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Welding Inspection Level 2 - Paper 5 Technology - Exercise IV

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WELDING INSPECTION LEVEL 2: Paper 5 - Technology

1) Voltage and amperage meters have been removed from MIG/MAG (GMAW) equipment
making calibration invalid, the equipment should be:

a) Quarantined
b) Only used for tack welds
c) Only used if validated
d) Monitored closely by the welding inspector for amperage and voltage

2) You notice that a welder is using an unapproved WPS for production tack welding carbon steel.
What action would you take?

a) Have the tacks removed and MPI the weld preparation for cracking
b) Nothing as it is only tack welds and they will probably be removed anyway
c) Nothing as long as the WPS covered the material type, wall thickness and diameter
d) Give him the correct approved one and allow him to continue as long as the welding
consumables were the correct type

3) A disadvantage of the MAG (135) spray transfer condition is that it:

a) Cannot be used in the vertical position for steels


b) Cannot be used for aluminium alloys
c) Has a low heat input and is prone to lack of sidewall fusion
d) Is said to have lower deposition rate than dip transfer

4) The correct joint preparation is very important since it decides the volume of weld metal to be
used. High volumes of weld metal deposited can

a) Increase the residual stresses


b) Be useful since the joint will have better strength
c) Give a longer service life
d) Give superior service life

5) Hydrogen cracking is considered a cold crack as it will not form until the weldment cools to
below:

a) 500°C
b) 300°C
c) 300°F
d) 730°C

6) The CTOD test is a:

a) Qualitative test
b) Quantitative test
c) Tensile test
d) Hardness test

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7) You have noticed several times that a certain welder is having his welds rejected due to poor
cap profile. What course of action would you take?

a) None
b) None as long as they pass the radiography
c) Dismiss the welder
d) Suggest a period of retraining followed by requalification test

8) Which of the following elements has greatest influence on the carbon equivalent value of a
carbon-manganese steel?

a) Manganese
b) Sulphur
c) Nickel
d) Carbon

9) Reference to any inspection hold point during manufacture will be contained within the:

a) Quality manual
b) QA procedures
c) Quality plan
d) Standards

10) Which of the following defects are the most difficult to size correctly when ultrasonically
testing a weld?

a) Isolated pore > 3mm diameter


b) Clustered porosity
c) Slag
d) Lack of root penetration

11) Using the MMA process, which polarity produces the greatest penetration?

a) A.C
b) D.C (-)
c) D.C (+)
d) Depends on electrode size

12) Is it permissible to allow a welder to carry out a MMA (SMAW) welding procedure test if he is
not qualified?

a) No
b) Yes as long as the Welding Engineer is happy to allow it
c) Yes as long as he has a TIG (GTAW) qualification
d) Yes as long as no NDT is required on the finished weld

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13) At what level is H2 considered to be more critical in cracking?

a) Less than 5ml per 100g of weld metal deposited


b) Between 5 and 10ml per 100g of weld metal deposited
c) Between 10 and 15ml per 100g of weld metal deposited
d) Over 15ml per 100g of weld metal deposited

14) In considering the shielding gases Argon, Helium and Carbon Dioxide for the GMAW process,
which of the following is NOT true?

a) They can all produce spray transfer


b) They are not always suitable for all position welding
c) They all produce heavy spatter in DC +
d) All of the answer options given

15) When would you measure the interpass temperature?

a) Immediately prior to depositing the next run


b) Immediately prior to commencing the first pass
c) When the welding is complete
d) Only required if the heat input is lower than that specified in WPS

16) Which of the following defects is usually associated with the MAG (GMAW) welding process
when using Dip Transfer?

a) Centreline cracking
b) Lack of sidewall fusion
c) Undercut
d) Tungsten inclusions

17) In an all-weld tensile test, the original specimen gauge length was 50mm and after the test
the increased gauge length was 65mm. What is the elongation percentage?

a) % A is 40
b) % A is 60
c) % A is 30
d) % A is 36

18) Weld decay can be minimised by specifying a steel with:

a) Higher carbon level


b) Higher chromium level
c) Lower carbon level
d) Lower chromium level

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19) According to BS EN 22553, what should a black flag with a circle be interpreted as?

a) The weld is to made in a fabrication shop


b) The weld is made by the manufacturer
c) The weld is all around and made on site
d) The weld is a tie in pipeline weld

20) In a transverse tensile test if the test piece breaks in the weld metal it is:

a) Rejected
b) Acceptable provided the calculated strength is not less than the minimum tensile strength
specified
c) Acceptable
d) Acceptable provided the calculated strength is above 95% of the minimum base metal
strength

21) Which of the following may cause distortion?

a) Heating
b) Contraction
c) Stresses
d) Heating, contraction and stresses

22) Why are non-uniform stresses created in material during welding?

a) Weld metal behaves differently from parent plate


b) Weld metal has a significantly higher coefficient of expansion than parent plate
c) Weld metal has a significantly lower coefficient of expansion than parent plate
d) Localised heating of weld metal causes greater expansion and contraction than in the
cooler parent plate

23) Solidification cracking takes place in carbon steels,

a) After post weld heat treatment


b) In the base metal
c) Immediately after welding
d) After a few hours

24) A solidification crack normally occurs where?

a) Through the HAZ


b) Longitudinal through the weld centre line
c) Transverse through the weld
d) Can occur anywhere

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25) Plasma cutting can be applied to:

a) Aluminium alloys
b) Carbon steels
c) Austenitic stainless steels
d) It can cut most materials

26) What is the greatest advantage of radiographic inspection over ultrasonics inspection

a) Can be done anywhere


b) Can give you a three dimensional image of the imperfection
c) Can be used on any material
d) Equipment is cheaper to purchase

27) Which of the following welding processes CANNOT be used for autogenous welding?

a) TIG
b) Plasma
c) Oxy-fuel gas welding
d) SAW

28) Root and face bends from an 8mm thick butt weld require testing. The specimens are cut to
20mm wide. The Code calls for a 4t bend. Which one of the following rollers should be selected
for the testing?

a) 80mm radius
b) 80mm diameter
c) 32mm radius
d) 32mm diameter

29) In general terms which of the following would require the highest preheat if all other factors
were the same as per ISO BS EN 1011?

a) MMA weld with cellulosic electrodes


b) MMA weld with rutile electrodes
c) Welding process 131
d) MAG weld with solid wire

30) What unit of measurement is used for Charpy impact testing?

a) Joules
b) N/mm²
c) kJ
d) VPN

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31) Standards on the same subject approved by different standardizing bodies, that establish
inter-changeability of products, processes and services, or mutual understanding of test results
or information provided according to these standards are called:

a) Codes of practice
b) Harmonized standards
c) Quality plan
d) Quality management systems

32) After PWHT, it has been noticed that a repair must be carried out. How should this be done?

a) With the minimum amount of heat input


b) Welded, checked and PWHT again
c) Defect removed via non-thermal process then checked
d) Welded and allowed to cool in air

33) A butt weld has been made by MMA in a 50mm thick impact tested steel plate. The welding
electrode used was a basic type, 5mm diameter. The measured welding parameters for one of
the runs was 220 amps, 21 volts, using DC +ve polarity, and a ROL of 270mm per min. What
would be the arc energy?

a) Insufficient information given to calculate the arc energy


b) 1.54 kJ/mm
c) 1.026 kJ/mm
d) 2.82 kJ/mm

34) During post weld heat treatment what is the sequence for the PWHT chart?

a) Restricted heating rate, soak time, unrestricted cooling rate


b) Unrestricted heating rate, restricted heating rate, soak time, restricted cooling rate,
unrestricted cooling rate.
c) Unrestricted heating rate, soak time, restricted cooling rate
d) Restricted heating rate, unrestricted heating rate, soak time, restricted cooling rate,
unrestricted cooling rate

35) In MMA, when the arc length is increased which of the following is true?

a) The arc voltage increases


b) The level of spatter increases
c) It can lead to porosity
d) All the options given are correct

36) For a bend test which of the following is NOT true:

a) A 4t bend is more severe than a 2t bend


b) The outer surface of the bend specimen is examined

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c) It reveals defects like lack of fusion and porosity
d) It gives an indication of the ductility of the welded joint and weld metal

37) With the DPI method of inspection, what should be carried out prior to applying the penetrant?

a) Apply developer
b) Wash off excess penetrant
c) Apply a thin coat of white contrast paint
d) Ensure the surface under inspection is free of all contaminants that may hinder penetrant
access to surface breaking flaws.

38) In which method can grain size be an important factor?

a) Liquid penetrant testing


b) Magnetic particle testing
c) Ultrasonic testing
d) Radiographic testing

39) Which gas is not normally used in TIG welding?

a) Argon
b) Helium
c) Carbon dioxide
d) Hydrogen

40) Lamellar tears in steel weldments may only be formed when:

a) Using deep penetration welding processes (high current density)


b) High levels of stresses act in the short transverse direction in the steel
c) Martensite has formed in the weld HAZ
d) Low melting point iron sulphide (FeS) has formed in the fusion zone

41) A 300mm diameter pipe, 10mm wall thickness is to be radiographed using the double wall
single image technique. The source to be used is Iridium. Which of the following statements is
true?

a) It should not be done as the thickness is below that recommended


b) It would be better to use a cobalt 60 source in this instance
c) There is no problem with the technique
d) Only the double wall, double image technique should be used with Iridium

42) How do we determine what the correct weld preparation (root gap, root face, included angle)
should be?

a) By consulting the WPS’s


b) The fabrication drawing will give all the information
c) The welder will decide
d) The inspector will recommend what is suitable

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43) According to AWS 2.4, where does the symbol go for welding on the arrow side?

a) Below solid line


b) Above solid line
c) Depends on the joint
d) Always weld where the arrow is pointing

44) What is the minimum illumination required by EN Standard for inspection of welded surface?

a) 90-125 lux
b) 150-250 lux
c) 350 lux
d) 35-50 lux

45) A ‘weld all around’ symbol is not required when:

a) Indicating a circumferential joint


b) Indicating a pipe to pipe butt weld
c) Indicating a nozzle to shell weld
d) All of the answers indicated

46) Weld decay begins to occur:

a) Immediately after welding


b) After post weld heat treatment
c) Faster in low carbon grades
d) Slower in low carbon grades

47) A transverse tensile was carried out on a welding procedure. The cross sectional area of the
specimen was 30mm wide and 15mm thick. The maximum load applied was 170Kn. What is
the ultimate tensile strength value?

a) 377 N/mm²
b) 450 N/mm²
c) 300 N/mm²
d) 600 N/mm²

48) Who has the responsibility of ensuring the welder is using the correct consumables during
fabrication?

a) The Q/A department


b) Store man and the welder
c) Welding Engineer
d) The welder and the welding inspector

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49) You notice a welder adjusting the current on the welding set. Is this allowable?

a) Never
b) The welder has the final say on the voltage and current
c) Only if the current is within the range recorded on the WPS
d) As long as the welder has approval from the welding foreman

50) The melting rate of the wire in the GMAW and FCAW processes depends on:

a) Voltage per unit length


b) Shielding gas flow rate
c) Current density
d) Ampere per unit length of the wire

51) Standard oxy-fuel gas cutting equipment can be applied to:

a) Aluminium alloys
b) Carbon steels
c) Austenitic stainless steels
d) Copper

52) Which BS EN standard is used for welding symbols on drawings?

a) BS EN 970
b) BS EN 287
c) BS EN 22553
d) BS EN 4515

53) Which of these statements are true concerning Lamellar tearing?

a) As hydrogen levels increase Lamellar Tearing is more likely


b) As material thickness increases ductility decreases making Lamellar Tearing more likely
c) Lamellar tearing occurs below the HAZ
d) Lamellar tearing affects all joint types

54) For which of the following types of NDT does the term prod relate?

a) Ultrasonic testing
b) Radiographic testing
c) Penetrant testing
d) Magnetic particle testing

55) Charpy impact tests show a 50% rough torn surface and a 50% flat crystalline surface after
the completed test. This would indicate which type of failure?

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a) Fatigue to brittle
b) Ductile to brittle
c) Ductile with gross yielding
d) Fatigue to ductile

56) The soak temperature for PWHT specified by code will depend on the type of steel. Low alloy
steels (such as Cr-Mo steels used for elevated temperature service) require temperatures
typically in the range of:

a) ~700 to ~960°C
b) ~900 to ~1100°C
c) ~600 to ~650°C
d) ~700 to ~760°C

57) Pre-setting of a joint predominantly helps to:

a) Achieve good penetration


b) Achieve good mechanical properties
c) Control distortion
d) Increase deposition rate

58) When PWHT is conducted after welding, which of the following aspects require monitoring?

a) Heating rate only


b) Soaking time and temperature only
c) Cooling rate only
d) Heating rate, cooling rate, soaking time and temperature

59) Which of the following defects are not associated with the SAW process?

a) Centreline cracking
b) Chevron cracking
c) Copper inclusions
d) Tungsten inclusions

60) Cathodic cleaning is used to remove?

a) Sign waves
b) Oxides - (Cathodic bombardment)
c) Surface inclusions
d) Low melting point compounds

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