1. What piece of equipment is a physio likely to use to strengthen your core muscles?

(A) Gym ball (B) Foam roller

(C) Punch bag (D) Resistance tube

2. To help with injuries, which of the following supports you can buy?

(A) Shoulder (B) Knee

(C) Ankle (D) Shoulder, Knee & Ankle

3. Which of these is an exercise for knee?

(A) Bicep curl (B) Crunch

(C) SLR (D) Pelvic tilt

4. Which of these is not an exercise of knee?

(A) Prone knee bend (B) Calf raises

(C) Quadriceps tensing (D) Crunch

5. Which of the following is an exercise of the back?

(A) Arching (B) Bicep curl

(C) SLR (D) Calf raise

6. You are likely to see a physio to recover from:

(A) Depression (B) Injury

(C) Illness (D) Amnesia

7. What is the correct abbreviation used to describe the treatment of an exercise injury?

(A) RICP (B) RICH

(C) RICE (D) RICK

8. Which of these is a common injury of back?

(A) Slipped disc (B) Dislocation

(C) Tennis elbow (D) Cruciate ligament

9. If you wake up in the morning and your neck hurts, what are you likely to have?

(A) Dislocated neck (B) Broken neck

(C) Bruise on neck (D) Stiff neck

10. Injuries to muscles are known as ___________.

(A) Sprain (B) Strain

(C) Breaks (D) Cracks

11. Which of the following is a lower body stretch?

(A) Calf (B) Trapezius

(C) Abdominal (D) Triceps

12. Which of the following is a common football injury?

(A) Rotator cuff injury (B) Slipped disc

(C) Hamstring strain (D) Dislocated shoulder

13. What injury is common in racket sports?

(A) Hernia (B) Tennis elbow

(C) Head injury (D) Broken toe

14. How do you know if a physio is what they actually claim?

(A) If they tell you they are qualified (B) If they have done a course on sports therapy

(C) If they are registered with Health professional council (HPA)

(D) If they have a professional business card

15. After a simple fracture, what is the recommended period for bed rest?

(A) 1 week (B) 2 weeks

(C) 1 month (D) 2 months

16. Cerebral palsy can be detected by which gait pattern?

(A) Waddling gait (B) Stamping gait

(C) Swayback gait (D) Scissoring gait

17. Why should wheelchairs be avoided by young population?

(A) It damages the neural system of body

(B) It causes inflammation in GIT

(C) It causes low blood pressure

(D) It damages the bones & skeletal muscles

18. To help a child with scissoring gait, what should not be done?

(A) Releasing a tendon surgically (B) Surgical amputation of legs

(C) Tying two pillows on the inner side of leg and having the child walk

(D) Making the child walk with a mild obstruction between the legs

19. What can be done for a person suffering from a foot drop palsy?

(A) Wear the brace in the form of socks or stiff shoes

(B) Surgical Amputation

(C) Releasing a tendon

(D) Use calipers

20. Which of the following happens in hemiplegic gait?

(A) Swayback posture (B) Stamping of gait

(C) Circumduction of legs (D) Swinging of arms

21. In case of neuromuscular injury, which method is used to rehabilitate them?

(A) TENS (B) Heat therapy

(C) Acupuncture (D) Massage

22. Which of the following angle is true about the angle between the neck and shaft of femur in
adult?

(A) 140-150 degree (B) 130-140 degree

(C) 120-130 degree (D) 110-120 degree

23. Duchene muscular dystrophy is characterized by all except:

(A) Autosomal recessive (B) Internalization of muscle nuclei

(C) Muscle fibers show size variations (D) Shows muscle degeneration

24. Habituation treatment is used commonly in:

(A) Auditory dysfunction (B) Vestibular dysfunction

(C) Diabetic retinopathy (D) Glaucoma

25. Ballistic is a type of:

(A) Massage (B) Manipulation

(C) Stretching (D) Traction

26. Components of “Female Athlete Triad” includes all of the following except:

(A) Obesity (B) Osteoporosis

(C) Disordered eating (D) Amenorrhea

27. A normal infant “cruises” at what age?

(A) 6 months (B) 8 months

(C) 10 months (D) 12 months

28. Disease with low prevalence but high risk for disability

(A) Diabetes mellitus (B) Rheumatoid arthritis

(C) Emphysema (D) Multiple sclerosis

29. A physical therapist evaluating a 66 year old female who has a history of severe head trauma
following a motor vehicle accident.  The patient has difficulty with rapid alternating movements
while performing neurologic testing.  The BEST term to describe this specific impairment is:
(A) Ataxia (B) Dysmetria

Dysarthria (D) Dysdiadocokinesia

30. A 79 year old female presents to outpatient rehabilitation services 6 weeks following a CVA with
right hemiplegia.  She complains of right shoulder pain working on functional upper extremity
movements and has severe shoulder pain when practicing bed mobility activities such as rolling and
scooting.  On examination, it is observed that the humeral head is inferiorly displaced.  Which of the
following would be the MOST appropriate for her condition?

(A) Transcutaneous Electrical Nerve Stimulation (TENS)

(B) Functional Electrical Stimulation (FES)

(C) Short Wave Diathermy (SWD)

(D)Interferential Current  (IFC) Stimulation

31. A 30 year old male presents to outpatient rehabilitation with numbness and tingling on the 4th
and 5th fingers of the left hand consistent with nerve entrapment symptoms.  Upon further
examination, it is noted that the patient has normal sensation on the dorsum of the hand on the
ulnar side.  Where is the MOST likely source of nerve entrapment?

(A) Guyon’s Canal (B) Carpal Tunnel

(C) Cubital Tunnel (D) 1st Rib

32. A physical therapist is evaluating a 50 year old patient with a generally swollen right leg.  The
patient does not report any trauma to the leg and describes the swelling as increasing gradually over
the last 12 months.  The swelling is non-pitting, primarily below the knee.  The leg is not red or hot,
and the patient indicates that his leg just feels “heavy.”  What is the MOST likely origin of the
swelling?

(A) Systemic infection (B) Chronic inflammation

(C) Congestive heart failure (D) Lymphedema

33. After working for several hours as a mechanic, a patient describes sharp elbow pain over the
origin point of the common extensor tendon of the wrist extensors.  The pain is alleviated with rest. 
Which of the following disorders is MOST likely present?

(A) Medial epicondylitis (B) Lateral epicondylitis

(C) Anconeus tendonitis (D) Olecranon bursitis

34. A patient presents with rheumatoid arthritis and finger pain.  The 2nd digit has a flexed
metacarpophalangeal joint, hyperextended proximal interphalangeal joint, and a flexed distal
interphalangeal joint.  Which of the following is the MOST accurate description of the position?

(A) Swan neck deformity (B) Boutonniere deformity

(C) Mallet finger deformity (D) De Quervain syndrome

35. Poliomyelitis is caused by viral infection in:

(A) Posterior horn cell (B) Anterior horn cell
(C) Muscle (D) Peripheral Nerves
36. Degenerative bone disease is called as:

(A) Osteoarthritis (B) Rheumatoid arthritis

(C) Gouty arthritis (D) Synovitis

37. The protein which gets affected in Duchene muscular dystrophy is:

(A) Dystrophin (B) Actin

(C) Myotropin (D) Leucotropin

38. Which of the following is not a type of muscular dystrophy?

(A) Fascioscapulohumeral (B) DMD

(C) Lunar (D) Myotonic

39. The postural mechanism involves:

(A) Muscles (B) Bones

(C) Nervous control (D) Muscles and nervous control

40. Integrated activity or action of many muscles is required to maintain:

(A) Posture (B) Active posture

(C) Inactive posture (D) Static posture

41. Which lobe of the brain plays a key role in formation of a long term memory?

(A) Frontal (B) Temporal

(C) Occipital (D) Parietal

42. Which lobe of the brain is also called as visual processing center?

(A) Frontal (B) Temporal

(C) Occipital (D) Parietal

43. Heat is measured in ___________

(A) Joule (B) Kelvin

(C) Calorie (D) Joule/sec

44. The most common cause of stroke is ___________

(A) Ischemia (B) Hemorrhage

(C) Subarachnoid hemorrhage (D) Aneurysm

45. Polymyositis is _____________

(A) Infective myopathy (B) Inflammatory myopathy

(C) Not a myopathy (D) Muscle degenerative disease

46. Charcot joints are ______________

(A) Painless arthritic joint disease (B) Degenerative joint disease

(C) Infective joint disease (D) Ankylosed joints

47. The most common cause for lower limb amputation is

(A) Congenital deformities (B) Infection

(C) Trauma (D) Vascular disease

48. Spasticity can be reduced by ___________

(A) Heating (B) Cooling

(C) SWD (D) TENS

49. Galvanic current is _____________

(A) An AC current (B) Direct current

(C) Interrupted (D) Modified

50. Which is not a deep heating modality?

(A) US (B) SWD

(C) MWD (D) HP

51. Evidence based practice can be made to happen into:

(A) 3 main ways (B) 5 steps

(C) 2 main ways (D) No way possible

52. Which of the following is not involved in the 5 steps of evidence based practice?

(A) Formulating question (B) Searching

(C) Critically appraising research

(D) Informing current practice with low quality clinical research

53. Which of the following is not the factor for physiotherapist that determines practice pattern?

(A) Resources (B) Social support

(C) Patient behavior (D) Practice environment

54. What is the best design you choose to study the prevalence of a disease?

(A) Ecologic study (B) Cross sectional study

(C) Case control study (D) Cohort study

55. What is the best trial design to study the incidence of a disease?

(A). Ecologic study (B) Cross sectional study

(C) Case control (D) Cohort study

56. Which of the following studies is considered a gold standard for analytical epidemiology?
(A) Ecologic study (B) Cross sectional study

(C) Case control (D) Cohort study

57. You want to access the efficacy of a new anti-epileptic drug versus an old drug? What is the best
design you choose for this purpose?

(A) Cross sectional study (B) Case control study

(C) RCT (D) Cohort study

58. An open label randomized control means:

(A) Everyone participating in the trial is aware of assigned treatment

(B) Patients are ignorant of assigned treatment

(C) Investigators are ignorant of assigned treatment

(D) Patients, investigators and data evaluators are ignorant of assigned treatment

59. The model of EBP collaboration has _________ levels.

(A) Four (B) Five

(C) Three (D) Seven

60. The statistical hypothesis stating that there is no relationship between the variables is:

(A) Directional hypothesis (B) Null hypothesis

(C) Non-directional hypothesis (D) Research hypothesis

61. Which of the following is associated with plagiarism?

(A) Keeping good notes (B) Exploding

(C) Qualification (D) Copyright violation

62. Using a question mark in a search word is an example of:

(A) Truncation (B) Nesting

(C) Using wildcards (D) Using stop words

63. _____________ means all subjects in a sample (not the population) have an equal chance of
being assigned to either the treatment or the control group.

(A). Random assignment (B) Random sampling

(C) Randomization (D) Random collection

64. The type of study in which subjects receive more than one experimental treatment and are then
followed over time is:

(A) Follow up study (B) Crossover designs

(C) Panel designs (D) Trend designs

65. Which of the following statistical test used for a cohort study?
(A) Prevalence (B) Odds ratio

(C) Incidence (D) Relative risk

66. Distribution of disease in population is known as:

(A) Descriptive epidemiology (B) Analytical epidemiology

(C) Count data (D) Prevalence

67. How many types of true experimental design are commonly reported in the scientific literature?

(A) Four (B) Five

(C) Six (D) Seven

68. Which is the sampling method where bias may be introduced if randomization of start location is
not maintained?

(A) Systematic random sampling (B) Stratified random sampling

(C) Cluster sampling (D) Simple random sampling

69. Comparing demographic data from individuals in the sample to population demographics can
help researchers determine whether the sample is representative. This is true for:

(A) Theoretical sampling (B) Convenience sampling

(C) Quota sampling (D) Purposive sampling

70. The research question and careful identification of the target and accessible populations
determines:

(A) Inclusion criteria (B) Exclusion criteria

(C) Representativeness (D) Inclusion & Exclusion criteria

71. Which of the following is not a descriptive statistic?

(A) Frequency distribution (B) Correlational distribution

(C) Mean (D) Standard deviation

72. Which data measurement scales typically use nonparametric tests of significance?

(A) Nominal (B) Ordinal

(C) Interval (D) Nominal & Ordinal

73. A level in the pyramid of evidence containing brief descriptions of evidence is:

(A) Systems (B) Studies

(C) Syntheses (D) Synopses

74. The process of creating and sharing information with one another to reach mutual understanding
is:

(A) Communication (B) Perception

(C) Critical thinking (D) Sense of inquiry

75. The cycle of scientific development is an important phase in:

(A) Professional nursing (B) Networking

(C) Implementation (D) Dissemination

76. The 3 Ps of dissemination are posters, ____________ and presentations.

(A) Publications (B) Papers

(C) Programs (D) Planning

77. The type of content typically included in EBP posters.

(A) PICO Question (B) Clinical problem

(C) Assessment (D) Clinical issue

78. A/an_____________ is a scholarly paper prior to its publication.

(A) Authorship (B) Manuscript

(C) Presentation (D) Abstract

79. “The purpose of this investigation was to understand the lived experiences of patients 1-2 years
after ICD implantation”. This is an example of a:

(A) Purpose statement (B) Problem statement

(C) Research hypothesis (D) Research question

80. There is a relationship between seatbelt use and head injury in auto accident. This is an example
of:

(A) Research hypothesis (B) Research question

(C) Null hypothesis (D) Research problem statement

81. Moving your head, face, and eyes away from another person is often interpreted as a lack of
___________.

(A) Lack of self-confidence (B) Lack of self-control

(C) Lack of self-discipline (D) Lack of sympathy

82. Your Colleague refused to listen to you because it hurts his ego. It is an example of what kind of
barrier?

(A) Physical Barrier (B) Psychological Barrier

(C) Linguistic Barrier (D) Cultural Barrier

83. The word communication is derived from _____

(A) Communicare (B) Comunnicare

(C) Comunicare (D) Communnica

84. Which of these is the greatest means of conveying information?

(A) Writing (B) Words

(C) Signs (D) Pictures

85. There is a barrier to communication when words are uttered in a ______ sense.

(A) Negative (B) Positive

(C) Polite (D) Good

86. Which of these is not an element of non- verbal communication?

(A) Personal appearance (B) Posture

(C) Eye contact (D) Name of the speaker

87. Which of these is a main element of non-verbal communication?

(A) The volume of the speaker (B) Name of the speaker

(C) Name of the listener (D) Age of the speaker

88. In which of the following we can’t use gestures.

(A) Oral communication (B) Written communication

(C) Informal communication (D) Body Language

89. A person's nonverbal behavior is often used to gauge whether he or she is telling the truth.
Which of the following facial clues often reveals lying?

(A) Facial shift (B) Failure to look in the eyes

(C) Crooked smile (D) All of the above are indicators of lying

90. Which of these is the external sound present in the channels of communication?

(A) Noise (B) Cultural differences

(C) Bias (D) Judgement

(91-93) Aslam has to study four books (English, physics, chemistry & biology) on four different days
from Thursdays to Sunday. The order of books is as follows:

 Chemistry is studied one day before the day of English

 Biology is studied one day after the days of Physics

91. Which of the following is a correct order of books?

(A) Chemistry, Biology, English, Physics

(B) Biology, Chemistry, English, Physics

(C) Physics, Chemistry, Biology, English

(D) English, Chemistry, Biology, Physics

92. If Aslam studies Chemistry on Saturday, which subject he have studied on Thursday?
(A) English (B) Biology

(C) Physics (D) Either English or Physics

93. Which one of the following is not possible?

(A) Chemistry on Thursday (B) Physics on Sunday

(C) Physics on Thursday (D) Biology on Saturday

94. A number of fighting fish named Anna, Ben, Chris, Dana, Evan, Frank, and Garry are placed into
an aquarium. Their owner knows that some of these fish dislike each other, so she places certain fish
in the aquarium only along with certain other fish. Additionally, some fish are not placed in the
aquarium when other fish are present. These arrangements are determined by the following
constraints:

 If Anna is in, then Frank is out.

 If Chris is out, then Anna is in and Ben is in.
 If Evan is out, then Chris is out.
 If Dana is in, then Evan is out.

Which of the following could be a group of fish that are placed into the aquarium?

(A) Evan, Frank, Anna, Ben (B) Garry, Chris, Evan, Frank

(C) Dana, Ben, Evan, Chris (D) Chris, Frank, Dan

95. A number of fighting fish named Anna, Ben, Chris, Dana, Evan, Frank, and Garry are placed into
an aquarium. Their owner knows that some of these fish dislike each other, so she places certain fish
in the aquarium only along with certain other fish. Additionally, some fish are not placed in the
aquarium when other fish are present. These arrangements are determined by the following
constraints:

If Anna is in, then Frank is out.

If Chris is out, then Anna is in and Ben is in.

If Evan is out, then Chris is out.

If Dana is in, then Evan is out.

Which fish could be present in the aquarium regardless of the presence of any other fish?

(A) Anna (B) Chris

(C) Dana (D) Garry

96.