Tora Bika Yes

” Important and Confidential Document” !!!!!!!!
ANT II A Periode II – 2019

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1. Plan a Voyage and Conduct Navigation

( Merencanakan Pelayaran dan Melaksanakan Navigasi )
1. In which source could you find the number of a chart for a certain geographic area?
Catalog of Charts
2. A voyage passage plan is made from ______
berth to berth
3. ECDIS must be able to perform all of the following EXCEPT _________
determine magnetic compass deviation
4. The Sailing Directions (Enroute) contain information on _________
coastal anchorages
5. Is anchoring permitted in a narrow channel?
It should be avoided if the circumstances of the case admit.
6. You are informed of defects or changes in aids to navigation by _________
All of the above
7. Which statement about radio navigational warnings is TRUE?
The topics for warnings included in HYDROLANTS, HYDROPACS, and NAVAREA warnings are the
same.
8. Which statement about Radio Navigational Warning Broadcasts is TRUE?
HYDROLANTS and HYDROPACS cover the same geographical areas as NAVAREA warnings, but are
for the use of military vessels only.
9. Which publication contains information on Naval Control of Shipping (NCS) in time of emergency or war?
Pub. 102, International Code of Signals
10. You would expect to find channels marked with the IALA-A Buoyage System in ________
Australia
11. To which traffic separation schemes does Rule 10 apply?
Those adopted by the International Maritime Organization
12. Of the vessels listed, which must keep out of the way of all the others?
A vessel on pilotage duty
13. Your ship received a HYDROLANT advising of a special warning to mariners from the Department of
State for ships in the Persian Gulf. You are 400 miles south of, and bound for, the Persian Gulf. What
action should you take?
Send an AMVER report and acknowledge receipt of the warning.
barakuda13-NHK.cms@AKMIcrb (081287614366)
14. A vessel shall so far is practicable, avoid crossing traffic separation lanes. But if obliged to do so shall
cross the general direction of traffic flow ________
Avoiding impeding traffic using the scheme.
15. What publication contains information about the port facilities and passage entry to port ?
Coast Pilot
16. Is it necessary to construct a passage plan, (or voyage plan), for transiting a canal or river, when under
pilot?
A passage plan is always required, irrespective of the length of the voyage, or if the ship is under pilot
17. While underway, automatic identification systems (AIS) broadcast all of the following information every
1 to 10 seconds EXCEPT the _________
ship's scantlings
18. When must a passage plan be prepared ?
Before the voyage commences.
19. All temporary and preliminary notices which are currently in force are published
in the Annual Summary of Notices to the mariners
20. If the radar scanner of one ship is at the same height as the cargo deck of the other during transfer
operations, which type of radar would pose a greater danger of the induced ignition ?
A 3 cm radar.
21. In a traffic separation scheme, when joining a traffic lane from the side, a vessel shall do so
at as small an angle as possible
22. When making landfall at night, you can determine if a light is a major light or an offshore buoy by
checking the period and characteristics against the Light List
23. Which nautical charts are intended for coastwise navigation outside of outlying reefs and shoals?
General charts
24. What does not contribute to the commercial GPS receiver position error?
Ship's speed
25. Which statement concerning GPS is TRUE?
It may be suspended without warning.
26. You are in charge of a 250-meter freight vessel constrained by her draft proceeding down a narrow
channel. There is a vessel engaged in fishing on your starboard bow half a mile away. According to Rule
9, which statement is TRUE?
If you are in doubt as to the fishing vessel's intentions you may sound at least five short and rapid blasts
on the whistle.
27. Little or no change in the barometric reading over a twelve hour period indicates _____
that present weather conditions will continue
28. In which voyage, between two points, is the rhumb line distance NOT approximately the same as the
great circle distance?
The two points are in high latitudes in the same hemisphere.
29. Mariners are FIRST warned of serious defects or important changes to aids to navigation by means of
marine broadcast Notice to Mariners
30. You are preparing to take a tow from San Diego to Portland, OR. Good seamanship would require that
you have on board, available for reference and use, all of the following EXCEPT the _________
Sailing Directions (Enroute)
31. You are enroute to assist vessel A. Vessel A is underway at 4.5 knots on course 233degreeT, and
bears 264degreeT at 68 miles from you. What is the course to steer at 13 knots to intercept vessel A?
256 degree
32. Distance along a track line is measured on a Mercator chart by using the _________
atitude scale near the middle of the track line
33. The velocity of the current in large coastal harbors is _________
predicted in Tidal Current Tables
34. Your vessel is to leave a crowded anchorage making a 180 degrees turn. The ship has a right-handed
propeller and there is equal space either side of the ship (as illustrated). What would be the most
suitable method to make the turn using as little space as possible?
Rudder hard to port, full astern. After gaining some sternway, rudder hard to starboard and full ahead
35. The drift and set of tidal, river, and ocean currents refer to the _________
speed and direction toward which the current flows
36. What should a passage plan include ?
The plan should include the entire voyage from berth to berth.
37. What is the main purpose of VTS?
Increase the safety of all ships and the protection of the environment in the vicinity.
38. Which of the following factors may not be taken into consideration when planning a passage in coastal
waters?
Choice of ocean route
39. The path that a vessel is expected to follow, represented on a chart by a line drawn from the point of
departure to the point of arrival, is the _________
track line
40. When planning a voyage crossing large oceans, which of the following answers would most suitably
cover the most critical aspects to be considered when deciding the courses to steer?:
The anticipated weather and the need for weather routing. The distances gained by sailing by great
circle. The ship's draught and the loadline limits
41. The true wind has been determined to be from 210degreeT, speed 12 knots. You desire the apparent
wind to be 30 knots from 10degree on the port bow. What course must you steer, and what speed must
you make for this to occur?
235 degree T, 18.6 knots
42. When using the ARPA in heavy rain, which action should you take?.
Navigate as though the effective range of the radar has been reduced.
43. Which publication would describe the explosive anchorages in the ports on the east coast of the United
States?
Coast Pilot
44. On a chart, the characteristic of the light on a lighthouse is shown as flashing white with a red sector.
The red sector _________
indicates a danger area
45. You will be loading in Boston Harbor to a maximum draft of 32'06"". The charted depth of an obstruction
in the channel near Boston Light is 30 feet and you wish to have 3 feet of keel clearance. The steaming
time from the pier to the obstruction is 01h 05m. What is the latest time (ZD +4) you can sail on 17 May
1983 and meet these requirements?
1728
46. You are a Senior Officer of the Watch on vessel ""A"" and are passing through the Straits of Gibraltar.
The vessel's speed is 18 knots and your vessel is overtaking several other vessels, when the visibility
reduces down to about 2 nm. What aspects would you consider when establishing a ""safe speed"" for
your vessel?
Deciding safe speed consider: 2 miles visibility; traffic density; manoeuvrability of vessel; effectiveness
of navigational equipment (ARPA etc); state of sea and currents and navigational hazards.
47. Supplements to Sailing Directions are issued at intervals of approximately
12 months
48. You are planning to enter an unfamiliar port. Which publication provides information about channel
depths, dangers, obstructions, anchorages, and marine facilities available in that port?
Coast Pilot
49. The distance covered by a ship on four successive days were 320, 300, 310 and 330 nautical miles
respectively. Find the average daily run speed if each day is 24 hours long
315 naut. Miles
50.What chart should be used when navigating ?
The largest scale chart onboard for the area which is properly corrected
51. A vessel using a traffic separation scheme is forbidden to _________
proceed through an inappropriate traffic lane
52. Controls testing of bridge equipment should be carried out ________
one to two hours prior sailing
53. A list of the latest editions of hydrographic publications with the latest supplement is published_______
in the Admiralty notices to mariners every quarter
54. The closest point of approach (CPA) of a contact on a relative motion radar may be determined
after the contact has been marked at least twice
55. Which would you consult for information about the general current circulation in the North Atlantic
Ocean?
Pilot chart
56. How often is it recommended that a position fix is taken during a sea voyage if the ship is in open
waters ?
At least every 30 minutes
57. Chart correction information is NOT disseminated through the _________
Chart Correction Card
58. If there is any doubt as to the proper operation of a radar, which statement is TRUE?
A radar range compared to the actual range of a known object can be used to check the operation of the
radar.
2. Determine Position and the Accuracy of Resultant Position Fix

by Any Means
( Penentuan posisi dan ketepatan atas hasil akhir penentuan posisi menggunakan berbagai cara )
1. Which of the four figures illustrated shows the correct position line for the following situation: Latitude
50degree 00'N, Longitude 30degree 00'W, Time 1200 GMT. Course steered: 090degree True, Speed:
12 knots, bearing of the sun: 200degree, Intercept correction: 00degree 02' Towards (observed altitude -
computed altitude)
Figure 2 is correct
2. All Loran-C transmitting stations are equipped with cesium frequency standards which permit
each station to transmit without reference to another station
3. From the following data: Sextant altitude (LL): 38degree 12.4'; Index error : 3.0' on the arc; Corr'n for HE
: 6.6'; Total corr'n for sun : for UL -17.0' , for LL + 14.8. What is the true altitude of the Sun's Lower limb?
38⁰ 17.6'
4. Which of the following figures drawn on the plane of the Meridian is correct for an observer in position
Latitude 30degree 00' North; Longitude 15degree 00' West, when observing the sun on the meridian, if
the sun's Declination is 15degree 00' South?
Figure 4 is correct
5. Plotting position using the method of a running fix is used when
only one bearing line is available
6. You are taking bearings on two known objects ashore. The BEST fix is obtained when the angle between
the lines of position is
90⁰
7. Because of the reflecting properties of a sextant, if the sextant altitude reads 60degree on the limb, the
actual arc of the limb from 0degree to the 60degree reading is
30⁰
8. The positions of the ship provided by the GPS should always be confirmed by other means, when
possible. Which of the following suggested methods would be the most accurate?
The ranges of three distinctive shore objects on the radar
9. The GHA of the first point of Aries is 315degree and the GHA of a planet is 150degree. What is the right
ascension of the planet?
11 hours
10. The position of the ship is found by taking a series of bearings using a magnetic compass. How should
an error of 5degree WEST be applied to the compass bearings?
Subtract 5⁰ to the bearings
11. The rate of increase in hour angle is the slowest for
the Moon
12. When using GPS, how many theoretical position lines are required for a two-dimensional fix?
3
13. When navigating using the GPS, how does the GPS display indicate when the accuracy of the
displayed position is reduced?
A large HDOP value is displayed on the screen
14. A position that is obtained by using two or more intersecting lines of position taken at nearly the
same time, is a(n)
fix
15. A position obtained by taking lines of position from one object at different times and advancing
them to a common time is a(n)
running fix
16. A position that is obtained by applying estimated current and wind to your vessel's course and
speed is a(n)
estimated position
17. Civil twilight occurs at 0558 zone time on 30 December 1981. Your DR position at that time is LAT
15Degree 02'N, LONG 46degree 02'W. Which statement concerning the planets available for morning
sights is TRUE?
At 0558, Mars can be used for an ex-meridian observation
18. Civil twilight begins at 1910 zone time on 20 July 1981. Your DR position at that time is LAT 22degree
16'N, LONG 150degree 06'W. Which statement concerning the planets available for evening sights is
TRUE?
Venus will have a westerly meridian angle
19. When taking an amplitude, the Sun's center should be observed on the visible horizon when
in high latitudes
20. At 0000 you fix your position and plot a new DR track line. At 0200 you again fix your position and it is
0.5 mile east of your DR. Which statement is TRUE?
The drift is 0.25 knot
21. The time interval between the transmission of signals from a pair of Loran-C stations is very closely
controlled and operates with
an atomic time standard
22. What is important to check when transferring a position from the GPS output to a paper chart?
Any necessary corrections are applied to convert between the GPS datum and the chart datum
23. While steering a course of 150Degree T, you wish to observe the Sun for a speed check. What would
the azimuth have to be?
150⁰ T
24. While steering a course of 150Degree T, you wish to observe a body for a latitude check. What would
the azimuth have to be?
000⁰ T
25. What will be the d?long for departure of 66.5Degree when the ship is on m?lat of 29degree N
76⁰
26. For navigational purposes, each great circle on the Earth has a length of
21,600 miles
27. A single line of position combined with a dead-reckoning position results in a(n)
estimated position
28. When using a buoy as an aid to navigation which of the following should be considered?
The buoy may not be in the charted position
29. To fix the ship's position by horizontal sextant angle you need at least
3 objects
30. The zone time of LAN is 1152. Your longitude is 73Degree 15'E. What time would you use to enter the
Nautical Almanac to determine the declination of the Sun at LAN?
0659
31. The LMT of LAN is 1210. Your longitude is 70Degree 30'E. Which time would you use to enter the
Nautical Almanac to determine the declination of the Sun at LAN?
0728
32. A great circle crosses the equator at 173Degree E. It will also cross the equator at what other
longitude?
7⁰ W
33. When should a navigator rely on the position of floating aids to navigation?
Only when fixed aids are not available
34.A vessel's position should be plotted using bearings of
fixed known objects on shore
35. If Loran-C signals become unsynchronized, the receiver operator is warned because
signals begin to blink
36. Your vessel is making way through the water at a speed of 12 knots. Your vessel traveled 30 nautical
miles in 2 hours 20 minutes. What current are you experiencing?
A following current of 0.9 knot
37. A position obtained by applying only your vessel's course and speed to a known position is a
dead-reckoning position
38. Which position includes the effects of wind and current?
Estimated position
39. Your longitude is 179Degree 59'W. The LMT at this longitude is 23h 56m of the 4th day of the month.
Six minutes later your position is 179Degree 59'E longitude. Your LMT and date is now
00h 02m on the 6th
40. In Mercator sailing
DMP = D'long x Secant Course
41. The difference in local time between an observer on 114Degree W and one on 119Degree W is
20 minutes
42. A sextant having an index error that is "on the arc" has a
negative correction
43. The DMP between latitude 20? 30' N and latitude 10? 15' S is
1863.07
44. When navigating a vessel, you
should never rely on a floating aid to maintain its exact position
45. Vessels required to have an Automatic Radar Plotting Aid must have a device to indicate the
speed of the vessel over the ground or through the water
46. When using a radar in a unstabilized mode, fixes are determined most easily from
ranges
47. The equation of time is 8m 00s. The mean Sun is ahead of the apparent Sun. If you are 2Degree W of
the central meridian of your time zone, when will the apparent Sun cross your meridian?
12:16
48. On 6 July 1981, at 1000 zone time, you cross the 180th meridian steaming westward. What is your local
time?
It is 1000, 7 July
49. The parallax angle will vary the most with the time of year for
Venus
50. In latitude 42.36Degree N, a ship sails due east from Longitude 26.30Degree W to longitude
21.12Degree W . What departure has she made?
234.08 miles
51. Which of the four calculations illustrated is the correct one to determine the latitude of the observer
when the sun is on the meridian?
Calculation 3 is correct
52. When navigating using GPS, what is an indicator of the geometry of the satellites that your receiver is
locked onto?
Horizontal Dilution of Precision
3. Determine and Allow for Comoass Errors

( Menghitung dan menggunakan kesalahan kompas )
1. The annual change in variation for an area can be found in _________

the center of the compass rose on a chart of the area
2. What is an advantage of the magnetic compass aboard vessels?
It is reliable due to it's essential simplicity.
3. Variation is the angular measurement between _________
magnetic meridian and the geographic meridian
4. Variation is a compass error that you _________
cannot correct
5. Variation is not constant; it is different with every change in _________
geographical location
6. If the gyrocompass error is east, what describes the error and the correction to be made to gyrocompass
headings to obtain true headings?
The readings are too low (small numerically) and the amount of the error must be added to the
compass to obtain true
7. On a nautical chart, the inner ring of a compass rose indicates _________
magnetic directions
8. The greatest directive force is exerted on the magnetic compass when the _________
vessel is near the magnetic equator
9. When adjusting a magnetic compass using the fore-and-aft permanent magnets, you should _________
use the magnets in pairs, starting at the top, with trays at the highest point of travel
10. As a vessel changes course to starboard, the compass card in a magnetic compass___
remains aligned with compass north
11. How is the annual rate of change for magnetic variation shown on a pilot chart?
Gray lines on the uppermost inset chart
12. The purpose of the soft iron spheres mounted on arms on the binnacle is to compensate for _________
induced magnetism in the horizontal soft iron
13. Which statement about the gyrocompass is FALSE?
Its accuracy remains the same at all latitudes.
14. Which information does the outer ring of a compass rose on a nautical chart provide?
True directions
15. You would find the variation on a polyconic projection chart _________
on the compass rose
16. You are using a radar in which your own ship is shown at the center, and the heading flash always
points to 0Degree. If bearings are measured in relation to the flash, what type of bearings are produced?
Relative
17. If the compass heading and the magnetic heading are the same then _________
there is no deviation on that heading
18. The total magnetic effects which cause deviation of a vessel's compass can be broken down into a
series of components which are referred to as _________
coefficients
19. Deviation which is maximum on intercardinal compass headings may be removed by the ________
soft iron spheres on the sides of the compass
20. The Flinders bar on a magnetic compass compensates for the _________
induced magnetism in vertical soft iron
21. The gyrocompass error resulting from your vessel's movement in OTHER than an east-west direction is
called _________
speed error
22. When changing from a compass course to a true course you should apply _________
variation and deviation
23. The horizontal angle between the magnetic meridian and the north-south line of the magnetic compass
is _________
deviation
24. Indications of the master gyrocompass are sent to remote repeaters by the _________
transmitter
25. Which compensates for errors introduced when the vessel heels over?
A single vertical magnet beneath the compass
26. A single vertical magnet placed underneath the compass in the binnacle is used to compensate for
induced magnetism in the vertical soft iron
27. The standard magnetic compass heading differs from the true heading by _________
compass error
28. Deviation in a compass is caused by the _________
influence of the magnetic materials of the vessel
29. The lubber's line on a magnetic compass indicates _________
the direction of the vessel's head
30. Heeling error is defined as the change of deviation for a heel of _________
1⁰ While the vessel is on a compass heading of 000⁰
31. Deviation changes with a change in _________
Heading
32. Magnetic variation changes with a change in _________
The vessel's position
33. At the master gyrocompass, the compass card is attached to the _________
Sensitive element
34. Which compensates for induced magnetism in the horizontal soft iron of a vessel?
Iron spheres mounted on the binnacle
35. A relative bearing is always measured from _________
The vessel's head
36. The magnetic compass magnets are acted on by the horizontal component of the Earth's total magnetic
force. This magnetic force is GREATEST at the _________
Magnetic equator
37. How is variation indicated on a small-scale nautical chart?
Isogonic lines
38. Gyrocompass repeaters reproduce the indications of the master gyrocompass. They are_
Accurate electronic servomechanisms
39. What is the basic principle of the magnetic compass?
Magnetic materials of the same polarity repel each other and those of opposite polarity attract
40. If a ship is proceeding towards the magnetic equator, the uncorrected deviation due to permanent
magnetism _________
Decreases
41. When adjusting a magnetic compass for error, a deviation table should be made ______
After adjusting the fore-and-aft and athwartships permanent magnets
42. A system of reservoirs and connecting tubes in a gyro compass is called a _________
Mercury ballistic
43. What are the only magnetic compass correctors that correct for both permanent and induced effects of
magnetism?
Heeling magnets
44. If a magnetic compass is not affected by any magnetic field other than the Earth's, which statement is
TRUE?
Compass error and variation are equal.
45. To center a compass bowl in its binnacle, you should have the ship on an even keel, heading north or
south, and adjust the screws until _________
No change of heading by compass is observed if you raise and lower the heeling magnet
46. Compass error is equal to the _________
Combined variation and deviation
47. Magnetic compass deviation _________
is the angular difference between magnetic north and compass north
48. You are proceeding up a channel at night. It is marked by a range which bears 185Degree T. You
steady up on a compass course of 180Degree with the range in line dead ahead. This indicates that
you(r)
Compass has some easterly error
49. The compass rose on a nautical chart indicates both variation and _________
Annual rate of variation change
50. The quadrantal spheres are used to _________
Remove deviation on the intercardinal headings
51. The principal purpose of magnetic compass adjustment is to _________
Reduce the deviation as much as possible
52. At the magnetic equator there is no induced magnetism in the vertical soft iron because_____
There is no vertical component of the Earth's magnetic field
53. The vertical component of the Earth's magnetic field causes induced magnetism in vertical soft iron.
This changes with latitude. What corrects for this coefficient of the deviation?
The Flinders bar
54. The directive force of a gyrocompass _________
Decreases with latitude, being maximum at the geographic equator
55. Lines on a chart which connect points of equal magnetic variation are called _________
isogonic lines
56. Deviation is the angle between the _________
Magnetic meridian and the axis of the compass card
57. You are about to go to sea and adjust the magnetic compass. To expedite the adjustment at sea, in
what order should the following dockside adjustments be made?
Flinders bar first, then the spheres and heeling magnet
58. Which error is NOT included in the term ""current"" when used in relation to a fix?
Known compass error
59. When crossing the magnetic equator the _________
Heeling magnet should be inverted
4. Coordinate Search and Recue Operations
( Koordinasi didalam kegiatan pencarian dan pertolongan )
1. An inert gas system installed on a tanker is designed to _________

Lower the oxygen levels inside cargo tanks, making explosion nearly impossible
2. The purpose of inert gas systems aboard tank vessels is to _________
Prevent outside air from entering the tank
3. In what format will an On-Scene Co-ordinator report such information as on-scene weather and operation
progress to other parties?
SITREP.
4. A patient in shock should NOT be placed in which position?
Arms above their head
5. A decision support system for emergency management shall be provided on the navigation bridge. What
type of emergency situations shall as a minimum be identified in the emergency plans?
Fire, Damage to ship, Pollution, Unlawful acts threatening the safety of the ship and the security of its
passenger and crew, Pesonnel accidents, Cargo-related accidents, Emergency assistance to other
ships
6. The rescuer can best provide an airtight seal during mouth-to-mouth resuscitation by pinching the victim's
nostrils and _________
Applying his mouth tightly over the victim's mouth
7. It has been shown that the controlled release of oil is effective in reducing the effects of the sea, making it
possible for a rescue craft to approach survivors in the water. How many square metres does the
IAMSAR Manual suggest may be calmed by releasing 200 litres of lubricating oil slowly through a rubber
hose with the outlet maintained just above the surface while the ship proceeds at slow speed?
Approx 5,000 square metres.
8. Your ship is sinking rapidly. A container containing an inflatable liferaft has bobbed to the surface upon
functioning of the hydrostatic release. Which action should you take?
Take no action because the painter will cause the liferaft to inflate and open the container.
9. When giving mouth-to-mouth rescue breathing to an adult, you should breathe at the rate of how many
breaths per minute?
12
10. How should signal flares be used after you have abandoned ship and are adrift in a liferaft?
Use them only when you are aware of a ship or plane in the area.
11. Emergency instructions in appropriate languages shall be posted in passenger cabins. Which information
shall as a minimum be included in the emergency instructions?
The method of donning life-jackets, escape routes and alarm signals
12. The galley on your cargo vessel has an area of 2,500 square feet. What would fulfill the minimum
requirements for fire protection?
One B-II extinguisher
13. What are the three volumes of the IAMSAR Manual?
I Organization and Management II Mission Co-ordination III Mobile Facilities.
14. All of the following are part of the fire triangle EXCEPT _________
Fuel
15. What is the world-wide system operated by the US Coast Guard exclusively in support of search and
rescue operations?
The Automated Mutual-Assistance Vessel Rescue (AMVER) System.
16. Where several rescue units are engaged in a search and rescue operation, one of will be designated as
the On-Scene Commander (OSC). Which of the following descibes how this appointment will be made?
The OSC will always be designated by the nearest Rescue Coordination Centre. No other vessel may
assume the role at any time.
17. Your liferaft is to leeward of a fire on the water and riding to its sea anchor. You should FIRST ___
Boat the sea anchor
18. The recommended distance between parallel tracks (track spacing) in a search for a casualty by a
surface vessel varies (amongst other factors) according to visibility and the nature of the target in the
IAMSAR Manual. These distances are then normally adjusted for prevailing weather conditions. If
visibility was 5 nautical miles and you were looking for a six-person liferaft, what would the
recommended uncorrected track spacing be?
3.6 nautical miles.
19. What is the definition of transverse metacenter?
The point to which G may rise and still permit the vessel to possess positive stability.
20. You have been carrying a liquid with flammable limits of 1% to 7% mixture with air. If your instructions
say that no one shall enter the tank if the vapor concentration is over 15% of the LEL, what is the
maximum allowable percentage of vapors for men to enter?
15%
21. Which single-letter sound signal(s) may only be made in compliance with the Rules of the Road?
All of the above
22. Which single-letter sound signal may be made only in compliance with the International Rules of the
Road?
U
23. Which statement about transmitting distress messages by radiotelephone is INCORRECT?
It is advisable to follow a distress message on 2182 kHz by two dashes of 10 to 15 seconds duration.
24. Coast Guard regulations require that all of the following emergencies be covered at the periodic drills on
a fishing vessel EXCEPT _________
Emergency towing
25. Records of tests and inspections of a cargo vessel's fire extinguishing systems shall be kept on board
_________
Until the vessel's Certificate of Inspection expires
26. The atmosphere in a tank is too lean if it is _________
incapable of supporting combustion because the hydrocarbon content is below the LFL (Lower
Flammable Limit)
27. What type of search pattern is recommended in the IAMSAR Manual as most effective when the location
of the search object is known within relatively close limits?
Expanding Square Search.
28. What is the name of the reference manual, jointly produced by the International Maritime Organization
and the International Civil Aviation Authority, which currently outlines the organization and management
of search and rescue activities at sea?
The International Aeronautical and Maritime Search and Rescue (IAMSAR) Manual.
29. The operator of the ship's radiotelephone, if the radiotelephone is carried voluntarily, must hold at least a
Restricted radiotelephone operator permit
30. According to the IAMSAR Manual, what is the expected survival time for a person in water of 4-10
degrees Celsius, without special protective clothing?
Less than 3 hours.
31. Under most circumstances, how will communication be carried out between a ship and a SAR
helicopter?
On VHF Ch 16.
32. The bridge is informed by an eye-witness that a man has just fallen overboard. Which of the following
manoeuvres is the most appropriate action when the person is still close to the vessel?
Williamson Turn
33. Which is the required location of the radiotelephone station aboard a vessel to which the ""Vessel Bridge-
to-Bridge Radiotelephone Act"" applies?
On the bridge or in the wheelhouse
34. What is a passenger ship according to SOLAS regulations?
A ship which carries more than 12 passengers
35. If a master initially responds to a distress but then, in special circumstances, decides not to proceed,
what must he then do?
Inform the appropriate search and rescue authorities of his decision and enter the reason in the ship's
logbook.
36. Inflatable liferafts are less maneuverable than lifeboats due to their _________
All of the above
37. You are alone and administering CPR to an adult victim. How many chest compressions and how many
inflations should you administer in each sequence?
15 compressions then 2 inflations
38. Which statement relating to AMVER (Automated Mutual-assistance Vessel Rescue) is TRUE?
All of the above
39. How many separate means of escape from passengers and crew spaces should it be in each zone?
Two
40. An AMVER participant is under greater obligation to render assistance to a vessel in distress than a non-
participant. AMVER participant is not relieved of the obligation to give 24 hour advance notice to the
U.S. Coast Guard before entering a U.S. port from offshore.
There is no cost to the ship or owner for messages sent within the AMVER system.
41. .Every U.S. crude oil tankship with a keel laying date on or after 1/1/75, shall be equipped with an inert
gas system if the tonnage is more than _________
100,000 DWT (metric tons)
42. A yellow signal floating in the air from a small parachute, about 300 feet above the water, would indicate
that a submarine _________
is about to rise to periscope depth
43. Who is responsible for the ship being safely manned?
The master and the shipowner are responsible for the adequate manning of the ship.
44. Transverse stability calculations require the use of _________
Hydrostatic curves
45. In reference to accidental oil pollution, the most critical time during bunkering is when___
Final topping off is occurring
46. You are on a 30,000 DWT tankship engaged in trade to another country signatory to MARPOL 73/78.
Which statement is TRUE?
The IOPP Certificate is valid for 5 years.
47. In order to discharge a CO2 portable fire extinguisher, the operator_________
Remove the locking pin
48. Which statement is TRUE of a gasoline spill?
It is visible for a shorter time than a fuel oil spill.
49. The International Regulations for Preventing Collisions at Sea contain the requirements for
Signals that must be sounded when being towed in restricted visibility
50. If the vertical center of gravity (VCG) of a ship rises, the righting arm (GZ) for the various angles of
inclination will _________
Decrease
5. Establish Watchkeeping Arrangement Procedure
( Menetapkan Pengaturan dan Prosedur Tugas Jaga )
1. When a vessel is to experience a long tow across an ocean, what would be the best system of connecting
the tow?
Wire from a deep sea tug connected to the ship's anchor chain.
2. A vessel berths at two different jetties under the influence of a 1 knot beam current. At the first jetty the
ship has an underkeel clearance of 5 times the draught and at the second the underkeel clearance is
only 0.5 times the draught. If the current exerted a force of 50 tonnes on the ship at the first jetty, what
would be the approximate force exerted at the second if the draught is the same?
150 tonnes
3. The vessel is on a steady bearing and range is 2 miles and reducing slowly. What action would you take?
A substantial reduction of speed.
4. The ship is in a sharp starboard turn and the Doppler log shows a sideways motion to port at both forward
and aft positions. Where would the "pivot point" be considered to be located?
At a position outside the hull of the ship itself
5. You are overtaking a power-driven vessel in a narrow channel and wish to leave her on your starboard
side. You may _________
Attempt to contact her on the radiotelephone to arrange for the passage
6. At night you notice, in addition to other lights, two WHITE lights in a vertical line which flash alternately
every second. what does this indicate?:
A fishing vessel hampered by her purse seine gear
7. What is a pilot boarding card ?
A list of the ship's essential particulars which is given to the pilot.
8. The effectiveness of a rudder is dependant on the flow of water past the rudder. If the rudder is put hard
over when the ship is at full ahead in deep water, and then the engines are stopped, how much lift force
remains?
About 20 %
9. You observed the above vessel, Range 9 miles. What action would action would you take?
Take a series of compass bearings and radar plot.
10. The ship is approaching shallow water where the Under Keel Clearance will reduce to about 0.25 of the
ship's draught. Which of the following answers most accurately summarizes the aspects to be
considered when deciding a suitable speed?
All of the suggested answers
11. When a conventional rudder is put hard over it creates a lift force and a drag force. When the ship has
started to turn, how much lift force do you think remains if the rudder-angle is decreased to 20Degree
from hard over position (35Degree)?
About 80 %
12. A ship has turned a complete circle (360degree) in deep water at full ahead throughout the turn. The
same ship, in the same conditions, is now to make a complete turn (360degree) at half ahead
throughout the turn. Would there be any difference in the size (diameter) of the turning circle?
No, the diameter of the turning circle would be almost the same.
13. You sight a vessel bearing 3 points abaft the starboard beam. Sometime later, it is bearing 3 points
forward of the starboard beam. Which of the following circumstances apply?
A vessel overtaking another
14. You expect to sight land at 2100 where an alteration of course is marked on the chart. By 2120 no land
has been sighted, the visibility is very good. What action would you take?
Call Master.
15. What do the lights illustrated indicate?
A vessel engaged in underwater operations not making way through the water or at anchor
16. In the situation illustrated, a ship is proceeding in the centre of the channel and approaching a bend in a
river. What helm would probably be required to safely round the bend and what other effects could be
expected in this situation?
The heading should be carefully monitored, some port rudder may be required to start the swing,
though starboard rudder may be required to balance any bank rejection
17. Where is the normal position of the "Pivot Point" of the vessel when going ahead?
1/3 of the vessel's length from the bow
18. Where is the normal position of the ""Pivot Point"" of a vessel when going astern?
Between 1/4 of the ship's length from the stern and the rudder post
19. Should the OOW, who is escorting the pilot to the pilot ladder, be equipped with a walkie-talkie for
communication with the bridge ?
Always.
20. The Light List shows that a navigational light has a nominal range of 6 miles and a height above water of
18 feet (5.5 meters). Your height of eye is 47 feet (14.3 meters) and the visibility is 1.5 miles. At what
approximate range will you first sight the light?
2.0 miles
21. The master of a ship has 2 years of experience as captain and the pilot directing the navigation has 20
years of experience. Who is in charge ?
The master.
22. It has been established by experience that the most successful method of double banking two vessels,
when no tugs are available, is one of the following methods. Select which answer is considered the most
successful method.
When both vessels are underway, fig. 1
23. If two vessels approach each other on a collision course, what is meant by "the critical period" ?
The period when action to prevent a collision has to be taken
24. If two vessels approach each other on a collision course, what is meant by "the terminal period" ?
The period when a collision cannot be avoided anymore
25. At night, you are power-driven vessel 'A' approaching power-driven vessel 'B' as illustrated. Occasionally,
you see both white masthead lights and the green side light of vessel 'B'. Which of the following is true?
I (Vessel 'A') must keep clear of vessel 'B'
25. At night, you are power-driven vessel 'A' approaching power-driven vessel 'B' as illustrated. Occasionally,
you see both white masthead lights and the green side light of vessel 'B'. Which of the following is true?
Vessel 'B' must keep clear of you ( vessel 'A' )
26. A large vessel is coming alongside a pier with two tugs assisting and there is little wind or current
affecting the vessel. What would be considered the best use of the tugs and at which position?.
Pushing on the ship's side and made fast in case the vessel's movement towards the berth requires
reducing by the tug pulling off.
27. A large vessel is proceeding slowly up a narrow channel, using its own engines and assisted by the use
of one tug. Where should the tug be connected to assist the ship in maintaining its course in the centre
of the channel?
Made fast on a line through the centre lead astern.
28. You have another vessel on your port bow in clear weather, but with a moderate sea and swell. Which of
the following would normally give greatest accuracy in determining if risk of collision exist?
Observation of the compass bearing over a period of time
29. In shallow water a ship will experience ""Squat"". What are the principle reasons creating the effects of
squat?
There is an increase in the water velocity and a decrease of water pressure around the ship’s hull
30. What will have a major effect on the performance of a tug when used to assist in the manoeuvring of a
large vessel?
The position of the tug relative to the ship's pivot point
31. A ship experiences an interaction effect known as ""Squat"" when moving in shallow water. The amount
of Squat is affected by the speed of the vessel through the water. If the speed through the water is
HALVED what will be the change in the affect of ""Squat""
The squat effect will be reduced to a quarter of its original value
32. What would be the correct understanding of the term ""a ship is directionally unstable""?
The ship requires continual application of the rudder to maintain a steady course.
33. How should a vessel cross a traffic lane when obliged to do so?
On a HEADING as nearly as practical at right angles to the direction of traffic flow
34. A tug is connected by a line to the bow of a ship. Will the bollard pull exerted by the tug be the same at
any speed?
No, when the ship's speed exceeds about 5 knots it will be expected that there will be a reduced pull
exerted by the tug
35. Why does a ship move laterally (sideward drift) when turning.
Because the pivot point is not at the centre of the ship
36. Which of the alternative methods of using a tug when escorting a ship through narrow waters would be
considered the most effective in the event of loosing steering power?
The tug made fast on a line through the centre lead astern. (figure 4).
37. A large vessel develops a sudden sheer when it stops moving through the water, having been steaming
through a shallow water channel for several miles. The sheer may be strong and unexpected and is due
to what reason?
The large volume of water dragged behind the vessel continues to move forward and cause a strong
turning moment on the stern of the vessel
38. In the situation illustrated, what should be the distribution of the power requirements from the tugs, if the
ship is to be moved sideways without changing the heading? Both tugs have similar bollard pull and are
of conventional propulsion.
Much greater power on the forward tug than on the after tug while monitoring the gyro heading
39. In the situation illustrated, what should be the power distribution of the tugs to maintain the ship sideways
motion with only minor changes in the ship's heading?
Considerably more power on the aft tug than the forward tug, while monitoring the ship’s gyro
heading
40. You are under way on a tanker and observe the lights illustrated on a steady bearing and at decreasing
range on the PORT bow. What do you do?
Stand on the see if the other vessel take away action
41. The bridge wheelman has not reported for duty and there is a suspected ""Man Overboard"" situation on
your vessel. The ship has been searched and there is one seaman missing? The vessel turns round and
retraces the course back, calling for assistance from other vessels in the vicinity. What should be the
focal point for any search pattern to be established?
Determine when the seaman was last sighted and concentrate the search round the course line between
the last sighting and present position, taking into account any prevailing current.
42. The effective stability of a tug, when assisting a vessel to manoeuvre, can be decreased by
hydrodynamic interaction with the ship it is assisting. Where is the most dangerous position of the tug
relative to the ship, for this adverse affect to be found?
The most dangerous position is where the tug approaches the bow rounding forward shoulder of the
larger vessel
43. The rudder is hard over when steaming at full ahead in shallow water. How much ""lift force"" remains
when the engine is stopped?
About 10 %
44. If two vessels approach each other on a collision course, what is meant by ""the early period""
When the other vessel is detected but when action to avoid the collision can be deferred
45. Two vessels are meeting on a clear day and will pass less than half a mile apart. In this situation whistle
signals _________
Must be exchanged if passing agreement had not been meet by radio
46. Who has the responsibility for the bridge watch during a sea voyage if the master comes on to the bridge ?
The master can only take over the watch if he tells the OOW that he is taking over.
47. The pilot gives the helmsman an order which the OOW believes to be incorrect. What should he do ?
Ask the pilot to clarify the reason for the order.
48. When connecting a tugboat, what speed do you think is best for your vessel to maintain during this
operation?
The speed should be less than 5 knots, normally 3 - 5 knots
49. The ship is berthed in a steady offshore beam wind of 30 knots which suddenly increases to 60 knots.
What will be the change of force exerted on the ship driving it off the jetty?
The force will be Quadrupled
50. At night, a light signal consisting of two flashes by a vessel indicates _________
An intention to leave another vessel to starboard
51. When should you assume that you are an overtaking vessel?
if by night, you are unable to see either of the other vessel’s sidelights
52. Over what length of time should a large diesel engine vessel be slowed down from full sea-speed to
maneuvering speed?
1 hour.
53. When a vessel is moving in shallow water it will experience an effect known as ""Squat"". Which of the
following statements most accurately specify the results of squat on the vessel?
There will be a reduction of the vessel's underkeel clearance and a possible change of trim
54. What is understood by the term ""Balanced Rudder""?
A rudder with part of the rudder area forward of the turning axis, therefore reducing the load on the
steering motor
55. Power-driven vessel 'A' and 'B' are in sight of one another. Which of the following statements is correct?
A' and 'B' should alter course to starboard, each sounding one short blast on the whistle
56. When the master leaves the bridge he will tell the OOW, ""You now have the watch"". How shall the
OOW respond ?
He should say loud and clear ""I have the watch"".
6. Maintain Safe Navigation

( Memelihara Keselamatan Bernavigasi )
1. What is the crucial aspect in executing a voyage in a safe and efficient way?
An effective detailed passage plan fully understood and followed by a competent bridge team
2. A vessel constrained by her draft may display
Three all-round red lights
3. Two prolonged blasts followed by one short blast on the whistle is a signal which could be sounded by a
Vessel overtaking another in a narrow channel
4. You are operating a vessel in a narrow channel. Your vessel must stay within the channel to be navigated
safely. Another vessel is crossing your course from starboard to port, and you are in doubt as to his
intentions. According to Rule 9, you
May sound the danger signal
5. A sailing vessel is overtaking a power-driven vessel in a narrow channel, so as to pass on the power-
driven vessel's port side. The overtaken vessel will have to move to facilitate passage. The sailing
vessel is the
Give-way vessel and would sound two prolonged blasts followed by two short blasts
6. A whistle signal of one prolonged, one short, one prolonged and one short blast, is sounded by a vessel
Being overtaken in a narrow channel
7. You intend to overtake a vessel in a narrow channel, and you intend to pass along the vessel's port side.
How should you signal your intention?
Two prolonged followed by two short blasts
8. In a narrow channel, an overtaking vessel which intends to PASS on the other vessel's port side would
sound
Two prolonged followed by two short blasts
9. Vessel "A" is overtaking vessel "B" on open waters and will pass without changing course. Vessel "A"
should
Not sound any whistle signals
10. Vessel "A" is overtaking vessel "B" on open waters as shown and will pass without changing course.
Vessel "A"
Need not sound any whistle signals
11. The light which may be used with a vessel's whistle must be
a white light
12. If you sighted three red lights in a vertical line on another vessel at night, it would be a vessel
Constrained by her draft
13. While underway at night, a power-driven vessel of less than 7 meters in length, whose maximum speed
which does not exceed 7 knots, may show
One all-round white light, only
14. At night, a power-driven vessel less than 7 meters in length, with a maximum speed which does not
exceed 7 knots, MUST show when underway at least
One white 360⁰ light
15. When handing over the con of a vessel to a pilot, should the Master insist in discussing the passage plan
with the pilot while he is there to use his local knowledge and advice on the navigation of the ship?
A passage plan should be discussed between the Master and pilot, when under pilotage in the same
way as discussed with the bridge team when deep sea
16. Which vessel is NOT regarded as being "restricted in her ability to maneuver"?
A vessel constrained by her draft
17. A vessel sounds one short blast. This signal indicates the vessel
is altering course to starboard
18. A light used to signal passing intentions must be an _________
All-round white light only
19. On open water two vessels are in an overtaking situation. The overtaking vessel has just sounded one
short blast on the whistle. What is the meaning of this whistle signal?
"I am changing course to starboard."
20. Which of the following answers would best define the term "risk"?
Risk is a situation involving exposure to danger and includes both identification of the occurrence and
the likelihood that it will happen
21. Under what circumstances would an overtaking vessel sound a whistle signal of two prolonged followed
by one short blast?
When overtaking in a narrow channel
22. Which vessel may NOT exhibit two red lights in a vertical line?
23. Which signal is sounded ONLY by a vessel in sight of another and NOT in or near an area of restricted
visibility?
One short blast on the whistle
24. Which vessel would NOT sound a fog signal of one prolonged and two short blasts?
A vessel being towed
25. Two power-driven vessels are meeting. A two blast whistle signal by either vessel means
"I am altering course to port"
26. You are underway in a narrow channel, and you are being overtaken by a vessel astern. After the
overtaking vessel sounds the proper signal indicating his intention to pass your vessel on your
starboard side, you signal your agreement by sounding
One prolonged, one short, one prolonged, and one short blast in that order
27. Your vessel is backing out of a slip in a harbor and you can see that other vessels are approaching. You
should sound
Three short blasts when leaving the slip
28. A vessel not under command sounds the same fog signal as a vessel
All of the above
29. When vessels are in sight of one another, two short blasts from one of the vessels means
"I am altering my course to port"
30. You are underway in fog and hear a fog signal consisting of one prolonged and two short blasts. It could
be any of the following EXCEPT a vessel
Being towed
31. A towing light is
A yellow light having the same characteristics as the stern light
32. While underway and in sight of another vessel, you put your engines full speed astern. Which statement
concerning whistle signals is TRUE?
You must sound three short blasts on the whistle
33. Which statement is TRUE concerning light signals?
The time between successive signals shall be not less than ten seconds
34. Which statement(s) is(are) TRUE concerning light signals?
The time between successive signals shall be not less than ten seconds
35. Which signal is sounded ONLY by a vessel in sight of another?
One short blast on the whistle
36. A signal of one prolonged, one short, one prolonged, and one short blast, in that order is given by a
vessel
Being overtaken in a narrow channel
37. In a crossing situation on international waters, a short blast by the give-way vessel indicates that the
vessel
is turning to starboard
38. A 20-meter power-driven vessel pushing ahead or towing alongside will display
Two masthead lights in a vertical line
39. BOTH INTERNATIONAL AND INLAND A towing light
is yellow in color
40. What day-shape is prescribed for a vessel constrained by her draft?
A cylinder
41. You are in sight of a power-driven vessel that sounds two short blasts of the whistle. This signal means
that the vessel
is altering course to port
42. Lighting requirements in inland waters are different from those for international waters for
Barges being pushed ahead
43. Which vessel is to keep out of the way of the others?
A vessel engaged in trawling
44. Who will have the authority to take charge and make appropriate decisions in the event of a vessel
emergency when transiting the Panama Canal?
The Panama Canal Authority
45. A vessel sounds two short blasts. This signal indicates the vessel
is altering course to port
46. When two vessels are in sight of one another and NOT in or near an area of restricted visibility, any of
the following signals may be given EXCEPT
Four short whistle blasts
47. Which vessel shall avoid impeding the safe passage of a vessel constrained by her draft?
A fishing vessel
48. Which statement applies to a vessel "constrained by her draft"?
She is severely restricted in her ability to change her course because of her draft in relation to the
available depth of water
49. In addition to her running lights, an underway vessel constrained by her draft may carry in a vertical line
Three red lights
50. When a vessel is transiting a canal with locks and intense bridge activities over many hours, what
management issues should the Master consider?
All of these answers
51. In which case would an overtaking vessel sound a whistle signal of two prolonged followed by one short
blast?
When overtaking in a narrow channel
52. SOLAS (The International Convention for the Safety of Life at Sea) regulations, Chapter 5, deals with the
Safety of Navigation and applies to which vessels?
All vessels and on all voyages
7. Forecast Weather and Oceanographic Conditions
( Ramalan Cuaca dan Kondisi Laut )
1. Tropical cyclones are classified by form and intensity. Which system does not have closed isobars?
Tropical disturbance
2. When a hurricane passes over colder water or land and loses its tropical characteristics, the storm
becomes a(n) _________
Extratropical low-pressure system
3. Which Beaufort force indicates a wind speed of 65 knots?
Beaufort force 12
4.The steady current circling the globe at about 60Degree is the _________
West Wind Drift
5. Which kind of conditions would you observe as the eye of a storm passes over your vessel's position?
Huge waves approaching from all directions, clearing skies, light winds, and an extremely low
barometer
6. What wind reverses directions seasonally?
Monsoon winds
7. Lenticular and stratiform clouds are caused in stable air by:
Orographic lifting
8. Which of the following fog types is composed of unstable clouds.
Evaporation fog
9. The area of strong westerly winds occurring between 40⁰ and 60⁰ latitude is called the_
Roaring forties
10. Which list of clouds is in sequence, from highest to lowest in the sky?
Cirrostratus, altostratus, stratus
11. You are underway on course 050DegreeT and your maximum speed is 10 knots. The eye of a hurricane
bears 100DegreeT, 90 miles from your position. The hurricane is moving towards 285DegreeT at 19
knots. Which course should you steer at 10 knots to have the maximum CPA?
226⁰
12. The belt of light and variable winds between the westerly wind belt and the northeast trade winds is
called the _________
Subtropical high pressure belt
13. In the Northern Hemisphere, what type of cloud formations would you expect to see to the west of an
approaching tropical wave?
Cumulus clouds lined up in rows extending in a northeast to southwest direction
14. The wind velocity is higher in the dangerous semicircle of a tropical cyclone because of the__
Wind circulation and forward motion of the storm
15. A local wind which occurs during the daytime and is caused by the different rates of warming of land and
water is a _________
Sea breeze
16. The winds you would expect to encounter in the North Atlantic between latitudes 5Degree and 30Degree
are known as the _________
Trades
17. The winds with the greatest effect on the set, drift, and depth of the equatorial currents are the____
Trade winds
18. You are attempting to locate your position relative to a hurricane in the Northern Hemisphere. If the wind
direction remains steady, but with diminishing velocity, you are most likely _________
On the storm track behind the center
19. You are enroute to Jacksonville, FL, from San Juan, P.R. There is a fresh N'ly wind blowing. As you
cross the axis of the Gulf Stream you would expect to encounter _________
Steeper waves, closer together
20. You are enroute to Savannah, GA, from Recife, Brazil. There is a strong N'ly wind blowing. As you
cross the axis of the Gulf Stream you would expect to encounter _________
21. A weather forecast states that the wind will commence veering. In the Northern Hemisphere this
indicates that the wind will _________
Shift in a clockwise manner
22. The least common of the 10 cloud genera is:
Altostratus
23. The direction of the southeast trade winds is a result of the _________
Rotation of the earth
24. A katabatic wind blows _________
Down an incline due to cooling of the air
25. A strong, often violent, northerly wind occurring on the Pacific coast of Mexico, particularly during the
colder months, is called _________
Tehuantepecer
26. If a weather bulletin shows the center of a low pressure system to be 100 miles due east of you, what
winds can you expect in the Southern Hemisphere?
South-southwesterly
27. If your weather bulletin shows the center of a low pressure area to be 100 miles due east of your
position, what winds can you expect in the Northern Hemisphere?
North to northwest
28. Monsoons are characterized by _________
Steady winds that reverse direction semiannually
29. In the Northern Hemisphere you are caught in the dangerous semicircle with plenty of sea room
available. The best course of action is to bring the wind on the _________
Starboard bow and make as much headway as possible
30. The names of all three high-cloud genera contain which of the following words in some form.
Cirrus
31. The West Wind Drift is located _________
Near 60⁰ S
32. Which of the following would notbe true concerning temperature change taking place in a parcel of air at
the dry adiabatic lapse rate
The temperature rises as the parcel rises
33. That half of the hurricane to the right hand side of its track (as you face the same direction that the storm
is moving) in the Northern Hemisphere is called the _________
Dangerous semicircle
34. What will a veering wind do?
Change direction in a clockwise manner in the Northern Hemisphere
35. A weather forecast states that the wind will commence backing. In the Northern Hemisphere, this would
indicate that it will _________
Shift in a counterclockwise manner
36. Severe tropical cyclones (hurricanes, typhoons) occur in all warm-water oceans except the__
South Atlantic Ocean
37. Fog and stratus clouds are most common during which of the following times of day
Early morning
38. The rise and fall of the ocean's surface due to a distant storm is known as _________
Swell
39. Which of the following is true of a parcelof air but nottrue of theenvironment</strong>
Changes temperature with altitude at either the dry or moist adiabatic rates
40. Which wind results from a land mass cooling more quickly at night than an adjacent water area?
Land breeze
41. In the doldrums you will NOT have _________
Steep pressure gradients
42. What kind of weather would you expect to accompany the passage of a tropical wave?
Heavy rain and cloudiness
43. The usual sequence of directions in which a tropical cyclone moves in the Southern Hemisphere is
Southwest, south, and southeast
44. High-cloud tops generally are limited by the height of the
Tropopause
45. Large-scale circulation systems, fronts, and thunderstorms are the primary source of which of the
following cloud types.
Middle and high clouds
46. The prevailing winds in the band of latitude from approximately 5Degree N to 30Degree N are the __
Northeast trade winds
47. In reading a weather map, closely spaced pressure gradient lines would indicate_______
High winds
48. Which of the following is notone of the three properties used by meteorologists to classify clouds.
Cloud composition
49. During the winter months, the southeast trade winds are _________
Stronger than during the summer months
50. On the pole side of the high pressure belt in each hemisphere, the pressure diminishes. The winds along
these gradients are diverted by the Earth's rotation toward the east and are known as the _________
Prevailing westerlies
51. Which wind pattern has the most influence over the movement of frontal weather systems over the North
American continent?
Prevailing westerlies
52. What level of development of a tropical cyclone has a hundred mile radius of circulation, gale force
winds, less than 990 millibars of pressure and vertically formed cumulonimbus clouds?
A tropical storm
53. Which condition exists in the eye of a hurricane?
An extremely low barometric pressure
54. The flow of air around an anticyclone in the Southern Hemisphere is _________
Counterclockwise and outward
55. Wind velocity varies _________
Directly with the pressure gradient
56. When facing into the wind in the Northern Hemisphere the center of low pressure lies_____
To your right and behind you
8. Manoeuvre and Handle a Ship in All Condition

( Olah Gerak dan Penanganan Kapal dalam segala kondisi )
1. When a vessel is moving in shallow water it will experience an effect known as ""Squat"".
There will be a reduction of the vessel's underkeel clearance and a possible change of trim
2. The distance a vessel moves at right angles to the original course, when a turn of 180degree has been
completed, is called the
Tactical diameter
3. In relation to the turning circle of a ship, the term ""transfer"" means the distance
Gained at right angles to the original course
4. You are steering a southerly course, and you note that the chart predicts an easterly current. Without
considering wind, how may you allow for the set?
Head your vessel slightly to the right
5. You are standing the wheel watch on entering port and the Master gives you a rudder command which
conflicts with a rudder command from the Pilot. What should you do?
Obey the Master
6. You have determined the maneuvering characteristics of your vessel by taking the radar ranges and
bearings of an isolated light while making a turn. The results are as listed. Based on this data what is the
transfer for a turn of 30Degree to 035Degree
40 yards
7. Your vessel is port side to a pier with a spring line led aft from the bow. In calm weather, putting the
engines ahead with the rudder hard left should bring
The bow in and the stern out
8. The distance that a vessel travels from the time that the order to put engines full astern until the vessel is
dead in the water is known as
Head reach
9. The pivoting point of a fully loaded vessel with normal trim proceeding ahead at sea speed is
One-third the length of the vessel from the bow
10. While the Pilot is maneuvering the vessel to a dock, what is the primary responsibility of the watch
officer?
Insure that helm and throttle orders given by the Pilot are correctly executed
11. When heading on a course, you put your rudder hard over. The distance traveled parallel to the direction
of the original course from where you put your rudder over to any point on the turning circle is known as
Advance
12. Which statement concerning the handling characteristics of a fully loaded vessel as compared with those
of a light vessel is FALSE?
A light vessel loses more rudder effect in shallow water
13.The turning circle of a vessel is the path followed by the
Center of gravity
14. Sidewise force of the propeller tends to throw a vessel's stern to the right or left, depending on rotation.
This force is caused by
Torque from the velocity and angle at which the surrounding water impinges upon the propeller blades
15. The distance that a ship moves forward with each revolution of its propeller, if there is no slip, is called
Pitch
16. A towboat has the same draft as the barges it is pushing ahead. If the distance from the stern of the
towboat to the head of the tow is 243.84 Mtrs., where is the approximate location of the pivot point of the
unit?
76.2 Mtrs. from the head of the tow
17. You are pushing a tow ahead and passing close to another towboat which is pushing ahead in the same
direction (you are overtaking). After the towheads pass close alongside
The tows will tend to drift together
18. Most of your vessel's superstructure is forward. How will the vessel lie when drifting with no way on?
With the wind from abaft the beam
19. Your ship is in shallow water and the bow rides up on its bow wave while the stern sinks into a
depression of its transverse wave system. What is this called?
Squatting
20. How does the effect known as ""bank suction"" act on a single-screw vessel proceeding along a narrow
channel?
It pulls the stern toward the bank
21. If two mooring lines are to be placed on the same bollard, which method is BEST?
Place the eye from either line on the bollard, and then bring the eye of the other line up through the eye
of the first, and place it on the bollard
22. In relation to the turning circle of a ship, the term ""kick"" means the distance
Or throw of a vessel's stern from her line of advance upon putting the helm hard over
23. When turning a ship in restricted space with a strong wind, it is normally best to
Turn so that the tendency to back into the wind can be used, if on a single-screw vessel
9. Operate Remote Controls of Propulsion Plant and Engineering

Systems and Services
( Mengendalikan Alat Kendali / Remote Control Penataan Tenaga Pendorong serta System dan Pelayanan
Permesinan )
1. Which of the following fluids usually has the lowest density at normal ambient temperatures?
Lubricating oil.
2. How often should boiler water tests be carried out on a steam boiler?
Every day.
3. Generators work on the principle of electromagnetic induction. The internal e.m.f. generated in the phase
windings of an a.c. generator is controlled by:
The diesel speed and excitation current.
4. What is the potential effect on a steam boiler of having calcium based compounds present in boiler water
and proper water treatment is not carried out?
It will cause corrosion and scale deposits in the boiler.
5. What is the main effect on lubricating oil of operating for long periods at excessively high temperature?
It will cause the oil to oxidise, increasing the viscosity.
6. Which of the following changes would occur when the temperature of lubricating oil is reduced?
Viscosity would increase.
7. What is the purpose of an economiser as often fitted in a steam boiler plant?
To heat the feed-water
8. What action should be taken if the boiler water tests show that the pH-value in the boiler water is slightly
over 11.5?
Blowdown the boiler and decrease the dosage of boiler water treatment chemicals.
9. The internal e.m.f. generated in the phase windings of a lightly loaded a.c. generator is controlled by:
The prime mover speed and excitation current.
10. What is the main reson for keeping engine lubricating oil viscosity within recommended limits?
To ensure the strength of the oil film is sufficient to keep lubricated surfaces apart.
11. What is the purpose of the flame scanner or 'magic eye' fitted to the burner unit of oil or gas fired steam
boilers?
To check that the flame is present during start up or normal operation of the burner; if not then fuel is
shut off automatically.
12. From the statements given in the answer options, choose the one which is most accurate in relation to
the operation of water-tube boiler and fire-tube boilers.
Water-tube boilers are more efficient and generally contain less water than fire tube boilers. They are
prone to major damage when run dry during operation.
13. A lubricating oil having a high viscosity index number would normally be used in which of the following
situations?
When the machinery operates over a wide temperature range.
14. Which factor influences the pumping capacity (flow) of a centrifugal pump the most?
Total pressure head
15. What would be the effect of a faulty steam trap on a fuel oil heater causing condensate to build up in the
heat exchanger?
Reduced heating capacity of the heater.
16. What is the main purpose of having a deaerator in a boiler feed water system?
To remove oxygen and other dissolved gases from the feed water.
17. With two alternators running in parallel, and one is to be disconnected. The first step is to:
Remove the load from the alternator to be stopped
18. Which group of electrical services are likely to be supplied from an emergencygenerator?
Steering gear and engine room alarm system
19. When referring to onboard oil treatments using a centrifuge, what is meant by the term purification?
Separation of two insoluble liquids with different densities, and the removal of solids in the same
process.
20. Ship's generators must be synchronised before they can be connected to the same supply network. Prior
to synchronising, the generator voltage and frequency are respectively adjusted by:
AVR and speed governor
21. There are two basic types of turbocharging systems used for supplying combustion air to marine diesel
engines: constant pressure and pulse. What is the main difference between these two types of system?
A constant pressure system has a larger volume exhaust gas receiver.
22. What is the main problem associated with oil in a steam boiler water system?
It forms an insulating film on heat transfer surfaces with the risk of overheating.
23. What would be the typical flash point of the lubricating oil in the main lubricating system of a diesel
engine?
200-240 deg C
24. Before taking insulation resistance readings of generator windings the automatic voltage regulators
should be isolated and all semiconductor short circuited or disconnected in order to:
Prevent damage to sensitive electronic components from high voltage tester
25. Feed check valves for the main and auxiliary boilers are normally of the double shut off type with one
screw lift valve and one screw down non-return valve. What is the main function of the non-return valve?
To prevent the steam and water in the boiler from discharging out through the feed line if the feed line
fractures or a joint in the line blows.
26. Alteration of the excitation voltage (or field current) of one alternator operating in parallel, will cause
which change in that alternators output:
Reactive load (kVAR)
27. Consider a 450 volt, 859 kW rated generator has not been in operation for several weeks. Prior to
starting, insulation resistance readings are taken. The minimum acceptable insulation resistance reading
on the main stator winding to allow you to proceed with running the generator is:
1 000 000 Ohms
28. Which of the given options characterizes a 2-stroke diesel engine ?
A 2 stroke engine completes a full cycle every revolution.
29. Boiler water tests on a low pressure steam boiler show the chloride content to be 50 ppm. What action
should be taken if any?
No action is necessary.
30. What is the main purpose of the superheater vent valve on a high pressure steam boiler?
To ensure a flow of steam through the superheater when raising steam pressure or when the boiler is
not on-line.
31. What is the purpose of a scum valve often fitted to a steam boiler?
To allow removal of any oil or impurities which collect on the surface of the water in the boiler steam
drum.
32. What is the correct range for the pH-value for the water in an oil fired steam boiler?
9 - 11.
33. What action is required if boiler water tests confirm a pH value of less than 9?
Increase the dosage of alkalinity treatment chemicals until the pH value is back within normal range.
34. Where should a sample for boiler water test purposes be taken from?
From the boiler water space.
35. What is the purpose of refractory linings in an oil fired steam boiler furnace?
To prevent excessive furnace heat losses and protect tubes and other fittings from overheating.
36. What is meant by the term ""two stage air compressor"" ?
A compressor in which the compressed air from the first stage is further compressed in the second stage
before being delivered to the air receiver.
37. What temperature should a water sample be at before carrying out boiler water tests?
At room temperature.
38. Tests on the water in a low pressure boiler show the chloride level is 500 ppm. What action should be
taken?
Blow down boiler and check the condenser for leakage.
39. The Base Number of a lubricating oil is an indication of which of the following?
The alkalinity of the oil.
40. Regular (at least weekly) testing of the emergency generator must be performed to check:
Its readiness to perform as specified.
41. After successful synchronising an incoming machine the kW and kVar loading are respectively
transferred by the following controls:
Speed governor and voltage regulator
42. What is an effective means of measuring the total dissolved solids in boiler water?
Conductivity test.
43. Under what load condition would sootblowing of the boiler tubes be most beneficial?
When the boiler is firing on high rate.
44. The two instruments necessary for generator synchronising are:
Voltmeter and synchroscope
45. The diagram shows a the symbol for a component from a hydraulic circuit. What component does it
represent?
A directional control valve.
46. Which of the following is not a principle of heat transfer utilised in an oil fired steam boiler?
Forced convection.
47. Why are zinc anodes sometimes fitted to heat exchangers in seawater cooling systems? Why are zinc
anodes sometimes fitted to heat exchangers in seawater cooling systems?
To prevent corrosion of the metals used in the system.
10. Assess Reported Defects and Damage to Cargo Spaces, Hatch

Covers and Ballast Tanks and Take Appropriate Action
(Memeriksa & Melaporkan Kecacatan & Kerusakan Ruang Muat, Tutup Palka & Tanki Tolak Bara)
1. The most dangerous consequence of the corrosion and wear down of container stools on weather
deck/hatch tops of a container vessel would be:
Collapse of the deck stool, leading to lashings becoming slack.
2. Exposure to moderate concentrations of ammonia may cause:
Choking and possible loss of eyesight
3. A vessel in ocean service that does not have an approved means of processing oily bilge slops or oily
ballast must have _________
a fixed piping system for ballast discharge to a reception facility
4. A bulk cargo has a stowage factor (S.F) of 1.50 cubic metres per metric tonne (m3/mt). If 1000 tonnes
are to be loaded what volume will this cargo occupy?
1500 cubic metres ( m3)
5. A bulk cargo of Coal is to be loaded in Australia for Europe; the coal is declared as having a high
moisture content (but less than the transportable moisture Limit (TML)); what must the
All cargo hold bilges are sounded daily and the amount of water logged; the bilges can then be pumped
out.
6. Prior to loading general cargo on a General Cargo vessel, with regard to lashing wires, terminations,
shackles, turnbuckles, pad eyes and D rings etc., you must make sure that:
They must all be certified and be visually inspected for any apparent damage.
7. After the discharge of Lube Oils, Lube Oil Additives, Phthalates and Olefins and before the loading of
"high-spec" cargoes on a chemical tanker, the test that might be expected to produce unsatisfactory
results during initial wall-wash analysis would be:
Hydrocarbons.
8. Battens are fitted in cargo holds across the frames of the vessel from the turn of the bilge upward. The
purpose of these cargo battens is _________
to prevent cargo from coming in contact with the vessel's frames or shell plating
9. You are berthed at a cargo facility where you have just completed discharging a dangerous cargo. You
must complete hatch cover repairs involving hot work before sailing. Which of the following statements is
TRUE?
The Captain of the Port may give specific approval to make hot work repairs.
10. MARPOL 73/78 defines a 'high viscosity substance' as:
A noxious liquid substance in category "X" or "Y" with a viscosity equal to or greater than 50 mPa.s at
the unloading temperature.
11. Damage to cargo caused by dust is known as _________
Contamination
12. Damage to cargo caused by fumes or vapors from liquids, gases, or solids is known as_
Tainting
13. What part of the ship is shown by letter B ?
The hatch coaming.
14. In order to minimize the effects of a tender vessel, when carrying a cargo of lumber, you should ___
place the heaviest woods in the lower holds
15. If a tank container of liquid ammonia is engulfed in fire, it is recommended:
To allow ventilation.
16. To determine the weight capacity of a deck in a cargo hold, you would refer to the ____
Deck capacity plan
17. The IMO Code requires protection against spillage of the most dangerous products (ethyl ether,
antiknock lead compounds such as TML and TEL etc) by prescribing that:
They shall be carried in cargo tanks independent of the ships hull structure?
18. What is the purpose of wheel A in this picture ?
To tip the hatch cover into a vertical position when opened.
19. When loading a bulk cargo of Coal the ship must be fitted with appropriate instruments to measure the
concentration of what gases within the cargo space?
The gases specified in all of these answers
20. "Noxious Liquid Substances which, if discharged into the sea from tank cleaning or deballasting
operations , are deemed to present a hazard to either marine resources or human health or cause harm
to amenities or other legitimate uses of the sea and therefore justify a limitation on the quality and
quantity of the discharge into the marine environment". Such substances are:
A category "Y" substance as identified in MARPOL Annex II.
21. An oil tanker with a defective Oil Discharge Monitoring Equipment may be allowed by a Port State
Authority to trade for:
One ballast voyage before proceeding to a repair port.
22. When fruit is carried as refrigerated cargo, the most frequent cause of its being infected at the discharge
port is _________
Improper cleaning of the cargo spaces
23. In discussing the properties of Noxious Liquid Substances, the criteria for defining Threshold Limit Value
(TLV) is:
The time-weighted concentration of a substance to which a worker may be repeatedly exposed for a
normal 8 hour working day and 40 hour week without adverse health effects.
24. In a collision, the impact on the shipside is transferred to the hatch cover by the ______
Side cleats
25. A claim for cargo damages may be held against the ship owner if such damage is the result of failure of
the ship's officers to _________
Ensure the fitness and safety of cargo spaces
26. The wooden planking that protects the tank top from cargo loading is called _________
Ceiling
27. Information about the maximum point loading in cargo holds and on decks of a General Cargo Vessel
may be obtained from:
Ships Capacity plan.
28. When should a master agree to accept a bulk cargo of concentrates?
When he is fully satisfied that the actual moisture content of the cargo is less than the Transportable
Moisture Limit (TML)
29. When loading a bulk cargo of cement the specific gravity and flow characteristics are dependant on what
criteria?
The volume of air in the cargo
30. Ballast holds on board general cargo ships and bulk carriers are used to ______
Carry ballast only during ballast passage in heavy weather
31. A bulk coal cargo is to be loaded and the moisture content is declared as 19 ; the transportable moisture
limit of the cargo is declared as 15, what should the Master do?
Refuse to load the cargo unless the vessel is specially designed for the carriage of cargo which may
liquefy
32. The most important consideration, in terms of stress, when planning stowage of containers on a
container vessel would be:
Distribution and weight of the containers.
33. In this picture, what should be checked before closing the hatch cover, in order to make sure that the
hatch cover will make a watertight seal ?
That the rubber around the underneath of the cover is not missing.
34. What is the primary hazard associated with the carriage of a bulk cargo of salt on a Bulk Carrier?
The only possible hazard is associated with ingress of water into the hold and a loss of stability
35. A bulk cargo is loaded and the shore cargo figure is 10 000 tonnes; the chief officer calculates 9 500
tonnes have been loaded; what should the Master do?
Ask for a draft survey to be carried in the presence of amp;amp; I Club representative
36. A container full of scrap metal is being loaded, and you sight water dripping from it. You should:
Reject the container.
37. A typical hazard associated with the carriage of ammonium nitrate is:
Explosion.
38. What hazards are associated with the carriage of wood pellets in bulk?
Oxygen depletion and generation of carbon monoxide in cargo and communicating spaces
39. A bulk cargo declaration shows that the iron ore to be loaded has an angle of repose of 45⁰; what does
this indicate?
The cargo pile is stable and unlikely to shift
40. Containerised scrap metal fire is best extinguished by:
Smothering.
41. As per MARPOL 73/78, coal slurry, clay slurry, dextrose solution and molasses are classified as:
"OS" (Other substances)"
42. Which of the following methods is highly accurate and least cumbersome for checking water tightness of
a hold?
Ultrasonic test
43. Although not required by the IMDG Code, on a container vessel, carrying Calcium Hypochlorite under
refrigeration is beneficial so as to:
Prevent the cargo temperature increasing into the danger zone.
44. Carriage of wet scrap steel borings, turnings and swarf in containers is generally considered dangerous,
because:
It can spontaneously ignite.
45. What part of the hatch cover is in circle A ?
A wedge type cleat.
46. A bulk cargo of steel coils is loaded and a number of the coils are noted by the Chief Officer to be rusted;
what must the Master ensure?
Clause the Bill of Lading with the reference numbers of the rusty coils and so make the Bill of Lading a
"dirty" Bill.
47. What is mean by bulk Grain cargoes have a low angle of repose?
Liable to shift
48. During cargo watch on a General Cargo ship, if the OOW informs you that the condition of the discharge
equipment such as slings and shackles being used by the stevedores is unsuitable for use and that can
be damage into even cargo hald, you should:
Inform stevedores of concern and protest by letter.
49. Overcarriage is best prevented by _________
Inspection of the hold at completion of discharge
50. On a RoRo vessel, to what should you pay very close attention, when inspecting the structure and
condition of movable car decks?
Cracks in way of deck supports
51. Which is an example of cargo damage caused by inherent vice?
Heating of grain
52. Fire in a container carrying chemicals is difficult to extinguish, because:
Heat is often produced due to chemical reactions within the cargo.
53. A heavy metal concentrate bulk cargo has a moisture content of 16 and a transportable moisture limit of
18, what should the Master do?
Load the cargo as the moisture content is within acceptable limits
54. It is considered especially necessary to continue to ventilate the tank and to continuously monitor the
atmosphere when working inside a cargo compartment which still contains vegetable oil residues,
because:
The decomposing residues continue to release hazardous gases, reducing the levels of oxygen in the
tank and making the atmosphere potentially dangerous.
55. MARPOL 73/78 defines 'solidifying substances' as:
A noxious liquid substance which, in the case of a substance with a melting point of less than 15 degree
C which is at a temperature of less than 5⁰ C above its melting point at the time of unloading, or in the
case of a substance with a melting point equal to or greater than 15⁰ C which is at a temperature of less
than 10⁰ C above its melting point at the time of unloading.
56. On a RoRo vessel, what is Maximum Securing Load?
The load capacity of a device used to secure cargo on board
57. Prior to loading general cargo on a Cargo vessel, with regard to cargo hold, you must make sure that:
They must all be visually inspected and notice of readiness is issued
58. Stack allowable weights on a container vessel should not be exceeded because this can cause:
Failure of the corner posts of the containers stowed at the bottom of the stack.
59. What is part C here ?
A hydraulic jack, for lifting the cover onto its trackway.
60. On a RoRo vessel, what additional securing arrangements should be used when loading a vehicle on an
incline or fixed Ramp
The Vehicle should also be chocked under its wheels
11. Plan and Ensure Safe Loading, Stowage, Securing, Care

During Voyage and Unloading of Cargoes
1. A container vessel has lost several dangerous goods containers overboard. The master must report this
loss of container incident to:
The nearest Coastal state.
2. During a loaded winter passage across the North Atlantic, the master of a container vessel would be
most concerned with:
The added weight of icing on container stacks, leading to loss of GM.
4. Which special regulations cover transportation of grain on a Bulk Carrier?
IMO Grain Rules?
5. Which special regulations cover transportation of solid Bulk cargoes?
IMO Bulk Cargoes Code (BC) and the IMO International Maritime Solid Bulk Cargo Code( IMSBC)
6. What is the purpose of a draught survey before and after loading on a Bulk Carrier?
To ascertain the actual weight of cargo loaded
7. According to regulations, cargo pump rooms, on the tank vessels handling grades A, B, or C liquid cargo,
shall be equipped with power ventilation of the exhaust type having capacity sufficient to effect a
complete change of air in not more than _________
3 minutes
8. The calibration of the ODME is carried with the use of:
Fresh water.
9. What are the advantages of ballasting double bottom ballast tanks by gravity filling on a Bulk Carrier?
There is minimum pressure head on the tank top and pumps are not required
10. A bulk cargo is loaded and the cargo stow has been left with an excessive peak height; what could be the
result of this situation?
Damage to hatch covers
11. A bulk carrier is to carry a full deck cargo of packaged timber; to what regulations must the vessel
comply?
IMO Code of Practice for the carriage of Timber Deck cargoes
12. When considering how to deal with cargo residues during hatch cleaning at sea on a Bulk Carrier, what is
the most careful consideration?
Consult MARPOL handbook and the vessels Safety Management System (SMS) for guidance
13. What is the possible concern if fuel tanks on a Bulk Carrier, which are close to cargo spaces containing
grain, are excessively heated?
The grain cargo may be heated and damaged
14. The most appropriate method for adjusting the trim on a container vessel would be:
By internal shift of ballast.
15. The grain capacity of a hold is 1404 m3 and the bale capacity of the hold is 1365m3. If cotton waste of
SF 3.90 m3/t is to be loaded in this hold, how many tonnes of cotton waste can be loaded?
350 tonnes
16. A bulk cargo vessel is found to be 4.0 centimetres over her maximum loadline draft after loading; what
should be the actions of the master?
Order the pumping out of fresh water or ballast until the maximum allowed loadline is achieved.
17. A greater number of lashings may generally be required to secure cargo forward on deck compared with
amidships under deck of a General Cargo Vessel, because:
The dynamic stresses on the lashing are much greater in the forward areas of the vessel.
18. Which operation may cause the pressure in an inert tank to fall below the prescribed limits?
Discharging
19. Depending on density or API, an error measurement of 0.1⁰ Fahrenheit in a tank containing 50,000 cubic
metres (314,491 barrels) of oil will result in which of the following volumes?
25 cubic metres (157 barrels).
20. Which of these covers the rules and regulations for General Average on a Bulk Carrier?
The York Antwerp rules
21. How should mild steel slabs be loaded in a bulk carrier?
Interlocked across the entire cargo hold with the longitudinal axes athwartships
22. Why do structural steel products often shift or collapse in a bulk carrier's cargo holds?
Because the irregular shape of the cargo holds results in void spaces
23. Besides normal loads, the lashings of the containers stowed at the outboard part of the deck stow are
additionally subjected to:
The effect of wind on the containers.
24. What must be ensured, prior to receiving a bulk cargo of iron ore on a Bulk Carrier?
Cargo hold bilge suctions must be satisfactorily tested
25. On multi-purpose vessels, responsibility for the stowage and securing of containers is:
Determined by the clauses of the charter-party.
26. A heavy piece of machinery is loaded on deck of a container vessel, stowed across several flat rack
containers. The most appropriate method for lashing such cargo would be by:
Taking all lashings to the flat-rack lashing points
27. Ship's cargo pump room alarm must be automatically activated when levels of hydrocarbon gas
concentration are:
No higher than 10% of LEL.
28. What publication must be carried on a vessel carrying dry bulk cargoes?
IMO Solid Bulk cargo Code or IMO Solid Bulk?
29. A ship floating in salt water has a displacement of 47,250 mts. Its light ship is 8,050 mts and the total
deductibles including constants weighs 2,570 mts how much cargo is she carrying.
36,630 mts
30. The Code of Safe Practice for Cargo Stowage and Securing was prepared to give guidance for:
Preparation and content of the Cargo Securing Manual.
31. As per OPA 90 requirements, a vessel over 400 feet (121.9 metres) in length must carry oil spill clean-up
gear to be able to handle oil spillages of:
12 barrels (1.91 cubic metres).
32. Why is air draught an important consideration when loading bulk cargoes on Bulk Carriers?
Because of movement of the bulk cargo loader or unloaders
33. Best location to stow containers loaded with Calcium Hypochlorite would be:
On deck, away from sources of heat.
34. Bulk liquid cargoes carried in flexi-tank containers are considered dangerous:
When the associated material safety data sheet shows a constituent(s) listed in the IMDG Code.
35. During a pre-loading survey prior to loading grain on a Bulk Carrier, very small amount of the previous
grain cargo is found in a cargo hold; what is the significance of this situation?
The vessel may fail the pre-load survey and be declared off-hire
36. For a ships loading computer to be safely used for loading planning and stress calculations, it must be
approved by:
A Classification Society.
37. For guidance on lashing arrangement of containers on-board the vessel, the most important document to
refer is:
The Cargo Securing Manual.
38. On a general cargo ship, operating the heavy lift derricks with the boom close to horizontal could result
in:
Excessive stresses acting on parts of the derrick system.
39. The lifting plant on a General Cargo vessel be proof load tested:
When equipment is new, every five years and after repairs or major modifications.
40. The maximum permitted oxygen content in the inert gas main when inerting a cargo oil tank prior to gas
freeing is:
5% by volume.
41. The most appropriate way of dealing with twist-locks suffering from excessive wear and tear is to:
Isolate them from use and dispose them appropriately.
42. What could happen if a bulk vessel failed to display placards notifying the crew of the disposal of garbage
within and outside Special Areas?
The vessel could be detained by port state control authorities
43. What governs the disposal of dry bulk cargo residues at sea?
MARPOL regulations
44. What is essential to ensure that efficient stripping of ballast tanks on a Bulk Carrier can be achieved?
A good stern trim is maintained during deballasting operations
45. What is the master's position if he is asked to load a container that is incorrectly manifested, but which is
believed to contain dangerous goods, about which insufficient information is supplied?
He has the authority to refuse it.
46. What measures should be taken in order to avoid flammable gases forming on top of coal cargoes on a
Bulk Carrier?
Ventilation to be carried out as indicated in the IMO solid Bulk Cargo Code
47. Your drafts are: FWD 5'-08"", AFT 6'-02"". From past experience, you know that the vessel will increase
her draft 1 inch for every 8 tons loaded. There is rig water on board and 11 tons of deck cargo. How
many more tons of cargo can be loaded and still maintain the same trim?
24 tons
48. Your drafts are: FWD 6'-01"", AFT 6'-05"". From past experience, you know that the vessel will increase
her draft by 1 inch for every 7 tons loaded. There is rig water on board and 20 tons of deck cargo. How
many more tons of cargo can be loaded while maintaining the same trim?
14.0 tons
12. Carriage of Dangerous Goods

( Pengangkutan Muatan Berbahaya )
1. Which of the following is a definition of the ""Proper Shipping Name"", as found in the IMDG
The name to be used in any documentation relating to the transportation of the dangerous substance,
material or article, such as on forms, labels and placards
2. What is the procedure if a tank lorry containing dangerous goods is not clearly marked?
Refuse to load the vehicle
3. Grade E combustible liquids are those having flash points of
150⁰ F or greater
4. The first treatment given to a person overcome by benzene vapor should be to ________
Remove them to fresh air
5. Natural separation of cargo is achieved due to _____
The shape, size or packing of different cargo loaded side by side
6. The primary hazard of liquefied petroleum gas and liquefied natural gas is ________
Flammability
7. In conjunction with which two sets of international regulations should the IMDG Code be read for security
purposes?
Chapter XI-2 of SOLAS and Part A of the ISPS Code
8. When hot rolled steel coils are loaded on General Cargo ships, it may be correct to state that
They must not be exposed to salt water contamination
9. IMO recommendations on allowance for water absorption in timber deck cargoes on a General Cargo
Vessel state that
15% additional weight should be used in stability calculation for the arrival condition
10. What is -toxicity- ?
The amount of poisonous substances in a material
11. For a General Cargo ship to load Dangerous Goods in packaged form, it must have on board a
Document of Compliance for carriage of dangerous goods
12. What best describes benzene?
Clear colorless liquid with an aromatic odor
13. The carriage of bagged Ammonium Nitrate in cargo holds of a General Cargo vessel is associated with
Risk of explosion
14. Which of the following international regulations is normally used when handling dangerous goods?
IMDG code
15. Which of the following cargoes can normally be loaded next to each other in the same space of a
General Cargo vessel?
Drums of cement and steel pipes
16. The segregation requirements for
The IMO International Maritime Dangerous Goods Code
17. The reporting of incidents involving harmful substances and / or marine pollutants is regulated under
which international guidelines?
Protocol I of MARPOL
18. How should chemicals and harmful substances be stored on board?
In a separate locker. The locker shall be clearly marked, locked and ventilated
19. On a General Cargo ship which of the following statements is correct?
Cold rolled steel coils must never be loaded in rain
20. EmS in the dangerous goods Code stands for ________
Emergency schedule
21. On General Cargo ships, cargoes such as logs, fish meal, scrap metal and bales of cotton commonly
tend to cause
Oxygen depletion in the cargo holds
22. Which of the following statements is correct with regard to IMDG Class 4 (flammable solids) cargoes
loaded on a General Cargo vessel?
The goods require protection against movement and can only be loaded if a cargo declaration is
supplied by the shipper
23. The minimum information to that must be provided be given on a dangerous goods declaration on a
General Cargo Vessel should be
IMO Class, UN Number, Gross weight, number of units of cargo, Proper Shipping Name
24. Which of these definitions is that of a ""Marine Pollutant"" under the IMDG Code?
A substance which is subject to the provisions of Annex III of MARPOL
25. As far as human factor is concerned, which of the following actions should be considered as an efficient
one?
All the listed answers
26. The flash point of a product is 100⁰ F. What can happen if it is heated above 110⁰ F?
It may burn and explode if an ignition source is present
27. Which of the following statements is correct with respect to IMDG cargo, loaded on a General cargo
vessel, that is also classed as a Marine Pollutant
Cargo must be loaded in a protected location and preferably under deck if IMDG Code allows
28. With regards to carriage of Calcium Hypochlorite in containers, as per IMDG Code it is not allowed to
Pack and ship the cargo in bags
29. If a cargo of kerosene were considered ""too lean"" to explode, then it must be ________
Below the ""explosive range""
30. Which product is volatile?
Benzene
31. A Cargo Ship Construction Certificate has a validity of
5 years
32. According to the Chemical Data Guide, propylene oxide is assigned a health hazard rating of 3,2,2. The
last digit ""2"" of the rating means ________
The chemical poison presents some hazard if it enters the body and typically has threshold limits of 100
to 500 ppm
33. According to the Chemical Data Guide, the flash point for the grade B flammable liquid piperylene is
-20⁰ F
34. As understood within the IMDG Code, what is an ""article""?
A device that contains a dangerous substance or mixture of substances
35. Cargoes referenced within the IMDG code may be anticipated to be
a spontaneous combustion risk
36. Grade D liquids are those having flash points of ________
Greater than 80⁰ F and less than 150⁰ F
37. In discussing segregation, the IMDG Code defines what it means by the term ""separated from"". Which
of the following is that definition?
In different compartments or holds when stowed ""under deck"". Provided an intervening deck is
resistent to fire and liquid, a vertical separation may be accepted as equivalent. For ""on deck"" stowage,
this segregation means a distance of at least 6 metres
38. One particular group of hazardous goods is highlighted by the IMDG Code as potentially being the most
dangerous for carriage. Which of the following is it?
Organic peroxides
39. Steel coils when loaded on a General Cargo ship tend to be subjected to
Crushing and distortion
40. Substances, materials and articles shall be stowed as indicated in the Dangerous Goods List of the
IMDG Code, in accordance with a series of stowage categories. How are those categories designated?
5 categories, labelled A-E
41. The ______ is responsible for marking, packing and other documents for loading dangerous goods
Consigner
42. The carriage of logs on General Cargo vessels tends to cause
Oxygen depletion in the cargo holds
43. The Classes drawn up by the UN Committee of Experts for the safe handling of hazardous substances,
as listed in the IMDG Code, are drawn up on the basis of which of the following criteria?
The type of hazard they present
44. What is an example of a grade B flammable liquid?
Carbon disulfide
45. What is NOT classified as a flammable liquid?
Mineral spirits
46. What is the purpose of Material Safety Data Sheets?
To provide all personnel including emergency personnel with procedures for handling or working with
that substance in a safe manner
47. What type of cargo shall always be secured?
Freight vehicles carrying dangerous goods and adjacent vehicles should always be secured
48. When a charterer or cargo receiver does not issue any instructions regarding crude oil washing, then
Crude oil wash the tanks required for taking ballast and 25% of the tanks for sludge control provide they
have not been washed in the last four months
49. When taking action to deal with under-deck cargo spillage on container ships, reference must be made to
The EmS Guide
50. Where should placards be located on a freight container?
One on each end and one on each side
51. Who is responsible for giving proper technical and physical characteristics of the cargo to the ship?
The shipper
13. Control Trim, Stability and Stress

1. A ship is inclined by moving a weight of 30 tons a distance of 9.144 M. from the centerline. A 8.53 M.
pendulum shows a deflection of 0.305 M. Displacement including weight moved is 4,000 tons. KM is
8.425 M.. What is the KG?
6.5 M.
2. The design pressure for a cargo compartment on a chemical tanker to meet the definition and
requirements of a ""pressure tank"" must be:
Greater than 0.7 bar gauge.
3. Your vessel's draft is 16'-00"" fwd. and 18'-00"" aft. The MT1 is 500 ft-tons. How many tons of water must
be shifted from the after peak to the forepeak, a distance of 250 feet, to bring her to an even draft
forward and aft?
48 tons
4. The DEEP DRILLER is loaded as shown in the Sample Load Form #1 (Transit). Weather conditions
require ballasting to survival draft. Assume that 3707.66 tons of ballast are added at an average VCG of
2.536 M. What would be the value of uncorrected KG?
15.743 M.
5. A vessel with a GM of 1.22 M. is inclined to 10degree. What is the value of the righting arm?
0.21 M.
6. Why would a very large container vessel pitch more than a feeder vessel?
Because pitching varies with ship's length
7. When cross-flooding arrangements to correct unsymmetrical flooding and excessive heel angels in
damaged condition are installed in passenger ships, what is the maximum angle of heel after flooding
but before equalization?
15 degrees
8. To check stability, a weight of 35 tons is lifted with the jumbo boom, whose head is 10.668 M. from the
ship's centerline. The clinometer shows a list of 7degree with the weight suspended. Displacement
including the weight is 14,000 tons. The GM in this condition is__
0.22 M.
9. What are the effects of a bulk vessel loading a high density cargo resulting in a large metacentric height
(GM)?
Have a fast roll period and possibly suffer racking stresses
10. The value of GZ is no longer able to be calculated using GM Sine Angle of Heel formula at?
Larger angles of heel.
11. Which plan shows the position of the vertical and longitudinal centres of gravity for each cargo
compartment of a Bulk Carrier?
Vessel stability book
12. Your vessel is damaged and is listing to port. The rolling period is short. There is sufficient freeboard so
that deck edge submersion is not a problem. What corrective action should be taken FIRST in regard to
the vessel's stability?
Shift any off-center weights from port to starboard
13. The maximum quantity of cargo permitted to be carried in a single tank on a type 1 chemical tanker as
per the IBC Code is:
1250 cubic metres.
14. A general cargo with a large metacentric height (GM) would be expected to have:
A fast roll period and large righting levers (GZ Levers).
15. How are ship's stability characteristics affected by Parametric Rolling?
By the constant change of underwater hull geometry as waves travel past the ship
16. A cargo of 40 tons is to be lifted with a boom located 12.192 M. from the ship's centerline. The ship's
displacement including the suspended cargo is 8,000 tons and the GM is 0.61 M. with cargo suspended.
What will the list of the vessel be with the cargo suspended?
5.7 degree
17. You are at sea on a vessel whose beam is 12.192 M. and the full rolling period is 20 seconds. What is
the estimated metacentric height of the vessel?
0.243 M
18. On a vessel of 8,000 tons displacement, compute the reduction in metacentric height due to free surface
in a hold having free water in the tank tops. The hold is 12.192 M. long and 6.096 M. wide. The reduction
in metacentric height is _________
0.03 M.
19. What would a cracked cross-deck plating found during a loaded passage on a bulk carrier indicate?
That shear forces have been exceeded
20. As per the IBC Code, an independent tank on a chemical tanker is defined as:
One which is not contiguous with, or part of the hull structure.
21. The vessel is instructed to load alternate holds when chartered to carry a high density cargo. What
reasons could be given by the master to refuse to do this?
IMO do not recommend alternate loading of cargo holds with high density cargoes.
22. In a single side skin bulk carrier of 155m in length constructed in 2000 and carrying cargo of density 1010
kg/cu.m., which cargo hold should be able to withstand flooding?
Any cargo hold
23. An Oil tanker experiences large bending moments and therefore the deck scantlings must be maintained
within ""x"" length amidships, where ""x"" is:
0.4 Length
24. When displacement increases, the free surface corrections for slack tanks _________
Decrease
25. What is the result of a large metacentric height?
The ship will roll violently.
26. Why is it important in a RoRo vessel to ensure that cargo is loaded in a uniform way
To prevent high sheer forces and bending moments on the vessel during the loading / discharge
operations
27. develops an angle of loll while loading a heavy item of deck cargo alongside the jetty. You should
immediately:
Stop cargo, reduce FSE in tanks, lower weights within vessel and fill small ballast tank on low side of
vessel.
28. After discharging a high density cargo a serious crack is found in an upper ballast tank amidships of a
Bulk Carrier; what must the Master do?
Inform Designated Person Ashore (DPA) and call in Classification Society
29. Your vessel is damaged, listing to port and on occasion flopping to the same angle to starboard. It has a
long, slow, sluggish roll around the angle of list. There is excessive trim by the stern with little freeboard
aft. What action should you take FIRST to correct this situation?
Press up any slack double-bottom tanks forward of the tipping center, then fill the forepeak if empty
30. What differences in design are there between a standard cargo hold and a cargo hold which can also be
used for ballast on a Bulk Carrier?
The ballast hold hatch cover must be fitted with additional securing devices
31. A chemical tanker intended to transport products with appreciably severe environmental and safety
hazards which require significant preventative measures to preclude escape of such cargo, usually of
double-hull construction, with a variety of tank sizes / capacities is rated as:
A type II chemical tanker, as per the IBC Code.
32. When do vertical accelerations acting on containers reach their maximum values?
When a ship changes direction at its extreme angle of pitch
33. Since 1st January 2007, as per changes introduced by amendment to MARPOL and IBC Code, it has
become mandatory for vegetable oils to be carried in:
Double hull tankers.
34. A Bulk Vessel is to load a cargo of grain; pre loading calculations show that IMO stability criteria cannot
be achieved; the vessel should do which of the following?
The grain surfaces in some or all of the cargo spaces must be secured
35. The disadvantages of large double bottom tanks on a double hull oil tanker are:
Increased free surface effect and reduced transverse metacentric height.
36. What is the primary cause of fatigue damage to the hull girder?
The number of repeated stress cycles
37. If a load is suspended from the hook of a crane. What effect does that have on a vessel's stability?
The weight acts upon the vessel from the head of the crane
38. Large bulk carriers are more likely to suffer from cracks in structure in which of the following parts of the
vessel?
Around hatch corners and upper ballast tanks amidships
39. What is the disadvantage of using High Tensile Steel (HTS) in ship construction?
Enhanced vibration in HTS areas
40. Which of the below structures of bulk carriers are considered critical?
Upper and lower connection of main side frames
41. A bulk vessel loads a full cargo to summer marks of a high density bulk cargo such as iron ore
concentrate; what would be the possible stability conditions produced?
The vessel will normally have a large intact metacentric height (GM) and have a fast roll period
42. What would indicate the onset of Parametric Rolling?
When the wave encounter period approaches the natural roll period of the ship
43. In a single side skin bulk carrier of 180m in length constructed in 2001 and carrying cargo of density
1,780 kg/m3, or above, which cargo hold is strengthened to withstand flooding?
The foremost cargo hold
44. On a hold inspection of a Bulk Carrier it is noted that a number of transverse frame beam knees are
slightly distorted; what is the significance of this?
This indicates the vessel is suffering racking stress and is potentially serious
45. What is usually the effect on G when the ship is damaged?
It is unchanged
46. Why are pure RoRo car carriers considered as being high risk design vessels where their stability is
concerned.
Because they can easily capsize if there is ingress of water or ballast operations are not handled
correctly
47. What is the full name of the International Convention dealing with stability of passenger ships?
The International Convention for the Safety of Life at Sea
48. A vessel carries three slack tanks of gasoline (SG .68). The vessel's displacement is 8,000 tons. Each
tank is 15.24 M. long and 6.096 M. wide. What is the reduction in GM due to free surface with the vessel
floating in sea water (SG 1.026)?
0.610 M.
49. A cofferdam, a pumproom or an empty tank, located between cargo tanks containing cargoes or cargo
residues which might react with each other in a hazardous manner, are all acceptable methods of
segregation in chemical tanker stowage according to the IBC Code. For this purpose, it may also be
acceptable to have:
An intervening cargo tank containing a mutually compatible cargo or cargo residues.
50. For a container stowed in a position equidistant from the roll and pitch axes of a ship, what will quarter
the acceleration forces acting on it?
Doubling the roll period
51. What roll amplitude is generally used by classification societies in calculating rolling forces?
24 - 30 degrees
52. What does heaving result in?
Vertical accelerations acting along container corner posts
53. When does wind force cause heeling moments on a container ship?
When the on-deck containers present a certain profile to the wind direction
54. What must by carefully checked when loading a bulk carrier to maximum draft
The minimum bow height must be maintained
55. A bulk freighter 270.26 M. in length, 18.3 M. beam, with a waterplane coefficient of 0.84, is floating in
salt water at a draft of 6.4 M. How many tons would it take to increase the mean draft by 1 cm ?
81.6 tons
56. As per IBC Code, the information contained in the loading and stability information booklet, which must
be supplied to the master of a chemical tanker, shall include:
Details of typical service and ballast conditions, provisions for evaluating other conditions of loading and
a summary of the ship's survival capabilities, together with sufficient information to enable the master to
load and operate the ship in a safe and seaworthy manner
57. Your vessel is damaged with no list, but down by the stern. There is progressive flooding and trim by the
stern is increasing. What is the effect on transverse stability after the deck edge at the stern is
submerged?
BM decreases from loss of water plane and greater volume.
58. A vessel's mean draft is 29'-07"". At this draft, the TPI is 152. The mean draft after loading 1360 tons will
be _________
30'-04""
59. Not counting actual capacity or structural and cargo specific limitations, the IBC Code states that for a
single tank on a type 3 chemical tanker:
There is no applicable filling restriction.
60. A loaded bulk carrier experiences heavy ice accretion on deck forward, what are the major concerns of
the changes in stability?
Reduction of metacentric height (GM) and loss of freeboard forward
14. Monitor and Control Compliance with Legislative Requirements

and Measure to Ensure Safety of Live at Sea, Security and the
Protection of the Marine Environment
1.In the case of responsibility of cargo where the carrier is responsible for carriage, the cargo owner shall
take action_______ except
Make a note of protest if the carrier rejects the receipt is clean.
2. What is a "passenger" according to SOLAS regulations?
Every person other than the Captain and the members of the crew or other persons employed or
engaged onboard the ship in the business of that ship.
3. Who is responsible for the vessel's radio station and mandatory radio routines?
The master.
4. To achieve safe maritime operation, the Indonesian Sea Transportation and Communication Directorate
works in compliance with:
The International Maritime Organization (IMO)
5. Which is the following principle in general insurance that not written in policy but must be obeyed by the
Insured (Assured) ?
Principle of legality
6. For which of the following ships, is the MARPOL convention applicable?
For all listed vessels.
7. For which ships is the SOLAS convention applicable?
For all vessels.
8. The assured (insured) must have an insurable interest in the policy when
a loss occurs.
9. MARPOL - Annex IV. Prevention of Pollution by Sewage from ships. What do you understand by the
word "Sewage"?
Drainage/waste from toilets/urinals.
10. What does the abbreviation STCW stand for?
The International Convention on Standards of Training, Certification and Watchkeeping of Seafarers
11. Do third States enjoy any fishing rights within the Exclusive Economic Zone of another State?
When the coastal State cannot harvest the 'total allowable catch', the coastal State is to give other State
access to that surplus with priority to be given to developing and land-locked States
12. Your vessel has been involved in a collision, which has resulted in a heavy oil leakage. Who should be
called to handle pollution claims and damages?
The P & I Club's nearest representative.
13. When a vessel violates the oil pollution laws, who may be held responsible?
Any one involved in the operation
14. Which is 'rock' under the UN Convention of the Law of the Sea (UNCLOS) ?
Rocks are the islands which cannot sustain human habitation or economic life of their own
15. Under the terms of the Marine Insurance Act 1906 the party possessing Feasible Interest is:
Shipper in the form of goods rejected by the buyer due to damage or delay
16. Under the terms of the Marine Insurance Act 1906 the party possessing Contingent Interest is:
Consignee which is a loss due to ship delay or damaged goods
17. Which international convention deals with fire-fighting equipment etc.
SOLAS
18. Which international convention deals with pollution prevention?.
MARPOL.
19. What is the status of the rules of the SOLAS convention?
Mandatory.
20. In case any accident occurs, the cause in known as
Marine peril
21. What kind of rights do coastal States enjoy over their continental shelf?
The coastal State enjoy ipso facto and ab initio sovereign rights over its continental shelf for the purpose
of exploring it and exploiting its natural resources
22. What IMO conventions take care of the human safety at sea?
It is the SOLAS conventions that take care of the human safety at sea
23. What is the 'equitable result' in the law and practice of maritime delimitation?
It is the end result that all delimitations of areas of continental shelf and EEZ should achieve, after,
however, drawing a provisional 'equidistance line' and adjusting the zone in the light of the relevant
circumstances and the proportionality test
24. One of the basic principles of insurance that is not written in the policy but must be obeyed by the insured
(assured) is the Principle of Indemnity.The purpose of the Principle of Indemnity is.
The Assured is not permitted to make a profit on the Insurance
25. Any master who makes or permits a false entry to be made in the log book, shall be liable to fines or
imprisonment for a term not exceeding 1 year according to:
The Ship Safety and Security Act, Section 65..
26. What does STCW deal with?
STCW deals with minimum recommendation of education for seafarers and minimum standards for
training centre and schools
27. Who is responsible for keeping the required official publications onboard?
The master.
28. How frequent should reports from protection and environmental work be send to shore based
management?
Annually.
29. What kind of passage does qualify as 'innocent passage' ?
A vessel's passage is considered 'innocent' where it is not prejudical to the peace, good order or security
of the coastal state
30. Which State exercises jurisdiction over vessels on the high seas?
The flag State is to exercise exclusive jurisdiction over its vessels on the high seas, with the exception of
specific cases, such as piracy
31.Which international organization is preparing conventions and rules for seafaring nations?
International Maritime Organization (IMO)
32. What is the purpose of baselines under the law of the sea?
The determination of baselines is instrumental to the establishment of all maritime zones, since they
constitute the starting point for measuring the breadth of each zone
33. Which organization or administration is responsible for surveys and inspections of ships, and the issue of
Safety Certificates?
Government Authorities of the Flag State
34. The fee charged by the insurer on account of providing services is called____
Premium
35. Which principle suggests that insured (assured) should try to minimize the loss of his property even if it is
insured?
Principle of indemnity
36. In Marine Insurance Policy Insurable interest must exist at the time of_______
At the time of claim
37. What is the maximum oil content in the sludge/ bilge water allowed to be pumped over board during a
voyage?
30 litres per nautical mile
38. How many annexes do we find in MARPOL and what is the content of annex 1?
We find 6 annexes in MARPOL and annex 1 is the regulations for the prevention of pollution by oil
39. Any person serving on board who without the permission of the shipmaster leaves the ship in distress or
other danger while the master still on board shall be liable to
Fines or imprisonment for a term not exceeding 6 months.
40. What would happen if, when a ship is under-going a Port State Inspection, certificates were invalid or
missing
Rectification would be required before sailing
41. Which IMO convention takes care of the human safety at sea ?
The SOLAS convention
42. If pollution takes place, what would you do immediately?
Report to relevant authorities.
43. that regulatory working hours are not exceeded?
The master and department heads.
44. What does the abbreviation SOLAS mean?
International Convention for the Safety of Lives at Sea
45. When did the third UN Convention on the Law of the Sea Conference (UNCLOS III) take place ?
Between 1973 and 1982
46. Which of the UN member states below has signed UNCLOS III ?
Guyana
47. Peril on The Sea is a marine perils, that a ship may be damaged or destroyed because of .
Pirates in the ocean who can harm the people and all the things of a ship
48. What is the function of the contiguous zone?
The contiguous zone is a zone in which the coastal State is permitted to prevent and punish
infringements of customs, fiscal, immigration or sanitary laws
49. Who are responsible for safe working conditions onboard?
Master, Chief Engineer & Chief Officer.
50. What does the term OIL mean, as used in the Oil Pollution Regulations?
All of the mentioned
51. When does an illegal act of violence on the high seas fall short of qualifying as piracy?
When it is not committed against another vessel and when it is not committed for 'private ends'
52. A cover note is a temporary certificate of insurance issued by the Insurer before the issuance of a policy.
The information that would not usually appear on a cover note is.
Deductable
53. How many nautical miles out are considered "teritorial water" ?
12 nautical miles from the baseline
54. New MARPOL regulations came into effect from July 93 stating that the oily water separator which was
previously certified for 100 ppm be changed to:
15 ppm
55. A subordinate who unlawfully brings intoxicating beverages on board shall be liable to:
Fines or in especially aggravating circumstances to imprisonment for a term not exceeding three
months.
56. Cover Note is a temporary coverage of Insurance, which then by the insurer will be issued a policy. The
policy is:
Underwriter agreements signed by the assurer and the insurer
57. The goods which can be coverage by marine insurance are_______ except
The cost to deal with marine pollution from ship
58. Broker is Person who serves as a trusted agent that has legal expertise related to the coverage of
insured from the prospective assured. The fee of services by broker is paid by
Insurer of the premium received from the assured.
59. What rules and regulations are regulating the watch keeping routines in the engine room?
Both STCW and Class rules
60. What must be done if the Oil Discharge Monitoring Equipment (ODME) should fail during a ballast
voyage?
All of the mentioned must be performed
DEVELOP EMERGENCY AND DAMAGE CONTROL PLANS AND

HANDLE EMERGENCY SITUATIONS
1.For which emergency resource is it difficult to plan the best use?
Passengers
2. Is it necessary to be certified to be a lifeboat-commander?
Yes, you must attend to a course held by certified personnel, and provide evidence of having maintained
the required standards of competence every five years
3. The muster list must be prepared
At any moment before the ship proceeds to sea
5. Which statement about stress is correct?
Individuals in a shipboard emergency experience different levels of stress
6. The analyses of the smoke produced by a fire, may give an interpretation of that fire. Which are the
factors we should take into account?
Opacity, amount and colour
7. What are the conditions that influence the efforts for organising the fire fighting?
Where the fire breaks out, how many fire teams are available, the strength of the fire, the ships mobility,
what is burning and communication
8. What is the most important factor in the master's ability to make good decisions in an emergency?
Feedback from the crew
9. You have been carrying a liquid with flammable limits of 1% to 7% mixture with air. If your instructions
say that no one shall enter the tank if the vapor concentration is over 15% of the
15%
10. You are on board a cargo ship. The ship is heavily listing to starboard, making impossible the launching
of the survival craft stowed on this side. Lifeboats and liferafts are equally distributed on each side of the
vessel. What should be the total number of persons that can be accommodated in the remaining survival
craft stowed on the port side ? (*) N is the total number of persons that vessel is permitted to carry
at least 200 % N (lifeboat capacity: 100 % N; liferaft capacity: 100 % N) (*)
12. A moderate level of stress provides which useful function in an emergency?
To prepare for peak performance that will improve the chances of survival
13. The Safety Management Manual contains checklists that are
Clear, concise summaries of critical action items in the emergency plan
14. A company must update its Safety Management System and Manual
Whenever regulations change
15. To turn over an inflatable liferaft that is upside down, you should pull on the ________
Righting strap
16. Which of the following information shall be specified by the muster list?
Action to be taken by crew and passengers
17. What manoeuvre should be carried out in case of a fire onboard a ship?
Reduce speed and, if possible, keep the fire zone to the leeward of the ship
18. During helicopter evacuation of an injured man, what course should the ship steer?
As instructed by the helicopter pilot
19. Which is the most important factor in the safety awareness of the ships crew?
The level of emergency-preparedness
20. When a Master takes the leadership in approaching a problem, Must his first action be a decision that will
directly solve the problem?
Not necessary, he shall use all available resources. He should resist the temptation to step in and do it
all by himself
21. In a distress situation, how many times or for how long should the emergency alarm signal be sounded?
Until all crew members and passengers have reported to their respective muster stations
22. What is a contingency plan for ships?
Plan for safety preparedness
24. What is most important for crew members when preparing for emergencies?
That people are well trained
25. The Training Manual shall contain instructions and information on the life-saving appliances and the best
method of survival. The training manual shall contain detailed explanations of crew duties in relation to
emergency situations. Which of the following tasks or duties shall be included in the manual according to
present regulations?
The use of the ship's line throwing apparatus
26. Poster or signs shall be provided on or in the vicinity of survival craft and their launching controls. Which
one of the following requirements has to be included?
Give relevant instructions and warnings
27. The training manual shall contain instructions and information in easily understood terms and illustrated
wherever possible. Which of the following objects have to be explained in detail in the manual according
to present regulations?
Donning of lifejackets and immersion suits
28. Which of the following prevention actions offers the guarantee of an efficient intervention in an
emergency
All the listed answers
30. Pollution of the waterways may result from the discharge of ________
All of the above
31. What can cause crewmembers to abdicate their safety roles?
Lack of leadership
32. Which of the following detailed explanations should be mentioned in the Training Manual ?
How to recover survival craft and rescue boats including stowage and securing
33. Which of the following is most likely to influence changes to emergency plans and procedures?
The design and layout of the ship
34. Which one of the given requirements regarding manning and supervision of survival craft corresponds to
the SOLAS regulation?
A deck officer or certificated person shall be placed in charge of each survival craft to be used
35. The muster list shall show the duties assigned to the different members of the crew. Which of the given
duties necessarily have to be included in the muster list?
Preparation and launching of survival crafts
36. Debriefing of an emergency drill
expands the experience of all personnel
37. The Muster List shall show the duties assigned to members of the crew. Which of the following duties
shall be included according to present regulations?
Manning of fire parties assigned to deal with fires
38. The correct order of actions to be taken in a fire emergency, should be
Evaluation of the situation, rescue and life-saving, confinement of fire, extinction, then feed back on the
emergency
39. HEL-H is the abbreviation of a heavy helicopter radius of action for rescue purposes. What do you think
the radius and evacuating capacity of the helicopter is?
200 nm and capacity for evacuating more then 15 persons
40. In a crisis, which crew behaviours are most reassuring to passengers?
Enthusiasm, confidence, decisiveness
41. What is the priority for the ship's management team when fire breaks out?
The ship's management team must organise the fire teams and then the teams have to rescue missing
personnel
42. Which one of the listed requirements regarding the stowage of a survival craft corresponds to present
SOLAS regulations? Each survival craft shall be stowed
In a secure and sheltered position and protected from damage by fire or explosion
43. Which one of the given requirements regarding survival craft muster and embarkation arrangements
corresponds to the present SOLAS regulations?
Muster and embarkation stations shall be readily accessible from accommondation and work areas
44. Which one of the listed requirements regarding the stowage of lifeboats and life-rafts corresponds to
present SOLAS regulations?
Lifeboats shall be stowed attached to launching appliances
45. The atmosphere in a tank is too rich when it is ________
incapable of supporting combustion because the hydrocarbon vapor content makes the atmosphere
above the UFL (Upper Flammable Limit)
46. Which of the following duties shall be included in the ""muster list"" as being assigned to members of the
crew ?
Preparation and launching of the survival craft
47. Which of the following duties shall be included in the ""muster list"" as being assigned to crewmembers
in relation to passengers?
Assembling passengers at muster station
48. Your vessel has been involved in a collision, and at first opportunity a lot of people from outsides parties
are asking questions. What shall you tell them?
Do not reply to any questions from outside parties, except the Solicitor appointed by your company
49. Studies of shipboard emergencies show that many passengers do not read or remember safety
information. As an officer, how can you best compensate for this fact?
In an emergency, repeatedly tell passengers what's happening, what's being done, and what they
should do
50. In what language/languages must the fire control plans or booklets (or copies of these) be written?
In the Flag State official language with copies in English or French
51. In a distress situation and immediately after the distress signal has been sounded, what is the next action
to be taken by the Chief Officer on duty?
Use the intercom to inform crew and passengers of the reason for the alarm
ENGLISH LANGUAGE
1.What time does your cook get up for preparing breakfast ?
He always gets up at 5 am
2. On the diagram, what is the area at the forward end of the vessel shown by the letter "A"? It is normally
raised by one deck above the main deck
Fo'c's'le or Forecastle
3. In the figure, which letter indicates which item is the "WINDLASS"?
The Windlass is indicated by B, in the figure
4. What is meant by the term "Single up" when a vessel is preparing to leave the jetty to which it was
moored?
Single up is the term used to describe the process of letting go most of the moorings lines and just
leaving sufficient lines to stay safely alongside
5. In the diagram, which letter is indicating the "bits" which would probably be used by the "FORWARD
SPRING" when mooring the ship?
The bits for the Forward Spring is indicated by D, in the figure
6. The total weight of cargo, fuel, water, stores, passengers and crew, and their effects, that a ship can
carry, is the ________
Deadweight
7. What do you understand by the term "Let Go" when applied to mooring and unmooring?
Let Go means to cast off the mooring ropes and wires
8. Your vessel ________loaded in a sagging condition. Enroute you encounter heavy weather and notice
buckling in the midships deck plating of your vessel. To relieve the strain you______ pump fuel oil from
midships to the ends of the vessel
Has been could
9. On the diagram, which arrowed line is indicating the "Breadth" of the vessel?
The breadth is indicated by letter B, in the figure
10. On the diagram, which letter indicates what is meant by the word "DRAUGHT" of the ship?
Draught is indicated by D, in the figure
11. In the diagram, which letter is pointing to the area of the ship known as the "STERN"?
The Stern area is indicated by C, in the figure
12. Read the text in the diagram and answer the following question: When should training in personal
survival techniques be given
Before being employed
13. Read the text in the diagram and answer this question: What should be given to prospective seafarers?
Approved training in survival techniques
14. Which of the following describes the "Responsible Officer"?
A person appointed by the employer or to whom the Master of the ship has delegated responsibility,
empowered to take charge of a specific task
15. In the figure, which arrow indicates the direction "ASTERN"?
Astern is indicated by D, in the figure
16. In the diagram, which letter is pointing at the area known as the "BOW" of the ship?
The Bow is indicated by B, in the figure
17. On the diagram, which letter is indicating the "BOW"?
The Bow is indicated by B, in the figure
18. How can you best protect yourself against the most common injury, sprains or cuts in hands, arms or
fingers?
By using gloves when practical, and being observant of the risk
19. In the diagram which line would be the "AFT SPRING", if the vessel was port side alongside a jetty?
The Aft Spring is indicated by A, in the figure
20. What does the helm command "shift the rudder" mean?
Put the rudder over to the opposite side, the same number of degrees it is now
21. Man: Do you think that free education for poor people will be an effective policy? ; Woman: __ ________
because this is what they really need
I think this will help them a lot
22. Chief Engineer : What do you think is the effective way to reduce too black smoke ? ; Second Engineer:
____clean the filter is one of the effective ways to reduce it
In my opinion
23. The Local Notice to Mariners is usually published ________
Weekly
24. Seaman A: ___ Get persuaded by drug peddlers ; Seaman B: OK. Don't worry I won't
Make sure you don't
25. The following is one of the writer's suggestions in forcing people to use public transportations _________
Make people buy transit passes as part of their property taxes
26. What is a "cargo plan", when applied to a ship?
The plan indicating where cargo is to be loaded and in what quantities
27. What is name of the machine shown, used to heave on the ropes during mooring and unmooring?
Winch
28. Whose overall duty is it, to ensure that the plan for entry into an enclosed or confined space is followed?
The Responsible Officer
29. Seaman A : ________ I would stay away from drugs ; Seaman B : Yes, I know. I'll stay away from it
If I were you
30. A lookout can leave his station ________
Only when properly relieved
31. During the anchoring procedure, what would the 2nd Officer understand by the following request from the
bridge, "How is the chain"?
The bridge would like to know the direction of the anchor cable from the hawse pipe
32. What are the duties of the bridge lookout during the night, when the vessel is in the middle of the ocean?
The lookout must keep a lookout all-round the ship and report anything sighted, or heard, to the Officer
of the Watch
33. You should keep clear of ________
Any line under a strain
34. In which direction would the "FORWARD HEAD LINE" normally run?
The forward head line would normally lead forward from the bow
35. A cargo that has a stowage factor over 40 is known as a ________
Measurement cargo
36. What is a mooring line?
A mooring line is a thick rope used to moor the ship
37. In the figure is shown the direction of possible mooring lines from the stern of a vessel, when moored
port side alongside a jetty. Which letter shows the direction which would be used by a "STERN LINE"?
The Stern Line is indicated by A, in the figure
38. Seaman A : How was your trip to Nias? ; Seaman B : ________ with it. I want to go there again next year
I'm very pleased
39. Read the text in the picture before answering the question. What is the fundamental requirement relating
to the older ships, which are still in service?
The older ships must be in good condition
40. In the figure, which letter indicates the "BREADTH" of the vessel?
Breadth is indicated by B, in the figure
41. What could the wheelman be asked to do, to help in the preparations to leave the berth and go to sea?
Test the steering by putting the wheel hard over both ways
42. In the diagram, the depth of water under the keel is indicated by the letter "C". Which bridge instrument
would indicate this depth?
Echo Sounder
43. When navigating a vessel, you ________ to maintain its exact position
Should never rely on a floating aid
44. If the hot work is to be _________ at the bottom of the tank, the entire bottom_______be thoroughly
cleaned and all sediments removed
Carried out shall
45. In the diagram, which arrow is pointing at the position known as the "Bridge"?
The Bridge is indicated by A, in the figure
46. For ________ shall time sheets concerning working hours on board ships be kept after their completion?
How long
47. In the figure, which letter indicates what is known as "mooring bits"?
The mooring bits are indicated by D, in the figure
48. Someone _________ the door now. We are not in the living room
is knocking
49. What is a "Fairlead"?
A Fairlead is a special device through which is passed ropes or wires to stop them moving sideward's
and reduces friction and chafing
50. Man : __ ________ I've booked the table but you give it to other ; Woman: I'm sorry, Sir. We're going to
fix it
This is really a nuisance
51. What is the first step in any potentially hazardous work task on board
Risk assessment
52. Able seaman : What do you think of the book? ; Oiler: ________ I really love it
It's terrific
53. It is still raining now outside. Therefore, the AB's _______ their rain coat
Are wearing
54. The distance between the surface of the liquid and the tank top in a cargo tank is called_
ullage
55. What is a ship's "Gangway"?
A Gangway is a portable means of access between the ship and the shore
56. How should the tug be secured to the ship, when the bridge tells the poop that "It is the tug's wire"??
The tug will send a wire to the ship for making fast
57. In the diagram, which letter is indicating the position "MIDSHIPS"?
Midships is indicated by B, in the figure
58. X: Why didn't you answer my phone last night? ; Y: Sorry, I _______ out to meet my lecturer, and I left
my mobile phone at home
Went
59. To whom does the requirement as to knowledge of English apply?
Seafarers employed or engaged on board ship on the business of that ship as part of the ship's
complement with designated safety or pollution duties
MAINTAIN SAFETY AND SECURITY OF THE SHIP’S CREW

AND PASSENGERS AND THE OPERATIONAL CONDITION OF
LIFESAVING, FIREFIGHTING AND OTHER SAFETY SYSTEMS
.
1. Which of the following items shall be included in an "abandon ship"-drill?

Checking that passengers and crew are suitably dressed and lifejackets correctly donned
2. During abandon ship exercise, what life-saving equipment must be demonstrated?
Wearing and fastening of lifejackets and associated equipment
3. The first step in completing an SSA is to:
Create a list of potential motives for security incidents against your ship.
4. The Master is responsible that all crew participate in monthly emergency drills. If 25% of the crew - or
more - has not participated in such drill during the last month, what is the time limit to conduct such a
drill after the vessel has left a port?
Within 24 hrs
5. Which one of the listed requirements regarding service and maintenance of life-saving appliances
correspond to present regulations?
Instructions for onboard maintenance of life-saving appliances in accordance with the regulations shall
be provided
6. The emergency fire pump is in accordance with good seamanship and precautionary routines run and
tested weekly. Routine checks and maintenance are normally carried out by dedicated personnel. To
ensure safe and appropriate operation of the pump, would you consider it beneficial that the same
dedicated personnel operate the pump in emergencies?
In case of accidents, it is important that a wide range of personnel must be permitted and trained to
operate the pump.
7. When should a crew member joining a ship for the first time be given some training and instructions in
the use of the ship's fire-fighting appliances ?
As soon as possible but not later than 2 weeks after he joins the ship
8. Which one of the listed requirements regarding life-saving appliances corresponds to present
regulations?
All prescribed life-saving appliances shall be made of non-combustible or fire retardant material
9. Who is the leader of the lifeboat drill (abandon ship drill)?
The appointed lifeboat commander.
10. On all UMS operated vessels and also on most other vessels the engine room is equipped with fire
detectors. What requirements of testing and checking of the detectors are to be observed?
All the mentioned alternatives.
11. Personnel on board passenger vessels must undergo training courses before they can be part of the safe
manning and assigned to emergency duties on board. What is minimum training requirement for all
personnel?
Basic Safety Training Course and Crowd & Crisis Management Training Course
12. At least, how often shall life boats be launched with their assigned operating crew aboard and
manoeuvred in the water according to SOLAS?
Every three months.
13. Which one of the listed requirements regarding abandon ship drills corresponds to present SOLAS
regulation?
Each lifeboat shall be launched, and manoeuvred in the water with its assigned crew at least once every
three months during an abandon ship drill
14. Which of the following requirements regarding life-buoys correspond to present regulations? (SOLAS
III/7.1)
Not less than half the total number of lifebuoys shall be provided with self-ignighting lights
15. Where the fire break out, the ships mobility, distance to the fire station and the size of the fire brigade
Fire, Damage to ship, Pollution, Unlawful acts threatening the safety of the ship and the security of its
passenger and crew, Pesonnel accidents, Cargo-related accidents, Emergency assistance to other
ships
16. How often shall crew members participate in fire drills?
Once every month
17. SOLAS regulations require surveys of ships to be carried out at certain times and at certain intervals.
Which of the following surveys apply to passenger ships only?
Periodical survey every 12 months
18. Which of the following items must be included in each fire drill?
All the items mentioned
19. What information is required on passengers prior to departure?
All persons on board shall be counted and details of persons who have declared a need for special care
or assistance in emergency situations shall be recorded and communicated to the Master
20. How often must the Emergency Steering Gear be tested, and how is this information recorded in the
OLB?
Every three months. Details of test with signatures of Master and witness
21. Which two persons check the Declaration of Security?
The Port Facility Security Officer and the Ship Security Officer
22. What is a Declaration of Security?
A checklist jointly completed by the ship and shore security representatives
23. Which of following items shall be included in an abandon ship drill?
instruction in the use of radio life-saving appliances
24. When can a work vest be substituted for a lifejacket in the total count of the required lifesaving gear?
A work vest may never be counted as a lifejacket.
25. Referring to the SOLAS convention, how often should a crew member on a cargo ship participate in one
abandon ship drill and one fire drill?
Monthly
26. Who is responsible to ensure that all personnel on board are provided with suitable Personal Protective
Equipment where it is needed?
The Company/ employer
27. On-board training in the use of davit-launched liferafts (including inflation and lowering whenever
practicable) must take place
every 4 months
28. Which of following are security duties?
All alternatives
29. Where do you find minimum drill requirements?
In the SOLAS convention and its annex
30. Every inflatable liferaft , inflatable lifejacket and hydrostatic release units shall be serviced:
Every 12 months.
31. here do you find detailed information and specific technical requirements for life-saving appliances?
Life-Saving Apliance Code (LSA Code)
32. Where do you find detailed information and specific technical requirements for fire safety systems?
Fire Safety Systems Code (FSS Code)
33. The Declaration of Security:.
Addresses the security requirements shared between ships or between a port facility and a ship.
34. Which one of the following items has to be included in an abandon ship drill according to SOLAS
regulations?
Checking that life-jackets are correctly donned.
35. Which crew members are not permitted to work aloft ?
Those under 18 years who have less than 1 year experience
36. How often should the lifeboat wire falls be turned and renewed?
Turned at intervals of not more than 30 months and renewed every 5 years
37. Where shall you be able to activate the ship security alert system on board passenger ships?
From the navigation bridge and in at least one other location
38. During test and/or maintenance work of the CO2 system affecting the release system, precautions to
ensure that the gas is not released into the engine room due to a mistake are to be ensured. What
precautions should be taken?
The main supply line to be blanked off prior to the work.
39. As per SOLAS regulations, the general emergency alarm system must be tested:
Every week
40. On board passenger ships an abandon ship drill must be performed:
Every week
41. The steps of the embarkation ladder used must be spaced apart by a distance of:
Equally spaced and not less than 300 mm or more than 380 mm
42. The steps of the embarkation ladder used must be proportioned as it follows:
length = 480 mm, breadth = 115 mm, depth = 25 mm
43. How often are "abandon ship" drills required to be held on cargo vessels according to SOLAS?
Once every month.
44. When reasonable and practicable, how often shall rescue boats be launched with their assigned crew
aboard and manoeuvred in the water?
Every month
45. How often shall each member of the crew participate in an "abandon ship"-drill?
Once every month
ORGANIZE AND MANAGE THE PROVISION OF MEDICAL CARE ON BOARD

1. There are three levels of burning, namely:*Superficial *Intermediate*Deep burns (also called full-
thickness burns) A large burn will almost certainly contain areas of all three grades. How many per cent
of the body may be burned before the danger of shock occurs?
15 percent.
2. What is the first sign and symptom of a Cardiac Infarction?
Sudden crushing, vice-like pain in the centre of the chest.
3. Which statement about the hospital space on a cargo ship is TRUE?
If a ship has a crew of forty-five who do not have their own room, the hospital must have four berths.
4. As with heat burns the damage of frostbite /hypothermia may be either superficial or deep, and the
affected tissues may be destroyed. What kind of first aid should be given a person with frostbite ?
Hand or body heat the affected parts skin-to-skin (e.g. frozen hand in persons opposite armpit __ )
5. A burn may occur when electricity of high current and voltage passes through the body. Most damage
occurs at the points of entry and exit of electricity. What is the treatment of electrical burns?
Place sterile dressing over the burn and secure with a bandage.
6. Severe pains in the chest occur when the coronary arteries, which supply blood to the heart, become too
narrow for sufficient oxygenated blood to reach the muscles of the heart. Normally these attacks only
last a few minutes, and the pain stops if the casualty rests. What kind of medicine to be taken when an
Angina Pectoris attack occurs?
Nitro glycerine tablets.
7. Before CPR is started, you should _________
Establish an open airway
8. What is the purpose of a Medico Message?
Call an hospital for professional medical assistance by radio when needed.
9. How will you treat a seasick person?
Leave him in bed or request him to have some fresh air.
10. Asthma is a distressing condition in which the muscles of the air passage go into spasm. How can the
asthma attacks be triggered off ?
Nervous tension,allergy, or none obvious cause.
11. What is Hypothermia and how is it cured?
Body temperature below 35C / Heat the body
12. How do the human body absorb toxicants?
The human body absorb toxicants through respiration, skin and the aliment channel
13. A diabetic has eaten too little food and the person may feel dizzy and lightheaded. The skin becomes
pale, with profuse sweathing. Limbs may begin to tremble and pulse becomes rapid. The urine glucose
reaction is negative. What kind of medicine will the person need as soon as possible?
Sugar lump, sugar drink or something sweet.
14. After sending a message describing the symptoms of an ill crew member, you receive a message
containing the code MRL. This means "_______".
Commence artificial respiration immediately
15. Sun rays and light reflected from a bright surface (e.g. sea); can cause damage to the skin and eyes.
What is this type of burn called?
Radiation burns.
16. A severe blow to or a heavy fall on the upper part of the abdomen (solar plexus) can upset the regularity
of breathing. What is the symptoms and signs?
Difficulty in breathing in and the casualty may be unable to speak.
17. Water Jel is a unique product regarding protection and first aid of burns. Water Jel is delivered in different
sizes. Biggest is a carpet with the size 182cm x 152 cm. What is the highest temperature the Water Jel
carpet is resistant against?
1530 C
18. A strain occurs when a muscle or group of muscles is over- stretched and possibly torn, by violent or
sudden movement. Strain can be caused by lifting heavy weights incorrectly. The treatment of strain
may be remembered as the word RICE.What is RICE an abbreviation for?
Rest, Ice, Compression, Elevation.
19. A victim has suffered a second-degree burn to a small area of the lower arm. What is the proper
treatment for this injury?
Immerse the arm in cold water for 1 to 2 hours, apply burn ointment, and bandage .
20. After a person has been revived by artificial respiration, he should be
Kept lying down and warm
21. Due to exposure to heat fatigue, heat stroke and dehydration, what is the maximum recommended
effective temperature (ET) for full work load in enclosed spaces?
30.5 degree C ET?
22. A person slowly feels more sleepy and thirsty. The skin and slimhinner become very dry and there is a
sweet taste of the breath. The glucose reaction shows positive. What kind of medicine will the person
need as soon as possible?
Insulin.
23. In any major injury to a person, first aid includes the treatment for the injury and _______
For traumatic shock
24. When starting CPR on a drowning victim, you should _________
Begin mouth-to-mouth ventilations as soon as possible
25. Chemical burns in eyes or on the skin can cause severe damage. Some chemicals may be absorbed
through the skin and cause widespread and sometimes fatal damage within the body. What is the first
main treatment if someone is a victim of chemical burns?
Remove any contaminated clothing and flood the affected area with slowly running water. Make sure
that the contaminated water drains away freely and safely.
26. Which organs absorb oxygen and part with carbon dioxide?
The respiratory organs.
27. If a person is unconscious from electric shock, you should first remove him from the electrical source and
then _________
Determine if he is breathing
28. In which way may intake of poisoning material occur?
By inhaling, skin penetrating, skin absorbing and swallowing
29. If the patient vomits during mouth-to mouth resuscitation, the rescuer should FIRST____
Turn the patient's body to the side, sweep out the mouth and resume mouth-to-mouth ventilation
30. The FIRST treatment for a surface burn is to _________
Flood, bathe, or immerse the burned area in cold water
USE OF LEADERSHIP AND MANAGERIAL
1. To maintain good relationship among the crew on board a vessel, one must be:
Understanding, Co-operative, and have respect from both sides
2. It is the Master's responsibility to ensure that:
Concerned personnel carry out the on-board traing progamme effectively
3. The contemporary management theories discussed in the text have which of the following in common?
Recognition of the complexity of the environment
4. Master of every ship must provide:
A link between the shipboard training officer and the company training officer ashore
5. What is referent powerin leadership?
Power that stems from a person's leadership skills
6. If Master finds reason to doubt whether the agent is giving the vessel's interest full and proper attention
he should:
Investigate the matter carefully and report the findings to the company
7. One of the more difficult tasks for a manager when he or she is coordinating activities is
Securing cooperation
8. Which of the following has been identified as a source of power in leadership?
all of the above
9. Who is responsible for the safe keeping of the ship's documents?
Master
10. All of the following describes planning except</strong>
a process perform by senior managers only
11. Which of the following is not considered to be an effective communicative competency for discussion
leaders?
Effective group leaders express individual-centered concern
12. Quantitative approaches for decision-making are most often associated with
Complex decisions with controlled environments
13. Proper and accurate inventory of stores should be maintained inorder to:
Control the ship's budget
14. In the decision-making process, a manager should
Develop as many alternatives as possible
15. The two dimensions of leadership which emerged from the Leader Behavior Description Questionnaire
were 'consideration' and ' ________'
Initiating structure
16. Why is it important to make weekly/routine rounds in the accomodation areas?
To ensure that cabins and common spaces are maintained in a clean, safe and hygienic condition
17. Vertical coordination is comparable to horizontal coordination because
Both involve other departments
18. All necessary information for the next port of call should be:
Procured before departure from a port
19. The doctrine of captain of the ship is exhibited in
Operating rooms
20. What is the ISM Code?
The ISM Code is an international standard for the safe management and operation of ships and for
pollution prevention.
21. Representative of the port authorities should always receive the best possible treatment:
For ship's clearance to take place quickly and without complications
22. An emergency situation on board must be reported to the company by:
The fastest means available
23. The office phone, fax, telex and after office hours telephone numbers can be found in:
The Ship's emergency contingency manual
24. Why is it important to have good relationship on-board a vessel?
It leads to better work performance and positive atmosphere among the crew
25. Which of the following best describes negligence?
Doing what a reasonable person would not do, and not doing what you should do
26. The responsible person for maintaining budget on board normally is:
Master
27. The examination of characteristics relating to leadership, such as enthusiasm, verbal skills, creativity,
critical thinking ability, and self-confidence, is referred to as a:
Traits approach
28. Which of the following is nota major management dimension?
Being a public spokesperson for the organization
29. Where will you normally find the ship's documents including Crew Passports and CDC on board a
vessel?
Ship's Office
30. Which of the following assumptions is characteristic of contingency approachesto leadership?
All of the above
31. Which of these is not a principle of great man theory?
Leaders are born not made.
32. Prior to ordering stores for any department;
The store inventory should be checked so that you order only the items required
33. Which of the following will be reported to a company on the emergency phone?
All accidents where crew are injured or killed
34. An efficient manager will
Fire those who exchange news through the grapevine
35. The ________ leadership style is an expression of the leader's trust in the abilities of his subordinates
All of the above
36. Which of the following best describes management?
Getting things done through and with technical resources
Additional from File : Naskah UKP Update

1. Part B is a turnbuckle for adjusting the length of the chain. Why would the chain need to be adjusted?
The chain must be the same length on each side of the cover so that the cover will run straight on its
track
2. In which country would you expect the channels to be marked with the IALA B Buoyage System?
Peru
3. What is TRUE concerning new editions of Light Lists?
New editions are corrected through the date shown on the title page.
4. The world is divided into NAVAREAS for the dissemination of important marine information. Which
NAVAREAS include the Indonesian?
XI
5. Define the required interval between position fixes.
Such that the vessel cannot be set appreciable off course, or into danger by the effects of wind, tide or
current
6. The latest edition of a chart can be found from
The chart catalogue
7. A cumulative list of notices to mariners are published _____ a year.
Four times
8. You are asked to find if a particular port you are expected to visit has an Indian Embassy. Which of these
publications would you consult?
Guide to Port Entry
9. Your chart indicates that there is an isolated rock and names the rock using vertical letters. This indicates
the __________.
Rock is dry at high water
10. When the range of a ship is decreasing and its bearing remains constant,the ships are on:
Collision courses
11. According to the recommendations of International Navigational Congress in 1912, the ratio of length to
width at the entrance for cargo vessels is
7.4 and 7.8 to 1
12. Which one of the following land marks on the coast line must be depicted on hydrographic maps ?
All the above
13. Pick up the correct statement from the following:
All the above
14. A vessel is steaming in east longitude on January 25 and crosses the International Date Line on an
eastbound course at 0900 zone time. What is the date and time at Greenwich when the vessel crosses
the line?
2100, 24 January
15. The period at high or low tide during which there is no change in the height of the water is called the __.
Stand of the tide
16. Spring tides are tides that __________.
Have lows higher than normal and highs lower than normal
17. Mean high water is the reference plane used for __________.
Heights above water of land features such as lights
18. The range of tide is the __________.
Difference between the heights of high and low tide
19. The reference datum used in determining the heights of land features on most charts is __________.
Mean high water
20. Charted depth is the __________.
Vertical distance from the chart sounding datum to the ocean bottom
21. The datum from which the predicted heights of tides are reckoned in the tide tables is __________.
The same as that used for the charts of the locality
22. When operated over a muddy bottom, a fathometer may indicate __________.
Two depth readings
23. When the moon is at first quarter or third quarter phase, what type of tides will occur?
Neap
24. Priming of the tides occurs __________.
When the Moon is between new and first quarter and between full and third quarter
25. Region grooves traffic for ships does range TSS Traffic in shore's lines, traffic corresponds to that region
is :
Traffic lines
26. Lines which shall follow for the ships to entering or outer an area
Leading lines
27. All bridge member shall attended if there is available changing to passage plan :
All the above
28. Route with prescribed bounds where ships shall get navigations with extra caution is
Precautionary area
29. Which stages following Apraisal stage of passage planning :
Planning, execution and monitoring
30. Area which may not navigate to get bearing with depth and danger of navigation is :
No Go Area
31. Area which shall be avoided by all ships or for ship by clasification indeed is :
Coution Area
32. A point given at navigational charts to revamp bow before ship arriving at way point's is :
Wheel Over Point
33. Under the IALA - A Buoyage System, a buoy used as a port hand mark would not show which light
characteristic?
Group Flashing (2 + 1)
34. When possible, a DR plot should always be started from where?
A known position
35. The scale on a chart is given as 1:5,000,000. This means that __________.
1 inch is equal to 5,000,000 inches on the Earth's surface
36. A ship is in longitude 54°00'W on a true course of 270°. The ship's clocks are on the proper time zone. At
what longitude should the clocks be changed to maintain the proper zone time?
67°30'W
37. Which statement is TRUE concerning apogean tides?
They have a decreased range from normal.
38. Safe water buoys may show ONLY __________.
White lights
39. The description "Racon" beside an illustration on a chart would mean a
Radar transponder beacon
40. The shoreline on charts generally represents the mean __________.
High water line
41. On March 17, at 0500 zone time, you cross the 180th meridian steaming eastward to west longitude.
What is your local time?
It is 0500, March 16
.
42. You are entering port and have been instructed to anchor, as your berth is not yet available. You are on a
SW'ly heading, preparing to drop anchor, when you observe the range lights as shown on your starboard
beam. You should __________.
Ensure your ship will NOT block the channel or obstruct the range while at anchor
43. A position obtained by crossing lines of position taken at different times and advanced to a common
time is a(n) __________.
Running fix
44. A buoy marking a wreck will show a(n) __________.
White light FL (2) and a topmark of 2 black spheres
45. A coastal passage or voyage plan should indicate the appropriate methods of determining positions and
include which of the following?
All of these suggested answers
46. Can voyage planning be executed on ECDIS?
Only if approved by the Flag State
47. What should you apply to a fathometer reading to determine the depth of water?
Add the draft of the vessel.
48. A chart with a natural scale of 1:160,000 is classified as a __________.
General chart
49. Tropic tides are caused by the __________.
Moon being at its maximum declination
50. An important lunar cycle affecting the tidal cycle is called the nodal perio How long is this cycle?
19 years
51. The class of tide that prevails in the greatest number of important harbors on the Atlantic Coast is ___.
Semidiurnal
52. To make sure of getting the full advantage of a favorable current, you should reach an entrance or strait
at what time in relation to the predicted time of the favorable current?
30 minutes before the predicted time
53. IN REGION A of the IALA Buoyage System, when entering from seaward, the port side of a channel
would be marked by a __________.
Red can buoy
54. The depth of water on a chart is indicated as 23 meters. This is equal to __________.
12.6 fathoms
55. Which chart projection would be most suitable for marine surveying?
Mercator
56. As your vessel is heading southward along the east coast of the United States, you encounter a buoy
showing a red flashing light. How should you pass this buoy?
Leave it to your starboar
57. Which statement about a simple conic chart projection is TRUE?
The scale is correct along any meridian.
58. Your dead reckoning position should be plotted __________.
Whenever an estimated position is plotted
59. A pilot chart does NOT contain information about __________.
Tidal currents
60. Where will you find information about the duration of slack water?
Tidal Current Tables
61. All of the following can be found on a Pilot Chart EXCEPT information concerning the __________.
Amounts of precipitation
62. If you were sailing in the North Pacific and were interested in the ice and iceberg limits, you could find
this information in the __________.
Pilot Chart
63. When using a Lambert conformal chart in high latitudes, angles such as bearings are measured in
reference to __________.
The meridian through the ship's position
64. The marking A is __________.
Altering course
65. The marking B is ___________.
Paralell index
66. The marking C is ___________.
Way point
67. Which statement is TRUE concerning the Inland Navigation Rules?
All of the above
68. During the survey of Long Range Identification and Tracking (LRIT) equipment, which document must be
available to the surveyor to demonstrate compliance with SOLAS?
A report giving the result of the Performance Test, issued by the manufacturer in compliance with the
Flag State Authority requirements.
69. How often is the performance check of a Voyage Data Recorder by a competent person required under
SOLAS?
Annually.
70. A traffic separation zone is that part of a traffic separation scheme which __________.
Separates traffic proceeding in one direction from traffic proceeding in the opposite direction
71. A vessel using a traffic separation scheme shall __________.
Avoid crossing traffic lanes, but if obliged to do so, shall cross on as small an angle as is practical
72. A vessel using a traffic separation scheme shall NOT __________.
Proceed in an inappropriate traffic lane
73. BOTH INTERNATIONAL & A traffic separation zone is that part of a traffic separation scheme which __.
Separates traffic proceeding in one direction from traffic proceeding in the opposite direction
74. The date is the same all over the world at __________.
1200 GMT
75. What describes an accurate position that is NOT based on any prior position?
Fix
76. If the radio signal ground wave extends out for less distance than the minimum skywave distance, there
is an area in which no signal is receive This is called the __________.
Skip zone
77. How many fixed objects are needed to plot a running fix?
One
78. The part of a sextant mounted directly over the pivot of the index arm is the __________.
Index mirror
79. The horizon glass of a sextant is __________.
Silvered on its half nearer the frame
80. The difference between local apparent time (LAT) and local mean time (LMT) is indicated by the _____.
Equation of time
81. Which aid is NOT marked on a chart with a magenta circle?
Aero light
82. The equation of time is 8m 40s. The apparent Sun is ahead of the mean Sun. If you are on the central
meridian of your time zone, the apparent Sun will cross your meridian at __________.
11-51-20 ZT
83. When using GPS, how many theoretical position lines are required for a threedimensional fix that takes
into account altitude?
4
84. Which of the four adjustable errors in the sextant is the principle cause of index error?
Index mirror and horizon glass not being parallel
85. It is 1200 local time for an observer at 54°E l ongitude. Which statement is TRUE?
The observer is in time zone -4.
86. Which of the four adjustable errors in the sextant causes side error?
Horizon glass not being perpendicular to the frame
87. The marine sextant is subject to seven different types of errors, four of which may be corrected by the
navigator. An error NOT correctable by the navigator is __________.
Prismatic error
88. The true wind is from 330°T, speed 6 knots. You want the apparent wind to be 30 knots from 10° on your
port bow. To what course and speed must you change?
Cn 090°, 32.5 knots
89. What is a nonadjustable error of the sextant?
Prismatic error
90. The difference (measured in degrees) between the GHA of the body and the longitude of the observer is
the __________.
Meridian angle
91. In order to remove index error from a sextant, you should adjust the __________.
Horizon glass to make it parallel to the index mirror with the index set at zero
92. The position accuracy of Loran-C degrades with increasing distance from the transmitting stations as __.
A result of variation in propagation conditions
93. The index error is determined by adjusting the __________.
Micrometer drum
94. What is the geographic longitude of a body whose GHA is 232°27'?
127°33'E
95. A polyconic projection is based on a __________.
Series of cones tangent at selected parallels
96. A marine sextant has the index arm set at zero and the reflected image of the horizon forms a continuous
line with the actual image. When the sextant is rotated about the line of sight the images separate. The
sextant has __________.
Side error
97. A navigator fixing a vessel's position by radar __________.
Can use radar information from one object to fix the position
98. During the month of October the Sun's declination is __________.
South and increasing
99. A ship's position is best plotted by bearings from ____________.
Fixed known objects on the shore
100. In Loran C ___________.
The master station transmits 9 pulses and the secondary stations transmit 8 pulses each
101. In Mercator sailing ________.
D'long / DMP = Tan course
102. The Decca green zone has ________.
18 lanes
103. A vertical sextant angle gives _________.
The height of a bridge above sea level
104. The SHA of star "VEGA" to the nearest minute is _______.
80⁰ 47'
105. Coastal radio navigational warnings are issued _____.
By port and harbour authorities within their respective limits
106. The azimuth of a body whose LHA is 195? Will be _____.
Southerly
107. Which of the following methods do you think will give the most accurate ship’S position?
Two distances off two objects subtending an angle of about 90 degrees.
108. When calibrating a sextant for Index Error using the Sun the micrometer reading 'off the arc' was 32.8'
and on the arc was 32.0'. What is the index error of the sextant?
0.8' on the arc
109. The LHA of the body when on the observer's meridian is _______.
360⁰
110. Your DR latitude is 10⁰ S. A body whose declination in 20⁰ S when setting makes an angle of 30⁰ At the
observer's zenith. What is its azimuth?
330⁰
111. The chronometer which was losing 8 seconds every day was 4m 48s fast on GMT on 20th March. What
will be the error on 4th April?
6m 48s
112. The method used to plot ship?S position when only one navigational mark is available and radar cannot
be used to find the distance off is called ____________.
A running fix
113. A fixed quantity of Mercury will weigh more at ___________.
30⁰ N Latitude
114. When the equation of time is taken from the Nautical Almanac for use in celestial navigation, it is used to
determine __________.
Time of local apparent noon
115. 90° - Ho = __________.
Zenith distance
116. The values of the Greenwich hour angle and declination, tabulated in all almanacs, are for the ______.
Centers of the various celestial bodies
117. When using horizontal sextant angles of three objects to fix your position, an indeterminate position will
result in which situation?
A circle will pass through your position and the three objects
118. When navigating in high latitudes and using a chart based on a Lambert conformal projection, _______.
A straight line drawn on the chart approximates a great circle
119. The height of eye correction is smaller than geometrical dip because of __________.
Terrestrial refraction
120. For what purpose would using a Lambert conformal chart be more convenient than using a Mercator?
Plotting radio bearings over a long distance
121. When applying a dip correction to the sighted sextant angle (hs), you always subtract the dip because
you are correcting __________.
Hs to the sensible horizon
122. A correction for augmentation is included in the Nautical Almanac corrections for __________.
The Moon
123. A semidiameter correction is applied to observations of __________.
The Moon
124. A gnomonic projection is based on a(n) __________.
Plane tangent at one point
125. You are approaching a light fitted with a RACON. The light may be identified on the radar by ______.
A coded signal appearing on the same bearing at a greater range than the Light
126. The error in the measurement of the altitude of a celestial body, caused by refraction, increases as the
Altitude of the body decreases
127. A line of position derived by radar range from an identified point on a coast will be a(n) __________.
Arc
128. The small circle of the celestial sphere parallel to the celestial equator, and transcribed by the daily
motion of the body, is called the __________.
Parallel of declination
129. With regard to GPS, a civilian receiver may be capable of achieving the same accuracy as a military
receiver if __________.
Selective availability is set to zero
130. In the celestial equator system of coordinates, what is comparable to latitude on the terrestrial sphere?
Declination
131. A line of position formed by sighting two charted objects in line is called a(n) __________.
Range line
132. At about GMT 1436, on 3 December 1981, the lower limb of the Moon is observed with a sextant having
an index error of 2.5' on the ar The height of eye is 32 feet. The sextant altitude (hs) is 3°38.8'. W hat is
the observed altitude
Ho 4°29.1'
133. On 21 January 1981, you observe a back sight of the Sun's lower lim The sextant altitude (hs) is
121°31.5'. The index error is 2.5' on the ar The he ight of eye is 31 feet (9.3 meters). What is the
observed altitude (Ho)?
58°53.1'
134. What great circle is always needed to form the astronomical triangle?
Celestial Meridian
135. On 16 January 1981, you take a sight of a star. The sextant altitude (hs) is 4°33.0'. The tempera ture is -
10°C, and the barometer reads 992 millibars. The he ight of eye is 42 feet. The index error is 1.9' off the
ar What is the observed altitude (Ho)?
4°17.0'
136. To measure distance on a Mercator chart between the parallels of LAT 34°30'N and LAT 31°30'N, whi ch
30 mile scale should be used?
32°45'N to 33°15'N
137. Radar makes the most accurate determination of the __________.
Distance to a target
138. You plot a fix using three lines of position and find they intersect in a triangle. The actual position of the
vessel __________.
May be inside or outside of the triangle
139. The magnitude of three stars is indicate Which star is the brightest?
Altair + 0.9
140. Concerning a celestial observation, the azimuth angle is measured from the principal vertical circle to the
Vertical circle of the body
141. You are on course 238°T. To check the course o f your vessel you should observe a celestial body on
which bearing?
328°
142. A line connecting all possible positions of your vessel at any given time is a __________.
Line of position
143. When using GPS without Selective Availability, you may expect your horizontal accuracy to be better
than __________.
20 meters
144. Which data must ECDIS be able to record at one-minute intervals?
All of the above
145. With respect to failure warnings and status indications, GPS receivers shouldprovide, at a minimum, __.
All of the above
146. Which feature, when set to zero, might allow a GPS unit to have an accuracy equivalent to Precise
Positioning Service receiver capability?
Selective Availability
147. The highest level of commercial navigational accuracy is provided by __________.
DGPS, within a coverage area
148. Which statement about gyrocompass error is TRUE?
The sign (E or W) of the error will change with different headings of the ship.
149. The most accurate method of determining gyrocompass error while underway is by
Comparing the gyro azimuth of a celestial body with the computed azimuth of the body
150. To find a magnetic course from a true course you must apply __________.
Variation
151. Magnetic information on a chart may be __________.
All of the above
152. Horizon earth rate causes a free spinning gyro to appear to __________ to
Slow down
153. If your gyro compass reads 20 degrees lower than your magnetic compass
The gyro is experiencing a large amount of deviation
154. Gyroscopic inertia is that force which causes a gyroscope to
Spin very rapidly
155. Vertical earth rate is
Maximum at the poles
156. A torque applied carefully to one of the rings housing a gyro will cause the gyro to
Swing wildly about
157. The earth‘s magnetic field is
The only force effecting a magnetic compass
158. While your vessel is proceeding down a channel you notice a range of ligths in line with your mast. If your
vessel on a course of 001° per gyro compass and the charted value of the range of lights is 359° T, wh at
is the gyro error ?
2° W
159. Your vessel is proceeding up a channel, and you see a pair of range lights that are in line ahea The chart
indicates that the direction of this pair of lights is 311° T, and the variation is 8° E. If the headi ng of your
vessel at the time of sighting is 305° PSC, what is the correct deviation ?
2° W
160. You are heading 328° PGC to make good a course of 332° T, correcting for 3° of leeway due to
southwesterly winds and 1° E gyro error. If the var iation is 17° E, what should the heading be to make
good 332°T. If you were steering by magnetic compas s ?
DEVIATION TABLE
315° MAGNETIC HEADING DEVIATION
161. Magnetism which is present only when the material is under the influence of an external field is called
Induced magnetism
162. You are swinging ship to determine the residual deviation by comparing the magnetic compass against
the gyrocompass. The gyro error is 2° W. The variat ion is 8° W. After completing the swinging you have
the following readings :
HEADING HEADING HEADING
PSC - PGC PSC - PGC PSC - PGC
358.5° - 354° 122.5° -114° 239.5° -234°
030.5° - 024° 152.0° -144° 269.0° -264°
What is the deviation on a true heading of 157° ?
0°
163. Your vessel is steering course 216°psc, variat ion for the area is 9° W, and the deviation is 2° E . The wind
is from the east, proceeding a 5° leeway. What true course are you making good ?
343°
164. Your ship is proceeding on course 320°T at a s peed of 25 knots. The apparent wind is from 30° off the
starboard bow, speed 32 knots. What is the relative direction, true direction and speed of the true wind?
Relative 80°true 040°T, 16.2 knots
165. The compass heading of a vessel differs from the true heading by __________.
Compass error
166. How many degrees are there on a compass card?
360°
167. When applying chest compressions on an adult victim during CPR, the sternum should be depressed
about __________.
1-1/2 to 2 inches
168. If an inflatable liferaft is overturned, it may be righted by __________.
Standing on the inflating cylinder and pulling on the straps on the underside of the raft
169. On surface type offshore drilling units, each survival craft must be capable of being launched to the water
at the minimum operating draft, under unfavorable conditions of trim and with the unit listed not less than
20°
170. Changing rescuers while carrying out artificial respiration should be done __________.
Without losing the rhythm of respiration
171. You have abandoned ship and are in an inflatable raft that has just inflate You hear a continuous hissing
coming from a fitting in a buoyancy tube. What is the cause of this?
Excess inflation pressure is bleeding off and should soon stop.
173. The MOST important element in administering CPR is __________.
Starting the treatment quickly
174. Where on your vessel shall the recharge for each self-contained breathing apparatus be carried?
The same location as the equipment it reactivates
175. To disengage a survival craft suspended from the cable above the water, you must pull the safety pin and
Pull the hook release handle and use the ratchet bar
176. A liferaft which has inflated bottom-up on the water __________.
Should be righted by standing on the carbon dioxide cylinder, holding the righting straps, and leaning
backwards
177. If you must abandon a rig in VERY HEAVY SEAS, in a survival craft, when should you remove the safety
pin and pull the hook release?
Immediately upon launching
178. If more than one raft is manned after the vessel has sunk, you should __________.
Tie the rafts together and try to stay in a single group
179. If, for any reason, it is necessary to abandon ship while far out at sea, it is important that the crew
members should __________.
Remain together in the area because rescuers will start searching at the vessel's last known position
180. You are underway when a fire breaks out in the forward part of your vessel. If possible, you should ___.
Put the vessel's stern into the wind
181. You have just abandoned ship and boarded a raft. After the raft is completely inflated you hear a whistling
noise coming from a safety valve. You should __________.
Not become alarmed unless it continues for a long period of time
182. You hear air escaping from the liferaft just after it has inflate You should __________.
Not panic since the safety valves allow excess pressure to escape
183. If you are in urgent need of a helicopter, which signal code should you send?
BR
184. Which is TRUE concerning immersion suits and their use?
They provide sufficient flotation to do away with the necessity of wearing a life jacket.
185. If you are forced to abandon ship in a lifeboat, you should __________.
Remain in the immediate vicinity
186. Which emergency is required to be covered at the required periodic drills on a fishing vessel?
Recovering an individual from the water
187. Marine Operators, when calling a ship on VHF-FM radiotelephone, normally call on channel ________.
16
188. According to the "Vessel Bridge-to-Bridge Radiotelephone Act", your radiotelephone log must contain
A summary of all distress calls and messages
189. Each small passenger vessel that operates on the high seas, or beyond 3 miles from the coastline of the
Great Lakes must have a Category 1 406 mhz EPIRB that __________.
Will float free and clear of a sinking vessel and automatically activate
190. You are making ship-to-shore telephone calls on VHF. You should use the __________.
VHF-FM service
191. The radiotelephone required by the "Vessel Bridge-to-Bridge Radiotelephone Act" is for the exclusive use
of __________.
All of the above
192. Which statement relating to AMVER (Automated Mutual-assistance Vessel Rescue) is TRUE?
There is no cost to the ship or owner for messages sent within the AMVER system.
193. Why are lifeboats usually double-enders?
They are more seaworthy and less likely to be swamped or broach to.
194. An unconscious person should NOT be __________.
Given something to drink
195. While underway, if you are required to have a radiotelephone, you must maintain a continuous listening
watch on channel __________.
16 (156.8 mhz)
196. You hear on the radiotelephone the word "Securite" spoken three times. This indicates that ________.
A message about the safety of navigation will follow
197. The VHF radiotelephone calling/safety/distress frequency is __________.
156.8 mhz (channel 16)
198. Your vessel has been damaged and is taking on water, but you do not require immediate assistance. You
would preface a message advising other vessels of your situation with __________.
Pan-Pan (3 times)
199. In radiotelephone communications, the prefix PAN-PAN indicates that __________.
A calling station has an urgent message about the safety of a person
200. The length of the steering oar in a lifeboat is __________.
Longer than the rowing oars
201. A motor lifeboat shall carry sufficient fuel to operate continuously for a period of __________.
24 hours
202. Which item of lifeboat equipment would be most suitable for night signaling to a ship on the horizon?
A red parachute flare
203. Which word is an international distress signal when transmitted by radiotelephone?
Mayday
204. On every vessel, distress signals must be stowed __________.
On or near the navigating bridge
205. A vessel is described as a two compartment vessel when it __________.
Will float if any two adjacent compartments are flooded
206. You are approaching another vessel and see that she has the signal flag "F" hoiste What should you do?
Attempt to call the vessel on VHF radiotelephone because she is disable
207. Which statement is TRUE concerning distress signals in a lifeboat?
Hand held flares and orange smoke signals are require
208. An inflatable liferaft equipped with a SOLAS B pack must be stowed __________.
So as to float free
209. An oiler was badly burned and you are communicating with a passenger ship that has a doctor and
hospital on boar You want to rendezvous in a certain position so the oiler can be evacuated for medical
treatment. Which code should your message contain?
MAB
210. The abandon ship signal on the ship's whistle is __________.
More than 6 short blasts and 1 long blast
211. You have an AB who has become violently ill, and you are requesting urgent medical advice. Your
message should contain which code?
MAA
212. On small passenger vessels electrical equipment in spaces that contain gasoline powered machinery
must be __________.
All of the above
213. You hear the general alarm and ship's whistle sound for over 10 seconds. Traditionally, this is the signal
for __________.
Fire and emergency
214. Traditionally, the signal for fire aboard ship is __________.
Continuous sounding of the ship's whistle and the general alarm for at least 10 seconds
215. You receive a medical message that contains the code MSJ. This means "_____."
Place patient in hot bath
216. While reading the muster list you see that "3 short blasts on the whistle and 3 short rings on the general
alarm bells" is the signal for __________.
Dismissal from fire and emergency stations
217. If a crew member that was ill has died, which code should your message contain?
MPR
218. If you reach shore in a liferaft, the first thing to do is __________.
Drag the raft ashore and lash it down for a shelter
219. The Coast Guard determines how many passengers are permitted on a "T-Boat" by applying the ____.
Any or a combination of the above criteria
220. You are at sea in an inflatable liferaft. In high latitudes, the greatest danger is __________.
Hypothermia caused by cold temperature
221. The primary concern in aiding a back injury patient is __________.
Avoiding possible injury to the spinal cord by incorrect handling
222. All OSV personnel should be familiar with survival craft __________.
Boarding and operating procedures
223. Provided every effort is used to produce, as well as preserve body moisture content by avoiding
perspiration, how long is it normally possible to survive without stored quantities of water?
8 to 14 days
224. If help has not arrived in 10-12 hours after having abandoned an OSV in a survival craft, you should
Shutdown the engines and put out the sea anchor
225. If you have to abandon ship, and enter a liferaft, your main course of action should be to ________.
Remain in the vicinity of the sinking vessel
226. When abandoning an OSV, following the launching of the survival craft you should __________.
Stay in the immediate area
227. To keep injured survivors warm in the water after abandoning an OSV, when no rescue craft is in sight,
they should __________.
Be placed in the middle of a small circle formed by the other survivors in the water
228. If there are a number of survivors in the water after abandoning an OSV and no rescue craft are in sight,
they should __________.
Group to form a small circle of survivors to create a warmer pocket of water in the center of the circle
229. Once the daily ration of drinking water in a survival situation has been established, the drinking routine
should include __________.
One-third the daily ration three times during the day
230. The rescue boat on an OSV shall carry a tow line strong enough to tow the vessel's largest loaded liferaft
at a speed of at least __________.
2 knot
231. Immediately after abandoning a vessel, lookouts should be posted aboard liferafts to look for _____.
Survivors in the water
232. What is one of the FIRST things you would do on boarding an inflatable liferaft?
Pick up other survivors
233. You have abandoned your vessel. You are in a liferaft and have cleared away from your vessel. One of
your FIRST actions should be to __________.
Search for survivors
234. You are Sen.Off.Deck onboard a merchant vessel. During the night you have been in a collision with a
sail boat and there are no signs of life in the water. What would you do?
Alarm the rescue centre and commence searching for any survivors
235. You are enroute to assist vessel Vessel A is underway at 6 knots on course 133°T, and bears 042°T , 105
miles from you. What is the time to intercept if you make 10 knots?
12h 58m
236. You are enroute to assist vessel Vessel A is underway at 5.5 knots on course 033°T, and bears 284 °T at
43 miles from you. What is the course to steer at 16 knots to intercept vessel A?
303°
237. Would the indicated speed, as shown on a Ground Tracking Doppler Log, be suitable for berthing the
vessel?
The approach speed is too fast.
138. Your ship is approaching the berth as illustrated and has a right handed propeller and no thrusters. What
could be a method to retain full control of the vessel as it comes alongside?
Let go starboard anchor to about 1 shackle on deck
139. As a probable result of being in collision with your vessel, the other vessel involved is on fire? What are
your responsibilities to the other vessel?
After checking the extent of the damage and welfare of your crew, if possible your vessel should standby
and offer assistance, until being relieved of that obligation by the other vessel.
240. Ship A is fully loaded with iron ore and is navigating in a coastal region when it is in collision with ship B,
causing ship A to take in water in several holds. What is the best course of action by ship A to save the
vessel and the cargo?
Put the ship aground on a soft sandy bottom as soon as possible
241. The engines have failed and will require at least 24 hours to be available as a reliable means of
propulsion. Your vessel is about 20 miles off the coast in a tidal are What are the initial steps that should
be taken to ensure the safety of the ship?
Display NUC lights and investigate the tidal flow over the next 24 hours and the probable drift of the
vessel.
242. The vessel is passing through the English Channel when the ARPA radars fail completely and navigation
must continue without any operational radars. Should there be any changes to your passage plan or
bridge procedures. Your vessel is equipped with an operational ECDIS
Increase the officers on the bridge to allow greater use of visual navigation
243. You are Sen.Off.Deck / Duty officer onboard one of the vessels involved in a collision. What will your
actions be following the collision?
Make sure your vessel + crew are safe and then offer your assistance to the other vessel
244. You are Sen.Off.Deck onboard a merchant vessel. During the night you have been in a collision with a
sail boat and there are no signs of life in the water. What would you do?
245. Your vessel has been in involved in a collision with an other vessel. As Master responsible for the ship
and persons on board, what is the first step to take?
Organise someone to assess the extent of damage and the residual stability of the vessel.
246. When displayed under a single-span fixed bridge, red lights indicate __________.
The channel boundaries
247. Your vessel is involved in a collision with another vessel. What should you as Master tell the Master on
the other vessel?
Name; Port of registry; Port of destination of your vessel.
248. Your vessel is progressing within a Traffic Separation Scheme and receives a navigational warning of
another vessel progressing the wrong way within the scheme. What actions should be taken on the
bridge, if any?
Use the Arpa for early identification of all other ship movements within the traffic lane and give rogue
vessel a wide berth
249. When you are steering on a pair of range lights and find the upper light is above the lower light you
should __________.
Continue on the present course
250. Your vessel has been in collision and it is uncertain whether the vessel has the required residual stability
to remain afloat. After sounding the general alarm on board and informing the nearest Coast Radio
Station of your situation, what other immediate steps should be taken?
Complete soundings of all compartments to determine the number of compartments floode
251. You have replaced the chart paper in the course recorder. What is NOT required to ensure that a correct
trace is recorded?
Test the electrical gain to the thermograph pens
252. You are approaching a swing bridge at night. You will know that the bridge is open for river traffic when
The red light changes to green
253. You are underway on course 050°T and your maxi mum speed is 12 knots. The eye of a hurricane bears
120°T, 110 miles from your position. The hurricane is moving towards 285°T at 25 knots. If you
maneuver at 12 knots to avoid the hurricane, what could be the maximum CPA?
77 miles
254. You are approaching a multiple-span bridge at night. The main navigational channel span will be
indicated by __________.
3 white lights in a vertical line in the center of the span
255. When approaching a preferred-channel buoy, the best channel is NOT indicated by the ________.
Light characteristic
256. A buoy with a composite group-flashing light indicates a(n) __________.
Bifurcation
257. When using an echo sounder in deep water, it is NOT unusual to __________.
Receive a strong return at about 200 fathoms (366 meters) during the day, and one nearer the surface
at night
258. You are underway on course 050°T and your maxi mum speed is 12 knots. The eye of a hurricane bears
080°T, 100 miles from your position. The hurricane is moving towards 265°T at 22 knots. If you
maneuver at 12 knots to avoid the hurricane, what could be the maximum CPA?
63 miles
259. Two navigational hazards are located near to each other, but each is marked by an individual cardinal
buoyage system. The buoys of one cardinal system may be identified from the other system by ____.
The difference in the periods of the light
260. Buoys are marked with reflective material to assist in their detection by searchlight. Which statement is
TRUE?
A preferred-channel buoy displays either red or green reflective material to agree with the top band of
color.
261. In a narrow channel, you are underway on vessel "A" and desire to overtake vessel "B". After you sound
two short blasts on your whistle, vessel "B" sounds five short and rapid blasts on the whistle. You should
Hold your relative position, and then sound another signal after the situation has stabilized
262. A vessel proceeding downstream in a narrow channel on the Western Rivers sights another vessel
moving upstream. Which vessel has the right of way?
The vessel moving downstream with a following current
263. A vessel displaying a flashing blue light is __________.
A law enforcement vessel
264. Which statement is TRUE concerning narrow channels?
You should avoid anchoring in a narrow channel.
265. Which term is NOT defined in the Inland Navigation Rules?
Vessel constrained by her draft
266. You have made your vessel up to a tow and are moving from a pier out into the main channel. Your
engines are turning ahea What whistle signal should you sound?
One prolonged blast
267. Under the Inland Navigation Rules, what is the meaning of the two short blasts signal used when meeting
another vessel?
"I intend to leave you on my starboard side."
268. A power-driven vessel crossing a river on the Western Rivers has the right of way over __________.
None of the above
269. Which lights are required for a barge, not part of a composite unit, being pushed ahead?
Sidelights and a special flashing light
270. A power-driven vessel operating in a narrow channel with a following current on the Great Lakes or
Western Rivers is meeting an upbound vessel. Which statement is TRUE?
All of the above
271. Your vessel is proceeding down a channel, and can safely navigate only within the channel. Another
vessel is crossing your bow from port to starboard, and you are in doubt as to her intentions. Which
statement is TRUE?
The sounding of the danger signal is mandatory.
272. The stand-on vessel in a crossing situation sounds one short blast of the whistle. This means that the
vessel __________.
Intends to leave the other on her port side
273. You are crossing the course of another vessel which is to your starboar You have reached an agreement
by radiotelephone to pass astern of the other vessel. You MUST __________.
None of the above
274. Passing signals shall be sounded on inland waters by __________.
A power-driven vessel when crossing less than half a mile ahead of another power-driven vessel
275. Your vessel is meeting another vessel head-on. To comply with the rules, you should exchange ___.
One short blast, alter course to starboard, and pass port to port
276. A fleet of moored barges extends into a navigable channel. What is the color of the lights on the barges?
White
277. A barge more than 50 meters long is required to show how many white anchor lights when anchored in a
Secretary approved "special anchorage area"?
2
278. You are on vessel "B" and vessel "A" desires to overtake you on your starboard side as shown. After the
vessels have exchanged one blast signals, you should __________.
Hold course and speed
279. Which type of vessel is NOT mentioned in the Inland Navigation Rules?
280. You are operating a vessel through a narrow channel and your vessel must stay within the channel to be
navigated safely. Another vessel is crossing your course from starboard to port, and you are in doubt as
to her intentions. You __________.
Must sound the danger signal
281. Which indicates the presence of a partly submerged object being towed?
All of the above
282. The light used to signal passing intentions is a(n) __________.
All-round white or yellow light
283. Two vessels in a crossing situation have reached agreement by radiotelephone as to the intentions of the
other. In this situation, whistle signals are __________.
Not required, but may be sounded
284. Which statement is TRUE concerning the fog signal of a vessel 15 meters in length, anchored in a
"special anchorage area" approved by the Secretary?
The vessel is not required to sound a fog signal.
285. Power-driven vessel, when leaving a dock or berth, is required to sound __________.
One prolonged blast
286. Vessels "A" and "B" are meeting on a river as shown and will pass about 1/4 mile apart. Which statement
is TRUE?
The vessels should exchange two blast whistle signals and pass starboard to starboar
287. Whistle signals shall be exchanged by vessels in sight of one another when __________.
They are passing within half a mile of each other
288. You are on vessel "A" and vessel "B" desires to overtake you on the starboard side as shown. After the
vessels have exchanged one blast signals you should __________.
Hold course and speed
289. You are approaching a sharp bend in a river. You have sounded a prolonged blast and it has been
answered by a vessel on the other side of the ben Which statement is TRUE?
Both vessels must exchange passing signals when in sight and passing within one-half mile of each
other.
290. Which statement is TRUE concerning a passing agreement made by radiotelephone?
If agreement is reached by radiotelephone, whistle signals are optional
291. INLAND ONLY You are aboard the stand-on vessel in a crossing situation. You sound a one blast whistle
signal. The give-way vessel answers with a two blast whistle signal. You should sound the danger signal
and __________.
Take precautionary action until a safe passing agreement is made
292. IN REGION A of the IALA Buoyage System, when entering from seaward, the starboard side of a
channel would be marked by a __________.
Green conical buoy
293. What information is NOT found in the chart title?
Date of first edition
294. When may the automatic identification system (AIS) be switched off?
At the Master's professional judgment
295. You are plotting a running fix in an area where there is a determinable current. How should this current
be treated in determining the position?
The course and speed made good should be determined and used to advance the LOP.
296. If several navigational lights are visible at the same time, each one may be positively identified by
checking all of the following EXCEPT what against the Light List?
Intensity
297. You are enroute to Jacksonville, FL, from San Juan, P.R. There is a fresh n'ly wind blowing. As you cross
the axis of the Gulf Stream you would expect to encounter __________.
298. The most common form of solid precipitation is ?
Snow
299. cloud whose name has the prefix nimbo- or the suffix –nimbus is
Rain-producing
300. What air masses generally move eastward, toward Europe?
Maritime polar Atlantic
301. Storms along a cold front are usually short-lived and sometimes violent, while storms along a warm front
Produce precipitation over a large area, and are sometimes violent.
302. Which of the following statements describes what happens when the sun heats water and land?
Water heats more slowly than land does.
303. The dew point is the temperature at which the rate of condensation
Equals the rate of evaporation
304. Continental polar, maritime polar, continental tropical, and maritime tropical are types of
air masses.
305. Weather map symbols H and L indicate
air pressure centers.
306. Fog differs from clouds in that fog
forms closer to the groun
307. Lightning causes a rapid expansion and collapse of the air that produces
Thunder.
308. Which of the following is not one of the three properties used by meteorologists to classify clouds.
Cloud, Composition
309. Which of the following would not be true concerning temperature change taking place in a parcel of air at
the dry adiabatic lapse rate.
The temperature rises as the parcel
310. Which of the following is true of a parcel of air but not true of theenvironment
Changes temperature with altitude at either the dry or moist adiabatic rates
311. The steady current circling the globe at about 60°S is the
West Wind Drift
312. Weather systems in the middle latitudes generally travel from __________.
West to east
313. Current refers to the __________.
Horizontal movement of the water
314. In the Northern Hemisphere, your vessel is believed to be in the direct path of a hurricane, and plenty of
sea room is available. The best course of action is to bring the wind on the __________.
Starboard quarter, note the course, and head in that direction
315. The precession of the equinoxes occurs in a(n) __________.
Westerly direction
316. A steep barometric gradient indicates __________.
Strong winds
317. A sea breeze is a wind __________.
That blows towards an island during the day
318. What is the FIRST sign of the existence of a well developed tropical cyclone?
An unusually long ocean swell
319. Temperature and moisture characteristics are modified in a warm or cold air mass due to __________.
Movement of the air mass
320. The appearance of nimbostratus clouds in the immediate vicinity of a ship at sea would be accompanied
by which of the following conditions?
Rain and poor visibility
321. Which condition exists at the summer solstice in the Northern Hemisphere?
The Southern Hemisphere is having winter
322. Uniform, grayish-white cloud sheets that cover large portions of the sky, and are responsible for a large
percentage of the precipitation in the temperate latitudes, are called __________.
Altostratus
323. Anticyclones are usually characterized by __________.
Dry, fair weather
324. Altocumulus clouds are defined as __________.
Middle clouds
325. A generally circular low pressure area is called a(n) __________.
Cyclone
326. Cold water flowing southward through the western part of the Bering Strait between Alaska and Siberia is
joined by water circulating counterclockwise in the Bering Sea to form the __________.
Oyashio Current
327. Which cloud type is normally associated with thunderstorms?
Cumulonimbus
328. The circulation around a low pressure center in the Northern Hemisphere is __________.
Counterclockwise
329. Recurvature of a hurricane's track usually results in the forward speed __________.
Increasing
330. All of the following are associated with cumulonimbus clouds EXCEPT __________.
Steady rainfall
331. In the Northern Hemisphere, an area of counterclockwise wind circulation surrounded by higher pressure
is a __________.
Low
332. If the sky was clear, with the exception of a few cumulus clouds, it would indicate __________.
Fair weather
333. Stormy weather is usually associated with regions of __________.
Low barometric pressure
334. The form of cloud often known as "mackerel sky" which is generally associated with fair weather is ___.
Cirrocumulus
335. When a low pressure area is approaching, the weather generally __________.
Worsens
336. Clouds that form as small white flakes or scaly globular masses covering either small or large portions of
the sky are __________.
Cirrocumulus
337. A cyclone in its final stage of development is called a(n) __________.
Occluded cyclone or occluded front
338. High clouds, composed of small white flakes or scaly globular masses, and often banded together to form
a "mackerel sky", would be classified as ______
Cirrocumulus
339. The wind circulation around a high pressure center in the Northern Hemisphere is __________.
Clockwise and moving outward from the high
340. A thin, whitish, high cloud popularly known as "mares' tails" is __________.
Cirrus
341. Good weather is usually associated with a region of __________.
High barometric pressure
342. Warm air masses will generally have __________.
Stratiform clouds
343. A low, uniform layer of cloud resembling fog, but not resting on the ground, is called __________.
Stratus
344. In shallow water a ship will experience "Squat". What are the principle reasons creating the effects of
squat?
There is an increase in the water velocity and a decrease of water pressure around the ship's hull
345. Your vessel has been loaded in a sagging condition. Enroute you encounter heavy weather and notice
buckling in the midships deck plating of your vessel. To relieve the strain you could __________.
A. Pump fuel oil from midships to the ends of the vessel
B. Reduce speed
C. Take a course which most eases the vessel
D. All of the above
346. Your vessel has grounded on a bar. What should you do?
Switch to the high suction for condenser circulating water, if it is submerge
347. The effect of wind on exposed areas of the vessel is most noticeable when __________.
Backing
348. Most of your vessel's superstructure is forwar How will the vessel lie when drifting with no way on?
With the wind from abaft the beam
349. When steering a vessel, a good helmsman will __________.
Repeat back to the watch officer any rudder commands before executing them
350. The turning circle of a vessel making a turn of over 360 degrees is the path followed by the ______.
Center of gravity
351. You are on watch at sea on course 090°T. A man falls overboard on your starboard side. You
immediately start a Williamson Turn. Which step is NOT a part of a Williamson Turn?
Step 2: Stop the engines until clear of the man.
352. The distance a vessel moves parallel to the original course from the point where the rudder is put over to
any point on the turning circle is called the __________.
Advance
353. The distance gained in the direction of the original course when you are making a turn is known as __.
Advance
354. The pivoting point of a vessel going ahead is __________.
About one-third of the vessel's length from the bow
355. In stopping distances of vessels, "head reach" can best be described as the __________.
Distance the vessel will run between taking action to stop her and being stationary in the water
356. You are the Master of a single-screw vessel. You are docking at a port which has no tugs available. You
decide to drop the offshore anchor to help in docking. The amount of chain you should pay out is ____.
1 1/2 to 2 times the depth of the water
357. The helm command "meet her" means __________.
Use rudder to check the swing
358. As a ship moves through the water, it drags with it a body of water called the wake. The ratio of the wake
speed to the ship's speed is called __________.
Wake fraction
359. The term "Shift the Rudder" means __________.
Change from right to left or left or right
360. Which statement is TRUE concerning the vessel's slipstream?
The propeller gives it a helical motion.
361. A vessel brought alongside should be fended off the towing vessel by _______
Fenders
362. The helm command "shift your rudder" means __________.
Change from right rudder to left rudder, or vice versa, an equal number of degrees
363. As the propeller turns, voids are formed on the trailing and leading edges of the propeller blades causing
a loss of propulsive efficiency, pitting of the blades, and vibration. These voids are known as ______.
Cavitation
364. "Hard right rudder" means __________.
Put the rudder over to the right all the way
365. "Ease the rudder" means to __________.
Decrease the rudder angle
366. A vessel is equipped with a single right-handed screw. With rudder amidships and calm wind, the vessel
will most likely back __________.
To port
367. Generally, you can best keep a vessel under steering control when the vessel has __________.
Headway
368. A towing vessel is tripped when __________.
It is pulled sideways by the tow
369. When backing down with sternway, the pivot point of a vessel is __________.
About one-quarter of the vessel's length from the stern
370. You are aboard a right-handed single-screw vessel with headway on. The engine is put full astern and
the rudder hard left. What will the bow do?
It will swing to the left, straighten out and then swing to the right as the vessel loses way.
371. You are maneuvering a vessel with a right-hand propeller. The rudder is amidships. The vessel will
generally back __________.
To port
372. The vertical motion of a floating vessel in which the entire hull is lifted by the force of the sea is known as
Heave
373. The direction a vessel is pointed at any given time is the __________.
Heading
374. Fetch is the __________.
Stretch of water over which a wave-forming wind blows
375. On mid-ocean waters, the height of a wind-generated wave is not affected by the __________.
Water depth exceeding 100 feet
376. When steering a tow downstream around the shape of a sand bar, and staying on the proper side of the
buoys, an operator should be cautious of __________.
Eddies under the bar
377. Where is the pivot point of a towboat with a tow ahead?
One-third the length of the combined unit back from the head
378. A towboat has the same draft as the barges it is pushing ahead If the distance from the stern of the
towboat to the head of the tow is 800 feet, where is the approximate location of the pivot point of the
unit?
250 feet from the head of the tow
379. The direction in which a vessel should be steered between two points is the __________.
Course
380. The type of current which will have the greatest effect on the course made good for your vessel is ____.
One that flows at nearly right angles to your course steered
381. The speed of an ocean current is dependent on __________.
The density of the water
381. Which statement about a tunnel bow thruster is TRUE?
It provides lateral control without affecting headway.
382. When underway and proceeding ahead, as the speed increases, the pivot point tends to __________.
Move forward
383. The turning circle of a vessel making a turn over 360 degrees is the path followed by the __________.
Center of gravity
384. Which shallow water effect will increase dramatically if you increase your ship's speed past its "critical
speed"?
Squatting
385. A vessel is entering port and has a Pilot conning the vessel. The Master is unsure that the Pilot is taking
sufficient action to prevent a collision. What should the Master do?
Recommend an alternative action and if not followed relieve the Pilot.
386. You are on a large merchant vessel entering a port. There is a Pilot on board and he has the conn. Which
statement is TRUE?
The Master is responsible for the safe navigation of the ship and the Pilot is employed for his local
knowledge.
387. The measurement of the amount of force a towing vessel is capable of applying to a motionless tow is
called __________.
Bollard pull
388. Before a Master relieves a Pilot of the conn, the __________.
Master should foresee any danger to the vessel on the present course
390. You are a Senior Officer of the Watch on vessel "A" and are passing through the Straits of Gibraltar. The
vessel's speed is 18 knots and your vessel is overtaking several other vessels, when the visibility
reduces down to about 2 nm. What aspects would you consider when establishing a "safe speed" for
your vessel?
Deciding safe speed consider: 2 miles visibility; traffic density; manoeuvrability of vessel; effectiveness
of navigational equipment (ARPA etc); state of sea and currents and navigational hazard
391. A 20-meter power-driven vessel pushing ahead or towing alongside will display __________.
Two masthead lights in a vertical line
392. When moving from a berth alongside a quay (wharf), a vessel must sound __________.
No signal is require
393. A vessel constrained by her draft may display __________.
Three all-round red lights instead of the lights required for a powerdriven vessel of her class
394. Which day-shape is prescribed for a vessel constrained by her draft?
A cylinder
395. If at night a vessel displays three all-round red lights in a vertical line, during the day she may show
A cylinder
396. A vessel displaying three red lights in a vertical line is __________.
Constrained by her draft
397. The International Rules of the Road apply
Upon the high seas and connecting waters navigable by seagoing vessels
398. Which statement is TRUE concerning a vessel "constrained by her draft"?
She must be a power-driven vessel.
399. Your vessel is crossing a narrow channel. A vessel to port is within the channel and crossing your course.
She is showing a black cylinder. You should __________.
Not impede the other vessel
400. Your vessel is backing out of a slip in a harbor. Visibility is restricte You should sound __________.
One prolonged blast only
401. You are approaching another vessel and will pass safely starboard to starboard without changing course.
You should __________.
Hold course and sound no whistle signal
402. Which statement is TRUE concerning a situation involving a fishing vessel and a vessel not under
command?
The fishing vessel must keep out of the way of the vessel not under comman
403. A signal of intent must be sounded in international waters by __________.
A vessel overtaking another in a narrow channel
404. While underway in fog, you hear a vessel ahead sound two prolonged blasts on the whistle. You should
Sound only fog signals until the other vessel is sighted
405. A towing vessel and her tow are severely restricted in their ability to change course. When making way,
the towing vessel will show ONLY __________.
All of the above.
406. You hear the fog signal of another vessel forward of your beam. Risk of collision may exist. You MUST
Take all way off, if necessary
407. A fog signal of one short, one prolonged, and one short blast may be sounded by a __________.
Vessel at anchor
408. A vessel may enter a traffic separation zone __________.
All of the above
409. To indicate that a vessel is constrained by her draft, a vessel may display, in a vertical line, ______.
Three 360° red lights
410. In addition to other required lights, a power-driven vessel pushing ahead or towing alongside displays
Two white masthead lights in a vertical line
411. A towing light is __________.
Shown in addition to the stern light
412. You are underway on the high seas in restricted visibility. You hear a fog signal of one prolonged and two
short blasts. It could be any of the following EXCEPT a vessel __________.
Being towed
413. In a narrow channel, a signal of intent which must be answered by the other vessel, is sounded by a
vessel __________.
Overtaking another
414. When two vessels are in sight of one another, all of the following signals may be given EXCEPT ____.
Four short whistle blasts
415. A power-driven vessel leaving a quay or wharf must sound what signal?
416. What whistle signal, if any, would be sounded when two vessels are meeting, but will pass clear
starboard to starboard?
417. In a narrow channel, a vessel trying to overtake another on the other vessel's port side, would sound a
whistle signal of __________.
Two prolonged blasts followed by two short blasts
418. On open water, a power-driven vessel coming up dead astern of another vessel and altering her course
to starboard so as to pass on the starboard side of the vessel ahead would sound __________.
One short blast
419. If a vessel displays three all-round red lights in a vertical line at night, during the day she may show
A cylinder
420. Your vessel is crossing a narrow channel. A vessel to port is within the channel and crossing your course.
She is showing a black cylinder. What is your responsibility?
Do not cross the channel if you might impede the other vessel.
421. You are approaching another vessel and will pass starboard to starboard without danger if no course
changes are made. You should __________.
Hold course and sound no whistle signal
422. A fishing vessel is approaching a vessel not under comman Which statement is TRUE?
The fishing vessel must keep clear of the vessel not under comman
423. Which signal is required to be sounded by a power-driven vessel ONLY?
A signal meaning, "I am altering my course to starboar"
424. Is it necessary to construct a passage plan, (or voyage plan), for transiting a canal or river, when under
pilot?
A passage plan is always required, irrespective of the length of the voyage, or if the ship is under pilot
425. Rigging of the Pilot Ladder and embarkation/disembarkation of a pilot should be supervised by:
A responsible Officer
426. When initially setting up the GPS to provide positions for use with a paper chart, what Chart Datum
should be selected?
Select WGS84 and when plotting on the chart apply the stated corrections.
427. While navigating using a paper chart marked WGS84 the OOW plots the ships position by four different
methods and they all give slightly different positions. Which of the following would be considered the
most accurate.
Radar ranges from two radar distinctive headlands
428. If the electronic chart is part of an ECDIS, it must display the minimum data required by IMO/IHO, to
include all of the following EXCEPT __________.
Tidal currents
429. Which of the following must the electronic chart of an ECDIS display, as required by IMO/IHO?
All of the above
430. ECDIS units incorporate Digital Chart Data Formats, which include _________
Vector and raster
431. Raster-scan chart data is __________.
A digitized "picture" of a chart in one format and one layer
432. Which of the following are data layer categories to be displayed on ECDIS?
All of the above
433. Which of the following data layer categories is NOT displayed on ECDIS?
Ship hydrodynamic information
434. The database resulting from (1) the transformation of the electronic navigational chart (ENC) by ECDIS
for appropriate use, (2) the updates to the ENC by appropriate means, and (3) the additional data added
by the mariner, is called the __________.
System electronic navigational chart
435. The database information that should be shown when a chart is first displayed on ECDIS is the ____.
Standard display information
436. The level of database information which cannot be removed from the ECDIS display and consists of
information which is required at all times in all geographic areas and under all circumstances is the
Display base information
437. ECDIS must give an alarm for which of the following cases?
All of the above
438. Chart information details to be used in ECDIS should be the latest edition of information originated by a
government-authorized hydrographic office and conform to the standards of (the) __________.
International Hydrographic Organization
439. An ECDIS is required to display which information?
Hydrographic data
440. ECDIS must have the capability to preserve the record of the voyage track for the previous __________.
12 hours
441. With respect to failure warnings and status indications, GPS receivers should provide, at a minimum,
A warning of loss of position
442. Which type of GPS receiver has at least four channels to process information from several satellites
simultaneously?
Continuous
443. Which theoretical minimum number of measurements from satellites does a GPS receiver need in order
to provide an exact three-dimensional position?
Four
444. You are Sen.Off.Deck onboard a merchant vessel. During the night you have beenin a collision with a sail
boat and there are no signs of life in the water. What wouldyou do?
445. A vessel restricted in her ability to maneuver shall __________.
Turn off her sidelights when not making way
446. A power-driven vessel at anchor, not fishing or otherwise restricted in its ability tomaneuver, sounds her
fog signal at intervals of not __________.
More than one minute
447. You are underway in reduced visibility. You hear the fog signal of another vessel about 20° on yo ur
starboard bow. Risk of collision may exist. You should __________.
Reduce your speed to bare steerageway
448. You are approaching a bend in a channel. You cannot see around the bend because of the height of the
bank. You should __________.
Sound a whistle blast of 4 to 6 seconds duratio
449. Which statement is TRUE concerning a vessel of 150 meters in length, at anchor?
She must show all-round white lights forward and aft.
450. Which vessel would be required to show a white light from a lantern exhibited in sufficient time to prevent
collision?
A rowboat
451. Barges being towed at night __________.
Must be lighted at all times
452. You sight another power-driven vessel dead-ahead showing both the red and greensidelights. The
required action to take would be to __________.
Alter your course to starboard
453. You are underway in fog and hear one short, one prolonged, and one short blast insuccession. What is
the meaning of this signal?
A vessel is at anchor, warning of her position.
454. An anchored vessel on pilotage duty must show which light(s) at night?
A white light over a red light and anchor lights
455. A vessel which is fishing is required to show sidelights and a stern light only when__________.
Underway and making way
456. What is a requirement for any action taken to avoid collision?
The action must be positive and made in ample time.
457. In the daytime, you see a large sailing vessel on the beam. You know that she is also propelled by
machinery if she shows __________.
A black cone
458. Your power-driven vessel is stopped and making no way, but is not in any way disable Another vessel is
approaching you on your starboard beam. Which statement is TRUE?
Your vessel is the give-way vessel in a crossing situation.
459. For identification purposes at night, U.S. Navy submarines on the surface may display an intermittent
flashing light of which color?
Amber (yellow)
460. Vessels engaged in fishing may show the additional signals described in Annex II to the Rules when they
are __________.
In close proximity to other vessels engaged in fishing
461. Which vessel must show a masthead light abaft of and higher than her identifyinglights?
. 55-meter vessel trawling
462. The lights required by the Rules must be shown __________.
From sunrise to sunset in restricted visibility
463. A lantern combining the sidelights and stern light MAY be shown on _________.
6-meter vessel under oars
464. A vessel nearing a bend or an area of a channel or fairway where other vessels maybe hidden by an
obstruction shall __________.
Sound a prolonged blast
465. You are approaching a vessel dredging during the day and see two balls in a vertical line on the port side
of the dredge. These shapes mean that __________.
There is an obstruction on the port side of the dredge
466. Which statement is TRUE concerning the light used to accompany whistle signals?
It is used to supplement short blasts of the whistle.
467. Which vessel must sound her fog signal at intervals not to exceed one minute?
A vessel aground
468. By day, you sight a vessel displaying three shapes in a vertical line. The top and bottom shapes are balls,
and the middle shape is a diamon It could be a__________.
Vessel engaged in replenishment at sea
470. You are heading due east (090°) and observe a vessel's red sidelight on your port beam. The vessel may
be heading __________.
Southwest (225°)
471. Which vessel is, by definition, unable to keep out of the way of another vessel?
Vessel restricted in her ability to maneuver
472. Which vessel must exhibit forward and after masthead lights when underway?
All of the above
473. As defined in the Rules, a towing light is a yellow light having the same characteristics as a(n) ______.
Stern light
474. A vessel underway and making way in fog shall sound every two minutes __________.
One prolonged blast
475. When anchoring a 20-meter vessel at night, you must show __________.
One all-round white light
476. According to the Navigation Rules, all of the following are engaged in fishing EXCEPT a vessel ____.
Trawling
477. When a vessel sounds three short blasts on the whistle, this indicates that __________.
Her engines are going astern
478. A vessel is overtaking when she approaches another from more than how many degrees abaft the
beam?
22.5°
479. What equipment for fog signals is required for a vessel 20 meters in length?
Whistle and bell only
480. Sailing vessels are stand-on over power-driven vessels except __________.
When they are the overtaking vessel
481. Which statement is TRUE concerning risk of collision?
Proper use shall be made of radar equipment to determine risk of collision.
482. You are fishing at night, and you sight a vessel showing three lights in a vertical line. The upper and
lower lights are red and the middle light is white. Which statement is TRUE?
You must keep out of the way of the other vessel.
483. Which statement is TRUE concerning a partly submerged vessel being towed?
A diamond shape will be carried at the aftermost extremity of the tow
484. Your vessel enters fog. You stop your engines, and the vessel is dead in the water.
Two prolonged blasts every two minutes
485. The term "power-driven vessel" refers to any vessel __________.
With propelling machinery in use
486. In which situation do the Rules require both vessels to change course?
Two power-driven vessels meeting head-on
487. A vessel towing where the tow prevents her from changing course shall carry __________.
The lights for a towing vessel and the lights for a vessel restricted in her ability to maneuver
488. Which statement is TRUE concerning the danger signal?
May be supplemented by an appropriate light signal
489. If a sailing vessel with the wind on the port side sees a sailing vessel to windward and cannot tell whether
the other vessel has the wind on the port or starboard side, she shall __________.
Keep out of the way of the other vessel
490. Vessel "A" is on course 000°T. Vessel "B" is o n a course such that she is involvedin a head-on situation
and is bearing 355°T, 2 miles away from vessel "A". Toensure a safe passing, vessel "A" should ___.
Maneuver to ensure a port to port passing
491. What is a vessel "restricted in her ability to maneuver"?
A vessel towing unable to deviate from her course
292. All of the following are distress signals under the Rules EXCEPT __________.
A green star signal
493. The Rules state that vessels may depart from the Rules when __________.
Necessary to avoid immediate danger
494. A vessel is towing and carrying the required lights on the masthea What is the visibility arc of these
lights?
225.0°
495. Which situation would be a "special circumstance" under the Rules?
More than two vessels meeting
496. You are approaching another vessel on crossing courses. She is approximately halfa mile distant and is
presently on your starboard bow. You believe she will cross ahead of you. She then sounds a whistle
signal of five short blasts. You should __________.
Make a large course change, accompanied by the appropriate whistle signal, and slow down if
necessary
497. You are approaching another vessel and are not sure whether danger of collion exists. You must assume
There is risk of collision
498. What is the minimum sound signaling equipment required aboard a vessel 10 meters in length?
Any means of making an efficient sound signal
498. Which statement is TRUE regarding equipment for sound signals?
Manual sounding of the bell and gong must always be possible.
499. Which statement concerning an overtaking situation is correct?
The overtaking vessel must keep out of the way of the other
500. The Rules state that a vessel overtaking another vessel is relieved of her duty to keep clear when ____.
She is past and clear of the other vessel
501. Which statement is TRUE concerning fog signals?
A vessel aground may sound a whistle signal.
502. Which day-shape would a vessel aground show during daylight?
Three black balls
503. Which vessel must have a gong, or other equipment which will make the sound of agong?
Any vessel over 100 meters
504. A sailing vessel is proceeding along a narrow channel and can safely navigate ONLY inside the channel.
The sailing vessel approaches a vessel engaged in fishing. Which statement is TRUE?
The fishing vessel is directed not to impede the passage of the sailing vessel.
505. Rule 14 describes the action to be taken by vessels meeting head-on. Which of thefollowing conditions
must exist in order for this rule to apply?
All of the above
506. Day-shapes MUST be shown __________.
During daylight hours
507. The stern light shall be positioned such that it will show from dead astern to how many degrees on each
side of the stern of the vessel?
67.5°
508. The dangers associated with carriage of empty tank containers is that:
They may contain flammable cargo residue.
509. The direction of wave encounter that is most likely to cause a parametric roll condition on large container
ships is:
Beam seas.
510. The most appropriate measure to reduce the build-up of ice on containers during a sea passage is to:
Reduce speed, whilst maintaining course.
511. A chemical tanker may be granted, by the Government of the receiving Party, an exemption from carrying
out a mandatory prewash provided that the:
Unloaded tank is to be reloaded with the same substance or another substance compatible with the
previous one and that the tank will not be washed or ballasted prior to loading.
512. As per MARPOL, for control of discharge of Noxious Liquid Substances, the area(s) designated as ―
Special Areas‖ are:
The Antarctic
513. A tank which contained a category "X" product must undergo a prewash before leaving port in
compliance with MARPOL. The resulting residues shall be discharged to a reception facility until the
concentration of the substance in the effluent, as indicated by analysis of samples of the effluent taken
by the authorized surveyor has reached a level of:
0.1% by weight.
514. Ballast introduced into a cargo tank on a chemical tanker which has been washed to such an extent that
the ballast contains less than 1 ppm of the substance previously carried may be discharged into the sea
without regard to the discharge rate, ship's speed and discharge outlet location, but under certain
conditions, which require:
That the vessel is not less than 12 miles from the nearest land and is in water that is not less than 25
metres deep.
515. Cargo residues of certain chemical substances are permitted to be removed by ventilation. This may be
carried out provided that:
The cargo discharged has a vapour pressure greater than 5 kpa at 20 degrees Celsius.
516. Definitive information on whether a particular cargo is classified as a ―Noxious Liquid Substance‖ (other
than products provisionally assessed) can be obtained from:
The pollution category column of chapters 17 or 18 of the International Bulk Chemical Code (IBC Code).
517. If a cargo tank on a chemical tanker is to be cleaned by recirculation with a low flash or static
accumulator product:
The tank must be inerted to less than 8% oxygen content.
518. In respect of a chemical tanker, carrying category ―X‖, ―Y‖ & ―Z‖ Noxious Liquid Substances, the
term ―Clean Ballast‖ as defined in the IBC Code means:
Ballast water carried in a tank which, since it was last used to carry a cargo containing a substance in
category "X","Y" or "Z", has been thoroughly cleaned and the residues resulting there from have been
discharged and the tank emptied in accordance with the appropriate requirements of Annex II.
519. In the event of an accidental or other exceptional discharge into the sea of a Noxious Liquid Substance or
mixture containing such a substance, an entry shall be made in the Cargo record Book, which shall
include:
Time of occurrence Approximate quantity, substance(s) and Category(ies) Circumstances of discharge
or escape and general remarks. Date of occurrence
520. The ‗dew point‘ of a liquid chemical can be defined as:
The temperature at which a gas is saturated with respect to a condensable component, as in operational
terms is seen at the point when air is saturated with moisture.
521. The carriage of a new Noxious Liquid Substance not yet listed in the IBC Code may be considered
possible, provided it is achieved through a ‗tri-partite‖ agreement between:
The Port State of the Shipper / the Flag State of the Carrier / the Port State of the Receiver
522. The chemical term for a substance used as an additive to start a chemical reaction and speed up the
cleaning of a cargo tank on a chemical tanker is:
Catalyst.
523. The document which confirms whether a chemical tanker is authorised to carry a particular Noxious
Liquid Substance, is called:
The (International) Certificate of Fitness.
524. The tank cleaning requirements for a Category ―Xǁ substance on a chemical tanker constructed after 01
January 2007, require the vessel to carry out:
Prewash / strip to 75 litres / 12 miles from land / 25 metres of water / minimum 7 knots, proceeding en
route / discharge below waterline.
525. Vegetable Oils as per MARPOL are classified under:
Category "Y".
526. What is the name given to the risk assessment programme developed by OCIMF, under which tankers
are inspected and the results made available to potential charterers through a database of records?
The Ship Inspection Report Programme (SIRE).
527. When cleaning a cargo tank after carriage and discharge of Sulphuric Acid, it is important to ensure that:
Once cleaning commences, large quantities of washing water can be delivered as quickly as possible,
so that the acid is quickly diluted.
528. A greater number of lashings may generally be required to secure cargo forward on deck compared with
amidships under deck of a General Cargo Vessel, because:
The dynamic stresses on the lashing are much greater in the forward areas of the vessel
529. When small amounts of cleaning additives (detergent products) are added to water in order to facilitate
the washing of tanks which previously contained liquid chemicals, must be ensured that:
No additives containing Pollution Category "X" components shall be used, except those components that
are readily biodegradable and present in a total concentration of less than 10% of the cleaning additive.
No restrictions additional to those applicable to the tank due to the previous cargo shall apply.
530. You are to load a number of chemical cargoes in Rotterdam in December, for eventual discharge in
Australia, after the ship has called at Singapore and Malaysia. None of the cargoes on board at any
stage of the voyage require heating. None of the tanks to be discharged in Singapore and Malysia will
require hot washing after discharge. When determining the filling limits of the tanks containing the
Australian cargoes, you will need to consider that:
The maximum anticipated temperature that the cargoes will reach bearing in mind ambient air and sea
temperatures to be encountered on passage, so that any expansion does not result in overflow.
531. A loaded General Cargo ship is bound from Brazil to Rotterdam during winter time. During the voyage,
ventilation in cargo spaces should:
Be carried out during voyage, as the vessel is moving from warm to colder areas.
532. Additional lashings on general cargoes must be considered when:
Heavy weather is anticipated for the plannedvoyage.
533. For a General Cargo ship not specifically designed for carriage of containers, the maximum stowage
height for containers on deck is limited to:
One container high.
534. For special category spaces on board general cargo ship, the minimum required air changes per hour
should be:
6
535. Information on the forces that may cause cargo shifting on a general cargo vessel may be available by
referring to:
The Cargo Stowage and Security (CSS)Code.
536. The IMO Cargo Stowage and Securing Code (CSS) indicates in the 'Rule of Thumb', the total strength of
the lashings on each side of a heavy lift; what is the stated value ?
The Maximum Securing load of the lashings must equal the weight of the cargo unit.
537. The most important consideration when planning the lashing system for a particular sea route on a
General Cargo Vessel is:
Transverse accelerations.
538. The segregation requirements for Dangerous Goods to be loaded on a General Cargo ship may be
obtained by referring to:
The IMO International Maritime Dangerous Goods Code.
539. The two main considerations when choosing an appropriate paint for a cargo space of a General Cargo
vessel would be:
Light reflective and compatible with edible cargoes
540. How can you best demonstrate in an audit that you follow company cargo handling procedures?
By being able to provide comprehensive and verifiable documentary records of cargo operations.
541. Which of these can be loaded in the same hold of a General Cargo Vessel, as steel coils?
Steel rebars
542. If all indications are that a cargo has been received without damages, irregularities or short shipment and
the phrase "apparent good order and condition" is entered on the Bill of Lading, what type of Bill is this
said to be?
A clean Bill of Lading.
543. What may be issued by the shipper to indicate that a vessel or her operators will not be held responsible
for any damage that may arise from the carrier issuing a clean Bill of Lading, even though the Mate's
receipt is marked as "unclean", such as may apply to atmospheric corrosion on steel plates that have
been waiting in a port facility for some time awaiting shipment?
Letter of Indemnity.
544. What term is applied to the compensation payment by the charterer that is due when a vessel is unable
to load / discharge her cargo within the allowed and contracted time?
Demurrage.
545. What type of Bill of Lading covers "door to door" shipment?
A Through Bill of Lading.
546. When conducting a risk assessment for a shipboard work activity, what are the two elements to be
considered?
The potential severity of harm and the likelihood that harm will occur.
547. According to SIGTTO publications, what is a typical accuracy for LNG pressure measurement
equipment?
+/- 0,0015 bar (which will apply within the MARVS of the tank)
548. According to the IMO Gas Codes, what is the minimum number of "Firemen‘s outfits" required to be
carried on an LNG carrier with a cargo capacity above 5,000 m3?
5 sets
549. Carbon dioxide, CO2, can solidify and form dry ice at low temperatures. What is the solidifying
temperature of CO2?
Approximately minus 78.5 C
550. Does MARPOL apply to LNG carriers?
Yes, MARPOL applies to all ship types..
551. Does the Oil Pollution Act, 1990 (OPA90) apply to vessels engaged in carrying liquefied natural gas
(LNG)?
Yes, OPA90 applies to all ships.
552. Due to the very low carriage temperatures for LNG the thermal conductivity, k value, is an important
property of the insulation material used in cargo containment systems. For a given rate of heat leakage
across the insulation, which of the following statements is true?
The higher the k value the thicker the insulation needs to be.
553. During cargo tank gassing up and cooling down operations on an LNG carrier which of the given options,
regarding temperature, needs to be observed?
Never allow temperature of the insulation to fall below the safe minimum temperature
554. Having water vapour in an LNG carriers cargo tanks prior to loading cargo is unacceptable due to ice
formation at low carriage temperatures. How can water vapour in the tank atmosphere be removed prior
to the cooling down and loading operation?
By displacing the tank atmosphere with pre-dried inert gas.
555. What is the approximate normal daily cargo "boil off" rate for an LNG carrier of 125000 cubic metre cargo
capacity?
From 0,15 % to 0,20 % per day of total cargo.
556. What is the normal procedure for cooling down the a cargo tank prior to loading LNG?
Introducing liquid LNG into the tank slowly through the spray lines.
557. What is the typical accuracy for onboard LNG temperature measurement systems?
+/- 0.2 C in the range of - 150 C / - 170 C
558. Which of the gas groups, identified by SIGTTO, in 'Liquid Gas Handling Principles on Ships and in
Terminals', does LNG belong to?
Saturated Hydrocarbons
559. Which term is usually used to describe the compressor that collects the boil-off from the header
connected to each cargo tank of an LNG carrier?
The low-duty compressor.
560. Why is nitrogen used for the inerting of hold spaces and interbarrier spaces on LNG carriers?
Because the carbon dioxide in combustion generated inert gas would freeze when in close proximity to
the cargo.
561. With reference to preparations of LNG carrier cargo tanks for cargo loading operations, how can it be
determined that the cool down operation is complete?
When temperature monitor, or liquid level gauge, shows that liquid is forming in the bottom of the cargo
tank.
562. Which of the following groups of chemical cargoes is particularly susceptible to polymerisation, especially
through exposure to heat?
Monomers.
563. You are to carry a cargo of Phenol across the North Atlantic in winter time. What precaution will you take
with the double bottom tank located under the cargo tank containing the Phenol?
It should be empty, to avoid cold water contacted the structure around the product because Phenol has
a relatively high melting point.
564. You have just loaded a cargo of Toluene on a chemical tanker and are about to clear the lines into the
ship. The one particular hazard that must be noted about this product would be that:
It is a static accumulator and settling time must be allowed before gauging.
564. What is a typical composition of LNG (Arabian Gulf LNG)?
Methane 91% - Ethane 6% - Propane 3%
565. What is the relative liquid density of Methane?
0.427
567. During a normal voyage heat is transferred to the LNG cargo through the cargo tank insulation which
causes some boil off of the cargo. This boil off changes the composition of the LNG as more of the
lighter components will vaporise. Which component of the LNG cargo is likely to have a lower than
original percentage on arrival at the discharge port?
Methane.
568. LNG is often considered as an ideal gas when looking at the physical properties and characteristics. With
reference to the physical properties of gas mixtures which of the given options is the SIGTTO definition
of the term 'mole'?
The mass that is numerically equal to the molecular mass.
569. LNG is one of the liquefied gases transported by sea. What is the IMO's definition of liquefied gases?
Liquids with a vapour pressure exceeding 2.8 bar absolute at +37.8 C and certain other chemicals listed
in the Gas Codes.
570. A P - H type Mollier diagram or chart is often used when dealing with LNG cargoes. What is the main
information that can be obtained from a Mollier diagram?
Information about the exact values of the pressure, density, specific volume and dryness fraction of the
vapour when both the enthalpy and temperature are known
571. An important physical property of LNG is the saturation vapour pressure. What is the IMO definition of the
term "saturated vapour pressure"?
The pressure at which a vapour is inequilibrium with its liquid at a specified temperature.
572. A number of substances are carried as cargoes on liquefied gas carriers. Of those given in the options,
which is the most reactive, and therefore least compatible, with other liquefied gas cargoes?
Chlorine
573. Ethylene is normally carried on fully refrigerated liquefied gas carriers at its atmospheric boiling point.
What is the approximate atmospheric boiling point of ethylene?
Minus 104 degrees C
574. Hydrate formation may be a problem with some LPG cargoes. The hydrates may enter cargo pumps,
block lubricating passages, unbalance impellers and seize bearings. What is the most common practice
to prevent such problems?
Inject a small quantity of freezing-point depressant into the pump.
575. Polymerisation may be a problem with some liquefied gas cargoes such as vinyl chloride and ethylene
oxide. What is the definition of polymerisation?
Polymerisation is when single molecules of the same compound join together to form a new compound
usually with a higher viscosity.
576. The 'Critical Temperature' is important when dealing with liquefied gas cargoes. What is the IMO Gas
Codes' definition of the term 'Critical Temperature'?
It is the temperature above which a gas cannot be liquefied by pressure alone.
577. Which of the given options is the approximate value of the flammable range for Methane measured as a
percentage volume in air?
5.3 - 14.0% by volume.
578. The densities of most hydrocarbon gas mixtures which evolve from normal petroleum products are
greater than the density of air. What would be the approximate relative density of a mixture of 50% by
volume of air and propane relative to 100% air?
1.25
579. What is the main reason that LPG boil-off gas is unsuitable for use in the vessel's fuel supply?
LPG vapour is heavier than air at atmospheric conditions and represent a risk as they may accumulate
in machinery spaces.
580. When butadiene is carried as a liquid gas cargo it usually has inhibitors added. One reason for this is to
minimise the formation of polymers. What is the other reason for adding inhibitors to this particular
cargo?
To scavenge any oxygen that may be present to prevent peroxide formation
581. Which publication contains detailed information, in the form of material safety data sheets, relating to the
chemical and physical properties and associated hazards of the most commonly transported liquefied
gases, including LPG?
The ICS Tanker Safety Guide (Liquefied Gases)
582. Why must inert gas from a combustion-type generator never be used when preparing the cargo tanks of
a liquefied gas carrier for a cargo of ammonia?
Because inert gas from this type of generator contains carbon dioxide which reacts with ammonia to
form carbamates.
583. When preparing the cargo tanks of an LNG carrier for loading it is important to consider the dew point of
the vapour mixtures present in the tank. What is the definition of the "dew point" of a vapour mixture
containing water vapour?
The dew point is the temperature at which the water vapour begins to condense as the temperature
decreases.
584. petroleum product is considered ―Non-Volatile‖ when:
With a Flashpoint of 60 degrees C or above (closed cup method), these liquids produce, when at any
normal ambient temperature, equilibrium gas concentrations below the Lower Flammable Limit.
585. Anti-static additives are used to treat fuel oil cargoes so as to:
Ensure they become non-accumulator of static charge.
586. At which of the following concentrations of Hydrogen Sulphide would dizziness, headache, nausea, etc.
Occur within 15 minutes of exposure, followed by loss of consciousness and possibly death, after 30-60
minutes of exposure?
500-700 ppm.
587. Besides danger of vapour inhalation by crewmembers, if Hydrogen Sulphide is present in high
concentrations in crude oil, it can also cause:
Corrosion.
588. The approximate API gravity of Arabian Light Crude is:
33 degrees.
589. The approximate density ratio of undiluted gas, in relation to air, from a typical crude oil is:
1.5 times that of the air.
590. The name given to compounds consisting solely of carbon and hydrogen atoms joined together by single
bonds is:
Saturated hydrocarbons.
591. The Vapour Pressure of crude oils is determined by the:
The Reid Closed Test method.
592. When an inhibitor is added to an oil cargo, the items mentioned on the accompanying certificate include:
Inhibitor name; amount added; date added; period of efficiency; precautions if voyage length exceeds
that period; eventual temperature limitation.
593. When carrying certain cargoes (e.g. Aviation Turbine Oils) it is important to carefully monitor ship‘s tanks
during passage, because these cargoes can:
Release oxygen, which they may have absorbed during the refining process, into the ullage spaces of
ship‘s cargo tanks
594. When carrying out oil cargo calculations, the relationship between absolute and gauge pressure is:
Absolute pressure = gauge pressure + barometric pressure.
595. When describing the characteristics of oil cargoes or oil/water slops, a “mercaptan” is:
A colourless, odorous gas, with a smell similar to rotting cabbage and which is generated naturally by
the degredation of natural organisms, as may be found where water has remained under oil for a long
time.
596. When referring to crude oil petroleum products, ―volatilityǁ means:
Their tendency to produce gas.
597. Which of the following type of crude oil requires special consideration in terms of carriage and cleaning?
Paraffinic Crude
598. With reference to chemistry of petroleum cargoes, if 'Alkanes' are saturated hydrocarbons, then
unsaturated hydrocarbons are:
Alkenes.
599. With reference to oil cargo characteristics, ‗cloud point‘ is:
The temperature at which a liquid hydrocarbon begins to congeal and take on a cloudy appearance, due
to the bonding of constituent paraffin compounds.
600. With reference to oil cargoes, their wax content is generally referred to as:
The percentage of paraffinic wax by volume, based on a representative sample of the crude oil.
601. At what latest time shall doors, side scuttles, gangway doors, cargo- and coaling ports and other
openings which are to be kept closed watertight at sea be closed at the start of the voyage?
Before leaving the port
602. Cross-flooding fittings shall be operable from:
Above the bulkhead deck
603. How many separate means of escape from passengers and crew spaces should it be in each zone?
Two
604. How often shall watertight doors in main transverse bulkheads which is in use at sea be operated
(tested)?
Daily
605. In which cases shall side scuttles in passenger ships be so constructed that they cannot be opened
without the consent of the master of the ship?
Where the sills of the side scuttles are below the margin line
606. Is there any requirements regarding double bottom for large passenger ships?
Yes, in ship of 76 m in length and upwards, a double bottom shall be fitted amidships, and shall extend
to the fore and after peak bulkheads, or as near thereto as practicable.
607. When are power-operated watertight sliding doors (class 3 doors) compulsory for all watertight doors
aboard passenger ships?
Where the ship has passenger spaces below the bulkhead deck
608. When there is doubt about the freshness of the atmosphere in enclosed or confined spaces, what action
should be taken?
Arrangements should be made for testing of the atmosphere to ensure maintenance of 21% oxygen and
a carbon monoxide content below 50 ppm in the atmosphere of the space
609. A vessel's mean draft is 29'-07". At this draft, the TPI is 152. The mean draft after loading 1360 tons will
be .
30'-04"
610. Tonnage tax is officially based upon the figures obtained from the __________.
Admeasurement Certificate
611. A person is found operating a vessel while under the influence of alcohol. He/she is liable for ____.
a civil penalty of not more than $5,000
612. To "ease" a line means to __________.
pay out line to remove most of the tension
613. A person is found operating a vessel while intoxicated. He/she is liable for __________
a civil penalty of not more than $5,000
614. While moving ahead, a twin-screw ship has an advantage over a single-screw ship because
side forces will be eliminated
615. When inspecting wire rope that has been in use for some time, one must look for __________.
All of the above
616. On a vessel proceeding from a very cold to a warm climate with a cargo of a nonhygroscopic nature in
the holds, which is TRUE?
There is danger of heavy cargo sweat if outside air is introduced by ventilation.
617. A cargo of 10,000 barrels of gasoline is loaded at a temperature of 90°F, and a cargo temperature of 5°F,
is expected on this voyage. It has a coefficient of expansion of .0006. How many barrels would you
expect to discharge at your destination?
9790
618. In handling break bulk hazardous materials, it is forbidden to use __________.
metal bale hooks
619. An International Tonnage Certificate will be issued to a vessel when it meets several requirements, one
of which is that the vessel must __________.
be 79 or more feet in length
620. Which method should be used to secure a synthetic fiber line to two bitts?
Two round turns on the bitt closest to the strain and then figure eights
621. When securing a synthetic line to a bitt what is the minimum number of round turns you should take
before figure-eighting the line?
2
622. Faking a line means to __________.
arrange it on deck in long bights
623. You are stopped with no way upon your vessel at the pilot station. Your vessel is a large twin-screw ship.
You must come around 180° to board your Pilot. How should you use the engines and rudder to turn the
ship fastest in the least amount of space?
Half ahead with hard over rudder, then full astern on inboard engine
624. What is the greatest danger of an overriding tow?
Collision between the tow and the stern of the towing vessel
625. Your vessel is going from a warm climate to a cold climate with a hygroscopic cargo. Which statement is
TRUE?
You must ventilate constantly and vigorously to combat ship sweat
626. A tank is loaded with 9,000 barrels of gasoline. The temperature of the product is 90°F (32°C), a nd it has
a coefficient of expansion of .0008. What is the net amount of cargo loaded?
8784 bbls
627. On a manned vessel carrying packaged hazardous cargo, the hazardous materials shall be inspected
All of the above
628. Official proof of an American vessel's nationality is contained in the __________.
Certificate of Documentation
629. A licensed Master of Towing Vessels may NOT serve as the person in charge of which towing vessel?
405 GRT towing vessel operating between Florida and the US Virgin Islands
630. When a tow is trimmed by the stern it is said to __________.
Drag
631. To "belay" a line means to __________.
secure it to a cleat
632. The amount of force a tug can exert on a stationary pull is called its __________.
bollard pull
633. The rudders are amidships and both screws are going ahead. What will happen if the starboard screw is
stopped?
The bow will go to starboard
634. Prior to getting underway in fresh or brackish water, the Master must __________.
log the density of the water
635. Your vessel is loaded with nonhygroscopic cargoes and is going from a cold to a warm climate. You
should __________.
not ventilate the cargo holds
636. When loading bulk liquid cargo, what is the FIRST action you should take if a cargo valve jammed open?
Order the dock man to shut down.
637. If a Master must jettison a container loaded with hazardous material, he must, as soon as possible, notify
the __________.
nearest Captain of the Port
638. The document which shows a vessel's nationality, ownership, and tonnage is the __________.
639. "Ease the rudder" means to __________.
decrease the rudder angle
640. The tankship Northland is loaded as shown. Use the salmon colored pages in the Stability Data
Reference Book to determine the hogging numeral.
91.40 numeral
641. A metal object on the pier resembling a tree stump and made to receive mooring lines is a ________.
Bollard
642. Where are the towing bitts best placed for towing purposes?
Forward of the rudder post and close to the tug's center of pivot
643. A twin-screw vessel can clear the inboard propeller and maneuver off a pier best by holding a(n) _____.
forward spring line and going slow ahead on the outboard engine
644. One reason a tug's towing bitts are located forward of the rudders is because __________.
this allows more responsive steering
645. Hygroscopic cargoes should be ventilated when __________.
going from a warm to a cold climate
646. When loading bulk liquid cargo, what is the first action you should take if a cargo valve jammed open?
Order the dock man to shut down.
647. Once a vessel has loaded packaged hazardous cargo, the cargo spaces shall be inspected. The spaces
shall also be inspected at least once in every 24 hours. The only exception to daily inspection is when .
a vessel is equipped with an automatic smoke or fire detecting system
648. What is official proof of a vessel's ownership?
649. Where should the foundation supports for towing bitts terminate?
In the frames or other substantial structural members below decks
650. What purpose does a tow hook serve?
To quickly connect or release the towing hawser
651. A rope ladder with wooden rungs is a __________.
Jacob's ladder
652. A vessel having continuous closely spaced transverse strength members is __________.
transversely framed
653. You are conning a twin-screw vessel going ahead with rudders amidships. If the port screw stops turning
the bow will __________.
go to port
654. You are the operator of an uninspected diesel towing vessel of 190 GT operating on a regular run from
New York to the Gulf of Mexico. Which statement is TRUE?
All crew members must have Merchant Mariner's Documents.
655. Sweat damage will occur in a cargo hold containing cased machinery when the __________.
dew point of the hold is higher than the temperature of the ship's skin
656. Petroleum cargo tanks should not be topped off at deck level when loading on a cold day because ___.
a subsequent temperature rise will cause the cargo to overflow
657. When stowing hazardous materials on deck, lashing of such cargo is permitted if __________.
the lashings are secured to deck pad eyes
658. Where is the best location to install a towing hook?
Just aft of amidships
659. The safe working load (SWL) of wire rope with a safety factor of 6 is what percent of its strength?
17%
660. A tow span __________.
All of the above
661. The static bollard pull of a tug is measured in tons and consists of the brake horsepower of the tug's
engine divided by 100 and multiplied by a factor of __________.
1.3
662. During the course of a voyage, a seaman falls on the main deck and injures his ankle. The Master should
submit a Report of Marine Accident, Injury or Death if the __________.
injured is incapacitated
663. You are standing the wheelwatch when you hear the cry, "Man overboard starboard side". You should
instinctively __________.
give full right rudder
664. A stopper used in securing the ground tackle for sea that consists of a grab attached to a turnbuckle is a
devil's claw
665. Considering manning requirements for US flag vessels, your 2 watch cargo vessel has a deck crew of 20
people, exclusive of officers. How many of these people do the manning regulations require to be able
seamen?
10
666. The maximum quantity of cargo permitted to be carried in a single tank on a type 2 chemical tanker as
per the IBC Code is:
3000 cubic metres
667. The minimum permissible distance measured horizontally between the ship's shell plating and the outer
side bulkhead of the first cargo compartment on a type II chemical tanker is:
Not less than 760 mm.
668. A General Cargo vessel develops an angle of loll while loading a heavy item of deck cargo alongside the
jetty. You should immediately:
Stop cargo, reduce FSE in tanks, lower weights within vessel and fill small ballast tank on low side of
vessel
669. A General Cargo vessel is deemed to be cargo worthy when:
The hatch covers and/or hatch pontoons are weather tight.
670. A general cargo vessel is loading to its Summer Marks. Upon completion of loading, the final level of the
water would be at:
The top of the summer load line mark
671. Prior to loading heavy lift cargoes on a General Cargo Vessel, it must be ensured that:
There are minimum free surface moments in tanks.
672. The IMO Convention that is not applicable to a general cargo vessel when it is carrying timber deck
cargoes is:
The International Tonnage Convention.
673. The value of the GZ lever at small angles of heel on a General Cargo Vessel can be denoted by the
formula:
KM - KG x Sin angle of heel.
674. When loading heavy lift cargoes on a general cargo vessel, positive stability can be maintained by:
Completely filling the ship's double bottom tanks and continuously monitoring the loading operation.
675. Which type of material is normally used in the construction of a cargo tank designed for transporting LPG
at atmospheric pressure?
Carbon-Manganese steel
676. As per MARPOL, the formula for calculating the minimum draft amidships for crude tankers in ballast
condition is:
2.0 + 0.02L
677. Every oil tanker of 5,000 tonnes deadweight and above delivered on or after 1 February 2002 shall
comply with intact stability whereby it must have a minimum GM (metacentric height) in port of:
Not less than 0.15 m
678. The scantling draft of an oil tanker fitted with segregated ballast tanks is:
The draught for which the structural strength of the ship has been designed
679. What is the purpose of girders in the tank?\
They support the stiffeners and also take up some of the sea forces
680. What are the main elements in a damage control plan?
Boundaries of the watertight compartments for decks and holds.
681. What arrangement may be installed in passenger ships to reduce unsymmetrical flooding in damaged
condition?
Cross flooding arrangement
682. What measures regarding ship stability should be taken in order to make passenger ships able to
withstand critical damage?
Maintain sufficient intact stability
683. A long oblong space as would be found in an after upper deck. Conventional reefer vessels are usually
designed with fine lines and large flared bows. Consequently, in adverse weather conditions, especially
from forward of the beam, the navigating officers need to be mainly aware of which of the given options?
This type of vessel is prone to large hull deflections which may result in structural damage.
684. Earlier cellular reefer vessels were constructed with a 'porthole system' for supplying refrigerated air via
duccting to containers. Modern vessels are designed to supply only electrical power to integral
containers. Select the main reason for this change in design to the vessels and containers from the
options given?
The 'porthole' system design was extremely complex and construction costs were high.
685. Achieving a good air flow through the various cargo compartment of a reefer vessel is a principal design
aim of a Naval Architect. Which of the options given represents the optimum cargo space shape?
A square space as would be found in a midships lower deck
686. Who is responsible for maintaining the vessel's structural strenght?
The Master.
687. Earlier reefer vessels designed and built for liner trade usually had two or three tween decks
approximately 2 to 2.5 metres in height and deep lower holds approximately 4 to 5 metres deep. Modern
designs usually incorporate more decks each approximately 2.3 metres in height. What is the main
reason for this fundamental design change?
There is an almost universal use of standard height pallets
688. How is the size of a reefer vessel normally referenced?
By the cubic foot capacity.
689. In some reefer trades cargoes of chilled horse meat carcasses are stowed hanging from deckhead rails
in refrigerated locker spaces. What position should the centre of gravity be assumed to be at when
carrying out the stability calculations for a vessel with such a stow?
At the deckhead of the lockers.
690. Select from the options given the one which best completes the following statement. "Reefer vessels,
loaded with a homogenous cargo, usually operate with a small GM due to the fact that…
They are designed with fine lines and the biggest cargo spaces are at the top of the holds."
691. If properly secured what benefits do high sided car carriers have over other ship types regarding
seaworthiness?
They can roll to very large angles without taking in water
692. On a roro vessel, in addition to longitudinal, transverse and vertical accelerations what else must be
taken into account when calculating the external forces acting on a cargo unit?
Longitudinal and transverse forces by wind pressure
693. What special design feature is attributed to roro vessels which are only car carriers?
A very large windage area
694. When will a ro-ro vessel pitch heavily?
When wave lengths are equal to the ship's length
695. What type of dynamic forces may cause indent in plating on forecastle deck and main deck in way of
pillars inside forecastle?
Pressure forces caused by green water on deck
696. Which of the following requirements regarding on board stability data corresponds to present regulations?
(NSCL 4/12.1)
A calculation example showing the use of "KG" limitation curves.
697. Which of the following requirements to ships stability for normal operation corresponds to present
regulations? (NSCL 4/12.2)
The ship is loaded in such a manner that adequate stability is achieved in all loading condition.
698. What specific data must be displayed on the loading instruments carried on bulk carriers of 150m or more
in length?
The shear forces exerted on the hull structure associated with the entered loaded weight distribution
699. Where are cargo hold water level detectors required to be fitted on bulk carriers?
At the after end of each cargo hold
700. Which of the following describes the term couple?
Two equal forces acting on a body in opposite directions along the centerline of the Vessel
701. The side to side, bodily motion of a vessel is known as .
Yawing
702. Which motion of the vessel does a ship‘s officer most easily control through transverse stability stowage?
Swaying
703. In the diagram on the right, which of the following represents the righting arm?
GZ
704. In the diagram onthe right, the distance between the points B and M is known as:
Metacentric Height
705. Which of the following is true of a vessel in a neutral stability condition?
G is below M
706. An inclination of a vessel due to negative stability is known as .
Angle of Heal
707. The geometric center of the underwater volume of a floating vessel is the center of
Buoyancy
708. The ratio of the volume of displacement to a block having length, breadth and draft of the vessel Is known
as the vessel‘s .
Area of the water plane
709. Morrish‘s Formula is used to determine .
Metacentric Height
710. Which of the following best describes the moment of inertia about the longitudinal axis?
The measure of a ship‘s resistance to heaving.
711. At large angles of inclination, the transverse metacenter will .
Remain fixed on the transverse centerline.
712. On the attached hydrostatic curves, what is the value of KM when the draft is 18 feet?
9.5 feet
713. Which of the following is true of synchronous rolling?
It occurs when the natural rolling of the vessel is the same as the ocean wave perio
714. The point at which all vertically downward forces of weight are considered to be concentrated is the .
Metacenter
715. When a cargo with a KG above the KG of the vessel is discharged, the vessel‘s center of gravity will .
Move downward
716. One long ton is equivalent to .
2000 pounds
717. vessel with a GM of 4 feet is inclined to 10 degrees. What is the value of the righting arm?
2.3 feet
718. If a vessel is inclined due to an external force, assuming that weight on the vessel remain fixed, you
would expect .
G and B to both move
719. Which of the following would represent the height of the center of gravity on a vssel?
KM + GM
720. The metacentric height of a vessel is the distance from:
The keel to the metacenter
721. What measures the stability of a vessel at all angles of inclination?
The righting moment
722. The number of long tons necessary to change the mean draft of a vessel 1 inch is known as the
Moment to trim 1 inch
723. Which of the following is a characteristic of a ―stiff ship?ǁ
A small GM
724. A Cargo Ship Equipment Certificate will be issued for:
5 years with control every 12 months
725. Are there any exceptions from OPA-90
Yes, transit passage through US waters to a non US port
726. For a ship operating or calling in US waters, COTP can request (OPA-90)
Unannounced drills at any time
727. For how long is the health certificate valid for a seafarer above the age of 18?
One year.
728. For what period of time is the protection and environment committee elected?
1 - 2 years.
729. In case of pollution in US waters, do you always have to notify the National Response Center (OPA-90)
Yes, within thirty (30) minutes
730. In relation ot OPA 90, Which of the following statement is correct?
COTP-zones may have additional rules and regulations
732. In US waters "Oil Pollution Act of 1990" was activated in August 1993. What is the main issue for the
introduction of the act?
To prevent oil spills in US waters?
733. OPA-90 is referring to a Qualified Individual (QI)
QI is an authorised individual, situated in the US, and contracted by the owner or operator of the vessel
734. What are the functions of a flag state administration?
They have responsibility for setting, monitoring and enforcing standards of safety and pollution
prevention on vessels flying the countries flag
735. What is SOPEP?
A Shipboard Oil Pollution Emergency Plan
736. What is the alcohol content in the blood permissible under US legislation before it is defined as
intoxication?
0,04 %
737. What is the top priority if an incident occurs in US waters (OPA-90)
Safety of ship and crew
738. Where is the Safety Certificates for ships to be kept?
In the Captain's office
739. Who is responsible that regulatory working hours are not exceeded?
The master and department heads.
740. An oil tanker's tank-cleaning machine with a rotational speed of 1 rpm and a selected pitch angle of 1.5
degrees is used to perform a bottom wash with a vertical angle from 40 degrees to 0 degrees for 1.5
cycles (3 passes). If the throughput of the machine at design pressure is 90 m3/hr, what will be the
washing time and quantity of crude oil required?
40 minutes and 60 cubic metres of oil
741. After the last entry being made, the retention period of an oil record book on board must be:
Not less than 3 years after the date of the last entry.
742. As per MARPOL, Oil Record Book Part II, Cargo/Ballast Operations, must be carried and completed on
oil tankers of:
150 gross tonnes and above.
743. As per MARPOL, the contents of lines and pumps on an oil tanker at completion of discharge must be:
Drained and then pumped either ashore, or to a cargo tank or slop tank on board.
744. As per requirements of the International Convention for the Control and Management of Ship's Ballast
Water and Sediments, oil tankers must have a plan on board to achieve:
95% volumetric exchange of the ballast taken onboard at the previous port.
745. Tools for mitigation include the ships fire hoses. Fire hoses may be used to …
Prevent floating oil from escaping downstream.
746. During oil spill clean up, booming strategies are most effective to contain spills in ………
Rough weather conditions in open sea.
747. In a 4 cycle engine the in let value begins to open when the piston is on its....
Exhaust stroke.
748. In a 4 cycle engine the exhaust value opens while the piston is on its...
Power stroke
749. In a naturally aspirated 4 cycle diesel engine the exhaust valve is open for a period of...
250 degrees.
750. What are the indications of excessive cylinder clearance in a small diesel engine? I. Loss of power II.
Misfiring III. White exhaust smoke IV. Excessive consumption of lube oil.
1.111 and IV
751. In a four stroke cycle diesel engine, the four stroke of the piston required to complete one cycle Which
must take place in regular order. The second stroke...
Is the power stroke.
752. If the output of this auxiliary diesel increases, say by 30 %, how will the thermometer readings on the
outlet side of engine and turbocharger change ?
They will slightly increase (by `1 to 3 degrees C)
753. How is the exhaust gas turbocharger cooled in relation to the engine ?
In parallel with the cylinders
754. How is pump 'V" driven ?
By gears attached to the crankshaft
755. What is the component marked 'V" ?
The fresh water pump
756. How is the set pressure (opening pressure) on the safety value of a diesel engine adjusted ?
By adjusting the spring pressure
757. What type of diesel engine is shown here ?
A two stroke trunk type engine
758. What type of scavenge system is in use in this diesel engine ?
Combined scavenging
759. What type of turbocharger would be fitted to this engine ?
A dual entry type
760. What type of diesel engine is shown here ?
A four stroke flanged type engine
761. How do the inlet and the exhaust value pushrods and rocker arms moue on this type of engine ?
Pneumatically lifted via cam activated air booster
762. In this diagram if left is portside and right is starboard, during the taking of crankshaft positions the
rotation is counterclockwise, in what position is the engine crankshaft now shown ?
Between TP and P
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” Important and Confidential Document” !!!!!!!!

ANT II A Periode II – 2019

1. Plan a Voyage and Conduct Navigation

2. Determine Position and the Accuracy of Resultant Position Fix

3. Determine and Allow for Comoass Errors

1. The annual change in variation for an area can be found in _________

1. An inert gas system installed on a tanker is designed to _________

6. Maintain Safe Navigation

8. Manoeuvre and Handle a Ship in All Condition

Gained at right angles to the original course

Head your vessel slightly to the right

Obey the Master

The bow in and the stern out

One-third the length of the vessel from the bow

A light vessel loses more rudder effect in shallow water

13.The turning circle of a vessel is the path followed by the

76.2 Mtrs. from the head of the tow

The tows will tend to drift together

With the wind from abaft the beam

It pulls the stern toward the bank

9. Operate Remote Controls of Propulsion Plant and Engineering

10. Assess Reported Defects and Damage to Cargo Spaces, Hatch

11. Plan and Ensure Safe Loading, Stowage, Securing, Care

12. Carriage of Dangerous Goods

13. Control Trim, Stability and Stress

14. Monitor and Control Compliance with Legislative Requirements

DEVELOP EMERGENCY AND DAMAGE CONTROL PLANS AND

MAINTAIN SAFETY AND SECURITY OF THE SHIP’S CREW

1. Which of the following items shall be included in an "abandon ship"-drill?

ORGANIZE AND MANAGE THE PROVISION OF MEDICAL CARE ON BOARD

Additional from File : Naskah UKP Update

“”SALAM SUKSES SELALU””

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