ME 1 st Prefinal Quiz

Define and Explain Macro-Economics –

1. Definition of 'Macroeconomics'

Definition: Macroeconomics is the branch of economics that studies the behavior and

performance of an economy as a whole. It focuses on the aggregate changes in the

economy such as unemployment, growth rate, gross domestic product and inflation.

Description: Macroeconomics analyzes all aggregate indicators and the microeconomic

factors that influence the economy. Government and corporations use macroeconomic

models to help in formulating of economic policies and strategies.

Macroeconomics is the study of the performance, structure, behavior and decision-

making of an economy as a whole. Macroeconomists focus on the national, regional,

and

global scales. For most macroeconomists, the purpose of this discipline is to maximize

national income and provide national economic growth. Economists hope that this
growth

translates to increased utility and an improved standard of living for the economy’s

participants. 

Microeconomics deals with the economic interactions of a specific person, a single

entity

or a company; it is the study of markets.

The main difference between microeconomics and macroeconomics is scale.

Microeconomics studies the behavior of individual households and firms in making

decisions on the allocation of limited resources. Another way to phrase this is to say
that

microeconomics is the study of markets.

In contrast macroeconomics involves the sum total of economic activity, dealing with
the

issues such as growth, inflation, and unemployment. Macroeconomics is the study of

economies on the national, regional or global scale.

This key difference alters how the two approach economic situations. Microeconomics
does consider how macroeconomic forces impact the world, but it focuses on how
those

forces impact individual firms and industries. While macroeconomists study the
economy

as a whole, microeconomists are concerned with specific firms or industries.

Many economic events that are of great interest to both microeconomist and

macroeconomists, though they differ in how they analyze those events. A shift in tax

policy would interest economists in both disciplines. A microeconomist might focus on

how the tax might shift supply in a specific market or influence a firm’s decision making,

while the macroeconomist will consider whether the tax will translate into an improved

standard of living for all of the economy’s participants.

2. List down and discuss the major National Income of the Philippines

What is the main income of the Philippines?

As of 2021, GDP by purchasing power parity was estimated to be at $1.47 trillion, the

18th in the world. The country's primary exports include semiconductors and
electronic

products, transport equipment, garments, copper products, petroleum products,

coconut

oil, and fruits.

3. Explain briefly the trend in Philippine GDP in 2016 to 2020

The Philippine Gross Domestic Product (GDP) posted a growth of 11.8 percent in the

second quarter of 2021. This was the highest since the fourth quarter of 1988 which

posted a growth of 12.0 percent. The main contributors to the growth, with their

corresponding increase, were: Manufacturing, 22.3 percent; Construction, 25.7 percent;

and Wholesale and retail trade; repair of motor vehicles and motorcycles, 5.4 percent.

Among the major economic sectors, Industry and Services posted positive growths

of 20.8 percent and 9.6 percent, respectively. Meanwhile, Agriculture, forestry, and

fishing posted a contraction of -0.1 percent in the second quarter of 2021.

On the demand side, Household Final Consumption Expenditure (HFCE) improved

by 7.2 percent, along with the following items: Gross Capital Formation (GCF), 75.5

percent; Exports, 27.0 percent; and Imports, 37.8 percent.

On the other hand, the Government Final Consumption Expenditure (GFCE) dropped

by -4.9 percent in the second quarter of 2021. 

Net Primary Income (NPl) from the Rest of the World declined by -53.8

percent. Meanwhile, the Gross National lncome (GNl) posted a growth of 6.6

percent during the period.

DENNIS S. MAPA, Ph.D.

Undersecretary

National Statistician and Civil Registrar General

4. Give an account of economic indicators of the Philippines

Philippines - Economic Indicators

Overview Last Previous

GDP Growth Rate (%) -1.3 0.3

GDP Annual Growth Rate (%) 11.8 -3.9

Unemployment Rate (%) 6.9 8.7

Coronavirus Vaccination Rate (doses per 100 people) 50.17 49.03

Philippines - Economic Indicators

Markets Last Reference Previous Range Frequency

Currency 50.79 Oct/21 50.77 26.37 : 56.56 Daily

Stock Market (points) 7235 Oct/21 7212 440 : 9078 Daily

Government Bond 10y (%) 4.98 Oct/21 4.98 2.57 : 16.4 Daily

Overview Last Reference Previous Range Frequency

GDP Growth Rate (%) -1.3 Jun/21 0.3 -14.9 : 8 Quarterly

GDP Annual Growth Rate (%) 11.8 Jun/21 -3.9 -17 : 12 Quarterly

Unemployment Rate (%) 6.9 Sep/21 8.7 4.5 : 17.6 Quarterly

Coronavirus Vaccination Rate (doses per 100 people) 50.17 Oct/21 49.03 0 : 50.17
Daily

Inflation Rate (%) 4.8 Sep/21 4.9 -2.1 : 62.8 Monthly

Inflation Rate Mom (%) 0 Sep/21 0.6 -4.5 : 8.8 Monthly

Coronavirus Vaccination Total (doses) 55715693 Oct/21 54444161 756 : 55715693

Daily

Interest Rate (%) 2 Sep/21 2 2 : 31 Daily

Balance of Trade (USD Thousand) -3577043 Aug/21 -3659306 -4415447 : 1144700

Monthly

Current Account (USD Million) -455 Jun/21 -623 -1410 : 2284 Monthly

Current Account to GDP (% of GDP) 3.6 Dec/20 -0.9 -7.7 : 5.8 Yearly

Government Debt to GDP (% of GDP) 53.5 Dec/20 39.6 39.6 : 74.9 Yearly

Government Budget (% of GDP) -7.5 Dec/20 -3.4 -7.5 : 1 Yearly

Business Confidence (points) -5.6 Sep/21 1.4 -32.6 : 54.9 Quarterly

Consumer Confidence (points) -19.3 Sep/21 -30.9 -54.5 : 13.1 Quarterly

Corporate Tax Rate (%) 30 Dec/21 30 30 : 35 Yearly

Personal Income Tax Rate (%) 35 Dec/21 35 32 : 35 Yearly

Coronavirus Cases (Persons) 2756923 Oct/21 2751644 0 : 2756923 Daily

Coronavirus Deaths (Persons) 41793 Oct/21 41585 0 : 41793 Daily

Coronavirus Recovered (Persons) 1339248 Oct/21 1333464 0 : 1339248 Daily

Economic Indicators for Philippines including actual values, historical data charts, an

economic calendar, time-series statistics, business news, long term forecasts and
short-

term predictions for Philippine’s economy.

5. Define the concepts of employment, full employment, underemployment and

unemployment in the Philippines.

Technical Notes on the Labor Force Survey

The Labor Force Survey (LFS) is a nationwide quarterly survey conducted by the

National Statistics Office (NSO).

The reference period used in the survey is the past seven (7) days preceding the date
of

visit of the enumerator. The number of sample households was 51,000.

The concepts and definitions used in the survey can be found in the regular NSO-ISH

Bulletins. Some are given below:

a. Labor Force - refers to the population 15 years old and over who contribute to the
production of goods and services in the country. It comprises the employed and

unemployed.

b. Employed - consists of persons in the labor force who are reported either as at work
or

with a job or business although not at work. Persons at work are those who did some

work, even for an hour during the reference period.

c. Unemployed - consists of persons in the labor force who are reported as (1) without

work; and (2) currently available for work; and (3) seeking work or not seeking work

because of the belief that no work is available, or awaiting results of previous job

application, or because of temporary illness or disability, bad weather or waiting for

rehire or job recall.

Note: The new definition of unemployed was adopted starting April 2005 per NSCB

Resolution No. 15 dated October 20, 2004

The old definition of unemployed considered only two criteria:

1) Without work and looking for work; or

2) Without work and not looking for work due to valid reasons.

d. Underemployed - refers to the employed persons who express the desire to have

additional hours of work in their present job or an additional job, or have a new job with

longer working hours.

e. Labor Force Participation Rate (LFPR) - proportion of total labor force to the total

household population 15 years and over.

f. Employment Rate - proportion of employed persons to the total labor force.

g. Unemployment Rate - proportion of unemployed persons to the total labor force.

h. Underemployment Rate - proportion of underemployed persons to total employed

persons.

Starting with the July 2003 round, the quarterly Labor Force Survey uses the 2003
Master

Sample Design. Using this new master sample design, the number of samples
increased
from 41,000 to around 51,000 sample households.

The province of Basilan is now under Autonomous Region in Muslim Mindanao while

Isabela City (Basilan) is under Region IX, in accordance with Executive Order No. 36.

The 1992 four-digit code for Philippine Standard Occupational Classification (PSOC)

and 1994 Philippine Standard Industry Classification (PSIC) were used in classifying

occupation and industry, respectively.

Starting with the January 2007 LFS round, the population projections based on the
2000

Census of Population has been adopted to generate the labor force statistics. This is in

compliance with NSCB Resolution No. 1 series of 2005 entitled Adoption of the

Methodology Used in Generating the 2000 Census of Population and Housing-Based

National Population Projections.

Source: National Statistics Office

Manila, Philippines

PERSON IN FULL‐TIME EMPLOYMENT A person who works 40 hours or more during

the

reference week.

PERSON IN PART‐TIME EMPLOYMENT A person who works less than 40 hours

during the

reference week.

UNDEREMPLOYED PERSONS Employed persons who want additional hours of work

in their

present job; or to have additional job; or a new job with longer working hours.

PERSON IN FULL‐TIME EMPLOYMENT A person who works 40 hours or more during

the

reference week.

PERSON IN PART‐TIME EMPLOYMENT A person who works less than 40 hours

during the
reference week.

UNDEREMPLOYED PERSONS Employed persons who want additional hours of work

in their

present job; or to have additional job; or a new job with longer working hours.

TYPES OF UNDEREMPLOYMENTS

1. Visibly Underemployed Underemployed person who worked less than 40 hours

during the

reference week.

2. Invisibly Underemployed Underemployed person who worked 40 hours or more

during the

reference week. 

Supply determinants are five ceteris paribus factors that are held constant when a supply curve
is constructed *true
One of the dangers of allocating common fixed costs to a product line is that such allocations
can make the line appear less profitable than it really is. *true

MRP stands for *a. Marginal Revenue Product

Why do we say that Micro Economics is an art. Explain Managerial economist is required to have
an art of utilizing his capability, knowledge and understanding to achieve the organizational
objective. Managerial economist should have an art to put in practice his theoretical knowledge
regarding elements of economic environment.

Operations can be classified according to the degree of variation in demand and visibility of the
operation as well as their volume and variety of production. Which of the following operations
would be classified as high variation and high visibility? b. A family doctor

Which of the following functions is not a core function of an organization?  c. The accounting and
finance function

Which of the following activities is not a direct responsibility of operations management? d.

Determining the exact mix of products and services that customers will want

Costs that change between alternatives are called c. crelevant costs.

Managers should pay little attention to bottleneck operations because they have limited capacity
for producing output. False
A cost incurred in the past that cannot be changed by any future action is a(n) *b. sunk cost

Variable costs are always relevant costs.false

The book value of old equipment is not a relevant cost in a decision. True

If a rise in the price of good 1 decreases the quantity of good 2 demanded, *the cross elasticity
of demand is negative
In the market, anyone who agrees to pay the requisite price of a product would be excluded from
their consumption *false
Individuals supply factors of production to firms. *true
The price elasticity of demand generally tends to be:smaller in the short run than in the long run.
How does Managerial Economics help in the optimum allocation of resources. The resources are
scarce with alternative uses. Managers need to use these limited resources optimally. Each
resource has several uses. It is manager who decides with his knowledge of economics that which
one is the preeminent use of the resource

A fixed input is one whose quantity cannot be varied during the time under consideration. *true

The supply curve for tomatoes is not thus more elastic in the short run than in the momentary
period *False
Macroeconomic studies are based on empirical evidence. *true

How does Managerial Economics help in the Operations and Production Management of and
organization of firm. Managerial economics uses quantitative methods to analyze production and
operational efficiency through schedule optimization, economies of scale and resource analyses.
Additional analysis methods include marginal cost, marginal revenue and operating leverage.
Through tweaking the operations and production of a company, profits rise as costs decline.
Demand curve slopes upwards from left to right. False

The law of variable proportions states that as the quantity of one factor is increased, keeping the
other factors fixed, the marginal product of that factor will eventually decline. *true
The incidence (split) of sales tax is determined by thed. price elasticity of supply and demand
The production function incorporates the technically efficient method of …………. *a. production.

Operations can be classified according to their volume and variety of production as well as the
degree of variation and visibility. Which of the following operations would be classified as high
volume, low variety? *A fast food restaurant

For a given normal supply curve, the amount of a tax paid by the buyer will be larger  *b. the
more inelastic the demand.
Aglets are the metal or plastic tips on shoelaces that make it easier to lace your shoes. The
demand for aglets is probably *b. inelastic.
How does managerial economics help the administration of an organization of a firm. 

Managerial economics helps the management in decision making. These decisions are based on
the economic rationale and are valid in the existing economic environment.

Which of the following factors will make the demand for a product more elastic?(Assume the
product has a straight-line, downward sloping demand.)A long time period has elapsed since the
product’s price changed.
Supply is the willingness and ability of producers to make a specific quantity of output available
to consumers at a particular price over a given period of time. *true
Only the variable costs identified with a product are relevant in a decision concerning whether to
eliminate the product *false
A cost that does not affect a decision is called an d. irrelevant cost
A differential cost is a variable cost. *false 
With a perfectly elastic demand and a normal supply (upward-slopping)  b. consumers will not
bear any tax burden

.Which of the following leads to the producers paying all of a tax? *b. The supply is perfectly
inelastic.

All future costs are relevant in decision making. *False

The cross elasticity of demand measures the responsiveness of the quantity demandedof a
particular good to changes in the prices of *b. its substitutes but not its complements.
Economists find it convenient to distinguish between the ………….and the long run. *a. short run

The cost of factor inputs like land, labor, and capital has a major influence on supply *True

The market supply curve is the horizontal sum of the individual supply curve. *true

The demand for your services becomes more elastic. True

Most operations produce a mixture of both products and services. Which of the following
businesses is closest to producing “pure” services? c. Counsellor/therapist

If goods are complements, definitely their *d. cross elasticity’s are negative.

PRELIM
A _____________ is a person who directs resources to achieve a stated goal and he/she has
the responsibility for his/her own actions as well as for the actions of individuals, machines and
other inputs under the his/her control.c. Manager
Implicit cost is equal to *a. business profit minus economic profit.
The value of an economic theory in practice is determined byc. how well the theory can predict
or explain. 
Which of the following is an example of a resource constraint? *
d. Inadequate financial capital
Making decisions and processing information are two Primary tasks of Managers. It was
explained by the subject: Computer Programming Science *B. FALSE
Explain how accountancy science be useful in the application of managerial economics by the
firm. To run a business you need data, records, reports, analysis, accurate information about
assets, debts, liabilities, profits; and that is why Accounting is important for any business activities.
The accounting information is very important for the management or for decision making body of
an organization. That is why the importance of accounting in business is very large. For making
the right decision, Management depends on statistical date and information that accounting
provides. The main object of Accounting is to record financial transactions systematically in the
books of accounts and to find out the profit-loss and financial position of the business or the firm.

Which of the following is defined as the study of the aggregate economy studied as a whole?  c.
Macroeconomics
Explain the theory of the firmIn neoclassical economics, the theory of the firm is a microeconomic
concept that states that a firm exists and make decisions to maximize profit
* The theory of the firm influences decision-making in a variety of areas, including resource
allocation (considering the resource is always scarce), production techniques, pricing adjustments,
and the volume of production
* Modern takes on the theory of the firm sometimes distinguish between long-run motivations,
such as sustainability, and short -run motivations, such as profit maximization.

The theory of the firm is called: Welfare Economics *B. FALSE

The desire for and object as used in economics is called: want *b. false
Firms do not continue to grow without limit because of *a. managerial limitations.
If demand changes as a result of price changes, then it is a case of ___ and _________  *a.
expansion, contraction
Law of demand is a ___ statement. *b. qualitative
Which of the following is an example of an implicit cost? *b. The uncompensated services of the
spouse of a firm's owner

The first stage in the five-step decision process described in the text is to  *a. defines the
problem.
The five functions of management are PRODUCING, ORGANIZING, STAFFING, DIRECTING,
CONTROLLING *B. FALSE
What is the difference between economic profit and producer’s surplus?  *While economic profit is
the difference between total revenue, producer surplus is the difference between the revenue and
the total variable cost. The difference between economic profit and producer surplus is the fixed
cost of the production.
Managerial Economics fills up the gap between ___ and ___. *c. Economic theory, Practice.
in this kind of countries, the rulers are unaffected by famine and there is no one to hold
accountable irrespective of millions of people died *c. undemocratic country
Management decision problems are comprised of three elements. Which of the following is not
one of them? *a. Profitability
Two major functions of a Managerial Economist are ___ and ___. *a. Decision making, forward
planning
The relation between the price and quantity demanded of a commodity in the market is known
as: Law of Scarcity *b. false

Basic objective of a firm today is ___. *d. profit optimization

Which of the alternatives to the modern theory of the firm holds that managers attempt to meet
some goal that is defined in terms of a specified level of sales, profits, growth, or market share?  .
Satisficing model
By tying a manager's compensation to the performance of the firm relative to that of its
competitors, corporate stockholders and directors create incentives that tend to resolve the  *c.
principal-agent problem.
Which of the following is the discipline that studies the use of statistical tools to estimate
economic models? *b. Econometrics

Which of the following areas of economic theory is the single most important element of
managerial economics?d. Microeconomics
The study of human activity both at individual and National level *c. economics  

the other name of welfare economics b. development economics

Managerial economics is the study of how ________are directed most efficiently to achieve
managerial goals. It is a valuable tool for analyzing business situations to take better
decisions. *c. scarce resources

Business profit is equal to total revenue minus *b. explicit costs.

Demand Analysis & Forecasting is a major part of managerial decision-making depends on
accurate estimates of demand. By forecasting future sales manager prepares production
schedules and employ resources which helps mgt. to strengthen its market position &
profit. *true
What social function is served by profits in a free-enterprise system? *b. They provide an
incentive for the reallocation of resources shows the relationship between price and quantity
supplied of a particular product. *a. Law of supply
. it is reputed to be the youngest of all social science that deal on decision making  *c.
managerial economics
Managerial Economics is the integration of ___ with ___ for solving business and management
problems. *b. Economic theory with Business Practice
Managerial economics as a subject has gained popularity in 1951according to Joel Dean inf.
USA
Application of Economics for managerial decision-making is called MICRO-ECONOMICS.FALSE

Managerial Economics is basically a branch of ___ economics *a. Micro-economics

ECONOMICS is the study of man’s action in the ordinary business of life. * True
Which theory of profit views profit as a firm's reward for keeping costs below or revenues above
the levels experienced by other firms in the industry? *d. Managerial efficiency theory
The last stage in the five-step decision process described in the text is to *c. implement the
decision.
In a typical demand schedule quantity demanded varies ___ with the price. *b. inversely
Which of the following functional areas of business has primary responsibility for a firm's total
revenue? *c. Marketing

In the survey method of forecasting, which is one of those enumerated does not belong? b.
stratified method
The tendency for managers to operate a firm in a way that maximizes their personal utility rather
than the firm's profits is referred to as the *b. principal-agent problem.
Which of the following is the best definition of managerial economics? Managerial economics
is *b. a field that applies economic theory and the tools of decision science.
8. The modern theory of the firm holds that firms behave in a way that is designed to
maximize *b. the value of the firm. 

The economic term for the costs associated with negotiating and enforcing a contract is  d.
transaction costs.
It measures changes in quantity demand to a change in price. It is the ratio no percentage
change in quantity demanded to a percentage change in price is known as price elasticity of
demand *b. false
Which theory of profit holds that profit will be higher in industries characterized by a high degree
of variability in their revenues or their costs? *Risk-bearing theory

Managerial Economics as a subject gained popularity first in Germany *B. FALSE

Managerial Economics is mainly a ___ science. *b. prescriptive

i. Balance sheet is also known as the statement of financial position. ii. The account of Wages
Payable would appear on the income statement. *

a. Statement i is true, while statement ii is false.

It refers to the availability of cash over the longer term to meet financial commitments as they fall
due. *

c. Solvency  

i. Depreciation Expense-Building is a permanent account. ii. The post-closing trial balance will
have fewer accounts than the adjusted trial balance. *

b. Statement i is false, while statement ii is true.

It refers to the ability to take effective actions to alter the amount and timings of cash flows so
that it can respond to unexpected needs and opportunities. *

b. Financial Flexibility

Which situation indicates a loss on the income statement? *

b. Total debits exceed total credits

Profit for the year amounts to P450, 000.00. The owner withdrew P60, 000.00 per month for
personal living expenses. The owner’s capital account will show a net *

c. Decrease of P270, 000.00

i. The amount for Owner’s withdrawals will appear in the Income Statement columns of the
worksheet. ii. The owner’s personal withdrawals for the year cause a decrease in profit. 
d. Both statements are false.

Accrued revenue is a term used to describe revenue that has been received but not yet earned.
ii. Revenue cannot be recognized unless delivery of goods has occurred or services have been
rendered.
 b. Statement i is false, while statement ii is true.
In the adjusted trial balance, the owner’s equity account reflects *
d. the period ending balance

i. An asset’s book value represents the true market value of the asset. ii. A fiscal period must
begin on January 1. *c. Both statements are true.

Failure to record expired rent. *S

Recorded twice an acquisition of office equipment on account. *S

Failure to record revenues earned but not yet received. *M

Failure to record used supplies. *S

Rendered services for cash but made no record of transaction. *M

Failure to record accrued interest to the bank. *A
Failure to record payment of accounts. *S
Payment for repairs erroneously debited to Building account. *A

Recorded collection of an account receivable by debiting Cash and crediting a revenue account.
S
Depreciation for the month was omitted. *S

Creeed
THE APOSTLES' CREED: ARTICLE 2 The book is a complete explanation of the 12 Articles of
the Apostles' Creed. ARTICLE 2: I BELIEVE IN JESUS CHRIST, HIS ONLY SON, OUR LORD

Sons of Holy Mary Immaculate 2. A CATECHIST'S PRAYER Loving Father, giver of all that is,
help me to remember that every gift I have comes from you. Expand my vision so that I can
appreciate your goodness in the world around me. Jesus, our Redeemer, you are the path to the
treasures of my heart and soul. Strengthen my commitment to be a catechist and deepen my
capacity to share your truth with those in my care. Holy Spirit, Love Divine, all life and energy flows
from you. Illuminate my thoughts and intensify my desire to grow ever deeper in my faith. I lift up
my prayer to you, God—Father, Son, and Spirit—in humility and hope. Amen. Sons of Holy Mnry
Immnritlntn 3. WHAT ARE THE FOUR PARTS OF THE 2ND ARTICLE? The 2nd Article of the
Creed is divided into four parts: 1. Jesus Christ, 2. The Two Natures of Jesus Christ, 3. The Name
"Jesus," 4. The Title "Christ." JESUS-CI-MIST TrLie Ciod (tili;e) and true ran (red 4. JESUS
CHRIST: Who is Jesus Christ? Li Jesus Christ is the Second Person of the Blessed Trinity,
because he existed from eternity as God-the-Son, in unity with the Father and the Holy Spirit. LA
He is also the Incarnated Son of God because he became a man in the womb of the Virgin Mary.
Sons of Holy Mary Immaculate 5. JESUS CHRIST: What are the Old Testament prophecies
concerning Jesus Christ? GENESIS 3:15: The first announcement of the coming of Christ
(Protoevangelium), was made by God to Adam and Eve. ISAIAH 7:14: Prophet Isaiah announced
that the Messiah would be born of a Virgin Mother. Sons of Holy Mary Immaculate 6. JESUS
CHRIST: : What is the Genealogy of Jesus? U The Genealogy of the Family Record of Jesus,
beginning from Adam and Eve to St. Joseph. U The Genealogy demonstrates that Jesus is the
true Messiah, being: 1) from the People of Israel; 2) From the Tribe of Judah; 3) From the Family
of Jesse; 4) From the House of David. U St. Joseph met all these prophetic requirements, which
were legally acquired by his adopted son. Snns of I In, Mary Immaculate 7. THE TWO NATURES
OF JESUS: What are the two natures of Jesus Christ? Jesus Christ is one divine person with two
natures: human and divine. The hypostatic union of the two natures, declared by the Council of
Ephesus (431 AD) is beyond human comprehension and can be accepted only by faith. The
Church requires the icons of Jesus to have a color coding: blue, the color of heaven, to signify his
divine nature; and red, the color of blood, to signify his human nature. Sons of Holy Mary
Immaculate d. THE TWO NATURES OF JESUS: What are the proofs of the divine nature of
Jesus? The Prologue of St. John: "In the beginning was the Word, and the Word was with God,
and the Word was God" (John 1:1). Jesus' answer to St. Philip: "Whoever has seen me has seen
the Father"(John 14:9). LI St. Thomas' profession of faith: "My Lord and my God" (John 20:2B).
And Jesus commented: "Have you come to believe because you have seen me? Blessed are
those who have not seen and have believed" (John 20:29). x4E11 My Lord and my Ciod" SHMI \I"
Sons of Holy Mary Immaculate 9. THE TWO NATURES OF JESUS: What are the proofs of the
human nature of Jesus? U The incarnation in Mary's womb: The term "incarnation" comes from
the Latin words in and carnem, which literally means "to enter into the flesh," or "to become a
man." Li The death of Jesus: The ultimate demonstration of the human nature of Christ is his
death on the cross, because God cannot die; only humans do. Sons of Holy Mary Immaculate S
MA I ■1. 10. THE TWO NATURES OF JESUS: What are the Christological heresies? 1. Ebionism:
They regarded Jesus as a roan normally horn of Joseph and Mary. 2. Adoptionism: They
considered him as a normal man, who was adopted by God as his Son during the baptism at the
Jordan. 3. Docetism: They considered Jesus as God, who seemed to be a man; thus, his human
appearance was merely a phantasm. 4. Arianism: They rejected the divine nature or Jesus and
considered him as a man. 5. Apollinarianism: They believed that the human nature of Jesus was
incomplete, consisting in a body without. We rational soul. 6. Nestorianism: They maintained that
the two natures of Christ L.)er7 remained separated, and were not united into one divine , son.
Monophysitism: They asserted that the human nature of Jesus was completely absorbed by his
divine nature. Sons of Holy Mary Immaculate 11. THE NAME "JESUS": What is the meaning of
the name "Jesus"? LI Jesus is a Hebrew name which means God Saves, because his mission
was to save mankind. CI The original Hebrew name Yehosua, which literally
The original Hebrew name Yehosua, which literally means "Yahweh Saves," was translated:
Yeshua in Aramaic; Iesous in Greek; Iesus in Latin; Jesus in English; Hesus in Tagalog; Gesu in
Italian; Jesirs in Spanish. Sons of Holy Mary Immaculate 12. THE NAME "JESUS": Why do we
celebrate the name of In order to be saved we must believe in the name of Jesus, and all liturgical
prayers conclude with the words: "Through our Lord Jesus Christ." We celehrate the feast of the
Holy Name of Jesus on January 3. The greatest promoter of the Holy Name of Jesus was St.
Bernardine of Siena, who coined the Christ.ogram "IHS," which stands for Jesus Hominum
Sa/vator (Jesus Savior of Men). The devotion to the Holy Name became so popular that the IHS
was often inscribed in churches, liturgical vestments, and on the Eucharistic bread. Snns of I inly
Mary Immaculate 13. THE NAME "JESUS": Do biblical names have meaning? In the Bible, a
name identifies a person's character and mission. It is important to give Christian names to our
children, so that they may find guidance in life. 1. Lucifer: Bearer of Light; 2. Michael: Who-Is-Like-
God; 3. Raphael: Medicine-of-God; 4. Gabriel: Power-of-God; 5. Adam: Earth; 6. Eve: Mother of
the Living; 7. Abraham: Father of a Multitude; 8. Isaac: Laughter; 9. Jacob: Supplanter; 1O.Israel:
Strong with God; 11.John: God is Gracious; 12.Miriam: Princess. Sons of Holy Mary Immaculate
SHIM c 14. THE NAME "JESUS": Why do the Popes and some religious their- name? The newly
elected Pope chooses a name which signifies his personality and spirituality. The practice was
established by Jesus who changed Simon's name into Peter. Some religious change their name to
signify their new life totally dedicated to Christ; others retain their baptismal name, to emphasize
that religious life is the fulfillment
Sons of Holy Mary Immaculate 15. THE TITLE "CHRIST": What is the meaning of the title
"Christ"? ❑ The title Christ, which is the Greek translation of the Hebrew word Messiah, means
anointed. ❑ Christ is not the family name of Jesus, but a title which identifies his mission. Thus,
the expression Jesus Christ is a profession of faith, meaning: "Jesus is the Christ." Sons of Holy
Mary Immaculate SHIM -.111■•••• 16. THE TITLE "CHRIST": Why majority of the Jews do not
believe that Jesus is the Christ? ❑ Although Jesus was a Jew, majority of his countrymen did not
believe in him, as he prophesized: "No prophet is accepted in his own country" (Luke 2:24). ❑
They were expecting a glorious Messiah, and instead they got a poor man, "the son of the
carpenter" (Matthew 13:55). ❑ The Jews are still waiting for the arrival of their Messiah, but all the
claimants died without a trace. Suns of Huly Mary Inimauulat. 17. THE TITLE "CHRIST": Why is
the Christ the ultimate Prophet, King, and Priest? ,c.51/4.15 TIFIE KINC;, PRIEST Old Testament
New Testament The Old Testament prophets, kings, and priests, were instituted by anointing,
prefiguring the ultimate "anointed:" the Messiah - who is: 1. The Greatest Prophet, because
announces and fulfills the Word of God. 2. The Universal King, because all power and glory
belong to him. 3. The Highest Priest, because his sacrifice on the Cross completes and fulfills all
others. Sons of Holy Mary Immaculate 18. THE TITLE "CHRIST": What arr the other titles of Jesus
Christ? The Son of God, because he is the second person of the Blessed Trinity. OCP
1 — """ 1'" ' name of Jesus, but a title which identifies his mission. Thus, the expression Jesus
Christ is a profession of faith, meaning: "Jesus is the Christ." I IV, 1-11,-. It-111111y Jesus is the
Christ of Cod Sons of Holy Mary Immaculate 16. THE TITLE "CHRIST": Why majority of the Jews
do not believe that Jesus is the Christ? Cl Although Jesus was a Jew, majority of his countrymen
did not believe in him, as he prophesized: "No prophet is accepted in his own country" (Luke 2:24).
They were expecting a glorious Messiah, and instead they got a poor man, "the son of the
carpenter" (Matthew 13:55). Cl The Jews are still waiting for the arrival of their Messiah, but all the
claimants died without a trace. Soil, of Holy Mai y lirimauuldbe 17. THE TITLE "CHRIST": Why is
the Christ the ultimate Prophet, King, and Priest? The Old Testament prophets, kings, and priests,
were instituted by anointing, prefiguring the ultimate "anointed:" the Messiah - who is: 1. The
Greatest Prophet, because announces and fulfills the Word of God. 2. The Universal King,
because all power and glory belong to him. 3. The Highest Priest, because his sacrifice on the
Cross completes and fulfills all others. Sons of Holy Mary Immaculate SHMI 18. THik "CHRIST":
What are the other titles of Jesus Christ? '7711# The Transfiguration The Son of God: because he
is the second person of the Blessed Trinity. The Lord: because he is God - since Lord (English),
Kyrios (Greek), Dominus (Latin) is the Translation of the Hebrew name Yahweh. The Immanuel:
since, with his incarnation, he became God Is With-Us. The Redeemer: because he paid for us the
debt due for our sins. The Pantocrator: a Greek title which means All-Powerful, because all power
was given to him. The King of the Universe: because he is the Alpha and Omega of creation, and
all in heaven and earth belongs to him.

PE
MODULE 6
SUBSTANCE ABUSE EDUCATION

At the end of the lesson, the students should be able to:

1. Define drugs
 2. Enumerate the different prohibited or commonly abused drugs
3. Discuss the causes and effects of drug use
4. Present statistics of drug use in the Philippines
5. List the solutions of the Philippine government to drug problems
6. Discuss ways on how to stay away from drugs

Directions: Fill in the box with the causes and effects of drug addiction.

The following are definitions of a drug from the Philippine Drug Enforcement Agency

1.

Clinical definition. A drug is a therapeutic substance other than food used in the prevention,
diagnosis, alleviation, treatment, or cure of disease in humans or animals.

2.
3.

General definition. A drug is a substance aside from food intended to affect the structure or function
of a physiological system like the human body.

4.
5.

Popular definition. A drug refers mainly to chemical or plant-derived substances that affect the
body’s psychological, behavioral, or physical functions and leads to varying degrees of dependence
or addiction

6.

Dangerous drugs (organic or synthetic) have high tendency for abuse and dependency. These
substances when abused pose harm to those who use them.
Classification of Dangerous Drugs
According to the Dangerous Drugs Act of 1972, there are two classes of dangerous drugs, namely:

1.

Prohibited drugs which include all the drugs that produce psychological effects of narcotics or those
that relieve pain and induce sleep (cocaine, LSD, marijuana, opium and its derivatives, etc.); and
 2.
3.

Regulated drugs which include self-inducing sedatives like barbiturates, amphetamines, or other
hypnotic drugs or compounds producing the same physiological effects.

4.

Drugs are generally used for medication. When taken with caution and prescription, they are not
harmful. However, when they are used contrary to their purpose, to aid healing and recovery of clinical
patients, they pose harm. 
A number of people use drugs not for its clinical purpose. At the onset, it is curiosity or peer
pressure that lead them to illegally use drugs. Nonetheless, eventually they use them for other purposes,
such as enjoyment, escape from problems, among others. When misuse of drugs become persistent, it is
called drug abuse, which can lead to drug dependence or addiction, a state of physical and
psychological dependence or both on a dangerous drug. 
In 2013, American Psychiatric Association (APA) subsumed substance abuse and substance dependence
in one category, substance use disorder, which is further classified as mild, moderate, and severe. The
diagnostic criteria for substance use disorder are the following:

1.

The substance is often taken in larger amounts or over a longer period than was intended.

2.
3.

There is a persistent desire or unsuccessful effort to cut down or control use of the substance.

4.
5.

A great deal of time is spent in activities necessary to obtain the substance, use the substance, or
recover from its effects.

6.
7.

Craving, or a strong desire or urge to use the substance, occurs.

8.
9.

Recurrent use of the substance results in a failure to fulfill major role obligations at work, school, or
home.

10.
11.

Use of the substance continues despite having persistent or recurrent social or interpersonal
problems caused or exacerbated by the effects of its use.

12.
13.
 Important social, occupational, or recreational activities are given up or reduced because of use of
the substance.

14.
15.

Use of the substance is recurrent in situations in which it is physically hazardous.

16.
17.

Use of the substance is continued despite knowledge of having a persistent or recurrent physical or
psychological problem that is likely to have been caused or exacerbated by the substance.

18.
19.

Tolerance, as defined by either of the following:

20.

a.

A need for markedly increased amounts of the substance to achieve intoxication or desired effect;

b.
c.

A markedly diminished effect with continued use of the same amount of the substance.

d.

1.

Withdrawal-- “the combination of physical and mental effects that a person experiences after they
stop using or reduce their intake of a substance such as alcohol and prescription or recreational
drugs.” The following are withdrawal symptoms: changes in appetite, changes in mood,
congestion, fatigue, irritability, muscle pain, nausea, restlessness, runny nose, shakiness, sleeping
difficulties, sweating, tremors, vomiting.

2.

A.

B. Those who experience two or three criteria are considered to have a “mild” disorder, four or five
is considered "moderate," and six or more symptoms, "severe." 

B.

Classification of Drug Abusers

Substance abusers can be classified according to the frequency of their substance use. 
1. Experimenters – people who abuse the drug(s) for experimental basis. 
 2. Occasional Users – abuse the drug occasionally/whenever there are special occasions. They
abuse the drug once every two (2) weeks to two (2) times a week. 
3. Regular Users – abuse the drug on a regular basis approximately three (3) to four (4) times a
week or every other day. 
4. Drug Dependents – people who tend to abuse the drug(s) everyday (almost every day) or about
five (5) to seven (7) times a week. 
5. Mentally Ill Chemical Abuser/Substance Induced Psychosis – drug abusers who manifest
signs and symptom of psychotic disorders caused by the effects of drugs (hallucinations,
disorientation, delusions, etc.) 
What are the counter-measures for substance abuse? 
 Classification     Management
Abstainer Preventive Education
Experimenters   Counselling
Occasional Users Counselling
Regular Users Counselling
Drug Dependent Drug Rehabilitation
Mentally Ill Chemical Abuser Psychiatric Treatment
 

Methamphetamine Hydrochloride (Shabu)

Methamphetamine hydrochloride, also called shabs, ice, meth, crystal, “kristal”, “basura”, “tawas”,
harms the brain by altering its functions. According to studies, methamphetamine abusers show reduced
motor skills and impaired verbal learning resulting from the alterations in the activity of the dopamine, a
neurotransmitter involved in reward, motivation, experience of pleasure and motor function. In addition,
they experience extreme weight loss, severe dental problems (“meth mouth”), anxiety, confusion, insomnia,
mood disturbances, and violent behavior.
Cannabis Sativa (Marijuana) 
Marijuana (weed, jutes, pot, grass, “damo”, “chongke”) damages a person’s memory and ability to
focus. It contains tetrahydrocannabinol (THC) that affects coordination and balance, posture, and reaction
time (experience commonly referred to as “spacing out”). Therefore, severe use of marijuana significantly
reduces a person’s capacity to learn, carry-out complicated tasks, participate in sports, drive and operate
other machinery. In addition, based on studies, it can lead to lung cancer and other problems in the
respiratory and immune systems. Other health concerns resulting from the use of marijuana are problems
with memory and learning, distorted perception (sights, sounds, time, touch), trouble with thinking and
problem solving, loss of motor coordination, and increased heart rate and palpitations.
 Inhalants 
Inhalants (volatile solvents, aerosols, gases, and nitrites) are “volatile substances that produce
chemical vapors that can be inhaled to induce a psychoactive or mind-altering effect.” Similar to alcohol,
inhalants cause slurred speech, lack of coordination, euphoria and dizziness, lightheadedness,
hallucinations, and delusions. Harmful effects that cannot be reversed are hearing loss, limb spasms,
central nervous system or brain damage, and bone marrow damage 

Based on Chemical Makeup

1. Alcohol. Beer, wine, liquor and the like are a central nervous system depressant. Prolonged use or
abuse of alcohol causes long-term liver damage.
2. Opioids. These drugs are also called opiates (heroin, fentanyl, oxycodone), which are made from the
drug opium or the chemicals designed to mimic it. Opioids are some of the most addictive and deadliest
substances. They interact with the brain’s neurotransmitters, allowing users to feel relaxed and “high”; that
is why it is highly addictive.
3. Benzodiazepines. Benzos, such as Ativan, valium, and Xanax treat a number of psychiatric and sleep
conditions. However, they are highly addictive and can result in medical and psychiatric problems when
misused.
4. Cannabinoids (marijuana, hashish). These are the most widely abused drugs. They create a feeling of
ecstasy, making users feel “high”. Though less addictive, they negatively affect mental and physical health.
5. Barbiturates (amytal, luminal, pentobarbital). Historically, barbiturates are used to treat psychiatric and
sleep disorders. Currently, they are utilized as anesthesia and as treatment of medical conditions, such as
epilepsy and headaches. Similar to the previously mentioned drugs, they are highly addictive and their
overdose can cause body system failure.
Based on Effects
1. Depressants (downers). Alcohol, opiates and barbiturates are considered depressants. They create
feelings of tiredness and relaxation. Medically utilized to cure mental illness and sleep deprivation,
depressants are highly addictive and dangerous drugs and likely to cause an overdose.
2. Stimulants (uppers, namely, Adderall, cocaine, and meth). These are primarily used to increase energy,
concentration, and wakefulness. “In the short term, stimulants are believed to increase productivity and
performance, while producing an excited high of pleasure. In the long term, stimulants are incredibly
addictive and have a very high potential for abuse.” 
3. Hallucinogens (dissociatives, namely, LSD, Psilocybin Mushrooms, and PCP). They are less addictive;
however, once used, their impacts are immediate, severe, and deadly. They change the user’s perception
of reality, oftentimes creating visual and auditory hallucinations.
4. Inhalants (paint thinner, nail polish remover, and gasoline). These substances are ingested by breathing.
“While they tend to be less addictive than many other substances, the use of inhalants is incredibly
dangerous and causes many serious health effects.”

Withdrawal from friends and family




Change in friendships or problems with friends




A drop in grades  or attendance at school




Signs of sadness, depression, agitation or hostility




An increase in borrowing money




Evidence of drug paraphernalia or missing prescription drugs

Enlarged pupils, bloodshot or glassy eyes




Increased energy and confidence




Loss of inhibitions




Loss of coordination




Aggressive behaviour




Trembling, twitches




Paranoia (being extremely suspicious)




Hallucinations (hearing or seeing things that aren’t really there)




Nausea and vomiting




Complaints of stomach cramps, blurred vision, headaches or dizziness



 Exhaustion, fatigue or insomnia (being unable to sleep)




Irritability and moodiness




Changes to eating patterns such as eating less or more




Anxiety symptoms such as panic attacks, dizziness, sweating, dry mouth, muscle aches and headaches.

There is no single factor that leads people into drug addiction. Actually, there are several risk factors, and the more
risk factors an individual is exposed to, the greater is his/her chance to be addicted to drugs. The Bio-Psycho-Social-
Spiritual Model of addiction considers the following the causes of addiction:

1.

Biological causes. Genetically, people are different. One genetic difference that we have is our brain
function. We are unique in terms of the way our brain reacts to stimulants. “Some people may enjoy a
substance or activity so much that it becomes very tempting and difficult to resist. Another person would not
experience this difficulty because they do not experience a similar enjoyment.” We also vary in the way we
manage our impulses. Some of us can resist while others cannot. Those who are deficient in managing their
impulsive desires are prone to addiction. In addition, even our natural brain functioning and chemistry
increases our vulnerability to addiction. Naturally, we desire to experience pleasure; this natural tendency
makes us vulnerable to repeat behaviors that give us pleasure.

2.
3.

Psychological causes. Some people who experience negative emotions (especially those who have poor
coping skills) resort to drugs to alleviate their negative feelings. Having learned afterwards that drugs can
offer them relief and pleasure, they continue to take drugs despite the fact that they are aware of  the
harmful effects.

4.
5.

Socio-cultural influences. A group’s culture (learned and shared pattern of values and beliefs). When in a
group, there is tolerance of drug use, it is likely that the members of the group will be vulnerable to drug
addiction. For example in the family, when parents tolerate the use of drugs and use drugs, children learn
drug use and misuse. 

6.
7.
 Spirituality. It is innate in human beings to seek for spirituality, and often its expression is religion. In
religion, we are able to establish connection with our God; therefore, allowing us to find meaning and
purpose. People’s lack of spiritual support may lead them to drug addiction.

8.

 
 
Substance Physical and Psychological Effects
Alcohol Short-term effects of alcohol use include: distorted vision, hearing, and coordination impaired
judgment altered perceptions and emotions bad breath; hangovers
Long-term effects of heavy alcohol use include: loss of appetite, vitamin deficiencies; stomach
ailments liver damage skin problems sexual impotence heart and central nervous system
damage; memory loss
Methamphetamine The effects of methamphetamine use include: euphoria increased heart rate and blood
(Meth) pressure increased wakefulness; insomnia increased physical activity decreased appetite;
extreme anorexia respiratory problems hypothermia, convulsions, and cardiovascular
problems, which can lead to death irritability, confusion, tremors anxiety, paranoia, or violent
behavior can cause irreversible damage to blood vessels in the brain, producing strokes
Cocaine Physical risks associated with using any amount of cocaine and crack: increases in blood
pressure, heart rate, breathing rate, and body temperature heart attacks, strokes, and
respiratory failure hepatitis or AIDS through shared needles brain seizures reduction of the
body's ability to resist and combat infection 
Psychological risks: violent, erratic, or paranoid behavior hallucinations and "coke bugs"--a
sensation of imaginary insects crawling over the skin confusion, anxiety and depression, loss of
interest in food or sex "cocaine psychosis"--losing touch with reality, loss of interest in friends,
family, sports, hobbies, and other activities
Hallucinogens Physical risks associated with using hallucinogens:  increased heart rate and blood pressure;
sleeplessness and tremors;  lack of muscular coordination; sparse, mangled, and incoherent
speech; decreased awareness of touch and pain that can result in self-inflicted injuries
convulsions coma; heart and lung failure Psychological risks associated with using
hallucinogens:  flashbacks; a sense of distance and estrangement depression, anxiety, and
paranoia; violent behavior; confusion, suspicion, and loss of control; behavior similar to
schizophrenic, psychosis, catatonic syndrome whereby the user becomes mute, lethargic,
disoriented, and makes meaningless repetitive movements
Marijuana Short-term effects of using marijuana: sleepiness; difficulty keeping track of time; impaired or
reduced short-term memory; reduced ability to perform tasks requiring concentration and
coordination, such as driving a car; increased heart rate; potential cardiac dangers for those
with preexisting heart disease; bloodshot eyes; dry mouth and throat; decreased social
inhibitions ; paranoia; hallucinations Long-term effects of using marijuana: enhanced cancer
risk; decrease in testosterone levels for men; also lower sperm counts and difficulty having
children; increase in testosterone levels for women; also increased risk of infertility;
diminished or extinguished sexual pleasure; psychological dependence requiring more of the
drug to get the same effect

The 1987 Constitution recognizes the vital role of the youth in nation-building. Hence,
the State is mandated to promote and protect the youth’s physical, moral and intellectual well-
being and hone them to become patriotic and nationalistic individuals who are involved in public
and civic affairs. The National Service Training Program (NSTP) Law, also known as "An Act
Establishing the National Service Training Program (NSTP) for Tertiary Level Students” or
Republic Act No. 9163, was instituted to concretize this mandate.
The RA 9163 enables the establishment of the National Service Training Program
(NSTP). NSTP aims to enhance the youth’s civic consciousness and defense preparedness by
developing the ethics of service and patriotism while undergoing training in the Reserve-
Officers’ Training Corps (ROTC), Civic Welfare Training Service (CWTS), or Literacy Training
Service (LTS). Through the components of the NSTP, the role of the youth in nation building is
promoted and the youth are encouraged to become civic and/or military leaders and volunteers
who are ready to respond to the call of the nation in case their services are needed. “As the
most valuable resource of the nation, the youth shall be motivated, trained, organized and
involved in the military, literacy, civic welfare programs and other similar endeavors in the
service of the nation.”

1. Reserve-Officers’ Training Corps (ROTC)

The ROTC as institutionalized under Section 38 and 39 of the Republic Act No. 7077 is
designed to prepare the youth for national defense; hence, it provides training that is aimed at
motivating, organizing, and mobilizing the youth to defend the State “in the event of war,
invasion or rebellion; to assist in relief and rescue during disasters or calamities; to assist in
socioeconomic development; and to assist in the operation and maintenance of essential
government or private utilities in the furtherance of overall mission.”
2. Civic Welfare Training Service [CWTS]
The CWTS is designed to educate students promote general welfare and enhances the
way of living of every member of the community or the enhancement of its facilities, especially
those devoted to improving health, education, environment, entrepreneurship, safety, recreation
and moral of the citizenry and other social welfare services.

3.Literacy Training Service [LTS]

The LTS is designed to train students to teach literacy and numeracy skills to school
children, out-of-school youths, and other segments of society in need of their services.
Background of the NSTP Law

The Three NSTP Components

Who are covered by the NSTP Law?

All incoming freshman male and female students, starting the school year 2002-2003,
enrolled in any baccalaureate and in at least two (2)-year technical-vocational or associate
courses, are required to complete on (1) NSTP component of their choice, as a graduation
requirement.
What shall schools offer?
All higher and technical-vocational education institutions must at least offer one (1) of
the NSTP components. State Universities and Colleges (SUCs) shall offer the ROTC
component and at least one (1) other NSTP component.
Who are exempted from taking NSTP?
The following are exempted from taking NSTP:
1. The Philippine Military Academy (PMA), Philippine Merchant Marine Academy
(PMMA), Philippine National Police Academy (PNPA), and other SUCs of similar nature, in view
of the special character of these institutions;
2. Based on RA 9163, Rule 3, sections 4a1, 4a2 and 4a3, students who finished or
graduated before the school year 2003-2004;
3. Students who completed any of the three components but considered freshmen to
the course where they transferred or shifted; and
4. Foreign students.
What is the duration and equivalent course unit of each of the NSTP Component?
Each of the NSTP components shall be undertaken for an academic period of two (2)
semesters for 54 to 90 training hours per semester. It shall be credited for three (3) units per
semester. However, a one (1) Summer Program (OSP) in lieu of the two (2) semester program
may be designed, formulated and adopted by the DND, CHED and TESDA, subject to the
capability of the school and the AFP to handle the same.
What fees shall be charged to students taking any of the NSTP components?
No other fees shall be collected except basic tuition fees, which should not be more than
50% of the charges of the school per academic unit.
Who will manage the NSTP implementation?
1. The school authorities shall exercise academic and administrative supervision over the
design, formulation, adoption and implementation of the different NSTP components in their
respective schools.
2. In the case of ROTC, the school authorities and the Department of National Defense
Frequently Asked Questions (FAQs) on the NSTP Program

(DND), subject to the policies, regulations and programs of DND on the military component of
the training, shall exercise joint supervision over its implementation.
3. Schools that have contracted CHED accredited or TESDA-recognized Non-Governmental
Organizations (NGOs) to formulate and administer training modules for any of the NSTP
components shall jointly exercise academic and administrative supervision with those NGOs.
4. CHED Regional Offices, TESDA, Provincial/District Offices and DND-AFP (through the
Major Service Reserve Commands) shall oversee and monitor the implementation of the NSTP
under their respective jurisdiction to determine if the trainings are being conducted in
consonance with the objectives of the NSTP Law.
What will the students receive after completing NSTP Program?
Every student will be given a certificate of completion with corresponding serial number
issued by the CHED, TESDA, and DND as reflected in Rule 6, section 12 of RA 9163. All
graduates of the CWTS and LTS components of the NSTP shall belong to the National Service
Reserve Corps (NSRC) and could be tapped by the state for literacy and civic welfare activities
especially in times of calamities, while those graduates of ROTC shall form part of the Citizen
Armed Forces pursuant to RA No. 7077 as stipulated in Rule 5, sections 11a and 11c of the
NSTP Law.

What is the National Service Reserve Corps (NSRC)?

a. NSRC is created under Section 11 of RA 9163 or the NSTP Act of 2001, composed of
graduates of the non- ROTC components: the CWTS and LTS. Members of this Corps
maybe tapped by the State for literacy and civic welfare activities, through the joint effort
of DND, CHED, and TESDA.
b. Graduates of the non-ROTC components of the NSTP shall belong to the National
Service Reserve Corps (NSRC) and could be tapped by the State for literacy and civic
welfare activities, especially in times of calamities through the joint efforts of DND,
CHED and TESDA, in coordination with DILG, DSWD and other concerned
agencies/associations.
c. The CHED, TESDA and DND, in consultation with other concerned government and
non-government agencies, shall issue the necessary guidelines for the establishment,
organization, maintenance and utilization of the National Service Reserve Corps.
d. Graduates of the ROTC program shall form part of the Citizen Armed Force pursuant to
RA 7077, subject to the requirements of DND.
Will the earned NSTP units be included in the computations of Grade Point Average
(GPA)?
Earned NSTP units shall not be included in the computation of Grade Point Average
(GPA) grades of college graduating students.

Uts

Let us define! Psychology is the scientific study of human behavior and mental processes. At the foundation of all human
behavior is the self. It is our sense of personal identity and of who we are as individuals. Because an understanding of the
self is so important, it has been studied for many years by psychologists.

Three psychologists who had different views on the self are presented hereof:

1. William James (1842-1910)

An American philosopher and psychologist, and the first educator to offer a psychology course in the United States. James
is considered to be a leading thinker of the late nineteenth century, one of the most influential philosophers of the United
States, and the "Father of American psychology"

Theory of the Self

James saw the self as the sum total of all that a person can call his or hers, and divides this self into the material self (e.g.,
body, clothes), the social self (recognition from others), the spiritual self ("the most enduring and intimate part of the self"
and the pure ego.

Model of the Self: “Me” and “I”

“Me” corresponds to the self as an object of experience (self as object). It states that the self as known, experienced, past
tense, story. This corresponds with the social, material and spiritual self.
“I” reflects the self as a subject of experience (self as subject). It states that the self as knower, experiencer, present tense,
story teller. This corresponds with a person’s life history, experience and pure ego or thinking self.

2. Sigmund Freud (1856-1939)

an Austrian neurologist and the founder of psychoanalysis, a clinical method for treating psychopathology through dialogue
between a patient and a psychoanalyst.

Id, Ego and Superego

Freud saw the self, its mental processes, and one’s behavior as the results of the interaction between the Id, Ego and
Superego. According to Freud, Id is the first part of the self to develop. It’s the seat of all our desires and wants. Id has no
awareness other than it wants what it wants. It is the pleasure principle. Ego is the part of us that functions in reality, able to
discern what is right or wrong based on context. It is the reality principle. Superego acts as the judge, a referee, a decision
maker when the Id and ego are in conflict. It stops the Id from doing something wrong. It restraints the ego when it goes out
of bounds. Its main concern is to decide and act in accordance to what is normally and socially acceptable standards.

3. Carl Rogers (1902-1987)

An American psychologist and among the founders of the humanistic approach to psychology.

Self Concept
Refer to how someone thinks about, perceives and evaluates themselves.
Self Concept is your idea of who you are (self) based on your personal beliefs and your perceived notion of how other
people see you. A new born have no sense of self. (Freud and Piaget) that is why self-concept starts to develop from infancy
to adolescence stage.

2 Aspects of Self-Concept
1. Existential Self- The awareness of the existential self begins as young as 2-3 months old. It is a sense of being separate
and distinct from others. It is one’s understanding and having awareness that the self is constant.
2. Categorical Self- The awareness of the categorical self develops in early childhood. A person can categorize oneself by
age, gender. skills, etc. Examples: Age “I am 3”, Gender “I am a girl”

3 Components of Self-Concept

1. Real self- who we really are. It is how we think, how we feel, look and act. It can be seen by others but because we have
no way of truly knowing how others view us, the real self is our self-image.
2. Ideal Self- is how we want to be. It is an idealized image that we have developed over time, based on what we have
learned and experienced. It could include components of what our parents have taught us, what we admire in others, what
our society promotes, and what we think is in our best interest.
3. Self-worth- also known as our self-esteem. It comprises what we think about ourselves
High self-worth= has confidence and positive feelings about him/herself, faces challenges in life, accepts failure and
unhappiness at times, and is open with people.
Low self-worth= may avoid challenges in life, not accept that life can be painful and unhappy at times, and will be defensive
and guarded with other people.

4 Major Factors that Influence Self-Worth:

1. Reaction of others- If people admire us, flatter us, seek out our company, listen attentively and agree with us we tend to
develop a positive self-esteem. And if they avoid us, neglect us, tell us things about ourselves that we don’t want to hear we
develop a negative self-esteem.
2. Comparison with others- If the people we compare ourselves with (our reference group) appear to be more successful,
happier, richer, better looking than ourselves we tend to develop a negative self-image but if they are less successful than
us, our image will be positive.
3. Social Roles- Some social roles carry prestige. Example is being a doctor, pilot, artist, engineer and this promotes self-
esteem. Other roles carry stigma. Example is being a prisoner, mental hospital patient, unemployed person.
4. Identification- Roles aren’t just out there. They also become part of our personality. Example is we identify with the
positions we occupy, the roles we play and the groups we belong to.

 
A perfectly competitive firm’s marginal cost curve that lies above the ………..of the average
variable cost curve is its supply curve. *

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a. minimum

b. maximum

c. both(a) and (b)

d. None of these

In the long run, a perfectly competitive firm will achieve all but which of the following:  *

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a. Economic profit

b. Allocative Efficiency

c. Productive Efficiency

d. Normal profit

A firm will shut down in the short run if: *

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a. fixed costs exceed revenues.

b. total costs exceed revenues.

c. it is suffering a loss.

d. variable costs exceed revenues

Correct answer

d. variable costs exceed revenues

Which of the following is NOT a reason for cutting prices? *

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a. Capacity utilisation.

b. Increasing profit margins.

c. Market defence.

d. None of these

Correct answer

b. Increasing profit margins.

Marginal revenue for a monopolist is ______ *

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a. equal to price

b. greater than price

c. less than price

d. equal to average revenue

Correct answer

a. equal to price

Which of the following is NOT a financial objective of pricing? *

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a. Corporate growth.

b. Return on investment.

c. Profit maximization.

d. None of these

Correct answer

a. Corporate growth.

Perfect competition is an industry with *

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a. a few firms producing identical goods.

b. many firms producing goods that differ somewhat.

c. a few firms producing goods that differ somewhat in quality.

d. many firms producing identical goods.

In perfect competition, restrictions on entry into an industry *

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a. do not exist.

b. apply to labor but not to capital.

c. apply to both capital and labor.

d. apply to capital but not to labor.

 
Correct answer

a. do not exist.

In perfect competition, the product of a single firm *

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a. is sold to different customers at different prices.

b. has many perfect complements produced by other firms.

c. has many perfect substitutes produced by other firms.

d. is sold under many differing brand names.

The costs that depend on output in the short run are: *

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a. both total variable costs and total costs.

b. total costs only.

c. total fixed cost only.

d. total variable costs only

Setting a price below that of the competition is called: *

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a. Skimming.

b. Penetration pricing.
 c. Competitive pricing.

d. None of these

Price for a firm under monopolistic competition is ______. *

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a. equal to marginal revenue

b. greater than marginal revenue

c. less than marginal revenue

d. greater than total revenue

Correct answer

a. equal to marginal revenue

A perfectly competitive firm faces ………..production alternatives based on a comparison of

price, average total cost, and average variable cost.

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a. four short-run

b. three short-run

c. five short-run

d. All of these

Correct answer

b. three short-run

 
Which of the following is NOT a marketing objective? *

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a. Cash flow.

b. Positioning.

c. Volume sales.

d. None of these

Correct answer

a. Cash flow.

monopoly firm engaged in international trade but enjoying a protected home market will *

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a. equate marginal costs with foreign marginal revenues.

b. equate marginal costs with marginal revenues in both domestic and foreign

markets

c. equate average costs in local and foreign markets

d. none of the above

A firm that is producing at the lowest possible average cost is always: *

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a. Earning an economic profit.

b. Productively efficient.
 

c. Dominating the other firms in the market.

d. Not producing enough output

Minimum efficient scale of production in relation to the overall industry output and market
requirement sometimes play a major role in shaping the market structure. *

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a. true

b. false

Which of the following is the best example of a perfectly competitive market? *

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a. diamonds

b. athletic shoes

c. soft drinks

d. farming

A monopolist can sell more of his output only at a lower price and can reduce the sale at a high
price. *

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a. true

 
 b. fasle

Correct answer

b. fasle

Which of the following is NOT a reason for increasing prices? *

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a. Cost pressures.

b. Price comparison.

c. Curbing demand.

d. None of these

Correct answer

b. Price comparison.

BERI stands for: *

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Business Economic Risk Index.

b. Business Economic Rating International.

c. Business Education Rating Indicator.

d. Business Environment Risk Index.

A perfectly competitive firm produces the profit-maximizing quantity of output that equates
marginal revenue and marginal cost. *
1/1

a. true

b. false

In the long run, monopolistically competitive firms tend to experience ______. *

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a. high economic profits

b. zero economic profits

c. negative economic profits

d. substantial economic losses

Correct answer

b. zero economic profits

A perfectly competitive firm will maximize profit at the quantity at which the firm's marginal
revenue equals *

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a. price

b. average revenue

c. total cost

d. marginal cost

 
A monopoly is a market structure in which there is not only one producer/seller for a product. *

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a. trure

b. false

Correct answer

b. false

type of market structure represented by the constant returns to scale (CRS) technology
includes *

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Monopolistic competition

b. Oligopoly

c. Duopoly

d. Perfect competition

In a perfectly competitive industry, there are *

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a. many buyers and many sellers.

b. many sellers, but there might be only one or two buyers.

c. many buyers, but there might be only one or two sellers.

d. one firm that sets the price for the others to follow.
 

Income and population are two variables that can be used in ______ segmentation: *

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psychographic

b. demographic

c. lifestyle

d. behavioural

Which of the following cannot be classed as a market structure? *

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Oligopoly.

b. Perfect competition.

c. Communism.

d. Monopolistic competition.

In industries in which there are scale economies, the variety of goods that a country can produce
is constrained by *

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the fixed cost

b. the size of the labor force

c. the marginal cost

d. the size of the market

 

Price and output decisions of firms that want to maximize profits always depend on costs *

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a. true

b. false

Strong exchange rates can: *

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a. help estimate consumer purchasing power.

b. help predict change in lifestyle across Europe.

c. predict the evolution of sales for particular brands.

d. drive imports to become cheaper.

Correct answer

d. drive imports to become cheaper.

In the long run, every cost is variable cost. In this period, all costs ever incurred by the firm must
be recovered. *

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a. true

b. false

 
Correct answer

a. true

Monopolistic competition is a market structure characterized by a large number of relatively

small firms. *

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a. true

b. false

Oligopoly is a market structure in which a small number of firms account for the wholeindustry’s
output *

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a.true

b. false

Which of the following is not a valid option for a perfectly competitive firm? *

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a. Increasing its output.

b. Decreasing its output.

c. Increasing its price.

d. Increasing its resources

 

If the price a firm receives for its product is equal to the marginal cost of producing that product,
the firm is: *

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a. Always earning an economic profit

b. Always productively efficient.

c. Always allocatively efficient.

d. Always experiencing an economic loss.

Perfect competitions describes a market structure whose assumptions are extremely strong and
highly unlikely to exist in most real-time and real-world markets. *

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a. true

b. false

The number of firms and product differentiation are extremely crucial in determining the nature of
competition in a market. *

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a. true

b. false

Correct answer
 a. true

The size and liquidity requirements are based on the minimum invest ability requirements for the
MSCI Global Standard Indices. *

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a. true

b. false

This form was created inside of Divine Word College of Legazpi.