Iq PDF

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APTITUTDE TEST
FOR
SECTION OFFICER
Verbal, Non-Verbal, Numerical, Mental
ability, Data Interpretation
Chaitanya Acadamy Nepal,

Shankhamul, KTM
Kumar Prasad Timalsina

Dhungkharka 1, Kavre
Chaitanya Institute of Management, New Baneshwor, Shankhamul, Contact: 01-4782427, 9851146100

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Verbal Reasoning
Series
Type 1 (c) L (d) K
19. C,Z,F,X,I,V,L,T,O,?,?
1. R,U,X,A, D, ? (a) O,P (b) P,Q
(a) F (b) G (c) R,R (d) S,R
(c) H (d) I 20. M,N,O,L,R,I,V,?
2. T,R,P,N,L,?,? (a) A (b) E
(a) JG (b) JH (c) F (d) H
(c) KH (d) KI
3. B,D,F,I,L,P,?
(a) R (b) S
(c) T (d) U
4. U,B,I,P,W,?
(a) D (b) F
(c) Q (d) Z
5. H,I,K,N, ?
(a) O (b) Q
(c) R (d) S
6. Z?,T?,N?,H?,B
(a) W,Q,K,E (b) W,R,K,E
(c) X,Q,K,E (d) X, K, K, E
7. A,G,L,P,S,?
(a) U (b) W
(c) X (d) Y
8. a,d,c,f,?,z
(a) e,j (b) e,k
(c) f,j (d) j,e
9. A,D,H,M,?,Z
(a) T (b) J
(c) N (d) S
10. A,I,P,V,A,E,?
(a) E (b) F
(c) G (d) G
11. Z,U,Q,?,L
(a) I (b) K
(c) M (d) N
12. Z,W,S,P,L,I,E,?
(a) B (b) D
(c) F (d) K
13. Z,Y,.X,U,T,S,P,O,N,K,?,?
(a) H,G (b) H,I
(c) I,H (d) J,I
14. Y,W,T,P,K,E,X,?,?
(a) G,H (b) P,G
(c) R,G (d) S,R
15. Z,X,S,I,R,R,?,?
(a) G,I (b) P,G
(c) R,G (d) S,R
16. A,B,B,D,C,F,D,H,E,?,?
(a) O,P (b) P,Q
(c) R,R (d) S,R
17. A,.B,B,D,C,F,D,H,E,?,?
(a) E,F (b) F,G
(c) F,I (d) J,F
18. Y,B,T,G,O,?,
(a) N (b) M

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Answers
1.(b) 2.(b) 3.(c) 4.(a) 5.(c) 6.(a) 7.(a) 8.(a) 9.(d) 10.(d)
11.(d) 12.(a) 13.(d) 14.(b) 15.(a) 16.(c) 17.(d) 18.(c) 19.(c) 20.(b)
Type 2
Rule:
1st Rule: In this type of questions count all alphabet then make a sequence in logical orders. E.g. :
— — aba — — ba— ab
(a) abbba (b) abbab
(c) baabb (d) bbaba
In this question 12 alphabets are there and factor of 12 is 2, 3, 4 or 6 we can make sequence by using 2 or 3 or 4 or 6
alphabet. Such that (b) ab ab ab ab ab ab this is the sequence
2nd Rule
AABABCABCD……………… 50th letter will be
(a) E (b) J
(c) I (d) F
A AB ABC ABCD ABCDE ABCDEF ABCDEFG ABCDEFGH ABCDEFGHI ABCDE FGHIJ
1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10
E is the 50th letter
Direction : in each of the following letter series, some of the letters are missing which are given in that order as on of the
alternatives below it choose the correct alternative.
1. — — aba — — ba— ab 11. — aa — ba — bb — ab — aab

(a) abbba (b) abbab (a) aaabb (b) babab
(c) baabb (d) bbaba (c) bbaab (d) bbbaa
2. ab — — baa — — ab — 12. ab — d — aaba — na — badna — b
(a) aaaaa (b) abbab (a) andaa (b) babda
(c) aabab (d) baabb (c) badna (d) dbanb
3. m — nm — n — an — a — ma — 13. a — n — b — — ncb
(a) aamnan (b) ammanm (a) abbcc (b) abcbcb
(c) aammnn (d) amammn (c) bacbab (d) dbanb
4. a — ba — b — b— a — b 14. gfe — ig — eii — gf — ii
(a) abaan (b) abbab (a) efigi (b) figie
(c) aaba (d) bbabboo (c) iofgie (d) ifige
5. — stt — tt — tts 15. a — bbc — cca — bbcc

(a) tsts (b) ttst (a) bacb (b) acba
(c) sstt (d) tsst (c) abba (d) caba
6. — op —mo — n — — pnmop — 16. c — bbb — abbb — abb—
(a) mnpmon (b) mpnmop (a) aabcb (b) abccb
(c) nnmm (d) mnpomn (c) baba (d) bcacb
7. — nmmn — mmnn — mnnm 17. c — bba — cab — ac —ab — ac
(a) nmmn (b) mnnm (a) abcbc (b) acbcb
(c) nnmm (d) nmnm (c) babcc (d) bcacb
8. — tu — rt — s — — uusrtu — 18. ccbb— aa — cc — bbbaa — c
(a) rtusru (b) rsutrr (a) acbc (b) baca
(c) rsurtr (d) rsurts (c) baba (d) acba
9. ba — cb — b — bab — 19. — a — b — abaa — bab — abb
(a) acbb (b) bcbb (a) aabb (b) ababb
(c) bcaa (d) cabb (c) babcc (d) acba
10. bca — b — aabc — a — caa 20. ac — cab— baca — aba — acac
(a) acab (b) bcbb (a) aacb (b) acbc
(c) cbab (d) ccab (c) babb (d) babb
Answer
1.(b) 2.(b) 3.(c) 4.(d)_ 5.(d) 6.(a) 7.(c) 8.(d) 9.(b) 10.(a)
11.(c) 12.(a) 13.(d) 14.(c) 15.(b) 16.(d) 17.(b) 18.(b) 19.(d) 20.(a)
Classification/Common Property

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1. (a) Baboon (b) Gibbon (e) Rhinoceros

(c) Chimpanzee (d) Gorilla 12. (a) Crane (b) Flamingo
(e) Jaguar (c) Cuckoo (d) Curlew
2. (a) Rival (b) Spouse (e) Duck
(c) Partner (d) Colleague 13. (a) Corn (b) Wheat
(e) Companion (c) Cotton (d) Jowar
3. (a) Sahara (b) Thar (e) Millet
(c) Gobi (d) Sunderban 14. (a) Madagascar (b) Cuba
(e) Kalahari (c) Greenland (d) Hawaii
4. (a) Big (b) Small (e) Chile
(c) Trivial (d) Tiny 15. (a) Kwashiorkor (b) Cretinism
(e) Huge (c) Marasmus (d) Goitre
5. (a) Ghosts (b) Spirits (e) Osteomalacia
(c) Phantoms (d) Skeletons 16. (a) Inch (b) Foot
(e) Apparitions (c) Yard (d) Quart
6. (a) Coriander (b) Jasmine (e) Metre
(c) Lotus (d) Lily 17. (a) Lapies (b) Stalactites
(e) Rose (c) Cliffs (d) Sinkholes
7. (a) Swimming (b) Diving (e) Stalagmites
(c) Driving (d) Sailing
(e) Fishing 18. (a) Confucius (b) Prophet
8. (a) Cotton (b) Jute (c) Guru Gobind (d) Moses
(c) Silk (d) Nylon (e) Lao Tse
(e) Wool
9. (a) Mountain (b) Valley 19. (a) Admiral (b) Colonel
(c) Glacier (d) Coast (c) Captain (d) Commodore
(e) Ridge (e) Lieutenant
20. (a) Rabbit (b) Rat
10. (a) Kathakali (b) Disco (c) Mongoose (d) Squirrel
(c) Garba (d) Bhangra (e) Cat
(e) Kathak
11. (a) Antelope (b) Kangaroo
(c) Hippopotamus (d) Unicorn
Answer with explanation
1. (e) : All except Jaguar are different species of monkeys or apes, while jaguar belongs to
cat family.
2. (a) : All except Rival are related with some sort of companionship.
3. (d) : All except Sunerban are deserts, while Sunderban is a forest land.
4. (c) : All except Trivial describe the physical size of objects.
5. (d) : All except Skeletons are synonyms and are concerned with superstitions.
6. (a) : All except Coriander are flowers.
7. (c) : All except Driving are activities performed in water.
8. (d) : All except Nylon are natural fibres, while nylon is a synthetic fibre.
9. (c) : This is the only geographical feature that has a movement.
10. (b) : All except Disco are folk dances.
11. (d) : All except Unicorn are animals, while unicorn is an imaginary creature.
12. (c) : All except Cuckoo are water-birds.
13. (c) : All except Cotton are food crops, while cotton is a fibre crop.
14. (e) : All except Chile are islands.
15. (b) : All except Cretinism are deficiency diseases, while Cretinism is a hormonal
disease.
16. (d) : All except Quart are units of measuring distances.
17. (c) : All except Cliffs are structures formed by underground water, while cliffs are
formed by sea.
18. (c) : All except Guru Gobind founded one or the other religion.
19. (b) : All except Colonel are ranks of the army.
20. (e) : All except Cat are rodents.

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11. If in a certain language, NATURE is coded as

Coding-Decoding MASUQE, how is FAMING coded in that code ?
1. In the creation code, TRIPPLE is written as (a) FBMJND (b) FZMHND
SQHOOKD. How is DISPOSE written in that (c) GANIOE (d) EALIME
(a) CHRONRD (b) DSOESPI 12. If in a certain code , TEACHER is written as
(c) ESJTPTF (d) DSOPSID VGCEJET,. How would DULLARD be written in
2. If in code language, COULD is written as BNTKC the same code ?
and MARGIN is written as LZQFHM, how will (a) FWMNCTF (b) FWNNBTE
MOULDING be written in that code ? (c) FWNNCSF (d) FWNNCTF
(a) CHMFINTK (b) LNKTCHMF 13. If in a certain language FASHION is coded as
(c) LNTKCHME (d) NITKHCMF FOIHSAN, how is PROBLEM coded in that code?
3. In a creation code, MONKEY is written as (a) ROBLEMP (b) PELBORM
XDJMNL. How is Tiger written is that code ? (c) PRBOELM (d) RPBOELM
(a) QDFHS (b) SDFHS 14. If in a certain in language KINDEL is coded as
(c) SHFDQ (d) UJHFS ELDNIK, how is EXOTIC coded in that code ?
4. In a creation code, COMPUTER is written as (a) EXOTLC (b) CXOTIE
RFUVQNPC. How is MEDICINE written in the (b) COXITE (d) CITOXE
same code ? 15. If HEATER is written as KBDQHO, how will you
(a) EOJDJEFM (b) WOJDEJFM encode COOLER ?
(c) MFEJDJOE (d) MFEDJJOE (a) ALRIHV (b) FLRIHO
5. If VICTORY is coded as YLFWRUB, How can (c) FLIRHO (d) FRLIHO
SUCCESS be coded ? 16. In a code, CORNER is written as GSVRIV how
(a) VXEEIVV (b) VXFFHVV can CENTRAL be written in that code ?
(a) DFOUSBM (b) GIRXVEP
(c) VYEEHVV (d) VYEFIVV (c) GJRYVEP (d) GNFJKER
17. If MADRAS can be written as ARSARS, how can
6. If BOMBAY is written as MYMYMY, how will ARKONAM be written in that code ?
TAMIL NADU be written in that code ? (a) ROAAKNM (b) ROAKANM
(a) TIATIATIA (b) MNUMNUMNU (c) ROANNM (D) ROAKAM
(c) IATIATIAT (d) ALDALDALD 18. If JOSEPH is coded as FKOALD, than GEORGE
7. If FRIEND is coded as HUMJTK, how is CANDEL will be coded as
written is that code ? (a) CADMNO (b) CAKNIT
(a) EDRIRL (b) DCQHQK
(c) ESJFME (d) FYOBOC (c) CAKNCA (d) JAKINS
8. If in a certain language , COUNSEL is coded as 19. If POND is coded as RSTL, how is HEAR written
BITIRAK , how is GUIDANCE written in that in that code ?
code ? (a) GHIJ (b) GHIZ
(a) EOHYZKBB (b) FOHYZ (c) JIGZ (d) JCIZ
(c) EPHZZKHA (d) HOHYBJBA
20. If TABLE is coded as GZYOV, how is JUICE
9. If FRAGRANCE is written as SBHSBODFG, how coded ?
can IMPOSING be written ? (a) OZLFJ (b) QFRXV
(a) NQPTJHOJ (b) NQPTJOHI (c) HOFAD (d) QZHMT
(c) NQPTJOHJ (d) NQPTJOHJ
10. If in creation language,. GAMBLE is coded as
FBLCKF, how is FLOWER coded in that code ?
(a) GKPVEQ (b) EMNXDS
(c) GANIOE (d) EALIME
Answer
1.(a) 2.(c) 3.(a) 4.(a) 5.(a) 6.(b) 7.(a) 8.(b) 9.(d) 10.(b)
11.(d) 12.(d) 13.(b) 14.(d) 15.(b) 16.(b) 17.(a) 18.(c) 19.(c) 20.(b)
Insert the Missing Character

1. tn lbOPcg';f/ gePsf] vfln :yfgdf_ s'g rflxF ljsNk pko'St x'G5. /f]Hg'xf];\ .
A2 C4 E6
G3 15 ?
M5 O9 Q14
(A) L10 (B) K15 (C) I15 (D) K8

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2. tn lbOPcg';f/ gePsf] -vfnL :yfgdf_ s'g rflxF ljsNk pko'{St x'G5, /f]Hg'xf];\ .
5 4 7 8
6 9 5 10
3 7 2 ?
(a) 1 (b) 4 (c) 3 (d) 6
3. tn lbOPsf] gePsf] :yfgdf_ s'g rflxF ljsNk pko'{St x'G5, /f]Hg'xf];\ .
18 24 18
12 30 16 40 45 27
(a) 6 18 (b) 12 8(c) 9 (d) 6?

4. tn lbOPsf]cg';f/ gePsf] -vfnL :yfgdf_ s'g rflxF ljsNk pko'St x'G5 /f]Hg'xf];\ .
5 3 7 5 6 4
19 ? 29
4 6 5
(a) 25 (b) 37 (c) 41 (d) 47
5. tn lbOPcg';f/ gePsf] -vfnL :yfgdf_ s'g rflxF ljsNk pko'{St x'G5 , /f]Hg'xf];\ .
3 6 9
15 31 ?
27 56 81
(a) 45 (b) 41 (c) 32 (d) 40
6 5 3
8 7 4 5
5 4
492 572 ?
7 6 9 7 5
9 8
4 2
(a) 115 (b) 130 (c) 35 (d) 140
7. tn lbOPcg';f/ gePsf] -vfnL :yfgdf_ s'g rflxF ljsNk pko'{St x'G5 , /f]Hg'xf];\ .
21 31 39 46 16 83
52 85 ?
(a) 92 (b) 72 (c) 62 (d) 99
18 24 32
12 14 16
3 ? 4
72 112 128
(a) 2 (b) 3 (c) 4 (d) 5
7
2 14
6 4
6
0 ?
24
10 12
10
4 8 10
2
(a) 36 (b) 48 (c) 38 (d) 30

1 8
? 27
(a) 41 (b) 64 (c) 35 (d) 61

11. tn lbOPcg';f/ gePsf] –vfnL :yfgdf s'g rflxF ljsNk pko'{St x'G5,
4 5
? 6
11 7
9 3
(a) 13 (b) 14 (c) 12 (d) 15

12. tn lbOPcg';f/ gePsf] –vfnL :yfgdf 'sg rflxF ljsNk pko'{St x'G5, /f]Hg'xf];
1 4 6
5 5 3 3
9 8
551 246 ?
3 7 9 2 1
4 8
6 4
(a) 262 (b)622 (c) 631 (d) 824

13. tn lbOPcg';f/ gePsf] –vfnL :yfgdf s'g rflxF ljsNk pko'{St x'G5 , /f]Hg'xf];\
? 3
22 5
13 8
(a) 45 (b) 29 (c) 39 (d) 37
14. tn lbOPcg';f/ gePsf] -vfnL :yfgdf s'g rflxF ljsNk pko'{St x'G5 , /f]Hg'xf];\
12 8 16 7 25 21
80 207 ?
(a) 184 (b) 210 (c) 241 (d) 425

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15. tn lbOPcg';f/ gePsf] –vfnL :yfgdf s'g rflxF ljsNk pko'{St x'G5, /f]Hg'xf];\
2 4 0
12 4 3
1 3 36
? 91
(a) 15 (b) 19 (c) 20 (18)
10 16 15
12 4 15 12 12 28 11 ? 23
9 20 16
(a) 11 (b) 14 (c) 10 (d) 12
16 25 49
9 25 16 36 36 ?
36 49 81
(a) 64 (b) 144 (c) 169 (d) 25

4 6 3 8
6 10 5 12
4 8 2 ?
(a) 8 (b) 12 (c) 16 (d) 20
19. tn lbOPcg';f/ gePsf] –vfnL :yfgdf s'g rflxF ljsNk pko'{St x'G5 , /f]Hg'xf];\ .
7 4 5
8 7 6
3 3 ?
29 19 31
(a) 3 (b) 5 (c) 4 (d) 6
20. tn lbOPcg';f/ gePsf] -vfnL :yfgdf s'g rflxF ljsNk pko'{St x'G5 , /f]Hg'xf];\ .
4 5 6
2 3 7
1 8 3
21 98 ?
(a) 94 (b) 76
(c) 16 (d) 73

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Answer with Explanation
1. (d) +2 +2
A2  C4  E5
+2 +2
M5  O9  Q14
+2 +2
G3  I5  K8
2+4–6
5 + 9 – 14
Similarly,
3+5=8
K8
2. (d) (5 + 4 + 7) /2 = 8 (6 + 9 + 5)/2 = 10 (3 + 7 + 2)/ 2 = 6
3. (c) (12 + 18 + 30)10 = 6 (16 + 24+ 40) / 10 = 8

(Similarly, (45 + 18 + 27) / 10 = 9.
4. (c) (5 ×3) + 4 = 19 and (6 × 4) + 5 = 29 Therfore, (7 × 5) + 6
5. (a) (15 × 2 – 3) = 27, (31 × 2 – 6) = 56 and (45 × 2 – 9) = 81
6. (b) (5 × 6 × 8) + (7 × 4 × 9) = 492 and (7 × 5 × 4) + (6 × 8 × 9) = 572

Therefore (4 × 3× 5) + 7 × 2 × 5) = 130
7. (d) (21 + 31 – 52 (and (39 + 46 =85
Therefore, 16 + 83 = 99,
8. (b) (18 × 12)/ 3 = 72 and (32 × 14) = 128
Therefore (24 × 14)/? = 112 (336/?) = 112 (336/112) = 3
9. (c) (0 + 2 + 6 + 4) – 2 = 10 and (6 + 2 + 10 + 8) – 2 =24
Therefore, (4 + 14 + 12 + 10) – 2 = 38.
10. (b) (a)3 = 1, (2)3 = 8, (3)3 = 27 Therefore, (4)3 = 64.
11. (d) Sum of number n lower half of the circle = 11 + 9 + 3 + 7 = 30
Sum of numbers n upper half of the circle = ? + 4 + 5 + 6 = ? + 15
Upper half – Lower half
30 = ? + 15 ? = 30 – 15 ? = 15.
Therefore, 15 s the answer
12. (b) 915 – 364 = 551
and 7899 – 543 = 246 S.U lary, 863 – 241
13. (c) 3 5 8 13 22 39
x2 - 1 x2 - 2 x2 - 3 x2 - 4 x2 - 5
14. (a) (12)2 – (8)2 = 80 and (16)2 – (7)2 = 207 Therefore (25)2 – (21)2 = 184
3 3 3 3 3 3
15. (d) (2) + (1) + (3) = 36 and (0) + (4) + (3) = 91
Therefore, (4)3 + (2)3 + (1)3 = 73
16. (a) (15 – 12) + (10 – 9) = 4 (28 – 12) + (16 – 20) = 1
Salary, (23 – 11) + (15 – 16) = 11
17. (a) The numbers are squared n ascend ng order in first circle
(3)2 = 9 (4)2= 16 (5)2 = 25 (6)2= 36
In second circle,
(4)2 = 16 (5)2 = 25 (6)2 = 36 (7)2 = 49
In thrd circle,
(6)2 = 36 (8)2 = 64 (9)2 = 81
18. (c) (4 × 6)  3 = 8 (6 × 10)  5 = 12 (4 × 8)  2 = 16
19. (b) (7 × 3) + 8 = 29 (4 × 3) + 7 = 19 (5 ×?) + 6 = 31 ?=5
20. (a) (4)2 + (2)2 + (1)2 =21 and (5)2 + (3)2 + (8)2 = 98
Therefore (6)2 + (7)2 + (3)2 = 94.

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3. (a) 10,43, 14, 85 (b) 65, 13, 69, 34

Matrices Coding
Directions: In each of the following questions, a word (c) 41, 57, 77, 89 (d) 23, 20, 56, 22
is represented by only one set of numbers as given in (e) 10, 96, 89, 57
any one of the alternatives. The sets of numbers given SAME
in the alternatives are represented by two classes of 1 4
alphabets as in the two given matrices. The columns N S
and rows of Matrix I are numbered from 0 to 4 and M N
those of Matrix II from 5 to 9. A letter from these K A
matrices can be represented first by its row and then
M M
the column number. Similarly you have to identify the
Q P
correct set for the word given in each question.
Study the code given in each question & answer the
questions:- 6 8
AIR M D
1 3 N E
H P P A
A U M Q
T W E M
M A
I C 4. (a) 04, 24, 57, 95 (b) 12, 85, 31, 68
5 (c) 00, 67, 86, 59 (d) 13, 30, 97, 79
M (e) 65, 85, 98, 76
B RATE
R 0 4
J Y A
A R E
1. (a) 11, 87, 43 (b) 11, 32, 44 X K
(c) 33, 24, 56 (d) 79, 41, 89 A R
(e) 95, 87, 95 M W
TEST
3
5 7
T
T P
Q N
U W R
N A M
S B R
7
L X
L 5. (a) 34, 30, 87, 14 (b) 20, 22, 55, 89
F (c) 13, 75, 59, 33 (d) 10, 79, 11, 68
E (e) 75, 13, 11, 89
W WORK
S 0 1 3
2. (a) 14, 58, 43, 59 (b) 55, 13, 79, 59 K O L
(c) 12, 31, 22, 67 (d) 13, 68, 98, 66 W J W
(e) 56, 87, 21, 40 A K X
HEAL R N O
O W L
5 6 8 9
W B W O
R G V P
5 7 Y W I W
Q E R X N K
H K W C E O
M A
L N 6. (a) 13, 33, 85, 97 (b) 40, 67, 65, 57
T W (c) 55, 34, 77, 89 (d) 75, 59, 22, 68
(e) 69, 55, 22, 13

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WILD 7 9
0 1 4 A H
L M D W R
I A Q T Z
W P W N M
V W L W D
D I W 10. (a) 76, 56, 78, 04 (b) 75, 23, 86, 87
(c) 41, 65, 43, 58 (d) 85, 10, 88, 01
5 7 9 (e) 41, 10, 86, 69
I M W Answer
W I D
R D L
W L Q
D W H
7. (a) 65, 22, 34, 31 (b) 21, 56, 87, 44
(c) 24, 23, 12, 95 (d) 66, 67, 79, 32
(e) 24, 87, 21, 65
GAIN
1 2 4
Y I N
N R O
V A H
I T G
X N G
5 6
G M
N I
P G
W A
I Y
8. (a) 12, 58, 66, 89 (b) 76, 68, 31, 79
(c) 32, 86, 12, 65 (d) 75, 10, 66, 78
(e) 75, 68, 66, 32
PAIN
1 2 4
Y I N
N T R
D Q P
F N X
A E P
7
D
A
E
M
I
9. (a) 24, 86, 33, 32 (b) 55, 67, 89, 11
(c) 44, 59, 12, 95 (d) 99, 14, 85, 88
(e) 44, 67, 85, 95
HORN
3
B
M
T
Z
R

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herself exactly one km West of her starting point .

Direction How far did she ride Northwards initially ?
1. A man starts walking in the morning facing the (a) 1 km (b) 3 km
Sun. After sometimes, he turned to his left. Later (c) 2 km (d) 5 km
he again turned to his left. The direction in which 10. Gagan started from a point A towards South and
the man is moving now is : travelled 5 km, Then he turned right and travelled
(a) South (b) North 2 km. Then he turned right and travelled 5 km.
(c) East (d) West Then he turned left and travelled 5 km. How far
2. A train leaves Delhi at 6.00a./m. and reaches Agra was he from the point A?
at 10.00 a. m. Another train leaves Agra at 8.00 a. (a) 7 km (b) 17 km
m. and reaches Delhi at 11.30 a.m. At what time to (c) 15 km (d) 5 km
the two trains cross each other if the distance 11. A man from his house walks towards North and
between Delhi and Agra is 200km ? cover 15.5 km and then turns left and travels 7 km.
(a) 8.45 a. m. (b) 8.56 a. m. He then turns left again and after travelling 31 km
(c) 9.20 a. m. (d) 9.56 a. m. , again turns left and stops after travelling 7 km.
3. Remesh walks 30 m towards South. Then turning How far is he from his house?
to his right he walks 30m . Then turning to his left (a) 8.5 km (b) 15.5 km
he walks 20m Again turning to his left he walks (c) 46.5 km (d) 60.5 km
30m. How far is he from his starting position ? 12. Mona travelled 3 km Southwards, then turned
(a) 30m (b) 20m right and travelled 5 km . then again turned right
(c) 80m (d) 60m and travelled 7 km. In which direction was she
(e) None of these travelling last ?
4. Suraj started from point X and walked straight five (a) South (b) East
km West, then turned left and walked staraght two (c) North (d) West
km and turned left and walked straight seven km. 13. After walking 6 km. I turned right and covered a
In which direction is he from point X ? distance of 2 km, then turned left and covered a
(a) North- East (b) South-West distance of 10 km. In the end, I was moving
(c) South -East (d) North-West
towards the North. From which direction did I
5. Neeraj started from point 'A' and proceeded 7km
start my journey ?
straight towards East, then he turned left and
(a) North (b) South (c) East (d) West
proceeded straight for a distance of 10km. He then
14. One day Anuneet left home and cycled 10 km south
turned left again and proceeded straight for a
wards, turned right and cycled 5 km and turned
distance of 6km , and then turned left again and
right and cycled 10 km and turned left and cycled
proceeded straight for another 10km./ In which
10 km. How many kms will he have to cycle to
direction is Neeraj from his started point ?
reach his home straight ?
(a) East (b) West
(a) 10 km (b) 15 km (c) 20 km (d) 25 km
(c) North (d) South
6. A policeman left his police post and proceeded 15. Ranjeev started from his office on duty. After
South 4km,. after hearing a loud sound from point travelling straight for a distance of 14 km, he
A. On reaching the place he heard another sound turned left for the market and travelled straight for
and proceeded 4km to his left to the point B, only 6 km. He now turned left again and travelled
to find that the sound was coming from left of B. straight for another 2 km, and then again turned
from B he proceeded left to reach that place 4km. left and travelled straight for 6 km. How far is
away. In which direction he has to go to reach his Ranjeev from office ?
police post ? (a) 14 km (b) 12 km
(a) North (b) South (c) 16 km (d) 10 km
(c) East (d) West 16. Starting from a point 'X' Sheetal walked 25 m
7. Pooja travelled 35 km from center point towards towards South. She turned to her left and walked
South and then turned left and travelled 17km and 50 m. She than again turned to her left and walked
finally turned left again and travelled 35 km. How 25 m. She again turned to her left and walked 60 m
far was she from the starting point ? and reached a point 'Y' How far Sheetal is from
(a) 17 km (b) 18 km point 'X' and in which direction ?
(c) 35 km (d) 70 km (a) 10 m West (b) 25 m North
8. Sonia travelled 9 km to the West, then turned right (c) 10 m East (d) 25 m west
and travelled 7 km, then turned left and travelled 8 17. Sunil started walking from a point 'P' towards
km , then turned back and travelled 11 km then South. After walking 40 m, he took a left turn. He
turned right and travelled 7 km. How far is he then walked 30 m and reached a point Q. what is
from the starting point ? the straight line distance between P and Q, and Q
(a) 3 km (b) 6 km is towards which direction of P?
(c) 7 km (d) 9 km (a) 60 m, South- East (b) 50 m, South- West
9. girl road her bicycle Northwards, then turned left (c) 50 m, South - East (d) None of the above
and then again road to her left 2 km. she found

13

1. (d)
2. (b) 3.
(e)
If takes 4 hrs from Delhi to Agra and 3 ½

hrs from Agra to Delhi. At 8 A.M. when
train B starts from Agra, train, A has 50 meters
covered 100 km. Suppose the first train
meets the second train after covering x
km from P and the second train meets the
first train after covering (100-x) km.
Speed of the first train = 50 km/hr and
speed of the second train = 400/7 km per
hour.
x/50 = 7 (100 – x)/400
x = 46.67
Train A covers the distance of 46.67 km
in 60/50 × 46.67 = 56 minutes
4. (c) 5.
(a)
Suraj is in South-East direction from

point X
6. (d) 7.
(a)
8. (b) 9.
(c)
10. (a) 11.

(b)

14
12. (c) 13.

(b)
14. (b) 15.

(b)
16. (a) 17. From the figure its obvious that Q

(c) is toward South-East of P. also,
(PQ)2 = (PR)2 + (RQ)2
= (40)2 + (30)2
= 1600 + 900 =
2500
Or, PQ = 50 m
Ranking Order
(a) 1 (b) 2
1. How many '8' are followed by even number and (c) 3 (d) 4
preceded by an odd number? 6. How many such 5s are there in the following
number sequence, each of which is preceded by 3
184381483287848568784186 or 4 but not followed by 8 or 9?
(a) 3 (b) 4 3 5 9 5 4 55 3 5 8 4 5 6 7 3 5 755 4 5 235 1 0
(c) 9 (d) 5 (a) Six (b) three
2. What should come next in the following number (c) Four (d) Five
series? (e) None of these
45321545321445321345321 7. Unita is the 11th from either and of a row of girls.
(a) 1 (b) 4 How many girls are there in that row?
(c) 2 (d) 5 (a) 19 (b) 20
3. What should come next in the following series of (c) 21 (d) 22
numbers? 8. In a row of boys, Rajan is 10th from the right and
223234234523456234567234567 Suraj is 10th from the left. When Rajan and Suraj
(a) 2 (b) 3 interchange their positions, Suraj will be 27th from
(c) 4 (d) 7 the left. Which of the following will be Rajan's
(e) None of these position from the right?
4. How many 9's are followed by and preceded by (a) 10th (b) 26th
numbers Divisible by 2 ? (c) 29th (d) 25th
89653596834965269737294137941734 (e) None of these
98453978153195142968532957489451 9. In a class of 45 students, a boy is ranked 20th. When
(a) 12 (b) 6 two boys joined, his rank was dropped by one.
(c) 8 (d) 10 (e) 4 what is his new rank from the end?
5. If two is subtracted from each odd digit and three
is added to each even digit in the number 3675249. (a) 25th (b) 26th
How many digits will appear twice in the new (c) 27th (d) 28th
number thus formed?

15
10. Sohan ranks seventh from the top and twenty-sixth within the number are rearranged in descending
from the bottom in a class. How many student are order (from left to right)?
there in the class? (a) None (b) One
(a) 31 (b) 32 (c) Two (d) Three
(c) 33 (d) 34 (e) More than three
11. There are 25 boys in a horizationtal row. Rahul 14. Three are twenty people working in an office. The
was shifted by three places towards his right side first group of five works between 8: 00 am to 2 : 00
and he occupies the middle position in the row. pm. The second group of ten works between 10:
What was his original position from the left end of 00 am to 4 : 00 pm and the third group of five
the row? works between 12 noon to 6 pm. There are 3
computers in the office which all the employees
(a) 15th (b) 16th frequently use. During which of the following
th
(c) 12 (d) 10th hours the computers are likely to be used most?
(e) None of these
12. The positions of how many digits in the number (a) 10 :00 am– 12: 00 noon
5314687 will remain unchanged after the digits are (b) 12 noon – 2 : 00 pm
rearranged in ascending order within the number? (c) 1 : 00 pm – 3 : 00 pm
(d) 2 :00 pm – 4 : 00 Pm
(a) None (b) One 15. In a row of girls, venna is 12th from the start and
(c) Two (d) Three 19th from the end. In another row of girls, Sunita is
(e) More than three 14th from the start and 20th from the end. How
13. The positions of how many digits in the number many girls are there in both the rows together?
837912 will remain unchanged after the digits (a) 72 (b) 65
(c) 63 (d) 61
Answer with Explanations
1. (a) 184381 4832878485 68784186
There are four such pairs which are followed by even number and preceded by odd number.
2. (c)
Hence, number 2 will be come in place of question mark.

3. (e) 2/23/234/2345/23456/234567/234567 8
Hence, next number in the given series will be 8.
4. (b) In the given series, there are six 9's followed by and preceded by number divisible by 2.
5. (b) Subtract 2 from odd digits in given number and add 3 in even digits
So, answer will be 2 because in new number there are two digit of five and two digit of seven.
6.(a) There are six such 5's as shown below
3 5 9 5 4  5 3 6 7 3  7  5 4  2 3  1 0
7. (c) The total number of girls = 11 + 11 – 1 = 22 – 1 = 21
8. (e) Total number of boys = (10 + 27 – 1) = 37 – 1 = 36) So, Rajan's position from the right = (36 – 10)
+ 1 = 26 + 1 = 27
9. (c) When two boys joined the number of ranks in class reduces by one to go from 45 to 44. Since, the
rank of the boy dropped by one it becomes 21th from 20th and it means that the boy who joined
were in front of him and one behind him, so his rank is 21th among 47 student, then his rank from
behind = 47 – 21 + 1 = 27th
10. (b) Total student in the class = 7 + 26 – 1 = 33 – 1 = 32
11. (d) when Rahul was shifted by three places towards his right side, then he occupies the middle
position, i.e. 13th position.

10th 13th
Thus, his original position from the left end of the row = 13 – 3 = 10th
16
12. (c)
5 3 1 4 6 8 7
1 3 4 5 6 7 8
Hence, two digits 3 and 6 will remain unchanged their positions.
13. (b)
Given 8 3 7 9 1 2
number –
Descending 9 8 7 3 2 1
order –
Hence, only one number 7, digit position remain unchanged.
14. (b)
Twenty people Shifts
first Croup of 5 8 am to 4 pm
Second Group of 10 10 an to 4 pm
Third Group of 5 12 noon to 6 pm
Hence, timing 12 noon to 2 pm is commonly exist in all the shifts, so the computers are likely to be used most this time.
15. (c) In first row, Veena is 12th from starting and 19th from end. Total number lof girls = (12 + 19 –1) =
30 In second row, sunita is 1 14th from starting and 2oth from the end. Then total number of girls
= (14 + 20 – 1) = 33
 Total number of girls = 30 + 33 = 63
Assertion and Reason
Directions: In each of the questions given below, there are two statements labeled as Assertion (A) and Reason
(R).
Mark your answer as per the codes provided below:
(a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.
(b) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A.
(c) A is true but R is false.
(d) A is false but R is true.
(e) Both A and R are false.
Assertion (A) : When lightning strikes, the sound is heard a little after the flash is seen.
Reason (R) : The velocity of light is greater than that of the sound.
Assertion (A) : A ship rises as it enters the sea from a river.
Reason (R) : The density of sea water is higher as compared to river water.
Assertion (A) : Indian President is the head of the State.
Reason (R) : Indian Parliament consists of the President, Lok Sabha and Rajya Sabha.
Assertion (A) : The pouring of kerosene oil on stagnant pools helps to eradicate malaria.
Reason (R) : The kerosene oil is poisonous for the mosquitoes.
Assertion (A) : Uranium undergoes nuclear fusion reaction.
Reason (R) : It has a big, unstable nucleus.
Assertion (A) : Petrol fire cannot be extinguished by pouring water over it.
Reason (R) : Water is heavier than petrol.
Assertion (A) : The British sovereignty continued to exist in free India.
Reason (R) : The British sovereign appointed the last Governor-General of free India.
Assertion (A) : Diamond is used for cutting glass.
Reason (R) : Diamond has a right refractive indexd.
Assertion (A) : The same side of the moon faces the earth at all times.
Reason (R) : Moon is the only natural satellite of Earth.
Assertion (A) : Sprouting should not be done before consuming the grains.
Reason (R) : Sprouting kills many vital vitamins.
ANSWER WITH EXPLANATION
1. (a) R provides the correct reason for A.
2. (a) Due to higher density of sea water, the upthrust produced by the sea water on the ship is
greater as compared to that produced by river water.
3. (b) Both A and R are true. Indian President is the constitutional or titular heads of the executive,
the real power being vested in the Council of Ministers.
4. (c) The kerosene oil sprayed on the water provides a thin coating and the larvae of mosquitoes are
prevented from coming up to breathe. Thus, they die.
5. (d) Having a big, unstable nucleus, uranium undergoes nuclear fission reaction.

17
6. (a) Water, being heavier, slips down and petrol rises to the surface and continues to burn as
before. So, petrol fire is better extinguished by putting sand over it.
7. (d) India drafted its own Constitution and formed its own government after gaining independence.
So, A is false. But R is true.
8. (b) Diamond is hard due to its rigid three dimensional structure and so, it is used for cutting glass.
Refractive index of diamond is high and this gives it greater transparency and brilliance.
9. (b) 1
The Moon rotates on its axis once in 27 days and it also takes the same time to revolve
3
around the Earth. So, only one side of the Moon remains visible on Earti.
10. (e) Sprouted grains should be consumed because sprouting enhances the nutrient content of the
grains.
Induction & Deduction
Directions: In each question below are given two statements followed by two conclusions numbered I and II. Yu have to
take the given two statements to be true even if they seem to be at variance from commonly known facts. Read the
conclusion and then decide which of the given conclusions logically follows from the two given statements, disregarding
commonly known facts.
Give answer
(a) if only conclusion I follows;
(b) if only conclusion II follows;
(c) if either conclusion I or II follows;
(d) if neither conclusion I nor II follows;
(e) if both conclusions I and II follow.
Statements : All men are dogs. All dog are cats.
Conclusions : I. All men are cats II. All cats are men
Statements : All film stars are playback singers. All film directors are film stars.
Conclusions : I. All film directors are playback signers.
: Some film stars are film directors.
Statements : All pens are roads. All roads are houses.
Conclusions : I. All houses are pens. II. Some houses are pens.
Directions: In each of the following questions, two statements are given followed by three or conclusions numbered I, II,
III and IV. You have to take the given two take the given statements to be true even if they seem to be at variance from
commonly known facts and then decide which of the given conclusions logically follows from the given statements,
disregarding commonly known facts.
Statements : All aeroplanes are trains. Some trains are chairs.
Conclusions : I. Some aeroplanes are chairs. II. Some chairs are aeroplanes.
III. Some chairs are trains IV. Some trains are aeroplanes
(a) None follows (b) Only I and II follow
(c) Only II and III follow (d) Only III and IV follow
Statements : Some bottles are drinks. All drinks are cups.
Conclusions : I. Some bottles are cups. II. Some cups are drinks
III. All drinks are bottles. IV. All cups are drinks.
(a) Only I and II follow (b) Only II and III follow
(c) Only II and IV follow (d) Only III and IV follow
(e) Only I and IV follow
Statements : Some books are pens. No pen is pencil.
Conclusions : I. Some pens are books. II. Some pencil are books.
III. Some books are not pencils. IV. All pencils are books.
(a) Only I follows (b) Only II and III follow
(c) Only I and III follow (d) Only I and II follow
Statements : Some clothes are marbles. Some marbles are bags.

Conclusions : I. No cloth is a bag. II. All marbles are bags.
III. Some bag are clothes. IV. No marble is a cloth.
(a) Only either I or IV follows (b) Only either I or II follows
(c) None follows (d) Only either I or III follows
Answer With Explanation
1. (a) Since both the premises are universal and affirmative, the conclusion must be universal affirmative. However,
conclusion II, being an A-type proposition, distributes the term 'goats'. Since the term 'goats' is distributed in II without
being distributed in any of the premises, so conclusion II cannot follow. Thus, only I follows.

18
2. (e) Since both the premises are universal and affirmative, the conclusion must be universal affirmative and should
not contain the middle term. So, I follows. I is the converse of the second premise and so it also holds.
3. (b) Since both the premises are universal and affirmative, the conclusion must be universal affirmative and should
not contain the middle term. So, it follows that 'All pens are houses'. II is the converse of this conclusion and so it holds.
Since the term 'houses' is distributed in I without being distributed in any of the premises, so I does not follow.
4. (d) Since the middle term 'train's is not distributed even once in the premises, no definite conclusion follows.
However, III is the converse of the second premise while IV is the converse of the first premise. So, both of them hold.
5. (a) Since one premise is particular, the conclusion must be particular and should not contain the middle term. So, it
follows that 'Some bottles are cups'. Thus I follows. It is the converse of the second premise and so it also holds.
6. (c) Since one premise is particular and the other negative, the conclusion must be particular negative and should not
contain the middle term. Thus, III follows. I is the converse of the first premise and so it also holds.
7. (d) Since both the premises are particular, no definite conclusion follows. However, I and III involve only the
extreme terms and form a complementary pair. Thus, either I or III follows.
Courses of Action
Directions: In the following question a statement is followed by two courses of action numbered I and II. A course of
action is a step or decision to be taken for improvement, follow up, or further action in regard to the problem policy, etc.
on the basis of the information given in the statement. You have to assume everything in the statement to be true, then
decide which of the two given courses of actions logically follows for pursuing.
Give answer (a) if only I follows: (b) if only Ii follows; (c) if either I or II follows; (d) if neither I nor II follows; and (e)
if both I and II follow.
1. Statement : A leading US multinational engineering and construction firm is keen to
invest in India in a variety of sectors ranging from power to land
management.
Course of : I. Such multinational companies should not be allowed to operate in India.
action II. India should encourage multinational companion from other developed
countries to invest in the power sector to bring in competitive climate.
2. Statement : A shopkeeper was reported to be selling adulterated grains.
Course of : I. He should be fined and his shop sealed.
action II. He should be asked to leave the town and open a shop elsewhere.
3. Statement : A train has derailed near a station while moving over a bridge and fell into
the river.
Courses : I. The railway authorities should clarify the reason of the accident to the
of action government.
II. The government should allocate funds to compensate the destruction
caused.
4. Statement : The Central Bureau of Investigation receives the complaint of an officer
taking tribe to do the duty he is supposed to.
Courses : I. The CBI should try to catch the officer red handed and then take a strict
of action action against him.
II. The CBI should wait for some more complaints about the officer to be sure
about the matter.
5. Statement : Most of the children in India are not able to get education, because they
get employed to earn livelihood in their childhood only.
Courses : I. Education should be made compulsory for all children up to the age of 14.
of action
II. Employment of children below the age of 14 years, should be banned.
6. Statement : The Finance Minister submits his resignation a month before the new
budget is to be presented in the Parliament.
Courses : I. The resignation should be accepted and another person should be appointed
of action as the Finance Minister.
II. The resignation should not be accepted.
7. Statement : Courts takes too long in deciding important disputes of various
departments.
Courses : I. Courts should be ordered to speed up matters.
of action
II. Special powers should be granted to officers to settle disputes concerning
their department.
8. Statement : A group of school students was reported to be enjoying at a picnic spot
during school hours.
I. The principal should contact the parents of those students and tell them

19
about the incident with a real warning for future.

II. Some disciplinary action must be taken against those students and all other
students should be made aware of it.
9. Statement : Footpaths of a busy road are crowded with vendors selling cheap items.
Course of : I. The help of police should be sought to drive them away.
action
II. Some space should be provided to them where they can earn their bread
without blocking the footpaths.
10. Statement : The sale of a particular product has gone down considerably causing great
concern to the company.
Course of I. The company should make a proper study of rival products in the market.
action
II. The price of the product should be reduced and quality improved.

1. (b) Clearly, financing is the major problem in starting any project. The investment by
multinational companies shall, therefore, be a way to development. So only II follows.
2. (a) It is clear that if shopkeeper is allowed to continue without being punished, he would create
the problem elsewhere. So only I follows.
3. (d) It is necessary to take preventive measures so as to protect the passengers and pay them
adequate compensation. So none of the two courses follows.
4. (a) One complaint is enough for wrong doing. This should be confirmed by catching the guilty
one and then strict action is to be taken against him. So only course I follows.
5. (e) To educate all children, enforcement of education is necessary. Thus both the courses follow.
6. (b) The present finance minister shall know better all the plans and resources of the government
and he alone can present a suitable budget. So course II should be followed.
7. (e) For quick disposal of cases, either the matters in the court should be speeded up or the matters
should be cleared up in their respective departments to prevent the delay. So both the courses
follow.
8. (e) Both warning and future prevention are necessary. So both the courses follow.
9. (e) The footpaths are meant for an entirely different purpose. So, they need to be kept empty. For
this, police help has to be sought. Also the vendors cannot be deprived of a living. So, both the
coursed follow.
10. (a) A study of rival products in the market will help assess the cause for the lowering down of the
prices and then a suitable action will be taken. So only I follow.
Cause and Effect Reasoning

When examining events, People naturally seek to explain why things happened. This search often results in cause and
effect reasoning.
Basically, causality occurs when one event is said to make another occur. The cause is the event that makes the other
occurs; the effect is the event that follows from the cause. Thus, the cause must occur before the effect and the effect
always happens at some point of time after the cause.
The questions on cause and effect reasoning are mainly designed to decide on a candidate's ability to analyses a pair of
given statements and to correlate them in terms of cause and effect. Five possibilities may arise:
I. The fact in the first statement is the effect of that mentioned in the second statement i.e. the second statement expresses
the case that leads to the condition mentioned in the first;
II. The contents of the first statement from the direct cause of the result discussed in the second statement;
III. Both the statements express generalized results that may not be backed by any specific cause but may influence certain
other factors;
IV. Both the statements are independent and may be explained as effects of different independent causes;
V. The effect in both the given statements may be caused or triggered by a third unmentioned event following examples will
make the idea clear.
Directions: In each of the following questions, two statements numbered I and II are given. There may be cause and
effect relationship between the two state3ments. These two statements may be the effect of the same cause or independent
causes. These statements in each question and mark your answer accordingly.
Give answer (a) if statement I is the cause and statement II is its effect;
Give answer (b) if statement II is the cause and statement I is its effect;

20
Give answer (c) if both the statement I and II are independent causes;
Give answer (d) if both the statement I and II are effect of independent causes;
Give answer (e) if both the statement I and II are effect of some common causes;
1. I. There is sharp decline in the production of oil seeds this year.
II. The Government has decided to increase the import quantum of edible oil.
2. I. The life today is too fast, demanding and full of variety in all aspects which at times leads to stressful situations.
II. Number of suicide cases among teenagers is on increase.
3. I. There is unprecedented increase in the number of young unemployed in comparison to the previous year.
II. A large number of candidates submitted applications against an advertisement for the post of manager issued by
a bank.
4. I. All the school in the area had to be kept closed for most part of the week.
II. Many parents have withdrawn their children from the local schools.
5. I. There has been a high increase in the incidents of atrocities against women in the city during the past few
months.
II. The police authority has been unable to nab the culprits who are committing crime against women.
6. I. the prices of petrol and diesel in the domestic market have remained unchanged for the few months.
II. The crude oil prices in the international market have go he up substantially in the last few months.
7. I. the local co-0oprative credit society have decided to stop giving loans to farmers with immediate effect.
II. A Large number of credit society members has withdrawn major part of their deposits from the credit society.
8. I. The Government has imported Large quantities of sugar as per trade agreement with other countries.
II. The prices of sugar in the domestic market have fallen sharply in the recent months.
9. I. India has surpassed the value of tea exports this year over all the earlier years due to an increase in the demand
for quality tea in the European market.
II. There is an increase in demand of coffee in the domestic market during the last two years.
10. I. there is increase in water level of all the water tanks supplying drinking water to the city during the last fortnight.
II. Most of the trains was cancelled last week due to water-longing on the tracks.
11. I. Majority of the students in the college expressed their opinion against the collage authority's decision to break
away from the university and become autonomous.
II. The university authorities have expressed their-inability to provide grants to its constituent colleges.
1. (a) : A sharp decline in oilseed production is bound to reduce oil supply and import of oil is the only means to restore the
essential supply.
2. (a) : Stress in everyday life is a major cause of frustration among the youth and is bound to lead them to take harsh steps as
suicide.
3. (a): An increase in the number of unemployed youth is bound to draw in huge crowds for a single vacancy.
4. (d): Closing the school are independent issues, which must have been triggered by different individual causes.
5. (c): An increased in the cases of atrocities on woman and the police being unable to nab the culprits involved in the same are
independent happenings in themselves..
6. (d) : The Prices of petrol and diesel being stagnant in the domestic market and the increase in the same in the international
market must be backed by independent causes.
7. (b): Clearly, withdrawal of funds by society members is bound to reduce the lending power of the society.
8. (a): The increase in supply always triggers a reduction in the prices.
9. (c): The two statements discuss two separate statistical and generalized results.
10.(e): The problem discussed in both the statements are clearly the result of heavy downpour in the area.
11. (b): Clearly, the university's decision to refuse grant to the colleges must have triggered the college authority to become
autonomous.
Varification of Truth
In this type of questions, the candidate required to stress only on truth of the facts that always hold. Questions are asked
in context of a particular thing or factor that is always characterized by a specific part or feature. The alternatives other
than the correct answer alos seem to bear a strong relationshiop with the thing mentioned. So, absolute truth is to be
followed.
Direction: Choose the best alternative as the answer.
1. Which of the following an animal always has? (a) Actors (b) Story
(a) Lungs (b) Skin (c) Sets (d) Director
(c) Mind (d) Heart (e) Spectators
(e) Life 4. A book always has
2. A race always has (a) Chapters (b) Pages
(a) Referee (b) Spectators (c) Contents (d) Pictures
(c) Rivals (d) Prize (e) Illustrations
(e) Victory 5. A mirror always
3. Which of the following a 'Drama' must have? (a) Reflects (b) Retracts

21
(c) Distorts (d) Refracts 11. A jail always has

(e) Reveals the truth (a) Bars (b) Jailor
6. A factory always has (c) Lawyer (d) Locks
(a) Electricity (b) Chimney (e) Prisoners
(c) Workers (d) Files 12. A camera always has
(e) Sellers (a) Lens (b) Reels
7. A clock always has (c) Flash
(a) Battery (b) Numbers (d) Photograph (e) Stand
(c) Alarm (d) Needles 13. An oasis always has
(e) Frame (a) Travelloers (b) Water
(c) Sand (d) Camels
8. A car always has (e) Forests
(a) Drive (b) Bonnet 14. A hospital always has
(c) Dicky (d) Bumper (a) Nurse (b) Room
(e) Wheels (c) Telephone (d) Doctor
9. A river always has (e) Bed
(a) Delta (b) Tributaries 15. A bulb always has
(c) Boats (d) Banks (a) Filament (b) Light
(e) Fisehs (c) Glass (d) Current
10. A tree always has which of the following? (e) Argon
(a) Branches (b) Leaves
(c) Fruits (d) Roots
(e) Shadow
Answer
1. (e) 2. (c) 3. (b) 4. (b) 5. (a) 6. (c) 7. (d) 8. (e) 9. (d) 10. (d)
11. (d) 12. (a) 13. (b) 14. (d) 15. (a)

22
Non Verbal
nf]s ;]jf cfof]un] Non Verbal Reasoning sf] nflu /fv]sf] gd'gf k|Zgx¿
-s_ tn plNnlvt k|Zgx¿sf] klxnf] nx/df ;lrq sf]7fx¿ qmda4 ¿kdf /x]sf 5g\ . t/ qmd k"/f 5}g, lsgeg] clGtd sf]7f -< ePsf]_ vfnL 5 .
qmdsf]lgod klxNofpg'xf];\ / bf];f| ] nx/df kf“r sf]7fx¿ (A, B, C, D, E) dWo] dflyNNf] nx/ k"/f ug{ ;Sg] sf]7f /f]Hg'xf];\ .
gd'gf k|Zg !
    
     ?
 
 
A B C D E
gd'gf k|Zg @
A B C D E
gd'gf k|Zg #
• •
•
• ?
•
• • •
•
• •
A B C D E
-v_ tn plNnlvt k|Zgx¿sf] klxnf] nx/df ;lrq sf]7fx¿ qmda4 ¿kdf /x]sf 5g\ . t/ qmd k"/f 5}g, lsgeg] aLrsf] sf]7f -< ePsf]_ vfnL 5 .
qmdsf] lgod klxNofpg'xf];\ / bf];f| ] nx/sf kf“r sf]7fx¿ (A, B, C, D, E) dWo] dflyNnf] nx/ k"/f ug{ ;Sg] sf]7f /f]Hg'xf];\ .
gd'gf k|Zg $
A B C D E

23
gd'gf k|Zg %
• • ? •
• • • •
A B C D E
-u_ tn plNnlvt k|To]s k|Zgx¿df ^ ;lrq sf]7fx¿ /x]sf 5g\, h;dWo] ;'?df gfd gePsf] Pp6f sf]7f /flvPsf] 5 eg], af“sL A, B, C, D, E gfd
ePsf sf]7fx¿ 5g\ . gfd gePsf] klxnf] sf]7fn] qmdsf] ;'?jft u5{ eg] af“sL sf]7fx¿ qmda4 ¿kdf /xg'kg]{ x'G5, t/ clxn] qmd k"/f 5}g
lsgeg] b'O{ sf]7fx¿sf] :yfg (Position) km/s 5 . of] qmd Toltv]/ dfq k"/f x'G5 ha tL b'O{ sf]7fx¿sf] :yfg cbnf abnL (Position
interchanged) x'G5 . cbnf abnL x'g] b'O{ sf]7fdWo] klxnf] sf]7fsf] gfd c+lst ug'{xf];\ . olb qmd k"/f g} 5 / cbnf abnL ug'{ kb}{g eg] pQ/ E
/f]Hg'xf];\ .
gd'gf k|Zg ^
A B C D E
gd'gf k|Zg &
A B C D E
gd'gf k|Zg *
A B C D E
-3_ tn plNnlvt k|Zgx¿df % gfd c+lst (A, B, C, D, E) / nx/sf] b'j} 5]pdf b'O{ gfd gePsf ;lrq sf]7fx¿ 5g\ . oL ;ftj6} sf]7fx¿ qmda4
¿kdf /xg'kg]{ x'G5, t/ (A, B, C, D, E) sf]7fx¿dWo] Pp6f unt 5, qmddf lkm6 x'“b}g . qmddf lkm6 gx'g] ToxL sf]7f /f]Hg'xf];\ .
gd'gf k|Zg (
A B C D E
gd'gf k|Zg !)
A B C D E
-ª_ tn plNnlvt k|Zgsf] klxnf] nx/sf 1 / 2 g+= sf]7fsf lrqx¿ s'g} g s'g} lsl;dn] Ps csf{;“u ;DalGwt 5g\ . ;f] ;DaGw klxNofpg'xf];\ / 3 /
4 g+= sf]7fsf lrqx¿aLr klg o:t} ;DaGw :yflkt ug{ 4 g+= sf]7f -< lrGx ePsf]_ sf] 7fp“df bf];f| ] nx/sf A, B, C, D, E sf]7fx¿dWo] Pp6f
pko'Qm sf]7f /f]Hg'xf];\ .
gd'gf k|Zg !!
?
1 2 3 4

24
A B C D E
-r_ tn plNnlvt k|To]s k|Zgsf] klxnf] nx/df /x]sf] gfd gePsf Ps hf]8L lrqx¿ s'g} g s'g} ¿kn] ps csf{;“u ;DalGwt 5g\ eg] bf];|f] nx/df A,
B, C, D, E gfd c+lst kf“r hf]8L lrqx¿ /x]sf 5g\ . oL kf“rdWo] klxnf] nx/sf] hf]8L lrq h:t} ;DaGw /xg] Ps hf]8L lrq /f]Hg'xf];\ .
gd'gf k|Zg !@
A B C D E
gd'gf k|Zg !#
A B C D E
-5_ tnsf k|To]s k|Zgsf] klxnf] nx/df I, II, III, IV c+lst Pp6f sf]6f 5 eg] bf];|f] nx/df I / IV c+lst hf]8L lrqx¿ /x]sf A, B, C, D, E eGg]
kf“r sf]7fx¿ 5g\ . bf];|f] nx/dWo] o:tf] sf]7f /f]Hg'xf];\ h;n] klxnf] nx/sf] k|Zgjfrs lrGx -<_ nfO{ lj:yflkt ug{ ;sf];\ . ;f] ubf{ lrq III
lrq IV ;“u h;/L ;DalGwt x'G5 To;/L g} lrq I lrq II ;“u ;DalGwt x'g'k5{ .
gd'gf k|Zg !$
•
? •
•
•
•
•
•
• ?
(I) (II) (III) (IV)
(I) (IV) (I) (IV) (I) (IV) (I) (IV) (I) (IV)
A B C D E
gd'gf k|Zg !%
? •
•
•
•
•
•
•
• ?
(I) (II) (III) (IV)
(I) (IV) (I) (IV) (I) (IV) (I) (IV) (I) (IV)
A B C D E
-h_ tn lbOPsf k|To]s k|Zgsf] klxnf] nx/df 1, 2, 3, 4 g+= sf rf/ ;lrq sf]7fx¿ 5g\ eg] bf];|f] nx/df A, B, C, D gfdsf] ;lrq sf]7fx¿ 5g\ . 1
/ 2 g+= sf sf]7fx¿ s'g} g s'g} ¿kn] Ps csf]{;“u ;DalGwt 5g\ t/ 3 / 4 lrqx¿ To;/L ;DalGwt 5}gg\ lsgeg] 4 g+= sf]7fsf] lrq ;xL 5}g .
ctM 3 / 4 g+= aLr klg . 1 / 2 g+= h:t} ;DaGw :yfkgf ug{ 4 g+= sf]7fsf] 7fp“df A, B, C, D dWo] pko'Qm sf]7f /f]Hg'xf];\ .
gd'gf k|Zg !^

25
1 2 3 4
A B C D
gd'gf k|Zg !&
1 2 3 4
A B C D
-em_ tn plNnlvt lrqx¿dWo] c¿ lrqx¿;“u gldNg] Pp6f lrq kQf nufpg'xf];\ .
gd'gf k|Zg !*
A B C D E
gd'gf k|Zg !(
A B C D E
-`_ tn plNnlvt k|Zgx¿sf] klxnf] nx/df gfd g+= c+lst gePsf rf/ ;lrq sf]7fx¿ 5g\ . oL rf/j6} lrqx¿sf s]xL ;dfg ljz]iftf 5g\ . o:t}
ljz]iftf ePsf] Pp6f lrq bf];|f] nx/af6 /f]Hg'xf];\ .
gd'gf k|Zg @)
•
• •
•
• •
• •
A B C D E
gd'gf k|Zg @!
A B C D E

26
-6_ tn plNnlvt k|Zgx¿sf] klxnf] nx/sf b'O{ lrqx¿df s]xL ;dfg ljz]iftfx¿ 5g\ . bf];|f] nx/sf] A, B, C, D, E dWo] o:t} ljz]iftf ePsf] lrq
5fGg'xf];\ .
gd'gf k|Zg @@
A B C D E
gd'gf k|Zg @#
A B C D E
-7_ tn plNnlvt k|To]s k|Zgdf lrq (x) sf] cfs[lt A, B, C, D dWo] s'g} Ps lrqdf vf“lbPsf] 5, ;f] lrq 7Dofpg'xf];\ .
gd'gf k|Zg @$
(x) A B C D
gd'gf k|Zg @%
(x) A B C D
gd'gf k|Zg @^
(x) A B C D
-8_ A, B, C, D sf]7fdWo] Pp6f o:tf] sf]7f /f]Hg'xf];\, h;n] lrq (x) sf] vfnL 7fp“nfO{ eg{ ;sf];\ .

27
gd'gf k|Zg @&
?
(x) A B C D
gd'gf k|Zg @*
?
(x) A B C D
-9_ tn lbOPsf] k|Zgdf tLg nx/ / tLgj6} nx/df tLg÷tLgj6f sf]7fx¿ u/L hDdf ( ;lrq sf]7fx¿ qmda4 ¿kdf /x]sf 5g\ . A, B, C, D dWo]
dflyNnf] lrqsf] vfnL sf]7f -< ePsf]_ sf] qmd k"/f ug{ ;Sg] ljsNk /f]Hg'xf];\ .
gd'gf k|Zg @( gd'gf k|Zg #)
?
?
A B C D A B C D
-0f_ tnsf] lrq (x) df Ps jf PseGbf a9L yf]Knfx¿ (Dots) /flvPsf 5g\ . yf]Knf /x]sf] :yfg (Position) /fd|/L x]g'{xf];\ / lrqx¿ A, B, C, D
dWo] p:t} :yfg (Same Position) df yf]Knfx¿ /xg ;Sg] lrq 5fGg'xf];\ .
gd'gf k|Zg #!
(x) A B C D
gd'gf k|Zg #@
(x) A B C D

28
gd'gf k|Zg ##
(x) A B C D
-t_
gd'gf k|Zg #$
tnsf] lrqdf slt j6f ;Lwf /]vfx¿ (Straight lines) 5g\ <
A 11 B 14
C 16 D 17
gd'gf k|Zg #%
lgDg lrqdf lqe'hx¿sf] s'n ;+Vof kQf nufpg'xf];\ .
A 8 B 10
C 12 D 14
-y_ tn lbPsf k|Zgx¿df bf]xf]/f] sf]7fx¿ qmda4 ¿kdf /x]sf 5g\ . vfnL -< ePsf]_ sf]7fx¿sf] 7fp“df A-E dWo] pko'Qm pQ/ 5fGg'xf];\ .
gd'gf k|Zg #^
?
?
A B C D E
gd'gf k|Zg #&

?
A B C D E

29
gd'gf k|Zg #*
?
A B C D E
Abstract Reasoning Test k|Zgx¿sf] ;xL pQ/ -JofVof;lxt_ M
-s_
!=(B) sfnf] / ;]tf] tf/f Ps kl5 csf]{ qmdn] cfO/x]sf] 5g\ . klxn]f nx/sf] clGtd lrq sfnf] tf/fsf] xf], t/M To;kl5 ;]tf] tf/ cfpg] 5 .
@=(B) tL/sf] lgzfg k|To]s lrqdf qmd}n] Ps kfOnf 38Lsf] ;'O{ 3'Dg] lbzfdf (Clock Wise Direction), 5f]6s/Ldf (CW) ;l//x]sf] 5 .
#=(C) k|To]s lrqdfy yf]Knf Ps kfOnf () l8u|L (CW) 3'ld/x]sf] 5 eg] tL/sf] lgzfg () l8u|L 38Lsf] ;'O{ 3'Dg] ljk/Lt lbzfdf (Anti Clock Wise
Direction) 5f]6s/Ldf (ACW) 3'ld/x]sf] 5 .
-v_
$=(C) Pp6f s]f7fsf] leqL ;fgf] lrq k|To]s k6s To;kl5 cfpg] sf]7fsf] aflx/L 7"nf] lrqdf km]l/G5 / o;leq To;kl5sf] sf]7fsf] aflx/L 7"nf] lrq ;fgf]
lrqsf] ¿kdf cfp“5 .
%=(C) sf]7} lkR5] lrqx¿ Ps Ps u/L x/fO/x]sf 5g\ .
-u_
^=(C) Pp6f sf7df j[Qsf] sfnf] efusf] Ps 5]pdf tL/sf] lgzfg 5 eg] ;f] efu nuQ} csf]{ sf]7fdf sfn]f x'g k'U5 / tL/sf] lgzfg To; sfnf] efusf]
csf]{ 5]pdf ;b}{ hfG5 / oxL qmd rln/xG5 .
&=(C) sf]7} lkR5] j[Qsf] Ps Ps efu x/fp“b} hfG5 . C / D lrqx¿sf] 7fp“ cbnL abnL ePdf qmd k"/f x'G5 .
*=(E) Pp6f s]f7fsf] leqL ;fgf] lrq k|To]s k6s To;kl5 cfpg] sf]7fsf] aflx/L 7"nf] lrqdf km]l/G5 / o;leq To;kl5sf] sf]7fsf] aflx/L 7"nf] lrq ;fgf]
lrqsf ¿kdf cfp“5 . qmd k"/f 5 To;}n] lrqx¿ cbnL abnL ug'{ kb}{g .
-3_
(=(C) Ps Ps u/L tL/sf] lgzfg bfof“ / afof“ efudf ylk/x]sf 5g\ . t/ lrq C df bfof“lt/ ylkg'kg]{ tL/ afof“lt/ ylkg k'us ] f] 5 .
!)=(B) j[Q k|To]s k6s Ps kfOnf ACW 3'D5 eg] -±_ lrGx dfly tn . o; qmdn] lrq B df j[Q / -±_ lrGx rt'e{h ' sf] tNnf] efudf ;“u;“u}
a:g'kg]{ x'G5 .
-ª_
!!=(E) ! g+= sf]7fsf] lrqsf] bfof“ cfwf efu x/fP/ af“sL afof“ efu sfnf] ag]sf] 5 @ g+= sf]7fdf . sf]7f # / $ aLr o:t} ;DaGw :yfkgf ug{ sf]7f $ sf]
7fp“df sf]7f E k|lt:yfkg ug'{k5{ .
-r_
!@=(E) klxnf] nx/sf] hf]8L lrqdWo] klxnf] lrqsf] bfof“ cfwf efu x/fP/ af“sL /x]sf] afof“ efu plN6G5 / o;/L aG5 bf];|f] lrq . o:tf] ;DaGw sf]7f E
sf] hf]8L lrqdf dfq /x]sf] 5 .
!#=(E) klxnf] nx/sf] hf]8L lrqdWo] klxnf] lrqdf tL/sf] ;+Vof / bf];f| ] lrqdf /]vfsf] ;+Vof a/fa/ /x]sf] 5 .
-5_
!$=(B) sf]7f B sf] lrq (I) nfO{ klxnf] nx/sf] (I) :yfkgfdf / lrq (IV) nfO{ (IV) :yfgdf /fVbf lrqx¿ (I) & (II) / (III) & (IV)
aLr ;DaGw :yflkt x'G5 . lrq (I) () l8u|Ldf ACW 3'd]kl5 lrq (II) aG5 . o;}u/L lrq (III) () l8u|Ldf ACW 3'd]kl5 lrq (IV) aGg
hfG5 .
!%=(A) sf]7f A sf] (I) / (IV) nfO{ qmdzM klxnf] nx/sf] (I) / (IV) df /fVbf s] ;DaGw :yfkgf x'G5 eg] (II) / (IV) qmdzM (I) / (III) sf pN6f / ;fgf
cfs[lt x'g\ .
-h_
!^=(C) lrq ! af6 b'O{ lqe'h x/fP/ lrq @ ag]sf] 5 o;} ;DaGwsf] cfwf/df lrq # af6 b'O{ lqe'h x/fPkl5 lrq C aGg hfG5 .
!&=(D) lrq ! df tL/sf] ;+Vof / lrq @ df /]vfsf] ;+Vof a/fa/ 5 .
-em_
!*=(D) lrq D afx]s ;a} lrqx¿ a/fa/ efudf af“l8Psf 5g\ .
!(=(B) sf]7f B afx]s ;a} sf]7fdf aflx/L lrqeGbf leqL lrqdf Pp6f /]vf (Sides) a9L /x]sf] 5 .

30
-`_
@)=(E) klxnf] nx/sf h'g;'s} lrqnfO{ 3'dfp“bf cGo lrqx¿ h:tf] aGg hfG5 . o:tf] ljz]iftf ePsf] lrq E dfq xf] .
@!=(D) s'g} klg b'O{ tL/x¿ Pp6} lbzfdf kms]{sf 5}gg\ .
-6_
@@=(C) klxnf] nx/sf b'j} lrqx¿ $ /]vfx¿ (Sides) ldn]/ ag]sf 5g\ .
@#=(E) klxnf] nx/sf b'j} lrqx¿ ^ a/fa/ efudf af“l8Psf 5g\, h;dWo] b'O{ efu sfnf] /+usf] 5 .
-7_
@$=(B) @%=(C) @^=(D)
-8_
@&=(D) @*=(D)
-9_
@(=(C) j[Q kl5 lqe'h / lqe'h kl5 ju{ qmdzM cfO/x]sf] 5 .
#)=(C) klxnf] nx/ / t];|f] nx/sf] klxnf / t];|f sf]7fx¿ x]bf{ klxnf] sf]7fsf] bfof“ efusf] lqe'h / afof“ efusf] lqe'h qmdzM afof“ / bfof“ 3'd/] Ps
csf{;“u 6f“l;P/ t];|f] sf]7fsf] lrq ag]sf] 5 .
-0f_
#!=(A) lrq (x) df Pp6f yf]Knf j[Q / lqe'hsf] ;femf :yfgdf /flvPsf] 5 eg] cs]{ yf]Knf] lqe'h / ju{sf] ;femf 7fp“df /flvPsf] 5 . lrq A df dfq
o:tf] cj:yf /x]sf] 5 .
#@=(C) lrq (x) df yf]Knf j[Q / lqe'hsf] ;femf :yfgdf /x]sf] 5 .
##=(C) lrq (x) df yf]Knf j[Q / lqe'hsf] ;femf :yfgdf /x]sf] 5 .
-t_
#$=(B) lbOPsf] lrqnfO{ gfdf+sg u/L ;Lwf /]vfx¿ o;/L u0fgf ul/G5M
# j6f t];f| ] /]vf AE, LF / KG x'g\
% j6f 7f8f] /]vf AK, BJ, CI, DH / EG x'g\
^ j6f cGo /]vfx¿ LC, KE, IF, LI, AG / CF x'g\
o;/L #±%±^≠!$ ;Lwf /]vfx¿ x'g\ .
A B C D E
M N
L F
P Q
O
R S
K J I H G
#%=(C) o; lrqnfO{ gfdf+sg u/L lqe'hx¿ o;/L u0fgf ul/G5M
ABH, BHO, BCD, BOD, DEF, DFO, FGH / FHO ;lhn} uGg ;lsg] * lqe'hx¿ x'g\ .
b'O{ lqe'hx¿ ldn]/ ag]sf $ lqe'hx¿ x'g\M
HDB, BDF, DFH / FHB
ctM lqe'hsf] ;+Vof *±$≠ !@

31
A B C
H D
O
G F E
-y_
#^=(C) klxnf] nx/sf] dflyNnf] x/kmdf sfnf] j[Qkl5 sfnf] lqe'h / To;kl5 ;]tf] rt'e'{hsf] qmd rln/x]sf] 5 eg] tNnf] x/kmdf sfnf] lqe'h , sfnf] j[Q
/ sfnf] rt'e{'hsf] .
#&=(C) klxnf] nx/sf] dflyNnf] x/kmsf] klxnf] sf]7fdf sfn sfnf]f] j[Q / ;]tf] j[Q 6f“l;P/ t];f]{ a;]sf] 5 eg] bf];f| ] sf]7fdf 7f8f] ePsf] b]lvG5 . t];|f] sf]7fdf
Pp6f sfnf] j[Q ylkg uO{ t];f| ] / rf}yf]df 7f8f] /x]sf] 5 . o;/L k|To]s b'O{ sf]7fkl5 sfnf] / ;]tf] j[Q Pskl5 csf]{ u/L Ps Psj6f ylk“b} hfG5 eg]
k|To]s sf]7fdf t];|f] / 7f8f] qmd rln/xG5 . tNnf] x/kmdf eg] j[Qsf] ;+Vofdf x]/km]/ x'“b}g, dfq () l8u|L Clock Wise 3'ld/xG5 .
#*=(D) klxnf] nx/sf] dfly / tn k|To]s b'O{ b'O{ sf]7fdf a/fa/ ;+Vofdf lrqx¿ 5g 5g\ .
Series
tn pNn]lvt k|Zgx¿sf] klxnf] nx/df A, B, C, D / E gfdsf % j6f lrq sf]0fx¿ qmda4 ¿kdf /x]sf 5g\ . To:t} bf];f] nx/df 1, 2, 3, 4 / 5
g+= sf ;lrq sf]0fx¿ /x]sf 5g\ . klxnf] nx/df ePsf lrqx¿sf] qmdsf] lgod klxNofpg'xf]; \ / klxnf] nx/sf A, B, C, D / E lrq kl5sf]
qmddf cfpg] csf]{ lrq s'g x'g ;S5 To;sf nflu bf]; |f] nx/sf kf“r sf]7fx¿ 1, 2, 3, 4 / 5 dWo] 5gf]6 u/L dflyNnf] nx/df E kl5 yk ug{ ;Sg]
lrq /f]Hg'xf];\ .
1.
A B C D E 1 2 3 4 5
2.
A B C D E 1 2 3 4 5
3.
A B C D E 1 2 3 4
5
4.
A B C D E 1 2 3 4 5
5.
A B C D E 1 2 3 4 5
6.
A B C D E 1 2 3 4 5
7.
A B C D E 1 2 3 4 5
8.
A B C D E 1 2 3 4 5
9.
Chaitanya Institute of Management, New Baneshwor, Shankh

Shankhamul, Contact: 01-4782427,
4782427, 9851146100
32
A B C D E 1 2 3 4 5
10.
A B C D E 1 2 3 4 5
11.
A B C D E 1 2 3 4 5
12.
A B C D E 1 2 3 4 5
13.
A B C D E 1 2 3 4
5
14.
A B C D E 1 2 3 4 5
15.
A B C D E 1 2 3 4
5
16.
A B C D E 1 2 3 4 5
17.
A B C D E 1 2 3 4 5
18.
A B C D E 1 2 3 4 5
19.
A B C D E 1 2 3 4 5
20.
A B C D E 1 2 3 4 5

1. (1) lrqdf k|To]s qmddf 90 sf] 38Lsf] ;'O{sf] lbzfdf 3'd]sf] 5 ;fy} Pskl5 csf]{df cfwf / k"/f /]vfv08 ylk“b} uPsf] 5 . o;y{ casf] ldNg] lrq
0
1 sf] xf] .
2. (4) lrqdf ;fgf] af0f lrx\g Pp6fdf 900 sf] 38Lsf] ;'O{sf] ljk/Lt lbzfdf / csf]{k6s 450 sf] 38Lsf] ;'O{sf] ljk/Lt lbzfdf qmdzM 3'Db5 . ha
nfdf] af0f lrx\g k|To]s r/0fdf 1350 sf] 38Lsf] ;'O{sf] lbzfdf 3'Dg] qmddf /x]sfn] ca cfpg] qmd pQ/ 4 sf] xf] .

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3. (4) k|To]s r/0fdf j[Q ju{sf] lsgf/fdf 38Lsf] ;'O{ ljk/Lt lbzfdf cf;Gg s'gfdf / csf]{ cfs[lt 38Lsf] ;'O{sf] lbzfdf cf;Gg cf s'gfdf 3'Dg] qmddf
/x]sfn] ca ldNg] pQ/ 4 sf] xf] .
4. (5) lrqdf :ki6 ¿kdf k|To]s r/0fdf 1 gofF cfs[lt -lrq_ lrq_ 38Lsf] ;'O{sf] lbzfdf 3'Dg] qmddf /xL ;f] cfs[lt cGTodf /xg] ePsfn] ca cfpFbf] qmd
bf];|f] lrqsf] 5 xf] .
5. (1) Pp6f j[Q gofF ;+s]tåf/f k|To]s r/0fdf lj:yflkt ePsf] 5 / of] lj:yfkg Pskl5 csf]{ ub}{ cGTodf 5, lrqn] k|To]s r/0fdf 38Lsf] ;'O{sf]
ljk/Lt lbzfdf 450 df 3'd]sf] 5 . o; qmdn] ldNg] lrq 1 sf] xf] .
6. (3) k|To]s r/0fdf lkg 38Lsf] ;'O{sf] lbzfdf 900 df kl/qmd0f u5{ / af0f lrx\g 38Lsf] ;'O{sf] ljk/Lt lbzfdf 900 df 3'D5 . o; qmdn] ldNg] pQ/
lrq 3 sf] xf] .
7. (1) ;+s]t Pskl5 csf]{ ub}{ Vertically inverted / Latterally inverted x'G5g\ . oL 38Lsf] ;'O{sf] ljk/Lt lbzfdf ju{sf] lsgf/fdf klxn] cfwf /
To;kl5 tLg efusf] Ps efudf pskl5 csf]{ ub}{ ;b} { hfg] ePsfn] o; qmddf ldNg] lrq 1 xf] .
8. (1) b'O{ / rf/ 'V' cfsf/sf] lrq Pskl5 csf]{ ub}{ Inverted -kmls{Psf_ 5g\ . o;}n] 1 sf] pQ/ ldN5 .
9. (3) k|To]s r/0fdf Pp6f x/fpF5 hals csf]{ yf]Knf]rflx“ X åf/f k|lt:yfkg x'G5 . o;y{ 3 sf] pQ/ ldN5 .
10. (1) b'O{ / tLg cfwf kftx¿ lrqdf Pskl5 csf]{ ub}{ hf]l8Psf 5g 5g\ . cfwf kftsf] hf]8fO{ 38Lsf] ;'O{sf] ljk/Lt lbzftkm{ ePsf] 5 . o;/L ca cfpg]
lrq 1 sf] xf] .
11. (3) b'O{ tŒjx¿ ;Fu} b'O{ vfnL 7fpFdf rN5g\ . k|To]s :k]z ju{sf] cfwf lsgf/fdf / tLg vfnL 38L ;'O{sf] lj ljk/Lt
k/Lt lbzfdf qmdzM rN5g\
rN5g . k|To]s
r/0fdf b'O{ tŒjx¿sf] :yfg cGt/ kl/jt{g eO{ 38L ;'O{sf] lbzfdf 90 df kl/qmd0f u5{ / cfp“bf] r/0fdf b'O{ tŒjx¿ cGt/ kl/jt{g eO{ ;Fu} 1800
0
df kl/qmddf ug]{ x'gfn] ca ldNg] pQ/ 3 sf] xf] .

12. (5) af0f lrx\gx¿ 1, 2, 3, 4 ======= ub}{ 38L ;'O{sf] ljk/Lt lbzfdf (Sequentially) cg'qmlds tj/n] 3'D5 . af0fsf] 6fpsf] cg'qmdsf ¿kdf j[Q
rfk lqe'h j[Q ====== ====== x'Fb} 3'Dg] x'gfn] casf] qmd 5 xf] .
13. (5) kfFrj6f /]vfv08x¿ k|To]s r/0fdf hf]l8P/ k"0f{ ju{ 38Lsf] ;'O{sf] ljk/Lt lbzf agfpF b}b} hfgfn] casf] ldNg] lrq 5 xf] .
14. (1) Ps, b'O{ / tLg, Ps, b'O{ / tLg ======= rfkx¿ cg'sd{n] kms{G5g 5g\ . Tof] kmsf{O 38Lsf] ;'O{sf] ljk/Lt lbzfdf x'g] ePsfn] ca ldNg] pQ/ lrq 1 sf]
xf] .
15. (5) ;fgf] /]vfv08 d'Vo lrq;“u 6fl;“b} 2, 1, 3, 1, 4 ======= vfnLL 7fpFdf 38Lsf] lbzfdf 3'Dg] ePsfn] ca ldNg] lrq 5 sf] xf] .
16. (1) Ps r/0fdf Pp6f cfwf kft cGTodf x/fpF5 h'g 38Lsf] ;'O{sf] lbzfdf 5 ;fy} tLg cfwf kftx¿ 38Lsf] ;'O{sf] ljk/Lt lbzfdf ylkG5g\ ylkG5g . km]l/
csf]{ r/0fdf Pp6f cfwf kft 38Lsf] ;'O{sf] lbzfsf] cGTod cGTodff x/fp“5 / b'O{ cfwf kftx¿ 38Lsf] ;'O{sf] ljk/Lt lbzfsf] cGTodf ylkG5 . o;} qmdn]
ldNg] pQ/ 1 xf] .
17. (1) k|To]s r/0fdf 2 j:t' yk hf]l8Psf] 5, hf]l8“bf b'O{ /]vf, b'O{ rfk jf Ps /]vf / Ps rfk x'G5 . To;}n] ca ldNg] pQ/ 1 sf] xf] .
18. (3) lkg Pskl5 csf]{ ub}{ 38Lsf] ;'O{sf] lbzfdf qmdzM 450 / 900 df kl/qmd0f u5{ / Ps 7fpFdf / b'O{ 7fpFdf Pskl5 csf]{ ub}{ rN5, To;/L g}
af0frflx“ 38Lsf] ;'O{sf] ljk/Lt lbzfdf Pskl5 csf]{ ub}{ qmdzM 900 / 450 sf] lbzfdf kl/qmd0f u5{ ;fy} b'O{ 7fpF / Ps 7fpFdf ;5{ .
o;y{ o;;“u ldNg] pQ/ 3 sf] xf] .
19. (3) p:t} cfs[lt rf/ r/0fkl5 b]vf k5{ k|To]s -k6s_ k6s_ b]vfkbf{ 38Lsf] ;'O{sf] ljk/Lt lbzfdf 900 df kl/qmd0f u5{ . o;/L ca cfpg] lrq 3 sf] xf] .
20. (2) k|To]s r/0fdf Pp6f tŒj (Elements) ;dtnLo ¿kdf kms{G5 . o;f] ubf{ ca cfpg] lrq 2 sf] xf] .
Choosing the Missing Figure in a Series

tn pNn]lvt k|Zgx¿sf] klxnf] nx/df A, B, C / D gfdsf ;lrq sf]7fx¿ qmda4 ¿kdf /x]sf 5g\ . t/ qmd k"/f 5}g lsgeg] aLrsf] sf]7f -
<_ ePsf] vfnL 5 . qmdsf] lgod klxNofpg'xf];\ / bf];f| ] nx/sf aLr sf]7fx¿ (1, 2, 3, 4, 5) dWo] dflysf] nx/ k"/f ug{ ;Sg] sf]7f /f]Hg'xf];\ .
1.
A B C D 1 2 3 4 5
2.
A B C D 1 2 3 4 5
3.
A B C D 1 2 3 4 5

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4.
A B C D E 1 2 3 4
5
5.
A B C D 1 2 3 4 5
6.
A B C D 1 2 3 4 5
7.
A B C D 1 2 3 4 5
8.
A B C D 1 2 3 4 5
9.
A B C D 1 2 3 4
5
10.
A B C D 1 2 3 4 5
11.
A B C D 1 2 3 4 5
12.
A B C D 1 2 3 4 5
13.
A B C D 1 2 3 4 5
14.
A B C D 1 2 3 4 5
15.
A B C D 1 2 3 4 5
16.
A B C D 1 2 3 4 5
17.
A B C D 1 2 3 4 5
18.

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A B C D 1 2 3 4 5
19.
A B C D 1 2 3 4 5
20.
A B C D 1 2 3 4 5
1. :ki6 ¿kdf b'O{ cfotx¿ k|To]s lrqdf ylkb} uPsf l;9Lsf ¿kdf o;y{ C df 5 cfot x'g} k5{ -o;
o; lrq;“u ldNg] lrq 2 xf]_ . o;y{ sf]7fdf
pko'{Qm lrq 2 xf] .
2. 3, 4, 5 ============ /]vfv08x¿ cg'qmdsf ¿kdf tnlt/ ylkPsf] 5 . o;y{ C df 9 j6f /]vfv08 x'g'k5{ . sf]7fdf pko'{Qm x'g] lrq 1 xf] .
3. k|To]s r/0fdf gofF Pp6f ju{dfly afofF s'gfdf ylkPsf] 5 / /x]sf ;+s]tx¿ lrqsf cg'qmddf ;5{g\ . o;y{ sf]7fdf pko'{Qm x'g] lrq 1
xf] .
4. lrq k|To]sk6s ljk/Lt kmls{Psf] 5 . gofF ;+st] x¿ bfofFtkm{ / afofFtkm{ Pskl5 csf]{ ub}{ ylkPsf] 5 . o;y{ pQ/ 5 xf] .
5. k|To]s r/0fdf lrq 38Lsf] ;'O{sf] lbzfdf 900 df (CW) cf;Gg efudf ju{sf] lsgf/fdf kl/qmd0f eO{ 3'D5 / gofF 7"nf] cw{j[Q aflx/L cw{j[Qx¿df
ylk“b} cfpF5 . o;y{ vfnL 7fpFdf ldNg] pQ/ 5 xf] .
6. klxnf] r/0fdf af0fn] tnlt/ ;+s]t u5{ / lkgn] dflylt/ ;+ut u5{ ;fy} /x]sf ;+s]tx¿ bfofFtkm{ ylkG5g
ylkG5g\ . csf]{ r/0fdf lkgn] tnlt/ / af0fn]
dflylt/ ;+s]t ub}{ bfofFtkm{ b'j} ;+s]t ylkG5g\ . o;y{ vfnL 7fpFdf ldNg] pQ/ 1 xf] .
7. k|To]s r/0fdf /]vfv08sf hf]8fx¿ 38Lsf] ;'O{sf] lbzfdf 900 (CW) df 3'Db} ;fy} cf;Gg s'gfdf ju{sf] lsgf/fdf ;5{g\ h'g 38Ls} lbzfdf
x'G5 . ;+s]tx¿ cf;Gg s'gfdf CW df ;b}{ gofF csf]{åf/f lj:yfkg x'G5 .
-o;y{ sf]7f C df pko'{Qm x'g] lrq 4 xf]_
8. /]vf ;+Vof / yf]Knfx¿ Pskl5 csf]{ ub}{ 36\55g\g . o;y{ sf]7fdf pko'{Qm x'g] lrq 2 xf] .
9. b'O{j6f 7f8f] /]vfv08x¿ klxnf] r/0fdf / b'O{j6f ;Lwf ;dtnLo /]vfv08x¿ bf];|f] r/0fdf ylkG ylkG5 . o;y{ sf]7fdf pko'{Qm x'g] lrq 1 xf] .
10. k|To]s r/0fdf yf]Knf ;+Vof lrqsf] dfly @ j6fsf b/n] ylkG5 / lrqsf] tn yf]Knf] k|To]s r/0fdf Psj6fsf b/n] 36\ 36 5 . o;y{ sf]7fdf pko'{Qm
x'g] lrq 5 xf] .
11. k|To]s r/0fdf 38Lsf] ;'O{sf] ljk/Lt lbzfdf 900 df lrq 3'D5 / b'j} af0f ltgLx¿sf] lbzfljk/Lt x'G5 . o;y{ sf]7fdf pko'{Qm x'g] lrq 5 xf] .
12. Pp6f r/0fdf ;a} ;+s]tx¿ 7f8f] ¿kdf ljk/Lt kmls{Psf 5g 5g\ . af0fn] dflylt/ b]vfpF5 / Pp6f lkgn] tnlt/ b]vfpF5 / bfofFtkm{ b'j} ;+s]tx¿
ylkG5g\ . csf]{ r/0fdf ;a} ;+s]tx¿ ljk/Lt Lt kmls{P/ af0fn] tnlt/ / lkgn] dflylt/ b]vfpF5 / bfofFtkm{ b'j} ;+s]tx¿ ylkG5g\
ylkG5g . o;}n] sf]7fdf
pko'{Qm x'g] lrq 3 xf] .
13. lrqdf k|To]s r/0fdf /x]sf 5fof k/]sf] efu 38Lsf] ;'O{sf] ljk/Lt lbzfdf (ACW) cf;Gg ju{lt/ ;5{ / ju{ h'g dfly afofFtkm{ /xG5, k"/} 5fof
k/]sf] x'G5 . o;}n] sf]7fdf pko'{Qm x'g] lrq 2 xf] .
14. k|To]s r/0fdf k~re'h h'g dfly afofF s'gfdf /x]sf] 5, 38Lsf] ;'O{sf] ljk/Lt lbzfdf 900 (ACW) 3'D5 . k~re'htkm{sf] efu x/fpF5 / tn bfofF
s'gfdf /x]sf] /]vfv08 Pp6f ylkG5 . o;y{ pko'{Qm x'g] lrq 3 xf] .
15. k|To]s r/0fdf k|To]s af0fx¿ 38Lsf] ;'O{sf] lbzfdf 900 (CW) df 3'D5 . o;y{ pko'{Qm x'g] lrq 3 xf] .
16. k|To]s r/0fdf /x]sf k|To]s ;+s]t 38Lsf] ;'O{sf] lbzfdf cf;Gg s'gfdf ju{sf] lsgf/fdf rN5 ;fy} Pp6f r/0fdf ;+s]t h'g dfly bfofF s'gfdf
gofF ;+s]ttåf/f
åf/f lj:yfkg x'G5 / csf]{ r/0fdf h'g ;+s]t dfly afofF s'gfdf /xG5 gofF ;+s]tåf/f lj:yfkg x'G5 . o;}n] pko'{Qm x'g] lrq 5 xf] .
17. k|To]s r/0fdf aflx/L 7"nf] cfs[lt x/fpF5 ;fy} leqL cfs[lt 7"nf] x'G5 / aflx/L cfs[lt aGb5 / ;fgf] cfs[lt leqL cfs[lt eP/ cfpF cf 5 .
o;y{ pko'{Qm x'g] lrq 2 xf] .
18. k|To]s r/0fdf /x]sf ;a} ;+s]tx¿ -cfs[ cfs[lt_ lrqsf] cg'qmddf ;5{g\ / gofF ;+s]t dfly afofF s'gfdf 3]l/Psf] :yfgdf b]vfk5{ .
19. k|To]s r/0fdf dfly bfofFtkm{sf] ju{ 38Lsf] ;'O{sf] ljk/Lt lblbzfdf 900 (ACW) df 3'D5 / afFsL c¿ tLg ju{ 38Lsf] ;'O{sf] lbzfdf 900 (CW) df
3'D5 . o;y{ pko'{Qm x'g] lrq 3 xf] .
20. k|To]sk6s sfnf] 5fof k/]sf] efu Ps 7fpF 5f8]/ 38Lsf] ;'O{sf] ljk/Lt lbzfdf / jqm/]vfsf] 5fof b'O{ 7fpF 5f8]/ 38Lsf] ;'O{sf] lbzfdf
l 3'D5 .
Detecting One Element of Each of the Two Related Pairs
tnsf k|To]s k|Zgsf] klxnf] nx/df I, II, III, IV c+lst Pp6f sf]7f 5 eg] bf];|f] nx/df I / IV c+lst hf]8L lrqx¿ A, B, C, D, E eGg] kf“r
sf]7fx¿ 5g\ . bf];|f] nx/dWo] o:tf] sf]7] f /f]Hg'xf];\ h;n] klxnf] nx/sf] k|Zgjfrs -<_
<_ lrGxnfO{ lj:yflkt ug{ ;sf];\ . ;f] ubf{ lrq III lrq
IV ;“u h;/L ;DalGwt x'G5 To;/L g} lrq I lrq II ;“u ;DalGwt x'g'k5{ .

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1.
A B C D E
2.
A B C D E
3.
A B C D E
4.
A B C D E
5.
A B C D E
6.
A B C D E

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7.
A B C D E
8.
A B C D E
9.
A B C D E
10.
A B C D E
Answer
1. C 2. A 3. C 4. B 5. C 6. E 7. E 8. E 9. C 10. E
Classification
tn pNn]lvt k|To]s k|Zgsf] klxnf] nx/df /x]sf] gfd gePsf Ps hf]8L lrqx¿ (I, II) s'g} ¿kn]
n] Ps csf{;u“ ;DalGwt 5g\
5g eg] bf];|f] nx/df 1,
2, 3, 4 / 5 gDa/ c+lst kf“r hf]8L lrqx¿ (I, II) /x]sf 5g\ . oL kf“r hf]8LdWo] klxnf] nx/sf] hf]8L lrq h:t} ;DaGw /xg] Ps hf]8L lrq
/f]Hg'xf];\ .
1.
1 2 3 4 5
2.
1 2 3 4 5
3.
1 2 3 4 5
4.

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1 2 3 4 5
5.
1 2 3 4 5
6.
1 2 3 4 5
7.
1 2 3 4 5
8.
1 2 3 4 5
9.
1 2 3 4 5
10.
1 2 3 4 5
11.
1 2 3 4 5
12.
1 2 3 4 5
13.
1 2 3 4 5
14.
1 2 3 4 5
15.
1 2 3 4 5
16.
1 2 3 4 5
17.
1 2 3 4 5
18.
1 2 3 4 5

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19.
1 2 3 4 5
20.
1 2 3 4 5
1. lrqdf 1 sf /]vf / B sf] e'hf a/fa/ 5 oxL ;DaGw lrq 5 sf] I / II df x'G5 .
2. gfd glbOPsf] lrqsf hf]8f lrq I sf] ljk/Lt kmsf{Odf lrq II 5 oxL ;DaGw lrq 2 df I / II df x'G5 .
3. gfd glbOPsf] lrqsf] hf]8fdf lrq I af6 lrq II 38Lsf] ;'O{sf] lbzfdf 450 (CW) df kl/qmd0f u/]/ ag]sf] 5 . oxL ;DaGw lrq 4 sf] I / II df
x'G5 .
4. gfd glbOPsf] lrqsf] hf]8fdf lrq I af6 lrq II 1800 df kl/qmd0f u/]/ ag]sf] 5 . oxL ;DaGw lrq 4 sf] I / II df x'G5 .
5. gfd glbOPsf] lrqsf] hf]8fdf lrq I af6 lrq II 7f8f] kmls{Psf ¿kdf ag]sf] 5 oxL ;DaGw lrq 2 sf] I / II df x'G5 .
6. gfd glbOPsf] lrqsf] hf]8fdf lrq I af6 lrq II b'O{ ;+s]tx¿ glhs cfO{ hf]l8P/ Pp6f ;+s]t aG5 h'g 7f8f] kmls{Psf] cj:yfaf6 ag]sf] 5 .
oxL ;DaGw lrq 5 sf] I / II df x'G5 .
7. gfd glbOPsf] lrqsf] hf]8fdf lrq I af6 lrq II efux¿ Pp6f ylkP/ ag]sf] 5 oxL ;DaGw lrq 3 sf] I / II df x'G5 .
8. gfd glbOPsf] lrqsf] hf]8fdf lrq I af6 lrq II ;txL ¿kdf kmls{Psf] (Laterlly inverted) oxL ;DaGw lrq 4 sf] I / II df x'G5 .
9. gfd glbOPsf] lrqsf] hf]8fdf lrq I af6 lrq II cfs[lt 7"nf] eO{ lrq 1 sf] h:t} cfs[lt eO{ leqkl§ kmls{P/ ag]sf] 5 oxL ;DaGw lrq 3 sf] I /
II df x'G5 .
10. gfd glbOPsf] lrqsf] hf]8fdf lrq I af6 lrq II cfs[lt 1800 df kl/qmd0f eO{ ag]sf] 5 . oxL ;DaGw lrq 1 xf] .
11. gfd glbOPsf] lrqsf] hf]8fdf lrq I af6 lrq II cfs[lt ;txL ¿kn] ljk/Lt kmls{P/ (Laterally inverted) ag]sf] 5 oxL ;DaGw lrq 2 sf] I /
II df x'G5 .
12. gfd glbOPsf] lrqsf] hf]8fdf lrq I af6 lrq II cfs[lt ;txL ¿kn] ljk/Lt kmls{Psf] (Larterally inverted) eO{ oxL ;DaGw lrq 3 sf] I / II
df x'G5 .
13. gfd glbOPsf] lrqsf] hf]8fdf lrq I af6 lrq II cfs[lt 38Lsf] ;'O{sf] ljk/Lt lbzfdf 900 df 3'd]/ ;fgf] cfs[lt 7"nf] / 7"nf] cfs[lt ;gf]
eO{ ag]sf] 5 oxL ;DaGw lrq 3 sf] I / II df x'G5 .
14. gfd glbOPsf] lrqsf] hf]8fdf lrq I af6 lrq II cfs[lt 38Lsf] ;'O{sf] ljk/Lt lbzfdf 1350 (ACW) kl/qmd0f eO{ ag]sf] 5 oxL ;DaGw lrq 5
sf] I / II df x'G5 .
15. gfd glbOPsf] lrqsf] hf]8fdf lrq I af6 lrq II /x]sf b'O{ p:t} cfs[ltdWo] Pp6f x/fpF5 / csf]{ 38L ;'O{sf]
sf] lbzfdf (900 CW) df 3'd]/ ag]sf] 5 .
oxL ;DaGw lrq 5 sf] I / II df x'G5 .
16. gfd glbOPsf] lrqsf] hf]8fdf lrq I af6 lrq II k|To]s 'V' cfsf/sf ;+st] x¿ k]G6fug -k~re' k~re'h_ glhs cfO{ 1800 df kms{G5 . -kl/qmd0f_
eO{ ag]sf 5g\ . oxL ;DaGw lrq @ sf] I / II df x'G5 .
17. gfd glbOPsf] lrqsf] hf]8fdf lrq I af6 lrq II 7f8f] pN6f] kmls{P/ 7"nf] eO{ ag]sf] 5 oxL ;DaGw lrq 4 sf] I / II df x'G5 .
18. gfd glbOPsf] lrqsf] hf]8fdf lrq I af6 lrq II aflx/L ;+s]t x/fpF5 / leqL ;+s]t 7"nf] eO{ ag]sf] 5 oxL ;DaGw lrq 1 sf] I / II df x'G5 .
19. gfd glbOPsf] lrqsf] hf]8fdf lrq I af6 lrq II dfly–afofF / tn–bfofFsf ;+s]t 38Lsf] ;'O{sf] lbzfdf 1350 (CW) / dfly bfofF / tn afof“df
/x]sf ;+s]t 38Lsf] ;'O{sf] ljk/Lt lbzfdf 1350 df kmls{P/ ag]sf] 5 oxL ;DaGw lrq 2 sf] I / II df x'G5 .
20. gfd glbOPsf] lrqsf] hf]8fdf lrq I af6 lrq II 38Lsf] ;'O{sf] lbzfdf 900 (CW) df kl/qmd0f u/L gofF p:t} cfs[lt agL p;sf] tn b]vfk/L
ag]sf] 5 oxL ;DaGw lrq $ I / II df x'G5 .
Choosing the Odd Figure
o; k|sf/sf ;d:ofdf rf/–kf“kf“r j6f lrqsf] hf]8f -;d"x_ lbOPsf] 5 . oLdWo] Pp6f hf]8fdfq km/s /x]sf] x'G5 . c¿ ;a} Pp6} lgoddf cfwfl/t
x'G5g\ . tn lbOPsf] ;d"xdf gldNg] lrq 5'6\oofpg'
fpg'xf];\ .
1. 2.
a b c d
a b c d e
e
3. 4.
a b c d a b c d
e e

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5. 6.
a b c d a b c d
e
7. 8.
a b c d a b c d
e e
9. 10.
a b c d a b c d
e e
11. 12.
a b c d a b c d
e e
13. 14.
a b c d a b c d
e e
15. 16.
a b c d
a b c d e
e
17. 18.
a b c d e a b c d
e
19. 20.
a b c d a b c d
e e
21. 22.
a b c d e a b c d
e
23. 24.
a b c d a b c d
e e
25.
a b c d
e
1. lrqdf e eGbfafx]s ;a}sf b'O{ ;+s]t Vertically inverted k|ltljDa Ps csf{sf x'g\ . gldNg] lrq e xf] .

4782427, 9851146100
41
2. lrqdf e eGbfafx]s ;a} Ps–csf{df kl/qmd0f ePsf 5g\ . c¿ lrq;“u gldNg] lrq e xf] .
3. lrq c df dfq 8 element dWo] 3 element Pp6} lbzfdf kms]{sf] 5 . o;y{ c¿ lrq;“u gldNg] lrq c xf] .
4. lrq c df dfq hf]/ ;+Vofdf ju{ 5fof k/]sf] 5 . o;y{ c¿ lrq;“u gldNg] lrq c xf] .
5. lrq c eGbfafx]s ;a} lrqdf cfwf ;Lwf ¿kn] 5fof k/]sf 5g\ o;y{ c¿;“u gldNg] lrq c xf] .
6. lrqdf ;a} lrq 900 sf] 38Lsf] ;'O{sf] lbzfdf kl/qmd0f eO{ uPsf 5g\ . pQm qmddf gldNg] lrq e xf] .
7. lrq d eGbfafx]s ;a} lrqdf yfKnf] ljs0f{sf] b'j}tkm{ 5g\ . pQm qmddf gldNg] lrq d xf] .
8. lrq c eGbfafx]s ;a}df af0f lrx\g 900 sf] sf]0f agfO{ qm; ePsf 5g\ . o;y{ pQm qmddf gldNg] lrq d xf] .
9. lrq c df dfq rf/dWo] b'O{ Element Pp6} lbzfdf kms]{sf 5g\ . o;y{ pQm qmddf gldNg] lrq c xf] .
10. lrq c afx]s cGo ;a} lrq Ps–csf{df kl/qmd0f x'G5g\ . o;y{ pQm qmddf gldNg] lrq c xf] .
11. lrq a eGbfafx]s cGo ;a}df tn bfofFsf] rf}yfO{ efu /+ufOPsf] 5 . o;y{ pQm qmddf gldNg] lrq a xf] .
12. lrq d afx]s cGo ;a} lrq a/fa/ efudf afFl8Psf 5g\ . o;y{ pQm qmddf gldNg] lrq d xf] .
13. lrq d dfq Pp6} lbzfdf lqe'hsf] e'hf sfl6Psf] 5 . o;y{ pQm qmddf gldNg] lrq d xf] .
14. lrq c afx]s ;a} lrqsf /]vf ;dfgfGt/ 5g\ . o;y{ pQm qmddf gldNg] lrq c xf] .
15. lrq b afx]s ;a} lrqdf ;fgf] /]vfv08 Ps sf]7f csf]{df 38Lsf] ;'O{sf] lbzfdf yf]Knf]af6 k5{ . o;y{ o; qmddf gldNg] lrq b xf] .
16. lrq a afx]s ;a} :j/j0f{ 5g\ . o;y{ gldNg] lrq a xf] .
17. lrq d afx]s ;a} lrq Pp6} lbzfdf 3'Dg ;S5g\ . o;y{ o; qmddf gldNg] lrq d xf] .
18. lrqdf e eGbfafx]s ;a} Punctuation Marks x'g\ . o;y{ o; qmddf gldNg] lrq e xf] .
19. lrq a afx]s c¿ ;a} lrqdf tnsf] Element dflysf] Element sf] 7f8f] ljk/Lt kmls{{Psf] Element xf] . o;y{ lrqdf gldNg] lrq a xf] .
20. lrq c afx]s ;a} lrqdf kftsf] ;+Vof hf]/ ;+Vof 5g\ . o;y{ lrqdf gldNg] lrq c xf] .
21. lrq b afx]s ;a} lrqdf 5 j6f af0f lrq /x]sf 5g\ . o;y{ lrqdf gldNg] lrq b xf] .
22. lrq d df dfq Pp6} Jof;sf] cGTodf sfnf] lqe'h / sfnf] j[Q /x]sf 5g\ . o;y{ lrqdf gldNg] lrq d xf] .
23. lrq e afx]s ;a} lrqdf 4 j6f rfk bfofF / 4 j6f rfk afofFtkm{ kmls{{P/ /x]sf 5g\ . gldNg] lrq e xf] .
24. lrq b afx]s ;a} lrqdf leqL Elements sf efux¿ aflx/L Elements eGbf Psn] a9L 5g\ . gldNg] lrq b xf] .
25. lrqdf e afx]s ;a} Letter c+u|]hL dlxgfsf] klxnf] cIf/ 5g\ . o;y{ gldNg] lrq e xf] .
Venn Diagram
In these type of questions, a set of five different figures is given as options. Each figure represents a logical pattern of certain
groups of related words wherein each word represents a class. One has to identikit the most appropriate logical figure for
the set of words given. Some of the relationship represented by these diagrams are given blew. Understand the relationship
patterns and then attempt the exercise following the explanation.
1. The given classes have nothing in
Milk Eggs
common.
Example : Milk, Eggs.
2. The given classes have something in Colour Red
common, but neither of them is
completely contained in the other.
Example: Colour, Red
3. Of the two given classes, one is wholly
Fruits
contained in the other, but not vice-versa.
Example: Fruits, Apples Apples
4. Same logic as figure 2.

Example : Tall, Men, Education Tall Men
Edu-
cated
5. Of the there given classes, one is
Liquids
completely contained in the other and not
vice– versa while the third class has Water Solids
nothing in common with either of the
two classes.
Example: Water, Solids, Liquids

42
6. Two classes are wholly contained in the

Nepal
third class, but not vice-versa, also the
two contained classed have nothing in Pokh.
Kath.
common.
Example : Kathmandu, Pokhara, Nepal
7. Two classes are wholly contained in the

third class, but not vice-versa, and the
Females
two contained classes also have
something in common though neither
class is wholly.
Mothers Sisters
Example : Mother, Sisters, Females
8. The first class is contained wholly in the Grammar

other two classes, but not vice- versa. The
second is wholly contained in the third Preposition
and partially in the first. A part of third
class is contained in the which some is From
contained in the first.
Example: Preposition, from, Grammar.
9. First class is wholly contained in the Sweet

second and not vice-versa. The third class
is partially contained in the other two sugar
classes. Tea
Example : Sugar, Sweet, Tea.
Note: Some people drink tea without
sugar.
10. The first and second class have some part

in common, and so have the second and Cloths Red Flower
third class, nut the first and the third class
have nothing in common. Example:
Cloths, Red, Flower
Directions : From the five logical Diagrams. select one which best illustrates the relationship among three given classes in the
questions 1 to 10.
(e)
(a) (b) (c) (d)
1. Birds, fruits, mangoes

2. Criminals, lawyers, bandits
3. Swimmers, bachelors, men
4. Smart, engineers, women
5. Vegetables, potatoes, brijals
6. Grapes, sweet, fruit
7. Doctors, architects, humans
8. Scholars, people, Nepalese
9. Children, naughty, studious
10. Pens pencils, stationery

43
Directions: From the five logical diagram select one which best illustrates the rel
relationship
ationship among three given classes in questions
11 to 10
(a) (b) (c) (d) (e)
11. Ink, crayons, red

12. Canines, dogs, pups
13. Table, chair, stool
14. Ripe, mangoes, basked
15. Scholars, studious, illiterates
16. Cars, ships, means of conveyance
17. Age, number, thirteen
18. Country, state, continent
19. Father, parent, mother
20. Iron, metal mercury
Matrices
tn lbOPsf] k|Zgdf tLg nx/ / tLgj6} nx/df tLg÷tLg j6f sf]7fx¿ u/L hDdf ( ;lrq sf]7fx¿ qmda4 ¿kdf /x]sf 5g\
5g . A, B, C, D dWo]
afof“ lrqsf] vfnL sf]7f -< ePsf]_ sf]] qmd k"/f ug{ ;Sg] ljsNk /f]Hg'xf];\ .
1. 2.
a b c d
a b c d
3. 4.
a b c d a b c d

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44
5. 6.
a b c d
a b c d
7. 8.
a b c d
a b c d
9. 10.
a b c d a b c d
11. 12.
a b c d
a b c d

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45
13. 14.
a b c d
a b c d
15. 16.
a b c d
a b c d
17. 18.
a b c d
a b c d
19. 20.
a b c d a b c d

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46
21. 22.
a b
c d
a b c d
1. d 2.d 3.c 4. b 5. c 6. b 7. a 8. d 9. b 10. a
11. b 12. a 13. d 14. c 15. c 16. d 17. b 18. a 19. d 20. a
21. b 22. b
Construction of Squares
Direction (1-20): In each of following questions, a set of 5 alternative a figures A, B, C, D and F, followed by a set of four
alternative whihjc represents three out of the five alternative figures which when fitted into each other wourld from a
complete square.
1.
(a) ABC (b) ABD (c) ACE (d) ADE

2.
(a) ABC (b) CDE (c) BDE (d) BCD

3.
(a) ABC (b) BCE (c) BDE (d) ADE

4.
(a) ABC (b) BCD (c) CDE (d) BDE

5.
(a) ABC (b) BCD (c) ACD (d) CDE

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47
6.
(a) ABC (b) ACD (c) ACE (d) CDE

7.
(a) ABC (b) BCD (c) ACD (d) BCE

8.
(a) ABC (b) ABD (c) ABE (d) BCE

9.
(a) ADE (b) ACE (c) BCE (d) BCD

10.
(a) ABC (b) ACD (c) BCE (d) CDE

11.
(a) ACD (b) CDE (c) BCD (d) ACE

12.
(a) ADE (b) BCD (c) ACD (d) BCE

13.
(a) ABD (b) BCD (c) CDE (d) BCE

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48
14.
(a) ABC (b) ABE (c) BCD (d) BDE

15.
(a) ABD (b) BCD (c) CDE (d) BCE

16.
(a) ACD (b) ABD (c) BCD (d) CDE

17.
(a) ABD (b) BCE (c) ACD (d) BDE

18.
(a) ABC (b) ABD (c) ACD (d) CDE

19.
(a) ACD (b) ADE (c) ABE (d) ABD

20.
(a) ABE (b) ABC (c) BCE (d) BCD

ANSWER
1 2 3 4 5
. . . . .
( ( ( ( (
d d c c d
) ) ) ) )

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49
6 7 8 9 1
. . . . 0
.
( ( ( (
c d a d (
) ) ) ) b
)
1 1 1 1 1
1 2 3 4 5
. . . . .
( ( ( ( (
c b d c b
) ) ) ) )
1 1 1 1 2
6 7 8 9 0
. . . . .
( ( ( ( (
a b c b a
) ) ) ) )
Grouping Figure
Directions: In each question given below a series of figure is given which can be grouped in classes. Select from amongst the
alternatives one set of group into which the figures can be classified using each figure only once.
1. 2.
(a) 1, 3; 2, 6, 5; 7, 4
(b) 2, 5; 1, 3, 4; 6, 7
(c) 2, 5; 6, 7, 1; 3, 4 (a) 1, 3, 5; 2, 8, 7; 4, 6, 9
(d) 2, 5, 6; 1, 3, 4; 7 (b) 1, 2, 4; 3, 8, 6; 5, 9, 7
(c) 1, 6, 7; 3, 4, 9; 2, 5, 8
(d) 1, 3, 5; 2, 8, 9; 4, 6, 7
3. 4.
(a) 1, 5, 7; 2, 3, 6; 4, 8, 9
(b) 1, 3, 6; 2, 5, 7; 4, 8, 9
(c) 1, 5, 7; 2, 8, 9; 3, 6, 4 (a) 1, 3, 7; 2, 4, 6; 5, 8, 9
(d) 1, 2, 4; 5, 3, 8; 7, 6, 9 (b) 1, 4, 6; 2, 5, 7; 3, 8, 9
(c) 1, 4, 8; 2, 5, 6; 3, 7, 9
(d) 1, 4, 8; 2, 7, 9; 3, 5, 6

50
5. 6.
(a) 1, 3, 5; 6, 4, 2; 7, 8, 9 (a) 1, 3, 9; 2, 6, 7; 4, 5, 8, 10
(b) 1, 5, 4; 2, 6, 9; 3, 7, 8 (b) 1, 8 10; 2, 4, 6, 7; 5, 3, 9
(c) 5, 4, 6; 3, 9, 2; 1, 7, 8 (c) 1, 32, 5, 9; 2, 8, 9; 4, 6, 7
(d) 4, 5, 1; 3, 9, 2; 1, 7, 8 (d) 1, 8, 9, 10; 3, 5; 2, 4, 6, 7
7. 8.
(a) 1, 4, 8; 2, 5, 6; 3, 9, 7 (a) 1, 5, 9; 2, 7, 8; 3, 4, 6
(b) 1, 5, 2; 7, 8, 3; 9, 4, 6 (b) 3, 7, 8; 4, 5, 9; 1, 2, 6
(c) 1, 4, 8; 2, 5, 9; 3, 6, 7 (c) 2, 4, 9; 6, 7, 8; 1, 3, 5
(d) 1, 4, 8; 2, 3, 7; 5, 9, 6 (d) 1, 5, 6; 4, 7, 8; 2, 3, 9
9. 10.
(a) 1, 5, 7; 2, 3, 9; 4, 6, 8 (a) 1, 6, 8; 2, 4, 5; 3, 9, 7
(b) 1, 5, 7; 2, 3, 4; 6, 8, 9 (b) 1, 6, 8; 2, 3, 9; 4, 5, 7
(c) 1, 2, 3; 5, 7, 9; 4, 6, 8 (c) 1, 2, 3; 6, 4, 9; 8, 5, 7
(d) 1, 2, 3; 4, 5, 6; 7, 8, 9 (d) 1, 5, 6; 2, 4, 9; 3, 7, 8
1. (d): Figures, 2, 5 and 6 contain two cirucles each, figures 1, 3, and 4 contain three cicles each andfigure 7 contain three
circles each and figure 7 contains four circles.
2. (d): Figures 1, 3, and 5 have one dot each, figures 2, 8 and 9 have two dots each and figures 4, 6, and 7 have three dots
each.
3. (a): Figures 1, 5 and 7 are all circles divided into two equal parts, figures 2, 3 and 6 are divided in two parts but have one
of their sides extended and figures 4, 8 and 9 are 3 sides extended and figures 4, 8 and 9 are 3 dimensional conical figures.
4. (c): Figures 1, 4, and 8 are two identical forms joined together, figures 2, 5 and 6 contain two identical forms enclosing
one different form and figures 3, 7 and 9 contain two forms each.
5. (b): Figures 1, 5 and 4 contain arrows, figures 2, 6 and 9 contain two overlapping figures and figures 3, 7 and 8 contain
circles.
6. (b): Figures 1, 8 and 10 are 3-dimensional, figures 2, 4, 6 and 7 are formed by straight lines and figures 5, 3 and 9 are
formed by curved lines.
7. (c): Figures 1, 4 and 8 contain form 'S', figures 2, 5 and 9 are two identical figures one enclosed within the other and
figures 3, 6 and 7 contian a square divided by both the diagonals.
8. (c): Figures 2, 4 and 9 are two identical figures interesting each other, figures 6, 7 and 8 contain a figure eclosing a
different shape and figures 1, 3 and 5 contain a figure intersecting a different shape.
9. (b): Figures, 1, 5 and 7 are divided into two parts and the dividing line is extended, figure 2, 3 and 4 are divided into
three parts and one of the dividing lines is extended and figures 6, 8 and 9 are made of 8 straight lines.

51
10. (b): Figures 1, 6 and 8 are 3-dimensional,

dimensional, figu
figure
re 2, 3 and 9 have one straight line joined to the shape and figures, 4, 5 and
7 are two identical shapes joined together.
Dot Situation
tnsf] lrq (x) df Ps jf PseGbf a9L  x¿ /flvPsf 5g5g\ . yf]Knf /x]sf] :yfg /fd|/L x]g'{xf];\ / lrqx¿ 1, 2, 3, 4 dWo] p:t} :yfg (Same
position) df yf]Knfx¿ /xg ;Sg] lrq 5fGg'xf]; \ .
1.
x 1 2 3 4
2.
x 1 2 3 4
3.
x 1 2 3 4
4.
x 1 2
5.
x 1 2 3 4
6.
x 1 2 3 4
7.
x 1 2 3 4
8.
x 1 2 3 4
9.
x 1 2 3 4

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52
10.
x 1 2 3 4
11.
x 1 2 3 4
12.
x 1 2 3 4
13.
x 1 2 3 4
14.
x 1 2 3 4
15.
x 1 2 3 4
16.
x 1 2 3 4
17.
x 1 2 3 4
18.
x 1 2 3 4
19.
x 1 2 3 4
20.
x 1 2 3 4

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53
Answer
1. 3 2. 2 3. 4 4. 4 5. 1 6. 3 7. 4 8. 2 9. 3 10. 1
11. 3 12. 2 13. 1 14. 4 15. 4 16. 4 17. 1 18. 3 19. 3 20. 2
Water Images
1.
2.
3.
4.
5.

54
6.
7.
8.
9.
10.
Answer
1. (c) 2. (a) 3. (d) 4. (b) 5. (b) 6. (c) 7. (b) 8. (b) 9. (d) 10. (c)
Mirror Images
1.
x a b c d

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55
2.
x a b c d
3.
x a b c d
4.
x a b c d
5.
X a b c d
6.
x a b c d
7.
x a b c d
8.
x a b c d
9.
x a b c d
10.
x a b c d

4782427, 9851146100
56
11.
x a b c d
Answer
1. d 2. c 3. d 4. d 5. b 6. b 7. c 8. b 9. a 10. c 11. d
Embedded Figures

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57
Answer
1 2 3 4 5
. . . . .
B C A B A
6 7 8 9 1
. . . . 0
.
A C B B

58
D
1 1 1 1 1
1 2 3 4 5
. . . . .
D D A C A
1 1 1 1 2
6 7 8 9 0
. . . . .
B D A C B
Analytical Reasoning
ljZn]if0ffTds njh;DaGwL o:tf] k|sf/sf] ;d:ofdf lbPsf] ax'cfoflds lrq -sl7g_ (Complex figure) af6 HofldtLo lrq (Geometrical
figure) uGg'kg]{ x'G5 . o;/L uGbf Pp6f Jojl:yt k|0ffnLdf cfwfl/t eP/ ug'{kg]{5 .
1. Line 2. Triangle
(a) 10 (b) 12 (a) 8 (b) 10

(c) 14 (d) 16 (c) 12 (d) 14
3. Square 4. Parallel
(a) 40 (b) 50
(a) 10 (b) 12 (c) 36 (d) 30
(c) 14 (d) 16
5. Rectangle 6. Line
(a) 15 (b) 16
(a) 7 (b) 11 (c) 17 (d) 18
(c) 9 (d) 13
7. Line 8. Triangle

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59
(a) 10 (b) 12
(c) 14 (d) 16
(a) 27 (b) 23
(c) 25 (d) 29
9. Square 10. Triangle
(a) 2 (b) 3
(a) 12 (b) 14
(c) 4 (d) 5
(c) 16 (d) 18
11. Triangle 12. Triangle
(a) 8 (b) 9 (a) 14 (b) 16

(c) 10 (d) 12 (c) 18 (d) 20
13. Triangle 14. Retangle
(a) 17 (b) 19
(c) 20 (d) 22 (a) 12 (b) 10
(c) 14 (d) 16
(a) 14 (b) 16 (a) 28 (b) 30

(c) 15 (d) 20 (c) 32 (d) 36
(a) 44 (b) 48

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60
(c) 56 (d) 60
(a) 26 (b) 27
(c) 13 (d) 18
(a) 16 (b) 18 (a) 26 (b) 27

(c) 20 (d) 22 (c) 28 (d) 29
21. Triangle 22. Line
(a) 10 (b) 12
(c) 16 (d) 14
(a) 8 (b) 10
(c) 9 (d) 11
(a) 20 (b) 21 (a) 21 (b) 22

(c) 27 (d) 23 (c) 23 (d) 24
(a) 25 (b) 26
(c) 27 (d) 28
(a) 10 (b) 11
(c) 12 (d) 13
(a) 24 (b) 26
(a) 26 (b) 28 (c) 28 (d) 22
(c) 30 (d) 32

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61
(a) 10 (b) 12 (a) 20 (b) 21

(c) 15 (d) 16 (c) 22 (d) 23
(a) 28 (b) 30
(a) 10 (b) 11
(c) 32 (d) 34
(c) 12 (d) 14
(a) 29 (b) 27
(c) 25 (d) 31
(a) 36 (b) 38
(c) 40 (d) 42
35. Line 36. Square
(a) 7 (b) 8
(a) 7 (b) 8
(c) 9 (d) 10
(c) 9 (d) 10
37. Square 38. Square
(a) 40 (b) 30 (a) 12 (b) 15

(c) 36 (d) 34 (c) 18 (d) 20
(a) 25 (b) 27 (a) 18 (b) 17

(c) 29 (d) 23 (c) 16 (d) 15

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62
(a) 24 (b) 20
(c) 22 (d) 18 (a) 16 (b) 18
(c) 20 (d) 14
43. Square 44. Square + Triangle
(a) 10/20 (b) 10/32

(c) 12/40 (d) 10/24
(a) 16 (b) 18
(c) 20 (d) 22
45. Square + Triangle 46. Square + Triangle
riangle
(a) 7 Square, 28 Triangle

(b) 5 Square, 28 Triangle
(c) 6 Square, 28 Triangle
(a) 10 Square, 44 Triangle
(d) 5 Square, 32 Triangle
(b) 12 Square, 50 Triangle
(c) 10 Square, 40 Triangle
(d) 8 Square, 42 Triangle
47. Triangle + Square 48. Triangle
gle + Square
Squ
(a) 36 Triangles 7 Square

(b) 38 Triangles 9 Square
(a) 26 Triangles 5 Square (c) 40 Triangles 7 Square
(b) 28 Triangles 5 Square (d) 42 Triangles 9 Square
(c) 28 Triangles 6 Square
(d) 26 Triangles 6 Square
49. Square + Triangle 50. Square
(a) 21 Triangles 7 Square

(b) 18 Triangles 8 Square (a) 10 (b) 8
(c) 20 Triangles 8 Square (c) 6 (d) 4
(d) 22 Triangles 7 Square

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63
(a) 18 (b) 24
(c) 25 (d) 26
(a) 20 (b) 22
(c) 24 (d) 26
53. Parallelogram 54. Triangle
(a) 18 (b) 20
(c) 24 (d) 26
(a) 9 (b) 18
(c) 27 (d) 36
55. Parallelogram 56. Parallelogram
(a) 8 (b) 11
(c) 12 (d) 15 (a) 17 (b) 13
(c) 15 (d) 19
57. Rectangles 58. Rectangles
(a) 10 (b) 8
(c) 9 (d) 7 (a) 20 (b) 18
(c) 16 (d) 15
59. Rectangle 60. Pentagon
(a) 8 (b) 18 (a) 8 (b) 10

(c) 17 (d) 20 (c) 12 (d) 14
61. Pentagon 62. Rectangles

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64
(a) 5 (b) 6
(c) 7 (d) 8
(a) 30 (b) 32
(c) 28 (d) 26
63. Circle 64. Consider the adjoining diagram:

What is the minimum number of colours
required to fill the spaces in the diagram
without any two adjacent
adjace spaces having
the same colour?
(a) 11 (b) 12
(c) 13 (d) 14
(a) 6 (b) 5
(c) 4 (d) 3
65. Consider the adjoining diagram:
What is the minimum number of different
colours required to paint the figure given
above such that no two adjacent regions
have the same colour.
(a) 3 (b) 4
(c) 5 (d) 6
Answer
1. (b) 2. (c) 3. (c) 4. (d) 5. (b) 6. (c) 7. (c) 8. (c) 9. (a) 10. (d)
11. (c) 12. (b) 13. (a) 14. (a) 15. (c) 16. (a) 17. (b) 18. (d) 19. (b) 20. (b)
21. (d) 22. (a) 23. (c) 24. (a) 25. (a) 26. (a) 27. (b) 28. (a) 29. (c) 30. (b)
31. (d) 32. (c) 33. (a) 34. (a) 35. (b) 36. (c) 37. (b) 38. (b) 39. (b) 40. (b)
41. (a) 42. (a) 43. (b) 44. (b) 45. (a) 46. (b) 47. (d) 48. (c) 49. (a) 50. (b)
51. (b) 52. (a) 53. (a) 54. (c) 55. (d) 56. (a) 57. (c) 58. (a) 59. (b) 60. (c)
61. (b) 62. (a) 63. (c) 64. (d) 65. (a)
DICE
In these type of questions, a template or a layout of a cube, dice or a box is given. Which can be folded to produce different
differen
patterns? To solve these questions what is required is a clear study of the given layou
layoutt and the selection of one figure, from

4782427, 9851146100
65
the alternative patterns which can be made from the given layout. To attempt such problems understand the unfolded patterns
given below:
Layout 1 Layout 2
The opposite sides are : 1 – 3,2 – 4 and 5 – 6

The opposite are : 1 – 3,2 – 4 and 5 – 6
Layout 3. Layout 4.
The opposite sides are : 1 – 3,2 – 4 and 5 – 6 The opposite sides are : 1 – 3,2 – 4 and 5 – 6
Layout 5. Layout 6.

Layout 7. Layout 8.
The opposite sides are : –– The opposite sides are :
–2,1 – 3 and 4 – 5 Here, side 6 is divided into four parts –2,1 – 3 and 4 – 5 Here, side 6 is divided into four
parts
Observe from the above layouts that all sides accept the opposite side adjacent sides. Also keep in that the three visible sides
of the option figures are one of the opposite sides of each opposite pair.
1 4 5
3 5 2
2 3 6
(i) (ii) (iii) Opposite of 5 = ?

Rule: Each dice has six sides three are opposite so that when one appears it opposite couldn't appear so
5 = 2, 6, 3, 4
 Opposite of 5 = 1

66
Directions: The figure marked (X) is folded to produce different box patterns. Study the pattern to know if they can be
produced from figure (X) and select the answer from the alternatives.

(All answers are based on number pattern of the sides as in the layout given in the beginning of this section)
1. D : The given figure is same as layout 4. The sides adjacent to top 3are in order 2.5. 4.6 –– of these sides, 4 and 6 are seen on left
and right, 4 and 6 are seen on left and sides respectively.

67
2.B : The given figure is same as layout 4. The sides adjacent to onside 5 are in order 4.3. 2.1 – of these sides 1 and 4 are seen on
left and right sides respectively.
3. D: The given figure is same as layout 1. The sides adjacent to top side 5 are in order 4, 3. 2, 1 – of these sides 2 and 1 are seen
on left and right sides respectively.
4. A: The given figure is same as layout 3. The sides adjacent to top side 2 are in order 1,5 3,6 –– of these sides 1 and 5 are seen on
left and right sides respectively.
5. C: The given figure is same as layout 1. The sides adjacent to top side 6 are in order 1,2, 3, 4 ––– of these sides 2 and 3 are
seen on left and right sides respectively.
6. D: The given figure is same as layout 4. The sides adjacent to top side 1 are in order 2,6, 4, 5 ––– of these sides 5 and 2 are seen
7. C: The given figure is same as layout 3. The sides adjacent to top side 2 are in order 1, 5, 3, 6 ––– of these sides 1 and 5 are seen
8. A: The given figure is same as layout 4. The sides adjacent to top side 5 are seen on left and right sides respectively.
9. C: The given figure is same as layout 5 . If 'F' is on side 1 then, the sides adjacent to top side 3 are in order 4, 6, 2, 5 ––– of these
sides 4 and 6 are seen on left and right sides respectively.
10. D: The given figure is same as layout 4. The sides adjacent to top side 5 are in order 4,3 2,1 ––– of these sides 2 and 1 are seen

68
NUMERICAL
Prime Number
1. Which one of the following numbers is exactly divisible by 11?
(a) 235641 (b) 245642 (c) 315624 (d) 415624
2. How many 3 digit numbers are divisible by 6 in all?
(a) 149 (b) 150 (c) 151 (d) 166
3. The sum of first 45 natural numbers is:
(a)1035 (b) 1280 (c) 2070 (d) 2140
4. The sum of even numbers between 1 and 31 is :
(a) 6 (b) 128 (c) 240 (d) 512
5. (51 + 52 + ...... + 100) = ?
(a) 2525 (b) 2975 (c) 3225 (d) 3775
6. The smallest prime number is :
(a) 0 (b) 1 (c) 2 (d) 3
7. The sum of first five prime numbers is :
(a) 11 (b) 18 (c) 26 (d) 28
8. How many prime numbers are less then 50?
(a) 16 (b) 15 (c) 14 (d) 18
9. Which of the following is a prime number?
(a) 33 (b) 81 (c) 93 (d) 97
10. Which one of the following is not a prime number?
(a) 31 (b) 61 (c) 71 (d) 91
11. Which one of the following is a prime number?
(a) 161 (b) 221 (c) 373 (d) 437
(e) none of these
12. Which one of the following in a prime number?
(a) 119 (b) 187 (c) 247 (d) 551
(e) none of these
13. The smallest 3–digit prime number is:
(a) 103 (b) 107 (c) 109 (d) 113
(e) None of these
14. If a and b are odd numbers, then which of the following is even?
(a) a+ b (b) a + b+ 1 (c) ab (d) ab + 2
(e) none of these
15. Which one of the following cannot be the square of a natural number?
(a) 30976 (b) 75625 (c) 28561 (d) 143642
(e) none of these
16. Which one of the following cannot be the square of a natural number?
(a) 32761 (b) 81225 (c) 42437 (d) 20164
(e) none of these
1.(d) (4 + 5 + 2) – (1 + 6 + 3) = 1, not divisible by 11
(2 + 6 + 4) – (4 + 5 + 2) = 1, not divisible by 11.
( 4 + 6 + 1) – (2 + 5 + 3) = 1, not dividable by 11.
(4 + 6 + 1) – (2 + 5 + 4) = 0, So, 415624 is divisible by 11.
2. (b) Required numbers are 102, 108,114, ....., 996
This is an A.P. in which a = 102, d =6 and l = 996.
Let the number of terms be n. Then,
a + (n – 1) d = 996  102 + (n – 1) × 6 = 996.

 6 × (n – 1) = 894  (n – 1) = 149  n = 150.
Required number of terms = 150

69
3.(a) Let Sn = (1 + 2 + 3 + ........ + 45). This is an A.P. in which a = 1, d = 1, n = 45.

n 45
× [ 2 × 1 + (45 – 1) × 1 ] =  × 46 = (45 ×23)
45
Sn = [2a + (n – 1) d] =
2 2 2 
= 45 × (20 + 3) = (45 × 20 + 45 ×3) = (900 + 135) = 1035.
4.(c) Let Sn = (2 + 4 + 6 + ..... + 30). This is an A.P. in which a = 2, d = 2, and l = 30. Let the number of terms be n. Then,
a + (n – 1) d = 30  2 + (n – 1) × 2 = 30  n = 15.
n 15
 Sn = (a + 1) = × (2 + 30) = (15 × 16) = 240.
2 2
5.(d) Sn = (1 + 2 + 3 + ..... + 50 + 51 + 52 + .... + 100) – (1 + 2 + 3 + .... + 50)
100 50
= × (1 + 100) – × (1 + 50) = (50 × 101) – (25 × 51) = (5050 – 1275) = 3775.
2 2
6. (c) The smallest prime number is 2.
7. (d) Required sum = (2 + 3 + 5 + 7 + 11) = 28.
8. (b) Prime numbers less than 50 are :
2, 3, 5, 7, 11, 13, 17, 19, 23, 29, 31, 37, 41, 43, 47 Their number is 15.
9. (d) Clearly, 97 is a prime number.
10. (d) 91 is divisible by 7. So, it is not a prime number.
11. (c) 437 > 20
All prime numbers less than 20 are 2, 3, 5, 7, 11, 13, 17, 19.
161 is divisible by 7, 221 is divisible by 13 and 437 is divisible by 19.
373 is not divisible by any of the above prime numbers.
 373 is prime.
12. (e) 551 > 23
All prime numbers less than 23 are 2, 3, 5, 7, 11, 13, 17, 19.
119 is divisible by 7; 187 is divisible by 11; 247 is divisible by 13 and 551 is divisible by 19.
So, none of the given numbers is prime.
13. (e) The smallest 3 – digit number is 100, which is divisible by 2.
 100 is not a prime number.
101 < 11 and 101 is not divisible by any of the prime numbers 2, 3, 5, 7, 11,
 101 is a prime number
Hence 101 is the smallest 3 – digit prime number.
14. (a) The sum of two odd numbers is even, So, a + b is even.
15. (d) The square of a natural number never ends in 2, 3, 7 or 8.
143642 is not the square of a natural number.
16. (c) The square of a natural number never ends in 2, 3, 7 or 8.
 42437 is not the square of a natural number.
LCM/ HCF
1. The sum of two numbers is 528 and their H.C.F. is 33.The number of pairs numbers satisfying the above condition is:
(a) 4 (b) 6 (c) 8 (d) 12

2. The number of number pairs lying between 40 and 100 with their H.C.F. as 15 is :
(a) 3 (b) 4 (c) 5 (d) 6
3. The H.C.F. of two numbers is 12 and their difference is 12 .The numbers are:
(a) 66,78 (b) 70,82 (c) 94, 106 (d) 84, 96
4. The product of two numbers is 4107. If the H.C.F. of these numbers is 37, then the greater number is :
(a) 101 (b) 107 (c) 111 (d) 185
5. The product of two numbers is 2028 and their H.C.F. is 13. The number of such pairs is :
(a) 1 (b) 2 (c) 3 (d) 4
6. There numbers which are co–prime to each other are such that the product of the first two is 551 that of the last two
is 1073. The sum of the three numbers is:
(a) 75 (b) 81 (c) 85 (d) 89
7. The L.C.M. of two numbers is 48. The numbers are in the ratio 2:3. The sum of the numbers is:
(a) 28 (b) 32 (c) 40 (d) 64

70
8. There numbers are in the ratio of 3 : 4 : 5 and their L.C.M. is 2400. Their H.C.F. is:
(a) 40 (b) 80 (c) 120 (d) 200
9. The H.C.F. of two numbers is 11 and their L.C.M. is 7700. If one of the numbers is 275, then the other is:
(a) 279 (b) 283 (c) 308 (d) 318
10. The sum of two numbers is 2000 and their L.C.M. is 21879. The two numbers are
(a) 1993,7 (b) 1991,9 (c) 1989,11 (d) 1987, 13
11. The H.C.F. and L.C.M. of two numbers are 84 and 21 respectively. If the ratio of the two numbers is : 1: 4 then the
larger of the two numbers is :
(a) 12 (b) 48 (c) 84 (d) 108
12. The L.C.M. of two numbers is 495 and their H.C.F. is 5. If the sum of the numbers is 10, then their difference is:
(a) 10 (b) 46 (c) 70 (d) 90
13. The product of the L.C.M. and H.C.F. of two numbers is 24. The difference of two numbers is 2 Find the numbers.
(a) 2 and 4 (b) 6 and 4 (c) 8 and 6 (d) 8 and 10
14. If the sum of two numbers is 55 and the H.C.F. and L.C. M. of these numbers are 5 and 120 respectively, then the sum
of the reciprocals of the numbers is equal to :
55 601 11 120
(a) (b) (c) (d)
601 55 120 11
15. The 'L.C. M. of two numbers is 45 times their H.C.F. If one of the numbers is 125 and the sum of H.C.F. and L.C.M.
is 1150, the other number is:
(a) 215 (b) 220 (c) 225 (d) 235
16. The H.C.F. and L.C.M. of two numbers are 50 and 250 respectively. If the first number is divided by 2, the quotient is
50. The second number is:
(a) 50 (b) 100 (c) 125 (d) 250
1. (a) Let the required numbers be 33a and 33b.Then, 33a + 33b = 528  a + b = 16.
Now, co–primes with sum 16 are (1, 15), (3, 13), (5,11) and (7, 9).
 Required numbers are (33 ×1, 33 × 15), (33 × 3, 33 × 13), (33 × 5, 33 × 11), (33 × 7, 33 × 9).
The number of such pairs is 4.
2. (b) Numbers with H.C.F. 15 must contain 15 as a factor.
Now, multiples of 15 between 40 and 100 are 45, 60, 75 and 90.
 Number– pairs with H.C.F. 15 are (45, 60), (45, 75), (60, 75) and 75, 90).
[ H.C.F. of (60, 90) is 30 and that of (45, 90) is 45]
Clearly, there are 4 such pairs.
3.(d) Out of the given numbers, the two with H.C.F. 12 and difference 12 are 84 and 96.
4.(c) Let the numbers be 37a and 37b. Then, 37a × 37b = 4107  ab = 3.
Now, co–primes with product 3 are (1,3).
So, the required numbers are (37 × 1, 37 × 3) i.e. (1.111).
 Greater number = 111.
5.(b) Let the numbers be 13a and 13b. Then, 13a ×13b = 2028  ab = 12.
Now, co–primes with product 12 are (1, 12) and (3, 4).
So, the required numbers are (13 × 1, 13 × 12) and (13 × 3, 13 × 4).
Clearly, there are 2 such pairs.
6.(c) Since the numbers are co– prime, they contain only 1 as the common factor.
Also, the given two products have the middle numbers in common
So, middle number = H.C.F. of 551 and 1073 = 29;
So, middle number = 
551 1073
 29  = 19: Third number =  29  = 37.
 Required sum = (19 + 29 + 37) = 85.
7.(c) Let the numbers be 2x and 3x.Then, their L.C. M. = 6x. So, 6x = 48 or x = 8.
 The numbers are 16 and 24.
Hence, required sum = (16 + 24) = 40.
8.(a) Let the numbers be 3x, 4x and 5x. Then, their L.C.M. = 60x. So, 60x = 2400 or x =40.
 The numbers are (3 × 40), (4 ×40) and (5 × 40).
Hence, required H.C.F. = 40.
Other number = 
11 × 7700
9.(c)
 275  = 308.

71
10.(c) Let the numbers be x and (2000 – x). Then their L.C.M. = x (2000 – x).
So, x (2000 – x) = 21879  x2 – 2000x + 21879 = 0
 (x – 1989) (x – 11) = 0  x = 1989 or x = 11.
Hence, the numbers are 1989 and 11.
11.(c) Let the numbers be x and 4x. Then, x × 4x = 84 × 21  x2 = 
84 × 21
 4   x = 21.
Hence, larger number = 4x = 84.
12. (a) Let the numbers be x and (100 – x).
Then, x (100 – x) = 5 × 495  x2 – 100x + 2475 = 0
 (x – 55) (x – 45) = 0  x = 55 or x = 45.
 The numbers are 45 and 55.
Required difference is (55 – 45) = 10
13.(b) Let the numbers be x and (x + 2) .
Then, x (x + 2) = 24  x2 + 2x – 24 = 0  (x – 4) (x + 6) = 0  x = 4.
So, the numbers are 4 and 6.
14.(c) Let the numbers be a and b. Then, a + b = 55 and ab = 5 × 120 = 600.
1 1 a+b 55 11
 Required sum = + = = =
a b ab 600 120
15. (c) Let H.C.F. be h and L.C.M. be l. Then, l = 45 h and l + h = 1150.
 45h + h = 1150 or h = 25. So, l = (1150 – 25) = 1125.
Hence. other number = 
25 × 1125
 125  = 225.
16. (c) First number = (50 × 2) = 100. Second number = 
50 × 250
 100  = 125.
Decimal Fraction
1. Which of the following are in descending order of their value?
5 7 8 11 5 8 11 7 11 7 8 5 11 7 5 8
(a) (b) (c) (d)
9 11 15 17 9 15 17 11 17 11 15 9 17 11 9 15
, , , , , , , , , , , ,
2 3 4 5
2. What is the difference between the biggest and the smallest fraction among and ?
3 4 5 6
1 1 1 1
(a) (b) (c) (d)
6 12 20 30
3. Which part contains the fractions in ascending order?
11 16 19 16 11 19 16 19 11 19 11 10
(a) (b) (c) (d)
14 19 21 19 14 21 19 21 14 21 14 19
, , , , , , , ,
4. Which of the following fractions is the smallest?
13 15 17 7
(a) (b) (c) (d)
16 19 21 8
3 5
5. Which of the following fractions is greater then and less than ?
4 6
1 2 4 9
(a) (b) (c) (d)
2 3 5 10
7 1
6. Which of the following fractions is less than and greater than ?
8 3
1 23 11 17
(a) (b) (c) (d)
4 24 12 24
4 7
7. Which of the following numbers does not lie between and ?
5 13
1 2 3 5
(a) (b) (c) (d)
2 3 4 7

72
–7 5 2
8. The arrangement of rational numbers , , in ascending order is:
10 –8 –3
2 5 –7 5 –7 2 –7 5 2 –7 2 5
(a) , , (b) , , (c) , , (d) , ,
–3 – 8 10 – 8 10 – 3 10 8 – 3 10 – 3 – 8
9. 337.62 + 8.591 + 34.4 = ?
(a) 370,611 (b) 380.511 (c ) 380.611 (d) 426.97
10. The value of (1 + .1 + .01 + .001) is :
(a) 1.001 (b) 1.011 (c) 1.003 (d) 1.111
11. 34.95 + 240.016 + 23. 98 = ?
(a) 298.0946 (b) 298.111 (c) 298.946 (d) 299.09
12. 617 + 6.017 + 0.617 + 6.0017 = ?
(a) 6.2963 (b) 62.965 (c) 629.6357 (d) None of these
13. 48.98 – 32.006 = ?
(a) 16.089 (b) 16.35 (c) 16.89 (d) 16.944
14. 792.02 + 101.22 – 306 .76 = ?
(a) 586.58 (b) 893.34 (c) 997.11 (d) 1200.10
1. (d) Converting each of the given fractions in to decimal form, we get:
5 7 8 11
= 0.55. = 0.63, = 0.533, = 0.647.
9 11 15 17
11 7 5 8
Clearly, 0.647 > 0.63 > 0.55 > 0.533. So, > > > .
17 11 9 15
2. (a) Converting each of the given fractions into decimal form, we get:
2 3 4 5
= 0.66, = 0. 75, = 0.8. = 0.833.
3 4 5 6
6 4 3 2
Since 0.833 > 0.8 > 0.75 > 0.66, So, > > > .
5 5 4 3
 Required difference =  –  = .
5 2 1
6 3 6
11 16 19
3. (a) Clearly, = 0.785, = 0.842, = 0.904.
14 19 21
Now,
11 16 19
0.785 < 0.842 , 0.904. So, < <
14 19 21
13 15 17 7
4. (d) We have : = 0.8125, = 0.7894, = 0.8095 and = 0.875.
16 19 21 8
15
Since 0.7894 is the smallest, so is the smallest.
19
3 5 1 2 4 9
5. (c) = 0,75, = 0,833, = 0.5, 0.66, = 0.8, = 0.9.
4 6 2 3 5 10
clearly 0.8 lies between 0.75 and 0.833.
4 3 5
 lies between and .
5 4 6
7 1 1 23 11 17
6. (d) = 0.875, = 0.333, = 0.25, = 0.958, = 0.916, = 0.708.
8 3 4 24 12 24
Clearly, 0.708 lies between 0.333 and 0.875.
17 1 7
 lies between and .
24 3 8
4 7 1 2 3 5
7. (a) = 0.8, = 0.53, = 0.5, = 0.66, = 0.75, = 0.714.
5 13 2 3 4 7
Clearly, 0.5 does not lie between 0.53 and 0.8.
1 4 7
 does not lie between and .
2 5 13
–7 5 5 2 2
8. (d) = – 0.7, = – = – 0.625, = – = – 0.66.
10 –8 8 –3 3

73
–7 2 5
Since – 0.7 < – 0.66 < – 0.625, So, < < .
10 –3 –8
9. 337.62 10. 1.0 11. 34.95
(c) 8.591 (d) 0.1 (c) 240.016
+ 34.4 0.01 23.98
380.611 + 0.001 298.946
1.111
12. 617.00 13. 48. 950 14. 792.02
(c) 6.017 (d) – 32.006 (a) + 101.32
0.617 16.944 893.34
+ 6.0017 893.34
629.6357 – 306.76
586.58
Profit/Loss/Discount
1. A book seller purchased a book at Rs. 20 and sold it at a profit of 15%. The selling price in Rs. of the book would be:
(a) 22 (b) 23 (c) 27 (d) 30

2. Shyam lost 15% by selling his old bicycle for Rs. 170. For how much he must have sold it to gain 15%?
(a) Rs. 184 (b) Rs. 194 (c) Rs. 230 (d) Rs. 224
3. If a plot is for Rs. 18.700 the owner losses 15%. Find the price at which it must be sold to gain 15%?
(a) Rs. 27,000 (b) Rs. 27,500 (c) Rs. 29000 (d) Rs. 38,000
4. Two successive discount of 20% and 15% is equivalent to a single discount of
(a) 18 (b) 24 (c) 32 (d) 36
5. A sells an article to B at profit of 20% and B sells it to C at a profit of 25% If C buys it for Rs. 225. What did A pay
for it?
(a) Rs. 100 (b) Rs. 125 (c) Rs. 150 (d) Rs. 175
6. An owner of a restaurant earns a profit of 30% per person in a dinner even after allowing discount of 35% on the
listed price. If the list price is Rs. 250. What is cost price?
(a) Rs. 120 (b) Rs. 125 (c) Rs. 150 (d) Rs. 180
7. Selling price of four articles equals to cost price of 5 articles. The gain is:
(a) 20% (b) 25% (c) 28% (d) 80%
8. A sport jacket marked $ 48 is offered at a discount of 25% during a stock out sales. At this reduced price the dealer
makes a profit of 20% on the cost. The cost to the dealer is
(a) $29 (b) $ 30 (c) $ 32 (d) $ 36
9. The compound interest on a certain sum for the first years for 4% is Rs. 25. The compound interest for 2 years at the
same rate on the same sum will be.
(a) Rs. 50 (b) Rs. 51 (c) Rs. 53 (d) Rs. 54
10. An article was sold for Rs. 415 at a loss of 17%. What would have been the sale price?
(a) Rs. 475 (b) Rs. 490 (c) Rs. 500 (d) 525
11. Two successive discount of 20% and 15% is equivalent to single discount of
(a) 18 (b) 24 (c) 32 (d) 36
12. A 30% discount reduces the prices of a commodity by Rs. 90. If the discount is reduced to 20% then the price of the
commodity will be.
(a) Rs. 180 (b) Rs. 210 (c) Rs. 240 (d) Rs. 300
13. The list price of an article is 25%above the selling price and cost price is 40% below the list price, then, rate of
discount is
(a) 15% (b) 20% (c) 25% (d) 40%
14. Stella paid Rs. 32000 for a computer after receiving 20% discount. What is the price of computer before discount?
(a) 35000 (b) 38000 (c) 40000 (d) 42000
Answer
1. (b) 2. (c) 3. (b) 4. (c) 5. (c) 7. (b) 8. (b) 9. (b) 10. (c)
11. (c) 12. (c) 13. (c) 14. (c)

74
Ratio
1. A,B, C did a work together and earned Rs. 195. If the ratio of work of A : B: C be as 4 : 6: 3, the money obtained by
C is :
(a) Rs. 90 (b) Rs. 60 (c) Rs. 45 (d) Rs. 30
2. Divide Rs. 53 among A, B, And C so that A may receive Rs. 7 more than B, and B may receive Rs. 8 more than C.
(a) 10, 15, 18, (b) 18, 10, 25 (c) 20, 12, 27 (d) 25, 18, 10
3. A businessman mixes two varieties of tea in the ratio of 2:5 and sells the mixture at Rs. 40 per kg. If the cost of two
varieties respectively be Rs. 45 per kg. What would be his profit percent?
(a) 13 (b) 14.37 (c) 16 (d) None of these
4. A sum of money is to be divided amount three persons A, B, and C at the ration of 4:9:7. If the difference between the
shares of B and C will be.
(a) Rs. 750 (b) Rs. 1500 (c) Rs. 1600 (d) Rs. 1800
5. A mixture of 40 liters of milk and water contains 20% . The quantity of water htat must be added to make water 20%
in the new ixure is.
(a) 10lt (b) 12lt (c) 5lt (d) 15lt
6. The number of students in private and public campuses is BBA first semester is at the ratio3 : 5. If 20 students are
increased in each type of campuses at BBA first semester, the ratio charge to 5:7. The total number of students in two
type of campuses before the increased was:
(a) 70 (b) 80 (c) 90 (d) 60
7. Sashi started a business investing Rs. 75,000. After 3 moths, Shikha joined with capital of Rs. 60,000. If at the end of
the year total the profit was Rs. 16,000, then , what was shiksha's share in it?
(a) Rs. 5000 (b) Rs. 6000 (c) Rs.8000 (d) Rs. 9000
8. The ratio of the ages of A and B is 3:5. If B is 8 years elder to A then what is the ages of A?
(a) 12 (b) 14 (c) 16 (d) 18
9. If A: B = 5 : 7 and B : C = 3: 5, then A :B: C is:

(a) 15 : 12 : 35 (b) 15 : 21: 35 (c) 14:20 : 34 (d) 20 : 35 : 45
N+N
10. If = 1,then the value of N is :
N2
(a) 1/2 (b) 1 (c) 2 (d) 3
1 1 1
11. If the ratio of to in equal to the ratio of to x, then, what is the value of x?
5 4 4
(a) 1/20 (b) 5/16 (c) 1/5 (d) 5/4

12. Narasimha, Madhu and Pavan started a business by investing Rs. 120,000, Rs. 135,000 and Rs. 150,000 respectively.
Find the share of Pavan, out of an annual profit of Rs. 56,700.
(a) Rs. 16,800 (b) 18, 900 (c) Rs. 21,000 (d) None of these
13. The ratio of Rita's age to her mother's ages is 3:8. The difference of their ae is 35 years.
(a) 7:12 (b) 5:12 (c) 38:43 (d) 42 :47
Answer
1. (c) 2. (d) 3. (d) 4. (a) 5. (c) 6. (b) 7. (b) 8. (a) 9. (b) 10. (a)
11. (b) 12. (a) 13. (b)
Distance/Speed
1. Two cars start towards each other from points 200 miles apart. One car travels at 40 miles per hours and the other
travel at 35 miles an hour. How far apart will the two cars be after four hours of continuous travelling?
(a) 20 (b) 40 (c) 75 (d) 100
2. Walking at the speed of 5 km per hours from his home, Bikram reaches his school 5 minutes late, but walking at speed
of 6 km per hours he reaches his home?
(a) 2km (b) 2.5km (c) 5km (d) 5.5kmr
3. A plane left 30 minutes later than the scheduled time and in order tor each its destination 1500 km away in time it has
to increase its speed by 250 km per hour from its usual speed. Find its usual speed.
(a) 1000lm/hr (b) 750km/hr (c) 500km/hr (d) 600km/hr

75
4. In the rafting situation, a boat goes 30 km downstream in 75 minutes and that same distance upstream in 90 minutes
the speed (in km/hr) of the stream is:
(a) 21 (b) 3 (c) 45 (d) 6
5. A tourist bus travels for 3 hours at 40 miles per hour and then covers a distance of 80 miles in two hours and 40
minutes. His average rate for the entire trip was.
(a) 35 mph (b) 35.3 mph (c) 35.5 mph (d) 36mph
6. The distance between cities A and B is 120 miles. A car travels from A to B at 60 miles per hour and returns from B to
A along the same route at 40 miles per hor. What was the average speed for the round trip?
(a) 56 (b) 52 (c) 50 (d) 48

Answer
1. (d) 2. (d) 3. (b) 4. (c) 5. (b) 6. (c)
Number and Digits
1. Today is the birthday of Rahul and he is 3 times old as Nirmala. In 13 years, Rahula will be one year less than twice
as old as Nirmala will be then. What is the age of Rahula today?
(a) 12 years (b) 24 years (c) 36 years (d) 48 years
2. The sum of the digits of a two digits number is 12, and the ten's digit is one third of the units digit of the units digit.
What is the number?
(a) 93 (b) 54 (c) 48 (d) 39
3. In the two digit number x, both the sum and difference of its digits is 4. What is the value of x?
(a) 13 (b) 31 (c) 40 (d) 48

1
4. The digits of a three-digit number add up to 18. If ten's digit is twice of the Hundred's digit and hundred's digit is
3
of the unit digit, what is the number?
(a) 246 (b) 369 (c) 531 (d) 893
5. The ten's digit of a two-digit number is twice the unit's digit . revising the digits yield a new number, that is, 27 less
than the original number. Which lone the following number, that that is, 27 less than the original number. Which one
the following number the original number?
(a) 83 (b) 63 (c) 43 (d) 21
6. Johan is 20 years older than Steve. In 10 years, Steve's age will be half that of John's what is the Steve's age?
(a) 8 (b) 10 (c) 20 (d) 25

Answer
1. (a) 2. (d) 3. (c) 4. (b) 5. (b) 6. (b)
Average
1. A library has an average number of 5 10 visitors on Sunday and 240 visitors on the days. The average number of
visitors per day in amount of 30 days beginning with Sunday is:
(a) 285 (b) 290 (c) 300 (d) 400
2. The average of 10 number is 5. If each number is multiplied b 3, the average of the new set of number will be:
(a) 34 (b) 30 (c) 2% (d) 35
3. The averages of the first five multiple of 7 is :
(a) 7 (b) 14 (c) 21 (d) 28
4. A cricketer has a certain average in 9 innings. In the tenth innings he scores 60 runs, thereby increase his a average
by 5 urns, What is his new average?
(a) 4 (b) 14 (c) 21 (d) 28
5. The average of 8 numbers is 6, the average of 6 other numbers is 8. What is the average of all 14 numbers?
(a) 5.5/7 (b) 6.6/7 (c) 72/7 (d) 81/7

6. What is the average of x, 2x, and 6?
1 x+2
(a) a x (b) 2x (c) x+2 (d)
2 8
7. In travelling from city A and B, John drove for 1 hour at 50 mph and for 3 hours at 60 Mph. What was his average
speed of his trip?
(a) 53.5 (b) 55 (c) 56 (d) 57.5

76
8. The average of 8 number is A, and one of the numbers is 14, If 14 is replaced with 28, then, what is the new average in
terms of A?
7 1
(a) A+ (b) A+ (c) A + 2 (d) 2A + 1
4 2
9. Out of four numbers, the average of first three is 16 and that of the last three is 15. If last number is 18, the first
number is:
(a) 20 (b) 21 (c) 23 (d) 25
10. For the final step in a calculation eeta accidentlay divided by 1000 instead of ultiplying by 1000. What should she do to
her answer to correct it.?
(a) Multiply it by 1000 (b) Multiply it by 100,000
(c) Multiply it by 1000,000 (d) Mutliply it by 200,000
11. If the average of a, b, c, d and e is 95 and the average of a, b and e is 100. The everage of c and d is:
(a) 78.5 (b) 87.5 (c) 90 (d) 98
12. The average of five numbers is 6.9. If one of the number is deleted the average of the remaining numbers is 4.4. The
value of the number deleted?
(a) 6.8 (b) 7.4 (c) 12.5 (d) 16.9
13. The average of 8 numbers is A, and one of the numbers is 14. If 14 is replaced with 28, then what is the new average
ein terms of B is
7 1
(a) B+ (b) B+ (c) B + 2 (d) 2B + 1
4 2
14. If the average of for x numbers k, 2k + 3, 3k –5 and 5k + 1 is 63, then, the value of k is
(a) 22 (b) 23 (c) 24 (d) 25
1
15. One Monday a person 8 packages weighing an average of 15 pounds. What was the average weight, in pound of all
4
the packages the person maile on both days.
1 13 13 33
(a) 13 (b) 13 (c) 15 (d)
3 16 16 83
Answer
1. (a) 2. (d) 3. (c) 4. (d) 5. (b) 6. (c) 7. (d) 8. (c) 9. (b) 10. (c)
11. (b) 12. (d) 13.(a) 14. (b) 15. (a)
Population Growth
1. The current Population of town is 10,000. If te population of the town is increasing at the rate of 10% every year,
then, the population of the town after three years will be:
(a) 13000 (b) 13310 (c) 13300 (d) 13330
2. A person lent a certain sum of money at 4% simple interest and in 8 year the interest amounted to Rs. 340 less than
the amount lent, find the sum lent.
(a) Rs. 400 (b) Rs. 450 (c) Rs. 500 (d) Rs. 600
3. A borrower pays 18% interest per year on the first Rs. 600 he borrows and 15% per year on the loan on the part of
the loan in excess of Rs. 600. How much interest will the borrower pay on the loan of Rs. 6000 for one year?
(a) 1,020 (b) 1,026 (c) 1,080 (d) 1,126
4. A sum lent at 2% per anum will produce as much simle intrest in 2 years as Rs. 480 lent at 5% per annum will
produce in 4 years. The sum is:
(a) Rs. 2, 000 (b) Rs. 2,200 (c) Rs. 2,400 (d) Rs. 3000
5. How many years will a sum of money becomes doubles at 10% per annum simple interest?
6. If the compound interest on a certain sum of money fo 2 years at 10% per annum is Rs. 2200, the simple interest on it
at the same rate for 2 years will be:
(a) Rs. 1000 (b) Rs. 1500 (c) Rs. 2000 (d) Rs. 2500
7. How many years will a sum of money becomes double at 10% per annum simple intrest?

77
8. The difference between simple and compound interest in a certain sum in two years at 15% per annum is Rs. 144.
Then sum is:
(a) Rs. 6000 (b) Rs. 6200 (c) Rs. 6400 (d) Rs.6500
9. The difference between simple and compound interest in a certain sum in 2 years at 12% per annum is Rs. 216. The
sum is:
(a) Rs. 14500 (b) Rs. 15000 (c) Rs. 15500 (d) Rs. 16000
10. A banker pays Rs. 564 for a bill of Rs. 600 due 6 month hence. What is the percent per annum the bank has deducted
from the bill?
(a) 12% (b) 11% (c) 10% (d) 8%
Answer
1. (b) 2. (a) 3. (b) 4. (c) 5. (d) 6. (c) 7. (c) 8. (c) 9. (b) 10. (b)
Percentage
1. If Y is 25% less than x is , what percent more than y?
(a) 25% (b) 33.33% (c) 16% (d) 22.22%
2. In june a baseball team that played 60 games had won 30% of its games played. After phenomenal winning streak
this team raised its average to 50%. How many fames must the term have won in a row to attain this average?
(a) 12 (b) 20 (c) 24 (d) 30
3. If the length of a rectangle is increased by 20% and the width of the same rectangle is decreased by 20% then the area
of the rectangle.
(a) Decreased by 20% (b) Decreased by 4%
(c) Unchanged (d) increased by 40%
4. A mixture of 40 Liters of milk and water contain 10% water. How much water must be added to make 20% in the
new mixture?
(a) 10 liter (b) liter (c) liter (d) 3 liter
5. If Bhaktpur had export of 1 million in 1962 what was the percentage change between 1962 and 2000. If In 200,
Bhaktapur had exports 1300 thousands.
(a) 13% decrease (b) 13% increase (c) 30%increases (d) 30% decreases
6. If the side of a square is increased by 25% then, its area is increased by
(a) 56.25% (b) 50% (c) 10.5% (d) 25%
7. A manufacturing company reports that 4000 electronic parts were found defective. If this represents 12.5% of the
total shipment, how many of these parts were shipped?
(a) 3200 (b) 17000 (c) 32000 (d) 34000
8. A baseball team has won 40 game out of 60 played. It has 32 more fames to play. How of these must the team win to
make its record of 75% for the season?
(a) 26 (b) 29 (c) 30 (d) 35
9. If the area of a square increased by 69% then the side of the square increased by:
(a) 30% (b) 39% (c) 60% (d) 69%
10. If the base of rectangular is increased by 30% and altitude is decrease by 20% the area is increased by:
(a) 4% (b) 5% (c) 10% (d) 25%
11. In a certain town 40% of the people have brown hair, 25% have brown eyes and 10% have both brown hair eyes.
What percentage of the people in the town has neither brown hair nor brown eyes?
(a) 35 (b) 40 (c) 45 (d) 50
12. If the length of a rectangle is increase by 50% then its area is increased by
(a) 20% (b) 30% (c) 40% (d) 50%
13. A company reports that 2000 electronic parts were found defective. If this represents 6.25% of the total shipment,
how many of these parts were shipped?
(a) 3,200 (b) 17,000 (c) 32,000 (d) 34,000
14. If the length of a rectangle is increased by 20% and the width of rectangle decreased by 20%, then the area of
rectangle
(a) decreased by 20% (b) decreased by 4%
(c) inc reused by 20% (d) increased by 4%
15. A company reports that 2000 electronics parts were found defective. If this represents 5% of the total shipment. How
many of these parts were shipped?
(a) 40,000 (b) 30,000 (c) 20,000 (d) 10,000

78
16. There are 50 students enrolled in computer course. Of the enrolled students, 90% appeared in a final exam. Two third
of the students attending the final exam passed. How many student passed the final exam?
(a) 30 (b) 33 (c) 34 (d) 35
17. If a shirt selling for $ 18 is marked up to $20,then the percentage increased is equal to :
(a) 11% (b) 10% (c) 12% (d) 9%
18. A Co: reports that 1800 units of products were found defective. If this represents 5% of total units exported, how
many of this units were exported?
(a) 36000 (b) 38000 (c) 40000 (d) 45000
19. A jar contains 4 blue balls and 40 red balls. Which of the following is % of blue balls?
(a) 9 (b) 10 (c) 11 (d) 12
20. The population of a town was 12000 in 1980 and 16000 in 1990. What was the percent increase in the population of the
town during this period?
(a) 80 (b) 5 (c) 50 (d) 33
21. Ajar contains 24 blue balls and 40 red balls. Which one of the following is 50% of the blue balls?
(a) 10 (b) 11 (c) 12 (d) 13
22. On my sister's 15th birthday, she was 159 cm in height having grown 6% since the year before. How tall was she the
previous year?
(a)140 (b) 150 (c) 160 (d) 165
23. Arun spent 25% of his pocket money, and has Rs. 125 left. How much had he at first?
(a) 120 (b) 144.45 (c) 166.66 (d) 175.67
24. If the cost of electricity increases by 30%, by what percent one should educe his spend in order that spent on
electricity stays the same?
(a) 23.07% (b) 25.5% (c) 26% (d) 33.33%
25. If the price of petrol increases by 25% and Rajesh intends to spend only 15% more on petrol, by how much % should
her educe the quantity of petrol that he buys?
(a) 5% (b) 8% (c) 9% (d) 10%
26. In an election, Congress secured 10% of the total cotes more than Non-Congress (consider only two parties in the
election and everyone voting). If non- congress got 126000 votes, by how many votes did it lose the election?
(a) 20,000 (b) 22,000 (c) 25,000 (d) 28,000
27. If the populations is 1,500,000 and the expected birth rate is 50% while the expected death rate is 31% what will be
the net change in the population at the end of the one year.
(a) 285,000 (b) 250,000 (c) 244,000 (d) 200,000
28. What is the % change in the area of a square (Which will become rectangle) if its length side is increased by 10% and
its width side is decreased by 10% (In these types of problem, assume a percent (100) based and then move forward).
(a) 5% (b) 3% (c) 2% (d) 1%
29. Ram obtains 40% of the marks in a paper of 200 marks. Shyam is ahead of Ram by 25% or Ram's marks, while
Bhuvan is ahead of Shyam by one month of his own marks. How many marks Bhuvan get?
(a) 112.5 (b) 115 (c) 120 (d) 125.25
30. 10% of the cotes did not cast their cote in an election between two candidates. 10% of the votes polled were found
invalid. The successful candidate got 54% of the valid votes and won by a majority of 1620 votes The number of
voters enrolled on the voters list was:
(a) 25,000 (b) 33,000 (c) 35,000 (d) 40,000
31. A stars business with Rs. 35,00 and after 5 months, B joins with A as his partner. After a year, the profit is divided in
the ratio 3:3. What is B's contribution in the capital?
(a) Rs. 7,500 (b) Rs. 8,000 (C) Rs. 8, 500 (d) Rs.9,000
Answer
1. (b) 2. (c) 3. (b) 4. (c) 5. (c) 6. (d) 7 (c) 8. (b) 9. (a) 10. (c)
11. (c) 12. (d) 13. (c) 14. (b) 15. (a) 16. (a) 17. (b) 18. (a) 19. (a) 20. (d)
21. (c) 22. (b) 23. (c) 24. (a) 25. (b) 26. (d) 27. (a) 28. (d) 29. (a) 30. (a)
31. (d)
Time & Work/Unitary Methods

1. A journalist travelled 1200 km by air, which formed 2/5 of his trip. The remaining part of his trip was one third of the
whole trip by car and the rest by bus. The distance traveled by bus is:
(a) 700 km (b) 800 km (c) 900 km (d) 100km

79
2. A diagram of a plane draw to the scale of 0.5 inch equals 80 feet. If the length of the diagram is 4.5 inches the actual
length of the plane is:
(a) 720 ft. (b) 680 ft. (c) 640 ft. (d) 360 ft.
3. A worker is digging a ditch, he gets two assistants who work 2/3 as fast as he does. If all three work n a ditch they
should finish it in what fraction of the time that the worker takes working alone?
(a) 1/7 (b) 2/7 (c) 3/7 (d) 4/7

4. A can do piece of work in 40 days. He worked it for 5 days and then B finishes it in 21 days. In how many days A man
B together finish the work
(a) 10 (b) 12 (c) 15 (d) 18
5. If 12 persons can do a work in 4 days, in how many days can 8 person complete that work?
(a) 4days (b) 6 days (c) 8 days (d) 12 days

6. How many men need to be employed to complete a job in 5 days if 10 men can complete half of the job in 7 days?
(a) 5 (b) 10 (c) 15 (d) 28

7. A contractor undertakes to make a road in 30 days and employ 15 men After 24 days, he finds that only half of the
work is done. How many extra men should he employ so that he is able to complete the work in time?
(a) 2 (b) 30 (c) 45 (d) None

8. A diagram of a plane drawn to the scale of 0.5 inch equals 80 feet. If the length the diagram is 4.5 inches the actual
length of plane is :
(a) 7209ft (b) 680 ft. (c) 640 ft. (d) 360 ft.
9. A diagram of a large ground drawn to the scale of 0.5 inch equals 80 feet. If the length of the diagram is 4.5 inches the
actual length of the ground is :
(a) 720 ft (b) 680 ft (c) 640ft (d) 360ft
10. Four workers working together can plough the field in 12 house. How long will it take 6 workers to plough the field of
the same size. if all of them work at the same rate?
(a) 6 hours (b) 8 hrs (c) 10 hrs (d) 12 hrs
11. When magnified 10.000 times by an electron microscope, the image of a certain circular piece if tissue has a
diameter of 0.3 centimeter. The actual diameter the tissue in centimeter is :
(a) 0.03 (b) 0.003 (c) 0.0003 (d) 0.0003
12. If 15 men can finish a work in 16 days. In how many days will 8 men finish the same work?
(a) 24 (b) 30 (c) 32 (d) 36
13. If 7 workers can assemble a car in 8 hours, how long would it take 12 workers to assemble the same cat?
1 2 1
(a) (b) 4 hrs (c) 5 hrs (d) 6 hrs
3 3 3
14. A jet uses 80 gallons of fuel to fly 320 miles. At this rate, how many gallons of fuel are needed for a 700 miles flight?
(a) 155 (b) 160 (c) 170 (d) 175

15. If 6 men can earn Rs. 150 in 10 days, how much do 8 men earn in 7 days?
(a) Rs. 160 (b) Rs. 140 (c) Rs. 135 (d) Rs. 130
16. Seven workers can assemble a car in 8 hours, how long it would take 12 workers to assemble the same car?
(a) 7/2 (b) 14/3hrs (c) 11/2 hrs (d) 19/43 hrs
17. If 7 workers can assemble a car in 8 hours, how long would it take 12 workers to assemble the same car?
(a) 3 (b) 3.5 (c) 4.67 (d) 6.33

18. If 2 men and 3 boys can do a piece of work in 8 das whole 3 whole 3 men and 4 boys will do it
(a) 3days (b) 4 days (c) 5 days (d) 6 days
Answer
1. (b) 2. (a) 3. (c) 4. (c) 5. (b) 6. (c) 7 (c) 8. (a) 9. (a) 10. (b)
11. (d) 12. (b) 13. (b) 14. (d) 15. (b) 16. (b) 17. (a) 18. (b)
Analogy
Number Analogy

80
1. 26 : 39
(a) 27 : 322 (b) 25 : 562 (c) 90 : 992 (d) 84 : 244 (e) 19 : 494
2. 6 : 39
(a) 5 : 25 (b) 9 : 54 (c) 14 : 72 (d) 8 : 81 (e) 13 : 64
3. 38 : 1140
(a) 40 : 1289 (b) 61:1358 (c) 42 :1428 (d) 52 :1344 (e) 72 :1888
4. 24 : 13800
(a) 17 : 4723 (b) 18 : 5814 (c) 5 : 2121 (d) 9 : 2348 (e) 8 : 2298
5. 9 : 90
(a) 24 : 284 (b) 8 : 86 (c) 15 :115 (d) 13 : 182 (e) 5 : 68
6. 29 : 17576
(a) 18 : 6795 (b) 19 : 6859 (c) 3 : 832 (d) 14 : 5897 (e) 9 : 2823
7. 33 : 7
(a) 47 : 8 (b) 21 : 9 (c) 17 : 3 (d) 39 : 3 (e) 43 : 5
8. 13 : 164
(a) 14 : 480 (b) 15 : 220 (c) 16 : 681 (d) 17 : 718 (e) 18 : 795
9. 289 : 20
(a) 225 : 15 (b) 196 : 17 (c) 163 : 14 (d) 386 : 13 (e) 172 : 16
10. 28 : 4
(a) 48 : 2 (b) 38 : 6 (c) 78 : 12 (d) 58 : 8 (e) 68 : 10
11. 47 : 2209
(a) 53 : 1202 (b) 61 : 2613 (c) 49 : 2401 (d) 57 : 1663
12. 22 : 10648
(a) 24 : 19001 (b) 26 : 19248 (c) 27 : 19721 (d) 28 : 21952 (e) 29 : 18921
13. 69 : 8
(a) 24 : 3 (b) 25 : 4 (c) 26 : 5 (d) 27 : 6 (e) 28 : 70
14. 16 : 240
(a) 14 152 (b) 10 : 376 (c) 15 : 217 (d) 17 : 2461 (e) 18 : 306
15. 12 : 1716
(a) 13 : 1481 (b) 19 : 6840 (c) 18 : 6064 (d) 15 : 2461 (e) 17: 2032
16. 43 : 51
(a) 44 : 73 (b) 63 : 59 (c) 53 : 81 (d) 67 : 75 (e) 31 : 91
17. 29 : 846
(a) 25 : 495 (b) 28 : 679 (c) 23 : 534 (d) 31 : 786 (e) 24 : 402
18. 8 : 523
(a) 9 : 544 (b) 11 : 1233 (c) 14 : 1898 (d) 15 : 2094 (e) 12: 1739
19. 16 : 4 : : 64 : ?
(a) 6 (b) 2 (c) 8 (d) 10 (e) 12
20. 361 : 19 : : 729 : ?
(a) 27 (b) 38 (c) 25 (d) 17 (e) 15
Answer
1. 2. 3. 4. 5. 6. 7. 8. 9. 10.
(e) (b) (c) (b) (d) (b) (c) (b) (b) (b)
11. 12. 13. 14. 15. 16. 17. 18. 19. 20.
(c) (d) (a) (e) (b) (d) (c) (e) (c) (a)
Explanation
1. x : x (x + 7) x :x (x + 7)
26: 26 (26 + 7), 19 : 19 (19 +7 )
26:858 19 :494
2. x : (5x + 9) x : (5x + 9)
6 :5 (6) + 9 9 : 5 (9) + 9
6 : 30 + 9, 9 : 45 + 9
6 : 39 9:54
3. x :x (x – 8) x :x (x – 8)]
38 : 38 (38 – 8) 40 : 40 (42 – 8)
38 : 38(30), 42 : 42 (34)

81
38 : 1140 42 : 1428
4. x : (x3 – x) x : (x3 – x)
24 : (13824 – 24) = 13800, 18 : 5832 – 18
24 : 13800 18 : 5814
5. x : (x2 + x) x:(x2 + x)
9 : 81 + 9 = 90, 13: (169 + 13)
9 : 90 13 : 182
6. x : x3 x : x3
3
26 : (26) 19 : (19)3
26 : 17576, 19: 6859
7. (4x + 5) :x (4 × 3) :3
4 × 7 + 5:7 (4 × 3 + 5) : 3
28 + 5 :7(12 + 5):3
33 :7 17 : 3
8. x : (x3 – 5) 15 : (225 – 5)
13 : (169 – 5) 15 : (220)
13 : 164, 15 : 220
9. x2 : (x + 3) x2 : (x + 3)
289 : (17 + 3) 196 : (14 + 3)
289 : 20, 196 : 17
10. (5x + 8) :x (5 × 4 + 8) : 4
(5 × 4 + 8) :4 (5 × 6 + 8) : 6
(20 + 8) :4 (30 + 8) :6
28 : 4 38 :6
11. x : x2 x : x2
(47) : (47)2 49: (49)2
47 : 2209, 49: 2401
12. x : x3 x : x3
22:(22)3 28: (28)3
22: 10648, 28:21952
13. (9x – 3) :x (9 × 3 – 3):3
(9 × 8 – 3) : 8 (27 – 3):3
69:8 24 : 3
14. x : (x2 – x) x : (x2 – x)
16 : (256 – 16) 18 : (324 – 18)
16 : (240), 18 : (306)
15. x : (x3 – x) x : (x3 – x)
12: (1728 – 12) 19 : (6859 – 19)
12 : 1716, 19 : 6840
16. x : (x + 8) x : (x + 8)
43 : (43 + 8) 67 : (67 + 8)
43: 51, 67 : 75
17. x : x2 + 5 x :x2 + 5
29:841 + 5 23 : 529 + 5
29 : 846, 23 : 534
18. x : x3 + 11 x : x3 + 11
8: (512 + 11) 12 :(1728 + 11)
8 :523, 12 : 1739
19. Relationship of square root
20. Relationship of square root
Classification/Common Properties
Direction: In each of the following questions, three is a certain relation between two given numbers on one side of :: and one
number is given number on another side of :: while another is to be found from the given alternative, having the same
relation with this number of the given pair BEAR. Choose the best alternative.

82
1. (482,496, 526)
(a) (296, 310, 480) (b) (890, 748, 923) (c) (543, 689, 799)
(d) (442, 182, 290) (e) (334, 348, 378)
2. (454, 463, 492)
(a) (358., 362, 394) (b) (256, 265, 29994) (c) (6256, 637, 648)
(d) (878, 882, 891) (e) (468, 598, 601)
3. (247, 251, 263)
(a) (323,331,344) (b) (721, 723, 811) (c) (743, 763, 794)
(d) (874, 842, 231) (e) (594, 553, 565)
4. (64, 81, 144)

(a) (789, 491, 68) (b) (256, 224, 361) (c) (464, 467, 4840)
(d) (21, 34, 14) (e) (420, 435, 445)
5. (36, 54, 72)
(a) (25, 45, 56) (b) (34, 68, 740 (c) (30, 42, 93)
(d) (28, 42, 56) (e) (51, 62, 88)
6. (7, 5, 12)
(a) (3, 5, 7) (b) (6, 3, 15) (c) (11, 13, 17)
(d) (5, 11, 19) (e) (6, 9, 12)
7. (24, 2, 9,)
(a) (12, 15, 17) (b) (48, 9, 11) (c) (11,36,9)
(d) (16, 13, 9) (e) (15, 9, 21)
8. (361, 121, 241)
(a) (40, 72, 88) (b) (256, 320, 499) (c) (30, 41, 45)
(d) (51, 63, 72) (e) (253, 123, 188)
9. (143, 152, 273)
(a) (76, 85, 206) (b) (64, 42, 50) (c) (129, 1469, 273)
(d) (9, 25, 49) (e) (245, 272, 275)
10. ( 9, 7, 16)
(a) (18, 4, 9) (b) (12, 4, 13) (c) (10, 8, 14)
(d) (2, 8, 10) (e) (4, 5, 12)
11. (255, 149, 202)
(a) (325, 485, 480) (b) (120, 128, 88) (c) (131, 133, 132)
(d) (20, 40, 80) (e) (95, 45, 105)
12. (242, 492, 386)
(a) (841, 784,61) (b) (36, 25, 64) (c) (49, 81, 100)
(d) (265, 169, 121) (e) (214, 288, 296)
13. (121, 237, 443)
(a) (17, 19, 21) (b) (19, 20, 21) (c) (41, 45, 48)
(d) (30, 39, 41) (e) (33, 34, 37)
14. ( 438, 582, 672)
(a) (4, 5, 10) (b) (15, 20, 22) (c) (24, 28, 30)
(d) (497, 84, 81) (e) (10, 13, 17)
15. (325, 249, 533)
(a) (624, 635, 2) (b) (25, 86, 97) (c) (30, 81, 96)
(d) (9, 10, 11) (e) (499, 333, 555)
16. ( 841, 576, 324)
(a) (900, 826, 721) (b) (484, 676, 784) (c) (873, 841, 874)
(d) (15, 27, 10) (e) (678, 625, 789)
17. (196, 81, 289)
(a) (40, 75, 82) (b) (216, 320, 642) (c) (529, 361, 256)
(d) (272, 499, 472) (e) (216, 317, 266)
18. (1728, 3375, 4913)
(a) (4671, 5772, 2429) (b) (30, 461, 499) (c) (143, 486, 552)
(d) (216, 320, 242) (e) (5832, 9261, 6859)

83
19. (118, 13, 15)

(a) (128, 12, 10) (b) (126, 28, 14) (c) (211, 172, 63)
(d) (115, 15, 9) (e) (251, 120, 24)
20. (329, 441, 361)
(a) (264, 420, 1470) (b) (441, 256, 348) (c) (556, 491, 419)
(d) (125, 226, 337) (e) (81, 35, 49)
Answer Key
1. 2. 3. 4. 5. 6. 7. 8. 9. 10.
(e) (b) (e) (b) (d) (b) (e) (e) (a) (c)
11. 12. 13. 14. 15. 16. 17. 18. 19. 20.
(c) (e) (a) (c) (e) (b) (c) (e) (b) (e)
Explanation
1. 482 + 14 = 496 + 30 = 526,
334 + 14 = 348 + 30 = 378
2. 4534 + 9 = 463 + 29 = 492,
256 + 98 = 265 + 29 = 294
3. 247 + 4 = 251 + 12 = 263,
549 + 4 = 553 + 12 = 565
4. (8)2 = 64, (9)2 = 81, (21)2 = 441,
(16)2 = 256, (18)2 = 324, (19)2 = 361
5. 9 × 4 = 36, 9 × 6 = 54, 9 × 8 = 72
7 × 4 = 28, 7 × 6 = 42, 7 × 8 = 56
6. 7 + 5 + 12 = 24
6 + 3 + 15 = 24
7. 24 + 2 + 19 = 45
15 + 9 + 21 = 45
482
8. 361 + 121 = = 241
2
376
253 + 123 = = 188
2
9. 143 + 9 = 152 + 121 = 273,
76 + 9 = 85 + 121 = 206
10. 9 + 7 + 16 = 32
10 + 8 + 14 = 32
404
11. 255 + 149 = = 202
2
264
131 + 133 = = 131
2
12. All numbers are even.
13. All numbers are odd numbers.
14. All numbers are even numbers.
15. All numbers are odd.
15. All numbers are odd.
16. (29)2, (24)2, (18)2, (22)2, (26)2, (28)2
(841, 576,324), (484, 676, 784)
17. (142, 92, 172), (232, 192, 162)
(196, 81,289), (529, 361, 256)
18. (12)3, (15)3, (17)3, (183, 213, 193)
(1728, 3375, 4913), (5832, 361, 256)
19. 15 × 7 = 105 + 13 = 118
14 × 7 = 98 + 28 = 126
20. All numbers are odd numbers.
Venn Diagram
Direction (Q. Nos. 1 – 5): Read the following information carefully and answer the questions based on them.

84
Them circle represents poor boys, the square represents education boys, the triangle represents the boys who are employed
somewhere and the rectangle represents those who help in the family business. each section of the diagram is numbered.
Now answer the questions given below on the basis if this diagram.
1. Which number represents those poor boys who help in family business but are not education or employed elsewhere?
(a) 2 (b) 3 (c) 4 (d) 5 (e) 7
2. Which number represents the group of education poor who are employed somewhere but do not help in family
business?
(a) 12 (b) 3 (c) 11 (d) 2 (e) None of three
3. Which section does number 3represent?
(a) Uneducated poor boys who do not help in family business
(b) Education poor boys employed in service
(c) Uneducated boys who help in family business
(d) Educated poor boys who help in family business
(e) None of the above
4. Which number represents that section of poor boys who are neither education nor are in any employment or have any
family business?
(a) 4 (b) 5 (c) 1 (d) 11 (e) 12
5. Boys who are neither educated nor poor but have employment as well as a family business are represented by the
number?
(a) 8 (b) 7 (c) 4 (d) 6 (e) 5
1. (d) Number 5 represetns those poor boys who are helping in family business but are not educated or employed.
2. (e) That number should occupy the space whihch is common to the figures – circle, square and triangle only.
3. (d) That number should occupy the space common to circle, square and rectangle, 3 is that number which represents educated
poor boys who help in family business.
4. (e) Number 12 lies on that portion of the circle, which is not common to any other figure.
5. (b) that number should occupy the space which is common to triangle and rectangle only. 7 is that number which represents
employed boys enganges in family business.
Matrix
tnlbOPsf d]l6«S;df lglZrt lgod klxNofO{ 5'6]sf ;ª\Vof eg'{xf];\ .
1. 6 6 8 2. 26 18 10
5 7 5 11 9 7
4 3 ? 5 4 1
120 126 320 10 5 ?
(a) 4 (b) 8 (a) 2 (b) 4
(c) 12 (d) 16 (c) 5 (d) 6
3. 2 4 ? 4. 1 4 9 ?
4 2 5 1 2 3 4
2 2 3 2 4 6 ?
9 64 169
(a) 3 (b) 4 (a) 16,8 (b) 25,5
(c) 5 (d) 6 (c) 36,4 (d) 49,7

85
5. 5 5 2 6. 28 60 48
2 4 1 5 6 7
8 3 10 14 39 27
40 30 ? 7 ? 15
(a) 10 (b) 12 (a) 18 (b) 23
(c) 13 (d) 20 (c) 24 (d) 27
7. 5 6 9 4 5 6
6 3 ? 2 3 7
7 2 4 1 8 3
65 20 45 21 98 ?
(a) 1 (b) 2 (a) 94 (b) 76
(c) 3 (d) 4 (c) 73 (d) 16
9. 5 6 7 10. 13 12 5
3 4 5 17 15 8
9 10 11 25 24 ?
345 460 ? 29 21 20
(a) 535 (b) 577 (a) 7 (b) 9
(c) 755 (d) 775 (c) 11 (d) 15
11. 3 6 8 12. 6 9 15
5 8 4 8 12 20
4 7 ? 4 6 ?
(a) 6 (b) 7 (a) 5 (b) 10
(c) 8 (d) 9 (c) 15 (d) 21
13. 9 36 25 14. 5 9 8 7
4 16 4 8 6 9 10
1 9 4 7 13 ? 19
6 13 ? 5 7 8 9
(a) 5 (b) 10 (a) 9 (b) 10
(c) 11 (d) 15 (c) 12 (d) 15
15. 6 11 25 16. 13 54 ?
8 6 16 7 45 32
12 5 ? 27 133 68
(a) 18 (b) 16 (a) 42 (b) 36
(c) 12 (d) 10 (c) 6 (d) 4
17. 2 4 0 18. 6 15 20
1 2 4 8 4 5
3 1 3 3 5 20
36 ? 91 51 65 ?
(a) 25 (b) 48 (a) 12 (b) 51
(c) 59 (d) 73 (c) 56 (d) 120

86
19. 51 11 61 20. 72 24 6
64 30 32 96 16 12
35 ? 43 108 ? 18
(a) 25 (b) 48 (a) 12 (b) 16
(c) 59 (d) 73 (c) 18 (d) 20
21. 28 20 7 22. ? 13 49
84 35 12 9 17 69
45 ? 9 13 11 59
(a) 15 (b) 18 (a) 5 (b) 9
(c) 10 (d) 25 (c) 10 (d) 21
23. 11 6 8 24. 3 2 2
17 12 ? 6 20 4
25 34 19 12 25 64
19 28 11 6 10 ?
(a) 9 (b) 13 (a) 6 (b) 8
(c) 15 (d) 16 (c) 10 (d) 12
25. 2 5 10 26. 16 210 14

17 ? 37 14 156 12
50 65 82 12 ? 10
(a) 20 (b) 26 (a) 90 (b) 100
(c) 27 (d) 32 (c) 110 (d) 120
27. 2 2 256 28. 23 529 1024

3 2 ? 21 441 144
4 2 46656 19 361 ?
(a) 2765 (b) 3125 (a) 1441 (b) 3529
(c) 8796 (d) 3008 (c) 8281 (d) 9361
29. 1 3 7 30. 7 4 5
5 12 14 8 7 6
25 ? 28 3 3 ?
125 192 56 29 19 31
(a) 64 (b) 56 (a) 3 (b) 4
(c) 48 (d) 40 (c) 5 (d) 6
31. A D H 32. A D G
F I M D I N
? N R I P ?
(a) K (b) N (a) V (b) W
(c) O (d) P (c) X (d) Y
33. Z ? S 34. F W O
R O ? A J K
? G C E M ?
(a) WJK (b) KWT (a) N (b) X

87
(c) WKJ (d) JKW (c) D (d) P
35. H K Q
C G O
E J ?
(a) T (b) P
(c) N (d) L
1. (b) 8 R1 × R2 × R3 – R4
2. (a) 2 R1 × R2 × R3 – R4
3. (c)5 (R1 × R2 × R)2 – R4
4. (a) (R1 × R2 )× R2 – R3
16,8
5. (a) R1 × R2 × R3
10 – R4
2
6. (c) (C3 – C1) 3 = C2
24
7. (a) 1 (R1 + R3) R1 – R4
8. (a) R12 + R22 + R32 – R4
94
9. (b) R2 × 100 + R1 × R3 – R4
577
10. (a) 7 C12 – C23 + C32
11. (a) 6 R1 + R2
– R3
2
12. (b) C1 + C2 – C3
10
13. (b) R1 + R2 + R3 – R4
10
14. (d) R1 + R2 + R3
15 – R4
4
15. (b) C1 – 2 + 2C2 – C3
16
16. (d) 4 R1 + 2R2 – R3
17. (d) R13 + R23 + R33 – R4
73
18. (d) R1 ×R2 + R3 – R4
120
19. (a) C1 (x × y) + C2 (X ×y) – C3
27
20. (a) C2 × C3
12 – C1
2
21. (d) C1 – C2 – 4 × C3
25
22. (a) 5 2C1 + 3,C2 – C3
23. (c) R1 + R2 – R3 + R43
15
24. (b) 8 R1 × R2 × R3 – R43
25. (b) 42 + 1, 52 + 1, 62 + 1 C1 (n2 + 1).....
26
26. (c) C1 – C2 = C3 + 1
110
27. (b) (C1 + C2) C1 + C2 – C3
3125

88
28. (c) C3 – C1 (yx)2, C2 – C12

8281
29. (c) R2 – R1 × R3 – R4
48
30. (c) 5 R1 × R3 + R2 – R4
31. (a) C2 – C1 – 3, C3 – C2 – 4
K
32. (b) 1 + 7 – p, p + 7 – w
w
33. (c) C2 – C1 – 4, C3 – C2 – 3
WKJ
34. (e) d R1 – R1 + R3 (F – 6, A – 1, E – 5)
35. (a) T E – 5 J – 10 – T
Missing Characters
1.
2 6 5 8
2 ?
14 5 28 9
(a) 4 (b) 5 (c) 2 (d) 9

2.
6 4 10 ? 14
4 5
2 2 6 6 3 9
8 4
10 8 14 14 13
(a) 8 (b) 14 (c) 16 (d) 15

3.
1 25
314 ?
9 16 4 9
(a) 125 (b) 259 (c) 253 (d) 925

4.
24 3
7 ?
(a) 4 (b) 6 (c) 5 (d) 8
5.
4 10 8 10
3 2
7 12 ? 16
(a) 12 (b) 10 (c) 16 (d) 8

6.

89
7 9
4 3 5 4
9 40 39 ?
5 7 8 9
24 17
(a) 55 (b) 65 (c) 75 (d) 85
7.
121
?
9 36
(a) 316 (b) 311 (c) 916 (d) 3116

8.
10 18 ? 14
2 7
5 2 5 2
4 8
20 36 40 16
(a) 12 (b) 14 (c) 35 (d) 20
9.
? 6
4320 6
720 12
144 36
(a) 34632 (b) 31242 (c) 30240 (d) 39456
(e) 35782
10.
8 9 7 6 2 3
90 ? 12
5 4 8
(a) 22 (b) 32 (c) 42 (d) 52
(e) 62
11.
37 23 59 13 23 25
? 12 8
(a) 8 (b) 10 (c) 12 (d) 14
(e) 16
12.
5 16 23
7 6 12 20 32 12 22 ? 12
18 17 14

90
(a) 50 (b) 52 (c) 54 (d) 56

(e) 58
13.
17 ? 72
25 41 58
14 17 23 41 8 9
23 22 31
(a) 10 (b) 11 (c) 12 (d) 13
(e) 14
14.
3 4 5
7 5 8
3 9 7
18 41 ?
(a) 50 (b) 52 (c) 54 (d) 56

(e) 58
15.
2 5 6
4 24 10 4 –11 6 9 ? 11
8 7 8
(a) 42 (b) 48 (c) 51 (d) 58
(e) 63
16.
189 136 105
? 180 129
259 226 155
297 274 183
(i) (ii) (iii)
(a) 122 (b) 222 (c) 223 (d) 225
17.
25
214 62
?
(a) 120 (b) 121 (c) 122 (d) 123
(e) 124
18.
7
19
487 55
?
(a) 168 (b) 163 (c) 160 (d) 171

(e) 175
19.
14
17 ? 3
3
(a) 7 (b) 9 (c) 11 (d) 13

91
(e) 15
20.
13
63
?
49
37 27
(a) 18 (b) 19 (c) 20 (d) 21

(e) 22
21.
5E 6F 7G
16P 15O ?
11K 9I 12L
(a) 17 Q (b) I9 (c) 19 S (d) M 13

(e) 3C
22.
X|N
10
Q O
H 9 5 J
?
W|M
(a) 7 (b) 8 (c) 9 (d) 10

(e) 11
23.
6 4 5 2 4 2
M24 J 21 H12
2 3 1 8 2 x
(a) 1 (b) 2 (c) 3 (d) 4

(e) 5
1. (c) (C × E) – (A × E) = B
A B (C × E) + (A × E) = D
E
D C
2. (a) x=A+B
x 4 y
B y=B+C
AA C C z=C+D
D
w D z w=D+A

92
3. (c) x= B
A
xyz y= A
B C
z= C
4. (b) The rule applied pattern figure is C2 – (A – B) = X
A X B
C
5. (d) x = D/A and B – X = C
AB
X
C D
6. (b) A A = Q 2 – P 2;
Q P B = P2 – R2; C = S2 – R2;
D B
S R D = Q 2 – S2
C
7. (d) A x= B
x= A
xyz
z= C
B C
8. (c) P Q P=A×D
A
D B Q=A×B
C
S R R=B×C
S=C×D
9. (c) By moving clockwise, we follow the following patter:
6×1=6 6 × 2 = 12
12 × 3 = 36 36 × 4 = 144
144 × 5 – 720 720 × 6 = 4320
4320 × 7 = 30240
10. (c) We have
8 × 9 × 5 360
= = = 90
4 4
7 × 6 × 4 48
= = = 42
4 4
2 × 3 × 8 48
= = = 42
4 4
11. (b) 37 + 23 60
= = 10
6 6
59 + 13 72
= = 12
6 6
23 + 25 48
= =8
6 6
12. (e) (5 × 18) – (7 × 12) = (90 – 84) = 6
(16 × 17) – (20 × 12) = (272 – 240) = 32
(23 × 14) – (22 × 12) = (322 – 264) = 58
13. (b) (25 + 23) – (14 + 17) = (48 – 31) = 17
(33 + 41) – (41 + 22) = (74 – 63) = 11
(58 + 31) – (8 + 9) = (89 – 17) = 72

93
14. (a) In first column: (7 × 3) – 3 = (21 – 3) = 18

In second column: (5 × 9) – 4 = (45 – 4) = 41
So missing number = (8 × 7) – 6 = (56 – 6) = 50
15. (c) (4 × 10) – (2 × 8) = (40 – 16) = 24
(4 × 6) – (5 × 7) = (24 – 35) = –11
(9 × 11) – (6 × 8) = (99 – 48) = 51
16. (c) Adding a number i.e., increased by 2 to the previous number
(i) 189, 224 + 34 = 223, 223 + 36 = 259
259 + 38 = 297
(ii) 136 + 44 = 180, 180 + 46 = 226
226 + 48 = 274
(iii) 105 + 24 = 129, 129 + 26 = 155
155 + 28 = 183
17. (d) Moving clockwise
(33) – 2 (27 – 2) = 25
(43) – 2 (64 – 2) = 62
(53) – 2 (125 – 2) = 123
(63) – 2 (216 – 2) = 214
18. (b) Moving clockwise
3×3–2=7
7 × 3 – 2 = 19
19 × 3 – 2 = 55
55 × 3 – 2 = 163
163 × 3 – 2 = 487
487 × 3 – 2 = 1459
19. (b) (17 × 3) – (14 × 3)
(51 – 42) = 9
So the missing number is 9.
20. (b) Moving clockwise
9 + (23) = 9 + 4 = 13
10 + (32) = 10 + 9 = 19
11 + (42) = 11 + 16 = 27
12 + (52) = 12 + 25 = 37
13 + (62) = 13 + 36 = 49
14 + (72) = 14 + 49 = 63
21. (c) (i) In three columns numbers and alphabets are given according to these position in column (i) we
add 5 and 11 = 16
So, alphabet in 16th position is P' 16 P
Similarly in column (II)
Similarly in column (III) 7 + 12 = 19
Alphabet in 19th position is S
Hence 19 S
22. (d) Position of X and N is 24 and 14 respectively by subtracting 24 – 14 = 10
Similarly, O and J, 15 – 10 = 5
Similarly, position of W and M is 23 and 13, so by subtracting 23 – 13 = 10 respectively
Hence answer is 10
23. (b) (6 × 2) + (4 × 3) = 12 + 12 = 24
(5 × 1) + (2 × 8) = 5 + 16 = 21
(4 × 2) + (2 × x) = 8 + 2x = 12
2x = 4
x=2

94
MENTAL ABILITY
Mental Ability
1. The average age of 10 students is 15 years if the age of a teacher is included their average becomes 18 years, What is
the age of the teacher?
2. Radha was 20 years old when her first son was born. If product of their ages now is 189. Find the present ages of
Radha and her son?
(a) 21 & 6 (b) 22 & 5 (c) 27 & 7 (d) 23 & 4
3. A watch loses x minutes in every Y hours. At this rate how many will the watch lose in one week?
5x 15x 14x 16x
(a) (b) (c) (d)
14y 14y 5y 17y
4. What is a two digits number whose square root is equal to the sum of its digits?
(a) 64 (b) 81 (c) 49 (d) 36
5. The sides of a rectangle are whole numbers. What must be their length and breadth for the perimeter and area to be
numerically equal?
(a) 4 & 4 (b) 6 & 3 (c) either 4 & 4 or 6 & 3 (d) None
6. On a bicycle race in the first stage I rode half of the overall distance. Stage two, I cycled half of the remaining distance
plus 20 meters. Stage three, I covered three quarters of the remaining distance. Stage four, I completed one third of
the remaining distance plus 20 meters, Stage five I completed with 10 m. How far did bicycled in total?
(a) 900m (b) 800m (c) 600m (d) 200m
7. A man buys 5 cigarettes a day and use them for 25 days. He keeps the stubs. For each 5 stubs he makes a new
cigarette once. How many does he smoke during this period?
(a) 156 (b) 157 (c) 166 (d) 176
8. 12 people carry 12 loaves of bread each man carries two loaves each women carries a half and each child holds a
quarter. How many men, women and children are there?
(a) 5, 1, 6, (b) 7, 2, 3 (c) 4, 4,4 (d) 6, 1, 8
9. We have to find the house of my friends Chun and Buddhi who live in the different house in Algebra Avenue. I can't
remember their house number but I remember that they are the reverse of each other sum of their house number is a
perfect square and their different is a perfect cube. Chum lives in the smaller house number what is the house number
of Buddhi.
(a) 36 & 63 (b)56 & 65 (c) 34 & 43 (d) 47 & 74
10. Baikuntha set out in the marathon race travels at 4.9 kilometer per hour. Rajendra sets out on this track 3 hours
later. He travels 10 kilometer in the first hour, 9 kilometers in the second hour, 8 kilometers in third and so on the
race is 49 kilometers long, who is the winner and by how long?
(a) Rajendra 14.7 km (b) Baikuntha 14 (c) Rajendra 10 km (d) Baikuntha 15 km
11. If you reveres the digits in Ganga's you will get Laxmi's age the sum of their ages equals 11 times the difference
between them. Ganga is older than Laxmi. What are their ages?
(a) 32 & 23 (b) 54 & 45 (c) 12 &21 (d) 43 & 34
12. Among 4 brother s in a family Ram is older than Hari but Hari is younger than shyam also Shyam is younger than
Mahesh tell the youngest brother?
(a) Ram (b) Hair (c) Shyam (d) Mahesh
13. A circular track is 1000 yards in circumference. Cyclists, A, B, and C start at the same place and time and race
around the track at the following rates per minute: A at 700 yards, B at 800 yards and C at 900 yards. What is the
least number of minutes it must take for all three to be together again?
(a) 11m in (b) 10 min (c) 14 min (d) 15 min
14. What is the sum of the series?
1 1 1 1
1+ + + + + ..........
2 4 8 16
(a) 3 (b) 2 (c) 4 (d) 5
15. Janak's average mark after 8 result was 54. This dropped to 49 when he received his ninth result, which was Math,
what was his Math marks?
(a) 278 (b) 9 (c) 18 (d) 36

95
16. If the length of the sides of a triangle are 2m, m2 – 1 and m2 + 1 what type of triangle is it?
(a) Equilateral triangle (b) Isosceles triangle
(c) Right angled triangle (d) Scalene triangle
17. What is the area of given sector?
OA = 7 cm
AB = 7 cm
(a) 25cm2 (b) 26cm2 (c) 27cm2 (d) 24.5 cm2

18. If today is day what is yesterday's day after tomorrow?
(a) Friday (b) Tuesday (c) Saturday(d) Sunday
19. Kamala's house is mile away from Rupa's house. Both of them begin jogging towards the other one's house. Rupa jogs
at 5 miles an hour while kamala jogs at 6 miles an hour. After 6 minute who is the closest to Ruppa's house?
(a) Kamala (b) Rupa (c) Equal (d) None
20. The length of the diagonal of square is equal to the length of a median of an equilateral triangle. What is the ratio of
their areas?
(a) 1:2 (b) 3:2 (c) 2: 1 (d) 3 :2
21. Ina party everyone shook hand with each other at once and there were altogether 351 handshakes. How many people
were there?
(a) 28 (b) 27 (c) 29 (d) 30
22. How much is 'a percent of b divides by b percent of a?
(a) 1 (b) 2 (c) 3 (d) 4
23. What is the number which multiplied by its square gives 729?
(a) 3 (b) 6 (c) 9 (d) 12
24. Circle the odd man out. 49, 27, 14, 63, 84, 21, 35
(a) 14 (b) 63 (c) 49 (d) 27
25. 16 players enter a chess tournament. If there can be no draws how many games must be played to decide the winner,
if each player can be eliminated by one loss?
(a) 15 (b) 16 (c) 17 (d) 18
26. In a hutting camp there were dogs and men. If there were altogether 11 heads and 38 legs, how many dogs were
there?
(a) 11 dogs (b) 7 dogs (c) 8 dogs (d) 10 dogs
27. There are two palm three one opposite the other on each side of river. One is 30 m high and the other is 20m. The
distance between the trees is 50 m. A birds is perched on the top of each tree. All of a sudden the birds see a fish come
to the surface of the river between the trees. They dive at the same time and reach the fish at the same time. Find the
distance between the foot of the taller tree and the fish?
(a) 31 m (b) 20m (c) 32m (d) 33m
28. 7200 is not a perfect square number. Find the least number by which it is divided so that the result will be a perfect
square ?
(a) 3 (b) 2 (c) 4 (d) 5
29. How many whole apples will be required for 100 children to have each child one third of an apple?
(a) 34 (b) 36 (c) 38 (d) 40
30. On Thursday, 20 of the 25 students in a chemistry class took a test and their average was 80. On Friday, the other 5
students took the test and their average was 90. What was the average for the entire class?
(a) 86 (b) 84 (c) 85 (d) 88
31. To what percent of 60 5 is 3% of 5 60 equal?
(a) 0.5% (b) 3% (c) 1% (d) 3%
32. Large fresh water reservoir has two types of drainage system, small pipes and large 6 large pipes on their own can
drain the reservoir in 12 hours. 3 Large pipes and k9 small pipes at the same time can drain the reservoir in 8 hours.
How long will 5 small pipes on their own take to drain the reservoir?
(a) 21.6 hrs (b) 20 hrs (c) 24 hrs (d) 30 hrs

96
33. During a recent police investigation, chief inspector stone was interviewing give local villaind to try and identify who
stole Mrs. Sharma's cake from her kitchen. Below is the summary of their statements.
Arnold : It wasn't Edward.
It was Brain
Brain : It wasn't Charlie.
It wasn't Edward.
Charlie : It wasn't Edward
It wasn't Arnold.
Derek : It was Charlie
It wasn't Brain
Edward : It was Derek.
It wasn't Arnold.
If each of then told one lie who stole the cake?
(a) Arnold (b) Brain (c) Charlie (d) Derek
34. Willie is older than Donald, Susan is younger that Willie, but older than Jane, Tom is younger than Jane, but older
than Donald. Jane is older than Donald but younger than Susan. Tom is not youngest, Susan is not the oldest, Tom is
younger than Susan and Willie. Who is youngest?
(a) Susan (b) Jane (c) Tom (d) Donald
35. The product of the ages of 3 brothers is 175. Two are twins. How old is the other one? keep it in mind that ages are in
whole number?
(a) 7 (b) 8 (c) 9 (d) 14
36. In an exam there were questions. Out of first 20 questions. Amol answered 15 questions correctly. He answered
correctly one third of the remaining questions. If the marks for each questions is same and Amol scored 50% marks
what is the value of n?
(a) 40 (b) 50 (c) 60 (d) 70
37. If x is 20% more than that of z and y is 50% more than that of z what percent of y is x?
(a) 80% (b) 90% (c) 70% (d) 60%
38. Ashok moves 30m North and then turn to left and moves 40 m ahead. After that he turns to left and moves 30m
ahead. From that place he turn left again and moves 50m ahead and stops. How far is he from the starting point?
(a) 20m (b) 15m (c) 12m (d) 10m
39. Pramila remembers that the birth day of her father is in between 13th and 16th Manshir while her brother Prabin
remembers that the birth day of his father is in between 14th and 18th Manashir. Which date is his father's birth day?
(a) 20th Manshir (b) 10 th Manshir (c) 15th Manshir (d) 18th Manshir
40. How many seven (7) are there in the given sequence in which there is 5 before it but there is not 3 after it?
375745397857778971574375738
(a) 3 (b) 4 (c) 5 (d) 6
41. A lizard climbs up a wall by 8 meters in a day time and falls down 4m by night. How many days will it take to reach
the top of 32 meter tall wall?
(a) 7 days (b) 6 days (c) 5 days (d) 8 days
42. The position Raj is 7th from front and 20th from the last. Suman lies between Raj and the last student Pooja, what is
the position is Suman?
(a) 16 (b) 17 (c) 18 (d) 19
43. Sanjaya Thapa is a young captain of 29 years old. 9 years ago he was caddate and he was twice as old as the pradip.
What is the present age of Pradip?
44. Twenty children were sharing equally the cost of a present for their teacher. When 4 of the children decide not to
contribute each of the other children had to pay Rs. 1. 50 more. How much does the present cost?
(a) 100 (b) 120 (c) 150 (d) 80
45. There are 250 people lined up outside a theater Jiwan is the 25th person from the front and, Jill is the 125th person
from the front what is the number if people between Jiwan & Jill?
(a) 100 (b) 98 (c) 101 (d) 99
46. 60% of 60% of 600 = ?
(a) 36 (b) 216 (c) 600 (d) 60
47. If an object is moving at a speed of 36 kilometers per hour. How many meters does it travel in one second?
(a) 10 m (b) 15 m (c) 20 m (d) 30 m

97
2 3 3
48. On a certain French French American committee, of the members are men and of the men are Americans if of
3 8 5
the committee members are French, what fraction of the members are American men?
3 17 4
(a) (b) (c) (d) None
20 20 20
49. If the product of 4 consecutive integers is equal to of them, what is the largest possible value of one of the integers?
(a) 3 (b) 4 (c) 6 (d) 24
50. If 45% of the students as a college are male what is the ratio of male students of female students?
(a) 11 : 9 (b) 9 : 11 (c) 9 : 20 (d) 11 : 20
4
51. A jar contain only red, white and blue marbles. The number of red marbles is of the number of white ones, and the
5
3
number of white ones is of the number of blue ones. If there are 470 marbles in all, many of them are blue?
4
(a) 100 (b) 200 (c) 300 (d) 400
52. If it is now June, what mouth will it be 400 months from now?
(a) October (b) November (c) December (d) September
53. Nicole and Aviva bent hers into a square, which closed figure has more area?
(a) Circle (b) Square (c) Equal (d) None
54. There was a group of girls playing bicycles. They were riding in a line/ One the line there were 4 girls in front of girls
behind a girl in the middle. How many girls were there together?
(a) 5 girls (b) 6 girls (c) 7 girls (d) 8 girls
55. Jagat has Rs. 700. If the amount is the value of the coins of 25 paisa, 50 paisa and Rs. 1in equal number each find the
number of each coin?
(a) 200 (b) 400 (c) 500 (d) 600
56. In Kamal's family there are some brothers and sister. Each boy has equal number brothers and sister. Each girl has
the double number of brother than the sister. How many boys and girls are there?
(a) 4 boys and 3 girls (b) 3 boys and 4 girls (c) 5 boys and 4 girls (d) None
57. Tell a two digits numbers which is 3 times the sum of its digits.
(a) 27 (b) 36 (c) 54 (d) 18
58. A test tube full of bacteria doubles itself in every minute. If it was full in one hour, in what time was it half full?
(a) 30 minutes (b) 59 minutes (c) 58 minutes (d) None
1
59. In an objective teat 1 mark is awarded for each correct answer and marks is deducted for each wrong answer.
2
There were altogether 30 questions and a students scored 'O' marks. How many were correct and how many were
wrong answer there?
(a) 20 (b) 10 (c) 25 (d) 30
60. Now Ram is 30 years what was his age 10 years ago?
(a) 10 (b) 20 (c) 30 (d) None
61. A train moves with a speed of 108 kmph. Its speed in meters per second is:
(a) 10.8 (b) 18 (c) 30 (d) 38.8
62. A speed of 14 meters per second is the same as :
(a) 28km/ hr (b) 46.6 km/hr (c) 50.4 km/hr (d) 70km/hr
63. In what time will a train 100 meters long cross an electric pole, if its speed be 144 km/hr?
(a) 2.5 seconds (b) 4.25 seconds (c) 5 seconds (d) 12.5 seconds
64. A train 280 m long, running with a speed of 63 km/hr will pass a tree in:
(a) 15 sec (b) 16 sec (c) 18 sec (d) 20sec
65. How long does a train 110 meters long running at the speed of 72 km/hr take to cross a bridge 132 meters in length?
(a) 9.8 sec (b) 12.1 sec (c) 12.42 sec (d) 14.3 sec
66. A train 360 m long is running at a speed of 45 km/hr. In what time will it pass a bridge 140 m long?
(a) 40 sec (b) 42 sec (c) 45 sec (d) 48 sec

98
1 1
67. A train travelling at a speed of 75 mph enters a tunnel 3 miles long. The train is mile long. How long does it take
2 4
for the train to pass through the tunnel from the moment the front enters to the moment the rear emerges?
(a) 2.5 min (b) 3 min (c) 3.2 min (d) 3.5 min
68. A train running at , the speed of 60 km/hr crosses a pole in 9 seconds. What is the length of the train?
(a) 120 meters (b) 180 meters (c) 324 meters
(d) Cannot be determined (e) None of these
69. A train 132 m long passes a telegraph pole in 6 seconds. find the speed of the train.
(a) 70 km /hr (b) 72 km/hr (c) 79.2 km/hr (d) 80 km/hr
70. A train covers a distance of 12 km in 10 minutes. If it takes 6 seconds to pass a telegraph post, then the length of the
train is :
(a) 90 m (b) 100 m (c) 120 m (d) 140 m
S.N. Answer Solution
1. (a) 11 × 18 – 10 × 15
198 – 150
48
2. (c) Father = 27 27 × 7 = 189
Son = 7 27 – 7 = 20
3. (c) x
In y hr hr late
60
x
1 hr
60 y
x 14x
7 × 24 hr × 7 × 24 =
60 y 5y
4. (b) 81 = 8 + 1 = 92 = 81
5. (c) l + b = 4 × 4 = 16, p = 4l = 4 × 4 = 16
l + b = 6 × 3 = 18 p = 2 (l + b) = 2 (6 + 3) = 18
6. (b) 800 m = 400 + 220 + 135 + 35 + 10 = 800
7. (a) 25 × 5 = 125 + 25 = 150 + 5 = 155 + 1 = 156
8 (a) 1 1
5 × 2 = 10, 1 × , 6 ×
2 4
1 1
10 + + 1 = 12
2 2
9. (d) 47 + 74 = 121 = 112
74 – 47 = 27 = 32
10. (a) 4.9 × 10 = 49 km = 10 hours
10 + 9 + 8 + 7 + 6 + 5 + 4 = 49 = 7 hours
4.9 × 3 = 14.7 km Rajendra
11. (b) 54 & 45
54 + 45 = 99 which is (54 – 45) × 11 = 99
12. (b) Ram > Mahesh > Shyam > Hari
13. (b) 1000 m yard circumference
A at 700 yards = 10 × 700 =
7000 m
B at 800 yards = 10 × 800 =
8000 m
C at 900 yards = 10 × 900 =
9000 m
All are divisible by 1000 so
10 minutes.
14. (b) a=1
b 1 1
r= = =
a 2×1 2

99
1 1 1
Sn= = = =2
a–r 1 2–1
1–
2 2
15. (b) 9 × 49 – 8 × 54 = 441 – 432 = 9
16. (c) h2 = p2 + b2
or, (m2 + 1)2 = (2m)2 + (m2 – 1)2
or, m4 + 2m2 + 1 = 4m2 + m4 – 2m2 + 1
or, m4 + 2m2 + 1 = m4 + 2m2 + 1
17. (d) 1 1
Area of sectors = × l × r = × 7 × 7 = 24.5 m2
2 2
18. (c) Today (Friday)
Saturday
19. (a) Kamala 1 mile Rupa
20. (d) 3 2
Area of equilateral triangles = a
4
Area of Square = l2
21. (b) 27 × 26 n (n – 1)
= 351 =
2 2
22. (a) a
×b
100
=1
b
×a
100
23. (c) 9 × (81) = 729 = 9 × 92
24. (d) Which is not exacltly divisible by 7
25. (a) (n – 1) = 16 – 1 = 15
26. (c) 8 3 Heads = 11

× × Legs = 38
4 2
32 6
27. (b)  x=y
(202 + 302) = 302 + 202
 20 m
y
x 30
20
20
30 50 
28. (b) 7200 ÷ 2 = 3600 which is perfect squares. 
29. (a) 1
100 × = 33.33 that means 34.
3

100
30. (a) 20 × 80 + 5 × 90 1600 + 450 2150

= = = 86
25 25 25
31. (a) x 3
× 60 5 = × 5 60
100 100
3 × 60 × 5 × 5
x=
60 × 60 × 5
1 1
x= – = 0.5%
4 2
32. (a) 9 small pipes 12 hrs
1 small pipes 12 × 9 hrs
12 × 9 108
5 small pipes = = 21.6 hrs
5 5
33. (d) Derek whose witness are less than others.
34. (d) W>S>J>T>D So Donald is the youngest
35. (a) 5 175
5 35 =5×5×7
7
36. (c) 60 – 15 = 45 Which is divisible by 3.
37. (a) z = 100 z = 100
120
x = 120 y = 150 %y= × 100 = 80%
150
38. (d) 40 m
30 m
30 m
10 m
39. (c) 15th mangsir is common birthday both of them.
40. (b) There are 4, 7s
41. (a) H – d 32 – 4 28
T= = = =7
A–d 8–4 4
42. (b)
43. (b) 29 – 9 = 20 =10 + 9 = 19
44. (b)
45. (d) 125 – 25 = 100 – 1 = 99
46. (b) 60 60
600 × × = 216
100 100
47. (a) 36 × 1000
36 km/hr = = 10 m
60 × 60
48. (a)
49. (a) 0 × 1 × 2 × 3 = 0 which is one of them largest number is 3.
50. (b) 45% 9
= = 9 : 11
55% 11
51. (b) 3x 3x 4 3x
Blue x White Red × =
4 4 5 5
3x 3x
 x+ + = 470
4 5
20x + 15x + 12x
= 470
20
47 x = 470 × 20
 x = 200

101
52. (a) 12 400 33

–36
40 June + 4 = October
–36
4
53. (a) Circle
54. (a) 5 girls
55. (b) 400 400 400
+ + = 700
4 2 1
56. (a) 4 boys 3 girls
I III boys = III girls
IIII boys = I II girls
57. (a) 2 + 7 = 9 × 3 = 27
58. (b)  60 59 
59 minutes  1

 1 
 2 
59. (a) Total Questions
0 marks
60. (b) (30 – 10) = 20
108 kmph = 108 ×
61. (c) 5
m /sec = 30 m/sec.
 18
14m/sec = 14 ×  km/hr '= 50.4 km/hr.
62. (c) 18
 5
Speed = 144 × 
63. (a) 5
m /sec = 40m/sec.
 18
Time taken =
100
 40  sec = 2.5 sec.
Speed = 63 ×  m/sec =
64. (b) 5 35
m/sec.
 18 2
Time taken = 280 ×  sec = 16 sec.
2
 35
Speed = 72 ×  m/ sec = 20 m/sec.
65. (b) 5
 18
Total distance covered = (110 + 132) m = 242m.
 Required time = 
242
 20  sec = 12.1 sec.
Speed = 45 ×  m/sec =
66. (a) 5 25
m/sec.
 18 2
Total distance covered = (360 + 140) m = 500 m.
 Required time = 500 ×  sec = 40 sec.
2
 25
Total distance covered =  +  miles =
67. (b) 7 1 15
miles.
2 4 4
 Time taken = 
15  1 1 
4 ×75 hrs = 20 hrs = 20× 60 min. =
3min.
Speed = 60 ×  m/sec =   m /sec.
68. (e) 5 50
 18 3
Length of the train = (Speed × Time) =  × 9 m = 150m.
50
3 

102
Speed = 
69. (c) 132  18
 6  m /sec = 22 × 5  km/hr = 79.2 km/hr.
Speed =  × 60
12
km/hr = 72 ×  m/sec = 20
70. (c) 5
10   18
m/sec
Length of the train = (speed × Time) = (20 × 6) m = 120 m.
Logical Reasoning
1. It is running night and day, 2. Without tongue, without an ear,
But it never runs away. I can speak, and sing, and hear.
3. It has four legs, either straight or bandy. 4. Never Planted, still it grows.
Though it cannot walk, it comes in quite handy. What's the answer, do you know?
5. Has no legs, but just for fun, 6. What goes on four legs in the first
It is always on the run. stage,
Two legs in the second stage
And three legs in the last stage ?
7. It runs and runs, 8. Forward I am heavy,
But it'll never run out. Backwards I am heavy,
Who knows Backwards I am not.
What I am talking about ? What am I ?
9. Though I am the third, I am called the second, 10. I am male. Add a letter
Though I am not old, I do not sound new. And I become female.
What am I? Add another letter, I become male
again.
Then add three more and I turn female
again.
11. Take away my first letter 12. My first is in FISH, but not in SNAIL,
and I am unchanged. My Second is in RABBIT, but not in
Take away my second letter, WHALE,
I am still unchanged. My third is in UP, but not in DOWN,
Who do you think I am ? My fourth is in TIARA, but not in
CROWN,
My fifth in TREE, you will plainly see,
The whole is a food for you and me.
13. What can you hold in your left hand but not in 14. What is impossible to hold for 10
your right hand? minutes, even though it hardly weighs
anything?
15. Any sensible person would prefer to clean and 16. If I have eight apples, in my right hand
wash a mirror then a window of the same size, and, what do I have?
when both are easily accessible. Why?
17. Name three consecutive days without naming 18. How many months in a year have 28
the words Monday, Tuesday, Wednesday, days?
Thursday ands Friday?
19. A young lady was asked her age. Pointing to her What is black when you buy it, red
daughter she said, 'I am just six times as old as when you use it, and grey when you
she is now. However, in 20 years, she will be throw it away?
just half the age that I will be then.' What is the
lady's age?
21. A boat has a ladder with six rungs, each rung is 22. There is one word in English language
one foot apart. The bottom rung is one foot from that is always pronounced incorrectly.
the water. The tide is rising at a rate of 12 What is it?
inches every 15 minutes. After one hour, how
many rung will be under water?

103
23. I come one times in New York, two times in 24. It is a five- letter word we come across
London but none in Kathmandu. Who am I ? fairly often in crowded places. It
sounds the same even when you
remove the last four letters from it.
What's the word?
25. Why didn't Fakhruddin Ali Ahmed run for a 26. You have three Flasks of 500ml
second term as President? capacity containing 420ml, 90 ml and
60ml of milk respectively. Your task is
to measure exactly 210 ml of milk by
transferring milk from flask to flak
only. In how many moves can you do
so?
27. The buses normally bear a notice at the back of 28. What goes up and never comes down?
seats saying, 'Reserved for Ladies.' During the
war, when Patriotic fervor was at its peak,
someone had removed seven of the letters to
leave behind a massage that was both apt and
cryptic. What do you think it was?
29. Add all the numbers from 1to 100 (1 + 2 +3 + 30. 2+2 comes to be the same as 2×2. can
………..+100) mentally and tell answer. you find a set of three different whose
numbers whose sum is equal to their
total when multiplied?
31. My double exceeds my half of two. What am I? 32. How much time is there between 21:47
today and 13 : 43 tomorrow?
33. What is more: centimeters in a Kilometer or 34. Which gives a higher result– adding up
seconds in a day? all the odd numbers between 1 and 20
inclusive, or all the even numbers?
35. If a man was born on February 29,1944, and 36. Which is higher– square of 27 or cube
was 55 in 2000, haw many birthdays did he of 9?
have?
37. What is 50% of 25% of 40% of 60% of 2000/ 38. 1 + 23 + 4 + 5 + 67= 100 is one why of
inserting plus signs in to 1234567 so
that the result up to 100. Find another
why.
Answer
1. A watch 2. Tape recorder 3. Chair
4. Hair 5. Ball 6. Man
7. Clock 8. Ton 9. 2nd hand watch
10. He 11. Postman 12. Fruit
13. Your right elbow 14. Your breath 15. It has only one size
16. Huge hands 17.Today,Yesterday, Tomorrow 18. 12
19. 20 20. Charcoal 21. None
22. Incorrect 23. O 24. Q
25. Because he is died. 26. Three 27. Serve or dies
28. Age 101 × 100 30. 1,2&3
29.
2
1 32. 15 hour & 56 min 33. cm
31. 1&
3
34. 110 35. 14 36. neither
37. 6 38. 1 + 2 + 37 + 56 + 7
Age
1. The age of farther is thrice of his son. If the sum of their ages is 48 yr. What is the age of father?
(a) 30 yrs (b) 32 yr (c) 36 yrs (d) 49 yr

104
2. Nikhil is 8 yr younger than his brother Rohan. How old will Rohan be when he is twice as old as Nikhil?
(a) 4 (b) 6 (c) 8 (d) 16

3. The age of Arvin's father is 4 times his son's age. If 5 yr ago, father's age was 7 times of the age of his son at that time,
then what is Arvind's father's present age?
(a) 84 yr (b) 70yr (c) 40 yr (d) 35 yr
4. Rahim and his uncle differ in their ages by 30 yr, After 7 yr. If the sum of their ages is 66, what will be the age of the
uncle?
(a) 51 yr (b) 48 yr (c) 39 yr (d) 41 yr
5. Five yr ago, the average age of P and Q was 15 yr. Now, average age of P, Q and R is 20 yr. What would be the age of
R after 10 yr?
(a)35 yr (b) 40 yr (c) 30 yr (d) 50 yr
6. A person's present age is two– fifth of the age of his mother. After 8 yr, he will be one – half of the age of his mother.
How old is the mother at present?
(a) 32 yr (b) 36 yr (c) 40 yr (d) 48 yr
7. Devendra is older by 4 yr to Rajendra. After 16 yr, Devendra will be thrice his present age Rajendra will be five
times, of his present age. How old would Rajendra be after 16 yr?
(a) 30 yr (b) 25 yr (c) 24 yr (d) 20 yr
8. Tarun's age is the cube of a whole number. It was square of another whole number 2 yr ago. How long he must wait
before his age is again the cube of a whole number?
(a) 2yr (b) 10 yr (c) 37 yr (d) 39 yr
9. Rajan is younger than his father by 20 yr. 5 yr ago his father was 3 times elder than him. Find the present age of his
father.
(a) 25 yr (b) 30 yr (c) 35 yr (d) 36 yr
10. It was shriam's and Sreedevi's 12th Wedding Anniversary. Shriam said, "When we got married, Sreedevi was 3/4th of
my age, but now she is 5 /6 of my age". What actually are their present ages?
(a) Shriram 38, Sreedevi 32 (b) Shriram 36. Dreedevi 30
(c) Shriram 30. Sreeddevi 24 (d) Shriram 40, Sreedevi 34
1. (c) Let age of son = x yr
Then, the age of father = 3x yr
Now, 3x + x = 48
4x = 48
x = 12
 Age of father = 3 × 12 = 36 yr
2. (d) Let age of Nikhil = x yr Then, age of Than = (x + 8) yr
According to the question, x + 8 = 2x
x=8
 Age of Rohan = 8 + 8 = 16 yr
3. (c) Let age of Arvind = x yr
According to the question,
(4x – 5) = 7 (x – 5)  4x – 5 = 7x – 35
 3x = 30  x = 10 yr
 Arvind's father's present age = 4 × 10 = 40 yr
4. (d) Let age of Rahim = x yr and age of Radim's uncle = y yr
According to the question,
y – x = 30
Now, after 7 yr (x + 7) + (y + y) = 66
x + y + 14 = 66
x +y = 52
On adding Eqs (i) and (ii) we get
2y = 82  y = 41 yr
So, the age of Rahim's uncle = 41 yr
5. (c) According to the question,
P + Q – 5 = 15  P + Q m= 20
 2  2

105
P+Q+R
P + Q = 40 and = 20
3
P + Q + R = 60
From Eqs. (i) and (ii)
R = 20 yr
 Age of R after 10 yr from now = 20 + 10 = 30 yr
6. (c) Let person's mother present age = x
2
 Person's present age = x yr
5
According to the question, After 8 yr,
1
(x + 8) =  + 8
2x
2 5 
x+8 2x + 40
= =
2 5
or, 5x + 40 = 4x + 80 , x = 40 yr
 Present age of present's mother = 40 yr
7. (d) Suppose Rajendra's age = x yr
and Devrdra's age = (x + 4) yr
Then, (x + 4) + 16 = 3 (x + 4)
x + 20 = 3x + 12
2x = 8  x = 4 yr
 Rajendra's age after 16 yr = x + 16 = 4 + 16 = 20 yr
8. (c) Letpresent age of Tarun = 27 yr
 Age of Tarun, 2 back = 27 – 2 = 25 yr
So, the cube of 4, next number to 3 is 64
 Required answer = 64 – 27 = 37 yr
9. (c) Let age of Rajan = x yr and age of his father = y yr According to the question,
x + 20 = y
Now, 5 yr ago 3 (x – 5) = (y – 5)
 3x - 15 = y – 5
 3x – y = 10 ......... (ii)
Ob putting the value of y from Eq. (i) Eq. (ii), we get
2x = 30
x = 15 yr
On pitting the value of x in Eq. (i), we get y = 35 yr
So, the age of Ragan's father = 35 yr
10. (b) Let present age of Shriram = x yr and present age of Sreedevi = y yr It was the 12th wedding anniversary of them
Then, according to the question. their age of twelve year back,
3
(x – 12) = y – 12
4
3x
= – 9 = y – 12
4
3x
= – y=–3
4
= 3x – 4y = – 12 ........... (i)
Now, their present age,
5x
= y  5x = 6y
6
5x – 6y = 0 ....... (ii)
On solving Eqs. (i) and (ii), we get
x = 36, y = 30
Hence, present age of Shiram = 36 yr and present age of Sreedevi = 30 yr
Blood Relationships
While attempting questions on blood relations, one should be clear of all the relating patterns that can exist between any two
individuals. These type of questions are given mainly to test one's relationship ability.

106
Very well known relations are:

Mother Grandmother Father Grand father
Son Grandson Daughter Granddaughter
Brother Brother-in –Law Sister Sister-in-Law
Niece Father –in-Law Nephew Mother-in –Law
Uncle Son-in-Law Aunt Daughter-in-Law
Husband Cousin wife
The pattern of some relationships which help in solving questions in these tests are:
Father's or Mother's Father – Grand father (Paternal of Maternal)
Father's or Mother – Grandmother (Paternal or Maternal)
Father's of Mother's son – Brother
Father's of Mother's Daughter – Sister
Father's Brother – Paternal Uncle
Father's Sister – Paternal Aunt
Mother's Brother – Maternal Uncle
Mother's Sister – Maternal Aunt
Uncle or Aunt's son or Daughter – Cousin
Son's Wife – Daughter-in – Law
Daughter's Husband – Son – in-Law
Husband's or Wife's Brother – Brother-in-Law
Husband's of Wife's Sister – Sister - in - Law
Sister's Husband – Brother-in-Law
Brother's Son – Nephew
Brother's Daughter – Niece
In each of the following questions keenly study the relationship mentioned between the persons, and then from the given
options select the right relationship as the answer.
1. 'A' is the father of 'B' and 'C', 'B' is the son of 'A' but 'C' is not the of 'A' what is 'C' s relation with 'A'?
(a) Daughter (b) Son (c) Niece (d) Nephew (e) None of these
2. A lady said, "The person standing there is my grandfather's only son's daughter". How is the lady related to the
standing person?
(a) Sister (b) Mother (c) Aunt (d) Cousin (e) None of these
3. Ravi is the brother of Amit's son' son. What is Amit's relation to Ravi?
(a) Cousin (b) Father (c) Grand gather (d) son (e) None of these
4. Mayank said, "My mother is the sister of Rajat's brother. " What is Rajat's relation with Mayank?
(a) Cousin (b) Maternal uncle (c) Uncle
(d) Brother-in-Law (e) None of these
5. Introducing Lily. Raghav said, "Her father is my mother's only son." How is Lily related to Raghav?
(a) Aunt (b) Daughter (c) Mother (d) Sister (e) None of these
6. Ajay is the brother of Vijay. Mili is the Sister of Ajay. Sanjay is the brother of Rahul and Mehul is the daughter of
Vijay. Who is Sanjay's Uncle?
(a) Rahul (b) Ajay (c) Mehul (d) Data inadequate
(e) None of these
7. Adity is Bhavi's brother, Bharat is Jayant's father. Ella is Bhavi's mother. Aditya and Jayant are brothers. What is
Ella's relationship with Bharat?
(a) Sister (b) Mother (c) Daughter (d) wife (e) None of these
8. A man introduced the boy coming with him as "He is son of the father of my wife's daughter". What relation did the
boy bear to the man?
(a) Son-in-Law (b) Son (c) Brother (d) Father (e) None of these
9. A and B are two brothers. C is sister of B, D is sister of E. E son of A. Who is D's uncle?
(a) D (b) E (c) B (d) C (e) None above
10. Varun said pointing towards Arun, "He is my sister's only brother's son". How is Arun related Varun?
(a) son (b) Bother (c) Nephew (d) Data insufficient
(e) None of these

107
(Father) Grand father

A
Father
(only son)
B C
(Son) (Daughter) Daughter Lady
'C' is not the son of 'A' but. 'A' is (standing person) (sister)
the father of 'C', so, 'C' is the Lady's grandfather's son is lady's
daughter of 'A', father and father's daughter will
only be lady's sister.
Amit (Mother) (Raja's) Raja
(sister) (brother)
Grandfather
Son
Mayank
Son Ravi Mayank's mother is the sister of
(brother) Rajat's brother. So Rajat also the
Amit's son's is Anit's grandson. brother of Mayank's mother.
Ravi is the brother of Amit's son. Relation lof the brother with his
so, Amit is also the grandfather sister's child's maternal. So Rajat is
of Ravi. Mayank's maternal uncle.
The relation is : 1.
Mother Error!
Son) 2. Sanjay
Raghav  Rahul
(Father) (brother)
Lily (Daughter) There are two sets of relationship
My mother's only son' means Information can given is incomplete
Raghav himself 'Her father means and relation can be established
Lily's father; i.e. Raghav and so, between the two sets.
Lily is Raghav's daughter.
The relationship chart based on The relationship chart based on

problem is: problem is:
Bharat Ella
(husband Man Man's
& wife)
wife
Aditya Bha
Jayant (brother) (brother)
Jayant and Adity are brothers. If Son (Boy) Daughter
Aditya is Bhavi's brother. If
Bharat is Jayant's Father then
Father of the man's wife's daughter
Jayant is also father, then he is
is the man himself and the boy in
also the father of Aditya and
question is the man's son.
Bhavi. If Ella is Bhavi's mother,
then she is also mother of Aditya
and Jayant. This means Bharat
and Ella are husband and wife
and the parents of three.

108
The relationship chart based on Varun (sister)

the problem is: (only brother)
A B C
(brother) (sister)
Arun
(son)
E D Varun's sister's only brother is
(sister) Varum himself and Arun is his son.
When D is sister of E, who is son
of A then D is daughter of A.
Brother of A is B and so, B is D's
uncle.
Clock and Calendar
Clock and calendar are the basic instruments that are being used to measure time in different units.
Clock
A clock is a circular/square shaped instrument used to
view/measure time in hours, minutes and seconds.
Measurement of times is an important aspect of out daily life. It helps us
to prepare our schedule and work in an orderly manner. There are,
mainly, four important parts of a clock – Dial, Hour hand, Minute
hand and Second hand,
The Dial
The dial of a clock is circular one, whose circumference is divided
into 12 parts (12 equal big divisilons) labeled as 1, 2, 3, 4, ........ and 12. The space between every pair of two numbers is
divided in 5 equal small divisions.
Thus, the dial is divided into 60 small divisions. The clock has two hands. one is longer (minute hand) and another is
shorter is shorter (hour hand).
Minute hand
The longer hand of the clock is known as minute hand. The minute hand moves from one small division to the next small
division in 1 min.
The minute hand goes once round the dial in 1 h. Thus, the minute hand covers 60 small division in 1 h.
60 min = An hour
30min = Half an hour
15 min = Quarter of an hour
Hour hand
The shorter hand of the clock is known as hour hand. The hour hand moves from one number to the next number in 1 h. The
hour hand takes 12 h to complete one round. Also, it takes 2 full rounds of the clock an a day. Its movement is also in a
clockwise direction.
1 day = 24 h
Second hand we may come across some clocks or watches which have three hands. The third hand which is very thin and is
called the second hand.
The second's hand makes full round in 1 min and the time in which it moves between two successive small divisions is called
1 sec.
60 s = 1 min
Use of AM and PM
When both the hands of a clock are at 12. The time is 12 )' clock. It may be in noon or at midnight. If it is in the noon, we say
that the time is 12 noon. If it is at midnight, we say that the time is 12 midnight.
A day begins at 12 midnight and ends at 12 midnight on the next day. Time between 12 midnight and 12 noon is denoted by AM,
where AM stands for Ante- Meridian.
Thus, 4 AM refers to 4 o'clock in the morning. Time between 12 noon and 12 midnight is denoted by PM. where PM stands
for post-Meridian. Thus, 4 PM refers to 4 o'clock in the evening.
Types of Clocks

109
We generally use 12 h clocks. The face of these clocks is marked with numbers from 1 to 12 and the hour hand of the clock
goes round the dial (face) twice a day (in 24 h).
But Raiways, lines tine tables, Air lines time tables, shipping lines, Defance forces and Television networks, etc do not use
12 h clock time. Instead they use 24 h clock time. Digital watches also show 24 h clock time. A 24 h clock dial may be
visualised as the one given below.
18 . 28
The use of 24 h clock time is very useful. time is expressed by four digits. The first two digits on the left denote hours while
the right two digits denote minutes. The day stares at 12 midnight and is written as 00000h. Hance, the time in this clock type
of is expressed as 12 o'clock midnight is written as 2400 h or 0000 h.
3: 00 am is written as 0300 h.
11:00 am written as 1100h.
2: 00 pm is written as 1400 h.
Fast and slow
If a watch or a clock indicates 6 :15, when the correct time is 6, it is said to be 15 min fast. On the other hand, if it indicates
5 :45, when the correct time is 6, it is said to be 15 min slow.
Important Points
 in 60 min, the minute hand gains 55 min on the hour hand
 In every hour, both the hands coincide once.
 The hands are in the same straight line when they are coincident or opposite to each other.
 When the two hands are at right angles (90°) they are 15 min space apart.
 When the hands are in opposite directions, they are 30 min space apart.
 Angle traced by hour hand in 12 h = 360°
 Angle traced by minute hand in 60 min = 360°
 Both hands of a clock occurs at right angle twice in one hour, 22 times in 12 h hand 44 times in 24 h.
 Both hands of a clock occurs in a straight line or are opposite once in one hour, 11 times in 12 h hand 22 times in24 h,
E.g.
At what angle the hands of a clock are inclined at 15 min past 5?
1° 1° 1°
(a) 72 (b) 67 (c) 58 (d) 64°
2 2 2
Solution: (b) At 15 min past 5, the minute hand is at 3 and hour and slightly ahead of 5.
1 °
Now, angle through which hour shifts in 15 min = 15 ×  = 7
1°
 2 2
°
 Angle at 15 min past 5 = 60 + 7  = 67
1 1°
 2 2
E.g.
A clock is set right at 8 am. The clock gain 10 min in 24 h. What will be the right time when the clock indicates 1 pm on
the following day?
(a) 11 : 40 Pm (b)12 : 48 pm (c) 12 pm (d) 10 pm
Solution: (b) time from 8 am of a particular day to 1 pm on the following day = 29 h.
Now the clock 10 min in 24 h, it means that 24 h. 10 min of this clock is equal to this clock equal to 24 h of the
correct clock.
145
h of this clock = 24 h of the correct clock.
6
24
29 h of this clock = × 6 × 29 = 28 h, 48 min of correct clock
145
29 h of this clock = 28 h 48 min of the correct clock It means that the clock in question is 12 min faster than the
correct clock. Therefore, when clock indicates 1 pm the correct time will be 48 min past 12.
Calendar
The record of all the days of the year is given in the calendar. It shows the months,
weeks and days in the year.
Week days There are seven days in a week. A week starts with Monday and ends at
Sunday. After which again comes Monday. The same cycle foes on and on.

110
Month of the year We know that, there are 12 months in a year. The months of the year with the number of days in that
month are given below
Name of the months Number of days Name of the months Number of

days
1. January 31 7. July 31
2. February 28 or 29 8. August 31
3. March 31 9. September 30
4. April 30 10. October 31
5. May 31 11. November 30
6. June 30 12. December 31
February of an ordinary year has 28 days. There are 365 days in an ordinary year.
Thus, 1 ordinary year = 365 days = 52 weeks and 1 day. February of a leap year has 29 days, so, there are 366 days in a leap
year. Thus 1 leap year = 366 days = 52 weeks and days. A leap year comes after every 4 yr.
Century A block of 100 yr is called a century. A century has, thus a total of 100 yr. Thus each one of the years 1100, 1800,
2000, 2100 is a century.
Lap year, The year other than a century divisible by 4 as well as by 400 is called a leap year.
Thus, each one of the years, 1600, 1996, 2000, 20004, 2008 is leap year and none of the years 1867, 1993, 1997, 1999,
2001, 2003, 2007 is a leap year/
ordinary year The year which is not a leap year is called an ordinary year. Thus, each one of the years 1781, 1891, 1995,
1999, 2013 is an ordinary year.
Important Points
 A leap year has 52 weeks and 2 days.
 An ordinary year has 52 weeks and 1 day. A year has 52 full weeks.
Odd Days In a given period, the number of days more than the complete weeks are called odd
 days. Also when total number of days divided by 7 remainder called odd days.
 1 ordinary year = 365 days = (52 weeks + 1 day)
 1 leap year = 366 days = (52 weeks + 2 days) 100 yr = 76 ordinary years + 24 leap years = )76 × 1 + 24 × 2) odd days = 124
Odd days = (17 weeks + 5 days) = 5 odd days.
 Number of odd days in 100 yr = Number of odd days in 200 yr = (5 × 2) = 10 = (7 + 3) = 3 odd days.
 The first day of century cannot be Wednesday, Friday and Sunday
 The last day of century cannot be Tuesday and Saturday.
1. What will be the angle between hour hand and minute hand, if clock shows 8:30 pm?
(a) 90° (b) 75° (c) 50° (d) 85°
2. Reaching the place of meeting on Tuesday 15 min before 8:30 h, Anuj found himself ha/f an hour earlier than the man
who was 40 min late. What was the scheduled time of the meeting?
(a) 8:00 h (b) 8:05 (c) 8:8:15 h (d) 8:45h
3. A clock buzzes 1 time at 1 O'clock, 2 times at 1 O'clock, 3 times at 3 O. clock and so on. What will be the total
number of buzzes in a day?
(a) 150 (b) 156 (c) 100 (d) None of these
4. How many times are the hands of a clock is at right angle in a day?
(a) 22 (b) 24 (c) 44 (d) 48
5. How many times do the hands of a clock coincide in a day?
(a) 24 (b) 22 (c) 21 (d) 20
6. How many times do the hands of a clock points towards each other in a day?
(a) 24 (b) 20 (c) 12 (d) 22
7. If today is Thursday, what will be the day on 363 days?
(a) Sunday (b) Saturday (c) Thursday (d) None of these
8. Today is Monday. After 61 days, it will be
(a) Wednesday (b) Saturday (c) Tuesday (d) Thursday
9. Which of the following is not a leap year?
(a) 707 (b) 800 (c) 1200 (d) 2000

111
10. Today is Wednesday, what will be the day after 84 days?

(a) Monday (b) Tuesday (c) Wednesday (d) Sunday
11. Today is Thursday. The day after 59 days will be
(a) Sunday (b) Monday (c) Tuesday (d) Wednesday
12. The last day of a century cannot be either
I) Tuesday II) Thursday III. Saturday IV. Sunday
(a) I and II (b) I and Iv (c) I,II and III (d) I,III and IV
13. The day before the day before yesterday is three days after Saturday. What day is it today? (a) Tuesday (b)
Wednesday (c) Thursday (d) Friday
14. If January 1 is a Friday, what is the first day of the month of March in a leap year?
(a) Tuesday (b) Wednesday (c) Thursday (d) Friday
15. In a month of 31 days, third Thursday falls on 16th, what will be the last day of the month?
(a) 5th Friday (b) 4th Saturday (c) 5th Wednesday (d) 5th Thursday
(e) None of these
16. A bus for Delhi leaves every 30 mantes from a bus stand. An enquiry clerk told a passenger that the bus had already
left 10 min ago and next bus will leave at 9:35 am. At what time did the enquiry clerk give this information to the
passenger?
(a) 9:10 am (b) 8:55am (c) 9:08am (d) 9:15am
17. Mrs Susheela celebrated her wedding anniversary on Tuesday, 30th September 1997. When will she celebrate her next
wedding anniversary on the same day?
(a) 30th September,2003 (b) 30th September,2004
th
(c) 30 September,2002 (d) 30th October, 2003
18. If Republic day was celebrated in 1996 on Friday on which day in 2000 Independence was celebrated?
(a) Tuesday (b) Monday (c) Sunday (d) Saturday
19. If 18th February, 1997 falls on Tuesday, then what will be the day on 18th February, 1999?
(a) Monday (b) Tuesday (c) Thursday (d) Friday
20. I was born on August 11. Mohan is younger to me by days. This year's independence day falls on Monday. The day on
which Mohan's birthday will fall this year will be
(a) Monday (b) Tuesday (c) Sunday (d) Thursday

1. (b)
360 × 2.5
Angle = = 75°
12
2. (b) Anuj reached the place of meeting at 8:15 h, he reached 30 min earlier than the man who was 40 min late. i.e. he
reached 10 min late. Hence the scheduled time of the meeting was 8: 05 h.
12 (12 + 1)
3. (c) Number of buzzes in a day = × 2 = 156
2
4. (c) IN 12h, they are at right angles, 22 times. So, in 24 h, they are at right angles, 44 times.
5. (b) From the properties of the clock, we know hour but between 11 O'clock and 1 O'clock, they coincide only once.
Therefore, the hands of a clock coincide 11 times in every 12 h.
Hence , they will coincide (11 × 2) = 22 times in 24 h.
89h. of this clock = 90 h of the correct clock Therefore, it is clear that in 89 h this clock loses 1h and hence, the
correct time is 11:00pm when this clock shows 10:00pm.

112
6. (d) The hands of a clock point towards each other 11 times in every 12 h (because between 5 and 7, they point towards
each other only once at 6 O'clock).
Therefore in a day the hands points 22 times in all, towards each other.
363
7. (d) Here, = 51 weeks + 6 days
7
8. (b) Each day of the is reputed after 7 days. So, after 63 days, it will be Monday After 61 days, it will be Saturday.
9. (a) The centre divisible by 400 is a leap year. The year 707 in not a leap year.
10. (c) Everyday of the weeks is repeated after 7 days. Hence it will be Wednesday after 84 days.
11. (a) Everyday of the week is reputed after 7 days. Hence, after 56 days, it would be Thursday again and after 59 day 's,
it would be Sunday.
12. (c) The last day to century cannot be either Tuesday, Thursday or Saturday.
13. (d) Three days after Saturday is Tuesday and Tuesday is a day before a day before yesterday So, yesterday is Thursday.
Hence, today is Friday.
14. (a) Total number of days from January 1 to March 1
= 31 + 29 + 1
= 61 days
(February in leap years = 29 days) = 61  7
= 8 weeks and 5 odd days
So, the fifth day from Friday = Tuesday
15. (a) Friday will fall on 3, 10, 17, 24, 31 So, it will be 5th Friday on 31st
16. (d) Next bus will leave at 9:35am. So, enquiry clerk gave the information to the passenger at = (9: 05 + 0 :10) = 9:15am
17. (a) Total number of odd days
30 September, 1997 – 98 = 1
30 September, 1998 – 99 = 1
30 September, 1999 – 2000 = 2
30 September, 2000 – 01 = 1
30 September, 2001 – 02 = 1
1
30 September, 2002 – 03 =
7
 Tuesday + 7 = Tuesday
So, The next Tuesday will come on the Mrs sunshield's wedding anniversary in 3oth September, 2003
18. (a) 26 January, 1996 to 15 August, 2000 days were = 1663
1663 having odd day = 4
 in the year 2000, Independence day
= Friday + 4 = Tuesday
19. (c) 18th February, 1997 is Tuesday. So17th February 1998 will also be Tuesday. Again 16th February, 1999 with also be
Tuesday.
Hence, 18th February, 1999 will be Thursday.
20. (a) Mohan was born on 31st July. August 15 falls on Monday.

113
Data Interpretation
Strategy -/0fgLlt_
1. lrqsf] :ki6 a'emfO{ ug{]
a) k9\g] / lrq ;Fu;Fu} x]g{]
b) Units of measurement df ljz]if Wofg lbg]
c) u|fkmdf axes nfO{ Vofn ug{]
– axis labels x]g{]
– each axis o af6 z'? ePsf] 5 5}g x]g{]
– Constant interval -;dfg cGt/df_ values x¿ a9]sf 5g\ 5}gg x]g{] .
d) ;Defljt lrqsf] trands -k|j[lQ_ / ;DaGw (relationship) a'‰g] .
– spike -;'Id_ level out cyclicd -rlj|mo_
– One factor influence another.
dflysf] a'emfO{ (10 – 15) seconds ;Dd ul/;Sg'k5{
2. Carefully read the question clt g} ;dj]bzLn eP/ k|Zg k9\g] Units in the h:t} Units in the text / data df ePsf] km/s 5'6\6fpg]
h:t} questions df weeks ;f]w]/ data days df lbPsf] x'g ;S5 .
3. Check the answer choice -ljsNksf] klxrfg clt g} dxTjk"0f{ x'g] x'gfn] s'g pQ/ ;xL xf] eGbf klg s'g xf]Og jf x'g ;Sb}g egL klxrfg ug{
;lsof] eg] Tof] Hofb} dxTjk"0f{ x'g hfG5 .
Tips
 Estimate when ever possible
 All visual graphs are drawn to scale
 Visually estimate Compare data
 Do not confuse numbers with rater and percents.
Scatter plot
Visualize information about population members with 2 shared variables. –lbOPsf] ;"rgfnfO{ b'O{ Variable sf] population
member sf] cfwf/df x]g{] -2 j6f axis df two variable lbOPsf] x'G5 . h:t} M dflysf] lrqdf x – axis df 20 employees sf] height in
clever df lbOPsf]] 5 eg] y axis df ltgLx¿sf] weight nfO{ pound df lbOPsf] 5 .
One ale () other value () (position) correlation
;w}F o:tf] x'G5 eGg] x'Fb}g .
o;df tend line jf regression line sf] use ug'{k5{ . line jf curve sf] ;xfotfn] data df fit x'g] line tfGg]
Scatter plot sf] third line sf] tn Pp6f line tfGg] h;n] height sf] t'ngfdf weight sd ePsf] b]vfpF5 .
Tricks
 Analyze relationships between two shared Variables in a population.
 Trend line (Regression line): line that fits the data points.
 The closer the points to the trend line the stronger the correlation.
 Positive conflation -;sf/fTds ;DaGwx¿_ One value  as the other
 Negligible Correlation little or relationship between variables
Read the following passage and answer the 3 (three) items that follow:
In a survey regarding a proposed measure to be introduced 2878 persons took part of which 1652 were
males 1226 persons voted against the proposal of which 796 were males. 1425 persons voted for the
proposal 196 females were undecided.
1. How many females voted for the proposal?
a) 430 b) 600
c) 624 d) 640
2. How many males were undecided?
a) 31 b) 227
c) 426 d) 581
3. How many females were not in favored of the proposal?
a) 430 b) 496

114
c) 586 d) 1226
4. Of the following statements, there are two statements both of which cannot be true but
both can be false. Which are these two statements?
1. All machines make noise.
2. Some machines are noisy.
3. No machine makes noise.
4. Some machines are not noisy.
a) 1 and 2 b) 3 and 4
c) 1 and 3 d) 2 and 4
Ratio of Value of Imports to Exports Over the Years
1.6 1.55
1.5
1.4
1.3 1.4
1.2 1.25
1.1
1
0.95
0.9 0.85
0.8
0.7
0.6
0.5 0.65
0.4 0.35
0.3
0.2
0.1
1995 1996 1997 1998 1999 2000 2001
Using the above graph and answer the next 4 questions.

5. The imports were minimum proportionate to the exports of the Country in the year?
a) 1996 b) 1997
c) 2000 d) 2001
6. What was the percentage increase in imports from 1997 to 1998?
a) 72 b) 56
c) 28 d) Data inadequate
7. If the imports of the country in 1996 was Rs. 272 million, the exports from the country in 1996 was?
a) Rs.370 million b) Rs.320 million
c) Rs.280 million d) Rs.275 million
8. In how many of the given years were the exports more than the imports?
a) 1 year b) 2 years
c) 3 years d) 4 years
9. The imports were maximum proportionate to the exports of the Country in the year?
a) 1996 b) 1997
c) 2000 d) 2001
Study the following table and answer the questions.

Classification of 100 Students Based on the Marks Obtained by them
In Paper I and Paper II in an Examination.
Subject Marks out of 50

40 and 30 and 20 and 10 and 0 and
above above above above above

115
Paper I 9 32 80 92 100
Paper II 4 21 66 81 100
Average 7 27 73 87 100
(Aggregate)
10. What is the different between the number of students passed with 30 as cut-off marks in Paper II
and those passed with 30 as cut-off marks in aggregate?
A) 3 B) 4
C) 5 D) 6
11. If at least 60% marks in Paper I are required for pursuing higher studies in Paper I, how many
students will be eligible pursue higher studies in Paper I?
A) 0 B) 9
C) 18 D) 32
12. The percentage of number of students getting at least 60% marks in Paper II over those getting at
least 40% marks in aggregate, in Paper I?
A) 20% B) 27%
C) 29% D) 30%
13. The number of students scoring less than 40% marks in aggregate is ?
A) 7 B) 13
C) 14 D) 27
14. If it is known that at least 23 students were eligible for a Symposium on Paper II, then the
minimum qualifying marks in Paper II for eligibility to Symposium would lie in the range?
A) Below 20 B) 20-30
C) 30-40 D) 40-45
Figure 1: Number of Professors in selected
discipline in a university by sex
35
30
25
20
15
Male
10
Female
5
0

116
Figure 2: Age physics Professors
20% 35-44
40% 25-34
10%
60-65
45-59
30%
15. How many Physics Professors belong to the age group 35-44?
(A) 18 B) 16
(C) 14 D) 12
16. Which one of the following disciplines has the highest ratio of males to females?
A) Physics B) Mathematics
C) Chemistry D) Economics
17. What percentage of all Psychology Professors are females?
A) 40% B) 50%
C) 60% D) 70%
18. If the number of female Physics professors in the age group 25-34 equals 25% of all the Physics
Professors in that age group, then what is the number of male Physics Professors in the age group
25-34
A) 2 B) 3
C) 6 D) 9
19. If the Psychology professors in the University constitute 2% of all the professors in the University,
then what is the number of professors in the University?
A) 400 B) 500
C) 600 D) 700
Direction for the following 5(five) Items:
Study the table given below and answer the five items that follow: Four students W,X,Y,Z appeared in four
papers, I,II,III,IV in a test.Their scores out of 100 are given below .
Students Papers
I II III IV
W 60 81 45 55
X 59 43 51 A
Y 74 A 71 65
Z 72 76 A 68
Where 'A' stands for absent
20. Which candidate has secured between 60-65% marks in aggregate?
A) W B) X
C) Y D) Z
21. Who has obtained the lowest average in aggregate?
A) W B) X
C) Y D) Z
22. Who has obtained the highest average in aggregate?
A) W B) X

117
C) Y D) Z
23. In which paper the lowest marks were obtained by the candidates?
A) I B) II
C) III D) IV
24. Which candidate has secured the highest percentage in the papers appeard?
A) W B) X
C) Y D) Z
Answer Key
1. (b) 2878
2. (a) M F
3. (a) 1652 1226
4. (c)
For Against Undecided
1425 1226 227
M F M F M F
825 600 796 430 31 196
5. (b) 35
The import of 1997 is so it were minimum propertonate.
100
6. (d) Import in 1997 = 35
Import in 1998 = 125
90 1800 1
% increase = 100 = = 257 %
35 7 7
7. (b) In 1996 imports was 85 means 272 million
272
" " " Exports " " "
85
272
100 means  110 = 320
85
8. (d) In 1995, 1996, 1997, 2000. Exports were more than imports.
9. (d) In 2001 the imports were maximum proportionate.
10. (d) In Paper II student who passed 30 as cut/off marks is 27
" " Aggregate " " " is 21
 27 – 21 = 6
11. (d) In Paper I student who score at least 60% marks are 32.
12. (c) In paper II number students getting at least 60% marks = 21
In aggregate number of students getting at least 40% marks = 73
21 2100
 100 = = 29%
73 73
13. (d) The number of students scoring less than 40% marks in aggregate = (100 -73)
= 27
14. (b) If it is know that at least 23 students were eligible for a symposisum from
paper II the minimum qualifying marks in paper II for eligiblity in symposisum
would lie in 21 student from 30 over but 2 student from (20-30) range.

118
15. (b) 40
40 of 40% = 40  = 16
100
16. (a) 32
Physics = 4:1 highest
8
17. (c) 6
(%) females professor in psychology = 100 = 60%
10
18. (d) 30
40 of 30% = 40  = 12 of 25% female
100
25
= 12  = 3  (12 – 3) = 9 males
100
19. (b) Total professor = x
 x of 2% = 10
2
x = 10  x = 500
100
20. (a) Aggregate of
60 + 81 + 45 + 55 241
W= = = 60.25
4 4
59 + 43 + 51 + A 153
X= = = 38.25
4 4
74 + A + 71 + 65 210
Y= = = 52.5
4 4
72 + 76 + A + 68 216
Z= = = 54
4 4
From the above aggregate 'W' has secured between (60-65)% marks in aggreagte.
21. (b) 'X' obtained the lowest .
22. (a) 'W' obtained the highest.
23. (c) In the paper III (45 + 51 + 71 + A) = 167 which is lowest.
24. (d) 241
Here, W = = 60.25
4
153
X= = 51
3
210
Y= = 70
3
216
Z= = 72  Z has secured the highest % in paper appered.
3
Pie – Charts (Type C)
Directions ( Q 1–3) Study the graph given below and answer the question that follows.
Distribution of Family Expenditure
1. If the family spends 3200 per month then what is its monthly tax ?
(a) 384 (b) 320 (c) 256 (d) 640 (e) 168
2. How many degrees should be there in the central angle to show education, taxes and transports conceived ?

119
(a) 18 (b) 36 (c) 54 (d) 28.8 (e) 43.2

3. How many degrees should be there in the central angle to show education, taxes and transports conceived ?
(a) 100 (b) 110 (c) 120 (d) 126 (e) 130
Directions ( Q 4 – 7) Study the graph given below and answer the question that follows.
The ICICI Bank in Ludhiana published the following pie- charts for its Depositors
4. The average annual interest on mortgage investment is B%, and The average annual interest on the bond investment
is C%, If the annual interest on the bond investment is " A" rupees, how many rupees are invested in mortgages ?
AB AC 100AC CA 200A
(a) (b) (c) (d) (e)
C B B 100B C
5. About how many degrees are in the angle of the sector representing mortgages ?
(a) 59° (b) 106° (c) 211° (d) 246° (e) 318°
6. What per cent of the amount of cash on hand is the money invested in stocks ?
(a) 0.75 (b) 1.3 (c) 9.1 (d) 75 (e) 133.3
7. The annual rate interest from "other assets" is 4.8%. If the total assets of the bank are 57.6 million Rs. what is the
annual income ( in rupees) from " other assets" ?
(a) 82944 (b) 921600 (c) 1728000 (d) 2764800
(e) 3600000
Directions ( Q 8-11 ) study the graph given below and answer the question that follow.
Pie Chart showing Labor and Amenities Cost budget Total and
Percentage of Various Allocations
Canteen Expenses
15.8%
13.8% Recreation & Entertainment
35.5%
15.8% 10.3% 45.2%
Health and Accidents
7.3%
Social Security and Insurance
9% 25.9% 21.4%
Contingencies
8. What was the increased or decreased in the allocations for social security and insurance from 1986 to 1996 ?
(a) + 1.76 lakhs (b) – 1.76 lakhs (c) – 17.6 thousand
(d) + 6 lakhs (e) + 0.66 lakhs
9. The consumer price index rose by about 280% from 1986 to 1996 what per cent of the increase in recreation and
entertainment allocation is attributed to inflation ?
(a) 15% (b) 25% (c) 35% (d) 45% (e) 55%
10. What item increased least in rupee amount from 1986 to 1996 ?
(a) Canteen expenses (b) Recreation and entertainment
(c) Health and accidents (d) Social security and insurance
(e) Contingencies
11. By what factor did the allocation for recreation and entertainment increase from 1986 and 1996 ?
(a) 5 (b) 13 (c) 18 (d) 26
(e) 30
1. (a) 2. (c) 3. (d) 4. (e) 5. (c) 6. (e) 7. (a) 8. (d)
9. (a) 10. (c) 11 (b) .

120
Explanation
1. Taxes = 0.12 × 3200 = ?= 384
2. Central Angle = 0.15 × 360° = 54°
3. ( 0.15 + 0.12 + 0.08 ) × 360° = 0.35° × 360° = 126°
4. ( Amount invested ) × ( Rate of interest ) = Interest
Interest
Or Amount invested =
Rate of interest
'A' rupees
Amount invested in bonds =
C%
A C 100
Or or A ÷ or A
C/100 100 C
100 100A
Or A or rupees,
C C
Since the pie- charts indicates that twice as much ( 58.6% ) is invested in mortgages as in invested in bonds ( 28.3%) .
5. (58.6%) of 360° – ( 0.586 ) ( 360) = 210.9°
6. Cash on hand = 3.9%
Money invested in stocks = 5.2%
5.2% = A ( 3.9% )
5.2% = 11/3= 133.3%
7. Total assets = 57.6 million = and 3% of total assets = 1.728 million in "other assets" so 4.8% of 1.7 – 28 million = ?= 82944.
8. in 1986 , social security and insurance are 9% of 10.4 lakhs, or about 0.9 lakhs . in 1996, they were 7.3% of 103.2 lakhs or
about 47.5 lakhs. The increased is the difference aboput ?= 6 lakhs.
9. First was in 1986, was 35.5 % of 10.4 lakhs or about ?= 3.7 lakhs and in 1996, they were 45.2% of ?= 46.6 lakhs. The total
increase was about 43 lakhs. General prices rose by 280%, so if recreation and entertainment allocation did not rise at all for
other reason, inflaction about 3.7 lakh lines 280% to about 140.4 lakhs an increase of about ?= 6.7 lakhs which is about 15%
of the total increase of ?= 43 lakhs.
10. In these type of problems, where there are two pre- charts, for two years, and the laterb year has a much higher total (as here,
?=10.4 lakhs in 1986 and ?= 103 lakh in 1996 ) , in general, the smallest segment will have the smallest growth, in rupees, and
the largest segments will have the largest growth, in spite how the actual percentage change. In other words , because social
security and insurance here is the smallest item, it is the best place to start. 9% of the lakhs of rupees is 0.9 lakh in 1986.
7.3% of ?= 103 lakhs is about 7.5 lakhs in 1996, for an increased of about 6.6 lakhs. Allocations were 16% in 1996, or 1.6
lakhs, and 10% in 1996 or 10.4 lakhs, an increase had a smaller increase, and the other items are not worth checking. Note
that allocation went from 16% in 1986 to 10% in 1996, a greater decreased in percentage than social security and insurance,
which went from 9% to 7% but this did not matter.
11. In 1996,recreation and entertainment allocation was 45% of ?= 103 lakhs, or about 46 lakhs. In 1986, it was 35.5% of ?= 10.4
lakhs, 3.6 lakhs. Hence there is about 13 times increase.

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Chaitanya Acadamy Nepal,

Kumar Prasad Timalsina

Chaitanya Institute of Management, New Baneshwor, Shankhamul, Contact: 01-4782427, 9851146100

Chaitanya Institute of Management, New Baneshwor, Shankhamul, Contact: 01-4782427, 9851146100

1. — — aba — — ba— ab 11. — aa — ba — bb — ab — aab

5. — stt — tt — tts 15. a — bbc — cca — bbcc

Chaitanya Institute of Management, New Baneshwor, Shankhamul, Contact: 01-4782427, 9851146100

1. (a) Baboon (b) Gibbon (e) Rhinoceros

Chaitanya Institute of Management, New Baneshwor, Shankhamul, Contact: 01-4782427, 9851146100

11. If in a certain language, NATURE is coded as

Insert the Missing Character

Chaitanya Institute of Management, New Baneshwor, Shankhamul, Contact: 01-4782427, 9851146100

(a) 6 18 (b) 12 8(c) 9 (d) 6?

(a) 36 (b) 48 (c) 38 (d) 30

(a) 41 (b) 64 (c) 35 (d) 61

(a) 13 (b) 14 (c) 12 (d) 15

(a) 262 (b)622 (c) 631 (d) 824

Chaitanya Institute of Management, New Baneshwor, Shankhamul, Contact: 01-4782427, 9851146100

(a) 64 (b) 144 (c) 169 (d) 25

Chaitanya Institute of Management, New Baneshwor, Shankhamul, Contact: 01-4782427, 9851146100

Answer with Explanation

2. (d) (5 + 4 + 7) /2 = 8 (6 + 9 + 5)/2 = 10 (3 + 7 + 2)/ 2 = 6

3. (c) (12 + 18 + 30)10 = 6 (16 + 24+ 40) / 10 = 8

6. (b) (5 × 6 × 8) + (7 × 4 × 9) = 492 and (7 × 5 × 4) + (6 × 8 × 9) = 572

Chaitanya Institute of Management, New Baneshwor, Shankhamul, Contact: 01-4782427, 9851146100

3. (a) 10,43, 14, 85 (b) 65, 13, 69, 34

Chaitanya Institute of Management, New Baneshwor, Shankhamul, Contact: 01-4782427, 9851146100

Chaitanya Institute of Management, New Baneshwor, Shankhamul, Contact: 01-4782427, 9851146100

herself exactly one km West of her starting point .

Chaitanya Institute of Management, New Baneshwor, Shankhamul, Contact: 01-4782427, 9851146100

Answer with Explanation

If takes 4 hrs from Delhi to Agra and 3 ½

Suraj is in South-East direction from

10. (a) 11.

Chaitanya Institute of Management, New Baneshwor, Shankhamul, Contact: 01-4782427, 9851146100

12. (c) 13.

14. (b) 15.

16. (a) 17. From the figure its obvious that Q

Chaitanya Institute of Management, New Baneshwor, Shankhamul, Contact: 01-4782427, 9851146100

Hence, number 2 will be come in place of question mark.

Chaitanya Institute of Management, New Baneshwor, Shankhamul, Contact: 01-4782427, 9851146100

Statements : Some clothes are marbles. Some marbles are bags.

Chaitanya Institute of Management, New Baneshwor, Shankhamul, Contact: 01-4782427, 9851146100

Chaitanya Institute of Management, New Baneshwor, Shankhamul, Contact: 01-4782427, 9851146100

about the incident with a real warning for future.

Answer with Explanation

Cause and Effect Reasoning

Chaitanya Institute of Management, New Baneshwor, Shankhamul, Contact: 01-4782427, 9851146100

Chaitanya Institute of Management, New Baneshwor, Shankhamul, Contact: 01-4782427, 9851146100

(c) Distorts (d) Refracts 11. A jail always has

Chaitanya Institute of Management, New Baneshwor, Shankhamul, Contact: 01-4782427, 9851146100

Chaitanya Institute of Management, New Baneshwor, Shankhamul, Contact: 01-4782427, 9851146100

Chaitanya Institute of Management, New Baneshwor, Shankhamul, Contact: 01-4782427, 9851146100

Chaitanya Institute of Management, New Baneshwor, Shankhamul, Contact: 01-4782427, 9851146100

Chaitanya Institute of Management, New Baneshwor, Shankhamul, Contact: 01-4782427, 9851146100

Chaitanya Institute of Management, New Baneshwor, Shankhamul, Contact: 01-4782427, 9851146100

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