Nurselabs Leadership & Management in

Nursing NCLEX Practice Quiz #1&2

1. Ms. Caputo is newly promoted to a patient care manager position. She updates her
knowledge on the theories in management and leadership in order to become
effective in her new role. She learns that some managers have low concern for
services and high concern for staff. Which style of management refers to this?

A. Organization Management
B. Impoverished Management
C. Country Club Management
D. Team Management
(Country club management style puts concern for the staff as the number one priority at
the expense of the delivery of services. He/she runs the department just like a country
club where everyone is happy including the manager. This leadership style assumes that
if people are happy in their job, they will naturally work harder.)

2. Her former manager demonstrated passion for serving her staff rather than being
served. She takes time to listen, prefers to be a teacher first before being a leader,
which is characteristic of:

A. Transformational leader
B. Transactional leader
C. Servant leader
D. Charismatic leader
(Servant leaders are open-minded, listen deeply, try to fully understand others, and not
being judgmental. Servant leadership is a leadership philosophy in which the goal of the
leader is to serve. A servant leader shares power puts the needs of the employees first
and helps people develop and perform as highly as possible. Servant leadership inverts
the norm, which puts the customer service associates as the main priority.)

3. On the other hand, Ms. Caputo notices that the Chief Nurse Executive has a
charismatic leadership style. Which of the following behaviors best describes this
style?

A. Possesses inspirational quality that makes followers get attracted to him and regard
him with reverence.
B. Acts as he does because he expects that his behavior will yield positive results.
C. Uses visioning as the core of his leadership.
D. Matches his leadership style to the situation at hand.
 (Charismatic leaders make the followers feel at ease in their presence. They feel that they
are in good hands whenever the leader is around. The charismatic leadership style relies
on the charm and persuasiveness of the leader. Charismatic leaders are driven by their
convictions and commitment to their cause.)

4. Which of the following conclusions of Ms. Caputo about leadership characteristics

is true?
A. There is a high correlation between the communication skills of a leader and the
ability to get the job done.
B. A manager is effective when he has the ability to plan well.
C. Assessment of personality traits is a reliable tool for predicting a manager’s potential.
D. There is good evidence that certain personal qualities favor success in a managerial
role.
(It is not conclusive that certain qualities of a person would make him become a good
manager. It can only predict a manager’s potential of becoming a good one. Successful
leaders tend to have certain traits. Two keys areas of personal growth and development
are fundamental to leadership success: self-confidence and a positive attitude.)

5. She reads about Path-Goal theory. Which of the following behaviors is manifested
by the leader who uses this theory?

A. Recognizes staff for going beyond expectations by giving them citations.

B. Challenges the staff to take individual accountability for their own practice.
C. Admonishes staff for being laggards.
D. Reminds staff about the sanctions for non-performance.
(The path-Goal theory according to House and associates rewards good performance so
that others would do the same. The path-goal theory states that a leader’s behavior is
contingent on the satisfaction, motivation, and performance of their employees. The
manager’s job is viewed as guiding workers to choose the best paths to reach both their
goals as well as the corporation’s goals.)

6. One leadership theory states that “leaders are born and not made,” which refers to
which of the following theories?

A. Trait
B. Charismatic
C. Great Man
D. Situational
(Leaders become leaders because of their birthright. This is also called Genetic theory or
the Aristotelian theory. This quote sums up the basic tenet of the Great Man theory of
leadership, which suggests that the capacity for leadership is innate. According to this
theory, you’re either a natural-born leader or you’re not. The term “Great Man” was
 used because, at the time, ?leadership was thought of primarily as a male quality,
especially in terms of military leadership.)

7. She came across a theory which states that the leadership style is effective depends
on the situation. Which of the following styles best fits a situation when the
followers are self-directed, experts, and are matured?

A. Democratic
B. Authoritarian
C. Laissez-faire
D. Bureaucratic

(Laissez-faire leadership is preferred when the followers know what to do and are
experts in the field. This leadership style is relationship-oriented rather than task-
centered. This kind of leadership is very hands-off—managers trust their employees and
are confident in their abilities. They give guidance and take responsibility where needed,
but this leadership style means that subordinates and team members have the real lead.)

8. She surfs the internet for more information about leadership styles. She reads
about shared leadership as a practice in some magnet hospitals. Which of the
following describes this style of leadership?

A. Leadership behavior is generally determined by the relationship between the leader’s

personality and the specific situation.
B. Leaders believe that people are basically good and need not be closely controlled.
C. Leaders rely heavily on visioning and inspire members to achieve results.
D. Leadership is shared at the point of care.

(Shared governance allows the staff nurses to have the authority, responsibility, and
accountability for their own practice. Shared leadership is the practice of governing a
school by expanding the number of people involved in making important decisions
related to the school’s organization, operation, and academics. In practice, shared
leadership may be defined differently from school to school, and it may take a wide
variety of forms.)

9. Ms. Caputo learns that some leaders are transactional leaders. Which of the
following does not characterize a transactional leader?

A. Focuses on management tasks.

B. Is a caretaker.
C. Uses trade-offs to meet goals.
D. Inspires others with vision.
 (Inspires others with a vision is characteristic of a transformational leader. He is focused
more on the day-to-day operations of the department/unit. Transactional leadership
depends on self-motivated people who work well in a structured, directed environment.
By contrast, transformational leadership seeks to motivate and inspire workers, choosing
to influence rather than direct others.)

10. She finds out that some managers have a benevolent-authoritative style of
management. Which of the following behaviors will she exhibit most likely?

A. Have condescending trust and confidence in their subordinates.

B. Gives economic or ego awards.
C. Communicates downward to the staff.
D. Allows decision-making among subordinates.

(Benevolent-authoritative managers pretentiously show their trust and confidence to

their followers. In Benevolent-Autocratic Leadership Style, the manager has
condescending confidence and trust in subordinates, motivates with rewards and some
punishments, permits some upward communication, solicits some ideas and opinions
from subordinates, and allows some delegation of decision making but with close policy
control.)

11. Henry is a Unit Manager I the Medical Unit. He is not satisfied with the way things
are going in his unit. The patient satisfaction rate is 60% for two consecutive
months and staff morale is at its lowest. He decides to plan and initiate changes that
will push for a turnaround in the condition of the unit. Which of the following
actions is a priority for Henry?

A. Call for a staff meeting and take this up in the agenda.

B. Seek help from her manager.
C. Develop a strategic action on how to deal with these concerns.
D. Ignore the issues since these will be resolved naturally.
(This will allow for the participation of every staff in the unit. If they contribute to the
solutions of the problem, they will own the solutions; hence the chance for compliance
would be greater. It’s one thing to articulate the change required and entirely another to
conduct a critical review against organizational objectives and performance goals to
ensure the change will carry the unit in the right direction strategically, financially, and
ethically.)
12. He knows that there are external forces that influence changes in his unit. Which of
the following is not an external force?

A. Memo from the CEO to cut down on electrical consumption.

B. Demands of the labor sector to increase wages.
 C. Low morale of staff in his unit.
D. Exacting regulatory and accreditation standards

(Low morale of staff is an internal factor that affects only the unit. External forces are
those changes that are part of an organization’s general and business environment. All
the rest of the options emanate from the top executive or from outside the institution.)

13. After discussing the possible effects of the low patient satisfaction rate, the staff
started to list down possible strategies to solve the problems head-on. Should they
decide to vote on the best change strategy, which of the following strategies is
referred to this?

A. Collaboration
B. Majority rule
C. Dominance
D. Compromise

(The majority rule involves dividing the house and the highest vote wins. 1/2 + 1 is a
majority. The majority rule is a decision rule that selects alternatives that have a
majority, that is, more than half the votes. It is the binary decision rule used most often in
influential decision-making bodies, including all the legislatures of democratic nations.)

14. One staff suggests that they review the pattern of nursing care that they are using,
which is described as a:

A. Job description
B. System used to deliver care
C. Manual of procedure
D. Rules to be followed

(A system used to deliver care. In the 70’s it was termed as methods of patient
assignment; in the early 80’s it was called modalities of patient care then patterns of
nursing care in the ’90s until recently authors called it nursing care systems. Ideally,
nursing care delivery models match the number and type of caregivers to patient care
needs determine who is going to perform what tasks, who is responsible, and who makes
decisions and detail assignments, responsibilities, and authority to accomplish patient
care.)

15. Which of the following is true about functional nursing?

A. Concentrates on tasks and activities.

B. Emphasizes the use of group collaboration.
C. One-to-one nurse-patient ratio.
 D. Provides continuous, coordinated, and comprehensive nursing services.

(Functional nursing is focused on tasks and activities and not on the holistic care of the
patients. Functional nursing is task-oriented in scope. Instead of one nurse performing
many functions, several nurses are given one or two assignments. Functional nursing
was designed around an efficacy model that seeks to get many tasks accomplished in a
short period of time.)

16. Functional nursing has some advantages, which one is an exception?

A. Psychological and sociological needs are emphasized.

B. Great control of work activities.
C. Most economical way of delivering nursing services.
D. Workers feel secure in a dependent role.

(When the functional method is used, the psychological and sociological needs of the
patients are neglected; the patients are regarded as ‘tasks to be done ‘. Functional
nursing was designed around an efficacy model that seeks to get many tasks
accomplished in a short period of time.)

17. He raised the issue of giving priority to patient needs. Which of the following offers
the best way for setting priority?

A. Assessing nursing needs and problems.

B. Giving instructions on how nursing care needs are to be met.
C. Controlling and evaluating the delivery of nursing care.
D. Assigning a safe nurse: patient ratio

(This option follows the framework of the nursing process and at the same time applies
the management process of planning, organizing, directing, and controlling. At the basic
level, management is a regimen that comprises five standard functions, namely,
planning, organizing, staffing, leading, and controlling. These functions are part of a
body of practices and theories that educate on becoming an efficient manager.)

18. Which of the following is the best guarantee that the patient’s priority needs are
met?

A. Checking with the relative of the patient.

B. Preparing a nursing care plan in collaboration with the patient.
C. Consulting with the physician.
D. Coordinating with other members of the team.
 (The best source of information about the priority needs of the patient is the patient
himself. Hence using a nursing care plan based on his expressed priority needs would
ensure meeting his needs effectively. It is about understanding each patient’s health
outcome goals and health care preferences and ensuring that the care provided is in line
with those goals.)

19. When Henry uses team nursing as a care delivery system, he and his team need to
assess the priority of care for a group of patients, which of the following should be a
priority?

A. Each patient is listed on the worksheet.

B. Patients who need the least care.
C. Medications and treatments required for all patients.
D. Patients who need the most care.

(In setting priorities for a group of patients, those who need the most care should be the
number-one priority to ensure that their critical needs are met adequately. The needs of
other patients who need less care can be attended to later or even delegated to assistive
personnel according to rules on delegation. The ability to prioritize and manage time is
vital for any successful nurse, whether a novice or expert.)

20. He is hopeful that his unit will make a big turnaround in the succeeding months.
Which of the following actions of Henry demonstrates that he has reached the third
stage of change?

A. Wonders why things are not what they used to be.

B. Finds solutions to the problems.
C. Integrate the solutions to his day-to-day activities.
D. Selects the best change strategy.

(Integrate the solutions to his day-to-day activities is expected to happen during the third
stage of change when the change agent incorporates the selected solutions into his
system and begins to create a change. In the third and final stage, freezing, the new
mindset of the change begins to become the standard, and people’s comfort levels return
to normal.)

21. Joey is a newly-appointed nurse manager of The Holy Spirit Medical Center, a
tertiary hospital located within the heart of the metropolis. He thinks of scheduling
a planning workshop with his staff in order to ensure effective and efficient
management of the department. Should he decide to conduct a strategic planning
workshop, which of the following is not a characteristic of this activity?

A. Long-term goal-setting.
 B. Extends to 3-5 years in the future.
C. Focuses on routine tasks.
D. Determines directions of the organization

(Focusing on routine tasks is a characteristic of operational planning. Strategic planning

is an organizational management activity that is used to set priorities, focus energy and
resources, strengthen operations, ensure that employees and other stakeholders are
working toward common goals, establish agreement around intended outcomes/results,
and assess and adjust the organization’s direction in response to a changing
environment.)

22. Which of the following statements refer to the vision of the hospital?

A. The Holy Spirit Medical Center is a trendsetter in tertiary health care in the next five
years.
B. The officers and staff of The Holy Spirit Medical Center believe in the unique nature
of the human person.
C. All the nurses shall undergo a continuing competency training program.
D. The Holy Spirit Medical Center aims to provide patient-centered care in a total
healing environment.

(A vision refers to what the institution wants to become within a particular period of
time. A vision statement looks forward and creates a mental image of the ideal state that
the organization wishes to achieve. It is inspirational and aspirational and should
challenge employees.)

23. The statement, “The Holy Spirit Medical Center aims to provide patient-centered
care in a total healing environment” refers to which of the following?

A. Vision
B. Goal
C. Philosophy
D. Mission

(Goals define the general intentions and ambitions of the business but can be difficult to
measure. Setting goals is an important step of business planning, as a well-defined broad
primary outcome will have an impact on areas including your mission statement,
financial objectives, corporate culture, and marketing strategy.)

24. Joey plans to revisit the organizational chart of the department. He plans to create
a new position of a Patient Educator who has a coordinating relationship with the
head nurse in the unit. Which of the following will likely depict this organizational
relationship?
 A. Box
B. Solid line
C. Broken line
D. Dotted line

(This is a staff relationship hence it is depicted by a broken line in the organizational

structure. The broken line’s meaning in an organizational chart is a less formal
reporting relationship. The person at the end of that line isn’t the immediate and
permanent manager, but someone else. In theory, it means that these reporting
relationships are secondary, but in practice, that’s not always the case.)

25. He likewise stresses the need for all the employees to follow orders and instructions
from him and not from anyone else. Which of the following principles does he refer
to?
A. Scalar chain
B. Discipline
C. Unity of command
D. Order

(Henry Fayol, a famous industrialist of France, has described fourteen principles of

management in his book General and Industrial Management. According to the principle
of unity of command, an individual employee should receive orders from only one
superior at a time and that employee should be answerable only to that superior. If there
are many superiors giving orders to the same employee, he will not be able to decide as
to which order is to be given priority. He thus finds himself in a confusing situation.)

26. Joey orients his staff on the patterns of reporting relationships throughout the
organization. Which of the following principles refer to this?

A. Span of control
B. Hierarchy
C. Esprit de' corps
D. Unity of direction

(Hierarchy refers to the pattern of reporting or the formal line of authority in an

organizational structure. More bureaucratic and structured in nature, a hierarchical
organization generally follows a chain and command style of authority with employees
reporting to a manager above them. Slow to change, and the most traditional form of org
design, this structure is commonly found supporting growth through direct reporting to a
manager with formal policies and procedures.)
27. He emphasizes to the team that they need to put their efforts together towards the
attainment of the goals of the program. Which of the following principles refers to
this?

A. Span of control
B. Unity of direction
C. Unity of command
D. Command responsibility

(Unity of direction means having one goal or one objective for the team to pursue; hence
all members of the organization should put their efforts together towards the attainment
of their common goal or objective. Whoever is engaged in the same activity should have
a unified goal. This means all the people working in a company should have one goal
and motive which will make the work easier and achieve the set goal easily.)

28. Joey stresses the importance of promoting ‘esprit d corps’ among the members of
the unit. Which of the following remarks of the staff indicates that they understand
what he pointed out?
A. “Let’s work together in harmony; we need to be supportive of one another”
B. “In order that we achieve the same results; we must all follow the directives of Julius
and not from other managers.”
C. “We will ensure that all the resources we need are available when needed.”
D. “We need to put our efforts together in order to raise the bar of excellence in the care
we provide to all our patients.”

(Esprit de corps means managers should create and foster among their employees the
morale, common spirit, sense of identification, feeling of pride, loyalty, devotion, honor,
solidarity, unity, and cohesiveness with respect to their organization or organizational
department.)

29. He discusses the goal of the department. Which of the following statements is a
goal?

A. Increase the patient satisfaction rate.

B. Eliminate the incidence of delayed administration of medications.
C. Establish rapport with patients.
D. Reduce response time to two minutes.

(A goal is a desired result towards which efforts are directed. A goal is a short statement
of the desired outcome to be accomplished over a long time frame, usually three to five
years. It is a broad statement that focuses on the desired results and does not describe
the methods used to get the intended outcome.)
30. He wants to influence the customary way of thinking and behaving that is shared
by the members of the department. Which of the following terms refer to this?
A. Organizational chart
B. Cultural network
C. Organizational structure
D. Organizational culture

(Organizational culture refers to the way the members of the organization think together
and do things around them together. It’s their way of life in that organization. An
organization’s culture defines the proper way to behave within the organization. This
culture consists of shared beliefs and values established by leaders and then
communicated and reinforced through various methods, ultimately shaping employee
perceptions, behaviors, and understanding.)

31. He asserts the importance of promoting a positive organizational culture in their

unit. Which of the following behaviors indicate that this is attained by the group?

A. Proactive and caring with one another

B. Competitive and perfectionist
C. Powerful and oppositional
D. Obedient and uncomplaining

(Without a positive corporate culture, many employees will struggle to find the real value
in their work, and this leads to a variety of negative consequences for the bottom line.
Employers who invest in the well-being of their employees will be rewarded with happy,
dedicated employees)

32. Stephanie is a new Staff Educator of a private tertiary hospital. She conducts
orientation among new staff nurses in her department. Joseph, one of the new staff
nurses, wants to understand the channel of communication, a span of control, and
lines of communication. Which of the following will provide this information?

A. Organizational structure
B. Policy
C. Job description
D. Manual of procedures

(Organizational structure provides information on the channel of authority, (i.e., who

reports to whom and with what authority) the number of people who directly report to
the various levels of hierarchy, and the lines of communication whether line or staff.)

33. Stephanie is often seen interacting with the medical intern during coffee breaks and
after duty hours. What type of organizational structure is this?
 A. Formal
B. Informal
C. Staff
D. Line

(This is usually not published and oftentimes concealed. The informal organization is the
interlocking social structure that governs how people work together in practice. It is the
aggregate of behaviors, interactions, norms, and personal/professional connections
through which work gets done and relationships are built among people. It consists of a
dynamic set of personal relationships, social networks, communities of common interest,
and emotional sources of motivation)

34. She takes pride in saying that the hospital has a decentralized structure. Which of the
following is not compatible with this type of model?

A. Flat organization
B. Participatory approach
C. Shared governance
D. Tall organization

(Tall organizations are highly centralized organizations where decision-making is

centered on one authority level. A tall organizational structure means that management
is broken down into several layers, with executives on top and normal employees on the
bottom. In a tall organization, there will be a large number of managers, and each
manager will usually be responsible for a small group of employees.)

35. Centralized organizations have some advantages. Which of the following statements
is true? Select all that apply.

A. Highly cost-effective
B. Makes management easier
C. Reflects the interest of the worker
D. Allows quick decisions or actions.

(Centralized organizations need only a few managers hence they are less expensive and
easier to manage. In a centralized organization, the decision-making powers are
retained in the head office, and all other offices receive commands from the main office.
The executives and specialists who make critical decisions are based in the head office)

36. Stephanie delegates effectively if she has authority to act, which is best defined as:

A. Having a responsibility to direct others.

 B. Being accountable to the organization.
C. Having a legitimate right to act.
D. Telling others what to do.

(Authority is a legitimate or official right to give the command. This is an officially

sanctioned responsibility. Managers must possess the authority to give orders, and
recognize that with authority comes responsibility. As well as rank, Fayol argues that a
manager’s intelligence, experience, and values should command respect.)

37. Regardless of the size of a workgroup, enough staff must be available at all times to
accomplish certain purposes. Which of these purposes is not included?

A. Meet the needs of patients.

B. Provide a pair of hands to other units as needed.
C. Cover all time periods adequately.
D. Allow for growth and development of nursing staff.

(Providing a pair of hands for other units is not a purpose in doing an effective staffing
process. This is a function of a staffing coordinator at a centralized model. Staff positions
affect customers indirectly, only to the extent that the support they provide helps line
employees improve quality and customer satisfaction.)

38. Which of the following guidelines should be least considered in formulating

objectives for nursing care?

A. Written nursing care plan

B. Holistic approach
C. Prescribed standards
D. Staff preferences

(Staff preferences should be the least priority in formulating objectives of nursing care.
Individual preferences should be subordinate to the interest of the patients. Along with
clinical guidelines, patient preferences provide direction for selecting treatment options
and tailoring interventions. Patient preferences also help inform choice in clinical
decisions where science has yet to provide dominant solutions to health care problems.)

39. Stephanie considers shifting to transformational leadership. Which of the following

statements best describes this type of leadership?

A. Uses visioning as the essence of leadership.

B. Serves the followers rather than being served.
C. Maintains full trust and confidence in the subordinates.
D. Possesses innate charisma that makes others feel good in his presence.
 (Transformational leadership relies heavily on visioning as the core of leadership.
Transformational leadership is a leadership style that can inspire positive changes in
those who follow. Transformational leaders are generally energetic, enthusiastic, and
passionate. Not only are these leaders concerned and involved in the process; they are
also focused on helping every member of the group succeed as well.)

40. As a manager, she focuses her energy on both the quality of services rendered to the
patients as well as the welfare of the staff of her unit. Which of the following
management styles does she adopt?

A. Country club management

B. Organization man management
C. Team management
D. Authority-obedience management

(Team management has a high concern for services and high concern for staff. Team
management is the ability of an individual or an organization to administer and
coordinate a group of individuals to perform a task. Team management involves
teamwork, communication, objective setting, and performance appraisals.)

41. Katherine is a young Unit Manager of the Pediatric Ward. Most of her staff nurses
are senior to her, very articulate, confident, and sometimes aggressive. Katherine
feels uncomfortable believing that she is the scapegoat of everything that goes
wrong in her department. Which of the following is the best action that she must
take?

A. Identify the source of the conflict and understand the points of friction.
B. Disregard what she feels and continues to work independently.
C. Seek help from the Director of Nursing.
D. Quit her job and look for another employment.

(This involves a problem-solving approach, which addresses the root cause of the
problem. Seek to understand the underlying emotions of the employees in conflict.
Employers can manage workplace conflict by creating an organizational culture
designed to preclude conflict as much as possible and by dealing promptly and equitably
with conflicts that employees cannot resolve among themselves.)

42. As a young manager, she knows that conflict occurs in any organization. Which of
the following statements regarding conflict is not true?

A. Can be destructive if the level is too high.

B. Is not beneficial; hence it should be prevented at all times.
 C. May result in poor performance.
D. May create leaders.

(Conflicts are beneficial because it surfaces out issues in the open and can be solved
right away. Likewise, members of the team become more conscientious with their work
when they are aware that other members of the team are watching them. What conflicts
do is that they encourage debate and competition which is good for almost any
environment. Also, it improves team culture and allows people to learn more.)

43. Katherine tells one of the staff, “I don’t have time to discuss the matter with you
now. See me in my office later” when the latter asks if they can talk about an issue.
Which of the following conflict resolution strategies did she use?

A. Smoothing
B. Compromise
C. Avoidance
D. Restriction

(This strategy shuns discussing the issue head-on and prefers to postpone it to a later
time. In effect, the problem remains unsolved and both parties are in a lose-lose
situation. Someone who uses a strategy of “avoiding” mostly tries to ignore or sidestep
the conflict, hoping it will resolve itself or dissipate.)

44. Kathleen knows that one of her staff is experiencing burnout. Which of the
following is the best thing for her to do?

A. Advise her staff to go on vacation.

B. Ignore her observations; it will be resolved even without intervention.
C. Remind her to show loyalty to the institution.
D. Let the staff ventilate her feelings and ask how she can be of help.

(Reaching out and helping the staff is the most effective strategy in dealing with burnout.
Knowing that someone is ready to help makes the staff feel important; hence her self-
worth is enhanced. Even though the entire team may be experiencing burnout, have
conversations on an individual basis. Addressing the entire group can be intimidating
and make it difficult for members to open up. )

45. She knows that performance appraisal consists of all the following activities except:

A. Setting specific standards and activities for individual performance.

B. Using agency standards as a guide.
C. Determine areas of strength and weaknesses.
 D. Focusing activity on the correction of identified behavior.

(Performance appraisal deals with both positive and negative performance; is not meant
to be a fault-finding activity. A performance appraisal is a regular review of an
employee’s job performance and overall contribution to a company. Also known as an
annual review, performance review or evaluation, or employee appraisal, a performance
appraisal evaluates an employee’s skills, achievements, and growth–or lack thereof.)

46. Which of the following statements is not true about performance appraisal?

A. Informing the staff about the specific impressions of their work help improve their
performance.
B. A verbal appraisal is an acceptable substitute for a written report.
C. Patients are the best source of information regarding personnel appraisal.
D. The outcome of performance appraisal rests primarily with the staff.

(The patient can be a source of information about the performance of the staff but it is
never the best source. Directly observing the staff is the best source of information for
personnel appraisal. The supervisor analyses the factors behind the work performances
of employees. Through performance appraisal, the employers can understand and accept
the skills of subordinates.)

47. There are times when Katherine evaluates her staff as she makes her daily rounds.
Which of the following is not a benefit of conducting an informal appraisal?

A. The staff member is observed in a natural setting.

B. Incidental confrontation and collaboration are allowed.
C. The evaluation is focused on objective data systematically.
D. The evaluation may provide valid information for the compilation of a formal report.

(Collecting objective data systems can not be achieved in an informal appraisal. It is

focused on what actually happens in the natural work setting. Informal appraisals give
an employee a more current, ongoing perspective on performance. It helps avoid
delivering positive or negative surprises in a formal review, which is important for
internal communication. The manager also has the ability to motivate better performance
and stem problems quickly. A drawback of informal evaluations is that the manager
doesn’t plan for them as with a formal review.)

48. She conducts a 6-month performance review session with a staff member. Which of
the following actions is appropriate?

A. She asks another nurse to attest to the session as a witness.

 B. She informs the staff that she may ask another nurse to read the appraisal before the
session is over.
C. She tells the staff that the session is manager-centered.
D. The session is private between the two members.

(The session is private between the manager and the staff and remains to be so when the
two parties do not divulge the information to others. The rating procedure, appraisal
form, or any other related information ought to be sent to each and every individual
separately. Do not mark a common mail to everyone.)

49. Alexandra is tasked to organize the new wing of the hospital. She was given the
authority to do as she deems fit. She is aware that the director of nursing has
substantial trust and confidence in her capabilities, communicates through
downward and upward channels, and usually uses the ideas and opinions of her
staff. Which of the following is her style of management?

A. Benevolent –authoritative
B. Consultative
C. Exploitive-authoritative
D. Participative

(A consultative manager is almost like a participative manager. The participative

manager has complete trust and confidence in the subordinates, always uses the opinions
and ideas of subordinates, and communicates in all directions. Consultative leadership is
a leadership style that targets team building and uses the skills of others to create plans
and make decisions. Leaders consult with their team to obtain their suggestions and
opinions to help them make informed and strategic decisions.)

50. She decides to illustrate the organizational structure. Which of the following
elements is not included?

A. Level of authority
B. Lines of communication
C. Span of control
D. Unity of direction

(Unity of direction is a management principle, not an element of an organizational

structure. The principle of unity of direction implies that there should be ”one head and
one plan for a group of activities having the same objective”. In other words, each group
of activities having the same objectives must have one plan of action and must be under
the control of one manager or superior. An organization or group having different plans
and more than one head cannot achieve the desired results.)
51. She plans on assigning competent people to fill the roles designed in the hierarchy.
Which process refers to this?

A. Staffing
B. Scheduling
C. Recruitment
D. Induction

(Staffing is a management function involving putting the best people to accomplish tasks
and activities to attain the goals of the organization. Staffing is the function by which
managers build an organization through the recruitment, selection, development, of
individuals as capable employees.)

52. She checks the documentary requirements for the applicants for the staff nurse
position. Which one is not necessary?

A. Certificate of previous employment

B. Record of the related learning experience (RLE)
C. Membership to an accredited professional organization
D. Professional identification card

(Record of RLE is not required for employment purposes but it is required for the nurse’s
licensure examination. Related Learning Experience (RLE) is a teaching-learning
opportunity designed to advance the competencies of students utilizing methods in
various health situations. Related learning experience provides an opportunity for the
student-nurses to practice what has been learned in the classroom.)

53. Which phase of the employment process includes getting on the payroll and
completing documentary requirements?

A. Orientation
B. Induction
C. Selection
D. Recruitment

(This step in the recruitment process gives time for the staff to submit all the
documentary requirements for employment. Induction means the introduction of a new
employee to the job and the organization. It is the process of receiving and welcoming an
employee when he first joins a company and giving him the basic information he needs to
settle down quickly and happily and start work.)
54. She tries to design an organizational structure that allows communication to flow in
all directions and involves workers in decision-making. Which form of
organizational structure is this?

A. Centralized
B. Decentralized
C. Matrix
D. Informal

(Decentralized structures allow the staff to make decisions on matters pertaining to their
practice and communicate in downward, upward, lateral and diagonal flow.
Decentralization is a type of organizational structure in which daily operations and
decision-making responsibilities are delegated by top management to middle and lower-
level managers.)

55. In a horizontal chart, the lowest level worker is located at the

A. Leftmost box
B. Middle
C. Rightmost box
D. Bottom

(The leftmost box is occupied by the highest authority while the lowest level worker
occupies the rightmost box. A horizontal organizational structure has fewer layers,
normally two or three. It doesn’t have many chains of command.)

56. She decides to have a decentralized staffing system. Which of the following is an
advantage of this system of staffing?

A. Greater control of activities.

B. Conserves time.
C. Compatible with computerization.
D. Promotes better interpersonal relationships.

(Decentralized structures allow the staff to solve decisions by themselves, involve them in
decision making; hence they are always given opportunities to interact with one another.
Decentralization improves the level of job satisfaction as well as employee morale,
especially amongst the lower-level managers.)

57. Aubrey thinks about primary nursing as a system to deliver care. Which of the
following activities is not done by a primary nurse?

A. Collaborates with the physician.

 B. Provides care to a group of patients together with a group of nurses.
C. Provides care for 5-6 patients during their hospital stay.
D. Performs comprehensive initial assessment.

(This function is done in team nursing where the nurse is a member of a team that
provides care for a group of patients. Primary care nursing is when a single nurse is
identified as the point of contact and primary caregiver for a patient during his or her
particular hospital stay or other episodes of care. As envisioned by staff nurses at the
University of Minnesota in 1969, the primary care nursing team is composed of that lead
nurse, who directly supervises the engagement of a licensed practical nurse and/or
nursing assistant in that patient’s care.)

58. Which pattern of nursing care involves the care given by a group of
paraprofessional workers led by a professional nurse who takes care of patients
with the same disease conditions and is located geographically near each other?

A. Case method
B. Modular nursing
C. Nursing case management
D. Team nursing

(Modular nursing is a variant of team nursing. The difference lies in the fact that the
members in modular nursing are paraprofessional workers. Modular Nursing is a
modification of team nursing and focuses on the patient’s geographic location for staff
assignments; the unit is divided into groups referred to as modules – also called districts
or pods.)

59. St. Raphael Medical Center just opened its new Performance Improvement
Department. Ms. Valencia is appointed as the Quality Control Officer. She commits
herself to her new role and plans her strategies to realize the goals and objectives of
the department. Which of the following is a primary task that they should perform
to have an effective control system?

A. Make an interpretation about strengths and weaknesses.

B. Identify the values of the department.
C. Identify structure, process, outcome standards & criteria.
D. Measure actual performances.

(Identify the values of the department will set the guiding principles within which the
department will operate its activities. Some control techniques, such as those involving
standard hours and costs, budgets, and various financial ratios, have general application
in various situations.)
60. Ms. Valencia develops the standards to be followed. Among the following
standards, which is considered as a structure standard?

A. The patients verbalized satisfaction with the nursing care received.

B. Rotation of duty will be done every four weeks for all patient care personnel.
C. All patients shall have their weights recorded.
D. Patients shall answer the evaluation form before discharge.

(Structure standards include management systems, facilities, equipment, materials

needed to deliver care to patients. Rotation of duty is a management system. A nursing
care standard is a descriptive statement of desired quality against which to evaluate
nursing care. It is a guideline. A guideline is a recommended path to safe-conduct, an aid
to professional performance.)

61. When she presents the nursing procedures to be followed, she refers to what type of
standards?

A. Process
B. Outcome
C. Structure
D. Criteria

(Process standards include care plans, the nursing procedures to be done to address the
needs of the patients. Process standards focus on the practitioner and the activities
carried out in delivering care. The development of standards and related criterion
measures are then guided by the basic principles.)

62. The following are basic steps in the controlling process of the department. Which of
the following is not included?

A. Measure actual performance.

B. Set nursing standards and criteria.
C. Compare results of performance to standards and objectives.
D. Identify possible courses of action.

(This is a step in a quality control process and not a basic step in the control process.
Controlling involves ensuring that performance does not deviate from standards.
Controlling consists of five steps: (1) set standards, (2) measure performance, (3)
compare performance to standards, (4) determine the reasons for deviations and then (5)
take corrective action as needed.)

63. Which of the following statements refers to criteria?

 A. Agreed on level of nursing care.
B. Characteristics used to measure the level of nursing care.
C. Step-by-step guidelines.
D. Statement which guides the group in decision making and problem-solving.

(Criteria are specific characteristics used to measure the standard of care. Criteria is the
plural of criterion—a standard or principle for judging, evaluating, or selecting
something. Criteria are the ideals or requirements on which a judgment, evaluation, or
selection is based.)

64. She wants to ensure that every task is carried out as planned. Which of the
following tasks is not included in the controlling process?

A. Instructing the members of the standards committee to prepare policies.

B. Reviewing the existing policies of the hospital.
C. Evaluating the credentials of all nursing staff.
D. Checking if activities conform to the schedule.

(Instructing the members involves a directing function. Controlling involves ensuring

that performance does not deviate from standards. Controlling consists of five steps: (1)
set standards, (2) measure performance, (3) compare performance to standards, (4)
determine the reasons for deviations and then (5) take corrective action as needed.)

65. Ms. Valencia prepares the process standards. Which of the following is not a
process standard?

A. Initial assessment shall be done to all patients within twenty-four hours upon
admission.
B. Informed consent shall be secured prior to any invasive procedure.
C. Patients report a 95% satisfaction rate prior to discharge from the hospital.
D. Patient education about their illness and treatment shall be provided for all patients
and their families.

(This refers to an outcome standard, which is a result of the care that is rendered to the
patient. Outcome standards focus on the end result of the nursing services and activities
carried out and the changes which occurred. This approach is based on the belief that
structure, process, and outcome are interdependent.)

66. Which of the following is evidence that the controlling process is effective?

A. The things that were planned are done.

B. Physicians do not complain.
 C. Employees are contented.
D. There is an increase in customer satisfaction rate.

(Controlling is defined as seeing to it that what is planned is done. Controlling involves

ensuring that performance does not deviate from standards. Controlling consists of five
steps: (1) set standards, (2) measure performance, (3) compare performance to
standards, (4) determine the reasons for deviations and then (5) take corrective action as
needed.)

67. Ms. Valencia is responsible for the number of personnel reporting to her. This
principle refers to:

A. Span of control
B. Unity of command
C. Carrot and stick principle
D. Esprit d’ corps

(The span of control refers to the number of workers who report directly to a manager.
The span of control determines the level of interactions and responsibilities associated
with employees and managers. The process is used to determine the management style
and it also defines roles within the organization.)

68. She notes that there is increasing unrest of the staff due to fatigue brought about by
the shortage of staff. Which action is a priority?

A. Evaluate the overall result of the unrest.

B. Initiate a group interaction.
C. Develop a plan and implement it.
D. Identify external and internal forces.

(Initiating a group interaction will be an opportunity to discuss the problem in the open.
Managers should communicate conflict resolution policies and processes to create a
sense of safety in the workplace and provide an outlet for employees to report incidents
should they feel the need. It is also important to ensure that employees understand any no
retaliation policies regarding expressing concerns in the workplace.)

69. Kevin is a member of the Nursing Research Council of the hospital. His first
assignment is to determine the level of patient satisfaction with the care they
received from the hospital. He plans to include all adult patients admitted from
April to May, with an average length of stay of 3-4 days, first admission, and with
no complications. Which of the following is an extraneous variable of the study?

A. Date of admission
 B. Length of stay
C. Age of patients
D. Absence of complications

(An extraneous variable is not the primary concern of the researcher but has an effect on
the results of the study. Adult patients may be young, middle, or late adults. Extraneous
variables are those that produce an association between two variables that are not
causally related.)

70. He thinks of an appropriate theoretical framework. Whose theory addresses the

four modes of adaptation?

A. Martha Rogers
B. Sr. Callista Roy
C. Florence Nightingale
D. Jean Watson

(Sr. Callista Roy developed the Adaptation Model which involves the physiologic mode,
self-concept mode, role function mode, and dependence mode. Developed by Roy in
1976, the Adaptation Model of Nursing asks three central questions: Who is the focus of
nursing care? What is the target of nursing care? and When is nursing care indicated?
This model looks at the patient from a holistic perspective.)

71. He opts to use a self-report method. Which of the following is not true about this
method?

A. Most direct means of gathering information.

B. Versatile in terms of content coverage.
C. Most accurate and valid method of data gathering.
D. Yields information that would be difficult to gather by another method.

(The most serious disadvantage of this method is the accuracy and validity of the
information gathered. Self-reporting is a common approach for gathering data in
epidemiologic and medical research. This method requires participants to respond to the
researcher’s questions without his/her interference.)

72. Which of the following articles would Kevin least consider for his review of
literature?

A. “Story-Telling and Anxiety Reduction Among Pediatric Patients”

B. “Turnaround Time in Emergency Rooms”
C. “Outcome Standards in Tertiary Health Care Institutions”
D. “Environmental Manipulation and Client Outcomes”
 (The article is for pediatric patients and may not be relevant for adult patients. A
literature review surveys books, scholarly articles, and any other sources relevant to a
particular issue, area of research, or theory, and by so doing, provides a description,
summary, and critical evaluation of these works in relation to the research problem
being investigated.)

73. Which of the following variables will he likely exclude in his study?

A. Competence of nurses
B. Caring attitude of nurses
C. Salary of nurses
D. Responsiveness of staff

(The salary of staff nurses is not an indicator of patient satisfaction, hence need not be
included as a variable in the study. A variable in research simply refers to a person,
place, thing, or phenomenon that the researcher is trying to measure in some way. The
best way to understand the difference between a dependent and independent variable is
that the meaning of each is implied by what the words tell us about the variable the
researcher is using.)

74. He plans to use a Likert Scale to determine:

A. Degree of agreement and disagreement

B. Compliance to expected standards
C. Level of satisfaction
D. Degree of acceptance

(Likert scale is a 5-point summated scale used to determine the degree of agreement or
disagreement of the respondents to a statement in a study. The Likert scale question is a
psychometric scale where questions based on this scale are used in a survey. It is one of
the most widely used question types in a survey. In a Likert scale survey, respondents
don’t choose between ‘yes/no,’ there are specific choices based on ‘agreeing’ or
‘disagreeing’ on a particular survey question.)

75. He checks if his instruments meet the criteria for evaluation. Which of the following
criteria refers to the consistency or the ability to yield the same response upon its
repeated administration?

A. Validity
B. Reliability
C. Sensitivity
D. Objectivity
 (Reliability is the repeatability of the instrument; it can elicit the same responses even
with varied administration of the instrument. In simple terms, research reliability is the
degree to which research method produces stable and consistent results. A specific
measure is considered to be reliable if its application on the same object of measurement
a number of times produces the same results.)

76. Which criteria refer to the ability of the instrument to detect fine differences among
the subjects being studied?

A. Sensitivity
B. Reliability
C. Validity
D. Objectivity

(Sensitivity is an attribute of the instrument that allows the respondents to distinguish

differences in the options where to choose from. Sensitivity is one of four related
statistics used to describe the accuracy of an instrument for making a dichotomous
classification (i.e., positive or negative test outcome). Of these four statistics, sensitivity
is defined as the probability of correctly identifying some condition or disease state.)

77. Which of the following terms refer to the degree to which an instrument measures
what it is supposed to be measured?

A. Validity
B. Reliability
C. Meaningfulness
D. Sensitivity

(Validity is ensuring that the instrument contains appropriate questions about the
research topic. Validity is the extent to which the results really measure what they are
supposed to measure. A valid measurement is generally reliable: if a test produces
accurate results, it should be reproducible.)

78. He plans for his sampling method. Which sampling method gives an equal chance
to all units in the population to get picked?

A. Random
B. Accidental
C. Quota
D. Judgment
 (Random sampling gives equal chance for all the elements in the population to be picked
as part of the sample. Random sampling is a part of the sampling technique in which
each sample has an equal probability of being chosen. A sample chosen randomly is
meant to be an unbiased representation of the total population. An unbiased random
sample is important for drawing conclusions.)

79. Raphael is interested to learn more about transcultural nursing because he is

assigned at the family suites where most patients come from different cultures and
countries. Which of the following designs is appropriate for this study?

A. Grounded theory
B. Ethnography
C. Case study
D. Phenomenology

(Ethnography is focused on patterns of behavior of selected people within a culture.

Ethnography is a study through direct observation of users in their natural environment
rather than in a lab. The objective of this type of research is to gain insights into how
users interact with things in their natural environment.)

80. The nursing theorist who developed transcultural nursing theory is

A. Dorothea Orem
B. Madeleine Leininger
C. Betty Newman
D. Sr. Callista Roy

(Madeleine Leininger developed the theory on transcultural theory based on her

observations on the behavior of selected people within a culture. It involves learning and
understanding various cultures regarding nursing and health-illness caring practices,
beliefs, and values to implement significant and efficient nursing care services to people
according to their cultural values and health-illness context.)