SỞ GIÁO DỤC

ĐỀ ÔN VÀSỐĐÀO
THI 23 TẠO KỲ THI CHỌN HỌC SINH GIỎI
CẤP TỈNH LỚP 9 NĂM 2018
(Đề thi gồm có 08 trang) MÔN: TIẾNG ANH
Thời gian làm bài: 120 phút (không kể thời gian phát đề)
Ngày thi: ………………………………..

SECTION I: LISTENING (3.0 points) (You will hear twice for each part)
Part 1. You will hear a tour guide talking to a group of tourists about a coach trip. For each
question put a tick in the correct box.
1. What is the change of plan?
A. They will visit two towns.
B. They will look round a university.
C. They will visit a wild life park.
2. Where will they stop for coffee?
A. near a waterfall B. by a lake C. on a mountain
3. The town of Brampton became well known because of its ___________.
A. shops B. university C. museum
4. What animals will they see in the wildlife park?
A. lions B. monkeys C. tigers
5. What time will they arrive back at the hotel?
A. 5.30 B. 6.45 C. 7.15
6. The tour guide asks if anyone ___________.
A. needs more information.
B. would like to go on another trip.
C. wants to ask any questions.
Part 2. You will hear a conversation between a printing company employee and a customer.
Complete the notes below. Write one word or a numrer for each answer.
REVISION NOTE
Example
Problem with: the brochure sample
• Company name: Central Hotel Chains
• Letters of (7) …………………………… should be bigger.
• The (8) …………………………… should be removed.
• Change the description under the top photo to (9) ……………………………
• Use the picture with (10) …………………………… of the hotel.
• The (11) …………………………… should be in red print.
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• Translate into (12) ……………………………

• Deadline: by the end of (13) ……………………………

• Address: No. 9 Green Drive. (14) ……………………………
• Telephone number: (15) ……………………………, NY21300
SECTION II: LEXICO – GRAMMAR (7.0 POINTS)
Part 1: Questions from 16 to 35. (3.0 points - 0.15/ each)
Choose the best answer to each question.
16. _______ having the best qualifications among all the applicants, Justin was not offered the job.
A. Although B. While C. In spite of D. Despite of
17. The state laws limit the speed _________motorists are permitted to drive.
A. at which B. which C. that D. where
18. _________today, she would get home by Friday.
A. Would she leave B. Was she leaving C. Were she to leave D. If she leaves
19. He is _________a lot of study pressure to win a place at university.
A. for B. under C. in D. with
20. No one knows what the _________of the explosion is.
A. source B. cause C. reaction D. reason
21. I really can’t _________the twins apart. They look so alike.
A. say B. talk C. take D. tell
22. It seems that the world record for this event is almost impossible to _________.
A. meet B. break C. compare D. balance
23. The school required that every student _________before September 1 st
A. register B. registered C. registers D. was registered
24. Charlie Chaplin was _________of the silent movies.
A. one of the great actor comics B. the greatest comic actors
C. one of the greatest comic actors D. a great comic actor one
25. _________my personal qualities, I have experience of working in a multi-national company for
three years.
A. Beside B. In addition C. Instead of D. Apart from
26. I am looking for a dependable person who can stand out for me at the meeting.
A. dependent B. talented C. energetic D. reliable
27. She earns ________ as her husband does.
A. two times as much as B. twice times as many as
C. twice as much as D. twice as many as

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28. Mary was the last applicant _______.
A. to be interviewed B. to be interviewing C. to interview D. to have interviewed
29. She _________her neighbour’s children for the broken window.
A. accused B. complained C. blamed D. denied
30. On the table _________.
A. the disks lay B. did the disks lie C. lay the disks D. lied the disks
31. All the boys are good at cooking, but _________is as good as the girls.
A. either B. none C. neither D. every
32. The bank is reported in the local newpapers _________in the broad daylight.
A. to be robbed B. robbed C. to have been robbed D. having been robbed
33. Go on. Tell me the gossips. I’m all _________.
A. full B. head C. eyes D. ears
34. _________is more interested in rhythm than in melody is apparent from his compositions.
A. That Philip Glass B. Philip Glass, who C. Philip Glass D. Because Philip Glass
35. Nam: In my opinion, computer is one of the most wonderful inventions.
Lan: _____________________________.
A. There is no doubt about it. B. Yes. Congratulations!
C. You shouldn’t have said that. D. Pardon?
Part 2: Questions from 36 to 45 (2 points - 0.2/ each)
Use the correct form of the word in brackets to complete the following sentences.
36. We must use our natural resources ……………………………… .(ECONOMY)
37. IQ stand for ……………………………… quotient. (INTELLIGENT)
38. She is extremely …………………………of heights and will feel faint when she only on the fifth floor. (FEAR)
39. Thomas ……………………………… broke the expensive vase. (ACCIDENT)
40. That company has 2000 ………………………………. (EMPLOY)
41. Is it possible to ……………………………… between a hobby and an interest? (DISTINCT)
42. ……………………………… was one of three problems facing the Vietnamese government after the
August Revolution in 1945. (LITERACY)
43. The ……………………………… students often play soccer or basketball. (ENERGY)
44. The phone doesn’t work. It’s been ………………………………. (CONNECT)
45. Her ……………………………… was so great that she broke a glass. (ANXIOUS)
Part 3: Questions from 46 to 50 (1 point - 0.2/ each)
Each of the following sentences has an error. Find the errors and correct them.
46. Only when you have had a chance to know various occupations you will decide on your career.

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47. I tried to do everything to contact John two weeks ago but so far I don’t receive his reply.
48. Most people are surprising to see how rapidly bacteria can multiply under favorable conditions.
49. What I told her a few days ago were not the solutions to most of her problems.
50. Several people have apparent tried to change the man’s mind, but he refuses to listen.
Part 4: Questions from 51 to 55.(1 point - 0.2/ each)
Fill in each of the sentences with correct prepositions.
51. Without a fridge, fresh food will go …………………… very quickly.
52. The director of that company is thinking of importing flowers …………………… Vietnam.
53. I knew your family would stand …………………… you.
54. I’m faithful …………………… my principle.
55. It is better to try to work …………………… rather than against nature.
SECTION III: READING (6.0 POINTS)
Part 1. Questions from 56 to 65 (2 points - 0.2/ each)
Read the passage below and choose the best option to complete each sentence.
Schools in the United States have not always had a large number of libraries. As (56)
________ as 1958 about half of the public schools in the United States had no libraries at all. The
number of public school libraries increased dramatically (57) ________ the federal government
passed the Elementary and Secondary Education Act of 1965, (58) ________ provided funds for
school districts to improve their education programs and facilities, including their libraries. (59)
________, many educators claim that since the legislation was passed federal spending has not
increased sufficiently to meet the rising (60) ________ of new library technologies such as computer
databases and Internet access. Because the federal government provides only limited funds to
schools, individual school districts (61) ________ on funds from local property taxes to meet the vast
majority of public school expenses. Therefore, the libraries of the public schools tend to reflect the
(62) ________ capabilities of the communities in which they are located. Districts in wealthy suburbs
often have fully staffed libraries (63) ________ abundant resources, spacious facilities, and curricular
and instructional support. In (64) ________, school districts in many poor areas house their libraries
in ordinary classrooms or in small rooms. The libraries in such areas are generally staffed by
volunteers, who organize and (65) ________ books that are often out-of-date, irrelevant, or
damaged.
56. A. freshly B. frequently C. recently D. newly
57. A. though B. with C. during D. when
58. A. that B. which C. who D. this
59. A. Nevertheless B. Consequently C. Therefore D. Otherwise

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60. A. fine B. fee C. cost D. sum
61. A. go B. rely C. come D. stay
62. A. educational B. economical C. political D. financial
63. A. with B. for C. on D. by
64. A. country B. converse C. contrast D. conflict
65. A. attain B. obtain C. contain D. maintain
Part 2. Questions from 66 to 75 (2.0 points - 0.2/ each)
Read the passage below and choose the best answer to each question
Million of people are using cell phones today. In many places, it is actually considered unusual
not to use one. In many countries, cell phones are very popular with young people. They find that
the phones are means of communication – having a mobile phone shows that they are cool and
connected.
The explosion in mobile phone use around the world has made some health professionals
worried. Some doctors are concerned that in the future many people may suffer health problems
from the use of mobile phones. In England, there has been a serious debate about this issue. Mobile
phone companies are worried about the negative publicity of such ideas. They say that there is no
proof that mobile phones are bad for your health.
On the other hand, medical studies have shown changes in the brain cells of some people
who use mobile phones. Signs of change in the issues of the brain and head can be detected with
modern scanning equipment. In one case, a traveling salesman had to retire at young age because of
serious memory loss. He couldn't remember even simple tasks. He would often forget the name of
his own son. This man used to talk on his mobile phone for about six hours a day, every day of his
working week, for a couple of years. His family doctor blamed his mobile phone use, but his
employer's doctor didn't agree.
What is it that makes mobile phones potentially harmful? The answer is radiation. High –
tech machines can detect very small amounts of radiation from mobile phones. Mobile phone
companies agree that there is some radiation, but they say the amount is too small to worry about.
As the discussion about their safety continues, it appears that it's best to use mobile phones
less often. Use your regular phone of you want to talk for a long time. Use your mobile phone only
when you really need it. Mobile phones can be very useful and convenient, especially in
emergencies. In the future, mobile phones may have a warning label that says they are bad for your
health. So for now, it's wise not to use your mobile phone too often.
66. According to the passage, cell phones are especially popular with young people because ________.
A. they are indispensable in everyday communication

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 B. they make them look more stylish
C. they keep the users alert all the time
D. they cannot be replaced by regular phones
67. The changes possible caused by the cell phones are mainly concerned with________.
A. the mobility of the mind and the body B. the smallest units of brain
C. the arteries of the brain D. the resident memory
68. The word "means" in the passage most closely means ________.
A. meanings B. expression C. method D. transmission
69. The word "potentially" in the passage most closely means ________.
A. obviously B. possibly C. certainly D. privately
70. "Negative publicity" in the passage most likely means ________.
A. information on the lethal effects of cell phones
B. widespread opinion about bad effects of cell phones
C. the negative public use of cell phones
D. poor ideas about the effects of cell phones
71. Doctors have tentatively concluded that cell phones may ________.
A. damage their users' emotions B. cause some mental malfunction
C. change their users' temperament D. change their users' social behavior
72. The man mentioned in the passage, who used his cell phone too often ________.
A. suffered serious loss of mental ability B. could no longer think lucidly
C. abandoned his family D. had a problem with memory
73. According to the passage, what makes mobile phones potentially harmful is ________.
A. their radiant light B. their power of attraction
C. their raiding power D. their invisible rays
74. According to the writer, people should ________.
A. only use mobile phones in urgent cases B. only use mobile phones in medical emergencies
C. keep off mobile phones regularly D. never used mobile phones in all cases
75. The most suitable title for the passage could be ________.
A. "The reasons why mobile phones are regular" B. "Technological Innovation and their price"
C. "They way mobile phones work" D. "Mobile phones – a must of our time"
Part 3: Questions from 76 to 85 (2.0 points- 0.2/ each)
Read the text and think of the word which best fits each gap.
A Success Story
At 19, Ben Way is already a millionaire and one of a growing number of teenagers (76)

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__________ have made their fortune through the Internet. (77) __________ makes Ben's story all
the more remarkable is that he is dyslexic, and was told by teachers (78) __________ his junior
school that he would never be able to read or write properly. "I wanted to prove them wrong", says
Ben, creator and director of Way search, a net search engine which can be used to find goods (79)
__________ online shopping malls.
When he was eight, his local authorities provided him (80) __________ a PC to help with
schoolwork. Although he was unable to read the manuals, he had a natural (81) __________ with
the computer, and encouraged by his father, he soon began charging people E10 an hour for his
knowledge and skills. At the age of 15 he set up his own computer consultancy, Quad Computer,
which he ran from his bedroom, two years later he left school (82) __________ devote all his time to
business.
"By this time the company had grown and I needed to take (83) __________ a couple of
employees to help me," says Ben. “That enabled me to start doing business with bigger companies.”
It was his ability to consistently (84) __________ difficult challenges that led him to win the You
Entrepreneur of the Year award in the same year that he formed Way search, and he has recently
signed a deal worth £25 million with a private investment company, which will finance (85)
__________ search engine.
SECTION IV. WRITITNG (4 POINTS)
Part 1: Finish each of the following sentences in such a way that it means the same as the
sentence printed before it. Questions from 86 to 90 (1 point- 0.2/ each)
86. I could realize how important the family is only after I left home.
→ Not until ..................................................................................................................................................................................................................................
87. Mrs. Green is proud of her son’s contribution to the play.
→ Mrs. Green is proud of what..............................................................................................................................................................................
88. I could hold a big party due to my Mom’s help.
→ Had it ..........................................................................................................................................................................................................................................
89. Fiona was so disappointed that she could not keep on working.
→ Such ..............................................................................................................................................................................................................................................
90. Although Richard is competent in his work, he does not know how to deal with this client.
→ Competent ...........................................................................................................................................................................................................................
Part 2: Complete the second sentence so that it has a similar meaning to the first sentence, using
the word given. Do not change the word given.(1 point - 0.2/ each)
91. My mother never lets me make noise in the house. ALLOWED
 I am ………………………………………………………………..……………. noise in the house by my mother.

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92. It’ll be lovely to attend your wedding this spring. FORWARD
 I am ………………………………………………………………..……………. your wedding this spring.
93. You should take those shoes to be mended soon. HAVE
 You ………………………………………………………………..……………. mended soon.
94. He has a good relationship with all his students. GETS
 He ………………………………………………………………..……………. all his student.
95. “Turn down the volume or I will call the police” said the neighbor to us. THREATENED
 The neighbour …………………………………………………..……………. the volume or they would call the police.
Part 3: Essay writing (2 points)
Do you agree or disagree with the following statement?
“Watching TV is a waste of time for children”.
Write an essay of about 150 words to express your opinion, using specific details and examples to
support your answer.
………………………………………………………………..…………………………………………………………………………………………………..

………………………………………………………………..…………………………………………………………………………………………………..

………………………………………………………………..…………………………………………………………………………………………………..

………………………………………………………………..…………………………………………………………………………………………………..

………………………………………………………………..…………………………………………………………………………………………………..

………………………………………………………………..…………………………………………………………………………………………………..

………………………………………………………………..…………………………………………………………………………………………………..

………………………………………………………………..…………………………………………………………………………………………………..

………………………………………………………………..…………………………………………………………………………………………………..

--------THE END--------

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 SỞ GIÁO DỤC VÀ ĐÀO TẠO KỲ THI CHỌN HỌC SINH GIỎI
ĐỀ ÔN THI SỐ 23 CẤP TỈNH LỚP 9 NĂM 2018
MÔN: TIẾNG ANH
Thời gian làm bài: 120 phút (không kể thời gian phát đề)
Ngày thi: ………………………………..

SECTION I: LISTENING (3.0 points) (You will hear twice for each part)
1. C 2. A 3. B 4. A 5. B
6. C 7. address 8. pool 9. reception 10. view/views
11. price/prices 12. Spanish 13. July 14. Cliffton 15. 903036602
SECTION II: LEXICO – GRAMMAR (7.0 POINTS)
Part 1: Questions from 16 to 35. (3.0 points - 0.15/ each)Choose the best answer to each question.
16. C 17. A 18. C 19. B 20. B
21. D 22. B 23. A 24. C 25. D
26. D 27. C 28. A 29. C 30. C
31. B 32. C 33. D 34. A 35. A
Part 2: Questions from 36 to 45 (2 points - 0.2/ each)
Use the correct form of the word in brackets to complete the following sentences.
36.economically 37. intelligence 38. fearful 39. accidentally 40. employees
41. distinguish 42. Illiteracy/ 43. energetic 44. disconnected 45. anxiety
Illiterateness
Part 3: Questions from 46 to 50 (1 point - 0.2/ each)
Each of the following sentences has an error. Find the errors and correct them.
46. you will decide → will you decide 47. don’t receive → haven’t received
48. surprising →surprised 49. were →was
50. apparent →apprently
Part 4: Questions from 51 to 55.(1 point - 0.2/ each)
Fill in each of the sentences with correct prepositions.
51. off 52. from 53. for 54. to 55. with
SECTION III: READING (6.0 POINTS)
Part 1. Questions from 56 to 65 (2 points - 0.2/ each)
Read the passage below and choose the best option to complete each sentence.
56. C 57. D 58. B 59. A 60. C
61. B 62. D 63. A 64. C 65. D
Part 2. Questions from 66 to 75 (2.0 points - 0.2/ each)
Read the passage below and choose the best answer to each question
66. B 67. B 68. C 69. B 70. B
71. B 72. D 73. D 74. A 75. B
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Part 3: Questions from 76 to 85 (2.0 points- 0.2/ each)
Read the text and think of the word which best fits each gap.
76. who 77. what 78. at 79. in 80. with
81. ability 82. to 83. on 84. overcome 85. his
SECTION IV. WRITITNG (4 POINTS)
Part 1: Finish each of the following sentences in such a way that it means the same as the
sentence printed before it. Questions from 86 to 90 (1 point- 0.2/ each)
86.  Not until I left home could I realize how important the family is.
87. Mrs. Green is proud of what her son can contribute / contributes to the play.
88. Had it  not been for Mom’s help, I could not have held a big party.
89. Such Fiona’s disappointment that she could not keep on working.
90.  Competent as/ though Richard is / may be in his work, he does not know how to deal with this client.
Part 2: Complete the second sentence so that it has a similar meaning to the first sentence, using
the word given. Do not change the word given.(1 point - 0.2/ each)
91. I am never allowed to make noise in the house by my mother.
92.I am looking forward to attending your wedding this spring.
93. You should have those shoes mended soon.
94. He gets on well with all his student.
95. The neighbour threatened us to turn down the volume or they would call the police.
Part 3: Essay writing(2 points)
Mô tả tiêu chí đánh giá Điểm tối đa
1. Bố cục 0.40
Câu đề dẫn phải thể hiện được rõ ý kiến của người viết 0.10
Bố cục hợp lí, rõ ràng phù hợp với yêu cầu của đề bài và đầy đủ 3 phần: mở 0.15
bài, thân bài, kết luận.
Bố cục uyển chuyển từ mở bài đến kết luận 0.15
2. Phát triển ý 0.40
Phát triển ý có trình tự logic và mạch lạc 0.20
Có giải thích, dẫn chứng, ví dụ xác thực đủ để bảo vệ ý kiến của người viết 0.20
3. Sử dụng ngôn ngữ 0.40
Sử dụng ngôn từ phù hợp với nội dung của bài viết 0.10
Sử dụng ngôn từ đúng văn phong/ thể loại, đa dạng về từ vựng và cấu trúc. 0.15
Sử dụng từ nối các ý cho bài viết uyển chuyển 0.15
4. Nội dung 0.40
Đủ thuyết phục người đọc 0.15
Đủ dẫn chứng, ví dụ, lập luận 0.15

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 Độ dài: Số từ không nhiều hơn hoặc ít hơn so với quy định 10 % 0.10
5. Ngữ pháp, dấu câu và chính tả 0.40
Sử dụng đúng dấu câu 0.10
Chính tả: Viết đúng chính tả
- Lỗi chính tả gây hiểu nhầm/ sai lệch ý sẽ bị tính một lỗi (trừ 1% điểm của 0.10
bài viết)
- Cùng một lỗi chính tả lặp lại chỉ tính là một lỗi
Sử dụng đúng thời, thể, cấu trúc câu đúng ngữ pháp. (Lỗi ngữ pháp gây hiểu
0.20
nhầm/ sai lệch ý sẽ bị trừ 1% điểm bài viết.)
Tổng 2.00

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