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Fixed Income Securities: Lecture Note 2: Valuation

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Fixed Income Securities

Lecture Note 2: Valuation

Apoorva Javadekar

Indian School of Business

December 11, 2019

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Value the ZCB (And everything else follows!)
Recall: ZCB a non-coupon paying bond ⇒ pays face value at the maturity
What’s the Yield on your ZCB? Consider 1-year ZCB with fv of 100$ and
issue price of 98 $. If you invest in this ZCB, what’s your return?
100
Dollar Income = 2 $ y= − 1 = 2.04%
98
Annual Yield: Suppose above was a 2 year bond instead of 1 year
⇒ You earn 2.04%, but over 2 years! (Not 1 year) ⇒ What’s your EAY?

98 × (1 + y ) × (1 + y ) = 100
|{z}
| {z } | {z }
Value at yr 1 Again invest at y to get 100$ at yr 2s
 1
100 100 2
⇒ (1 + y )2 = →y = − 1 = 1.01%
98 98

Generalization: For n year ZCB


  n1
fv
EAY = y = −1
p

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Interpreting y

y is the effective return earned on your investment


y as the compensation required by the investors. We want to learn in this
course
I What y is in the data? Is y a function of maturity?
I Why y on Indian Government bonds higher than US treasury bills?
I Why y moves over time?
y is called as the yield-to-maturity (ytm)
I ytm is the Internal rate of return (IRR) on the bond
I Assumes that interim coupon can be invested at the same ytm
Notation: We will denote EAY by ytm as is more commonly done
Zero Rates: Some times ymt on ZCB is called zero-rates

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Primer on US Treasury Bills

Treasury bills are ZCB’s backed by the guarantee of US Treasury


Maturities from 28 days to 364 days
Prime- ”zero-default”, most liquid bonds around
Globally all major investors (including central banks) purchase it
Information in Treasury Yields: T-rate movement is informative about
I global capital scarcity and overall market liquidity
I Overall risk-aversion in the market
I Expectations of future course of economy

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1 Year Treasury Yield USA

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91 Day Bills India

Indian Govt Bonds 91 Day Yield


14

12

10

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Finding Price Given y

Let’s invert the analysis and find out the price of ZCB. Suppose your required
rate (EAY) is 6%. What’s the maximum price you are ready to pay for a 6
months ZCB? Write down the basic ZCB identity
n
p × (1 + y ) = 100

100 100
⇒p= n = 1 = 97.12 $
(1 + y ) (1.06) 2

Prediction
Price of ZCB and yields move in opposite directions. Moreover price is declining in
maturity

both effects are manifestation of time value of money!

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Price of Coupon Bonds and Implied ytm
Coupon bond = Sequence of ZCB’s

Example: Coupon bond with 1 year maturity, 9% coupon paid semi-annually.


zero-rates are 4% for 6 months and 5% for 1-year

4.5 104.5
p = p (ZCB1 )+p (ZCB2 ) = 1 + = 103.93 $
|{z}
Price of Coupon Bond
(1.04) 2
|1.05
{z }
Price of ZCB2
| {z }
Price of ZCB1

Maturity face Value ytm % Price

ZCB1 6 Months 4.5 4 4.412613


ZCB2 12 Months 104.5 5 99.52381

p (ZCB1) + p (ZCB2) = p (Coupon Bond) = 103.93

What’s the ytm on this coupon bond? or what’s the y that solves
4.5 104.5
1 + = 103.93 ⇒ y = 4.97%
(1 + y ) 2 1+y

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Bond Issued at Par, Discount, Premium

Par-Value: When bond pays exactly what market requires (YTM), then
p = fv and bond is said to be issued at par
Bond issued at Discount or Premium: When y 6= c, then bond will not
sell at it’s face value
I If y > c ⇒ bond’s coupon less than ytm ⇒ bond will sell at discount (less
than fv)
I If y < c ⇒ bond’s coupon larger than ytm ⇒ bond will sell at premium
(more than fv)

Quiz: If ytm is 4% (BEY) and bond pays 4% coupon annually, will bond be
issued at par?

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Properties of Bond Prices

Prediction (Yield and Prices)


Price and yield move in opposite direction

If bond pays 5% coupon and market yield moves to 6% ⇒ only way


investors keep holding this low-coupon bond (relative to current market rate)
is if it’s price (in the secondary market) goes down
Find issue price of 2-year ZCB with market yield of 6% (EAY). Immediately
after issue, yield drops to 4%. Find new bond price

Prediction (Price Convergence)


Price of a bond converges to face value as time to maturity → 0 even if yield is
constant

As maturity nears, the time-value of money decreases for any given yield
An instant before maturity: bond can trade at nothing but face value! Else it
will be an arbitrage opportunity!

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Properties of Bond Prices

Prediction (Convexity)
Bond price is convex in yields. Drop in yield affect bod prices more than rise in
yield

This is called convexity effect


⇒ Bond portfolios have this natural advantage: more gain when rate falls,
less loss when rate rises!

Prediction (Coupon Effect)


When yield changes, lower coupon bonds experience larger swing in the prices

A given change in ytm is proportionally higher relative to low-coupon as


compared to high-coupon
Junk bonds (with high-yield) are at least safer on price-swings !! (this is
ironic)

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Properties of Bond Prices

Prediction (Maturity)
Impact of yield changes on bond prices is higher for longer maturity bonds

longer maturity ⇒ (coupon − ytm) affects you for long time


Bond portfolios with long-maturity investments are inherently risky then to
changes in ytm
of course there are other reasons for it being risky too - which we shall see
later in the course

Excel sheet to explore some of these principles. Please download on ur local drive
and then explore

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YTM and Risk-Return on Bond Investments

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Three Sources of Returns

Bond investor has three sources of returns (potentially)


I Coupon and principal repayments
I Re-investment of coupon cash-flow
I Capital gain / loss if bond is sold prior to maturity
ytm = Market required rate (as reflected in price).
But is ytm what investor actually gets? Yes only if
I all promised cash flows are paid on time ⇒ no credit risk
I all coupons are re-invested at original ytm ⇒ no interest rate risk
I No capital gain or loss ⇒
F either bond is held till maturity
F or sold when market rate at the time of selling = original ytm

Interest rate risk: ytm or market required rate move through time!
I ⇒ reinvestment rate as well as price when bond is sold prior to maturity is
uncertain

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Example

Bond: 2 year 8% annual-coupon bond with face value of 100$ is priced at


p0 = 100 at t = 0 ⇒ trading at par
Exercise 1: Check that par price ⇒ market implied rate or ytm0 on this
bond is exactly 8%

8 × (1 + y ) + 108 8 108
2 = + 2 = 100
(1 + y ) 1+y (1 + y )

I substitute y =0.08 and confirm ! Else you root-solver in excel or matlab!


Note how implicit is the assumption that 8$ received at t = 1 are re-invested
at 8% for remaining time!

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Example: Interim Selling

Suppose investor sells the bond at t = 1. What’s his realized return after 1
year?
I Depends upon market rate at t = 1
Unchanged Market rate ⇒ ytm1 = 8%: ⇒ selling price (ex-coupon) is
100$
coupon sell price
z}|{ z}|{
108 8 + 100
p1 = = 100 ⇒ 1 year realized return = − 1 = 8%
1.08 100
|{z}
investment

I Alternatively: you can let this investor invest 108 $ at t = 1 at 8% market rate
and his realized return at t = 2 would be 8% again!

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Example: Interim Selling with change in ytm
ytm1 drops to 6%: ⇒ Interest rates have softened in the economy.
Effect 1: Selling price ↑ ⇒ 1-year realized return (r1 ) ↑

108 8 + 101.88
p1 = = 101.88 $ ⇒ r1 = − 1 = 9.88%
1.06 100
Effect 2: Re-investment income ↓ ⇒ a drag on 2-year realised return r2 .
Investor re-invests at new interest rate of 6% in the economy ⇒

Payoff at t=2 = (8 + 101.88) × (1.06) = 116.472 $


| {z } | {z }
cash flow at t=1 Reinvestment rate

What realised return r2 makes your 100$ at t = 0 grow to 116.472 $ at


t = 2?
 1
2 116.472 2
100 × (1 + r2 ) = 116.472 ⇒ r2 = − 1 = 7.92%
100

Takeaway: If manager is evaluated based on 2 year performance, it was


prudent to let go the capital gain!
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ytm vs Realised of Holding Period Returns

Point 1: When interest rates change, realised return (r ) 6= ytm


I This is true whether you sell early or not
I If you don’t sell at t = 1 and hold till maturity, still reinvestment income takes
a hit ⇒
 1
8 × 1.06 + 108 2
r2 (no sell) = − 1 = 7.925% < 8%
100

Point 2: When interest rates change and manager sells before maturity, two
opposite effects take place
I Selling price and re-investment scenario move in opposite directions
Point 3: Net effect can be positive or negative ⇒ r at the end of holding
period can be up or down
Point 4: ytm is ex-ante measure while realised return (r ) is ex-post measure

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ytm Is Not Ultimate Criterion of Investment

Suppose your investment horizon is 5 years. Which bond looks better investment?
Bond Coupon Maturity Priced ytm Comment

A 5 3 9 second highest ytm


but you need to find new investment for 2 years

B 6 20 8.6

C 11 15 9.2 Highest ytm Coupon is high too imply added reinvestment risk
but interim selling means re-investment risk.
Coupon is high too imply added reinvestment risk

D 8 5 8 Matches the holding period


but price is too high at priced ytm is only 8%

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Duration and Price-Sensitivity of Bond

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Price-Sensitivity
Fixing the type of bond, longer maturity ⇒ larger price drop
Fixing the maturity, ZCB ⇒ Larger price drop than Coupon bond
Is there an easy way / formula to find out approximate price change given a
bond?

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Quantifying Interest Rate Risk
Recall: yields and bond prices move in opposite directions!
I ∆y > 0 ⇒ ∆p < 0 and vice-versa

But how much bond prices move if yield moves?

Approximation: Suppose yield moves by ∆y ⇒


∆p p− − p+
=
∆y 2 × ∆y
|{z}
∆p if ∆y = 1%
+
I p = new price when yield goes up to y + ∆y
I p − = new price when yield goes down to y − ∆y

Intuition: Approximation computes average change per unit change in y .


This is just the slope of a tangent at y to price-yield curve

also called as price value of basis-point (PVBP)

% Price change: It’s much better to tell % fluctuation in portfolio value


∆p 1
≈ % price change
∆y p
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Example
Consider 20-year ZCB with face value of 100 $, and original ytm of 5%

Shock -0.20 % 0% 0.20 %


New Yield % 4.80 5 5.2
Price 39.154 37.689 36.281
% Price change 3.887 0.000 -3.734

39.154−36.281
⇒ pvbp = % price change if ∆y = 1% = 2×0.20 = 19.052%

Extrapolation: Your fund manager wants to know if yield drop by 2%, how
much price would change?

your answer = 3.887% × 10 = 38.86%

Correct answer = 46.907%


⇒ Look for another job!!

Why did you make a mistake?


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Errors Due to Convexity

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Correcting for Convexity
Intuitively: Convexity is asymmetry in price sensitivity to yield shocks
asymmetry
Convexity =
2 × ∆y 2 × p
Asymmetry for our example:
I ∆y = −.20% ⇒ ∆p = 39.154 − 37.689 = 1.465$
I ∆y = +.20% ⇒ ∆p = 37.689 − 39.154 = −1.407$
I ⇒ asymmetry = 1.465 − 1.407 = 0.057

0.057
convexity = = 0.0190 = 1.905%
2 × (.20)2 × 37.689
Convexity Adjustment to answer your fund manager

adjustment = 0.01905 × 22 = 7.620%

Combining First-Order and Convexity (Second order):

38.86% + 7.62% = 46.48%

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(Macaulay) Duration

What’s the effective maturity of the bond?


I 5 year ZCB vs 5 year Coupon bond. Which one has effectively longer maturity?
Duration ⇒ weighted average pay-back of the bond

Computation of Duration for 5 year 10% Annual Coupon Bond

Year Cash Flow Cash Flow Weight Weighted by Maturity

1 10 0.067 0.07
2 10 0.067 0.13
3 10 0.067 0.20
4 10 0.067 0.27
5 110 0.733 3.67

150 1.000 4.33


Total Cash Flow Duration

Quizz: Show that Duration of ZCB = Maturity!

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Modified Duration
Modified Duration
D
MD =
1+y
Modified duration is price - sensitivity to first order
∆p 1
MD =
∆y p
Duration as a weighted average
T
X
D= wt × t
t=1

where wt is the weight of present value of time t cash flows to the total
present value of the bond
Duration of a portfolio:
n
X
D(portfolio) = w i Di
i=1

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Immunization

Duration ≈ Price Sensitivity of bond


Immunization ⇒ Targeting duration of the bond portfolio to minimize
interest rate change risk
Pension Funds: ⇒ Liabilities to plan holders at future dates
I Accounting rules (& economics) ⇒ plan liabilities are marked-to-market ⇒
if y ↓⇒ Liabilities ↑
I Why? If you have to pay 110$ in 1 year. If market rate is 10% ⇒ today
set-aside 100$ to meet obligation. If market rate ↓ to 0% ⇒ set-aside 110$
today ⇒ real obligation (liabilities) ↑
I Immunization ⇒ duration of assets ≈ duration of liabilities
I When y ↓ ⇒ ↑ Liabilities = ↑ Assets ⇒ Interest rate risk hedged!

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Bonds With Embedded Options

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Callable Bonds

Bonds with provision that issues / firm can call-back or early-retire the bonds
Call- Features
I First-Call date: date before which a call can’t be made
I Continuously callable (American) or callable only on certain milestone dates
(Bermudan / European)
I Canary structure: A bond can’t be called after a certain period lapse (opposite
of first-call feature)
Repayment on call-back
I Par value
I Make-Whole Provision: typically a handsome premium is paid
I market price of bonds
Economically

buying a call bond = buying a non-callable bond + shorting call option

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Why Callable Bonds?

Callable provision ⇒ firms can exploit changing market conditions to


optimize cost of borrowing!
Interest rate: If ytm ↓, firms retire old bonds (perhaps at par) but issue new
ones at low ytm ⇒ reduce cost for firm for remaining period
Credit Rating: If firm’s credit rating ↑ ⇒ risk-premium ↓ ⇒ retire old and
refinance new at lower ytm
Anticipated tightening in future funding conditions: If firm forecasts that at
the time the bonds mature, the market might be facing liquidity squeeze or
funding shortfall or lack of investor appetite
I ⇒ refinancing in future is uncertain
I imply could be optimal to retire old debt and borrow new debt (with probably
longer maturity) even if little bit costly!

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Pricing of Callable Bonds

Duration Uncertainty: Investors accept uncertainty of timing of cash-flow


charge premium or lower price for flexibility they offer to the firm!
Reinvestment Risk Premium: Investors are likely to get paid when ytm is
low ⇒ re-investment scenario is tough for investors

Price(callable) < Price(non-callable)

Price-Sensitivity: If ytm ↓ we know that price of bond ↑. But not so much


for callable bond!
I call-back is more likely
I ⇒ benefit of coupon > ytm is not expected to last
I In other words, cash-flows on callable bonds change for worst when ytm ↓
When ytm ↑ , callable bonds behave much as non-callable
I because they are effectively non-callable when ytm is high enough!

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Pricing of Callable Bonds

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Data on Callable Bonds and Some research findings

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Data on Callable Bonds and Some research findings
Just comparing callable vs non-callable bonds is futile! Companies issuing callable
bonds are different (usually low credit rating) ⇒ the spread could be capturing
credit risk premium rather than call-premium

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