulose (d) sporopollenin
secondary nucleus
24. Fertilization involving carrying of male
14. Embryo sac occurs in [1991]
gametes by pollen tube is [1994]
(a) embryo (b) axis part of embryo
(a) porogamy (b) siphonogamy
(c) ovule (d) endosperm
(c) chalazogamy (d) syngonogamy
15. Study of formation, growth and development
25. In an angiosperm, how many microspore
of new individual from an egg is [1993]
mother cells are required to produce 100
(a) apomixis (b) embryology pollen grains? [1995]
(c) embryogeny (d) cytology (a) 25 (b) 50
16. Number of meiotic divisions required to (c) 75 (d) 100
produce 200/400 seeds of pea would be [1993]
26. The polyembryony commonly occurs in
(a) 200/400 (b) 400/800
(a) Citrus (b) turmeric [1995]
(c) 300/600 (d) 250/500
(c) tomato (d) potato
17. Double fertilization and triple fusion were
27. In angiosperms, triple fusion is required for the
discovered by [1993]
formation of [1996]
(a) Hofmeister
(a) embryo (b) endosperm
(b) Nawaschin and Guignard
(c) seed coat (d) fruit wall
(c) Leeuwenhoek (d) Strasburger
28. How many pollen grains will be formed after
18. Ovule is straight with funiculus, embryo sac, meiotic division in 10 microspore mother
chalaza and micropyle lying on one straight cells? [1996]
line. It is [1993]
(a) 10 (b) 20
(a) orthotropous (b) anatropous
(c) 40 (d) 80
(c) campylotropous (d) amphitropous
29. If an angiospermic male plant is diploid and
19. Double fertilization is characteristic of female plant tetraploid, the ploidy level of
[1993] endosperm will be [1997]
(a) angiosperms (b) pteridophytes (a) haploid (b) triploid
(c) gymnosperms (d) bryophytes (c) tetraploid (d) pentaploid
20. Chief pollinators of agricultural crops are 30. The endosperm of gymnosperms is
(a) butterflies (b) bees [1994] (c) moths (d) [1999]
beetles (a) triploid (b) haploid
(c) diploid (d) polyploid (c) cellulose (d) sporopollenin

31. Flowers showing ornithophily show few 38. What is the direction of micropyle in
characteristic like [1999] anatropous ovule? [2002]
(a) blue flower with nectaries at base of (a) Upward (b) Downward
corolla (c) Right (d) Left
(b) red sweet scented flower with nectaries 39. In angiosperms pollen tubes liberate their
(c) bright red flower into thick inflorescence male gametes into the [2002]
(d) white flowers with fragrance (a) central cell (b) antipodal cell
32. In the young cob of maize, numerous (c) egg cell (d) synergid
filamentous hair like structures protruding
40. In a flowering plant, archesporium gives rise to
from its tip are [2000]
[2003]
(a) hair of seeds
(a) only tapetum and sporogenous cells
(b) long styles of carpels
(b) only the wall of the sporangium
(c) anthers
(c) both wall and the sporogenous cells
(d) hairy projections from the bracts
(d) wall and the tapetum
33. Eight nucleate embryo sacs are [2000]
41. An ovule which becomes curved so that the
(a) always tetrasporic nucellus and embryo sac lie at right angles to
(b) always monosporic the funicle is [2004]
(c) always bisporic (a) hemitropous (b) campylotropous
(d) sometimes monosporic, sometimes (c) anatropous (d) orthotropous
bisporic and sometimes tetrasporic
42. Which one of the following represents an
34. Double fertilization leading to initiation of ovule, where the embryo sac becomes
endosperm in angiosperms require [2000] horseshoe shaped and the funiculus and
(a) fusion of one polar nucleus and the second micropyle are close to each other? [2005]
male gamete only (a) Circinotropous (b) Atropous
(b) fusion of two polar nuclei and the second (c) Anatropous (d) Amphitropous
male gamete
43. Which one of the following represents an
(c) fusion of four or more polar nuclei and the
ovule, where the embryo sac. becomes horse
second male gamete only
shoe-shaped and the funiculus and micropyle
(d) all of the above kinds of fusion in different
are close to each other? [2005]
angiosperms
(a) Amphitropous (b) Circinotropous
35. Adventive embryony in Citrus is due to
(c) Atropous (d) Anatropous
(a) nucellus (b) integuments [2001]
(c) zygotic embryo(d) fertilized egg 44. Through which cell of the embryo sac, does the
pollen tube enter the embryo sac?[2005]
36. Anemophily type of pollination is found in
(a) Egg cell
(a) Salvia (b) bottle brush [2001]
(b) Persistant synergid
(c) Vallisneria (d) coconut
(c) Degenerated synergid
37. In angiosperms all the four microspores of (d) Central cell
tetrad are covered by a layer which is formed
45. Top-shaped multiciliate male gametes and the
by [2002]
mature seed which bears only one embryo
(a) pectocellulose (b) callose
with two cotyledons, are characteristic (c) prophyll (d) coleoptile

features of [2005]
52. Which one of the following is surrounded by a
(a) cycads callose wall ? [2007]
(b) conifers (a) Microspore mother cell
(c) polypetalous angiosperms (b) Male gamete
(d) gamopetalous angiosperms (c) Egg
46. In a type of apomixis known as adventive (d) Pollen grain
embryony, embryos develop directly from the 53. Male gametes in angiosperms are formed by
(a) nucellus or integuments [2005] the division of [2007]
(b) zygote (a) microspore
(c) synergids or antipodals in an embryo sac (b) generative cell
(d) accessory embryo sac in the ovule (c) vegetative cell
47. Pine apple fruit develops from [2006] (d) microspore mother cell
(a) a unilocular polycarpellary flower 54. Endosperm is consumed by developing
(b) a multipistillate syncarpous flower embryo in the seed of [2008]
(c) a cluster of compactly borne flowers on a (a) coconut (b) castor
common axis (c) pea (d) maize
(d) a multilocular monocarpellary flower
55. What does the filiform apparatus do at the
48. Parthenocarpic tomato fruits can be produced entrance into ovule? [2008]
by [2006] (a) It helps in the entry of pollen tube into a
(a) removing androecium of flowers before synergid
pollen grains are released (b) It prevents entry of more than one pollen
(b) treating the plants with low tube into the embryo sac
concentrations of gibberellic acid and (c) It brings about opening of the pollen tube
auxins (d) It guides pollen tube from a synergid to egg
(c) raising the plants from vernalized seeds
56. Which one of the following pairs of plant
(d) treating the plants with phenylmercuric
structures has haploid number of
acetate
chromosomes? [2008]
49. The arrangement of the nuclei in a normal (a) Megaspore mother cell and antipodal cells
embryo sac in the dicot plants is [2006] (b) Egg cell and antipodal cells
(a) 3 +2 + 3 (b) 2 + 3 + 3 (c) Nucellus and antipodal cells
(c) 3 + 3 + 2 (d) 2 + 4 + 2 (d) Egg nucleus and secondary nucleus
50. What would be the number of chromosomes 57. Which one of the following is resistant to
in the cells of the aleuronelayer in a plant enzyme action? [2008]
species with 8 chromosomes in its synergids?
(a) Cork (b) Wood fibre
[2006]
(c) Pollen exine (d) Leaf cuticle
(a) 24 (b) 32
(c) 8 (d) 16 58. Unisexuality of flowers prevents
[2008]
51. In a cereal grain the single cotyledon of
(a) autogamy, but not geitonogamy
embryo is represented by [2006]
(b) both geitonogamy and xenogamy
(a) coleorhiza (b) scutellum
(c) geitonogamy, but not xenogamy
(d) autogamy and geitonogamy 67. In which one of the following pollination is
59. An example of a seed with endosperm, autogamous ? [Pre. 2011]
perisperm, and caruncle is: [2009] (a) Geitonogamy (b) Xenogamy
(a) lily (b) castor (c) Chasmogamy (d) Cleistogamy
(c) cotton (d) coffee 68. Wind pollination is common in [Pre. 2011]
60. Apomictic embryos in citrus arise form (a) Legumes (b) Lilies
[Pre. 2010] (c) Grasses (d) Orchids
(a) Synergids
69. Plants with ovaries having only one or a few
(b) Maternal sporophytic tissue in ovule
ovules, are generally pollinated by
(c) Antipodal cells (d) Diploid egg [Mains 2012]
61. Transfer of pollen grains from the anther to (a) Butterflies (b) Birds
the stigma of another flower of the same plant (c) Wind (d) Bees
is called [Pre. 2010]
70. What is the function of germ pore ?
(a) Xenogamy (b) Geitonogamy
[Mains 2012]
(c) Karyogamy (d) Autogamy
(a) Absorption of water for seed germination
62. The scutellum observe in a grain of wheat or (b) Initiation of pollen tube
maize is comparable to which part of the seed
(c) Release of male gametes
in other monocotyledons? [Pre. 2010]
(d) Emergence of radicle
(a) Cotyledon (b) Endosperm
(c) Aleurone layer (d) Plumule 71. Which one of the following statements is
wrong ? [Mains 2012]
63. Wind pollinated flower are : [Pre. 2010]
(a) Vegetative cell is larger than generative
(a) small, brightly coloured, producing large cell
number of pollen grains (b) Pollen grains in some plants remain viable
(b) small, producing large number of dry for months
pollen grains (c) Intine is made up of cellulose and pectin
(c) large producing abundant nectar and (d) When pollen is shed at two-celled stage,
pollen double fertilization does not take place
(d) small, producing nectar and dry pollen
72. Both, autogamy and geitonogamy are
64. In angiosperms, functional megaspore prevented in [Pre. 2012]
develops into : [Mains 2011]
(a) Castor (b) Maize
(a) Pollen sac (b) Embryo sac (c) Ovule (d)
(c) Papaya (d) Cucumber
Endosperm
73. Even in absence of pollinating agents
65. Filiform apparatus is a characteristic feature of seedsetting is assured in - [Pre. 2012]
:- [Pre. 2011] (a) Salvia (b) Fig
(a) Suspensor (b) Egg (c) Commellina (d) Zostera
(c) Synergid (d) Zygote
74. Megasporangium is equivalent to
66. Nucellar polyembryony is reported in species [2013]
of [Pre. 2011] (a) Embryo sac (b) Fruit
(a) Citrus (b) Gossypium (c) Nucellus (d) Ovule
(c) Triticum (d) Brassica
75. Seed coat is not thin, membranous in [2013]
(a) Maize (2) Coconut
(c) Groundnut (d) Gram [AIPMT 2014]

76. Which one of the following statements is (a) In vitro fertilization
correct ? [2013] (b) Breeding programmes
(a) Hard outer layer of pollen is called intine (c) Supplementing food
(b) Sporogenous tissue is haploid (d) Ex situ conservation
(c) Endothecium produces the microspores 83. Function of filiform apparatus is to :
(d) Tapetum nourishes the developing pollen [AIPMT 2014]
77. Product of sexual reproduction generally (a) Recognize the suitable pollen at stigma
generates : [2013] (b) Stimulate division of generative cell
(a) Longer viability of seeds (c) Produce nectar
(b) Prolonged dormancy (d) Guide the entry of pollen tube
(c) New genetic combination leading to 84. Non-albuminous seed is produced in -
variation [AIPMT 2014]
(d) Large biomass (a) Maize (b) Castor
78. Advantage of cleistogamy is [2013] (c) Wheat (d) Pea
(a) Higher genetic variability 85. Transmission tissue is characteristic feature of
(b) More vigorous offspring : [AIPMT 2015]
(c) No dependence on pollinators (a) Solid style (b) Dry stigma
(d) Vivipary (c) Wet stigma (d) Hollow style
79. Perisperm differs from endosperm in[2013] 86. Which one of the following may require
(a) Being a haploid tissue pollinators, but is genetically similar to
(b) Having no reserve food autogamy ? [AIPMT 2015]
(c) Being a diploid tissue (a) Xenogamy (b) Apogamy
(d) Its formation by fusion of secondary (c) Cleistogamy (d) Geitonogamy
nucleus with several sperms
87. Which one of the following statements is not
80. Geitonogamy involves - [AIPMT 2014] true? [AIPMT 2015]
(a) Fertilisation of a flower by the pollen from (a) Pollen grains of some plants cause severe
another flower of the same plant allergies and bronchial afflictions in some
(b) Fertilisation of a flower by the pollen from people
the same flower (b) The flowers pollinated by flies and bats
(c) Fertilisation of a flower by the pollen from secrete foul odour to attract them
a flower of another plant in the same (c) Honey is made by bees by digesting pollen
population collected from flowers
(d) Fertilisation of a flower by the pollen from (d) Pollen grains are rich in nutrients, and they
a flower of another plant belonging to a are used in the form of tablets and syrups
distant population
88. The hilum is a scar on the : [AIPMT 2015]
81. Male gametophyte with least number of cells (a) Fruit, where it was attached to pedicel
is present in : [AIPMT 2014]
(b) Fruit, where style was present
(a) Pteris (b) Funaria (c) Seed, where micropyle was present
(c) Lilium (d) Pinus (d) Seed, where funicle was attached
82. Pollen tablets are available in the market for
89. Which of the following are the important floral (a) Degenerated nucellus
rewards to the animal pollinators? (b) Immature embryo
[AIPMT 2015] (c) Free nuclear endosperm
(a) Nectar and pollen grains (d) Innermost layers of the seed coat
(b) Floral fragrance and calcium crystals 92. Filiform apparatus is characteristic feature of :
(c) Protein pellicle and stigmatic exudates [RE-AIPMT 2015]
(d) Colour and large size flower
(a) Synergids (b) Generative cell
90. Male gametophyte in angiosperms produces: (c) Nucellar embryo (d) Aleurone cell
[RE-AIPMT 2015]
93. Which one of the following fruits is
(a) Three sperms parthenocarpic ? [RE-AIPMT 2015]
(b) Two sperms and a vegetative cell (a) Banana (b) Brinjal
(c) Apple (d) Jackfruit
94. In angiosperms, microsporogenesis and
megasporogenesis : [RE-AIPMT 2015]
Answers
(a) occur in ovule
(c) Single sperm and a vegetative cell
(b) occur in anther
(d) Single sperm and two vegetative cells
(c) form gametes without furthers divisions
91. Coconut water from a tender coconut is : (d) involve meiosis
[RE-AIPMT 2015]
1 -a 2 -a 3 -d 4 -d 5 -c 6 -c 7 -d 8 -c 9 -d 10 -c 11 -d 12
-b 13 -d 14 -c 15 -b 16 -d 17 -b 18 -a 19 -a 20 -b
21 -c 22 -d 23 -d 24 -b 25 -a 26 -a 27 -b 28 -c 29 -d 30 -b
31 -b 32 -b 33 -d 34 -b 35 -a 36 -d 37-b 38 -b 39 -d 40 -c
41 -a 42 -d 43 -a 44 -c 45 -a 46 -a 47 -c 48 -b 49 -a 50 -a 51 -b 52
-a 53 -b 54 -c 55 -a 56 -b 57 -c 58 -a 59 -b 60 -b
61 -b 62 -a 63 -b 64 -b 65 -c 66 -a 67 -d 68 -c 69 -c 70 -b 71 -d 72
-c 73 -c 74 -d 75 -d 76 -d 77 -c 78 -c 79 -c 80 -a 81 -c 82 -c 83
-d 84 -d 85 -a 86 -d 87 -c 88 -d 89 -a 90 -b
91 -c 92 -a 93 -a 94 -d
25A
HUMAN REPRODUCTION : REPRODUCTIVE
SYSTEM
1. Egg is liberated from ovary in [1989] (a) liver — cholesterol [1991]

(a) secondary oocyte stage (b) ovary — estrogen
(b) primary oocyte stage (c) testis — testosterone
(c) oogonial stage (d) pancreas — glucagon
(d) mature ovum stage 9. Extrusion of second polar body from egg
2. Gonads develop from embryonic nucleus occurs [1993]
[1990] (a) after entry of sperm but before
(a) ectoderm (b) endoderm completion of fertilization
(c) mesoderm (d) Both (b) and (c) (b) after completion of fertilization
(c) before entry of sperm
3. How many sperms are formed from a
(d) without any relation of sperm entry
secondary spermatocyte? [1990]
(a) 4 (b) 8 10. Male hormone is produced in the testis by
(c) 2 (d) 1 cells of [1993]
(a) sertoli (b) epithelial
4. Occurrence of Leydig’s cells and their
(c) spermatocytes (d) Leydig
secretion is [1991,98]
(a) ovary and estrogen 11. Acrosome reaction in sperm is triggered by
(b) liver and cholesterol [1993]
(c) pancreas and glucagon (a) capacitation (b) release of lysin
(d) testis and testosterone (c) influx of Na+ (d) release of fertilizin
5. Middle piece of mammalian sperm possesses 12. Ovulation occurs under the influence of
[1991,99] (a) LH (b) FSH [1994]
(a) mitochondria and centriole (c) estrogen (d) progesterone
(b) mitochondria only 13. In 28 days human ovarian cycle, ovulation
(c) centriole only occurs on [1994, 97]
(d) nucleus and mitochondria (a) l day (b) 5 day
6. Fertilizins are emitted by [1991, 97] (c) 14 day (d) 28 day
(a) immature eggs (b) mature eggs 14. At the end of first meiotic division, male germ
(c) sperms (d) polar bodies differentiates into [1994, 2008]
7. Freshly released human egg has (a) secondary spermatocyte
[1991] (b) primary spermatocyte
(a) one Y - chromosome (c) spermatogonium
(b) one X - chromosome (d) spermatid
(c) two X - chromosomes 15. The mammalian corpus luteum produces
(d) Both (a) and (b) (a) estrogen [1995]
8. Location and secretion of Leydig’s cells are (b) progesterone
(c) luteotropic hormone 24. Ovulation in the human female normally

(d) luteinizing hormone takes place during the menstrual cycle (a) at
the mid secretory phase [2004]
16. The estrus cycle is a characteristic of [1995]
(b) just before the end of the secretory phase
(a) human males only
(c) at the beginning of the proliferative phase
(b) human females only
(d) at the end of the proliferative phase
(c) mammalian males other than primates
(d) mammalian females other than primates 25. If mammalian ovum fails to get fertilized,
which one of the following is unlikely ?
17. Stratum germinativum is an example of which
(a) Corpus luteum will disintegrate [2005]
kind of epithelium ? [1997]
(b) Estrogen secretion further decreases
(a) Cuboidal (b) Ciliated
(c) Primary follicle starts developing
(c) Columnar (d) Squamous
(d) Progesterone secretion rapidly declines
18. After ovulation, Graafian follicle regresses
26. Sertoli cells are regulated by the pituitary
into [1999]
hormone known as [Pre. 2006]
(a) corpus luteum (b) corpus callosum (c)
(a) FSH (b) GH
corpus albicans (d) corpus atresia
(c) prolactin (d) LH
19. Secretion of progesterone by corpus luteum
is initiated by [1999] 27. Withdrawal of which of the following
hormones is the immediate cause of
(a) thyroxine (b) LH
menstruation ? [Pre. 2006]
(c) MSH (d) testosterone
(a) Estrogen (b) FSH
20. Which set is similar ? [2001] (c) FSH-RH (d) Progesterone
(a) Corpus luteum — Graafian follicle
28. Which part of ovary in mammals acts as an
(b) Sebum — Sweat endocrine gland after ovulation ? [2007]
(c) Bundle of His — Pacemaker
(a) Graafian follicle (b) Stroma
(d) Vit-B7 — Niacin
(c) Germinal epithelium
21. Mainly which type of hormones control the (d) Vitelline membrane
menstrual cycle in human beings ? [2002] 29. In the human female, menstruation can be
(a) FSH (b) LH deferred by the administration of [2007]
(c) FSH, LH, estrogen (d) Progesterone (a) LH only
22. When both ovaries are removed from rat (b) combination of FSH and LH
which hormone is decreased in blood ? (c) combination of estrogen and
[2002] progesterone
(a) Oxytocin (b) Prolactin (d) FSH only
(c) Estrogen 30. Which one of the following is the correct
(d) Gonadotropic releasing factor matching of the events occurring during
23. Bartholin’s glands are situated menstrual cycle? [2009]
[2003] (a) Development of : Secretory phase and
(a) on either side of vagina in humans increased secretion of progesterone
(b) on either side of vas deference in humans (b) Menstruation: breakdown of
(c) on the sides of the head of some myometrium and ovum not fertilized.
amphibians
(d) at the reduced tail end of birds
(c) Ovulation : LH and FSH attain peak level (a) A. vas deferens, B. seminal vesicle, C.
and sharp fall in the secretion of bulbourethral gland, D. prostate
progesterone. (b) A. ureter, B. seminal vesicle, C. prostate,
(d) Proliferative phase: Rapid regeneration of D. bulbourethral gland
myometrium and maturation of Graafian (c) A. ureter, B. prostate, C. seminal vesicle,
follicle D. bulbourethral gland
31. The correct sequence of spermatogenetic (d) A. vas deferens, B. seminal vesicle, C.
stages leading to the formation of sperms in prostate, D. bulbourethral gland
(a) mature human testis is: [2009] 34. Seminal plasma in humans is rich in [2009]
(a) spermatid – spermatocyte – (a) glucose and certain enzymes but has no
spermatogonia – sperms calcium
(b) spermatogonia-spermatid- (b) fructose and certain enzymes but poor in
spermatocytesperms calcium
(c) spermatocyte-spermatogonia-spermatid – (c) fructose, calcium and certain enzymes
sperms (d) fructose and calcium but has no enzymes
(d) spermatogonia – spermatocyte –
spermatid – sperms 35. Sertoli cells are found in [2010]
(a) ovaries and secrete progesterone
32. Which one of the following is the most likely
(b) adrenal cortex and secrete adrenaline
root cause why menstruation is not taking
(c) seminiferous tubules and provide,
place in regularly cycling human female ?
nutrition to germ cells
[2009]
(d) pancreas and secrete cholecystokinin
(a) maintenance of high concentration of sex-
hormones in the blood stream 36. Vasa efferentia are the ductules leading from
(b) retention of well-developed corpus (a) Testicular lobules to rete testis
luteum [2010]
(c) fertilisation of the ovum (b) Rete testis to vas deferens
(d) maintenance of the hypertrophical (c) Vas deferens to epididymis
endometrial lining. (d) Epididymis to urethra
33. Given below is a diagrammatic sketch of a 37. Seminal plasma in human males is rich in
portion of human male reproductive system.
(a) fructose and calcium [Pre. 2010]
Select the correct set of the names of the
parts (b) glucose and calcium
labelled A, B, C, D [2009] (c) DNA and testosterone
(d) ribose and potassium
38. The second maturation division of the
mammalian ovum occurs [Pre. 2010]
(a) Shortly after ovulation before the ovum
makes entry into the Fallopian tube
(b) Until after the ovum has been penetrated
by a sperm
(c) Until the nucleus of the sperm has fused
wilh that of the ovum
(d) in the Graafian follicle following the first
maturation division
39. Which one of the following statements about 44. If for some reason, the vasa efferentia in the
human sperm is correct? [Pre. 2010] humar reproductive system get blocked, the
(a) Acrosome has a conical pointed structure gametes will not be transported from
used for piercing and penetrating the egg, [Pre. 2011]
resulting in fertilisation (a) Testes to epididymis
(b) The sperm lysins in the acrosome dissolve (b) Epididymis to vas deferens
the egg envelope facilitating fertilisation (c) Ovary to uterus
(c) Acrosome serves as a sensory structure (d) Vagina to uterus
leading the sperm towards the ovum 45. The testes in humans are situated outsidethe
(d) Acrosome serves no particular function abdominal cavity inside a pouch called
40. The part of Fallopian tube closest to the ovary scrotum. The purpose served is for
is [Pre. 2010] [Pre. 2011]
(a) Isthmus (a) Maintaining the scrotal temperature
lower than the internal body temperature
(b) Infundibulum
(b) Escaping any possible compression by the
(c) Cervix
visceral organs.
(d) Ampulla
(c) Providing more space for the growth of
41. Secretions from which one of the following epididymis
are rich in fructose, calcium and some (d) Providing a secondary sexual feature for
enzymes ? [Mains 2010] exhibiting the male sex.
(a) Liver 46. The figure given below depicts a
(b) Pancreas diagrammatic sectional view of the female
(c) Salivary glands reproductive system of humans. Which one
(d) Male accessory glands set of three parts out of I-VI have been
correctly identified ? [2011]
42. What happens during fertilization in humans
after many sperms reach close to the ovum?
[Mains 2011]
(a) Only two sperms nearest the ovum
penetrate zona pellucida
(b) Secretion of acrosome helps one sperm
enter cytoplasm of ovum through zona (a) (II) Endometrium, (III) Infundibulum,
pellucid (IV) Fimbriae
(c) All sperms except the one nearest to the (b) (III) Infundibulum, (IV) Fimbriae, (V) Cervix
ovum lose their tails (c) (IV) Oviducal funnel, (V) Uterus, (VI) Cervix
(d) Cells of corona radiata trap all the sperm (d) (I) Perimetrium, (II) Myometrium,
except one (III) Fallopian tube
43. About which day in normal human menstrual 47. The secretory phase in the human menstrual
cycle does rapid secretion of LH (popularly cycle is also called : [Mains 2012]
called LH-surge) normally occurs?
(a) Follicular phase lasting for about 6 days (b)
[Mains 2011]
Luteal phase and lasts for about 13 days
(a) 11th day (b) 14th day (c) Follicular phase and lasts for about 13 days
(c) 20th day (d) 5th day (d) Luteal phase and lasts for about 6 days
48. The Leydig cells as found in the human body (d) Megaspore
are the secretory source of [Pre. 2012]
53. What is the correct sequence of sperm
(a) glucagon formation ? [2013]
(b) androgens (a) Spermatid, spermatocyte, spermatogonia,
(c) progesterone spermatozoa
(d) intestinal mucus (b) Spermatogonia, spermatocyte,
49. What is correct to say about the hormone spermatozoa, spermatid
action in humans? [Pre. 2012] (c) Spermatogonia, spermatozoa,
(a) In female, FSH first bind with specific spermatocyte, spermatid
receptor on ovarian cell membrane (d) Spermatogonia, spermatocyte, spermatid,
(b) FSH stimulates the secretion of estrogen spermatozoa
and progesterone 54. Menstruel flow occurs due to lack of [2013]
(c) Glucagon is secreted by B-cells of Islets of (a) Pnogesterme
Langerhans and stimulates glycogenolysis (b) FSH (c) Oxytocin (d) Vasopressin.
(d) Secretion of thymosins is stimulated with
ageing 55. The main function of mammalian corpus
luteum is to produce [AIPMT 2014]
50. In normal pregnant woman, the amount of
(a) Estrogen only
total gonadotropin activity was assessed.
(b) Progesterone
The result expected was [Pre. 2012]
(c) Human chorionic gonadotropin
(a) High levels of FSH and LH in uterus to
(d) Relaxin only
stimulate endometrial thickening
(b) High levels of circulating HCG to stimulate 56. Capacitation refers to changes in the : [AIPMT
estrogen and progesterone synthesis 2015]
(c) High level of circulating FSH and LH in the (a) Ovum before fertilization
uterus to stimulate implantation of the (b) Ovum after fertilization (c) Sperm after
embryo fertilization (d) Sperm before fertilization
(d) High level of circulating HCG to stimulate 57. Hysteresctomy is surgical removal of :
endometrial thickening [AIPMT 2015]
51. Which one of the following statements is false (a) Prostate gland
in respect of viability mammalian sperm (b) Vas-deference
[Pre. 2012] (c) Mammary glands
(a) Viability of sperm is determined by its (d) Uterus
motility
58. Which of the following cells during
(b) Sperm must be concentrated in a thick
gametogenesis is normally diploid?
suspension
[AIPMT 2015]
(c) Sperm is viable for only up to 24 hours
(a) Spermatid
(d) Survival of sperm depends on the pH of
(b) Spermatogonia
the medium and more active in alkaline
medium (c) Secondary polar body
52. Meiosis takes place in [2013]

(a) Meiocyte
(b) Conidia
(c) Gemmule
(d) Primary polar body Answers [RE-AIPMT 2015]

(a) LH surge
(b) Decrease in estradiol
(c) Full development of Graafian follicle
(d) Release of secondary oocyte
60. In human females, meiosis-II is not completed
until? [RE-AIPMT 2015]
(a) birth
(b) puberty
(c) fertilization
(d) uterine implantation
61. Which of the following layers in an antral
follicle is acellular ? [RE-AIPMT 2015]
(a) Zona pellucida
(b) Granulosa
59. Which of the following events is (c) Theca interna

not associated with ovulation in human (d) Stroma
female?
1 -a 2 -c 3 -c 4 -d 5 -b 6 -b 7 -b 8 -c 9 -a 10 -d 11 -d 12 -a 13 -c 14 -a 15 -b 16 -d 17 -a 18 -a 19 -b 20 -a
21 -c 22 -c 23 -a 24 -d 25 -b 26 -a 27 -d 28 -a 29 -c 30 -a 31 -d 32
-c 33 -d 34 -b 35 -c 36 -b 37 -a 38 -b 39 -b 40 -b
41 -d 42 -b 43 -b 44 -a 45 -a 46 -b 47 -b 48 -b 49 -a 50 –b
51 -c 52 -a 53 -d 54-a 55 -b 56 -d 57 -d 58 -b 59 -b 60 –c
61 -a
25B
HUMAN REPRODUCTION : HUMAN
EMBRYOLOGY
1. Cells become variable in morphology and 2. Human eggs are [1989, 97]
function in different regions of the embryo. (a) alecithal (b) microlecithal
The process is [1989] (c) mesolecithal (d) macrolecithal
(a) differentiation
3. During cleavage, what is true about cells?
(b) metamorphosis
[1991]
(c) organization (d) rearrangement
(a) Nucleocytoplasmic ratio remains 12. Cleavage in mammalian egg is [2000]

unchanged (a) equal holoblastic
(b) Size does not increase (b) unequal holoblastic
(c) There is less consumption of oxygen (c) superficial meroblastic
(d) The division is like meiosis (d) discoidal meroblastic
4. Blastopore is [1992, 2000] 13. At the time of organogenesis, genes regulate
(a) opening of neural tube the process at different levels and at different
(b) opening of gastrocoel time due to [2001]
(c) future anterior end of embryo (a) promoter (b) regulator
(d) found in blastula (c) intron (d) exon
5. Meroblastic cleavage is division [1992] 14. What is true for cleavage ? [2002]
(a) horizontal (b) partial/parietal (a) Size of embryo increases
(c) total (d) spiral (b) Size of cells decreases
6. Eye lens is formed from [1992] (c) Size of cells increases
(a) ectoderm (b) mesoderm (d) Size of embryo decreases
(c) endoderm (d) both (a) and (b) 15. During embryonic development, the
7. Amount of yolk and its distribution are establishment of polarity along anterior/
changed in the egg. Which one is affected? posterior, dorsal/ventral or medial/lateral
(a) Pattern of cleavage [1993,95] axis is called [2003]
(b) Formation of zygote (a) anamorphosis
(c) Number of blastomeres (b) pattern formation
(d) Fertilization (c) organizer phenomena
(d) axis formation
8. Termination of gastrulation is indicated by
(a) obliteration of blastocoel [1993] 16. Test-tube baby means a baby born when
(b) obliteration of archenteron [2003]
(c) closure of blastopore (a) the ovum is fertilized externally and there
(d) closure of neural tube after implanted in the uterus
(b) it develops from a non-fertilized egg
9. In telolecithal egg the yolk is found [1993]
(c) it is developed in a test tube
(a) all over the egg (b) on one side (d) it is developed through tissue culture
(c) both the sides (d) at centre method
10. What is true about cleavage in fertilized egg of 17. Gray crescent is the area [2005]
human? [1994]
(a) at the point of entry of sperm into ovum
(a) Meroblastic (b) just opposite to the site of entry of sperm
(b) Starts when egg reaches uterus (c) Starts into ovum
in fallopian tube (c) at the animal pole
(d) It is identical to normal mitosis (d) at the vegetal pole
11. Extra-embryonic membranes of the 18. The living organisms can be unexceptionally
mammalian embryo are derived from [1994] distinguished from the non-living things on
(a) inner cell mass (b) trophoblast the basis of their ability for [2007]
(c) formative cells (d) follicle cells (a) responsiveness to touch
(b) interaction with the environment and (c) Sixth month (d) Third month
progressive evolution 25. In human female the blastocyst
(c) reproduction [Mains 2010]
(d) growth and movement (a) gets implanted into uterus 3 days after
19. Which extra-embryonic membrane in humans ovulation
prevents desiccation of the embryo inside the (b) gets nutrition from uterine endometrial
uterus? secretion only after implantation
(a) Chorion (b) Allantois (c) gets implanted in endometrium by the
(c) Yolk sac (d) Amnion [2008] trophoblast cells.
(d) forms placenta even before implantation
20. Which one of the following statement is
incorrect about menstruation? [2008] 26. Signals from fully developed foetus and
(a) During normal menstruation about 40 mL placenta ultimately lead to parturition which
blood is lost requires the release of : [Mains 2010]
(b) The menstrual fluid can easily clot (a) Oxytocin from maternal pituitary
(c) At menopause in the female, there is (b) Oxytocin from foetal pituitary
especially abrupt increase in gonadotropic (c) Relaxin from placenta
hormones (d) Estrogen from placenta
(d) The beginning of the cycle of 27. The technique called gamete intrafallopian
menstruation is called menarche transfer (GIFT) is recommended for those fe-
21. Foetal ejection reflex in human female is males : [Mains 2011]
induced by: [2009] (a) who cannot provide suitable environment
(a) fully developed foetus and placenta for fertilization
(b) differentiation of mammary glands (b) who cannot produce an ovum
(c) pressure exerted by amniotic fluid (c) who cannot retain the foetus inside
(d) release of oxytocin from pituitary uterus
22. A change in the amount of yolk and its (d) whose cervical canal is too narrow to
distribution in the egg will affect [2009] allow passage for the sperms
(a) Number of blastomeres produced 28. Identify the human development stage shown
(b) Fertilization below as well as the related right place of its
(c) Formation of zygote occurrence in a normal pregnant women and
(d) Pattern of cleavage select the right option for the
two together – [Mains 2012]
23. The signals for parturition originate from
(a) placenta only [Pre. 2010]
(b) Placenta as well as fully developed foetus
(c) oxytocin released from maternal pituitary
(d) fully developed foetus only
24. The first movements of the foetus and
appearance of hair on its head are usually
observed during which month of pregnancy? Developmental Site of occurrence stage
[Pre. 2010] (a) Blastula End part of Fallopian
(a) Fourth month (b) Fifth month tube
(b) Blastocyst Uterine wall (d) introduction of sperms of a healthy donor

(c) 8-celled morula Starting point of Fallopian directly into the ovary
tube 33. Select the correct option describing
(d) Late morula Middle part of Fallopian tube gonadotropin activity in a normal pregnant
29. The test –tube baby programme employs female [AIPMT 2014]
which one of the following techniques (a) High level of FSH and LH stimulates the
[Pre. 2012] thickening of endometrium
(a) Gamete intra fallopian transfer (GIFT) (b) High level of FSH and LH
(b) Zygote intra fallopian transfer (ZIFT) facilitateimplantation of the embryo
(c) Intra cytoplasmic sperm injection (ICSI) (c) High level of hCG stimulates the synthesis
(d) Intra uterine insemination (IUI) of estrogen and progesterone
(d) High level of hCG stimulates the
30. Signals for parturition originate from
thickening of endometrium
[Pre. 2012]
34. Which of these is not an important
(a) Placenta only
component of initiation of parturition in
(b) Fully developed foetus only
humans ? [AIPMT 2015]
(c) Both placenta as well as fully developed
(a) Synthesis of prostaglandins
foetus
(b) Release of oxytocin
(d) Oxytocin released from maternal pituitary
31. Which one of the following is not the function
of placenta ? it : [2013]
(a) Facilitates supply of oxygen and Answers

nutrients to embryo
(c) Release of prolactin
(b) Secretes estrogen
(d) Increase in estrogen and progesterone
(c) Facilitates removal of carbon dioxide and ratio
waste material from embryo
(d) Secretes oxytocin during parturition 35. Ectopic pregnancies are referred to as :
[RE-AIPMT 2015]
32. Artificial insemination means : [2013]
(a) Pregnancies terminated due to hormonal
(a) transfer of sperms of a healthy donor to a imbalance
test tube containing ova
(b) Pregnancies with genetic abnormality.
(b) transfer of sperms of husband to a test
(c) Implantation of embryo at site other than
tube containing ova
uterus.
(c) artificial introduction of sperms of a
(d) Implantation of defective embryo in the
healthy donor into the vagina
uterus
1 -a 2 -a 3 -b 4 -b 5 -b 6 -a 7 -a 8 -a 9 -b 10 -c
11 -b 12 -b 13 -b 14 -b 15 -d 16 -a 17 -b 18 -c 19 -d 20 -b
21 -a 22 -d 23 -b 24 -a 25 -c 26 -a 27 -b 28 -b 29 -b 30 -c
31 -d 32 -c 33 -c 34 -c 35 -c
26
REPRODUCTIVE HEALTH
1. The concept that population tends to increase 2. In India, human population is heavily weighed
geometrically while food supply increases towards the younger age groups as a result of
arithmetically was put forward by [1995]
[1995] (a) short life span of many individuals and
(a) Stuart Mill (b) Adam Smith low birth rate
(c) Charles Darwin (b) long life span of many individuals and low
(d) Thomas Malthus birth rate
(c) short life span of many individuals and
high birth rate
(d) long life span of many individuals and (d) Mendelian populations
high birth rate
9. Tablets to prevent contraception contain
3. Test-tube baby is one who [1996] (a) progesterone (b) FSH [1999] (c) LH (d)
(a) is born out of artificial insemination Both (b) and (c)
(b) has undergone development in a test 10. The function of copper-T is to prevent [2000]
tube
(a) fertilization (b) egg maturation
(c) is born out of the technique of
(c) ovulation
fertilization in vitro
(d) implantation of blastocyst
(d) has been developed without fertilization
11. Progesterone, which is the most important
4. Human population growth in India [1996]
component of oral contraceptive pills,
(a) tends to follow a sigmoid curve as in case prevents pregnancy by [2000]
of many other animal species
(a) preventing the formation of egg
(b) tends to reach zero population growth as
(b) preventing the cleavage of the fertilized
in case of some animal species
egg
(c) can be reduced by permitting natural
(c) creating unfavourable chemical
calamities and enforcing birth control
environment for the sperms to survive in
measures
the female reproductive tract
(d) can be regulated by following the
(d) blocking ovulation
National programme of family planning
12. Probability of four sons to a couple is [2001]
5. Amniocentesis is a process to [1997]
(a) 1/4 (b) 1/8
(a) determine any disease in heart
(c) 1/16 (d) 1/32
(b) determine any hereditary disease in the
embryo 13. Frequency of an allele in an isolated
(c) know about the disease of brain population may change due to [2001]
(d) All of the above (a) genetic drift (b) gene flow
(c) mutation (d) natural selection
6. What is the most important factor for the
success of animal population ? [1997] 14. In a population, unrestricted reproductive
(a) Natality (b) Unlimited food capacity is called [2002]
(c) Adaptability (d) Inter-species activity (a) biotic potential
(b) fertility
7. Two opposite forces operate in the growth
(c) carrying capacity
and development of every population. One of
them is related to the ability to reproduce at a (d) birth rate
given rate. The force opposing to it is called 15. In a random mating population in equilibrium,
[1998, 2003] which of the following brings about a change
(a) biotic control (b) mortality in gene frequency in non-directional manner
(c) fecundity ? [2003]
(d) environmental resistance (a) Selection(b) Migration
(c) Mutation (d) Random drift
8. Genetic drift operates only in [1998, 2002]
(a) island populations 16. Random genetic drift in a population probably
(b) smaller populations results from [2003]
(c) larger populations (a) constant low mutation rate
(b) large population size (b) The food plants mature and die at the end
(c) highly genetically variable individuals of the rainy season
(d) interbreeding within this population (c) Its population growth curve is of J-type
(d) The population of its predators increases
17. Certain characteristic demographic features
enormously
of developing countries are [2004]
(a) high fertility, low or rapidly falling 22. Which one of the following is the correct
mortality rate, rapid population growth statement regarding the particular
and a very young age distribution psychotropic drug specified? [2008]
(b) high fertility, high density, rapidly rising (a) Hashish causes alter thought perceptions
mortality rate and a very young age and hallucinations
distribution (b) Opium stimulates nervous system and
(c) high infant mortality, low fertility, uneven causes hallucinations
population growth and a very young age (c) Morphine leads to delusions and
distribution disturbed emotions
(d) high mortality, high density, uneven (d) Barbiturates cause relaxation and
population growth and a very old age temporary Euphoria
distribution
23. Consider the statements given below
18. The formula for exponential population regarding contraception and answer as
growth is [2006] directed thereafter [2008]
(a) dt/dN = rN (b) dN/rN = dt (A) Medical Termination of Pregnancy
(c) rN/dN = dt (d) dN/dt = rN (MTP) during first trimester is generally
safe
19. Geometric representation of age structure is a
characteristic of [2007] (B) Generally chances of conception are nil
until mother breast-feeds the infant upto
(a) biotic community
two year
(b) population
(C) Intrauterine devices like copper-T are
(c) landscape effective contraceptives
(d) ecosystem (D) Contraception pills may be taken upto one
20. If the mean and the median pertaining to a week after coitus to prevent conception
certain character of a population are of the Which two of the above statements are
same value, the following is most likely to correct?
occur [2007] (a) B, C (b) C, D (c) A, C (d) A, B
(a) normal distribution
24. Given below are four methods (A-D) and their
(b) bi-modal distribution modes of action (1-4) in achieving
(c) T-shaped curve contraception. Select their correct matching
(d) skewed curve from the four options that follow [2008]
21. The population of an insect species shows an Method Mode of Action
explosive increase in numbers during rainy A. The pill 1. Prevents sperms
season followed by its disappearance at the Reactions cervix
end of the season. What does this show? B. Condom 2. Prevents
[2007] implantation
(a) S-shaped or sigmoid growth of this insect C. Vasectomy 3. Prevents ovulation
D. Copper T 4. Semen contains no (a) “B” is more recent showing that

population is very young.
sperms
(b) “A” is the earlier pyramid and no
A B C D changehas occurred in the growth rate.
(c) “A” is more recent and shows slight
(a) 3 1 4 2 reduction in the growth rate.
(d) “B” is earlier pyramid and shows
(b) 4 1 2 3
stabilised growth rate.
(c) 3 4 1 2 26. Cu ions released from copper-releasing Intra
(d) 2 3 1 4 Uterine Devices (IUDs) [Pre. 2010]
(a) make uterus unsuitable for implantation
25. A country with a high rate of population (b) increase phagocytosis of sperms
growth took measures to reduce it. The figure (c) suppress sperm motility
below shows age-sex pyramids of populations
(d) prevent ovulation
A and B twenty years apart. Select the correct
interpretation about them[2009] 27. The logistic population growth is expressed by
the equation : [Mains 2011]
NK
(a) dN/dt = rN N
KN
(b) dt/dN = Nr K
KN
(c) dN/dt = rN K
(d) dN/dt = rN
28. What type of human population is
represented by the following age pyramid ?
[Pre. 2011]
(a) Vanishing population

(b) Stable population
(c) Declining population
(d) Expanding population
29. Which one of the following is the most
widelyaccepted method of contraception in
Interpretations:
India, as at present ? [Pre. 2011]
(a) Cervical caps (c) Small part of vas deferens is removed or

(b) Tubectomy tied up
(c) Diaphragms (d) Uterus is removed surgically
(d) IUDs’ (Intra uterine devices) 35. Which of the following is a hormone releasing
30. Medical Termination of Pregnancy (MTP)is Intra Uterine Device (IUD)?
considered safe up to have many weeks of [AIPMT 2014]
pregnancy? [Pre. 2011] (a) Multiload 375 (b) LNG-20
(a) Eight weeks (c) Cervical cap (d) Vault
(b) Twelve weeks 36. Assisted reproductive technology, IVF
(c) Eighteen weeks involves transfer of [AIPMT 2014]
(d) Six weeks (a) Ovum into the fallopian tube
31. What is the figure given below showing the (b) Zygote into the fallopian tube
particular ? [Pre. 2012] (c) Zygote into the uterus
(d) Embryo with 16 blastomeres into the
fallopian tube
(a) Tubectomy (b) Vasectomy

(c) Ovarin cancer (d) Uterine cancer
32. One of the legal methods of birth control is
[2013]
(a) abortion by taking an appropriate
medicine
(b) by abstaining from coitus from day 10 to
17 of the menstrual cycle
(c) by having coitus at the time of day break
(d) by a premature ejaculation during coitus
33. A biologist studied the population of rats in a
barn, He found that the average natality was
250, average mortality 240, immigration 20
and emigration 30. The net increase in
population is : [2013]
(a) 10 (b) 15
(c) 05 (d) zero
34. Tubectomy is a method of sterilization in
which [AIPMT 2014]
(a) Small part of the fallopian tube is
removed or tied up
(b) Ovaries are removed surgically
Answers
(a) Germ cell internal fallopian transfer
37. A childless couple can be assisted to have a
(b) Gamete inseminated fallopian transfer
child through a technique called GIFT. The full
form of this technique is : (c) Gamete intra fallopian transfer
[RE-AIPMT 2015] (d) Gamete internal fertilization and transfer
1 -d 2 -c 3 -c 4 -d 5 -b 6 -c 7 -d 8 -b 9 -a 10 -d
11 -d 12 -c 13 -a 14 -a 15 -c 16 -c 17 -a 18 -d 19 -b 20 -a
21 -c 22 -a 23 -c 24 -a 25 -c 26 -c 27 -c 28 -c 29 -d 30 -b
31 -a 32 -a 33 -d 34 -a 35 -b 36 -b 37 -c
27
MENDELIAN GENETICS
1. Two linked genes a and b show 20% (b) all brown eyed
recombination. The individuals of a dihybrid (c) all blue eyed
cross between ++ /++ × ab/ab shall show (d) blue eyed and brown eyed 3 :1
gametes [1989] 5. A dihybrid condition is [1991]
(a) + +80 : ab 20 (a) ttRr (b) Tt rr
(b) + + 50 : ab 50 (c) tt rr (d) Tt Rr
(c) + + 40 : ab 40 : + a 10 : + b : 10
6. Mendel’s last law is [1991]
(d) + + 30 : ab 30 : + a 20 : + b : 20
(a) segregation
2. A normal green male maize is crossed with (b) dominance
albino female. The progeny is albino because
(c) independent assortment
(a) trait for albinism is dominant [1989] (d) polygenic inheritance
(b) the albinos have biochemical to destroy
plastids derived from green male 7. First geneticist/father of genetics was [1991]
(c) plastids are inherited from female parent (a) de Vries (b) Mendel
(d) green plastids of male must have mutated (c) Darwin (d) Morgan
3. Multiple alleles control inheritance of [1991] 8. The contrasting pairs of factors in Mendelian
crosses are called [1991]
(a) phenylketonuria
(b) colourblindness (a) multiple alleles(b) allelomorphs
(c) sickle cell anaemia (c) alloloci (d) paramorphs
(d) blood groups 9. The allele which is unable to express its effect
in the presence of another is called [1991]
4. Blue eye colour is recessive to brown eye
colour. A brown eyed man whose mother (a) codominant (b) supplementary
was blue eyed marries a blue eyed women. (c) complementary(d) recessive
The children shall be [1991]
(a) both blue eyed and brown eyed 1 : 1
10. RR (red) Antirrhinum is crossed with WW (a) skin colour [1993, 99, 2006, 07]
(white) one. Offspring RW are pink. This is an (b) phenylketonuria
example of [1991] (c) colourblindness
(a) dominant-recessive (d) sickle cell anaemia
(b) incomplete dominance 18. Mendel studied interitance of seven pairs of
(c) hybrid traits in pea which can have 21 possible
(d) supplementary genes combinations. If you are told that in one of
11. A gene pair hides the effect of another. The these combinations, independent
phenomenon is [1992, 95, 99] assortment is not observed in later studies,
(a) epistasis (b) dominance your reaction will be [1993]
(c) mutation (d) None of these (a) independent assortment principle may be
wrong
12. An allele is dominant if it is expressed in
(b) Mendel might not have studied all the
[1992,2002]
combinations
(a) both homozygous and heterozygous (c) it is impossible
states
(d) later studies may be wrong
(b) second generation
(c) heterozygous combination 19. Two dominant non-allelic genes are 50 map
units apart. The linkage is [1993]
(d) homozygous combination
(a) cis type (b) trans type
13. In a cross between AABB × aabb, the ratio of
(c) complete (d) absent/incomplete
F2 genotypes between AABB, AaBB, Aabb
and aabb would be [1992] 20. Which of the following is suitable for
(a) 9 : 3 : 3 : 1 (b) 2 : 1 : 1 : 2 experiment on linkage? [1993]
(c) 1 : 2 : 2 : 1 (d) 7 : 5 : 3 : 1 (a) aaBB × aaBB (b) AABB × aabb
(c) AaBb × AaBb (d) AAbb × AaBB
14. Segregation of Mendelian factors (no
linkage, no crossing over) occurs during 21. Haploid plants are preferred over diploids for
[1992] mutation study because in haploids
(a) anaphase-I (b) anaphase-II [1993]
(c) diplotene (d) metaphase-I (a) recessive mutation express immediately
(b) induction of mutations is easier
15. An organism with two identical alleles is
(c) culturing is easier
[1992]
(d) dominant mutation express immediately
(a) dominant (b) hybrid
(c) heterozygous (d) homozygous 22. The process of mating between closely
related individuals is [1994]
16. When a certain character is inherited only
(a) self breeding (b) inbreeding
through female parent, it probably
(c) hybridization (d) heterosis
represents
(a) multiple plastid inheritance [1992] 23. A fruit fly exhibiting both male and female
(b) cytoplasmic inheritance traits is [1994]
(c) incomplete dominance (a) heterozygous (b) gynandromorph
(d) Mendelian nuclear inheritance (c) hemizygous (d) gynander
17. A polygenic inheritance in human beings is

24. A woman with albinic father marries an (c) pseudodominance

albinic man. The proportion of her progeny is (d) None of these
[1994]
31. If Mendel had studied the seven traits using
(a) 2 normal : 1 albinic a plant with 12 chromosomes instead of 14,
(b) all normal in what way would his interpretation have
(c) all albinic (d) 1 normal : 1 albinic been different? [1998]
25. A cross between pure tall pea plant with (a) He would have mapped the chromosome
green pods and dwarf pea plant with yellow (b) He would have discovered blending or
pods will produce dwarf F2 plants out of 16 incomplete dominance
[1994] (c) He would not have discovered the law of
(a) 9 (b) 3 independent assortment
(c) 4 (d) 1 (d) He would have discovered sex-linkage
26. In a dihybrid cross AABB x aabb, F2 progeny 32. How many types of genetically different
of AABB, AABb, AaBB and AaBb occurs gametes will be produced by a heterozygous
in the ratio of [1994] plant having genotype AABbCc ? [1998]
(a) 1 : 1 : 1 : 1 (b) 9 : 3 : 3 : 1 (a) Two (b) Four
(c) 1 : 2 : 2 : 1 (d) 1 : 2 : 2 : 4 (c) Six (d) Nine
27. When two genetic loci produce 33. Crossing over in diploid organism is
identicalphenotypes in cis and trans position, responsible for [1998]
they are considered to be [1995] (a) dominance of genes
(a) pseudoalleles (b) linkage between genes
(b) different genes (c) segregation of alleles
(c) multiple alleles (d) recombination of linked alleles
(d) parts of same gene 34. Albinism is known to be due to an autosomal
28. Alleles that produce independent effects in recessive mutation. The first child of a couple
their heterozygous condition are called with normal skin pigmentation was an
[1996] albino. What is the probability that their
second child will also be an albino ? [1998]
(a) codominant alleles
(b) epistatic alleles (a) 100% (b) 25%
(c) complementary alleles (c) 50% (d) 75%
(d) supplementary alleles 35. Hybridization between Tt × tt gives rise to the
progeny of ratio [1999]
29. A fruit fly heterozygous for sex-linked genes,
is mated with normal female fruit fly. Male (a) 1 : 1 (b) 1 : 2 : 1
specific chromosome will enter egg cell in the (c) 1 : 2 (d) 4 : 1
proportion [1997] 36. Which one of the following characters
(a) 1 : 1 (b) 2 : 1 studied by Mendel in garden pea was found
(c) 3 : 1 (d) 7 : 1 to be dominant ? [2000]
30. When a single gene influences more than (a) Green seed colour
one traits it is called [1998] (b) Terminal flower position
(a) pleiotropy (c) Green pod colour
(b) epistasis (d) Wrinkled seed
37. In a given plant, red colour (R) of fruit (a) peroxisome, ribosome
isdominant over white fruit (r); and tallness (b) chloroplast and mitochondria
(T) is dominant over dwarfness (t). If a plant (c) mitochondria and ribosome
with genotype RRTt is crossed with a plant of (d) chloroplast and lysosome
genotype rrtt, what will be the percentage of
tall plants with red fruits in the next 44. A plant of F1-generation has genotype
generation? [2000] “AABbCC”. On selfing of this plant, the
phenotypic ratio in F2-generation will be
(a) 100% (b) 25%
(a) 3 : 1 (b) 1 : 1 [2002]
(c) 50% (d) 75%
(c) 9 : 3 : 3 : 1
38. During organ differentiation in Drosophila, (d) 27 : 9 : 9 : 9 : 3 : 3 : 3 : 1
an organ is modified to another organ (such
45. Which one of the following traits of garden
as wings may be replaced by legs) Genes
pea studied by Mendel was a recessive
responsible for such metamorphosis are
feature? [2003]
called [2000]
(a) Green pod colour
(a) double dominant genes
(b) Round seed shape
(b) plastid genes
(c) Axial flower position
(c) complementary genes
(d) Green seed colour
(d) homeotic genes
46. The genes controlling the seven pea
39. Ratio of complementary genes is [2001]
characters studied by Mendel are now
(a) 9 : 3 : 4 (b) 12 : 3 : 1 known to be located on how many different
(c) 9 : 3 : 3 : 4 (d) 9 : 7 chromosomes? [2003]
40. A and B genes are linked. What shall be the (a) Five (b) Four
genotype of progeny in a cross between (c) Seven (d) Six
AB/ab and ab/ab? [2001]
47. Genes for cytoplasmic male sterility in plants
(a) AAbb and aabb are generally located in [2003]
(b) AaBb and aabb
(a) nuclear genome
(c) AABB and aabb
(b) cytosol
(d) None of these
(c) chloroplast genome
41. Two non-allelic genes produce the new (d) mitochondrial genome
phenotype when present together but fail to
48. Two crosses between the same pair of
do so independently, it is called [2001]
genotypes or phenotypes in which the
(a) epistasis sources of the gametes are reversed in one
(b) polygene cross, is known as [2003]
(c) non-complementary gene
(a) dihybrid cross
(d) complementary gene
(b) reverse cross
42. Extranuclear inheritance occurs in [2001] (c) test cross
(a) Killer Paramecium (d) reciprocal cross
(b) Killer Amoeba 49. One of the parents of a cross has mutation in
(c) Euglena its mitochondria. In that cross, that parent is
(d) Hydra taken as a male. During segregation of F2
43. Extra nuclear chromosomes occur in[2001] progenies that mutation is found in [2004]
(a) one-third of the progenies 56. Test cross involves [2006]

(b) none of the progenies (a) crossing between two genotypes with
(c) all of the progenies recessive trait
(d) fifty per cent of the progenies (b) crossing between two F1 hybrids
50. Extranuclear inheritance is a consequence of (c) crossing the F1 hybrid with a double
presence of genes in [2004] recessive genotype
(d) crossing between two genotypes with
(a) mitochondria and chloroplasts
dominant trait
(b) endoplasmic reticulum and mitochondria
(c) ribosomes and chloroplast 57. In which mode of inheritance do you
(d) lysosomes and ribosomes expectmore maternal influence among the
offspring? [2006]
51. A male human is heterozygous for autosomal
(a) Autosomal
genes A and B and is also hemizygous for
(b) Cytoplasmic
haemophilic gene h. What proportion of
his sperms will be abh ? [2004] (c) Y-linked
(d) X-linked
(a) 1/8 (b) 1/32
(c) 1/16 (d) 1/4 58. In Mendel’s experiments with garden pea,
round seed shape (RR) was ‘dominant over
52. In a plant, red fruit (R) is dominant over yel-
wrinkled seeds (rr), yellow cotyledon (YY)
low fruit (r) and tallness (T) is dominant over
was dominant over green cotyledon (yy).
shortness (t). If a plant with RRTt genotype is
What are the expected phenotypes in the F2
crossed with a plant that is rrtt, [2004]
generation of the cross RRYY × rryy ? [2006]
(a) 25% will be tall with red fruit (a) Only round seeds with green cotyledons
(b) 50% will be tall with red fruit (b) Only wrinkled seeds with yellow cotyledons
(c) 75% will be tall with red fruit (c) Only wrinkled seeds with green cotyledons
(d) all of the offspring will tall with red fruit (d) Round seeds with yellow cotyledons and
53. In order to find out the different types of wrinkled seeds with yellow cotyledons
gametes produced by a pea plant having the 59. A human male produces sperms with the
genotype AaBb, it should be crossed to a genotypes AB, Ab, aB and ab pertaining to
plant with the genotype [2005] two diallelic characters in equal proportions.
(a) aaBB (b) AaBb What is the corresponding genotype of this
(c) AABB (d) aabb person? [2007]
54. Phenotype of an organism is the result of (a) AaBb (b) AaBB
[2006] (c) AABb (d) AABB
(a) mutations and linkages 60. The genotype of a plant showing the
(b) cytoplasmic effects and nutrition dominant phenotype can be determined by
(c) environmental changes and sexual [Pre. 2010]
dimorphism (a) Test cross
(d) genotype and environmental interactions (b) Dihybrid cross
(c) Pedigree analysis
55. How many different kinds of gametes will be
produced by a plant having the genotype (d) Back cross
AABbCC? [2006] 61. Select the correct statement from the ones
(a) Three (b) Four (c) Nine (d) Two given below with respect to dihybrid cross.
[Pre. 2010] [Mains 2010]

(a) Tightly linked genes on the same
chromosome show higher
recombinations
(b) Genes far apart on the same chromosome
show very few recombinations
(a) The parents could not have had a normal
(c) Genes loosely linked on the same
daughter for this character
chromosome show similar
(b) The trait under study could not be colour-
recombinations as the tightly linked ones
blindness
(d) Tightly linked genes on the same
(c) The male parent is homozygous dominant
chromosome show very few
recombinations. (d) The female parent is heterozygous
62. Test cross in plants or in Drosophila involves 66. ABO blood grouping is controlled by gene 1
crossing: [Pre. 2011] which has three alleles and show co-
dominance. There are six genotypes. How
(a) Between two genotypes with dominant
many phenotypes in all are possible ?
trait
[Mains 2010]
(b) Between two genotypes with recessive
trait (a) Three (b) Four
(c) Between two F1 hybrids (c) Five (d) Six
(d) The F1 hybrid with a double recessive 67. The fruit fly Drosophila melanogaster was
genotype found to be very suitable for experimental
verification of chromosomal theory of
63. In Antirrhinum two plants with pink flowers
inheritance by Morgan and his colleagues
were hybridized. The F1 plants produced red, because [Mains 2010]
pink and white flowers in the proportion of 1
red, 2 pink and 1 white. What could be the (a) a single mating produces two young flies
genotype of the two plants used for (b) smaller female is easily recognisable from
hybridization ? Red flower colour is larger male
determined by RR, and white by rr genes (c) it completes life cycle in about two weeks
[Mains 2010] (d) it reproduces parthenogenetically.
(a) RR (b) Rr 68. Which one of the following symbols and its
(c) rr (d) rrrr representation, used in human pedigree
analysis is correct? [Pre. 2010]
64. A cross in which an organism showing a
dominant phenotype in crossed with the
recessive parent in order to know its (a) = mating between
genotype in called [Mains 2010] relatives
(a) Back cross (b)= unaffected male
(b) Test cross (c)= unaffected female
(c) Dihybrid cross
(d) Monohybrid cross (d)= male affected
65. Study the pedigree chart of a certain family 69. When two unrelated individuals or lines are
given below are select the correct conclusion crossed, the performance of F1 hybrid is
which can be drawn for the character.
often superior to both its parents. This (a) Monohybrid cross with complete
phenomenon is called [Pre. 2011] dominance
(a) Heterosis (b) Monohybrid cross with incomplete
(b) Transformation (c) Splicing dominance
(d) Metamorphosis (c) Co-dominance
70. Mutations can be induced with [Pre. 2011] (d) Dihybrid cross
(a) Infra Red radiations 75. A certain road accident patient with
(b) IAA unknown blood group needs immediate
(c) Ethylene blood transfusion his doctor friend at ones
(d) Gamma radiations offers his blood what was the blood group of
the
71. A person with unknown blood group under
donor? [Pre. 2012]
ABO system, has suffered much blood loss in
an accident and needs immediate blood (a) Blood group O (b) Blood group A
transfusion. His one friend who has a valid (c) Blood group B
certificate of his own blood type, offers for (d) Blood group AB
blood donation without delay. What would 76. Which of the following statements is not true
have been the type of blood group of the do- of two genes that show 50% recombination
nor friend ? [Pre. 2011] frequency ? [2013]
(a) Type B (a) The genes may be on different
(b) Type AB chromosomes
(c) Type O (b) The genes are tightly linked
(d) Type A (c) The genes show independent assortment
72. A test cross is carried out to [Mains 2012] (d) If the genes are present on the same
(a) Predict whether two traits are linked chromosome, they undergo more than
one crossovers in every meiosis
(b) Assess the number of alleles of a gene
(c) Determine whether two species or 77. If two persons with ‘AB’ blood group marry
varieties will breed successfully and have sufficiently large number of
(d) Determine the genotype of a plant at F2 children, these children could be classified as
‘A’ blood group : ‘AB’ blood group : ‘B’ blood
73. The idea of mutations was brought forth by group in 1 : 2 : 1 ratio. Modern technique of
[Mains 2012] protein electrophoresis reveals presence of
(a) Gregor Mendel, who worked on Pisum both ‘A’ and ‘B’ type proteins in ‘AB’ blood
sativum group individuals. This is an example of
(b) Hardy Weinberg, who worked on allele [2013]
frequencies in a population (a) Codominance
(c) Charles Darwin, who observed a wide (b) Incomplete dominance
variety of organisms during sea voyage (c) Partial dominance
(d) Hugo do Vries, who worked on evening (d) Complete dominance
primrose
78. Which mendelian idea is depicted by a cross
74. F2 generation in a Mendelian cross showed in which the F1 generation resembles both
that both genotypic and phenotypic ratios the parents ? [2013]
are same as 1 : 2 : 1. It represents a case of (a) incomplete dominance
[Pre. 2012]
(b) law of dominance (b) At the same locus of the chromosome

(c) inheritance of one gene (c) On non-sister chromatids
(d) co-dominance (d) On different chromosomes
79. Fruit colour in squash is an example of 85. A man with blood group ‘A’ marries a woman
[AIPMT 2014] with blood group ‘B’. What are all the possible
(a) Recessive epistasis blood groups of their offsprings? [AIPMT 2015]
(b) Dominant epistasis (a) A, B and AB only
(c) Complementary genes (b) A, B, AB and O
(d) Inhibitory genes (c) O only
(d) A and B only
80. A man whose father was colour blind marries
a woman who had a colour blind mother and 87. Alleles are : [AIPMT 2015]
normal father. What percentage of male (a) true breeding homozygotes
children of this couple will be colour blind? (b) different molecular forms of a gene
[AIPMT 2014] (c) heterozygotes
(a) 25% (b) 0% (d) different phenotype
(c) 50% (d) 75%
88. An abnormal human baby with ‘XXX’ sex
81. In a population of 1000 individuals 360 chromosomes was born due to :
belong to genotype AA, 480 to Aa and the [AIPMT 2015]
remaining 160 to aa. Based on this data, the (a) formation of abnormal ova in the mother
frequency of allele A in the population is
(b) fusion of two ova and one sperm
[AIPMT 2014]
(c) fusion of two sperms and one ovum
(a) 0.4 (b) 0.5 (d) formation of abnormal sperms in the father
(c) 0.6 (d) 0.7
89. A colour blind man marries a woman with
82. A human female with Turner’s syndrome normal sight who has no history of
[AIPMT 2014] colourblindness in her family.
(a) Has 45 chromosomes with XO What is the probability of their grandson being
(b) Has one additional X chromosome colourblind ? [RE-AIPMT 2015]
(c) Exhibits male characters (a) 0.25 (b) 0.5
(d) Is able to produce children with normal (c) 1 (d) Nil
husband
90. The term “linkage” was coined by :
83. The movement of a gene from one linkage [RE-AIPMT 2015]
group to another is called : [AIPMT 2015]
(a) W.Sutton
(a) Duplication (b) Translocation (b) T.H. Morgan
(c) Crossing over (d) Inversion (c) T.Boveri
84. How many pairs of contrasting characters in (d) G.Mendel
pea plants were studied by Mendel in his 91. A pleiotropic gene : [RE-AIPMT 2015]
experiments ? [AIPMT 2015]
(a) controls multiple traits in an individual
(a) Six (b) Eight
(b) is expressed only in primitive plants
(c) Seven (d) Five
(c) is a gene evolved during Pliocene
86. Multiple alleles are present : [AIPMT 2015] (a) (d) controls a trait only in combination with
At different loci on the same chromosome another gene
92. In his classic

experiments on pea plants, Answers
Mendel did not use : [RE-AIPMT 2015]
(a) Chromosome, genome, nucleotide, gene (b)
(a) Flower position
Chromosome, gene, genome, nucleotide (c)
(b) Seed colour Genome, chromosomes, nucleotide, gene
(c) Pod length (d) Genome, chromosome, gene, nucleotide
(d) Seed shape
95. In the following human pedigree, the filled
93. A gene showing codominance has : symbols represent the affected individuals.
[RE-AIPMT 2015] Identify the type of given pedigree.
(a) both alleles independently expressed in the [RE-AIPMT 2015]
heterozygote I
(b) one allele dominant on the other
(c) alleles tightly linked on the same II
chromosome
(d) alleles that are recessive to each other III
94. Identify the correct order of organisation of IV

genetic material from largest to smallest (a) X-linked dominant
: (b) Autosomal dominant
[RE-AIPMT 2015] (c) X-linked recessive
(d) Autosomal recessive
1 -c 2 -c 3 -d 4 -a 5 -d 6 -c 7 -b 8 -b 9 -d 10 -b
11 -a 12 -a 13 -c 14 -a 15 -d 16 -b 17 -a 18 -b 19 -d 20 -b 21 -a 22 -b 23 -b 24 -d 25 -c 26 -d 27 -a 28 -a 29
-a 30 -a
31 -c 32 -b 33 -d 34 -b 35 -a 36 -c 37 -c 38 -d 39 -d 40 -b
41 -d 42 -a 43 -b 44 -a 45 -d 46 -b 47 -d 48 -d 49 -b 50 -a
51 -a 52 -b 53 -d 54 -d 55 -d 56 -c 57 -b 58 -d 59 -a 60 -a
61 -d 62 -a 63 -b 64 -b 65 -d 66 -b 67 -c 68 -d 69 -a 70 -d 71 -c 72
-d 73 -d 74 -b 75 -a 76 -b 77 -a 78 -b 79 -b 80 -c 81 -c 82 -a 83
-b 84 -c 85 -b 86 -b 87 -b 88 -a 89 -d 90 -b
91 -a 92 -c 93 -a 94 -d 95 -d
28
MOLECULAR BASIS OF INHERITANCE
1. Diploid chromosome number in humans is (a) her mother and maternal grandfather
(a) 46 (b) 44 [1989] (c) 48 (d) 42 were colourblind
(b) her father and maternal grandfather
2. DNA replication is [1989]
were colourblind
(a) conservative and discontinuous (c) her mother is colourblind and father has
(b) semi-conservative and semi- normal vision
discontinuous (d) parents have normal vision but grand
(c) semi-conservative and discontinuous parents were colourblind
(d) conservative
7. The process of transfer of genetic information
3. Both husband and wife have normal vision from DNA to RNA/formation of RNA from
though their fathers were colourblind. The DNA is [1991]
probability of their daughter becoming (a) trnsversion (b) transcription
colourblind is [1990]
(c) translation (d) translocation
(a) 0% (b) 25%
8. Escherichia coli fully labelled with N15 is
(c) 50% (d) 75%
allowed to grow in N14 medium. The two
4. Haemophilia is more common in males strands of DNA molecule of the first
because it is a [1990] generation bacteria have [1992]
(a) recessive character carried by Y- (a) different density and do not resemble
chromosome parent DNA
(b) dominant character carried by Y- (b) different density but resemble parent
chromosome DNA
(c) dominant trait carried by X-chromosome (c) same density and resemble parent DNA
(d) recessive trait carried by X-chromosome (d) same density but do not resemble parent
5. Which one is a hereditary disease? DNA
[1990] 9. Khorana first deciphered the triplet codons of
(a) Cataract (b) Leprosy [1992]
(c) Blindness (d) Phenylketonuria (a) serine and isoleucine
6. A colourblind girl is rare because she will be (b) threonine and histidine
born only when [1991] (c) tyrosine and tryptophan
(d) phenylalanine and methionine (a) by ovum

10. Experimental material in the study of DNA (b) at the time of fertilization
replication has been [1992] (c) 40 days after fertilization
(a) Escherichia coli (d) seventh to eight week when genitals
(b) Neurospora crassa differentiate in foetus
(c) Pneumococcus 17. Mr. Kapoor has Bb autosomal gene pair and d
(d) Drosophila melanogaster allele sex-linked. What shall be proportion
11. Out of 8 ascospores formed in Neurospora of Bd in sperms? [1993]
the arrangement is 2a : 4a : 2a showing [1992] (a) 0 (b) 1/2
(a) no crossing over (c) 1/4 (d) 1/8
(b) some meiosis 18. Of both normal parents, the chance of a male
(c) second generation division child becoming colourblind are
(d) first generation division [1993]
12. Down’s syndrome is due to (a) no
[1992, 2000, 02, 03] (b) possible only when all the four grand
parents had normal vision
(a) crossing over
(c) possible only when father’s mother was
(b) linkage
colourblind
(c) sex-linked inheritance
(d) possible only when mother’s father was
(d) non-disjunction of chromosomes
colourblind
13. A colourblind mother and normal father
19. The transforming principle of Pneumococcus
would have [1992,99,2006]
as found out by Avery, MacLeod and McCarty
(a) colourblind sons and normal/carrier was
daughters
(a) mRNA (b) DNA [1993]
(b) colourblind sons and daughters
(c) protein (d) polysaccharide
(c) all colourblind
(d) all normal 20. Because most of the amino acids are
represented by more than one codon, the
14. In human beings 45 chromosomes/single genetic code is [1993, 2002]
X/XO abnormality causes [1992]
(a) overlapping (b) Wobbling
(a) Down’s syndrome (c) degenerate (d) generate
(b) Klinefelter’s syndrome
21. Who proved that DNA is basic genetic
(c) Turner’s syndrome
material? [1993]
(d) Edward’s syndrome
(a) Griffith
15. Of a normal couple, half the sons are (b) Watson
haemophilic while half the daughters are
(c) Boveri and Sutton
carriers. The gene is located on [1993]
(d) Hershey and Chase
(a) X-chromosome of father
(b) Y-chromosome of father 22. During DNA replication, the strands separate
by [1993]
(c) one X-chromosome of mother
(d) both the X-chromosomes of mother (a) DNA polymerase
(b) topoisomerase
16. Sex is determined in human beings
(c) unwindase/helicase
[1993]
(d) gyrase
23. The process of translation is [1993] (a) (c) DNAligase (d) topoisomerase
ribosome synthesis 32. Which is not involved in protein synthesis?
(b) protein synthesis [1994]
(c) DNA synthesis (a) Transcription (b) Initiation
(d) RNA synthesis (c) Elongation (d) Termination
24. A DNA with unequal nitrogen bases would 33. Genes located on Y-chromosome are [1994]
most probably be [1993] (a) mutant genes (b) sex-linked genes
(a) single stranded (c) autosomal genes
(b) double stranded (d) holandric genes
(c) triple stranded 34. A colourblind woman marries a normal
(d) four stranded visioned male. In the offspring [1994]
25. Nucleosome core is made of [1993] (a) both son and daughter are colourblind
(a) H1, H2A, H2B and H3 (b) all daughters are colourblind
(b) H1, H2A, H2B, H4 (c) all sons are normal
(c) H1, H2A, H2B, H3 and H4 (d) all sons are colourblind
(d) H2A, H2B, H3 and H4 35. Out of A=T, G C pairing, bases of DNA may
26. Initiation codon of protein synthesis (in exist in alternate valency state owing to
eukaryotes) is [1993, 94, 99, 2000] arrangement called [1994]
(a) GUA (b) GCA (c) CCA (d) AUG (a) analogue substitution
(b) tautomerizational mutation
27. The number of base substitution possible in
amino acid codons is [1994] (c) frameshift mutation
(d) point mutation
(a) 261 (b) 264
(c) 535 (d) 549 36. The wild type E. coli cells are growing in
normal medium with glucose. They are
28. Reverse transcriptase is [1994]
transferred to a medium containing only
(a) RNA dependent RNA polymerase lactose as sugar. Which of the following
(b) DNA dependent RNA polymerase changes takes place? [1995]
(c) DNA dependent DNA polymerase (a) The lac operon is repressed
(d) RNA dependent DNA polymerase (b) All operons are induced
29. In Escherichia coli lac Operon is induced by (c) The lac operon is induced
(a) lactose [1994] (d) E. coli cells stop dividing
(b) promoter gene 37. Anticodon is an unpaired triplet of bases in an
(c) -galactosidase exposed position of [1995]
(d) I-gene (a) mRNA (b) rRNA (c) tRNA (d) sRNA
30. DNA template sequence of CTGATAGC is 38. If the sequence of bases in DNA is ATTCGATG,
transcribed over mRNA as [1994] then the sequence of bases in its transcript
(a) GUCTUTCG (b) GACUAUCG will be [1995]
(c) GAUTATUG (d) UACTATCU (a) CAUCGAAU (b) UAAGCUAC (c)
GUAGCUUA (d) AUUCGAUG
31. Protein helping in opening of DNA double
helix in front of replications fork is [1994] 39. In split genes, the coding sequence are called
[1995]
(a) DNAgyrase (b) DNA polymerase-I
(a) introns (b) operons 46. The translation termination triplet is[1996]
(c) exons (d) cistrons (a) UAU (b) UAA (c) UAC (d) UGC
40. The change of the light coloured variety of 47. Okazaki fragments are seen during
peppered moth (Biston betularia) to its [1996]
darker variety (Biston carbonarid) is due to (a) transcription (b) translation
[1995] (c) replication (d) transduction
(a) mutation
48. An enzyme that joins the ends of two strands
(b) regeneration
of nucleic acid is a [1996, 2002]
(c) genetic isolation
(a) polymerase (b) synthetase
(d) temporal isolation
(c) helicase (d) ligase
41. The polytene chromosomes were discovered
for the first time in [1995] 49. H. J. Muller was awarded Nobel Prize for his
[1996]
(a) Drosophila (b) Chironomus
(a) discovery that chemicals can induce gene
(c) Musca nebulo (d) Musca domestica
mutations
42. The most striking example of point mutation (b) discovery that ionizing radiations can
is found in a disease called [1995] induce gene mutations
(a) thalassemia (c) work on gene mapping in Drosophila
(b) night blindness (d) efforts to prevent the use of nuclear
(c) Down’s syndrome weapons
(d) sickle cell anaemia 50. After crossing two plants, the progenies are
43. Barr body in mammals represents [1995, 96] found to be male sterile. This phenomenon is
(a) all the heterochromatin in female cells found to be maternally inherited and is due
(b) Y-chromosomes in somatic cells of male to some genes which are present in
[1997]
(c) all heterochromatin in male and female
cells (a) nucleus (b) chloroplast
(d) one of the two X-chromosomes in (c) mitochondria (d) cytoplasm
somatic cells of females 51. Different mutations referrable to the same
44. An individual exhibiting both male and female locus of chromosome give rise to [1997]
sexual characteristics in the body is known as (a) pseudoalleles (b) polygenes
[1996] (c) oncogenes (d) multiple alleles
(a) hermaphrodite 52. Genetic identity of a human male is
(b) intersex determined by [1997]
(c) gynandromorph (a) autosome (b) nucleolus
(d) bisexual (c) sex chromosome
45. A person with 47 chromosomes due to an (d) cell organelles
additional Y-chromosome suffers from a 53. The hereditary material present in the
condition called [1996, 97] bacterium E. coli is [1997]
(a) Down’s syndrome (a) single stranded RNA
(b) Super female (b) double stranded RNA
(c) Turner’s syndrome (c) single stranded DNA
(d) Klinefelter’s syndrome (d) double stranded DNA
54. Genes are packaged into a bacterial (d) maintaining genetic continuity
chromosome by [1997]
61. The formation of multivalents at meiosis in
(a) histones (b) basic protein diploid organism is due to [1998]
(c) acidic protein (d) actin (a) monosomy (b) inversion
55. The codons causing chain termination are (c) deletion
(a) TAG, TAA, TGA [1997] (d) reciprocal translocation
(b) GAT, AAT, AGT 62. Loss of an X-chromosome in a particular cell,
(c) AGT, TAG, UGA during its development, results into [1998]
(d) UAA, UAG, UGA (a) diploid individual
56. The RNA that picks up specific amino acid (b) triploid individual
from amino acid pool in the cytoplasm to (c) gynandromorphs
ribosome during protein synthesis is called (d) both (a) and (b)
[1997]
63. Which base is responsible for hot spots for
(a) mRNA (b) tRNA spontaneous point mutations ? [1998]
(c) rRNA (d) RNA
(a) Guanine (b) Adenine
57. A mutation at one base of the first codon of a (c) 5-bromouracil (d) 5-methylcytosine
gene produces a non-functional protein. Such
64. Mental retardation in man, associated with
(a) mutation is referred as [1997]
sex chromosomal abnormality is usually due
(a) frameshift mutation to [1998]
(b) mis-sense mutation
(a) reduction in X-complement
(c) nonsense mutation
(b) increase in X-complement
(d) reverse mutation
(c) moderate increase in Y-complement
58. Foetal sex can be determined by (d) large increase in Y-complement
examiningcells from the amniotic fluid by
65. Genes that are involved in turning on or off
looking for
the transcription of a set of structural genes
[1997]
are called [1998]
(a) Barr bodies (b) autosomes
(a) polymorphic genes
(c) chiasmata (d) kinetochore
(b) operator genes
59. Protein synthesis in an animal cell takes place (c) reductant genes (d) regulatory genes
[1997]
66. DNA elements, which can switch their
(a) only in the cytoplasm
position, are called [1998]
(b) in the nucleolus as well as in the
(a) exons (b) introns
cytoplasm
(c) cistrons (d) transposons
(c) in the cytoplasm as well as in
mitochondria 67. A woman with two genes (one on each
(d) only on ribosomes attached to a nucleus ‘X’chromosome) for haemophilia and one
gene for colourblindness on the ‘X’
60. The mutations are mainly responsible for
chromosomes marries a normal man. How
[1997] will the progeny be ? [1998]
(a) constancy in organisms (a) All sons and daughters haemophilic and
(b) variation in organisms colourblind
(c) increasing the population rate (b) Haemophilic and colourblind daughters
(c) 50% haemophilic colourblind sons and 74. During replication of DNA, its two
50% haemophilic sons strandsseparate. Each of these serves as a
(d) 50% haemophilic daughters and 50% template for the formation of new strands.
colourblind daughters Such type of replication is called
[2000]
68. Which of the following is the main category of
mutation ? [1999] (a) non-conservative
(a) Somatic mutation (b) semi-conservative
(b) Genetic mutation (c) Zygotic mutation (c) flexible
(d) All of these (d) conservative
75. Drosophila flies with XXY genotype are
69. In DNA when AGCT occurs, their association
females, but human beings with such
is as per which of the following pair?
genotype are abnormal males. It shows that
[1999]
[2000]
(a) AC-GT (b) AG-CT
(a) Y-chromosome is essential for sex
(c) AT-GC (d) All of these
determination in Drosophila
70. Haemophilic man marries a normal woman. (b) Y-chromosome is female determinating
Their offspring will be [1999] in Drosophila
(a) all boys haemophilic (c) Y-chromosome is male determining in
(b) all normal human beings
(c) all girls haemophilic (d) Y-chromosome has no role in sex
(d) all haemophilic determination either in Drosophila or in
human beings
71. The Pneumococcus experiment proves that
[1999] 76. ‘Signal hypothesis’ for the biosynthesis
ofsecretory type of proteins was proposed by
(a) DNA is the genetic material
[2000]
(b) RNA sometime controls the production
of DNA and proteins (a) Camillo Golgi (b) Blobel and Sabatini
(c) bacteria undergo binary fission (c) Baltimore (d) Sheeler and Bianchi
(d) bacteria do not reproduce sexually 77. Due to discovery of which of the following in
72. Mutation generally produces [2000] 1980’s the evolution was termed as RNA
world? [2001]
(a) recessive genes (b) lethal genes
(a) mRNA, tRNA, rRNA synthesize proteins
(c) polygenes (d) dominant genes
(b) In some viruses, RNA is genetic
73. In an animal cell, protein synthesis takes material
place [2000] (c) Some RNAs have enzymatic property
(a) only on the ribosomes present in the (d) RNA is not found in all cells
cytosol
78. E. coli about to replicate was placed in
(b) only on the ribosomes attached to
amedium containing radioactive thymidine
nuclear envelope and endoplasmic
for five minutes. Then it was made to
reticulum
replicate in a normal medium.Which of the
(c) on ribosomes present in the nucleolus as following observation shall be correct?
well as in cytoplasm [2001]
(d) on ribosomes present in the cytosol as
(a) Both the strands of DNA will be radio-
well as in the mitochondria
active
(b) One strand radioactive (b) co-repressor does not bind with
(c) Each strand half radioactive repressor
(d) None is radioactive (c) co-repressor binds with inducer
79. Male XX and female XY sometime occur due (d) cAMP has negative effect on lac operon
to [2001] 86. A mutant strain of T4-bacteriophage R-II, fails
(a) deletion to lyse the E. coli but when two strains R - IIx
(b) transfer of segments in X and Y- and R - IIy are mixed then they lyse the E. coli.
chromosomes What may be the possible reason?
(c) aneuploidy [2002]
(d) hormonal imbalance (a) Bacteriophage transforms in wild (b) It is
not mutated
80. Number of Barr bodies in XXXX female (c) Both strains have similar cistrons
[2001]
(d) Both strains have different cistrons
(a) 1 (b) 2
87. Change in the sequence of nucleotide in
(c) 3 (d) 4
DNA is called as [2002]
81. Gene and cistron words are sometimes used (a) mutagen (b) mutation
synonymously because [2001]
(c) recombination (d) translation
(a) one cistron contains many genes
(b) one gene contains many cistrons 88. Sequence of which of the following is used to
know the phylogeny ? [2002]
(c) one gene contains one cistron
(d) one gene contains no cistron (a) mRNA (b) rRNA
(c) tRNA (d) DNA
82. In which direction mRNA is synthesized on
DNA template? [2001] 89. Pleiotropic gene is [2002]
(a) haemophilia
(a) 5' 3' (b) 3' 5'
(b) thalassemia
(c) Both (a) and (b)(d) Any of these
(c) sickle cell anaemia
83. Which of these do not follow independent (d) colourblindness
assortment ? [2001]
90. In E. coli, during lactose metabolism
(a) Genes on non-homologous
repressor binds to [2002]
chromosomes and absence of linkage
(a) regulator gene (b) operator gene
(b) Genes on homologous chromosomes
(c) structural gene (d) promoter gene
(c) Linked genes on same chromosome
(d) Unlinked genes on same chromosome 91. Jacob and Monod studied lactose metabolism
in E. coli and proposed Operon concept.
84. In his experiment, Mendel obtained wrinkled
Operon concept applicable for [2002]
pea. The wrinkling was due to deposition of
sugar instead of starch. This happened due to (a) all prokaryotes
the enzyme [2001] (b) all prokaryotes and some eukaryotes
(a) amylase (c) all prokaryotes and all eukaryotes
(b) invertase (d) all prokaryotes and some protozoans
(c) diastase 92. In a DNA percentage of thymine is 20. What
(d) absence of starch-branching enzyme is the percentage of guanine ? [2002]
85. In negative operon [2001] (a) 20% (b) 40%
(a) co-repressor binds with repressor (c) 30% (d) 60%
93. Nucleus of a donor embryonal cell/somatic 99. Genetic map is one that [2003]
cell is transferred to an enucleated egg cell. (a) shows the stages during the cell division
Then after the formation of organism, what (b) shows the distribution of various species
shall be true ? [2002] in a region
(a) Organism will have extra-nuclear genes (c) establishes sites of the genes on a
of the donor cell chromosome
(b) Organism will have extra-nuclear genes (d) establishes the various stages in gene
of recipient cell evolution
(c) Organism will have extra-nuclear genes
of both donor and recipient cell 100. Which one of the following triplet codes, is
correctly matched with its specificity for an
(d) Organism will have nuclear genes of
amino acid in protein synthesis or as ‘start’
recipient cell
or ‘stop’ codon ? [2003]
94. Which of the following is the example of (a) UGU—Leucine(b) UAC—Tyrosine
sexlinked disease ? [2002] (c) UCG—Start (d) UUU—Stop
(a) AIDS (b) Colourblindness
101. During translation initiation in prokaryotes, a
(c) Syphilis (d) Gonorrhoea
GTP molecule is needed in [2003]
95. Which statements is correct for bacterial (a) association of 30S, mRNA with
transduction ? [2002] formylmet rRNA
(a) Transfer of some genes from one (b) association of 50S subunit of ribosome
bacteria to another bacteria through with initiation complex
virus (c) formation of formylmet tRNA
(b) Transfer of genes from one bacteria to (d) binding of 30S subunit of ribosome with
another bacteria by conjugation mRNA
(c) Bacteria obtained its DNA directly
102. In recent years, DNA sequences (nucleotide
(d) Bacteria obtained DNA from other
sequence) of mtDNA and Y-chromosomes
external source
were considered for the study of human evo-
96. There are three,genes a, b, c, percentage of lution, because [2003]
crossing over between a and b is 20%, b and (a) their structure is known in greater detail
c is 28% and a and c is 8%. What is the (b) they can be studied from the samples of
sequence of genes on chromosome? [2002] fossil remains
(a) b, a, c (b) a, b, c (c) they are small and therefore, easy to
(c) a, c, b (d) None of these study
97. Which of the following reunites the exon (d) they are uniparental in origin and do not
segments after RNA splicing? [2002] take part in recombination
(a) RNA polymerase 103. In Drosophila, the sex is determined by
(b) RNAprimase [2003]
(c) RNAligase (a) the ratio of pairs of X-chromosomes to
(d) RNA protease the pairs of autosomes
98. Exon part of mRNAs have code for (b) whether the egg is fertilized or develops
[2002] parthenogenetically
(a) protein (b) lipid (c) the ratio of number of X-chromosomes
to the set of autosomes
(c) carbohydrate (d) phospholipid
(d) X and Y-chromosomes
104. When a cluster of genes show linkage 110. The linkage map of X-chromosome of fruit fly
behaviour they [2003] has 66 units, with yellow body gene (y) at one
(a) do not show independent assortment end and bobbed hair (b) gene at the other
(b) induce cell division end. The recombination frequency between
these two genes (y and b) should be [2003]
(c) do not show a chromosome map
(d) show recombination during meiosis (a) < 50 % (b) 100%
105. Degeneration of a genetic code is attributed (c) 66% (d) >50%
to the [2003] 111. Chromosomes in a bacterial cell can be 1-3 in
number and [2003]
(a) entire codon
(b) third member of a codon (a) can be either circular or linear, but never
(c) first member of a codon both within the same cell
(d) second member of a codon (b) can be circular as well as linear within the
same cell
106. Which of the following discoveries resulted in (c) are always circular
a Nobel Prize ? [2003] (d) are always linear
(a) Recombination of linked genes
112. During transcription, the DNA site at which
(b) Genetic engineering
RNA polymerase binds is called [2003]
(c) X-rays induce sex-linked recessive lethal
mutations (a) receptor (b) enhancer
(d) Cytoplasmic inheritance (c) promoter (d) regulator
107. Down’s syndrome is caused by an extra copy 113. What does “lac” refer to in what we call the
of chromosome number 21. What lac operon ? [2003]
percentage of offspring produced by an (a) Lac insect
affected mother and a normal father would (b) The number, 1,00,000
be affected by this disorder? [2003] (c) Lactose
(a) 50% (b) 25% (d) Lactase
(c) 100% (d) 75% 114. Pattern baldness, moustaches and beard in
108. What would happen if in a gene encoding a human males are examples of [2003]
polypeptide of 50 amino acids, 25th codon (a) sex differentiating traits
(UAU) is mutated to UAA ? [2003] (b) sex determining traits
(a) A polypeptide of 49 amino acids will be (c) sex linked traits
formed (d) sex limited traits
(b) A polypeptide of 25 amino acids will be
115. In a mutational event, when adenine is
formed
replaced by guanine, it is the case of [2004]
(c) A polypeptide of 24 amino acids will be
(a) frameshift mutation
formed
(b) transcription
(d) Two polypeptides of 24 and 25 amino
acids will be formed (c) transition
(d) transversion
109. In the genetic code dictionary, how many
codons are used to code for all the 20 116. Lack of independent assortment of two genes
essential amino acids ? [2003] A and B in fruit fly Drosophila is due to
[2004]
(a) 61 (b) 60
(c) 20 (d) 64 (a) repulsion (b) recombination
(c) linkage (d) crossing over
117. During transcription, the nucleotide (c) adenine rich repeats

sequence of the DNA strand that is being (d) guanine rich repeats
coded is ATACG, then the nucleotide
124. After a mutation at genetic locus the
sequence in the mRNA would be [2004]
character of an organism changes due to the
(a) TATGC (b) TCTGG change in [2004]
(c) UAUGC (d) UATGG (a) protein structure (b) DNA replication
118. The recessive genes located on X- (c) protein synthesis pattern
chromosome’ in humans are always [2004] (d) RNA transcription pattern
(a) lethal
125. During replication of a bacterial chromosome
(b) sublethal
DNA synthesis starts from a replication origin
(c) expressed in males site and [2004]
(d) expressed in females
(a) RNA primers are involved
119. Crossing over that results in genetic (b) is facilitated by telomerase
recombination in higher organisms occurs (c) moves in one direction of the site
between [2004] (d) moves in bi-directional way
(a) sister chromatids of bivalent
126. A normal woman whose father was
(b) non-sister chromatids of a bivalent
colourblind is married to a normal man. The
(c) two daughter nuclei sons would be [2004]
(d) two different bivalents
(a) 75% colourblind
120. Which of the following statements is not true (b) 50% colourblind
for retroviruses ? [2004] (c) all normal
(a) DNA is not present at any stage in the life (d) all colourblind
cycle of retroviruses
127. A man and a woman, who do not show any
(b) Retroviruses carry gene for RNA
apparent signs of a certain inherited disease,
dependent DNA polymerase
have seven children (2 daughters and 5 sons).
(c) The genetic material in mature Three of the sons suffer from the given
retroviruses is RNA disease but none of the daughters are
(d) Retroviruses are causative agents for affected. Which of the following mode of
certain kinds of cancer in man inheritance do you suggest for this disease ?
121. A nutritionally wild type organism, which [2005]
does not require any additional growth (a) Autosomal dominant
supplement is known as [2004] (b) Sex-linked dominant
(a) phenotype (b) holotype (c) Sex-limited recessive
(c) auxotroph (d) prototroph (d) Sex-linked recessive
122. The following ratio is generally constant for a 128. Telomerase is an enzyme which is a [2005]
given species [2004] (a) repetitive DNA (b) RNA
(a) A+G/C + T (b) T + C/G + A (c) simple protein
(c) G + C/A + T (d) A+C/T + G (d) ribonucleoprotein
123. The telomeres of eukaryotic chromosomes 129. Protein synthesis in an animal cell occurs
consist of short sequences of [2004] [2005]
(a) thymine rich repeats (b) cytosine rich (a) only on the ribosomes present in cytosol
repeats
(b) on ribosomes present in cytoplasm as (a) tRNA (b) mRNA

well as in mitochondria (c) cDNA (d) rRNA
(c) only on ribosomes attached to the
135. One gene-one enzyme hypothesis was
nuclear envelope and endoplasmic
postulated by [2006]
reticulum
(a) R. Franklin (b) Hershey and Chase
(d) on ribosomes present in the nucleolus as
well as in cytoplasm (c) A Garrod (d) Beadle and Tatum
130. During transcription holoenzyme RNA 136. Telomere repetitive DNA sequences control
polymerase binds to a DNA sequence and the the function of eukaryotic chromosomes be-
DNA assumes a saddle like structure at that cause they [2007]
point. What is that sequence called ? [2005] (a) act as replicons
(a) CAATbox, (b) GGTTbox (b) are RNA transcription initiator
(c) AAAT box (d) TATA box (c) help chromosome pairing
(d) prevent chromosome loss
131. A woman with normal vision, but whose
father was colourblind, marries a colourblind 137. One gene-one enzyme relationship was
man. Suppose that the fourth child of this established for the first time in [2007]
couple was a boy. This boy (a) Neurospora crassa
[2005] (b) Salmonella typhimurium
(a) must have normal colour vision (c) Escherichia coli
(b) will be partially colourblind since he is (d) Diplococcus pneumoniae
heterozygous for the colourblind mutant
138. The Okazaki fragments in DNA chain growth
allele
[2007]
(c) must be colourblind
(a) result in transcription
(d) may be colourblind or may be of normal
(b) polymerize in the 3' to 5' direction and
vision
forms replication fork
132. Which one of the following hydrolyses (c) prove semi-conservative nature of DNA
internal phosphodiester bonds in a replication
polynucle- (d) polymerize in the 5' to 3' di rection and
otide chain? [2005] explain 3' to 5' DNA replication
(a) Lipase (b) Endonucleare
139. Two genes R and Y are located very close on
(c) Endonuclease (d) Protease
the chromosomal linkage map of maize plant.
133. Haemophilia is more commonly seen When RRYY and rryy genotypes are
inhuman males than in human females hybridized, then F2 segregation will show
because [2005] [2007]
(a) this disease is due to an X-linked (a) higher number of the recombinant types
dominant mutation (b) segregation in the expected 9:3:3:1 ratio
(b) a greater proportion of girls die in infancy (c) segregation in 3 : 1 ratio
(c) this disease is due to an X-linked (d) higher number of the parental types
recessive mutation
140. Molecular basis of organ differentiation
(d) this disease is due to a Y-linked recessive
depends on the modulation in transcription
mutation
by [2007]
134. Amino acid sequence, in protein synthesis is (a) RNA polymerase (b) ribosome
decided by the sequence of [2006] (c) transcription factor(d) anticodon
141. The length of DNA molecule greatly exceeds

the dimensions of the nucleus in eukaryotic
cells. How is this DNA accommodated ?
[2007]
(a) Deletion of non-essential genes
(b) Super-coiling in nudeosomes
(c)
(d)
DNAse digestion (c) Wrestlers who develop strong body
Through elimination of repetitive DNA muscles in their life time pass this
character on to their progeny
142. Differentiation of organs and tissues in a
(d) There is no change in population size as
developing organism is associated with
they have a large gene pool
[2007]
147. Which one of the following condition in
(a) developmental mutations
humans is correctly matched with its
(b) differential expression of genes chromosomal abnormality/linkage? [2008]
(c) lethal mutations
(a) Klinefelter’s syndrome - 44 autosomes +
(d) deletion of genes
XXY
143. A sequential expression of a set of human (b) Colourblindness - Y - linked
genes occurs when a steroid molecule binds to (c) Erythroblastosis foetalis - X - linked
the [2007] (d) Down syndrome - 44 autosomes + XO
(a) transfer RNA (b) messenger RNA
148. Haploids are more suitable for mutation
(c) DNA sequence (d) ribosome
studies than the diploids. This is because
144. A common test to find the genotype of a hybrid [2008]
is by [2007] (a) haploids are reproductively more stable
(a) crossing of one F2 progeny with male than diploids
parent (b) mutagens penetrate in haploids more
(b) crossing of one F2 progeny with female effectively than is diploids
parent (c) haploids are more abundant in nature
(c) studying the sexual behaviour of F1 than diploids
progenies (d) all mutations, whether dominant or
(d) crossing of one F1 progeny with male recessive are expressed in haploids
parent
149. Which one of the following pairs of codons is
145. In pea plants, yellow seeds are dominant correctly matched with their function or the
togreen. If a heterozygous yellow seeded plant signal for the particular amino acid?
is crossed with a green seeded plant, what [2008]
ratio of yellow and green seeded plants would (a) GUU, GCU — Alanine
you expect in F1 generation ?[2007] (b) UAG, UGA—Stop
(a) 50 : 50 (b) 9 :1 (c) AUG, ACG — Start/methionine
(c) 1 : 3 (d) 3 : 1 (d) UUA, UCA—Leucine
146. What is true about the isolated small tribal 150. What is anti - sense technology? [2008]
populations? [2008] (a) A cell displaying a foreign antigen used for
(a) There is a decline in population as boys synthesis of antigens
marry girls only from their own tribe (b) Production of somaclonal variants in
(b) Hereditary diseases like colour blindness tissue cultures
do not spread in the isolated population (c) When a piece of RNA that is
complementary in sequence is used to
stop expression of a specific gene
(c) (c)
(d)
(d) RNA polymerase producing DNA (d) Inheritance of a condition like
phenylketonuria as an autosomal
151. What is not true for genetic code? [2009]
recessive trait
(a) It is degenerate
(b) It is unambiguous 156. Whose experiments cracked the DNA and
(c) A codon in mRNA is read in a discovered unequivocally that a genetic code is
noncontiguous fashion a “triplet” ? [2009]
(d) It is nearly universal (a) Morgan and Sturtevant (b) Beadle and
152. Point mutation involves: [2009] Tatum
(c) Nirenberg and Mathaei
(a) Duplication
(d) Hershey and Chase
(b) Deletion
157. In vitro fertilization is a technique that involves
(c) Insertion
transfer of which one of the following into the
(d) Change in single base pair
fallopian tube? [Pre. 2010]
153. Semiconservative replication of DNA was first (a) Embryo only, upto 8 cell stage.
demonstrated in [2009] (b) Either zygote or early embryo upto 8 cell
(a) Streptococcus pneumoniae stage
(b) Salmonella typhimurium (c) Drosophila (c) Embryo of 32 cell stage
melanogaster (d) Zygote only
(d) Escherichia coli
158. Select the two correct statements out of the
154. Removal of introns and joining the exons in a four (1-4) given below about lac operon.
defined order in a transcription unit is called [Pre. 2010]
[2009] 1. Glucose or galactose may bind with the
(a) Transformation (b) Capping repressor and inactivate it
(c) Splicing (d) Tailing 2. In the absence of lactose the repressor
155. Study the pedigree chart given below binds with the operator region
[2009] 3. The z-gene codes for permease
4. This was elucidated by Francois Jacob and
Jacque Monod
(a) 2 and 4
(b) 1 and 4
(c) 2 and 3
(d) 3 and 4
What does it show? 159. The one aspect which is not a salient feature of
genetic code, is its being [Pre. 2010]
(a) The pedigree chart is wrong as this is not
possible (a) Degenerate
(b) Inheritance of a recessive sex-linked (b) Ambiguous
disease like haemophilia (c) Universal
(c) Inheritance of a sex-linked inborn error of (d) Specific
metabolism like phenylketonuria
160. Which one of the following palindromic base (c) The human genome has approximately
sequences in DNA can be easily cut at about 50,000 genes
the middle by some particular restric- (d) Haemophilia is a sex-linked recessive
tion enzyme? [Pre. 2010] disease
(a) 5’ CGTTCG 3’ , 3’ ATGGTA 5’. (b) 5’ How many of the above statements are right?
GATATG 3’ , 3’ CTACTA 5’. (c) 5’ GAATTC (a) Three (b) Four (c) One (d)
3’ , 3’ CTTAAG 5’. (d) 5’ CACGTA 3’ , 3’ Two
CTCAGT 5’.
165. Tobacco plants resistant to a nematode have
161. Which one of the following conditions of the been developed by the introduction of DNA
zygotic cell would lead to the birth of a normal that produced (in the host cells) [2012]
human female child? [Mains 2011] (a) A particular hormone
(a) One X and one Y-chromosome (b) An antifeedant
(b) Two X chromosome A toxic protein
Only one Y chromosome (d) Both sense and anti-sense RNA
Only one X chromosome
166. Represented below is the inheritance pattern
162. Given below is a sample of a portion of DNA of the certain type of traits in humans. Which
strand giving the base sequence on the one of the following conditions could be an
opposite strands. What is so special shown in example of this pattern ? [Mains 2012]
it ? [2011]
5'_____GAATTC______3'
3'_____CTTAAG______5'
(a) Replication completed
(b) Deletion mutation
(c) Start codon at the 5' end
(d) Palindromic sequence of base pairs
163. Which one of the following conditions
correctly describes the manner of determining (a) Sickle cell anaemia
the sex in the given example ? [Pre. 2011]
(b) Haemophilia
(a) Homozygous sex chromosomes (ZZ) (c) Thalassemia
determine female sex in Birds.
(d) Phenylketonuria
(b) XO type of sex chromosomes determine
male sex in grasshopper 167. Which one of the following is a wrong
(c) XO condition in humans as found in Turner statement regarding mutations ? [Mains
Syndrome, determines female sex. 2012]
(d) Homozygous sex chromosomes (XX) (a) Cancer cells commonly show
produce male in Drosophila chromosomal aberrations
(b) UV and Gamma rays are mutagens
164. Read the following four statements (A-D)
(c) Change in a single base pair of DNA does
[Mains 2012]
not cause mutation
(a) In transcription, adenosine pairs with (d) Deletion and insertion of base pairs cause
uracil frame-shift mutations
(b) Regulation of lac operon by repressor is
referred to as positive regulation
(c) (c)
(d)
168. Removal of RNA polymerase III from
nucleoplasm will affect the synthesis of[Pre.
2012]
(a) m-RNA (b) r-RNA
(c) t-RNA (d) hn-RNA
169. Removal of introns and joining of exons in a
defined order during transcription is called
(a) Slicing [Pre. 2012]
(b) Splicing
(c) Looping
(d) Inducing
170. Which one of the following is not a. part of a
transcription unit in DNA ? [Pre. 2012]
(a) A promoter
(c)
(b) The structural gene (b) Translation-Using information in m-
(c) The inducer RNA to make protein
(d) A terminator Repressor protein-Binds to operator to
stop enzyme synthesis
171. If one strand of DNA has the nitrogenous base
sequence as ATCTG, what would be the (d) Operon-Structural genes, operator and
complementary RNA strand sequence ? promoter
(a) AACTG (b) ATCGU [Pre. 2012] (c) TTAGU 176. Transformation was discovered by
(d) UAGAC [AIPMT 2014]
172. A normal visioned man whose father was (a) Meselson and Stahl (b) Hershey and Chase
colour-blind marries a woman whose father (c) Griffith
was also colour blind. They have their first (d) Watson and Crick
child as a daughter. What are the chances that 177. Select the correct option - [AIPMT 2014]
this child would be colour-blind
Direction of Direction of reading of
[Pre. 2012]
RNA synthesis the template DNA strand
(a) 25% (b) 50%
(a) 5’ – 3’ 3’ – 5’
(c) 100% (d) 0%
(b) 3’ – 5’ 5’ – 3’
173. The diagram shows an important concept in (c) 5’ – 3’ 5’ – 3’
the genetic implication of DNA. Fill in the (d) 3’ – 5’ 3’ – 5’
blanks A to C. [2013]
178. In sea urchin DNA, which is double stranded,
A A protein Proposed by
DNA mRNA 17% of the bases were shown to be cytosine.
C The percentages of the other three bases
(a) A-transcription B-replication C-James expected to be present in this DNA are:
Watson [AIPMT 2015]
(b) A-translation B-transcription C-Erevin (a) G 17%, A 16.5%, T 32.5%
Chargaff (b) G 17%, A 33%, T 33%
(c) A-transcription B-translation C-Francis (c) G 8.5%, A 50%, T 24.5%
Crick (d) G 34%, A 24.5%, T 24.5%
(d) A-translation B-extension C-Rosalind 179. Gene regulation governing lactose operon of
Franklin E.coli that involves the lac I gene product is :
174. Which enzyme/s will be produced in a cell in [AIPMT 2015]
which there is a non-sense mutation in the lac (a) Negative and inducible because repressor
Y gene ? [2013] protein prevents transcription
(a) -galactosidase (b) Negative and repressible because
(b) Lactose permease repressor protein prevents transcription
(c) Transacetylase (c) Feedback inhibition because excess of
(d) Lactose permease and transacetylase bgalactosidase can switch off
transcription
175. Which one of the following is wrongly (d) Positive and inducible because it can be
matched? [AIPMT 2014] induced by lactose
(a) Transcription-Writing information from
180. The chromosomes in which centromere is
DNA to t-RNA
situated close to one end are: [AIPMT 2015]
(c) (c)
(d)
(a) Acrocentric Nucleotide synthesis
(b) Telocentric (d) Polysaccharide synthesis
Sub-metacentric 183. Satellite DNA is important because it :
Metacentric [RE-AIPMT 2015]
181. Which one of the following is not applicable (a) Codes for enzymes needed for DNA
to RNA? [RE-AIPMT 2015] replication
(a) Chargaff’s rule (b) Codes for proteins needed in cell cycle
(b) Complementary base pairing (c) Shows high degree of polymorphism in
(c) 5' phosphoryl and 3' hydroxyl ends population and also the same degree of
(d) Heterocyclic nitrogenous bases polymorphism in an individual, which is
heritable from parents to children
182. Balbiani rings are sites of : [RE-AIPMT 2015]
(d) Does not code for proteins and is same in
(a) RNA and protein synthesis all members of the population
(b) Lipid synthesis
Answers
1 -a 2 -b 3 -a 4 -d 5 -d 6 -b 7 -b 8 -b 9 -b
10 -a
11 -c 12 -d 13 -a 14 -c 15 -c 16 -b 17 -c 18 -d 19 -b 20 -c
21-d 22 -c 23 -b 24 -a 25 -d 26 -d 27 -d 28 -d 29 -a 30 -b
31-a 32 -a 33 -d 34 -d 35 -b 36 -c 37 -c 38 -b 39 -c 40 -a
41-b 42 -d 43 -d 44 -c 45 -d 46 -b 47 -c 48 -d 49 -b 50 -b
51 -d 52 -c 53 -d 54 -b 55 -d 56 -b 57 -b 58 -a 59 -c 60 -b
61 -d 62 -c 63 -d 64 -b 65 -d 66 -d 67 -c 68 -b 69 -c 70 -b
71 -a 72 -a 73 -d 74 -b 75 -c 76 -b 77 -c 78 -b 79 -c 80 -c
81 -c 82 -a 83 -c 84 -d 85 -a 86 -d 87 -b 88 -b 89 -c 90 -b
91 -a 92 -c 93 -b 94 -b 95 -a 96 -a 97 -c 98 -a 99 -c 100 -b 101 -a 102-d 103 -c 104 -a 105 -b 106 -c 107 -
a 108 -c 109 -a 110 -a
111 -c 112 -c 113 -c 114 -d 115 -c 116 -c 117 -c 118 -c 119 -b 120 -a 121 -d 122
-c 123 -d 124 -a 125 -d 126 -b 127 -d 128 -d 129 -b 130 -d 131 -d 132 -c 133
-c 134 -b 135 -d 136 -d 137 -a 138 -b 139 -d 140 -c
141 -b 142-b 143 -c 144 -d 145 -a 146 -a 147 -a 148 -d 149 -b 150 -c
151 -c 152 -d 153 -d 154 -c 155 -d 156 -c 157 -a 158 -a 159 -b 160 -c
161 -b 162 -d 163 -b 164 -d 165 -d 166 -b 167 -c 168 -c 169 -b 170 -c 171 -d 172 -d 173 -c 174 -a 175 -d
176 -c 177 -a 178 -b 179 -a 180 -a
181 -a 182 -a 183 -c
29A
EVOLUTION : ORIGIN AND EVOLUTION OF
LIFE
1. “Continuity of germplasm” theory was given (d) adaptive convergence of closely related
by [1989] groups
(a) deVries (b) Weismann 6. Which was absent in the atmosphere at the
(c) Darwin (d) Lamarck time of origin of life? [1991]
2. Evolution is [1989] (a) NH3 (b) H2
(a) progressive development of a race (c) O2 (d) CH4
(b) history and development of race 7. The first organisms were [1992]
alongwith ariations
(a) chemoautotrophs
(c) history of race
(b) chemoheterotrophs
(d) development of race
(c) autotrophs
3. Theory of inheritance of acquired characters (d) eukaryotes
was given by [1989]
8. Weismann cut off tails of mice generation
(a) Wallace (b) Lamarck
after generation but tails neither disappeared
(c) Darwin (d) deVries nor shortened showing that [1993]
4. ‘Origin of species’ was written by (a) Darwin was correct
[1989] (b) tail is an essential organ
(a) Oparin (b) Weismann (c) mutation theory is wrong
(c) Lamarck (d) Darwin (d) Lamarckism was wrong in inheritance of
5. Parallelism is [1990] acquired characters
(a) adaptive divergence 9. Genetic drift is change of [1993]
(b) adaptive divergence of widely separated (a) gene frequency in same generation
species (b) appearance of recessive genes
(c) adaptive convergence of widely different (c) gene frequency from one generation to
species next
(c) (c)
(d)
10. Theory of natural selection dwells on [1993]

(a) role of environment in evolution
(b) natural selection acting on favourable
variations
(c) changes in gene complex resulting in
heritable variations
11. Which one does not favour Lamarckian approximated? [1998]
concept of inheritance of acquired characters? (a) Hardy-Weinberg law
[1994] (b) Lamarck’s principle
(a) Lack of pigment in cave dwellers (c) Biogenetic law
(b) Absence of limbs in snakes (d) Mendelian principles
(c) Presence of webbed toes in aquatic birds
17. Genetic drift operates only in [1998]
(d) Melanization of peppered moth in
(a) smaller populations
industrial areas
(b) larger populations
12. Frequency of a character increases when it is (c) Mendelian populations
[1994]
(d) island populations
(a) recessive (b) dominant
18. Darwin’s theory of pangenesis shows similarity
(c) inheritable (d) adaptable
with theory of inheritance of acquired
13. Which one is irrelevant to evolution of man? characters then what will be correct according
[1994, 96] to it? [2001]
(a) Perfection of hand for tool making (a) Useful organs become strong and
(b) Change of diet from hard nuts/roots to soft developed while useless organs become
food extinct. These organs help in struggle for
(c) Increased ability to communicate or survival
develop community behaviour (b) Size of organs increase with ageing
(d) Loss of tail (c) Development of organs is due to will
power
14. Extremities, tail and ear are relatively shorter
in animals living in cooler regions as compared (d) There should become physical basis of
to those inhabiting warmer zones. This is inheritance
[1996] 19. Similarities in organisms with different
(a) Bergman’s rule (b) Jordan’s rule genotype indicates [2001]
(c) Gloger’s rule (d) Allen’s rule (a) micro-evolution
15. Identify the correct sequence in which the (b) macro-evolution
following substances have appeared during (c) convergent evolution
the course of evolution of life on earth [1996] (d) divergent evolution
(a) glucose, amino acids, nucleic acids, 20. In which condition the gene ratio remains
proteins constant for any species? [2002]
(b) ammonia, amino adds, proteins, nucleic (a) Sexual selection
acids (b) Random mating
(c) water, amino acids, nucleic acids, enzymes (c) Mutation
(d) amino acids, ammonia, phosphates, (d) Gene flow
nucleic acids
21. Sequence of which of the following is used to
16. In general, in the developmental history of a know the phylogeny? [2002]
mammalian heart, it is observed that it passes
(a) mRNA (b) rRNA
through a two-chambered fish-like heart,
(c) tRNA (d) DNA
three-chambered frog-like heart and finally to
four-chambered stage. To which hypothesis 22. Genetic drift operates in [2002]
can this above cited statement be (a) small isolated population
(b) large isolated population 28. Which one of the following experiments
(c) fast reproductive population suggests that simplest living organisms could
(d) slow reproductive population not have originated spontaneously from non-
living matter? [2005]
23. In a random mating population in equilibrium,
which of the following brings about a change (a) Larvae could appear in decaying organic
in gene frequency in a non-directional matter
manner? [2003] (b) Microbes did not appear in stored meat
(a) Migration (b) Mutation (c) Microbes appeared from unsterilized
organic matter
(c) Random drift (d) Selection
(d) Meat was not spoiled, when heated and
24. Darwin in his ‘Natural Selection Theory’ did not kept sealed in a vessel
believe in any role of which one of the
following in organic evolution? [2003] (a) 29. Using imprints from a plate with complete
Discontinuous variations medium and carrying bacterial colonies, you
can select streptomycin resistant mutants and
(b) Parasites and predators as natural enemies
prove that such mutations do not originate as
(c) Survival of the fittest
adaptation. These imprints need to be used
(d) Struggle for existence [2005]
25. Random genetic drift in a population probably (a) on plates with and without streptomycin
results from [2003] (b) on plates with minimal medium
(a) large population size (c) only on plates with streptomycin
(b)highly genetically variable individuals (d) only on plates without streptomycin
(c) interbreeding within this population
30. Which one of the following phenomena
(d) constant low mutation rate supports Darwin’s concept of natural selection
26. Industrial melanism is an example of [2003] in organic evolution? [2005]
(a) defensive adaptation of skin against (a) Development of transgenic animals
ultraviolet radiations (b) Production of ‘Dolly’, the sheep by cloning
(b) drug resistance (c) Prevalence of pesticide resistant insects
(c) darkening of skin due to smoke from (d) Development of organs from ‘stem cells’
industries for organ transplantation
(d) protective resemblance with the 31. de Vries gave his mutation theory on organic
surroundings evolution while working on [2005]
27. Which one of the following sequences was (a) Pisum sativum
proposed by Darwin and Wallace for organic (b) Drosophila melanogaster
evolution? [2003] (c) Oenothera lamarckiana
(a) Variations, natural selection, (d) Althea rosea
overproduction, constancy of population
size 32. Which one of the following amino acid was not
found to be synthesized in Miller’s
(b) Overproduction, variations, constancy of
experiment? [2006]
population size, natural selection
(c) Variations, constancy of population size, (a) Aspartic acid (b) Glutamic acid
overproduction, natural selection (c) Alanine (d) Glycine
(d) Overproduction, constancy of population 33. Industrial melanism as observed in peppered
size, variations, natural selection moth proves that [2007]
(a) the true black melanic forms arise by a 38. Which one of the following is incorrect about
recurring random mutation the characteristics of protobionts (coacervates
(b) the melanic form of the moth has no and microspheres) as envisaged in the
selective advantage over lighter form in abiogenic origin of life? [2008]
industrial area (a) They were able to reproduce.
(c) the lighter form moth has no selective (b) They could separate combinations of
advantage either in polluted industrial molecules from the surroundings.
area or non-polluted area (c) They were partially isolated from the
(d) melanism is a pollution generated feature surroundings.
34. When two species of different geneology (d) They could maintain an internal
come to resemble each other as a result of environment.
adaptation, the phenomenon is termed 39. In the case of peppered moth (Biston
(a) divergent evolution [2007] betularia) the black-coloured form became
(b) micro-evolution dominant over the light-coloured form in
(c) co-evolution England during industrial revolution. This is an
(d) convergent evolution example of [2009]
(a) protective mimicry
35. The concept of chemical evolution is based on
[2007] (b) inheritance of darker colour character
acquired due to the darker environment
(a) crystalization of chemicals
(c) natural selection whereby the darker
(b) interaction of water, air and clay under forms were selected
intense heat
(d) appearance of the darker coloured
(c) effect of solar radiation on chemicals individuals due to very poor sunlight
(d) possible origin of life by combination of
chemicals under suitable environmental 40. Darwin’s finches are a good example of
conditions [Pre. 2010]
(a) Industrial melanism
36. Select the correct statement from the
following [2007] (b) Connecting link
(c) Adaptive radiation
(a) Darwinian variations are small and
directionless (d) Convergent evolution
(b) fitness is the end result of the ability to 41. Evolution of different species in a given area
adapt and gets selected by nature starting from a point and spreading to other
(c) all mammals except whales and camels geographical areas is known as [Pre. 2012] (a)
have seven cervical vertebrae Migration (b) Divergent evolution
(d) mutations are random and directional (c) Adaptive radiation
(d) Natural selection
37. Adaptive radiation refers to [2007]
(a) adaptations due to geographical isolation 42. Variation in gene frequencies within
(b) evolution of different species from a populations can occur by chance rather than
common ancestor by natural selection. This is referred to as
[2013]
(c) migration of members of a species to
different geographical areas (a) Genetic flow (b) Genetic drift
(d) power of adaptation in an individual to a (c) Random mating (d) Genetic load
variety of environments
43. The process by which organisms with different (d) lack of random mating Answers
evolutionary history evolve similar phenotypic
adaptations in response to a common
environmental challenge is called
(a) Natural selection [2013]
(b) Convergent evolution
(c) Non-random evolution
(d) Adaptive radiation
44. The tendency of population to remain in
genetic equilibrium may be disturbed by
(a) random mating [2013]
(b) lack of migration
(c) lack of mutations
45. According to Darwin, the organic evolution is

due to [2013]
(a) Intraspecific competition (b) Interspecific
competition
(c) Competition within closely related species
(d) Reduced feeding efficiency in one species
due to the presence of interfering species.
46. A population will not exist in HardyWeinberg
equilibrium if : [AIPMT 2015]
(a) There are no mutations
(b) There is no migration (c) The population is
large
(d) Individuals mate selectively.
1 -b 2 -b 3 -b 4 -d 5 -d 6 -c 7 -b 8 -d 9 -a 10 -b
11 -d 12 -d 13 -d 14 -d 15 -b 16 -c 17 -a 18 -d 19 -c 20 -b 21 -b 22 -a 23 -b 24 -a 25 -b 26 -d 27 -b 28 -
d 29 -a 30 -c 31 -c 32 -b 33 -a 34 -d 35 -d 36 -b 37 -b 38 -d 39-c 40-c
41 -c 42 -b 43 -b 44 -d 45 -b 46 -d
29B
EVOLUTION : EVIDENCES OF EVOLUTION
1. Basic principles of embryonic development (a) Oriental and Australian (b) Palaearctic and
were pronounced by [1990] Oriental
(a) von Baer (b) Weismann (c) Nearctic and Palaearctic
(c) Haeckel (d) Morgan (d) Neotropical and Ethiopian
2. Correct order is [1991] 7. ‘Golden age of dinosaurs’/Age of reptiles was
[1994]
(a) Palaeozoic Archaeozoic Coenozoic
(b) Archaeozoic Palaeozoic (a) Mesozoic (b) Coenozoicc (c) Palaeozoic (d)
Psychozoic
Proterozoic (c) Palaeozoic Mesozoic
Coenozoic 8. The presence of gill slits, in the embryos of all
(d) Mesozoic Archaeozoic Proterozoic vertebrates, supports the theory of [1995]
3. Evolutionary convergence is development of (a) biogenesis (b) recapitulation
[1993, 96] (c) metamorphosis (d) organic evolution
(a) common set of characters in group of 9. One of the following is a link between plants
different ancestry and animals [1995]
(b) dissimilar characters in closely related (a) Euglena (b) Bacteria
groups (c) Paramecium (d) Trichonympha
(c) common set of characters in closely 10. The homologous organs are those that show
related groups similarity in [1995]
(d) random mating
(a) size (b) origin
4. Homologous organs are [1994] (c) function (d) appearance
(a) wings of insects and bat 11. Which one of the following sets includes only
(b) gills of fish and lungs of rabbit the vestigial structures in man? [1996]
(c) pectoral fins of fish and fore limbs of horse
(a) Body hair, olecranon process, coccyx,
(d) wings of grasshopper and crow patella
5. The earliest fossil form in the phylogeny of (b) Wisdom teeth, mammary glands, coccyx,
horse is [1994] patella
(a) Merychippus (b) Mesohippus (c) Coccyx, nictitating membrane, vermiform
(c) Eohippus (d) Equus appendix, ear muscles
6. Two geographical regions separated by high (d) Coccyx, body hair, ear ossicles, vermiform
mountains are [1994] appendix
12. Which one of the following pair has 20. Convergent evolution is illustrated by
homologous organs? [1999] (a) dogfish and whale [2003]
(a) Pectoral fins of a fish and forelimbs of a (b) rat and dog
horse (c) bacterium and protozoan
(b) Wings of a bat and wings of cockroach (d) starfish and cuttle fish
(c) Air sac of fish and lungs of frog
21. In recent years, DNA sequences (nucleotide
(d) Wings of a bird and wings of a butterfly sequence) of mtDNA and Y-chromosomes
13. Darwin’s finches provide an excellent were considered for the study of human
evidence in favour of evolution. This evidence evolution, because [2003]
comes from the field of [2000] (a) they can be studied from the samples of
(a) Biogeography (b) Anatomy fossil remains
(c) Embryology (d) Palaeontology (b) they are small and, therefore, easy to
study
14. Which is not a vestigial part in humans?
(c) they are uniparental in origin and do not
(a) Segmental muscles of abdomen [2000]
take part in recombination
(b) Fingernails
(d) their structure is known in greater detail
(c) Third molar (d) Coccyx
22. Which one of the following describes correctly
15. Occurrence of endemic species in the homologous structures? [2003]
SouthAmerica and Australia is due to [2001]
(a) Organs appearing only in embryonic stage
(a) these species have been extinct from and disappearing later in the adult
other regions
(b) Organs with anatomical similarities, but
(b) continental separation performing different functions
(c) there is no terrestrial route to these places (c) Organs with anatomical dissimilarities,
(d) retrogressive evolution but performing same functions
16. Half-life period of C14 is about [2001] (d) Organs that have no function now, but
(a) 500 yr (b) 5730 yr had an important function in ancestors
(c) 50 yr (d) 5 × l04 yr 23. What kind of evidence suggested that man is
17. According to fossils discovered up to present more closely related with chimpanzee than
time origin and evolution of man was started with other hominoid apes? [2004]
from [2002] (a) Evidence from DNA from sex
(a) France (b) Java chromosomes only
(c) Africa (d) China (b) Comparison of chromosomes morphology
only
18. Which of the following is homologous organ? (c) Evidence from fossil remains and the fossil
[2002] mitochondrial DNA alone
(a) Wings of birds and locust (d) Evidence from DNA extracted from sex
(b) Wings of birds (sparrow) and pectoral fins chromosomes, autosomes and
of fish mitochondria
(c) Wings of bat and butterfly
24. Age of fossils in the past was generally
(d) Legs of frog and cockroach determined by radio-carbon method and
19. In which era reptiles were dominant? [2002] other method involving radioactive elements
(a) Coenozoic era (b) Mesozoic era found in the rocks . More precise methods,
(c) Palaeozoic era (d) Archaeozoic era which were used recently and led to the
revision of the evolutionary periods for (c) All plant and animal cells are totipotent (d)
different groups of organisms, include [2004] Ontogeny repeats phylogeny
(a) study of carbohydrates/proteins in fossils 31. The finches of Galapagos islands provide an
(b) study of the condition of fossilization evidence in favour of [2007]
(c) Electron Spin Resonance (ESR) and fossil (a) special creation
DNA (b) evolution due to mutation
(d) study of carbohydrates/proteins in rocks (c) retrogressive evolution
25. Presence of gills in the tadpole of frog (d) biogeographical evolution
indicates diat [2004] 32. Darwin’s finches are an excellent example of
(a) fishes were amphibious in the past [2008]
(b) fishes evolved from frog-like ancestors (a) adaptive radiation
(c) frogs will have gills in future (b) seasonal migration
(d) frogs evolved from gilled ancestors (c) brood parasitism (d) connecting links
26. Which of the following is the relatively most 33. Thorn of Bougainvillea and tendril of
accurate method for dating of fossils? Cucurbita are examples of [2008]
(a) Radio-carbon method [2005] (a) analogous organs
(b) Potassium-argon method (b) homologous organs
(c) Electron-spin resonance method (c) vestigial organs
(d) Uranium-lead method (d) retrogressive evolution
27. An important evidence in favour of organic 34. Select the incorrect statement from the
evolution is the occurrence of [2006] following: [2009]
(a) analogous and vestigial organs (a) Small population size results in random
(b) homologous organs only genetic drift in a population
(c) homologous and analogous organs (b) Baldness is a sex-limited trait
(d) homologous and vestigial organs (c) Linkage is an exception to the principle of
28. Evolutionary history of an organism is known independent assortment in heredity
as [2006] (d) Galactosemia is an inborn error of
(a) Ancestry (b) Palaeontology metabolism
(c) Ontogeny (d) Phylogeny 35. Given below are four statements (A-D) each
29. One of the important consequences of with one or two blanks. Select the option
geographical isolation is [2007] which correctly fills up the blanks in two
statements [Mains 2010]
(a) no change in the isolated fauna
Statements :
(b) preventing speciation
(A) Wings of butterfly and birds look alike and
(c) speciation through reproductive isolation
are the results of___(i)_ evolution
(d) random creation of new species
(B) Miller showed that CH4, H2, NH3
30. Which one of the following statements is and___(i)_, when exposed to electric
correct ? [2007] discharge in flask resulted in
(a) Stem cells are specialized cells formation of___(ii)__
(b) There is no evidence of the existence of (C) Vermiform appendix is a__(i)___organ
gills during embryogenesis of mammals and an___(ii)___evidence of evolution.
(D) According
to Darwin evolution took place due to Answers
_(i)_ and _(ii)_ of the fittest.
Options : (d) Analogous organs that have evolved due to
divergent evolution
(a) (A) - (i) convergent
(B) - (i) oxygen, (ii) nucleosides 38. Forelimbs of cat, lizard used in walking;
(b) (B) - (i) water vapour, (ii) amino forelimbs of whale used in swimming and
acids, forelimbs of bats used in flying are an example
(C) - (i) rudimentary (ii) anatomical of : [AIPMT 2014]
(c) (C) - (i) vestigial, (ii) anatomical, (a) Analogous organs
(D) - (i) mutations, (ii) multiplication (b) Adaptive radiation
(d) (D) - (i) small variations, (ii) survival, (c) Homologous organs
(A) - (i) convergent (d) Convergent evolution
36. Which one of the following options gives one 39. Which one of the following are analogous
correct example each of convergent evolution structures ? [AIPMT 2014]
and divergent evolution ? [Pre. 2012] (a) Wings of bat and wings of pigeon
Convergent evolution Divergent evolution (a) (b) Gills of prawn and lungs of man
Bones of forelimbs of Wings of butterfly (c) Thorns of Bougainvillea and tendrils
vertebrates and birds ofCucurbita
(d) Flippers of dolphin and legs of horse
(b) Thorns of Bougain- Eyes of Octopus and
villia and tendrils of Mammals 40. The wings of a bird and the wings of an insect
Cucurbita are : [RE-AIPMT 2015]
(c) Eyes of octopus and Bones of forelimbs of (a) homologous structures and represent
mammals Vertebrates convergent evolution
(b) homologous structures and represent
(d) Thorns of Bougain- Wings of butterflies divergent evolution
villia and tendrils of and birds (c) analogous structures and represent
Cucurbita convergent evolution
37. The eye of octopus and eye of cat show (d) phylogenetic structures and represent
different patterns of structure, yet they divergent evolution
perform similar function. This is an example of
[2013] 41. Industrial melanism is an example of :
[RE-AIPMT 2015]
(a) Homologous organs that have evolved
due to convergent evolution (a) Neo Lamarckism (b) Neo Darwinism
(b) Homologous organs that have evolved (c) Natural selection (d) Mutation
due to divergent evolution
(c) Analogous organs that have evolved due
to convergent evolution
1 -a 2 -c 3 -a 4 -c 5 -c 6 -b 7 -a 8 -b 9 -a 10 -b 11 -c 12 -a 13 -a 14 -b 15 -b 16 -b 17 -c 18 -b 19 -b 20 -
a 21 -c 22 -b 23 -d 24 -c 25 -d 26 -c 27 -d 28 -d 29 -c 30 -d
31 -d 32 -a 33 -b 34-a 35 -d 36 -c 37 -c 38 -c 39 -b 40 -c
41 -c
29C
EVOLUTION : HUMAN EVOLUTION
1. Which one of the following is regarded as the 5. The age of the fossil of Dryopithecus on the
direct ancestor of modern man? [1996] geological time scale is [1998]
(a) Homo erectus (b) Ramapithecus (a) 5×l06 yr back (b) 25×l06 yr back
(c) Homo habilis (d) Cro-magnon man (c) 50×10 yr back (d) 75×106 yr back
6
2. Which one of the following statements about 6. Which of the following primate is the closest
fossil human species is correct ? [1997] relative of humans? [2000]
(a) Fossils of Homo neanderthalensis have (a) Rhesus monkey (b) Orangutan
been found recently in South America (c) Gorilla (d) Gibbon
(b) Neanderthal man and Cro-magnon man
7. Homo sapiens evolved during [2000]
did exist for sometime together
(a) Pleistocene (b) Oligocene
(c) Australopithecus fossils have been found
in Australia (c) Pliocene (d) Miocene
(d) Homo erectus was preceded by Homo 8. Which one of the following features is closely
habilis related with the evolution of humans? [2000]
(a) Loss of tail (b) Shortening of jaws (c)
3. Common origin of man and chimpanzee is
Binocular vision (d) Flat nails
best shown by [1997]
(a) banding pattern in chromosomes number 9. Which of the following is closest relative of
3 and 6 man? [2001]
(b) cranial capacity (a) Chimpanzee (b) Gorilla
(c) binocular vision (d) dental formula (c) Orangutan (d) Gibbon
4. Which one of the following statements is 10. Which of the following is correct order of
correct? [1998] evolutionary history of man? [2001]
(a) Cro-magnon man’s fossil has been found in (a) Peking man, Homo sapiens, Neanderthal,
Ethiopia Cro-magnon
(b) Homo erectus is the ancestor of man (b) Peking man, Neanderthal, Homo sapiens,
(c) Neanderthal man is the direct ancestor of Cro-magnon
Homo sapiens (c) Peking man, Heidelberg man, Neanderthal,
(d) Australopithecus is the real ancestor of Cro-magnon
modern man
(d) Peking man, Neanderthal, Homo sapiens, 15. What was the most significant trend in the
Heidelberg man evolution of modern man (Homo sapiens)
11. There are two opposing views about origin of from his ancestors? [Pre. 2011]
modern man. According to one view Homo (a) Upright posture
erectus in Asia were the ancestors of modern (b) Shortening of jaws
man. A study of variation of DNA however, (c) Binocular vision
suggested African origin of modern man.
(d) Increasing brain capacity
What kind of observation on DNA variation
could suggest this? [2005] (a) Greater 16. The extinct human who lived 1,00,000 to
variation in Asia than in Africa 40,000 years ago, in Europe, Asia and parts of
(b) Greater variation in Africa than in Asia Africa, with short stature, heavy eye brows,
(c) Similar variation in Africa and Asia retreating for heads, large jaws with heavy
teeth, stocky bodies a lumbering gait and
(d) Variation only in Asia and no variation in
stooped posture was [Pre. 2012]
Africa
(a) Cro-magnon humans
12. Jurassic period of the Mesozoic era is
(b) Rampithecus
characterized by [2006]
(c) Homo habilis
(a) radiation of reptiles and origin of mammal- (d) Neanderthal human
like reptiles
(b) dinosaurs become extinct and 17. What was the most significant trend in the
angiosperms appear evolution of modern man (Homo sapiens)
(c) flowering plants and first dinosaurs appear from his ancestors? [Pre. 2012]
(d) gymnosperms are dominant plants and (a) Increasing cranial capacity
first birds appear (b) Upright posture
(c) Shortening of jaws
13. Among the human ancestors the brain size
(d) Binocular vision
was more than 1000 cc in [2007]
(a) Homo neanderthalensis 18. Which of the following had the smallest brain
(b) Homo erectus capacity ? [AIPMT 2015]
(c) Ramapithecus (a) Homo sapiens
(d) Homo habilis (b) Homo neanderthalensis

14. The most apparent change during the (c) Homo habilis
evolutionary history of Homo sapiens is traced (d) Homo erectus
in
(a) Walking upright [Mains 2010]
(b) Shortening of jaws
(c) Remarkable increase in the brain size
(d) Loss of body hair
30
HUMAN HEALTH AND DISEASES
1. Cells involved in immune mechanism are 7. Passive immunity was discovered by[1996]
[1993] (a) Edward Jenner (b) Emil von Behring
(a) erythrocytes (b) lymphocytes (c) Robert Koch (d) Louis Pasteur
(c) eosinophils (d) thrombocytes 8. Retroviruses are implicated as a cause for
2. Opiate narcotic is [1993] cancer in humans because they [1996] (a)
(a) bhang (b) charas carry gene for reverse transcriptase
(c) heroin (d) nicotine (b) may carry cellular protooncogenes in their
genome
3. Which of the following pair is not correctly (c) may carry v-oncogenes in their genome
matched? [1995] (d) carry single stranded RNA as their genetic
(a) Dengue fever — Arbovirus material
(b) Plague — Yersinia pestis
9. Diphtheria is caused by [1997]
(c) Syphilis — Trichuris trichiura (d) Malaria —
(a) poisons released by living bacterial cells
Plasmodium vivax
into the host tissue
4. Which of the following diseases is due to an (b) poisons released from dead bacterial cells
allergic reaction? [1995] into the host tissue
(a) Goitre (b) Skin cancer (c) poisons released by virus into the host
(c) Hay fever (d) Enteric fever tissues
(d) excessive immune response by the host’s
5. Hypersensitivity to an allergen is associated
body
with [1996]
(a) aberrant functioning of the immune 10. Which of the following is an opiate narcotic?
mechanism (a) Barbiturates (b) Morphine
(b) increase in ambient temperature [1997]
(c) age of the individual (c) Amphetamines (d) LSD
(d) food habits 11. Which of the following will be achieved in next
two decades ? [1997]
6. The long-term prospects for a truly human
(a) Control of cancer
civilization depend in a large measure on
(b) Correction of genetic basis of diabetes
[1996]
mellitus
(a) the ability of humanity to moderate its
(c) A complete understanding of brain-mind
fecundity
interactions
(b) increasing the food production
(d) Production of biodegradable plastic
(c) colonization of underpopulated areas
(d) control of human diseases
12. If a person shows production of interferons in which inhibit mutliplication of viruses are
his body, the chances are that he has got an called [2000]
infection of [1997] (a) immunoglobulins (b) interferons
(a) typhoid (b) measles (c) antitoxins (d) lipoproteins
(c) tetanus (d) malaria
21. Bovine spongiform encephalopathy is a bovine
13. Which of the following symptoms indicate disease. To which of the following human
radiation sickness ? [1997] diseases it is related ?
(a) Red and ulcerated skin (a) Kala-azar [2000]
(b) Nausea and anaemia (b) Encephalitis
(c) Nausea and loss of hair (c) Cerebral spondylitis
(d) Ulcerated skin, nausea and loss of hair (d) Creutzfeldt Jacob disease
14. Botulism caused by Clostridium botulinum 22. Which one of the following is correct match?
affects the [1998] [2001]
(a) spleen (a) Reserpine — Tranquiliser
(b) intestine (b) Cocaine — Opiatic narcotic
(c) lymph glands (c) Morphine — Hallucinogenic
(d) neuromuscular junction (d) Bhang — Analgesic
23. Which of these is most infectious disease?
15. Typhoid fever is caused by [1998]
[2001]
(a) Giardia (b) Salmonella
(c) Shigella (d) Escherichia (a) Hepatitis-B (b) AIDS
(c) Cough and cold (d) Malaria
16. Koch’s postulates are not applicable to [1999]
24. Reason of lung cancer is [2001]
(a) cholera (b) leprosy
(a) coal mining (b) calcium fluoride
(c) TB (d) diphtheria
(c) cement factory (d) bauxite mining
17. The term ‘humulin’ is used for [1999]
25. LSD is [2001]
(a) human insulin (b) powerful antibiotic
(c) isoenzyme (d) hydrolytic enzyme (a) hallucinogenic (b) sedative
(c) stimulant (d) tranquiliser
18. Hybridoma cells are [1999]
26. Salmonella is related with [2001]
(a) product of spore formation in bacteria
(b) hybrid cells resulting from myeloma cells (a) typhoid (b) polio
(c) nervous cells of frog (c) TB (d) tetanus
(d) only cells having oncogenes 27. Monoclonal antibodies [2001]
19. Which one of the following correctly matches (a) are obtained from a cell and act on one
a Sexually Transmitted Disease antigen
(STD) with its pathogen ? [2000] (b) are obtained from a group of cells and act
(a) AIDS — Bacillus anthracis on more than one antigens
(b) Syphilis — Treponema pallidum (c) are obtained from a group of same type of
cells and act on single antigen
(c) Urethritis — Entamoeba gingivalis
(d) are obtained from a group of same type of
(d) Gonorrhoea — Leishmania donovani
cells and act on more than one antigens
20. Small proteins produced by vertebrate cells
28. Cancerous cells can easily be destroyed by
naturally in response to viral infections and
radiation due to [2002]
(a) rapid cell division (b) lack of nutrition (c) (c) Spirulina — Single cell protein
fast mutation (d) lack of oxygen (d) Rhizobium — Biofertilizer
29. The term “antibiotic” was coined by [2003] 36. Which one of the following is not correctly
(a) Selman Waksman (b) A l e x a n d e r matched ? [2004]
Fleming (a) Glossina palpalis— Sleeping sickness
(c) Edward Jenner (d) Louis Pasteur (b) Culex pipiens — Filariasis
30. Carcinoma refers to [2003] (c) Aedes aegypti — Yellow fever
(a) malignant tumours of the colon (d) Anopheles culicifacies — Leishmaniasis
(b) benign tumours of the connective tissue 37. Which one of the following depresses brain
(c) malignant tumours of the connective activity and produces feelings of calmness,
tissue relaxation and drowsiness ? [2005]
(d) malignant tumours of the skin or mucous (a) Valium (b) Morphine
membrane (c) Hashish (d) Amphetamines
31. Maximum application of animal cell culture 38. Which of the following is not a hereditary
technology today is in the production of disease ? [2005]
[2003] (a) Cretinism (b) Cystic fibrosis
(a) vaccines (b) edible proteins (c) Thalassaemia (d) Haemophilia
(c) insulin (d) interferons
39. A person showing unpredictable moods,
32. Christmas disease is another name for [2003] outbursts of emotion, quarrelsome behaviour
(a) Down’s syndrome and conflicts with others is suffering from
(b) sleeping sickness [2006]
(c) haemophilia-B (a) schizophrenia
(d) hepatitis-B (b) Borderline Personality Disorder (BPD)
(c) mood disorders
33. Which one of the following conditions though
harmful in itself, is also a potential saviour (d) addictive disorders
from a mosquito borne infectious disease ? 40. The “blue baby syndrome” results from
[2003] (a) excess of chloride [2006]
(a) Pernicious anaemia (b) methaemoglobin
(b) Leukemia (c) excess of dissolved oxygen
(c) Thalassaemia (d) excess of TDS (Total Dissolved Solids)
(d) Sickle cell anaemia
41. Sickle cell anaemia has not been eliminated
34. ELISA is used to detect viruses where the key from the African population because (a) it is
reagent is [2003] controlled by recessive genes[2006]
(a) DNA probe (b) it is not a fatal disease
(b) RNAase (c) it provides immunity against malaria
(c) alkaline phosphatase (d) it is controlled by dominant genes
(d) catalase 42. Both sickle cell anaemia and Huntington’s
35. Which one of the following pairs is not chorea are [2006]
correctly matched ? [2004] (a) bacteria-related diseases
(a) Streptomyces — Antibiotic (b) congenital disorders
(b) Serratia — Drug addiction (c) pollutant-induced disorders
(d) virus-related diseases (b) cellular barriers

43. Which one of the following is a viral disease of (c) physiological barriers
poultry ? [2007] (d) physical barriers
(a) Salmonellosis 49. The letter T in T-lymphocyte refers to[2009]
(b) Coryza (a) Tonsil (b) Thymus
(c) New castle disease (c) Thyroid (d) Thalamus
(d) Pasteurellosis 50. A person likely to develop tetanus is
44. Probiotics are [2007] immunised by administering [2009]
(a) safe antibiotics (a) Wide spectrum antibiotics
(b) cancer inducing microbes (b) Weakened germs
(c) new kind of food allergens (c) Dead germs
(d) live microbial food supplement (d) Preformed antibodies
45. If you suspect major deficiency of antibodies in 51. Which one of the following statements is
a person, to which of the following would you correct ? [2009]
look for confirmatory evidence ? [2007] (a) Heroin accelerates body functions.
(a) Serum albumins (b) Serum globulins (b) Malignant tumours may exhibit
(c) Fibrinogen in the plasma metastasis.
(d) Haemocytes (c) Patients who have undergone surgery are
given cannabinoids to relieve pain.
46. Increased asthmatic attacks in certain seasons
are related to [2007] (d) Benign tumours show the property of
metastasis.
(a) hot and humid environment
(b) eating fruits preserved in tin containers 52. Sickle cell anemia is [2009]
(c) inhalation of seasonal pollen (a) caused by a change in a single base pair of
(d) low temperature DNA
(b) characterized by elongated sickle like RBCs
47. Match the disease in Column-I with the
with a nucleus
appropriate items (pathogen/prevention/
(c) an autosomal linked dominant trait
treatment) in Column-II [2008]
(d) caused by substitution of valine by
Column-I Column-II
glutamic acid in the beta globin chain of
(A) Amoebiasis i. Teporema pallidum
haemoglobin
(B) Diphtheria ii. Use only sterilized
food and water 53. A health disorder that results from the
(C) Cholera iii. DPT vaccine deficiency of thyroxine in adults and
characterised by (i) a low metabolic rate, (ii)
(D) syphilis vi. Use oval
increase in body weight and (iii) tendency to
rehydration
retain water in tissues is [2009]
therapy
(a) myxoedema (b) cretinism
(a) A-(i), B-(ii), C-(iii), D-(iv) (b) A-(ii), B-(iv), C-
(i), D-(iii) (c) A-(ii), B-(i), C-(iii), D-(iv) (c) hypothyroidism (d) simple goiter
(d) A-(ii), B-(iii), C-(iv), D-(i) 54. When breast feeding is replaced by less
nutritive food low in proteins and calories; the
48. To which type of barriers under innate
infants below the age of one year are likely to
immunity, do the saliva in the mouth and the
suffer from:
tears from the eyes, belong? [2008]
[2009]
(a) cytokine barriers
(a) Kwashiorkor (b) Pellagra 61. The permissible use of the technique
(c) Marasmus (d) Rickets amniocentesis is for: [Pre.
55. Use of anti-histamines and steroids give a 2010]
quick relief from : [2009] (a) detecting sex of the unborn foetus
(a) Cough (b) Headache (b) artificial insemination
(c) Allergy (d) Nausea (c) transfer of embryo into the uterus of a
surrogate mother
56. Alzhimer disease in humans is associated with
(d) detecting any genetic abnormality
the deficiency of : [2009]
(a) acetylcholine 62. Consider the following four statements (a-d)
regarding kidney transplant and select the two
(b) gamma aminobutyric acid (GABA)
correct ones out of these. [Pre. 2010]
(c) dopamine (d) glutamic acid
(i) Even if a kidney transplant is proper the
57. Select the correct statement from the ones recipient may need to take
given below [Pre. 2010] immunosuppressants for a long time
(a) Barbiturates when given to criminals (ii) The cell-mediated immune response is
make them tell the truth responsible for the graft rejection
(b) Morphine is often given to persons who (iii) The B-lymphocytes are responsible for
have undergone surgery as a pain killer rejection of the graft
(c) Chewing tobacco lowers blood pressure (iv) The acceptance or rejection of a kidney
and heart rate transplant depends on specific interferons
(d) Cocaine is given to patients after surgery (a) (ii) and (iii) (b) (iii) and (iv)
as it stimulates recovery (c) (i) and (iii) (d) (i) and (ii)
58. Ringworm in human is caused by 63. Which one of the following techniques is safest
[Pre. 2010] for the detection of cancers ?
(a) Bacteria (b) Fungi [Mains 2010]
(c) Nematodes (d) Viruses (a) Radiography (X-ray)
59. Widal test is used for the diagnosis of (b) Computed tomography (CT)
[Pre. 2010] (c) Histopathological studies
(a) Malaria (b) Pneumonia (d) Magnetic resonance imaging (MRI)
(c) Tuberculosis (d) Typhoid 64. A person suffering from a disease caused by
Plasmodium, experiences recurring chill and
60. Which one of the following statements is fever at the time when ? [Mains 2010]
correct with respect to AIDS? [Pre. 2010]
(a) The trophozoites reach maximum growth
(a) The HIV can be transmitted through eating and give out certain toxins.
food together with an infected person (b) The parasite after its rapid multiplication
(b) Drug addicts are least susceptible to HIV inside RBCs ruptures them, releasing the
infection stage to enter fresh RBCs.
(c) AIDS patients are being fully cured cent (c) The microgametocytes and
percent with proper care and nutrition megagametocytes are being destroyed by
(d) The causative HIV retrovirus enters helper the WBCs.
T-lymphocytes thus reducing their (d) The sporozoites released from RBCs
numbers arebeing rapidly killed and broken down
inside spleen.
65. Where will you look for the sporozoites of the (c) Organ-transplant Trichoderma
malarial parasite ? [Pre. 2011] (d) Swine flu Monascus
(a) Saliva of infected female Anopheles 70. Which one of the following options gives the
mosquito correct matching of a disease with its causative
(b) Red blood corpuscles of humans suffering organism and mode of infection.
from malaria [Mains 2011]
(c) Spleen of infected humans Disease Causative Mode of Organisms
(d) Salivary glands of freshly moulted female Infection
Anopheles mosquito (1) Malaria Plasmodium Bite of male
66. At which stage of HIV infection does one vivax Anopheles
usually show symptoms of AIDS ? Mosquito
[Pre. 2011] (2) Typhoid Salmonella With inspired
(a) When the infecting retrovirus enters host typhi air
cells (3) Pneumonia Streptococcus Droplet
(b) When viral DNA is produced by reverse pneumoniae infection
transcriptase (4) Elephan- Wuchereria With infected
tiasis bancrofti water and
(c) When HIV replicates rapidly in helper T-
food
lymphocytes and damages large number
of these 71. The pathogen Microsporum responsible for
(d) Within 15 days of sexual contact with an ringworm disease in humans belongs to the
infected person. same Kingdom of organisms as that of
[Mains 2011]
67. Which one of the following acts as a
physiological barrier to the entry of (a) Ascaris, a round worm
microorgan- (b) Taenia, a tapeworm
isms in human body ? [Pre. 2011] (c) Wuchereria, a filarial wprm
(a) Epithelium of Urogenital tract (d) Rhizopus, a mould
(b) Tears 72. Select the correct statement with respect to
(c) Monocytes (d) Skin disease and immunisation [Mains 2011]
(a) Injection of snake antivenom against snake
68. A certain patient is suspected to be suffering
bite is an example of active immunisation.
from Acquired Immuno Deficiency Syndrome.
Which diagnostic technique will you (b) If due to some reason B-and T-
recommend for its detection ? [2011] lymphocytes ane damaged, the body will
not produce antibodies against a
(a) ELISA (b) MRI
pathogen.
(c) Ultra sound (d) WIDAL
(c) Injection of dead/inactivated pathogens
69. Read the following statement having two causes passive immunity
blanks (A and B) [Mains 2011] (d) Certain protozoans have been used to
“A drug used for____(A)___patients is mass produce hepatitis B vaccine
obtained from a species of the organism 73. Identify the molecules (a) and (b) shown below
____(B)____.” and select the right option giving their
The one correct option for the two blanks is source and use [Mains 2012]
Blank – A Blank – B
(a) AIDS Pseudomonas
(b) Heart Penicillium
(d) Musca domestica – The common house

lizards, a reptile
75. Which one of the following statements is
correct with respect to immunity ?
[Mains 2012]
(a) The antibodies against small pox pathogen
are produced by T-lymphocytes
(b) Antibodies are protein molecules each of
which has four light chains
(c) Rejection of a kidney graft is the function
of B-lymphocytes
(d) Preformed antibodies need to be injected
(A)
to treat the bite by a viper snake
76. The first clinical gene therapy was given for
treating [Mains 2012]
(a) Chicken pox
(b) Rheumatoid arthritis
(B)
(c) Adenosine deaminase deficiency
(d) Diabetes mellitus
Molecule Source Use
77. A patient brought to a hospital with
(a) (B) Heroin Cannabis sativa Depressant
myocardial infarction is normally immediately
and slows
down body
given [Pre. 2012]
functions (a) Cyclosporin-A (b) Statins
(b) (B) Cannab- Atropa Produces (c) Penicillin (d) Streptokinase
ionoid belladonna hallucinations
78. Select the correct statement regarding the
Sedative and specific disorder of muscular or skeletal sys-
(c) (A) Morphine Papaver
somniferum pain killer
tem [Pre. 2012]
(d) (A) Cocaine Erythroxylum Asselerates the (a) Myasthenia gravis auto immune disorder
coca transport of which inhibits sliding of myosin filaments
dopamine (b) Gout inflammation of joint due to extra
74. Which one of the following organisms is disposition of calcium
scientifically correctly named, correctly (c) Muscular dystrophy –age related
printed according to the International Rules of shortening of muscles
Nomenclature and correctly described ? (d) Osteoporosis -decrease in bone mass and
[Mains 2012] higher chances of fractures with advancing
(a) Plasmodium falciparum – a protozoan age
pathogen causing the most serious type of 79. Common cold differs from pneumonia in that
malaria
[Pre. 2012]
(b) Felis tigris – The Indian tiger, well
(a) Pneumonia is caused by a virus while the
protected in Gir forests.
common cold is caused by the bacterium
(c) E.coli – Full name Entamoeba coli, a
Haemophilus influenze
commonly occurring bacterium in human
intestine
(b) Pneumonia pathogen infect alveoli (c) Polymorphonuclear Cellular barriers

whereas the common cold affects nose leukocytes and monocytes
and respiratory passage but not the lungs (4) Anti-tetanus Active and anti-snake
(c) Pneumonia is a communicable disease immunity
whereas the common cold is nutritional bite injections
deficiency disease.
85. People who have migrated from the planes to
(d) Pneumonia can be prevented by a live as area adjoining Rohtang pass about six
attenuated bacterial vaccine whereas the months back [Pre. 2012]
common cold has no affective vaccine.
(a) suffer from altitude sickness with
80. Widal Test carried out to test [Pre. 2012] symptoms like nausea, fatigue, etc.
(a) HIV/AIDS (b) Typhoid fever (b) have the usual RBC count but their
(c) Malaria (d) Diabetes mellitus haemoglobin has very high binding affinity
to O2
81. Cirrhosis of liver is caused by the chronic intake
of [Pre. 2012] (c) have more RBCs and their haemoglobin
has lower binding affinity to O2
(a) Tobacco (Chewing) (b) Cocaine
(d) are not physically fit to play games like
(c) Opium (d) Alcohol
footba
82. Which one of the following in not a property of
86. Which of the following cannot be detected in a
cancerous cells whereas the remaining three
developing foetus by amniocentesis ?
are [Pre. 2012]
(a) Klinefelter syndrome [2013]
(a) They divide in an uncontrolled manner
(b) Sex of the foetus
(b) They show contact inhibition
(c) Down syndrome
(c) They compete with normal cells for vital
(d) Jaundice
nutrients
(d) They do not remain confined in the area of 87. The incorrect statement with regard to
formation Haemophilia is [2013]
83. Motile zygote of Plasmodium occurs in (a) It is a sex-linked disease
[Pre. 2012] (b) It is a recessive disease
(c) It is a dominant disease
(a) Human RBCs
(d) A single protein involved in the clotting of
(b) Human liver
blood is affected
(c) Gut of female Anopheles
(d) Salivary glands of Anopheles 88. If both parents are carriers for thalessemia,
which is an autosomal recessive disorder, what
84. In which one of the following options the two
are the chances of pregnancy resulting in an
examples are correctly matched with their
affected child ? [2013]
particular type of immunity?
[Pre. 2012] (a) no chance (b) 50%
Examples Type of immunity (c) 25% (d) 100%
(a) Saliva in mouth and Physical barriers 89. The cell-mediated immunity inside the human
Tears in eyes body is carried out by [2013]
(b) Mucus coating of Physiological (a) T- lymphocytes(b) B-lymphocytes
epithelium lining barriers (c) Thrombocytes (d) Erythrocytes
the urinogenital tract
and the
HCl in stomach
90. Which is the particular type of drug that is 95. The active from of Entamoeba histolytica
obtained from the plant whose one flowering feeds upon : [AIPMT 2015]
branch is shown below ?[AIPMT 2014] (a) mucosa and submucosa of colon only
(b) food in intestine
(c) blood only
(d) erythrocytes; mucosa and submucosa of
colon
96. Which of the following viruses is not
transferred through semen of an infected
(a) Hallucinogen (b) Depressant male?
[AIPMT 2015]
(c) Stimulant (d) Pain-killer
(a) Human immunodeficiency virus
91. At which stage of HIV infection does one
(b) Chikungunya virus
usually show symptoms of AIDS?
(c) Ebola virus
[AIPMT 2014]
(d) Hepatitis B virus
(a) Within 15 days of sexual contact with an
infected person 97. Match each disease with its correct type of
(b) When the infected retro virus enters host vaccine : [AIPMT 2015]
cells (a) Tuberculosis (i) Harmless virus
(c) When HIV damages large number of helper (b) Whooping cough(ii) Inactivated toxin
T-lymphocytes (c) Diphtheria (iii) Killed bacteria
(d) When the viral DNA is produced by reverse (d) Polio (iv) Harmless bacteria
transcriptase (a) (a) (iii), (b) (ii), (c) (iv), (d) (i)
92. Which of the following is not a sexually (b) (a) (iv), (b) (iii), (c) (ii), (d) (i) (c) (a)
transmitted disease ? [AIPMT 2015] (i), (b) (ii), (c) (iv), (d) (iii)
(a) Acquired Immuno Deficiency Syndrome (d) (a) (ii), (b) (i), (c) (iii), (d) (iv)
(AIDS)
98. Grafted kidney may be rejected in a patient
(b) Trichomoniasis due to [RE-AIPMT 2015]
(c) Encephalitis
(a) Innate immune response
(d) Syphilis
(b) Humoral immune response
93. Which of the following does not favour the (c) Cell-mediated immune response
formation of large quantities of dilute urine? (d) Passive immune response
[AIPMT 2015]
99. If you suspect major deficiency of antibodies
(a) Caffeine (b) Renin
in a person, to which of the following would
(c) Atrial-natriuretic factor you look for confirmatory evidence?
(d) Alcohol [RE-AIPMT 2015]
64. HIV that causes AIDS, first starts destroying (a) Serum globulins
[AIPMT 2015] (b) Fibrinogin in plasma
(a) Leucocytes (c) Serum albumins
(b) Helper T- Lymphocytes (d) Haemocytes
(c) Thrombocytes 100. Which of the following immunoglobulins
(d) B- Lymphocytes does constitute the largest percentage in
human milk? [RE-AIPMT 2015]
(a) IgG (b) IgD (c) IgM (d) IgA

Answers
1 -b 2 -c 3 -c 4 -c 5 -a 6 -d 7 -b 8 -b 9 -a 10 -b
11 -b 12 -b 13 -d 14 -d 15 -b 16 -b 17 -a 18 -b 19 -b 20 -b
21 -d 22 -a 23 -a 24 -c 25 -a 26 -a 27 -c 28 -a 29 -a 30 -d
31 -a 32 -c 33 -d 34 -c 35 -b 36 -d 37 -a 38 -a 39 -a 40 -b
41 -c 42 -b 43 -c 44 -d 45 -b 46 -c 47 -d 48 -c 49 -b 50 -d
51 -b 52 -a 53 -a 54 -c 55 -c 56 -a 57 -b 58 -b 59 -d 60 -b 61 -d 62
-d 63 -d 64 -a 65 -a 66 -c 67 -b 68 -a 69 -c 70 -c 71 -d 72 -b 73
-c 74 -a 75 -d 76 -c 77 -d 78 -d 79 -b 80 -b 81 -d 82 -b 83 -c 84
-c 85 -c 86 -d 87 -c 88 -c 89 -a 90 -a 91 -c 92 -c 93 -b 94 -b 95
-d 96 -b 97 -b 98 -c 99 -a 100 -d
31
STRATEGIES FOR ENHANCEMENT IN FOOD
PRODUCTION
1. In crop improvement programme, haploids (d) form perfect homozygous
are important because they [1989] 2. Triticale has been evolved by intergeneric
(a) require one half of nutrients
(b) are helpful in study of meiosis
(c) grow better under adverse conditions
hybridization between [1989] 11. High milk yielding varieties of cows are
(a) wheat and rye obtained by [1997]
(b) wheat and rice (a) super ovulation
(c) rice and maize (b) artificial insemination
(d) wheat and Aegilops (c) use of surrogate mother
3. Pulses are obtained from [1993] (d) All of the above
(a) Fabaceae 12. Of the world’s top five crops (in terms of
(b) Asteraceae annual production) [1997]
(c) Poaceae (a) three belong to Poaceae (Gramineae), one
(d) Solanaceae to Leguminosae, one to Solanaceae
(b) four belong to Poaceae, one to
4. Most of our crop plants are (a) [1994]
Leguminosae
autopolyploid in origin
(c) four belong to Poaceae, one to Solanaceae
(b) allopolyploid in origin (d) all five belong to Poaceae
(c) mixed genotypic in origin
13. Which plant will loss its economic value, if its
(d) heterozygous in origin
fruits are produced by induced partheno-
5. Haploid plant cultures are got from [1994] carpy ? [1997]
(a) leaves (b) root tip (a) Grape (b) Pomegranate
(c) pollen grain (d) buds (c) Orange (d) Banana
6. The silk worm silk is the product of [1995] (a) 14. The reason why vegetatively reproducing crop
cuticle of the larva plants are best suited for maintaining hybrid
(b) cuticle of the adult vigour is that [1998]
(c) salivary gland of the larva (a) they can be easily propagated
(d) salivary gland of the adult (b) they have a longer life span
(c) they are more resistant to disease
7. The alkaloid ajmalicine is obtained from
(d) once a desired hybrid is produced, there
[1995]
are no chances of losing it
(a) Atropa (b) Papaver
(c) Curcuma (d) Sarpgandha 15. The term aquaculture means [1999]
(a) aspergillosis
8. The earliest animal to have been domesticated
(b) inland fisheries
by man was most likely the [1996]
(c) marine fisheries
(a) horse (b) cow
(c) dog (d) pig
16. The new varieties of plants are produced by
9. Pebrine is a disease of [1997]
[1999]
(a) honey bee (b) fish
(a) selection and hybridization
(c) silk worm (d) lac insect
(b) selection and introduction
10. Honey is [1997] (c) mutation and selection
(a) acidic (b) neutral (d) introduction and mutation
(c) alkaline 17. One of the most important reason why wild
(d) basic after some days plants should thrive is that these are good
sources of [2000]
(a) unsaturated edible oils (d) Kashmiri sheep-Afghan sheep cross

(b) highly nutritive animals feed 24. Which of the following is generally used for
(c) genes for resistance to diseases and pests induced mutagenesis in crop plants ? [2005]
(d) rare and highly sought after fruits of (a) Alpha particles
medical importance
(b) X-rays
18. Before the European invaders which vegetable (c) UVrays (260 nm)
was/were absent in India ? [2001] (d) Gamma rays (from cobalt 60)
(a) Potato and tomato 25. Why is vivipary an undesirable character for
(b) Simla mirch and brinjal annual crop plants ? [2005]
(c) Maize and chichinda (a) It reduces the vigour of plant
(d) Bitter gourd (b) The seeds cannot be stored under normal
19. Which statement is correct about centre of conditions for the next season
origin of plants? [2001] (c) The seeds exhibit long dormancy
(a) More diversity in varieties (d) It adversely affects the fertility of the plant
(b) Frequency of dominant gene is more 26. Three crops that contribute maximum to
(c) Climatic conditions more favourable global food grain production are [2005]
(d) None of the above (a) wheat, rice and maize
20. Which of the following crops have been (b) wheat, maize and sorghum
brought to India from New world ? [2002] (c) rice, maize and sorghum
(a) Cashewnut, potato, rubber (d) wheat, rice and barley
(b) Mango, tea 27. Crop plants grown in monoculture are [2006]
(c) Tea, rubber, mango (a) low in yield
(d) Coffee (b) free from intraspecific competition
21. India’s wheat yield revolution in the 1960s was (c) characterized by poor root system
possible primarily due to [2004] (d) highly prone to pests
(a) hybrid seeds 28. Triticale, the first man-made cereal crop, has
(b) increased chlorophyll content been obtained by crossing wheat with [2006]
(c) mutations resulting in plant height (a) rye
reduction (b) pearl millet
(d) quantitative trait mutations (c) sugarcane
22. The name of Norman Borlaug is associated (d) barley
with [2005] 29. Parthenocarpic tomato fruits can be produced
(a) Green revolution by [2006]
(b) Yellow revolution (a) removing androecium of flowers before
(c) White revolution pollen grains are released
(d) Blue revolution (b) treating the plants with low
concentrations of gibberellic acid and
23. The world’s highly prized wool yielding
auxins
‘Pashmina’ breed is [2005]
(c) raising the plants from vernalized seeds
(a) sheep (d) treating the plants with phenyl mercuric
(b) goat acetate
(c) goat-sheep cross
30. Which one of the following pair is mis- (a) Wheat (b) Tea
matched? [2007] (c) Teak (d) Mango
(a) Pila globosa — Pearl 37. Breeding of crops with high levels of minerals
vitamins and proteins is called[Pre. 2010]
(b) Apis indica — Honey (a) Somatic hybridization
(c) Kenia lacca — Lac (b) Biofortification
(c) Biomagnification
(d) Bombyx mori — Silk (d) Micropropagation
31. Which one of the following pair of organisms 38. ‘Jaya’ and ‘Ratna’ developed for green
are exotic species introduced in India ? revolution in India are the varieties of [Pre.
[2007] 2011]
(a) Ficus religiosa, Lantana camara (a) Maize (b) Rice
(b) Lantana camara, Water hyacinth (c) Wheat (d) Bajra
(c) Water hyacinth, Prosopis cinereria 39. The most common substrate used in
(d) Nile perch, Ficus religiosa distilleries for the production of ethanol is
[Pre 2011]
32. Which one of the following pairs is wrongly
matched? [2009] (a) Corn meal
(b) Soya meal
(a) Fruit juice – pectinase
(c) Ground gram
(b) Textile – amylase
(d) Molasses
(c) Detergents – lipase
(d) Alcohol – nitrogenase 40. ‘Himgiri’ developed by hybridisation and
selection for disease resistance against rust
33. Somaclones are obtained by [2009]
pathogens is a variety of [Pre. 2011]
(a) Irradiation
(a) Chilli (b) Maize
(b) Genetic engineering (c) Sugarcane (d) Wheat
(c) Tissue culture
(d) Plant breeding 41. Which one of the following shows maximum
genetic diversity in India ? [Pre. 2011]
34. Polyethylene glycol method is used for [2009]
(a) Groundnut (b) Rice
(a) Seedless fruit production (c) Maize (d) Mango
(b) Energy production from sewage
42. Green revolution in India occurred during
(c) Gene transfer without a vector
(d) Biodiesel production (a) 1970’s (b) 1980’s [Pre. 2012] (c) 1950’s (d)
1960’s
35. Which of the following plant species you
would select for the production of bioethanol? 43. To obtain virus-free healthy plants from a
[2009] diseased one by tissue culture technique,
which part/parts of the diseased plant will be
(a) Pongamia
taken? [AIPMT 2014]
(b) Jatropha
(a) Apical meristem only
(c) Brassica
(b) Palisade parenchyma
(d) Zea mays
(c) Both apical and axillary meristems
36. Which one of the following has maximum
genetic diversity in India ? [2009]
(d) Epidermis only Answers (b) Protoplast fusion

(c) Embryo rescue
(d) Somatic hybridization
46. A protoplast is a cell : [RE-AIPMT 2015]
(a) without cell wall
(b) without plasma membrane
(c) without nucleus
44. Which of the following enhances (d) undergoing division

or induces fusion of protoplasts ? [AIPMT
47. Outbreeding is an important strategy of animal
2015]
husbandry because it :
(a) Polyethylene glycol and sodium nitrate [RE-AIPMT 2015]
(b) IAA and kinetin (a) exposes harmful recessive genes that are
(c) IAA and gibberellins eliminated by selection
(d) Sodium chloride and potassium chloride (b) helps in accumulation of superior genes.
45. A technique of micropropagation is :- (c) is useful in producing purelines of animals.
[AIPMT 2015] (d) is useful in overcoming inbreeding
(a) Somatic embryogenesis depression
1 -d 2 -a 3 -a 4 -a 5 -c 6 -c 7 -d 8 -c 9 -c 10 -a
11 -d 12 -c 13 -b 14 -d 15 -d 16 -a 17 -c 18 -a 19 -a 20 -a
21 -c 22 -a 23 -b 24 -d 25 -b 26 -a 27 -d 28 -a 29 -b 30 -a 31 -c 32 -d 33 -c 34 -c 35 -b 36 -a 37 -b 38 -b
39 -d 40 -d
41 -b 42 -d 43 -c 44 -a 45 -a 46 -a 47 -d
32
MICROBES IN HUMAN WELFARE
1. Yeast (Saccharomyces cerevisiae) is used in 6. The guts of cow and buffalo possess:
the industrial production of [1998] [AIPMT 2015]
(a) butanal (b) citric acid (a) Chlorella spp (b) Methanogens
(c) tetracyclin (d) ethanol (c) Cyanobacteria (d)
2. Recently Govt. of India has allowed mixing of Fucus spp.
alcohol in petrol. What is the amount of 7. Match the following list of microbes and their
alcohol permitted for mixing in petrol? importance : [RE-AIPMT 2015]
(a) 2.5% (b) 10-15% [2004] (c) 10% (d) 5% (a) Saccharomyces (i) Production of
3. Which one of the following pair is wrongly cerevisiae immunosuppres-
matched? [2007] sive agents
(a) Methanogens— Gobar gas (b) Monascus (ii) Ripening of Swiss
purpureus cheese
(b) Yeast — Ethanol
(c) Trichoderma (iii) Commercial
(c) Streptomycetes — Antibiotic
polysporum production of
(d) Coliforms — Vinegar
ethanol
4. Which one of the following is not used in
(d) Propionibacte- (iv) Production of rium
organic farming? [Pre. 2010] sharmanii blood cholesterol lowering

(a) Glomus (b) Earthworm agents
(c) Oscillatoria (d) Snail (a) (a) (iii), (b) (i), (c) (iv), (d) (ii)
5. What gases are produced in anaerobic sludge (b) (a) (iii), (b) (iv), (c) (i), (d) (ii)
digesters? [AIPMT 2014] (c) (a) (iv), (b) (iii) (c) (ii), (d) (i)
(a) Methane and CO2 only (d) (a) (iv), (b) (ii), (c) (i), (d) (iii)
(b) Methane, hydrogen sulphide and CO2
(c) Methane, hydrogen sulphide and O2
(d) Hydrogen sulphide and CO2
33
BIOTECHNOLOGY : PRINCIPLES AND PROCESSES
1. The restriction enzymes are used in genetic (c) we can cut DNA at specific sites by
engineering, because [1995, 98, 2001, 02, 06] endonucleases like DNAse-I
(a) they can degrade harmful proteins (d) restriction endonucleases purified from
(b) they can join different DNA fragments bacteria can be used in vitro
(c) they can cut DNA at specific base 6. The process of replication in plasmid DNA,
sequence other than initiation, is controlled by[1999]
(d) they are nucleases that cut DNA at (a) mitochondrial gene
variable sites (b) bacterial gene
2. The basis for DNA fingerprinting is [1996] (c) plasmid gene (d) None of the above
(a) occurrence of Restriction Fragment 7. Which of the following is related to genetic
Length Polymorphism (RFLP) engineering? [1999]
(b) phenotypic differences between (a) Mutation (b) Plasmid
individuals
(c) Plastid (d) Heterosis
(c) availability of cloned DNA
(d) knowledge of human karyotype 8. Plasmids are suitable vectors for gene cloning
because [2000]
3. Introduction of one or more genes into an
(a) these are small circular DNA molecules
organism which normally does not possess
which can integrate with host
them or their deletion by using artificial
chromosomal DNA
means (not by breeding) comes under [1996]
(b) these are small circular DNA molecules
(a) Molecular Biology with their own replication origin site
(b) Cytogenetics (c) these can shuttle between prokaryotic
(c) Genetic hybridization and eukaryotic cells
(d) Genetic Engineering (d) these often carry antibiotic resistance
4. Recombinant DNA is obtained by cleaving the genes
pro-DNA by [1998] 9. Maximum number of bases in plasmids
(a) primase discovered so far is [2001]
(b) exonucleases (a) 50 kilo base (b) 500 kilo base
(c) ligase (c) 5000 kilo base (d) 5 kilo base
(d) restriction endonuclease 10. Plasmid is [2001]
5. Genetic engineering is possible, because (a) fragment of DNA which acts as vector
[1998] (b) a fragment which joins two genes
(a) the phenomenon of transduction in (c) mRNA which acts as carrier
bacteria is well understood (d) autotrophic fragment
(b) we can see DNA by electron microscope
11. In bacteria, plasmid is [2002]
PMT Biology Rebooster Specific 237
(a) extrachromosomal material 17. Restriction endonucleases are enzymes which

(b) main DNA [Pre. 2010]
(c) non-functional DNA (a) make cuts at specific positions within the
(d) repetetive gene DNA molecule
12. DNA finger-printing refers to [2004] (b) recognize a specific nucleotide sequence
for binding of DNA ligase
(a) molecular analysis or profiles of DNA
(c) restrict the action of the enzyme DNA
samples
polymerase
(b) analysis of DNA samples using imprinting
(d) remove nucleotides from the ends of the
device
DNA molecule
(c) techniques used for molecular analysis of
different specimens of DNA 18. Satellite DNA is useful tool in [Pre. 2010]
(d) techniques used for identification of (a) Organ transplantation
finger prints of individuals (b) Sex determination
13. Restriction endonudeases [2004] (c) Forensic science
(a) are present in mammalian cells for (d) Genetic engineering
degradation of DNA when the cell dies 19. Silencing of mRNA has been used in producing
(b) are used in genetic engineering for transgenic plants resistant to
ligating two DNA molecules [Mains 2011]
(c) are used for in vitro DNA synthesis (a) Bacterial blights
(d) are synthesized by bacteria as part of their (b) Bollworms
defence mechanism (c) Nematodes
14. Which one of the following is commonly used (d) White rusts
in transfer of foreign DNA into crop plants? 20. Which one of the following techniques made
[2009] it possible to genetically engineer living
(a) Agrobacterium tumefaciens organisms [Mains 2011]
(b) Penicillium expansum (a) Hybridization
(c) Trichoderma harzianum (b) Recombinant DNA techniques
(d) Meloidogyne incognita (c) X-ray diffraction
15. Which one of the following is used as vector (d) Heavier isotope labelling
for cloning genes into higher organisms? 21. There is a restriction endonuclease called

(a) Baculovirus [Pre. 2010] EcoRI. What does “co” part in it stand for ?
(b) Salmonella typhimurium [Pre. 2011]
(c) Rhizopus nigricans (a) Colon (b) Coelom
(d) Retrovirus (c) Coenzyme (d) Coli
16. DNA or RNA segment tagged with a 22. In genetic engineering, the antibiotics are
radioactive molecule is called: [Pre. 2010] used [Mains 2012]
(a) Vector (b) Probe (a) To select healthy vectors
(c) Clone (d) Plasmid (b) As sequences from where replication
starts
(c) To keep the cultures free of infection
(d) As selectable markers (b) Gold or Tungsten
23. Which one of the following represents a (c) Silver or platinum
palindromic sequence in DNA ? [Mains 2012] (d) Platinum or zinc
(a) 5'-CCAATG-3' 29. The figure below is the diagrammatic
3'-GAATCC-5' representation of the E.coli vector pBR 322.
(b) 5'-CATTAG-3' Which one of the given options correctly
3'-GATAAC-5' identifies its certain component’s) ?
(c) 5'-GATACC-3' [Pre. 2012]
3'-CCTAAG-5'
(d) 5'-GAATTC-3'
3'-CTTAAG-5'
24. What is it that forms the basis of DNA
Fingerprinting ? [Mains 2012]
(a) The relative difference in the DNA
occurrence in blood, skin and saliva
(b) The relative amount of DNA in the ridges
and grooves of the fingerprints
(c) Satellite DNA occurring as highly repeated (a) Hind III. EcoBI-selecteble markers
short DNA segments (b) ampR tetR-antibiotic resistance genes
(d) The relative proportions of purines and (c) ori-original restriction enzyme
pyrimidines in DNA (d) rop-reduced osmotic pressure
25. Biolistics (gene-gun) is suitable for 30. Which one of the following is a case of wrong
[Mains 2012] matching ? [Pre. 2012]
(a) Transformation of plant cells (a) Micropropagation – In vitro production of
(b) Constructing recombinant DNA by joining plants in large numbers
with vectors (b) Callus – Unorganised mass of cells
(c) DNA finger printing produced in tissue culture
(d) Disarming pathogen vectors (c) Somatic hybridization – Fusion of two
26. PCR and Restriction Fragment Length diverse cells
Polymorphism are the methods for [Pre. (d) Vector DNA – Carries specific genes, Site
2012] for t-RNA synthesis
(a) DNA sequencing 31. DNA fragments generated by the restriction
(b) Genetic fingerprinting endonucleases in a chemical reaction can be
(c) Study of enzymes separated by [2013]
(d) Genetic transformation (a) Centrifugation
27. A single strand of nucleic acid tagged with a (b) Polymerase chain reaction
radioactive molecule is called [Pre. 2012] (c) Electrophoresis
(a) Plasmid (b) Probe (d) Restriction mapping
(c) Vector (d) Selectable marker 32. The colonies of recombinat bacteria appear
28. For transformation, micro-particles coated white in contrast to blue colonies of non-
with DNA to be bombarded with gene gun are recombinant bacteria because of [2013]
made up of [Pre. 2012] (a) Non-recombinant bacteria containing
(a) Silicon or Platinum beta-galactosidase
(b) Insertional inactivation of alpha Answers

galactosidase in non-recombinant
36. Commonly used vectors for human genome
bacteria
sequencing are - [AIPMT 2014]
(c) Insertional inactivation of alpha
(a) T-DNA
galactosidase in recombinant bacteria
(b) BAC and YAC
(d) Inactivation of glycosidase
enzyme in recombinant bacteria (c) Expression Vectors
(d) T/A cloning Vectors
33. An analysis of chromosomal
DNA using the southern hybridisation 37. The DNA molecules to which the gene of
technique does not use [AIPMT 2014] interest is integrated for cloning is called :
(a) Electrophoresis (b) Blotting [RE-AIPMT 2015]
(c) Autoradiography (d) PCR (a) Carrier
(b) Transformer
34. In vitro clonal propagation in plants is
(c) Vector
characterized by [AIPMT 2014]
(d) Template
(a) PCR and RAPD
(b) Northern blotting 38. The cutting of DNA at specific locations
(c) Electrophoresis and HPLC became possible with the discovery of :
[RE-AIPMT 2015]
(d) Microscopy
(a) Ligases
35. Which vector can clone only a small fragment
(b) Restriction enzymes
of DNA? [AIPMT 2014]
(c) Probes
(a) Bacterial artificial chromosome (d) Selectable markers
(b) Yeast artificial chromosome
(c) Plasmid 39. The introduction of t-DNA into plants involves
: [RE-AIPMT 2015]
(d) Cosmid
(a) Allowing the plant roots to stand in water
(b) Infection of the plant by Agrobacterium
tumefaciens
(c) Altering the pH of the soil, then heat
shocking the plants
(d) Exposing the plants to cold for a brief
period
1 -c 2 -a 3 -d 4 -d 5 -d 6 -b 7 -b 8 -b 9 -b 10 -a 11 -a 12
-a 13 -d 14 -a 15 -d 16 -b 17 -a 18 -d 19 -c 20 -b
21 -d 22 -d 23 -d 24 -c 25 -a 26 -b 27 -b 28 -b 29 -b 30 -d
31 -c 32 -a 33 -d 34 -a 35 -c 36 -b 37 -c 38 -b 39 -b
34
BIOTECHNOLOGY AND ITS APPLICATIONS
1. The transgenic animals are those which have (c) the mechanism of gene regulation is
[1995] identical in humans and bacteria
(a) foreign DNA in some of its cells (d) the genetic code is universal
(b) foreign DNA in all its cells 6. Golden rice is a transgenic crop of the future
(c) foreign RNA in all its cells with the following improved trait [2005, 06]
(d) DNA and RNA both in the cells (a) high lysine (essential amino acid) content
2. Genetically engineered bacteria have been (b) insect resistance
successfully used in the commercial (c) high protein content
production of [1996] (d) high vitamin-A content
(a) human insulin (b) testosterone 7. Cry-I endotoxins obtained from Bacillus
(c) thyroxine (d) melatonin thuringiensis are effective against [2008]
3. The first successfully cloned mammals (a) mosquitoes (b) flies
(animal) that gained worldwide publicity was (c) nematodes (d) bollworms
[2000] 8. The bacterium Bacillus thuringiensis is widely
(a) Molly (a sheep) (b) Polly (a sheep) used in contemporary biology as
(c) Chance (a bull) (d) Dolly (a sheep) [2009]
4. Producing a giant mouse in the laboratory was (a) Agent for production of dairy products
possible through [2000] (b) Source of industrial enzyme
(a) gene mutation (c) Indicator of water pollution
(b) gene manipulation (d) Insecticide
(c) gene synthesis 9. Transgenic plants are the ones [2009]
(d) gene duplication (a) produced after protoplast fusion in
5. Production of a human protein in bacteria by artificial medium.
genetic engineering is possible because (b) grown in artificial medium after
[2005] hybridization in the field.
(a) bacterial cell can carry out the RNA (c) produced by a somatic embryo in
splicing reactions artificial medium.
(b) the human chromosome can replicate in (d) generated by introducing foreign DNA in
bacterial cell to a cell and regenerating a plant from
that cell.
10. The genetic defect - adenosine deaminase (c) high yield and production of toxic protein
(ADA) deficiency may be cured permanently crystals which kill dipteran pests
by [2009] (d) High yield and resistance to bollworms
(a) introducing bone marrow cells producing 15. An improved variety of transgenic basmati
ADA into cells at early embryonic stages. rice [Pre. 2010]
(b) enzyme replacement therapy.
(a) does not require chemical fertilizers and
(c) periodic infusion of genetically growth hormones
engineered lymphocytes having (b) gives high yield and is rich in vitamin A
functional ADA cDNA.
(c) is completely resistant to all insect pests
(d) administering adenosine deaminase and diseases of paddy
activators.
(d) gives high yield but has no characteristic
11. What is true about Bt toxin? [2009] aroma
(a) The activated toxin enters the ovaries of 16. Read the following four statements (A-D)
the pest to sterilise it and thus prevent its about certain mistakes in two of them.
multiplication. [Mains 2011]
(b) The concerned Bacillus has antitoxins.
(A) The first transgenic buffalo, Rosie
(c) The inactive protoxin gets converted into produced milk which was human alpha-
active form in the insect gut. lactalbumin enriched.
(d) Bt protein exists as active toxin in the (B) Restriction enzymes are used in isolation
Bacillus. of DNA from other macro molecules.
12. The genetically-modified (GM) brinjal in (C) Downstream processing is one of the
India has been developed for [Pre. 2010] steps of R-DNA technology.
(a) Insect-resistance (D) Disarmed pathogen vectors are also used
(b) Enhancing self life in transfer of R-DNA into the host. Which
(c) Enhancing mineral content are the two statements having mistakes ?
(a) Statements (A) and (B)
(d) Drought-resistance
(b) Statements (B) and (C)
13. Genetic engineering has been successfully (c) Statements (C) and (D)
used for producing [Pre. 2010] (d) Statements (A) and (C)
(a) transgenic mice for testing safety of polio
17. Maximum number of existing transgenic
vaccine before use in humans
animals is of [Pre. 2011]
(b) transgenic models for studying new
treatments for certain cardiac diseases (a) Fish (b) Mice
(c) transgenic Cow-Rosie which produces (c) Cow (d) Pig
high fat milk for making ghee 18. The process of RNA interference has been
(d) animals like bulls for farm work as they used in the development of plants resistant to
have super power [Pre. 2011]
14. Some of the characteristics of Bt cotton are
[Pre. 2010]
(a) Long fibre and resistance to aphids
(b) Medium yield, long fibre and resistance
to beetle pests
(a) Nematodes (b) Fungi [Pre. 2012]
(c) Viruses (d) Insects Answers
19. The figure below shows three (a) Golden rice
steps (A,B,C) of Polymerase Chain (b) Bt-Brinjal
Reaction (PCR). Select the option giving (c) Flaver Savr tomato
correct identification together with what
(d) Canolla
is represents ?
[Mains 2012] 22. The first human hormone produced by
recombinant DNA technology is -
[AIPMT 2014]
(a) Insulin (b) Estrogen
(c) Thyroxine (d) Progesterone
23. The crops engineered for glyphosate are
resistant/ tolerant to :- [AIPMT 2015]
(a) Bacteria (b) Insects
(c) Herbicides (d) Fungi
24. In Bt cotton, the Bt toxin present in plant tissue
as pro-toxin is converted into active toxin due
to :- [AIPMT 2015]
Options : (a) Acidic pH of the insect gut
(a) A-Denaturation at a temperature of (b) Action of gut micro-organisms
about 50°C (c) Presence of conversion factors in insectgut
(b) C-Extension in the presence of heat stable (d) Alkaline pH of the insect gut
DNA polymerase
25. Which body of the Government of India
(c) A-Annealing with two sets of primers
regulates GM research and safety of
(d) B-Denaturation at a temperature of introducing GM organisms for public services ?
about [AIPMT 2015]
98°C separating the two DNA strands
(a) Indian Council of Agricultural Research
20. Which one is a true statement regarding (b) Genetic Engineering Approval Committee
DNA polymerase used in PCR ? [Pre. 2012] (c) Research Committee on
(a) It is isolated from a virus GeneticManipulation
(b) It remains active at high temperature (d) Bio-safety committee
(c) It is used to ligate introduced DNA in 26. Golden rice is a genetically modified crop plant
recipient cells where the incorporated gene is meant for
(d) It serves as a selectable marker biosynthesis of : [RE-AIPMT 2015]
21. Consumption of which one of the following (a) Vitamin A (b) Vitamin B
foods can prevent the kind of blindness (c) Vitamin C (d) Omega 3
associated with vitamin ‘A’ deficiency ?
1 -b 2 -a 3 -d 4 -b 5 -d 6 -d 7 -b 8 -d 9 -d 10 -c
11 -c 12 -a 13 -b 14 -d 15 -c 16 -a 17 -b 18 -a 19 -b 20 -b
21 -a 22 -a 23 -c 24 -d 25 -b 26 -a
35
ORGANISMS AND POPULATIONS
1. Soil water available to roots is [1991] (c) rich in iron, calcium and magnesium
(a) surface water (d) recent formation
(b) hygroscopic water 6. Soil particles determine its [1992]
(c) gravitational water (a) texture (b) field capacity
(d) capillary water (c) water holding capacity(d) soil flora
2. Deep black soil is productive due to high 7. River water deposits [1992]
proportion of [1991]
(a) loamy soil (b) alluvial soil
(a) sand and zinc
(c) laterite soil (d) sandy soil
(b) gravel and calcium (c) clay and humus
(d) silt and earthworm 8. Soil best suited for plant growth is [1993]
(a) clay (b) loamy (c) sandy (d) gravel
3. Velamen is found in [1991]
(a) roots of screwpine 9. Animals that can tolerate a narrow range of
salinity are [1994]
(b) aerial and terrestrial roots of orchids
(c) leaves of Ficus elastica (a) stenohaline (b) euryhaline
(d) aerial roots of orchids (c) anadromous (d) catadromous
4. Homeostasis is [1991] 10. Species diversity increases as one proceeds

from [1994]
(a) tendency of biological system to change
with change in environment (a) high altitude to low altitude and high
latitude to low latitude
(b) tendency of biological systems to resist
change (b) low altitude to high altitude and high
latitude to low latitude
(c) disturbance of self regulatory system and
natural controls (c) low altitude to high altitude and low
latitude to high latitude
(d) biotic materials used in homeopathic
medicines (d) high altitude to low altitude and low
latitude to high latitude
5. A fertile agricultural soil appears dark
coloured at the surface as compared to soil 11. Bulk CO2 fixation occurs in [1994]
one metre down. The reason for colour of top (a) crop plants (b) oceans
soil is [1992] (c) tropical rain forests
(a) more moisture (d) Temperate forests
(b) rich in organic matter 12. Xeric environment is characterized by [1994]
(a) precipitation (c) marshy places and salt lakes

(b) low atmospheric humidity (d) dryland regions
(c) extremes of temperature 21. What is the best pH of the soil for cultivation
(d) high rate of vapourization of plants? [2001]
13. Sunken stomata is the characteristic feature (a) 3.4-5.4 (b) 6.5-7.5
of [1995] (c) 4.5-8.5 (d) 5.5-6.5
(a) hydrophyte (b) mesophyte 22. There is no life on moon due to absence of
(c) xerophyte (d) halophyte
(a) O2 (b) water [2002]
14. Which of the following does not have (c) light (d) temperature
stomata? [1995]
23. Diffuse porous woods are characteristic of
(a) Hydrophytes
plants growing in [2003]
(b) Mesophytes
(a) temperate climate (b) tropics
(c) Xerophytes
(c) alpine region
(d) Submerged hydrophytes
(d) cold winter regions
15. Which of the following pair is correctly
matched? [1995] 24. In which one of the following pair is the
specific characteristic of soil not correctly
(a) Uricotelism—aquatic habitat
matched? [2004]
(b) Parasitism — intra-specific relationship
(a) Laterite — Contains aluminium compound
(c) Excessive perspiration — xeric adaptation
(b) Terra rossa — Most suitable for roses
(d) Stream lined body — aquatic adaptation
(c) Chernozems — Richest soil in the world
16. Desert plants are generally [1995] (d) Black soil — Rich in calcium carbonate
(a) viviparous (b) succulent
25. Plants adapted to low light intensity have
(c) herbaceous (d) heterophyllus
[2004]
17. In desert grasslands, which type of animals (a) larger photosynthetic unit size than the
are relatively more abundant? [1998] sun plants
(a) Diurnal (b) Arboreal (b) higher rate of CO2 fixation than the sun
(c) Aquatic (d) Fossorial plants
18. The response of different organisms to the (c) more extended root system
environmental rhythms of light and darkness (d) leaves modified to spines
is called [1998] 26. In which one of the following habitats does
(a) phototaxis (b) phototropism the diurnal temperature of soil surface vary
(c) vernalization (d) photoperiodism most ? [2004]
19. Temperature changes in the environment (a) Shrubland (b) Forest
affect most of the animals which are [1999] (c) Desert (d) Grassland
(a) homeothermic (b) aquatic 27. More than 70% of world’s fresh water is
(c) poikilothermic (d) desert living contained in [2005]
20. Special kinds of roots called pneumatophores (a) Antarctica
are characteristics of the plants growing in (b) glaciers and mountains
[2000] (c) greenland (d) polar ice
(a) sandy soils (b) saline soils
28. At which latitude, heat gain through insalation 32. Eutrophication is often seen in [Pre.
approximately equals heat loss through 2011]
terrestrial radiation ? [2005] (a) 66° North and (a) Deserts (b) Fresh water lakes
South (c) Ocean (d) Mountains
33. Large Woody Vines are more commonly found
(b) 22 North and South in [Pre. 2011]
(c) 40° North and South
(a) Temperate forests (b) Mangroves
(c) Tropical rainforests (d) Alpine forests
(d) 42 North and South
34. Consider the following four conditions (1 - 4)
29. Annual migration does not occur in the case of
and select the correct pair of them as
[2006]
adaptation to environment in desert lizards.
(a) Salmon (b) Siberian crane The conditions [Pre. 2011]
(c) salamander (d) Arctic tern (1) Burrowing in soil to escape high
30. The slow rate of decomposition of fallen logs temperature
in nature is due to their [2008] (2) Losing heat rapidly from the body during
(a) low moisture content high temperature
(b) poor nitrogen content (3) Bask in sun when temperature is low (4)
(c) anaerobic environment around them Insulating body due to thick fatty dermis.
(d) low cellulose content Options :
(a) (3), (4) (b) (1),(3)
31. The figure given below is a diagrammatic (c) (2),(4) (d) (1),(2)
representation of response of organisms to
abiotic factors. What do a, b and c represent 35. Which one of the following processes during
respectively? [Pre. 2010] decomposition is correctly described ?
[2013]
(a) Fragmentation – Carried out by organisms
such as earthworm
(b) Humification – Leads to the accumulation
of a dark coloured substance humus
which undergoes microbial action at a
very fast rate
(c) Catabolism – Last step in the
(i) (ii) (iii) decomposition under fully anaerobic
(a) conformer regulator partial condition
regulator (d) Leaching – Water soluble inorganic
(b) regulator partial conformer nutrients rise to the top layers of soil
regulator
36. An association of individuals of different
(c) partial regulator conformer
species living in the same habitat and having
regulator
functional interactions is :
(d) regulator conformer partial [RE-AIPMT 2015]
regulator
(a) Population (b) Ecological niche
(c) Biotic community (d) Ecosystem
Answers
1 -d 2 -c 3 -d 4 -b 5 -b 6 -a 7 -b 8 -b 9 -a 10 -a 11 -b
12 -b 13 -c 14 -d 15 -d 16 -b 17 -d 18 -d 19 -c 20 -c 21 -d 22 -b 23
-b 24 -c 25 -a 26 -c 27 -d 28 -c 29 -c 30 -a
31 -d 32 -b 33 -c 34 -b 35 -a 36 -c
36
ECOSYSTEMS
1. A mutually beneficial association necessary (a) species in an area
for survival of both partners are [1991,93] (b) individuals in a community
(a) mutualism/symbiosis (c) individuals in a trophic level
(b) commensalism (d) sub-species in a community
(c) amensalism 8. Study of inter-relationships between living
(d) Both (a) and (b) organisms and their environment is [1993]
2. The relation between algae and fungi in a (a) Ecology (b) Ecosystem
lichen is [1989] (c) Phytogeography (d) Ethology
(a) symbiosis (b) parasitism 9. Pyramid of number in a pond ecosystem is
(c) commensalism (d) protocooperation [1993]
3. Pyramid of numbers in a grassland/true (a) irregular (b) inverted
ecosystem is [1990,91] (c) upright (d) spindle-shaped
(a) always inverted 10. In grass-deer-tiger food chain, grass biomass
(b) always upright (c) Both (a) and (b) is one tonne. The tiger biomass shall be
(d) spindle-shaped [1994]
4. Pick up the correct food chain [1991] (a) 100 kg (b) 10 kg
(a) Grass Chaemeleon Insect Bird (c) 200 kg (d) 1 kg
(b) Grass Fox Rabbit Bird 11. In a biotic community, the most important
(c) Phytoplankton Zooplankton Fish factor for survival of an animal is [1994]
(d) Fallen leaves Bacteria Insect larvae (a) day length (b) soil moisture
(c) green food (d) predators
5. Food chain in which micro-organisms
breakdown the food formed by primary 12. The pyramid which cannot be inverted in a
producers are [1991] stable ecosystem is that of [1994]
(a) parasitic food chain (a) biomass (b) number

(b) detritus food chain (c) energy (d) All of these
(c) consumer food chain 13. In a food chain, the largest population is that
(d) predator food chain of [1994]
6. The sum total of the population of the same (a) producers
kind of organisms constitute [1993] (b) decomposers
(a) colony (b) genus (c) secondary consumers
(c) community (d) species (d) primary consumers
7. Pyramid of number deals with number of 14. Second most important trophic level in a lake
[1993] [1994]
(a) zooplankton (b) phytoplankton thermodynamics. The average efficiency of

(c) benthos (d) neuston energy transfer from herbivores to carnivores
is [1996,99]
15. Which of the following is the most stable
ecosystem? [1995] (a) 5% (b) 10%
(c) 25% (d) 50%
(a) Forest (b) Desert
(c) Mountain (d) Ocean 23. The nature of climax community ultimately
depends on [1996]
16. The primary succession refers to the
development of communities on a [1995] (a) climate
(b) bed rock
(a) fleshly cleared crop field
(c) soil organisms
(b) forest clearing after devastating fire
(d) pool of available nutrients
(c) pond, freshly filled with water after a dry
phase 24. In a food chain, the largest population is that
(d) newly-exposed habitat with no record of of [1996]
earlier vegetation (a) decomposers
17. Mycorrhiza is a symbiotic relationship (b) producers
between roots of higher plants and [1995] (c) primary consumers
(a) virus (b) fungi (d) tertiary consumers
(c) bacteria (d) blue-green algae 25. Niche of a species in an ecosystem refers to its
18. Which of the following can fix atmospheric [1996]
nitrogen? [1995] (a) function at its place of occurrence
(a) Albugo (b) Cystopus (b) place of its occurrence
(c) Saprolegnia (d) Anabaena (c) competitive ability
(d) centre of origin
19. In a biotic community, the primary consumers
are [1995] 26. Which of the following ecosystem has the
(a) carnivores (b) omnivores highest gross primary productivity? [1997]
(c) detritivores (d) herbivores (a) Grasslands (b) Coral reefs
(c) Mangroves
20. Which of the following pair is a sedimentary
(d) Equatorial rain forest
type of biogeochemical cycle? [1995]
27. Keystone species in an ecosystem are those
(a) Oxygen and nitrogen
which [1997]
(b) Phosphorus and sulphur
(a) are present in maximum number
(c) Phosphorus and nitrogen
(b) are most frequent
(d) Phosphorus and carbon dioxide
(c) attain a large biomass
21. If we completely remove the decomposers, (d) contribute to ecosystem properties
from an ecosystem, its functioning will be
adversely affected, because [1995] 28. Which of the following is free-living aerobic
non-photosynthetic nitrogen-fixing
(a) energy flow will be blocked
bacterium? [1997]
(b) herbivores will not receive solar energy
(c) mineral movement will be blocked (a) Rhizobium (b) Azotobacter
(c) Nostoc (d) Azospirillum
(d) rate of decomposition will be very high
22. The transfer of energy from one trophic level 29. An orchid resembling the female of an in-sect
to another is governed by the 2nd law of so as to be able to get pollinated is due to
phenomenon of [1998] (a) benthic brown algae, coastal red algae

(a) mimicry and daphnids
(b) pseudocopulation (b) benthic diatoms and marine viruses
(c) pseudopollination (c) sea grasses and slime molds
(d) pseudoparthenocarpy (d) free-floating micro-algae, cyanobacteria
and nanoplankton
30. Species restricted to a given area are called
[1998] 37. Which type of association is found in between
entomophilous flower and pollinating agent?
(a) sibling (b) endemic
[2002]
(c) sympatric (d) allopatric
(a) Mutualism (b) Commensalism
31. Plants such as Prosopis, Acacia and Capparis (c) Cooperation (d) Co-evolution
represent examples of tropical
[1998] 38. Two different species cannot live for long
duration in the same niche or habitat. This law
(a) grasslands
is [2002]
(b) thorn forests
(a) Allen’s law
(c) deciduous forests
(b) Mendel’s law
(d) evergreen forests
(c) Gause’s competitive exclusion principal
32. the rate at which light energy is converted into (d) Weismann’s theory
chemical energy of organic molecules is the
ecosystem’s [1998] 39. Cause of mimicry is [2002]
(a) net primary productivity (a) attack (offence)
(b) gross secondary productivity (b) protection (defence)
(c) net secondary productivity (c) Both (a) and (b)
(d) gross primary productivity (d) isolation
33. In a terrestrial ecosystem such as forest, 40. Choose the correct match Bladderwort,
maximum energy is in which trophic level ? sundew, venus fly trap [2002]
[1998] (a) Nepenthes, Dionea, Drosera
(a) T1 (b) T2 (b) Nepenthes, Utricularia, Vanda
(c) Utricularia, Drosera, Dionea
(c) T3 (d) T4
(d) Dionea, Trapa, Vanda
34. Which part of the world has high density of
organisms? [1999] 41. Bamboo plant is growing in a far forest then
(a) Deciduous forests what will be the trophic level of it? [2002]
(b) Grasslands (a) First trophic level (T1)
(c) Savannas (b) Second trophic level (T2)
(d) Tropical rain forests (c) Third trophic level (T3)
35. The maximum biomagnification would be in (d) Fourth trophic level (T4)
which of the following in case of aquatic
ecosystem ? [1999] 42. What is true for individuals of same species?
[2002]
(a) Fishes (b) Phytoplanktons
(c) Birds (d) Zooplanktons (a) Live in same niche
(b) Live in same habitat
36. The greatest biomass of autotrophs in the
(c) Interbreeding
world’s oceans is that of [2000]
(d) Live in different habitats (a) artificial concept of human mind which
cannot be defined in absolute terms
43. In which condition, the gene ratio remains
constant for any species ? [2002] (b) real units of classification devised by
taxonomists
(a) Sexual selection
(c) real basic units of classification
(b) Random mating
(d) the lowest units of classification
(c) Mutation
(d) Gene flow 51. What is a keystone species ? [2004]
(a) A species which makes up only a small
44. Which of the following is a correct pair?
proportion of the total biomass of a
[2002]
community, yet has a huge impact on the
(a) Cuscuta — Parasite community’s organization and survival
(b) Dischidia — Insectivorous (b) A common species that has plenty of
(c) Opuntia — Predator biomass, yet has a fairly low impact on
(d) Capsella —Hydrophyte the community’s organization
45. Two different species cannot live for long (c) A rare species that has minimal impact on
duration in the same niche or habitat. This law the biomass and on other species in the
is [2002] community
(a) Allen’s law (b) Gause’s hypothesis (d) A dominant species that constitutes a
large proportion of the biomass and
(c) Dollo’srule (d) Weismann’s theory
which affects many other species
46. Which of the following is most important for
52. Which of the following is expected to have the
speciation? [2002]
highest value (gm/m2/yr) in a grassland
(a) Seasonal isolation ecosystem? [2004]
(b) Reproductive isolation
(a) Secondary Production (SP)
(c) Behavioural isolation
(b) Tertiary Production (TP)
(d) Tropical Isolation
(c) Gross Production (GP)
47. Reason of fast speciation in present day crop (d) Net Production (NP)
plants is [2002]
53. An ecosystem which can be easily damaged
(a) mutation (b) isolation but can recover after some time if damaging
(c) polyploidy (d) sexual reproduction effect stops, will be having [2004]
48. Mycorrhiza is an example of [2003] (a) low stability and high resilience
(a) endoparasitism (b) decomposers (b) high stability and low resilience
(c) symbiotic relationship (c) low stability and low resilience
(d) ectoparasitism (d) high stability and high resilience
49. Escherichia coli is used as an indicator 54. Lichens are well known combination of an alga
organism to determine pollution of water with and a fungus where fungus has [2004]
[2003] (a) a saprophytic relationship with the alga
(a) industrial effluents (b) an epiphytic relationship with the alga
(b) pollen of aquatic plants (c) a parasitic relationship with the alga
(c) heavy metals (d) a symbiotic relationship with the alga
(d) faecal matter
50. Species are considered as [2003]
55. There exists a close association between the (c) Rate of energy flow
alga and the fungus within a lichen. The (d) Fresh weight
fungus [2005]
61. Niche overlap indicates [2006]
(a) provides protection, anchorage and
(a) active cooperation between two species
absorption for the alga
(b) two different parasites on the same host
(b) provides food for the alga
(c) sharing of one or more resources
(c) fixes the atmospheric nitrogen for the
between the two species
alga
(d) mutualism between two species
(d) release oxygen for the alga
62. Which of the following ecosystem types has
56. Animals have the innate ability to escape from
the highest annual net primary productivity?
predation. Examples for the same are given
[2007]
below. Select the incorrect example
[2005] (a) Tropical rain forest
(b) Tropical deciduous forest
(a) enlargement of body size by swallowing
air in puffer fish (c) Temperate evergreen forest
(b) melanism in moths (d) Temperate deciduous forest
(c) poison fangs in snakes 63. A high density of elephant population in an
(d) colour change in Chamaeleon area can result in [2007]
57. Which one of the following pairs is (a) mutualism
mismatched ? [2005] (b) intraspecific competition (c) interspecific
competition
(a) Savanna —Acacia trees
(d) predation on one another
(b) Prairie — Epiphytes
(c) Tundra — Permafrost 64. The table below gives the populations (in
(d) Coniferous forest — Evergreen trees thousands) of ten species (A-J) in four areas
(a-d) consisting of the number of habitats
58. Praying mantis is a good example of [2006] given within brackets against each. Study
(a) warning colouration the table and answer the question which
(b) social insects follows
(c) camouflage Which area out of a to d shows maximum
(d) Mullerian mimicry species diversity? [2008]
59. Which of the following is not true for a
species? [2005]
(a) Members of a species can interbreed
(b) Variations occur among members of a
species
(c) Each species is reproductively isolated
from every other species
(d) Gene flow does not occur between the (a) b (b) c (c) d (d) a
populations of a species
65. Consider the following statements concerning
60. Which one of the following is not used for food chains [2008]
construction of ecological pyramids?[2006] (A) removal of 80% tigers from an area
(a) Dry weight resulted in greatly increased growth of
(b) Number of individuals vegetation
(B) removal of most of the carnivores resulted (c) Standing crop

in an increased population of deers (d) Gross primary productivity
(C) the length of food chains is generally
71. Which one of the following is one of the
limited to 3-4 trophic levels due to energy
characteristics of a biological community?
loss
[Pre. 2010]
(D) the length of food chains may vary from 2
(a) Stratification (b) Natality
to 8 trophic levels
(c) Mortality (d) Sex-ratio
Which two of the above statements are
72. Which of the following representations shows
correct?
the pyramid of numbers in a forest ecosystem
(a) B and C (b) C and D :- [Mains 2010]
(c) A and D (d) A and B
66. About 70% of total global carbon is found in
[2008]
(a) grasslands (b) agroecosystems
(c) oceans (d) forests
67. Quercus species are the dominant component
in [2008] (a) A (b) B (c) C (d) D
(a) temperate deciduous forests 73. Which one of the following is most
(b) alpine forests appropriately defined ? [Mains 2010]
(c) scrub forests (a) Amensalism is a relationship in which one
(d) tropical rain forests species is benefited where as the other is
unaffected.
68. Which one of the following types of organisms
occupy more than one trophic level in a pond (b) Predator is an organism that catches and
ecosystem ? [2009] kills other organism for food.
(c) Parasite is an organism which always lives
(a) Zooplankton (b) Frog
inside the body of other organism and
(c) Phytoplankton (d) Fish
may kill it.
69. The correct sequence of plants in a hydrosere (d) Host is an organism which provides food
is : [2009] to another organism.
(a) Pistia Volvox Scirpus Hydrilla Oak 74. Mass of living matter at a trophic level in an
Lantana area at any time is called [Pre. 2011]
(b) Oak Lantana Volvox Hydrilla (a) Standing crop (b) Detritus
Pistia Scirpus (c) Humus (d) Standing state
(c) Oak Lantana Scirpus Pistia 75. Which one of the following statements is
Hydrilla Volvox correct for secondary succession ?
(d) Volvox Hydrilla Pistia Scirpus [Pre. 2011]
Lantana Oak (a) It begins on a bare rock
70. The biomass available for consumption by the (b) It occurs on a deforested site
herbivores and the decomposers is called: (c) It follows primary succession
[Pre. 2010] (d) It is similar to primary succession except
(a) Net primary productivity than it has a relatively fast pace.
(b) Secondary productivity
76. Which one of the following is categorised as a (b) (3) - stable (4) - commensalism, (5) –
parasite in true sense ? [Pre. 2011] marsh
(a) The female Anopheles bites and sucks (c) (1) - aestivation, (2) - escape, (3) - stable,
blood from humans. (4) mutualism
(b) Human foetus developing inside the (d) (3) - expanding, (4) commensalism, (5)
uterus draws nourishment from the biodiversity park
mother. 81. Which one of the following statements for
(c) Head louse living on the human scalp as pyramid of energy is incorrect, whereas the
well as laying eggs on human hair. remaining three are correct ? [2011]
(d) The cuckoo (koel) lays its eggs in crow’s (a) Its base is broad
nest.
(b) It shows energy content of different
77. Both, hydrarch and xerarch successions lead trophic level organisms
to [Mains 2011] (c) It is inverted in shape
(a) Excessive wet conditions (d) It is upright in shape
(b) Medium water conditions 82. The rate of formation of new organic matter
(c) Xeric conditions by rabbit in a grassland, is called : [2012]
(d) Highly dry conditions (a) Secondary productivity
78. Which one of the following animals may (b) Net primary productivity
occupy more than one trophic levels in the (c) Gross primary productivity
same ecosystem at the same time ? (d) Net productivity
[Mains 2011]
83. Identify the likely organism (A), (B), (C) and
(a) Frog (b) Sparrow
(D) in food web shown below :
(c) Lion (d) Goat [Mains 2012]
79. The breakdown of detritus into smaller
particles by earthworm is a process called :
[Mains 2011]
(a) Catabolism (b) Humification
(c) Fragmentation (d) Mineralisation
80. Consider the following statements (A)-(D)
each with one or two blanks. [Mains 2011]
(A) Bears go into ......(1)..... during winter to
.......(2)...... cold weather
(B) A conical age pyramid with a broad base (A) (B) (C) (D)
represents ....(3)..... human population.
(a) Dog Squirrel Bat Deer
(C) A wasp pollinating a fig flower is an
(b) Rat Dog Tortoise Crow
example of........(4)......
(c) Squirrel Cat Rat Pigeon
(D) An are a with high levels of species
(d) Deer Rabbit Frog Rat
richness is known as............(5)..........
84. The second stage of hydrosere is occupied by
Which one of the following options, gives the
plants like [Mains 2012]
correct fill ups for the respective blank
numbers from (1) to (5) in the statements? (a) Typha
(b) Salix
(a) (1) - hibernation, (2) - escape; (3)
expanding, (5) - hot spot, (c) Vallisneria
(d) Azolla Plant Insect Frog “A” Eagle

85. Which one of the following is not a functional (a) Cobra (b) Parrot
part of an ecosystem [Pre. 2012] (c) Rabbit (d) Wolf
(a) Productivity
91. Natural reservoir of phosphorus is : [2013]
(b) Stratification
(a) Sea water
(c) Energy flow
(b) Animal bones
(d) Decomposition
(c) Rock
86. The upright pyramid of number is absent in
(d) Fossils
[Pre. 2012]
(a) Lake 92. Secondary productivity is rate of formation of
(b) Grassland new organic matter by : [2013]
(c) Pond (a) Producer
(d) Forest (b) Parasite
87. Which one of the following is not a gaseous (c) Consumer
biogeochemical cycle in ecosystem ? (d) Decomposer
[Pre. 2012] 93. A sedentary sea anemone gets attached to the
(a) Nitrogen cycle shell lining of hermit crab. The association is :
(b) Carbon cycle [2013]
(c) Sulphur cycle (a) Ectoparasitism
(d) Phosphorus cycle (b) Symbiosis
88. Which one of the following microbes forms (c) Commensalism
symbiotic association with plants and helps (d) Amensalism
them in their nutrition ? [Pre. 2012]
94. Match the following and select the correct
(a) Glomus (b) Trichoderma
option : [AIPMT 2014]
(c) Azotobacter (d) Aspergillus
(a) Earthworm (i) Pioneer species
89. Given below is an imaginary pyramid of (b) Succession (ii) Detritivore
numbers what could be one of the
(c) Ecosystem service (iii) Natality
possibilities about certain organisms at some
(d) Population growth (iv) Pollination
of the different levels [Pre. 2012]
(a) (a) (i); (b) (ii); (c) (iii); (d) (iv) (b) (a)
(iv); (b) (i); (c) (iii); (d) (ii)
(c) (a) (iii); (b) (ii); (c) (iv); (d) (i)
(d) (a) (ii); (b) (i); (c) (iv); (d) (iii)
95. Given below is a simplified model of
(a) Level one PP is “pipal trees” and the level phosphorus cycling in a terrestrial ecosystem
SC is “sheep” with four blanks (A-D).
(b) Level PC “rats” and level SC is “cats” Identify the blanks. [AIPMT 2014]
(c) Level PC is “insects” and level SC is “small
insectivorous birds”
(d) Level PP is “ phytoplanktons “ in sea and “
whale “ on top level TC
90. Idetify the possible link “A” in the following
food chain : [Pre. 2012]
(a) Gross primary productivity

(b) Secondary productivity
(c) Net productivity (d) Net primary
productivity
101. Secondary Succession takes place on/in :
[AIPMT 2015]
(a) Degraded forest
A B C D (b) Newly created pond
(a) Rock Detritus Litter fall Producers minerals (c) Newly cooled lava
(b) Litter fall Producers Rock minerals Detritus
(c) Detritus Rock Producers Litter fall (d) Bare rock
minerals
102. The following graph depicts changes in two
(d) Producers Litter fall Rock minerals Detritus populations (A and B) of herbivores in a grassy
96. If 20 J of energy is trapped at producer level, field. A possible reason for these changes is
then how much energy will be available to that [AIPMT 2015]
peacock as food in the following chain? Plant
Mice Snake Peacock
[AIPMT 2014]
(a) 0.02 J (b) 0.002 J
(c) 0.2 J (d) 0.0002 J (a) Population B competed more successfully
97. Most animals are tree dwellers in a - for food than population A
[AIPMT 2015] (b) Population A produced more offspring
(a) Thorn woodland than population B
(b) Temperate deciduous forest (c) Population A consumed the members of
(c) Tropical rain forest population B
(d) Coniferous forest (d) Both plant populations in this habitat
decreased
98. Vertical distribution of different species
occupying different levels in a biotic 103. In which of the following interactions both
community is known as: [AIPMT 2015] partners are adversely affected ?
[RE-AIPMT 2015]
(a) Stratification
(a) Mutualism
(b) Zonation
(b) Competition
(c) Pyramid
(c) Predation
(d) Divergence
(d) Parasitism
99. The mass of living material at a trophic level at
a particular time is called :[AIPMT 2015] 104. Most animals that live in deep oceanic waters
are : [RE-AIPMT 2015]
(a) Standing state
(a) Detritivores
(b) Net primary productivity
(b) Primary consumers
(c) Standing crop
(c) Secondary consumers
(d) Gross primary productivity
(d) Tertiary consumers
100. In an ecosystem the rate of production of
organic matter during photosynthesis is 105. In which of the following both pairs have
termed as: [AIPMT 2015] correct combination : [RE-AIPMT 2015]
(a) Gaseous
nutrient cycle - Sulphur andPhosphorus, Answers
Sedimentary nutrient cycle - Carbon and
Nitrogen. (d) Gaseous nutrient cycle - Nitrogen and
(b) Gaseous nutrient cycle - Carbon Sulphur, Sedimentary nutrient cycle
andNitrogen, Sedimentary nutrient cycle Carbon and Phosphorus.
Sulphur and Phosphorus. 106. During ecological succession :
(c) Gaseous nutrient cycle - Carbon [RE-AIPMT 2015]
andSulphur, Sedimentary nutrient cycle (a) the changes lead to a community that is in
Nitrogen and Phosphorus. near equilibrium with the environment
and is called pioneer community
(b) the gradual and predictable change in
species composition occurs in a given area
(c) the establishment of a new biotic
community is very fast in its primary phase
(d) the number and types of animals remain
constant
1 -a 2 -a 3 -b 4 -c 5 -b 6 -d 7 -c 8 -a 9 -c 10 -b
11 -c 12 -c 13 -a 14 -a 15 -d 16 -d 17 -b 18 -d 19 -d 20 -b
21 -c 22 -b 23 -a 24 -b 25 -a 26 -b 27 -d 28 -b 29 -a 30 -b
31 -b 32 -d 33 -a 34 -d 35 -a 36 -d 37 -a 38 -c 39 -c 40 -c
41 -a 42 -c 43 -b 44 -a 45 -b 46 -b 47 -c 48 -c 49 -d 50 -c 51 -a 52 -c 53 -a 54 -d 55 -a 56 -c 57 -b 58 -c 59 -
d 60 -d
61 -c 62 -a 63 -b 64 -c 65 -a 66 -c 67 -a 68 -d 69 -d 70 -c
71 -a 72 -b 73 -b 74 -a 75 -b 76 -c 77 -b 78 -b 79 -c 80 -a
81 -c 82 -a 83 -d 84 -c 85 -b 86 -d 87 -d 88 -a 89 -c 90 -a 91 -c 92 -c 93 -b 94 -d 95 -c 96 -a 97 -c 98 -a
99 -c 100 -a 101-a 102 -a 103 -b 104 -a 105 -b 106 -b
37
BIODIVERSITY AND CONSERVATION
1. Soil conservation is [1989] (a) crop rotation

(a) conversion of sterile soil into fertile one (b) nitrogen-fixing bacteria
(b) aeration of soil (c) decaying organic matter
(c) erosion of soil (d) intensive agriculture
(d) protection against loss 10. American water plant that has become a
2. Deforestation will decrease [1990] troublesome water weed in India is [1993]
(a) soil erosion (b) land slides (a) Cyperus rotundus
(c) soil fertility (d) rainfall (b) Eichhornia crassipes
(c) Trapa latifolia
3. Geothermal energy is [1991, 92]
(d) Trapa bispinosa
(a) non-renewable non-conventional energy
source 11. National Park associated with rhinoceros is
(b) non-renewable conventional energy [1994, 2006]
source (a) Kaziranga(b) Ranthambore
(c) renewable non-conventional energy (c) Corbett (d) Valley of flowers
source 12. Bulk fixation of carbon through photosynthesis
(d) renewable conventional energy source takes place in [1994]
4. Renewable source of energy is [1991] (a) tropical rain forests(b) tropical rain forests
(a) biomass (b) coal and crop plants
(c) petroleum (d) kerosene (c) crop plants (d) oceans
5. Petroleum is a [1992] 13. Deforestation does not lead to [1994]

(a) synthetic product (a) quick nutrient cycling
(b) renewable resource (b) soil erosion
(c) non-renewable resource (c) alteration of local weather conditions
(d) inconvenient resource (d) destruction of natural habitat of wild
animals
6. Fertility of soil is measured by its ability to
14. Largest amount of fresh water is found in
(a) retain nutrients [1992]
[1994]
(b) hold organic materials
(a) lakes and streams
(c) hold water
(b) underground
(d) support life
(c) polar ice and glaciers
7. Minerals and metals are [1992] (d) rivers
(a) biodegradable resources
15. Ranthambore National Park is situated in
(b) renewable
[1994]
(c) non-renewable
(a) Maharashtra (b) Rajasthan
(c) Gujarat (d) UP
8. Water is a resource [1992]
16. Wild life is destroyed most when [1994,2002]
(a) non-degradable, non-maintainable
(a) there is lack of proper care
(b) degradable, maintainable
(b) mass scale hunting for foreign trade
(c) renewable
(c) its natural habitat is destroyed
(d) non-renewable
(d) natural calamity
9. Soil fertility is reduced by [1992]
17. Which animal has become extinct from India? (a) Destruction of habitats
[1994] (b) Pollution of air and water
(a) Snow leopard (b) Hippopotamus (c) Hunting for flesh
(c) Wolf (d) Cheetah (d) All of the above
18. Tropical forests occur in India [1994] 25. Land mass occupied by forests is about
(a) Jammu and Kashmir [1999]
(b) Rajasthan (a) 60% (b) 30%
(c) Kerala and Assam (c) 22% (d) 11%
(d) The forests do not occur in India 26. The endangered largest living lemur Idri idri is
19. Which of the following is the main factor of inhabitant of [2000]
desertification? [1995] (a) Madagascar (b) Mauritius
(a) Tourism (b) Irrigated agriculture (c) Sri Lanka (d) India
(c) Over grazing (d) All of the above 27. Which endangered animal is the source of the
20. Which of the following is the correct matching world’s finest, lightest, warmest and – most
pair of a sanctuary and its main pro- expensive wool – the shahtoosh ?
tected wild animal? [1995] [2003]
(a) Gir —lion (a) Kashmiri goat (b) Chiru
(c) Nilgai (d) Cheetal
(b) Sariska —Tiger
28. Which group of vertebrates comprises the
(c) Sunderban —Rhino highest number of endangered species?
[2003]
(d) Kaziranga —Musk deer (a) Reptiles (b) Birds
21. Flamingoes breed in [1996] (c) Mammals (d) Fishes
29. In your opinion, which is the most effective
(a) Rann of Kutch (b) Chilka lake
way to conserve the plant diversity of an area?
(c) Sambhar lake (d) Lake Mansarover [2004]
22. A number of natural reserves have been (a) By tissue culture method
created to conserve specific wild life species. (b) By creating biosphere reserve
Identify the correct combination from the (c) By creating botanical garden
following [1996]
(d) By developing seed bank
(a) Gir forest — Tiger
30. One of the most important function of
(b) Kaziranga — Elephants
botanical garden is that [2005]
(c) Rann of Kutch — Wild ass
(a) one can observe tropical plants there
(d) Manas Wild Life Sanctuary — Musk deer
(b) they allow ex situ conservation of
23. MAB stands for [1997] germplasm
(a) Man And Biology programme (c) they provide the natural habitat for wild
(b) Man And Biosphere programme life
(c) Mammals And Biosphere (d) they provide a beautiful area for
(d) Mammals And Biology programme recreation
24. Which of the following is mainly responsible 31. Biodiversity act of India was passed by the
for extinction of wild life? [1999] Parliament in the year [2005]
(a) 1996 (b) 1992 (c) Garlic (d) Nepenthes

(c) 2002 (d) 2000 39. Which one of the following is not observed in
32. According to IUCN red list, what is the status of biodiversity hotspots? [2008]
red panda (Athurus fulgens)? [2005] (a) Endemism
(a) Vulnerable species (b) Accelerated species loss
(b) Critically endangered species (c) Lesser interspecific competition
(c) Extinct species (d) Species richness
(d) Endangered species 40. Chipko movement was launched for the
33. Which of the following pairs of an animal and protection of: [2009]
a plant represents endangered organisms in (a) Livestock(b) Wetlands
India ? [2006] (c) Grasslands (d) Forests
(a) Bentinckia nicobarica and red panda
41. Tiger is not a resident in which one of the
(b) Tamarind and rhesus monkey following national park? [2009]
(c) Cinchona and leopard (a) Gir (b) Jim Corbett
(d) Banyan and black buck (c) Ranthambhor (d) Sunderbans
34. Which one of the following is not included
under in situ conservation? [2006] 42. Which one of the following is an example of ex-
situ conservation? [Pre. 2010]
(a) Sanctuary
(a) Wildlife sanctuary
(b) Botanical Gardens
(b) Seed bank
(c) Biosphere reserve
(c) Sacred groves (d) National park
(d) National Park
43. A renewable exhaustible natural resource is
35. Which of the following is considered a hotspot
[Pre. 2010]
of biodiversity in India? [2006] (a) Western
ghats (b) Indo-Gangetic plain (a) Coal (b) Petroleum
(c) Eastern ghats (d) Aravalli hills (c) Minerals (d) Forest
36. ICBN stands for [2007] 44. The Indian Rhinoceros is a natural inhabitant
of which one of the Indian states ?
(a) Indian Congress of Biological Names
[Mains 2010]
(b) International Code of Botanical
(a) Uttar Pradesh
Nomenclature
(b) Himachal Pradesh
(c) International Congress of Biological
Names (c) Assam (d) Uttarakhand
(d) Indian Code of Botanical Nomenclature 45. Which one of the following expanded forms of
the following acronyms is correct ?
37. Identify the odd combination of the habitat
[Pre. 2011]
and the particular animal concerned[2007]
(a) IPCC = International Panel for Climate
(a) Dachigam National Park — Snow leopard
Change
(b) Sunderbans — Bengal tiger
(b) UNEP=United Nations Environmental
(c) Periyar — Elephant
Policy
(d) Rann of Kutch — Wild ass
(c) EPA=Environmental Pollution Agency
38. One endangered species of Indian medicinal (d) IUCN = International Union for
plants is that of [2007] Conservation of Nature and Natural
(a) Podophyllum (b) Ocimum Resources 46. A collection of plants and
seeds having divers alleles of all the genes 52. Which one of the following areas in India, is
of a crop is called [Pre. 2011] hot spot of biodiversity ? [Pre. 2012]
(a) Herbarium (b) Germplasm (a) Sunderbans (b) Western Ghats
(c) Gene library (d) Genome (c) Eastern Ghats (d) Gangetic plain
47. Which one of the following statements for 53. Which one of the following is not used for ex
pyramid of energy is incorrect, whereas the situ plant conservation? [2013]
remaining three are correct ? [Pre. 2011] (a) Field gene banks
(a) Its base is broad (b) Seed banks
(b) It shows energy content of different (c) Shifting cultivation
trophic level organisms
(d) Botanical Gardens
(c) It is inverted in shape
(d) It is upright in shape 54. Which of the following represent maximum
number of species among global biodiversity ?
48. Biodiversity of a geographical region
(a) Algae (b) Lichens [2013]
represents : [2011] (a)
(c) Fungi (d) Mosses and Ferns
Species endemic to the region
(b) Endangered species found in the region
(c) The diversity in the organisms living in the
region.
(d) Genetic diversity present in the dominant
species of the region.
49. Select the correct statement about
biodiversity
[Mains 2012]
(a) Large scale planting of Bt cotton has no
adverse effect on biodiversity
(b) Western Ghats have a very high degree of
species richness and endemism
(c) Conservation of biodiversity is just a fad
pursued by the developed countries
(d) The desert areas of Rajasthan and Gujarat
have a very high level of desert animal
species as well as numerous rare animals
50. Sacred grooves are specially useful in
[Mains 2012]
(a) preventing soil erosion
(b) year-round flow of water in rivers
(c) conserving rare and threatened species
(d) generating environmental awareness
51. The highest number of species in the world
represented by [Pre. 2012]
(a) Algae (b) Lichens
(c) Fungi (d) Mosses
55. An example of ex situ conservation is Options :
-
[AIPMT A B C D
2014] Insects Crustaceans Other animal Groups Molluscs

Crustaceans Insects Molluscs
(a) National Park (1) Other
animal
(b) Seed Bank
Molluscs Other animal Crustaceans Groups
(2)
(c) Wildlife Sanctuary Groups Insects
(d) Sacred Groove Insects Molluscs Crustaceans
Other
56. A species facing extremely high risk animal
Groups
of ex- (3) tinction in the immediate
future is called
[AIPMT
(4)
2014] (a) Vulnerable
(b) Endemic 60. Cryopreservation of gametes of threatened
(c) Critically Endangered species in viable and fertile condition can be
(d) Extinct referred to as:- [AIPMT 2015]
57. The organization which publishes the Red List (a) Advanced ex-situ conservation of
of species is [AIPMT 2014] biodiversity
(b) In situ conservation by sacred groves
(a) ICFRE (b) IUCN (c) UNEP (d) WWF
(c) In situ cryo-conservation of biodiversity (d)
58. Just as a person moving from Delhi to Shimla In situ conservation of biodiversity
to escape the heat for the duration of hot
61. In which of the following, both pairs have
summer, thousands of migratory birds from
correct combination : [AIPMT 2015]
Siberia and other extremely cold northern
regions move to - [AIPMT 2014] (a) In situ conservation : Cryopreservation,
(a) Western Ghats Ex situ conservation : Wildlife Sanctuary
(b) Meghalaya (b) In situ conservation : Seed Bank, Ex
situconservation : National Park
(c) Corbett National Park
(c) In situ conservation : Tissue culture, Exsitu
(d) Keoladeo National Park
conservation : Sacred groves
59. Given below is the representation of the (d) In situ conservation : National Park, Exsitu
extent of global diversity of invertebrates. conservation : Botanical Garden
What groups the four portions (A-D) represent
re- 62. The species confined to a particular region and
spectively? [AIPMT 2014] not found elsewhere is termed as :
[RE-AIPMT 2015]
(a) Rare (b) Keystone
(c) Alien (d) Endemic
Answers
1 -d 2 -d 3 -a 4 -a 5 -c 6 -d 7 -c 8 -c 9 -d 10 -b
11 -a 12 -d 13 -a 14 -c 15 -b 16 -c 17 -d 18 -c 19 -c 20 -b
21 -b 22 -c 23 -b 24 -a 25 -c 26 -a 27 -b 28 -c 29 -b 30 -b
31 -c 32 -d 33 -a 34 -b 35 -a 36 -b 37 -a 38 -a 39 -c 40 -d
41 -a 42 -b 43 -d 44 -c 45 -d 46 -b 47 -c 48 -c 49 -b 50 -c
51 -c 52 -b 53 -c 54 -c 55 -b 56 -c 57 -b 58 -d 59 -d 60 -a
61 -d 62 -d
38
ENVIRONMENTAL ISSUES
1. Lichens indicate SO2 pollution because they (d) ethyl isothiocyanate
[1989, 92] 6. Domestic waste constitutes [1991]
(a) show association between algae and fungi (a) non-biodegradable pollution
(b) grow faster than others (b) biodegradable pollution
(c) are sensitive to SO2 (c) effluents
(d) flourish in SO2 rich environment (d) air pollution
2. Acid rains are produced by [1989, 91] 7. Which one is not a pollutant normally?
(a) excess NO2 and SO2 from burning fossil [1992]
fuels (a) Hydrocarbons
(b) excess production of NH3 by industry and (b) Carbon dioxide
coal gas (c) Carbon monoxide
(c) excess release of carbon monoxide by (d) Sulphur dioxide
incomplete combustion
8. Most hazardous metal pollutant of
(d) excess formation of CO2 by combustion automobile exhausts is [1992]
and animal respiration
(a) mercury (b) cadmium
3. Green-house effect is warming due to (c) lead (d) copper
[1989,91,94]
9. Ultraviolet radiations from sunlight cause a
(a) infra-red rays reaching earth
reaction which produces [1993]
(b) moisture layer in atmosphere
(a) O3 (b) SO2
(c) increase in temperature due to increase in
carbon dioxide concentration of (c) CO (d) CH4
atmosphere 10. Drawback of DDT as pesticide is [1994,99]
(d) ozone layer of atmosphere (a) it becomes ineffective after some time
4. Major aerosol pollutant in jet plane emission (b) it is less effective than others
is [1990] (c) it is not easily/rapidly degraded in nature
(a) sulphur dioxide (d) its high cost
(b) carbon monoxide 11. Highest DDT deposition shall occur in
(c) methane [1994,99]
(d) chlorofluoro-carbons (a) phytoplankton (b) sea gull/birds
5. Gas released during Bhopal tragedy was (c) crab (d) eel
[1990] 12. Fish die in water bodies polluted by sewage
(a) methyl isocyanate due to [1994]
(b) potassium isothiocyanate (a) pathogens
(c) sodium isothiocyanate (b) clogging of gills by silt
(c) reduction in oxygen (d) it increases competition with fishes for

(d) fuel smell dissolved oxygen
13. Disease caused by eating fish found in water 20. The major contributor of green-house gases
contaminated with industrial waste hav- to the atmosphere is [1996,2002]
ing mercury is [1994] (a) Russia (b) USA
(a) Minamata disease (c) Germany (d) Brazil
(b) Blight’s disease 21. The worst environmental hazards were
(c) Hashimoto’s disease created by accidents in nuclear power plant
(d) Osteosclerosis and MIC gas tragedy respectively in
[1996]
14. Sound becomes hazardous noise pollution at
level [1994] (a) Russia in 1990 and Bhopal in 1986
(a) above 30 dB (b) above 80 dB (b) Ukrain in 1988 and USA in 1984
(c) Bhopal in 1984 and Russia in 1990
(c) above 100 dB (d) above 120 dB
(d) Ukrain in 1986 and Bhopal in 1984
15. Atmosphere of big/metropolitan cities is
polluted most by [1994] 22. If the forest cover is reduced to half, what is
most likely to happen on a long term basis?
(a) automobile exhausts
[1996]
(b) pesticide residue
(a) Tribals living in these areas will starve to
(c) household waste
death
(d) radioactive fall-out
(b) Cattle in these and adjoining areas will die
16. When huge amount of sewage is dumped due to lack of fodder
into a river, its BOD will [1995] (c) Large areas will become deserts
(a) increase (d) Crop breeding programmes will suffer due
(b) decrease to a reduced availability of variety of
(c) sharply decrease germplasm
(d) remain unchanged 23. The most common indicator organism which
17. In Minamata Bay of Japan, the animals which represents polluted water is [1997]
remained free from Minamata disease, are (a) Escherichia coli
[1995] (b) Salmonella typhi
(a) pigs (b) rabbits (c) Vibrio cholerae
(c) dogs (d) cats (d) Entamoeba histolytica
18. The Taj Mahal is threatened due to the effect 24. Phosphate pollution is mainly caused by
of [1995] (a) phosphate rock only [1997]
(a) oxygen (b) hydrogen (b) agricultural fertilizers only
(c) chlorine (d) sulphur dioxide (c) sewage and phosphate rocks
19. Sewage drained into water bodies kill fishes (d) sewage and agricultural fertilizers
because [1996] 25. The CO2content by volume, in the
(a) excessive carbon dioxide is added to atmospheric air is about [1997]
water (a) 0.0314% (b) 0.34%
(b) it gives off a bad smell (c) 3.34% (d) 4%
(c) it removes the food eaten by fish 26. Formation of ozone hole is maximum over
(a) India (b) Antarctica [1997] (c) Europe (d) 34. A sewage treatment process in which a
Africa portion of the decomposer bacteria present
27. In coming years, skin related disorders will be in the waste is recycled into the beginning of
more common due to [1997] the process, is called [1998]
(a) air pollution (a) cyclic treatment

(b) use of detergents (b) primary treatment
(c) water pollution (c) activated sludge treatment
(d) depletion of ozone layer (d) tertiary treatment
28. Which one of the following organism is used 35. Which of the following is the use of lichens in
as indicator of water quality ? [1998] case of pollution? [1999]
(a) Beggiatoa (b) Chlorella (a) Lichens are not related with pollution
(c) Azospirillum (d) Escherichia (b) They act as bioindicators of pollution
(c) They treat the polluted water
29. Which important green-house gas, other
(d) They promote pollution
than methane, is being produced from the
agricultural fields? [1998] 36. Which of the following is a secondary
(a) Arsine (b) Sulphur dioxide pollutant ? [1999]
(c) Ammonia (d) Nitrous oxide (a) Aerosol (b) CO
(c) PAN (d) CO2
30. The supersonic jets cause pollution by the
thinning of [1998] 37. Green-house effect refers to [1999]
(a) CO 2 layer (b) SO2 layer (a) production of cereals
(c) O2 layer (d) O3 layer (b) cooling of earth
(c) trapping of UV rays
31. Warm ocean surge of the peru current
(d) warming of earth
recurring every 5 to 8 year or so in the East
Pacific of South America is widely known as 38. In 1984, Bhopal gas tragedy was caused due
[1998] to the leakage of [1999]
(a) Magnox (b) Gull stream (a) potassium isocyanate
(c) El Nino (d) Aye aye (b) sodium monoxide
32. Carbon monoxide is a pollutant because (c) sodium thiocyanate
(a) it reacts with O2 [1998] (d) methyl isocyanate
(b) it inhibits glycolysis 39. Which of the following is pollution related
(c) it reacts with haemoglobin disorder ? [1999]
(d) it makes nervous system inactive (a) Fluorosis (b) Leprosy
(c) Pneumonicosis(d) Silicosis
33. If there was no CO2 in the earth’s
atmosphere the temperature of earth’s 40. Relative Biological Effectiveness [RBE]
surface would be usually refers to the damages caused by
(a) same as present [1998] [2000]
(b) less than the present (a) low temperature
(c) higher than the present (b) high temperature
(d) dependent on the amount of oxygen in (c) radiation (d) pollution
the atmosphere 41. What is the intensity of sound in normal
conversation? [2001]
(a) 10-20 dB (b) 30-60 dB 49. Which of the following is not used for
(c) 70-90 dB (d) 120-150 dB disinfection of drinking water?
[2005]
42. What is BOD? [2001]
(a) Phenyl (b) Chloramine
(a) The amount of O2 utilized by organisms in
(c) Chlorine (d) Ozone
water
(b) The amount of O2 utilized by 50. Which one of the following pair is
microorganisms for decomposition mismatched? [2005]
(c) The total amount of O2 present in water (a) Biomass burning — Release of CO2
(d) All of the above (b) Fossil fuel burning — Release of CO2
43. Which of the following is absent in polluted (c) Nuclear power — Radioactive wastes
water ? [2002] (d) Solar energy — Green-house effect
(a) Hydrilla (b) Water hyacinth 51. Photochemical smog pollution does not
(c) Larva of stone fly contain [2006]
(d) Blue-green algae (a) ozone
44. Fluoride pollution mainly affects (b) nitrogen dioxide
[2003] (c) carbon dioxide
(a) teeth (b) kidney (d) PAN [Peroxy Acyl Nitrate]
(c) brain (d) heart 52. Limit of BOD prescribed by Central Pollution
45. If by radiation all nitrogenase enzymes are Control Board for the discharge of industrial
inactivated, then there will be no [2004] and municipal waste water into natural
(a) fixation of nitrogen in legumes surface water, is [2006]
(b) fixation of atmospheric nitrogen (a) < 3.0 ppm (b) < 10 ppm
(c) conversion from nitrate to nitrite in (c) < 100 ppm (d) < 30 ppm
legumes 53. Montreal Protocol which calls for
(d) conversion from ammonium to nitrate in appropriate action to protect the ozone layer
soil from human activities was passed in the year
46. Lead concentration in blood is considered [2006]
alarming if it is [2004] (a) 1986 (b) 1987
(a) 20mg/100mL (b) 30mg/100mL (c) 1988 (d) 1985
(c) 4-6mg/100mL (d) 10mg/100mL 54. In a coal fired power plant electrostatic
47. In 1984, the Bhopal gas tragedy took place precipitators are installed to control
because methyl isocyanate [2004] emission of [2007]
(a) reacted with DDT (a) SO2 (b) NOX
(b) reacted with ammonia (c) SPM (d) CO
(c) reacted with CO2 55. Which one of the following is not a
(d) reacted with water bioindicator of water pollution ? [2007]
48. Prolonged liberal irrigation of agricultural (a) Sludge worms (b) Blood worms
fields is likely to create the problem of (c) Stone flies (d) Sewage fungus
[2005] 56. In which one of the following the BOD
(a) acidity (b) aridity (Biochemical Oxygen Demand) of Sewage
(c) metal toxicity (d) salinity (S), Distillery Effluent (DE), Paper mill
Effluent (PE) and Sugar mill Effluent (SE) have (b) use of non-polluting Compressed Natural
been arranged in ascending order ? [2007] Gas (CNG) only as fuel by all buses and
(a) SE < S < PE < DE (b) SE < PE < S < DE trucks.
(c) PE < S < SE < DE (d) S < DE < PE < SE (c) compulsory mixing of 20% ethyl alcohol
with petrol & 20% biodiesel with diesel.
57. A lake near a village suffered heavy mortality
of fishes within a few days. Consider the (d) compulsory PUC (Pollution Under
following reasons for this [2008] Control) certification of petrol driven
vehicles which tests for carbon
(1) Lots of urea and phosphate fertilizer were
monoxide and hydrocarbons.
used in the crops in the vicinity.
(2) The area was sprayed with DDT by an 62. Biochemical Oxygen Demand (BOD) in a river
aircraft. water: [2009] (a) gives a measure of
(3) The lake water turned green and stinky. salmonella in the water.
(4) Phytoplankton populations in the lake (b) increases when sewage gets mixed with
declined initially thereby greatly reducing river water.
photosynthesis. Which two of the above (c) remains unchanged when algal bloom
were the main causes of fish mortality in occurs.
the lake? (d) has no relationship with concentration of
(a) 2, 3 (b) 3, 4 (c) 1, 3 (d) 1, 2. oxygen in the water.
58. World Summit on Sustainable Development 63. DDT residues are rapidly passed through
[2002] was held in [2008] food chain causing bio-magnification
because DDT is [2009]
(a) Brazil (b) Sweden
(a) non-toxic to aquatic animals
(c) Argentina (d) South Africa
(b) water soluble
59. According to Central Pollution Control Board (c) lipo soluble (d) moderately toxic
(CPCB), which paniculate size in diameter (in
micrometers) of the air pollutants is 64. Global agreement in specific control
responsible for greatest harm to human strategies to reduce the release of ozone
health? [2008] depleting
substances, was adopted by [2009]
(a) 2.5 or less (b) 1.5 or less
(c) 1.0 or less (d) 5.2 or 2.5 (a) The Kyoto Protocol
(b) The Vienna Convention
(c) Rio de Janerio Conference
percentage of the two (out of the total of 4)
(d) The Montreal Protocol
greenhouse gases that contribute to the
total global warming? [2008] 65. Montreal Protocol aims at [2009]
(a) CFCs 14%, CH4 20% (a) Control of water pollution
(b) CO2 40%, CFCs 30% (b) Control of CO2 emission
(c) Reduction of ozone depleting substances
(c) N2O 6%, CO2 86%
(d) Biodiversity conservation
(d) CH4 20%, N2O 18%
66. Select the correct statement from the
61. Steps taken by the Government of India to following [Pre. 2010]
control air pollution include: [2009]
(a) Biogas is produced by the activity of
(a) Permission to use only pure diesel with a
aerobic bacteria on animal waste
maximum of 500 ppm sulphur as fuel for
(b) Methanobacterium is an aerobic
vehicles.
bacterium found in rumen of cattle
(c) Biogas, commonly called gobar gas, is (b) Mechanical process

pure methane (c) Chemical process
(d) Activated sludge-sediment in settlement (d) Biological process
tanks of sewage treatment plant is a rich
73. Which of the following is mainly produced by
source of aerobic bacteria.
the activity of anaerobic bacteria on sewage
67. dB is a standard abbreviation used for the ? [Pre. 2011]
quantitative expression of [Pre. 2010] (a) Laughing gas (b) Propane
(a) the density of bacteria in a medium (c) Mustard gas (d) Marsh gas
(b) a particular pollutant
74. Continuous addition of sugars in ‘fed batch
(c) the dominant Bacillus in a culture
fermentation is done to [Pre. 2011]
(d) a certain pesticide
(a) Produce methane
68. The two gases making highest relative (b) Obtain antibiotics
contribution to the greenhouse gases are (c) Purify enzymes (d) Degrade sewage
[Pre. 2010]
75. Which one of the following statements is
(a) CO2 and CH4 (b) CH4 and N2O wrong in case of Bhopal tragedy? [Pre. 2011]
(c) CFC and N2O (d) CO2 and N2O (a) Methyl Isocyanate gas leakage took place
(b) Thousands of human beings died
69. Stirred-tank bioreactors have been designed
for [Pre. 2010] (c) Radioactive fall out engulfed Bhopal
(d) It took place in the night of December
(a) Addition of preservatives to the product
2 / 3,1984
(b) Purification of the product
(c) Ensuring anaerobic conditions in the 76. “Good ozone” is found in the[Mains 2011]
culture vessel (a) Ionosphere (b) Mesosphere
(d) Availability of oxygen throughout the (c) Troposphere (d) Stratosphere
process
77. The domestic sewage in large cities
70. When domestic sewage mixes with river [Mains 2012]
water [2010] (a) is processed by aerobic and then
(a) The increased microbial activity releases anaerobic bacteria in the secondary
micro-nutrients such as iron. treatment in Sewage Treatment Plant
(b) The increased microbial activity uses up (STPs)
dissolved oxygen. (b) When treated in STPs does not really
(c) The river water is still suitable for drinking require the aeration step as the sewage
as impurities are only about 0.1% contains adequate oxygen
(d) Small animals like rats will die after (c) has very high amounts of suspendedsolids
drinking river water. and dissolved salts
71. Which one of the following pairs of gases are (d) has a high BOD as it contains both aerobic
the major cause of “Greenhouse effect” ? and anaerobic bacteria.
[Pre. 2011] 78. Which one of the following is a wrong
(a) CO2 and O3 (b) CO2 and CO statement [Pre. 2012]
(c) CFCs and SO2 (d) CO2 and N2O (a) Greenhouse effect is a natural
phenomenon
72. Secondary sewage treatement is mainly a (b) Eutrophication is a natural phenomenon
(a) Physical process [Pre. 2011] in freshwater bodies
(c) Most of the forests have been lost in (d) Increasing deforestation, reducing
tropical areas efficiency of energy usage
(d) Ozone in upper part of atmosphere is 84. The Air Prevention and Control of pollution
harmful to animals act came into force in [2013]
79. In an area were DDT had been used (a) 1975 (b) 1981
extensively the population of birds declined (c) 1985 (d) 1990
significantly because [Pre. 2012]
85. A location with luxuriant growth of lichens
(a) Cobras were feeding exclusively on birds
on the trees indicates that the
(b) Many of the eggs laid, did not hatch [AIPMT 2014]
(c) Bird stopped laying eggs
(a) Trees are very healthy
(d) Earthworms in the area got eradicated
(b) Trees are heavily infested
80. Measuring Biochemical Oxygen Demand (c) Location is highly polluted
(BOD) is a method used for : [2012] (d) Location is not polluted
(a) Measuring the activity of Saccharomyces 86. The zone of atmosphere in which the ozone
cerevisae in producing curd on a layer is present is called [AIPMT 2014]
commercial scale.
(a) Ionosphere (b) Mesosphere
(b) Working out the efficiency of R.B.Cs.
(c) Stratosphere (d) Troposphere
about their capacity to carry oxygen.
(c) Estimating the amount of organic matter 87. A scrubber in the exhaust of a chemical
in sawage water. industrial plant removes [AIPMT 2014]
(d) Working out the efficiency of oil driven (a) Gases like sulphur dioxide
automobile engines. (b) Particulate matter of the size 5
micrometer or above
81. Kyoto-Protocol was endorsed at
[2013] (c) Gases like ozone and methane
(d) Particulate matter of the size 2.5
(a) CoP-3 (b) CoP-5
micrometer or less
(c) CoP-6 (d) CoP-4
88. High value of BOD (Biochemical Oxygen
82. During sewage treatment, biogases are
Demand) indicates that : [AIPMT 2015]
produced which include [2013]
(a) Water is highly polluted
(a) methane, hydrogen sulphide, carbon
(b) Water is less polluted
dioxide
(c) Consumption of organic matter in the
(b) methane, oxygen, hydrogen sulphide
water is higher by the microbes
(c) hydrogen sulphide, methane, sulphur
(d) Water is pure
dioxide
(d) hydrogen sulphide, nitrogen, methane 89. The UN Conference of Parties on climate
change in the year 2011 was held in :[AIPMT
83. Global warming can be controlled by
2015]
[2013]
(a) South Africa (b) Peru
(a) Reducing deforestation, cutting down use (c) Qatar (d) Poland
of fossil fuel
(b) Reducing reforestation, increasing the use 90. Rachel Carson’s famous book “Silent
of fossil fuel Spring” is related to [AIPMT 2015]
(c) Increasing deforestation, slowing down (a) Noise pollution
the growth of human population (b) Population explosion
(c) Ecosystem management Answers

(d) Pesticide pollution
(b) food
91. Which of the following is not one of the (c) light
prime health risks associated with greater UV
(d) essential minerals
radiation through the atmosphere due to
depletion of stratospheric ozone ?[AIPMT 93. Acid rain is caused by increase in the
2015] atmospheric concentration of :
(a) Reduced Immune System [RE-AIPMT 2015]
(b) Damage to eyes (a) O3 and dust (b) SO2 and NO2
(c) Increased liver cancer (c) SO3 and CO (d) CO2 and CO
(d) Increased skin cancer
94. Increase in concentration of the toxicant at
92. Eutrophication of water bodies successive trophic levels is known as :
leading tokilling of fishes is mainly due to [RE-AIPMT 2015]
non-availability of : [RE-AIPMT 2015] (a) Biogeochemical cycling
(a) oxygen (b) Biomagnification
(c) Biodeterioration
(d) Biotransformation
95. The UN conference of Parties on climate
change in the year 2012 was held at :
[RE-AIPMT 2015]
(a) Warsaw (b) Durban
(c) Doha (d) Lima
1 -c 2 -a 3 -c 4 -d 5 -a 6 -b 7 -b 8 -c 9 -a 10 -c
11 -b 12 -c 13 -a 14 -b 15 -a 16 -a 17 -b 18 -d 19 -d 20 -b
21 -d 22 -c 23 -a 24 -d 25 -a 26 -b 27 -d 28 -d 29 -d 30 -d
31 -c 32 -c 33 -b 34 -c 35 -b 36 -c 37 -d 38 -d 39 -a 40 -c
41 -b 42 -b 43 -c 44 -a 45 -a 46 -b 47 -d 48 -d 49 -a 50 -d
51 -c 52 -b 53 -b 54 -c 55 -c 56 -d 57 -c 58 -d 59 -a 60 -a 61 -d 62
-b 63 -c 64 -d 65 -c 66 -b 67 -b 68 -a 69 -d 70 -b 71 -d 72 -d 73
-d 74 -b 75 -c 76 -d 77 -a 78- d 79 -b 80 -c
81 -a 82 -a 83 -a 84 -b 85 -d 86 -c 87 -a 88 -a 89 -a 90 -d 91 -c 92 -a
93 -b 94 -b 95 -c
39
GROWTH AND REGENERATION
1. Auxetic growth is [1994] 5. The semilog of per minute growing bacteria is
(a) increase in cell volume only plotted against time. What will be the shape
(b) increase in cell number only of graph ? [2002]
(c) increase in fatty tissue (a) Sigmoid
(d) increase in intercellular material (b) Hyperbola
(c) Ascending straight line
2. According to the “immunity theory” of ageing,
the process starts with the gradual atrophy (d) Descending straight line
and disappearance of [1996] 6. Choose the correct sequence of stages of
(a) thyroid growth curve for bacteria [2002]
(b) parathyroid (a) lag, log, stationary, decline phase
(c) thymus (b) lag, log, stationary phase
(d) islets of Langerhans (c) stationary, lag, log, decline phase
3. The process of series of changes from larva to (d) decline, lag, log phase
adult, after embryonic development is called 7. The maximum growth rate occurs in [2004]
[1999] (a) stationary phase
(a) regeneration (b) senescent phase
(b) metamorphosis (c) lag phase
(c) growth (d) exponential phases
(d) ageing
4. During regeneration, modification of an organ
to other organ is known as [2001]
(a) morphogenesis
(b) epimorphosis
(c) morphallaxis
(d) acretionary growth
40
PESTICIDES AND FERTILIZERS
1. The rotenone is [1995] 5. Biological control component is central to
(a) an insect hormone advanced agricultural production. Which of
(b) a bioherbicide the following is used as a third generation
(c) a natural herbicide pesticide ? [1998]
(d) a natural insecticide (a) Pathogens
(b) Pheromones
2. One of the major difficulties in the biological
(c) Insect repellents
control of insect pests is the [1995]
(d) Insect hormone analogues
(a) practical difficulty of introducing the
predator to specific areas 6. Which of the following is non-symbiotic
(b) method is less effective as compared with biofertilizer ? [1998]
the use of insecticides (a) VAM
(c) predator does not always survive when (b) Azotobacter
transferred to a new environment (c) Anabaena
(d) the predator develops a preference to (d) Rhizobium
other diets and may itself become a pest
7. Which of the following pesticides is an
3. A biofertilizer is [1997] acetylcholinesterase inhibitor? [1998]
(a) a cyanobacterium like Anabaena sp. living (a) Aldrin
in cavities of Azolla leaves (b) Y-BHC
(b) symbiotic bacteria like Azotobacter which (c) Endosulfan
fix atmospheric nitrogen (d) Malathion
(c) farm yard manure consisting of mixture of
8. Fanners have reported over 50% higher yields
cattle dung and crop
of rice by using which of the following
(d) green manure in which a quickly growing
biofertilizer? [1998, 99,2000]
crop is cultivated and ploughes under
(a) Mycorrhiza
4. Which one among the following chemicals is (b) Azolla pinnata
used for causing defoliation of forest trees? (c) Cyanobacteria
[1998] (d) Legume-Rhizobium symbiosis
(a) Amo-1618
9. The aquatic fern, which is an excellent
(b) Phosphon-D
biofertilizer, is [1999, 2001]
(c) Malic hydrazide
(a) Azolla (b) Pteridium
(d) 2, 4-D
(c) Salvinia (d) Marselia
10. DDT is [1999]
(a) a non-degradable pollutant (c) Sugarcane (d) Pongamia

(b) an antibiotic 17. Which one of the following statements is
(c) a biodegradable pollutant correct ? [2007]
(d) not a pollutant (a) Extensive use of chemical fertilizers may
11. Which of the following plants are used as lead to eutrophication of nearby water
green manure in crop fields and in sandy bodies
soils? [2003] (b) Both Azotobacter and Rhizobium fix
(a) Saccharum munja and Lantana camara atmospheric nitrogen in root nodules of
(b) Dichanthium annulatum and Azolla plants
nilotica (c) Cyanobacteria such as Anabaena and
(c) Crotalaria juncea and Alhagi comelorum Nostoc are important mobilizers of
(d) Calotropis procera and Phyllanthus niruri phosphates and potassium for plant
nutrition in soil
12. During anaerobic digestion of organic waste, (d) At present it is not possible to grow maize
such as in producing bio gas, which one of the without chemical fertilizers
following is left undegraded? [2003]
18. Which one of the following is linked to the
(a) Hemicellulose
discovery of Bordeaux mixture as a popular
(b) Cellulose
fungicide? [2008]
(c) Lipids
(a) Bacterial leaf blight of rice
(d) Lignin
(b) Downy mildew of grapes
13. The most likely reason for the development of (c) Loose smut of wheat
resistance against pesticides in insect (d) Black rust of wheat
damaging a crop is [2004]
19. Which of the following is not used as a
(a) random mutations
biopesticide ? [2009]
(b) genetic recombinations
(a) Nuclear Polyhedrosis Virus (NPV)
(c) directed mutations
(b) Xanthomonas campestris
(d) acquired heritable changes
(c) Bacillus thuringiensis
14. A free-living nitrogen-fixing cyanobacterium (d) Trichoderma harzianum
which can also form symbiotic association
with the water fern Azolla is [2004] 20. A common biocontrol agent for the control of
plant diseases is : [Pre.
(a) Tolypothrix (b) Chlorella
2010]
(c) Nostoc (d) Anabaena
(a) Baculovirus (b) Bacillus
15. Bacillus thuringiensis (Bt) strains have been
thuringiensis
used for designing novel [2005]
(c) Glomus (d) Trichoderma
(a) biometallurgical techniques
21. Consider the following statement (A-D) about
(b) biomineralization processes
organic farming : [Mains 2011]
(c) bioinsecticidal plants
(A) Utilizes genetically modified crops like Bt
(d) biofertilizers
cotton
16. Which one of the following is being utilized as (B) Uses only naturally produced inputs like
a source of biodiesel in the Indian compost
countryside ?[2007] (C) Does not use pesticides and urea
(a) Euphorbia (b) Beet root
(D) Produces
vegetables rich in vitamins and minerals Answers
Which of the above statement are correct ?
23. Which one of the following is not a
(a) (A) and (B) only
biofertilizer? [Pre. 2011]
(b) (B), (C) and (D)
(a) Agrobacterium (b) Rhizobium
(c) (C) and (D) only
(c) Nostoc (d) Mycorrhiza
(d) (B) and (C) only
24. An organism used as a biofertilizer for raising
22. Bacillus thuringiensis forms protein crystals
soyabean crop is [Pre. 2011]
which contain insecticidal protein.
[Mains 2011] (a) Azotobacter (b) Azospirillum
This protein : (c) Rhizobium (d) Nostoc
(a) does not kill the carrier bacterium which 25. In gobar gas, the maximum amount is that of
is itself resistant to this toxin [Mains 2012]
(b) binds with epithelial cells of midgut of the (a) Methane (b) Propane
insect pest ultimately killing it (3) Carbon dioxide (d) Butane
(c) is coded by several genes including the
gene cry 26. Which of the following Bt crops is being grown
in India by the farmers ? [2013]
(d) is activated by acid pH of the foregut of
the insect pest (a) Maize (b) Cotton
(c) Brinjal (d) Soyabean
27. In plant breeding programmes, the entire
collection (of plants/seeds) having all the
diverse alleles for all genes in a given crop is
called [2013]
(a) selection of superior recombinants
(b) cross-hybridisation among the selected
parents
(c) evaluation and selection of parents
(d) germplasm collection
1 -d 2 -d 3 -a 4 -d 5 -b 6 -b 7 -d 8 -b 9 -a 10 -a
11 -c 12 -d 13 -a 14 -d 15 -c 16 -a 17 -a 18 -b 19 -b 20 -b
21 -d 22 -b 23 -a 24 -c 25 -a 26 -b 27 -d

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1

THE LIVING WORLD

(d) not related to evolution (b) Live in same habitat

(a) Members of a species can interbreed (b) Floral characters

(b) Mode of reproduction

3. Trypanosoma belongs to class [1989] 9. African sleeping sickness is due to

12. In Amoeba and Paramecium osmoregulation (d) contractile vacuole

(d) Amoeba proteus (d) Dinoflagellates

(d) Descending straight line (b) gall formation on certain angiosperms by

(b) Mode of nutrition 68. Cell wall is absent in : [RE-AIPMT 2015]

(iii) Relative humidity of about 5% (a) Pythium

(c) Ringworm, AIDS (c) Fungus (d) Viroid

(d) The term 'contagium vivum fluidum' was [1990]

(d) All of the above (a) independent gametophyte

[1998] (d) All of the above

(d) Anabaena (d) it is easily available

(2) Selaginella Equisetum Salvinia tend to be [Pre. 2011]

(d) In gymnosperms female gametophyte is (a) Antheridiophore and archegoniophore

(b) non-collapsible walls 35. Radial symmetry is often exhibited by

(d) Paramecium caudatum (b) multicellular having tissue organization,

(a) Insecta (d) book lungs and antennae

(d) Spiny anteater, sea urchin, sea (d) Cnidaria

last moult of a cockroach nymph ? [2013] 109. Metagenesis refers to : [RE-AIPMT

1. A chordate character is [1989] 7. Penguin occurs in [1990]

1. Floral formula of tomato/tobacco is 9. Fruit of Mangifera indica is [1991]

(c) petiole (d) ligule (b) Malvaceae — Cotton

(a) potato (b) groundnut (a) pomegranate (b)

(b) Diadelphous (c) 53. Aestivation of petals in the flower of cotton is

51. Which one of the following is monoecious ?

(c) Neem (a) Mango (b) Wheat

(a) Three (b) Four (c) One (d) (a) Papaver

81. Which one of the following statements is [AIPMT 2015]

(a) Berberis/Barberry (a) heartwood increases

(c) Phellogen (c) Cambium

(a) Medullary rays closed because: [AIPMT 2015] (a) Cambium is

61-b 62-b 63-a 64-d

11. Blood group AB has [1991] ents of blood groups [1994]

25. Which of the following is agranulocyte? (a) B (b) A

phage fibres (b) (D) SmoothHeart Heart contraction

(c) Potassium urate (d) Urea Answers

24. The desmosomes are concerned with (a) liposomes

(c) phospholipids form a bimolecular layer in

40. Feedback inhibition of an enzymatic reaction (a) reserve materials

58. Sequence of which of the following is used to (a) base-sugar-phosphate

(d) molecular size of the enzyme (a) phosphorus and sulphur

84. The uniting of antibiotic resistance gene with enzyme enzyme

(c) An enucleated ovum 88. Which one of the following structural

What do the two axises (x and y) represent ?

(a) Palmitic acid - an unsaturated fatty acid (d) Haemoglobin

(c) chromosomes in heredity (b) centromere

(b) chromosome 30. Extra nuclear DNA (genes) are located in

53. Select the correct option with respect to

(a) Equatorial plate

(b) Presence of hair on the lower epidermis (d) guttation

(a) Co, Ni, Mo (b) Ca, K, Na (a) Frankia (b) Azolla

(a) Beijernickia (b) Rhodospirillum 36. Nitrifying bacteria [Pre. 2011]

A B C D (a) Inhibition of nitrogenase activity

41. Best defined

crop of [1989] (c) C2-plants (d) CAM plants