Date: 17 May 2014 PG-QS-01 Session: I

Entrance Test for the programs: M.Sc. in Animal Science (C U Kerala)/Biochemistry(C U

Raj.)/Biochemistry and Molecular Biology (C U Kerala)/Biotechnology (C U Raj.)/Genomic Science (C U
Kerala)/Microbiology (C U Raj.)/Plant Science (C U Kerala)/Life Science (C U Jharkhand)

City: .................................. Hall Ticket Number:

Examination Centre: .............................................. Application Number:

Candidate of Name: ..................................................

Signature.............................................. Booklet Number:

INSTRUCTIONS TO CANDIDATES

1. Do not open the Question Booklet until the Hall Superintendent gives the signal for the
commencement of the examination.
2. Write your Name, your Hall Ticket Number, Application Number and the Name of your Examination
Centre (as found in the HALL TICKET) and sign in the space provided above. Do not write or mark
anything anywhere on the Question booklet.
3. If you write anything or put any mark on any part of the Question booklet or Answer Sheet (OMR),
except for the space allotted for the relevant entries, or use abusive language or employ any other
unfair means, you will render yourself liable to disqualification.
4. After the commencement of the examination, open the Question Booklet. If the Question Booklet or
the Answer Sheet or both are not in good condition, then ask for immediate replacement. No
replacement will be made 5 minutes after the commencement of the examination.
5. In the ANSWER SHEET (OMR) fill up / shade the required entries (Examination Centre, Hall Ticket
Number, Application Number, Programs etc in the space provided) using an HB pencil.
6. The Question Booklet consists of two parts; Part A and Part B. Part A contains 35 questions from
English, General Awareness / General Knowledge and Reasoning & Analytical Skills. Part B contains
65 questions from the subject knowledge. Attempt all the 100 Questions.
7. All questions are in Multiple Choice Question (MCQ) pattern. The blank space at the end of the
question paper may be used for Rough Work.
8. All questions carry equal marks. Each correct answer carries 1 mark. No NEGATIVE marks for wrong
answers.
9. Shade with HB Pencil one of the four ovals against each question number in the Answer Sheet, which
according to you correspond to the correct answer.
10. If you want to change any answer, erase the Pencil shading thoroughly and shade the new oval clearly.
Only one oval for each question should remain finally shaded. Answers with multiple shading will
be considered as wrong answer.
11. Use the answer Sheet carefully. No spare Answer Sheet will be given.
12. At the end of the examination, when the Hall Superintendent announces ‘Stop Writing’, you must stop
answering immediately and place the Answer Sheet inside the Question Booklet (s) and be ready to
handover the material.
13. When you have completed answering, stand up and remain in your place. The Hall Superintendent
will come to you and collect your Question Booklet and Answer Sheet. Under no circumstances should
any of these articles be taken out of the Examination Hall. No candidate shall leave the Hall until these
articles are collected.
14. No candidate can leave the Hall during the first 30 minutes and the last 15 minutes of the
examination.
15. No candidate can re-enter the Hall after leaving.
16. Calculators, tables or any other calculating devices, mobiles, pagers, Booklets, Papers etc. are strictly
prohibited for this examination.

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 PART - A

1. She hardly ever does her work, ______________?

A) is she? B) doesn’t she? C) isn’t she? D) does she?

2. ‘You must see this exhibition!’ said all my friends. Transform into indirect speech.

A) All my friends requested me to see that exhibition.

B) All my friends strongly advised me to see that exhibition
C) All my friends saw that exhibition
D) All my friends compelled me to see that exhibition

3. I resented ___________ unjustly accused and asked him ______________.

A) X, to apologise B) being, to apologise

C) being, apology D) being, for apologising

4. Her life might have been saved if_________________.

A) you were a little alert B) you had been a little alert

C) she was a little alert D) she will be a little alert

5. He said he was ___________ employee of ___________ gas company and had come
to read ____________ meter.

A) an, the, the B) a, the, the C) an, a, the D) an, the, a

6. Shut the door, please,’ expresses:

A) a polite request B) suggestion C) order D) intention

7. Point out the elements in the sentence: ‘She sells sea shells on the sea shore’?

A) SVOA B) SVOC C) SVOiOd D) SVC

8. While writing about our education and experience in our resume or CV, we should start
writing the year:

A) in decreasing order (latest to the first)

B) in increasing order (first to the present one)
C) in any order
D) none of the above

9. His ___________ to the scam was rather pointed.

A) allusion B). illusion C) delusion D) confusion

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10. I ____________, _______________ and _____________ before leaving for work.

A) dressed, ate, washed B) washed, dressed, ate.

C) ate, dressed, washed D) dressed, washed, ate

11. She didn’t tell ___________ about her plans.

A) nobody B) someone C) somebody D) anybody

12. One who loves and collects books:

A) Bibliophile B) Bibliopole C) Bibliomaniac D) Biblioclast

13. Buddhist literature is an important source for ancient Indian history. Which one of the
followings falls into the category of Buddhist literature?

A) Agam Literature B)Sangam Literature C) Pitakas D) Upanishads

14. ‘Silsila’ was an integral part of which religious movement?

A) Sikhism B) Buddhism C) Sufism D) Jainism

15. Which planet of our solar system is considered as the ‘Earth’s twin’ due to its close
proximity in size, mass and density to Earth?

A) Mars B) Venus C) Pluto D) Neptune

16. During the summers which region in the North Hemisphere is called the ‘Land of the
Midnight Sun’?

A) The Equator B) Region above the Antarctic Circle

C) Region above the Arctic Circle D) Region between the Equator and Tropic

17. Of the various types of mountains found, Himalayas are

A) Fold Mountains B)Volcanic Mountains

C) Block Mountains D)Residual Mountains

18. Who was associated with ‘Bhoodan Movement’?

A) Vinoba Bhave B) Mahatma Gandhi C) M. N. Roy D) J. L. Nehru

19. Who has given the slogan, “Swaraj is my birthright”?

A) Lokmanya Tilak B) Bipin Chandra Pal

C) Lala Lajpat Rai D) Mahatma Gandhi

20. Afghanistan was included as a member of SAARC in the year:

A) 2005 B) 2006 C) 2007 D) 2008

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21. What is the minimum distance for clear vision?

A) 10 cm B) 20 cm C) 25 cm D) infinite

22. The frequency of alternating current for home appliances is

A) 60 Hz B) 100 Hz C) 220 Hz D) 50 Hz

23. Operation flood in India known for

A) Flood outbreak B) Milk Production

C) Sugarcane production D) Kargil war

24. El Niño effect is defined as

A) Prolonged warming in the Pacific Ocean sea surface temperatures

B) Heavy snow fall
C) High temperature in tropical region
D) All the above
25. Choose the correct alternative in place of question mark, 1, 5, 13, 25, 41, ?

A) 51 B) 57 C) 61 D) 63

26. Choose the correct option in place of question mark, Laugh : Joy :: Weep : ?

A) Sad B) Grief C) Punishment D) Remorse

27. Choose the odd one out

A) Pint B) Ton C) Liter D) Gallon

28. If SUMMER is coded as RUNNER, the code for WINTER will be

A) WALKER B) VIOUER C) SUITER D) SUFFER

29. Pointing towards a person in the photograph Hemant said, “He is the only son of the
father of my sister’s brother”. How is that person related to Hemant?

A) Cousin B) Brother C) Father D) Son

30. Which of the following words will come third in the English dictionary

A) Faithfully B) Follow C) False D) Fall

31. If day after tomorrow is Saturday, what day was three days before yesterday?

A) Saturday B) Sunday C) Monday D) Thursday

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32. If (i) A is taller than B, (ii) C is shorter than A, (iii) D is taller than E but shorter than B,
then who among them is the tallest?

A) A B) B C) D D) E

33. On dividing a certain number by 342 we get 47 as reminder. If the same number is
divided by 18, what will be the remainder?

A) 47 B) 11 C) 23 D) 22

34. The value of is

A) 5184 B) 216 C) 864 D) 5814

35. Find the remainder when 231 is divided by 5.

A) 1 B) 2 C) 3 D) 4

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 PART B

36. A male carrying an allele for a trait on the X chromosome is:

A) Homozygous
B) Hemigygous
C) Heterozygous
D) Mono-zygous

37. In case of an ‘X linked recessive genetic trait’:

A) The trait does not get inherited.
B) The daughter of affected father should be affected
C) The sons of affected mother should be affected
D) Only 50% sons of the affected mother should be affected

38. Eukaryotic cells have three different kinds of RNA Polymerase (I, II, III). Each one is
specific for one class of RNA molecule (rRNA, tRNA and mRNA). Which of the
following option is the correct match of RNA Polymerase and RNA?

A) RNA Pol I- rRNA; RNA Pol II – mRNA

B) RNA Pol I- rRNA; RNA Pol II – tRNA
C) RNA Pol I- tRNA; RNA Pol III – mRNA
D) RNA PolI- mRNA; RNA PolII- tRNA

39. ΔG value is an important determinant of the spontaneity of biochemical reactions. For

a spontaneous reaction, the value ΔG should be:
A) Positive
B) Negative
C) Equal to zero
D) Equal to 1

40. Which of the following pollutions is responsible for acid?

A) Hydrogen Sulphide
B) Sulphur dioxide
C) Carbon dioxide
D) Oxides of Nitrogen and Sulphur dioxide

41. Two molecules of double stranded DNA have same length (1000 base pairs) but they
differ in base composition. Molecule 1 contains 20% A + T, molecule 2 contains 60%.
A + T. How many C residues should be there in molecule 2?

A) 200 residues
B) 400 residues
C) 100 residues
D) 40 residues

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42. The phenomenon of induction of new blood vessels that invade the tumors and
nourish on their own is known as:
A) Metastasis
B) Neogenesis
C) Extravasation
D) Angiogenesis

43. The presence of non- competitive inhibitor results in:

A) Km and Vmax decrease.
B) Km increases and Vmax decrease
C) Km decrease and Vmax increase
D) Km remains same and Vmax decreases

44. Which of the following is a hereditary disease associated with abnormal DNA repair?
A) Haemophilia
B) Down’s Syndrome
C) Bloom’s Syndrome
D) Thalassemia

45. Tertiary structure of proteins is stabilized by various intra molecular and inters-
molecular interaction. Which of the following is the weakest interaction involved in
stabilization of protein molecules?
A) Hydrogen Bonds
B) Covalent Bonds
C) Van der Waals Interactions
D) Hydrophobic interaction

46. Why do pancreatic proteolytic enzymes not harm/ damage the pancreatic tissues?
37. They are in form of pro-enzyme in pancreas
38. They are inactivated by inhibitors in pancreas
39. They don’t have appropriate substrate in pancreas
40. No proteolytic enzymes are synthesized by pancreas

47. UV exposure is a known mutagen. Which of the following mutation occurs due to UV
exposure?
A) Deamination of thymine bases
B) Tautomerization of thymine bases
C) Formation of thymine dimmers
D) Misincorporation of thymine bases

48. Taxol is used as anti-cancer drugs. Which of the following activity is important for
anti-cancerous property?
A) Binding and stabilizing microtubules
B) Binding to free tubulin molecules and preventing their polymerization
C) Binding to actin filament and depolymerising them
D) Indirectly interfering with polymerization of microtubules and actin filaments

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49. A water body is termed as ‘eutrophicated’ when it contains higher concentrations of:
A) Carbonates & Bicarbonates
B) Nitrates and Silicates
C) Nitrates and phosphates
D) Carbonates and silicates

50. The molecular weight of Arginine is 174 Daltons; what would be molecular weight of
a circular polymer of 38 Arginine molecules?
A) 6612 Dalton
B) 5928 Dalton
C) 6594 Dalton
D) 5946 Dalton

51. Porifera is classified on the basis of

A) Spicules
B) Nutrition
C) Canal system
D) Amoebocyte cells

52. Characteristic of class sporozoa of phylum protozoa

A) Cilia
B) Flagella
C) Parasitism
D) None

53. Which one of the following organism has only one host?
A) Entamoeba
B) Trypanosoma
C) Plasmodium
D) All the organisms

54. Plasmodium life cycle is

A) Polygenetic
B) Monogenetic
C) Digenetic
D) Trigenetic

55. Reproductive organs in hydra consists of

A) Single testis & single ovary
B) Single testis & many ovaries
C) Many testis & single ovary
D) Many testis & many ovaries

56. Metacercaria is larva of which organism

A) Schistosoma
B) Fasciola
C) Both
D) None

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57. Space between the alimentary canal and body wall of Ascaris is
A) Coelom
B) Pseudocoelom
C) Acoelom
D) None

58. The function of osphradium in mollusca is

A) Locomotion
B) Balancing
C) Smell
D) Swimming

59. Secretion of Ink gland helps in

A) Excretion
B) Protection
C) Reproduction
D) Coloration

60. Calcarious glands are found in stomach of

A) Earthworms
B) Cockroach
C) Leech
D) All

61. Psuedotrachae are found in

A) Housefly
B) Spider
C) Crab
D) Mosquito

62. Olfactory organs of snakes are

A) Johnston’s organ
B) Jacobson’s organ
C) Organ Bojanus
D) None

63. The arrangement of birds feathers is called as

A) Apterya
B) Pterylace
C) Ptogium
D) None

64. What is the product of isogamy

A) Oospore
B) Zoospore
C) Zygospore
D) Zoogamete

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65. Photosynthesis in blue-green algae occurs in
A) Cholorplasts
B) Chromatophores
C) Photosynthetic lamellae
D) Chromoplasts

66. Meosis occurs in Spirogyra

A) During vegetative reproduction
B) During gamete formation
C) In preparation of conjugation
D) As the zygospore germinates

67. Fusion between immature and mature cells is known as

A) Pedogamy
B) Anisogamy
C) Pseudogamy
D) Adelophogamy

68. Causative agent of Wart disease of potato is

A) Pythium debaryanum
B) Phytophthora infestans
C) Alternaria solanii
D) Synchytrium endobioticum

69. The cell wall of Albugo is made of

A) Chitin-mannan
B) Chitin-glucan
C) Cellolose-glucan
D) Mannan-glucan

70. The conidia of Penicillium is

A) Thin walled uni- or multinucleate
B) Thick walled, uninucleate
C) Thick walled, multinucleate
D) Thin or thick walled, multinucleate

71. The ratio between male and female flower in cyathium inflorescence is
A) One : many
B) One : one
C) Many : one
D) Many : many

72. In which flower the calyx, corolla and androecium arise from below the ovary
A) Perigynous
B) Hypogynous
C) Epigynous
D) None

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73. What constitute the smell in Hyacinthus flower
A) Alcohols
B) Aldehydes
C) Amines
D) Ethers

74. What kind of fruit is mulberry

A) Berry
B) Aggregate fruit
C) Composite fruit
D) Pome

75. Which one of the following has non-endospermic monocot seed

A) Alisma
B) Curcuma
C) Zingiber
D) Elyttaria

76. Which one of the following descriptions best fits about mitochondrial DNA?
A) Circular single stranded
B) Linear double helix
C) Circular double stranded
D) None of these

77. Which of the following is not a non-reducing sugar?

A) Trehalose
B) Isomaltose
C) Sucrose
D) Agar
78. Which one of the following diseases is mainly caused due to deficiency of enzyme
glucose-6 phosphatase?
A) Cori’s disease
B) Pompe’s disease
C) McArdle’s disease
D) Von Gierke’s disease

79. Smallpox, a fatal disease, is caused by which of the following viruses?

A) Cytomegalovirus
B) Varicella
C) Human HPV
D) None of these options is correct

80. The tetanus is caused by infection of Clostridium tetani. Which is the most common
portal entry for these bacteria to human being?
A) GI tract
B) Respiratory tract
C) Nasal tract
D) None of these choices is true.

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81. Diabetes insipidus is mainly caused due to the deficient secretion of
A) Insulin
B) Vasopressin
C) Glucagon
D) Oxytocin

82. The following are stop codons (chain termination codons) except
A) UGA
B) UGG
C) UAG
D) UAA

83. Antibiotic chloramphenicol is obtained from

A) Streptomyces venezuelae
B) Streptomyces griseus
C) Streptomyces pyrogenes
D) None of these choices is correct

84. Which one of the following descriptions best fits about “Ribozymes”?
A) Enzymes present in ribosomes
B) Enzymes which combine the ribosomal subunits
C) Enzymes which dissociate the ribosomal subunits
D) Enzymes which are made up of RNA.

85. Which of the following is inhibited by Ciprofloxacin?

A) Cell wall synthesis
B) Translation initiation
C) RNA synthesis
D) DNA gyrase

86. The most abundant enzyme in plant leaves is

A) G3P dehydrogenase
B) PGA kinase
C) Amylase
D) Rubisco

87. Which of the following is a model organism often used by plant researchers?
A) Rice
B) Arabidopsis
C) C. elegans
D) Brassica

88. The best description which fits with the term ‘Zymogen’ is
A) An active form of enzyme
B) An inactive form of enzyme
C) A complete intracellular enzyme
D) An extracellular enzyme

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89. Kwashiorkor occurs when amount of protein in the diet is very low and it usually
occurs in
A) Pregnancy period
B) Lactation period
C) Post-weaning period
D) Old age

90. Which of the following organelle does not contain any nucleic acid?
A) Mitochondrion
B) Golgi complex
C) Nucleus
D) Rough endoplasmic reticulum

91. The wings of bat, locust and pigeon are the examples of
A) Vestigial organs.
B) analogous organs.
C) homologous organs.
D) exoskeletal structures

92. Population means

A) a group of individuals of the same species.
B) a group of individuals of different species.
C) geographically isolated species of the same kind.
D) geographically united species of different kind.

93. Continuity from cell to cell is maintained by:

A) Crista
B) Thylakoid
C) Plasmodesmata
D) Centriole

94. The nucleoplasm and the cytoplasm are continuous with one another through nuclear
pores in:
A) cells of blue-green algae
B) human cells
C) bacteria
D) prokaryotic cells

95. The blue print of primary structure of protein is given by:

A) RNA
B) DNA
C) Protein
D) Carbohydrates

96. Which microorganism has been associated with the appearance of ulcers?
A) Eschericia coli
B) Staphylococcus aureus
C) Enterococcus faecalis
D) Helicobacter pylori

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97. One principal function of complement is to
A) mediate the release of histamine
B) Bind antibodies attached to cell surfaces and to lyse these cells
C) phagocytize antigens
D) cross link allergens

98. One principal function of the Class I and Class II major histocompatibility complex S
proteins is to
A) transduce the signal to the T-cell interior following antigen binding
B) mediate immunoglobulin class switching
C) present antigen for recognition by the T-cell antigen receptor
D) bind complement

99. All of the following are true about antibodies, EXCEPT which one?
A) They fix complement.
B) They occur on the surface of B-lymphocyte
C) They are glycoproteins.
D) They are molecule with a single, defined amino acid sequence.

100. Which of the following does NOT occur during the dark reaction of photosynthesis?
A) Utilization of NAPDH
B) Utilization of ATP
C) Reduction of oxygen to produce water
D) Synthesis of glucose

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