Mock Clat - 36: (Answer and Explanation)

MOCK CLAT – 36 Answer and explanation
MOCK CLAT – 36
(Answer and explanation)
Q.1.1) Option (C).

Options a, b, and d are opposites. Option c is the right choice.
Q.1.2) Option (A).
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Option a is the right choice and follows from the above passage. Option b is incorrect and contrary to passage.
Option c is also incorrect as it is contrary to the passage.
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Q.1.3) Option (A).
Deter means to avert hence a is the right choice.
Q.1.4) Option (C).
Q.1.5) Option (D). 00

Both a and b support the author’s view of more power to women and hence c is the right choice.
Both a and b are in support of the author’s view. Hence d is the right choice.
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Q.2.1) Option (A).
Option a is the right choice. Option b is incorrect as it does not follow from the premise. Thus, c and d also are
incorrect.
Q.2.2) Option (C).

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Both a and b show the plight of women rights in Pakistan and hence c is the right answer.
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Q.2.3) Option (C).

Both a and b are correct and hence c is the right choice.
Q.2.4) Option (C).

Option c is the right choice. The passage is discussing the denial of rights to women and hence c is the right choice.
Q.2.5) Option (A).

Option a is the right answer and it follows from the passage. Option b is incorrect as it does not follow from the
passage.
Q.3.1) Option (A).

Option a is the right choice. By giving examples of Russia and Japan, option a is the best choice. Option b is
incorrect as the passage is seeking to indicate that correct measures should be taken at right time to stop the
spread. Option c is the wrong choice in light of the last para which is showing that economy will suffer a hit.
Q.3.2) Option (D).

all are correct – the problem of dense population, unhygienic conditions, communal differences, and economic
imbalance all are problems being faced, hence d is the right choice.
Q.3.3) Option (A).

Iron grip means having control over someone; options b and c are incorrect as they are opposites.
Q.3.4) Option (C).

Ghetto usage is a noun –small areas where minorities / groups of people live.
(1)
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Q.3.5) Option (C).
Options a and b are opposites. Hence c is the right choice.
Q.4.1) Option (B).

Option a is incorrect as dissent is a constitutional right which the Government has to protect. Option b is the right
choice. This is the problem that the author is targeting. Hence c and d are incorrect.
Q.4.2) Option (C).

as per the passage both a and b are correct and hence c is the right choice.
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Q.4.3) Option (D).
Adversarial means involving or characterized by conflict or opposition, it is an adjective hence d.
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Q.4.4) Option (B).
Option a is incorrect as there is no comparison with human being. Option b is correct as there is comparison
between two things that aren’t alike but have something in common. Option c is incorrect as there is no usage of
as / like in comparing. Option d is incorrect as there is no occurrence of the same consonant letter or sound
beginning of adjacent or closely connected words.
Q.4.5) Option (C). 00

options a, b and d are opposites. Option c is the right choice.
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Q.5.1) Option (D).
(A): The fact that fungi can have a symbiotic relationship with their hosts was not discussed as a new discovery. In
fact, the first paragraph implies that scientists have known of symbiotic fungi, in lichens, for some time. The new
discovery is about how those fungi are related to other fungi.
(B): The passage never suggests that lichen–forming fungi have recently been found to be a distinct species. You
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can eliminate this response for two reasons. First, the passage concerned the close relationship of lichen–forming
fungi to other fungi. Second, the passage implied that there are at least several lichen–forming fungi (“close
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relatives”).
(C): The passage related lichen–forming fungi to other fungi, not to algae, so this response is incorrect.
(D): This is the correct answer choice. This response accurately summarizes the strong statement
Q.5.2) Option (D).
Q.5.3) Option (A).

We know from the passage that previously it was difficult to separate fungi from host DNA, and new methods
allowed separation and subsequent DNA analysis. That means that the issue of separating DNA was the obstacle.
Q.5.4) Option (C).

The description in this response is very accurate. The first paragraph defines lichens, the second describes
difficulties and a resolution in studying lichen–forming fungi, and the third paragraph discusses the implications of
research.
Q.5.5) Option (B).

(A): The first part of this option—“to suggest that new research overturns the assumption”—makes this answer
attractive because that is the purpose of the last paragraph. In this case, the remainder of the answer does not
accurately describe the situation. The assumption discussed in the passage is that parasitic interactions inevitably
evolve over time to symbiosis. This answer, on the other hand, states that the assumption is that lichen–forming
fungi are primarily symbiotic. Because there is a difference between evolving to a state and primarily being in that
state, this option is incorrect.
(B): This response refers generally to the attack on the assumption that fungi inevitably evolve toward symbiosis.
The paragraph does introduce an “implication” that affects (overturns) a long–standing assumption.
(2)
Q.6.1) Option (C).
Solution: Option c is the correct option because according to the passage the proposal of UBI was a fringe idea
meaning it was different from the present views.
Q.6.2) Option (B).

Solution: Option b is correct because Matt Zwolinski’s statement, “It is significant to see an actual politician on the
right supporting something like this,” supports this.
Q.6.3) Option (D).

Solution: Option d is correct because the following line supports this, ‘the premise of UBI still has plenty of critics,
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who worry it will be exorbitantly expensive as a long–term plan’.
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Q.6.4) Option (A).
Solution: Option a is the correct answer because none of the other options is mentioned in the passage.
Q.6.5) Option (C).

Solution: Option c is the correct answer because ‘infusion’ means adding one thing to another to make it stronger
or better.
Q.7.1) Option (C).

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Q.7.2) Option (B).
Q.7.3) Option (D).
Q.7.4) Option (B).

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Q.7.5) Option (C).

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Q.8.1) Option (A).
Q.8.2) Option (A).
Q.8.3) Option (B).
Q.8.4) Option (A).
Q.8.5) Option (A).
Q.9.1) Option (A).
Q.9.2) Option (C).
Q.9.3) Option (A).
Q.9.4) Option (C).
Q.9.5) Option (B).
Q.9.6) Option (A).
Q.10.1) Option (A).
(3)
Q.10.2) Option (C).
Q.10.3) Option (A).
Q.10.4) Option (D).
Q.10.5) Option (A).
Q.11.1) Option (A).
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Q.11.2) Option (C).
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Q.11.3) Option (A).
Q.11.4) Option (C).
Q.11.5) Option (A).
Q.12.1) Option (B).
Q.12.2) Option (B).

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Q.12.3) Option (B).
Q.12.4) Option (C).

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Q.12.5) Option (C).

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Q.12.6) Option (B).
Q.13.1) Option (B).
Q.13.2) Option (D).
Q.13.3) Option (C).
Q.13.4) Option (B).
Q.13.5) Option (B).
Q.14.1) Option (B).

The author mentions that the right to freedom of speech includes the right to acquire information. However,
acquiring information by all means contemplates all kinds of means (which might not be within legal limits) which
is not imagined by the author. All the other rights are expressly stated in the passage to fall within the right to
freedom of speech and expression. Therefore, (b).
Q.14.2) Option (D).

From a reading of the judgment quoted in the passage, we can see that statements I and II are clearly contradictory
to what is stated. Statement III is an example of stretching an assertion in the passage to an illogical conclusion that
is not supported by the contents of the passage; and Statement IV is a vague/over–simplified conclusion from a
statement in that passage. Hence, (d).
(4)
Q.14.3) Option (D).
The passage states that “any interference with access to the internet is a direct violation of the right itself.” All the
statements have interference with such access.
Q.14.4) Option (D).

The passage states that the Kerala HC has held that the right to access internet is a fundamental right. In the light
of this statement, it can be said that the people of Pranabespura had the right to access the internet, as could
access internet through their phones. The right to broadband connectivity has been recognized as a basic necessity
in the telecom policy. Hence, (d).
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Q.14.5) Option (C).
As is stated in the passage, the Supreme Court had in the judgment of PUCL v. Union of India, held that
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fundamental rights guaranteed under the Constitution also include ancillary guarantees that make those rights
meaningful. Hence, if female foeticide in the state of Jaigarh continues to increase, then the rate at which female
students are admitted to primary schools will correspondingly decrease. Therefore, the guarantee of non–
discrimination as per Article 15(1) would be toothless without ensuring that enough female students are able to
even reach the stage of admission.
Q.15.1) Option (C).

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It can be argued that the denial of permanent commission to women officers in the Navy violated Articles 14, 15(1)
and 16(1). However, amongst the options provided, only (c) has more than one Article listed. Therefore, (c).
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Q.15.2) Option (D).
The passage mentions that, “The bench quashed the prospective effect of the policy barring women officers
inducted before 2008 from being granted permanent commission in the Navy”. Therefore, women officers who had
been appointed before 2008 are, post this judgment, eligible for being granted permanent commission. Plus, the
judgment also granted pension benefits to women officers who have retired and were not granted permanent
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commission. Therefore, the decision affects both the past and future decisions of the Navy. Hence, (d).
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Q.15.3) Option (D).

All the statements are mentioned in the passage to have played a role in the judgment of the Supreme Court. No
one statement can be said to have played a more important role than the other, at least from the information has
been provided in the passage.
Q.15.4) Option (D).

Statement II is a false representation of the assertion stated in the passage, as that cannot be stated to be the only
reason why women were denied permanent commission. Moreover, Statement IV conveniently skips a crucial
assertion in the passage, which states that “pension benefits *to be granted+ to women officers who have retired
and were not granted permanent commission”. Therefore, it is not for all women who retired. Therefore, (d).
Q.15.5) Option (B).

Options (a), (c) and (d), by their very wording, cannot be said to ensure what is mentioned in the text of Articles 14,
15 and 16. Moreover, options (c) and (d) are too specific to be considered to be broad enough to cover other
rights. Hence, (b).
Q.16.1) Option (D).

The move seeks to remove the word ‘socialist’ from the Constitution, and since Preamble is a part of the
Constitution, it also seeks to amend the Constitution. Moreover, as has been stated in the passage (in State of U.P.
v. Dina Nath Shukla), the Preamble has been considered to be the ‘basic structure’ of the Indian Constitution. As
per Kesavananda Bharati v. State of Kerala, the Parliament does have the power to amend the Constitution but in
doing so cannot amend the ‘basic structure’ of the Constitution. Therefore, the move by the member also seeks to
amend the basic structure also. Therefore, the correct answer should have been I, II, III, and IV. Since none of the
options reflect that, the answer is (d).
(5)
Q.16.2) Option (D).
The procedure for amending the Constitution is laid out in Article 368 (as quoted in the passage above). None of
the options fulfil the requirement as mentioned in the Article.
Q.16.3) Option (A).

Options (b), (c) and (d) are over–simplifications/mere speculations of facts stated in the passage. Only option (a)
states what is actually said in the passage.
Q.16.4) Option (B).

Statement III is mentioned in the text of Article 368 (extracted in the passage) itself as well as re–asserted in the
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judgment of Kesavananda Bharti v. State of Kerala. The other statements cannot be logically inferred from the
information provided in the passage as they are directly contradictory to what is stated therein.
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Q.16.5) Option (C).
Article 368(2)(e) clearly mentions that if any amendment seeks to make a change in Article 368 itself, then it shall
have to follow the procedure as prescribed therein.
Q.17.1) Option (D).

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Legislative interference is clearly mentioned as an intervention that can be accommodated within the concept of
force majeure.
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Q.17.2) Option (C).
The first paragraph clearly mentions that it is not clear whether there exist in law valid grounds for affected parties
to receive relief from liability for delayed or failed performance of contracts in the aftermath of the outbreak of
COVID–19. Therefore, (c).
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Q.17.3) Option (D).

Statement I is in contrast to what has been stated in the passage. The passage mentions that the doctrine of force
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majeure is a creature of contractual innovation. Which means that it has been born out of people entering into
contracts, rather than any codified provision of contract law. The remaining two statements are logical inferences
which can be drawn from the contents of the passage.
Q.17.4) Option (C).

The passage mentions that the contract will have to define with care the parameters of the relief that will be
afforded to the parties. Since it is the parties who enter into a contract, they get to decide what falls within the
force majeure provisions.
Q.17.5) Option (D).

Statement II is mere speculation, which has no basis in the information provided in the passage. Statements I and
III and clearly provided for in the passage.
Q.18.1) Option (D).

As is quoted in the passage, Explanation I to Article 3 states that in the proviso to Article 3, the term “State” does
not include “Union Territory”. Therefore, whatever is stated in the proviso will not apply to matters of Union
Territories. Therefore, there is no requirement of referring the said Bill to the Legislature/local administration of
the concerned Union Territories.
Q.18.2) Option (D).

The methods available to the Parliament for the creation of a new State are mentioned in Article 3(a). Option (d)
only increases the area of the State, but does not create a new State. Hence, (d).
(6)
Q.18.3) Option (C).
The proviso to Article 3 requires that when a Bill “affects the area, boundaries or name of any of the States”, it
needs to be referred to “the Legislature of that State”. In the present case, the Bill would affect the area of both
the states as a territory of the state of Inquilab is sought to be merged with the State of Zindabad, which means
that it would impact both the States. Hence, (c).
Q.18.4) Option (D).

The proviso to Article 3 states that the President needs to refer the Bill to the concerned State “for expressing its
views thereon within such period as may be specified in the reference or within such further period as the
President may allow…”. Hence, if a State does not express its views within the given time–period, then the same
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will be conveyed to the Parliament.
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Q.18.5) Option (C).
Options (a), (b) and (d) are clearly mentioned in passage. Option (c) introduces a new condition which is not
supported by the information provided in the passage.
Q.19.1) Option (B).
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For a crime to be considered to have been committed, it is imperative that the intention to do such an act be
present. In the present case, David cannot be said to have the required intention, therefore he is not liable for the
injury caused to Alexis.
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Q.19.2) Option (D).
As stated in the passage, intention refers to the mental element of a crime or the bent of a mind to commit crime,
whereas motive maybe defined as the reason/driving force behind the commission of a crime.
Q.19.3) Option (D).

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As stated in the passage, intention is said to be the fixed direction of the mind to a particular object, or
determination to act in a particular manner. Motive, on the other hand incites someone into action. In the
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information provided in the question, Sameer upon seeing that his partner Rohit was being dragged away from
him, was incited to act, therefore, he can definitely be said to have the motive to hit the man. On the other hand,
the men in the car had been chasing Sameer and Rohit in their car. Therefore, they were pursuing them with the
object of chasing them, or causing them annoyance. Hence, they can be said to have the intention to chase them.
Q.19.4) Option (C).

The fact that the steel flask didn’t anybody doesn’t change the fact that Sameer had a motive to hit the man with
the steel flask. Hence, (c).
Q.19.5) Option (D).

Statement I is contrary what has been stated in the passage. The passage states that when motive is a compelling
force for a person to commit a crime, then it becomes a relevant factor in determining guilt. Hence, it is not always
that motive is a relevant factor. Statement III is also contrary, as the passage states that it is “intention,
recklessness and knowledge are commonly used as the basis for criminal liability”. Motive does not figure out here.
Hence, both I and III are not asserted by the author in the passage.
Q.20.1) Option (D).

Statement I is an over exaggeration of assertions made in the passage. Statement II is false as the passage itself
mentions that it was from 1995 onwards that the right to health started being recognized as a right flowing from
Article 21 of the Constitution. Statement III makes a claim that is not supported in any way by the contents of the
passage. Hence, none of the statements describes the status correctly.
(7)
Q.20.2) Option (D).
Statement I is a generalization. The ruling of the Supreme Court, as quoted in the passage, only talks about Article
21 and no other fundamental right. Hence, the claim made in statement I is beyond the scope of the passage.
Statement III runs contrary to what has been stated in the passage, as the quoted ruling from Navtej Johar clearly
mentions that the court also has the power to impose positive obligations upon the State. Hence, (d).
Q.20.3) Option (C).

The direction of the Supreme Court is best described in the words of the Supreme Court itself in Navtej Johar,
when it mentions that “*t+his Court also has the power to impose positive obligations upon the State to take
measures to provide adequate resources or access to treatment facilities to secure effective enjoyment of the right
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to health.” Hence, (c)
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Q.20.4) Option (D).
As per the passage, it is the duty of the State to carry out some positive steps in order to ensure that adequate
facilities and treatment are made available to all. However, the fact situation as described above does not point to
a lack in health facilities more than confusion caused due to a lockdown.
Q.21.1) Option (C).

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As stated in the passage, fundamental rights are subject to certain reasonable restrictions, such the freedom of
speech and expression under Article 19(1)(a) is subject to reasonable restrictions under Article 19(2). Moreover, as
stated in the passage, the Supreme Court in the case of K.S.M. Sharma v. Sri Krishna Sinha and others has held that
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fundamental rights being more general in nature must yield to parliamentary privileges as the law governing the
latter is more specific in nature.
Q.21.2) Option (B).

The judgment in K.S.M. Sharma said that even a true and faithful report of the proceedings of the legislative
1
assembly would amount to breaching the privileges under Article 105. Therefore, paraphrasing the speeches would
definitely amount to a breach of that privilege also.
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Q.21.3) Option (A).

Article 105 protects the freedom of expression of members of parliament only in the Parliament. What is uttered
or spoken outside the Parliament is not a matter of concern of Article 105 or parliamentary privileges.
Q.21.4) Option (D).

Statement I is totally out of context, not supported by the contents of the passage. Statement III is contrary to
what is stated in the ruling, as both erroneous or truthful versions of proceedings of a legislature are prohibited
from being published. Therefore, (d)
Q.22.1) Option (B).

Let speed of boat is x in still water.
So in March
25% of 300/(x - 5) ∶ 16% of 500/(x + 5) = 5 : 4
Solve, x = 35
Q.22.2) Option (A).

Let speed of stream is x in January
So 22% of 500/5.5 = 15 + x
Hence x = 5 km/hour
Q.22.3) Option (C).

Let speed in still water for March and April is x and y respectively
Hence x + y = 25
(8)
And 25% of 300/ (x – 5) – 18% of 500/ (y + 3) = 10
Solve, x = 10 and y = 15
Hence 2:3
Q.22.4) Option (C).

Total time 15% of 300/(19 - 4) + 20% of 500/(14 + 6) = 8 hours
Q.22.5) Option (D).

Let speed in still water for February and April is x and y respectively
Now x + y = 28
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15% of 300/(x – 4) = 18% of 500/(y + 3)
Solve, x = 13 and y = 15
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Hence speed in February is  100 = 13.33 % less than April
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Q.23.1) Option (B).
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Number of male infected in China = 1/3 of 8,119,800 = 2,706,600
Number of male infected in Italy = 7/10 of 4,102,500 = 2,871,750
In Spain and Iran total infected cases are less than male infected in Italy
Hence Italy has highest number of male infected by COVID–19.
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Q.23.2) Option (C).
4% of Total Population = 1,807,600
Total Population = 45,190,000
Hence male population = 45.19 – 16.19 = 29 million
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Q.23.3) Option (A).

Number of male infected by COVID–19 in Iran = 7/12 of 1,850,400 = 1,079,400
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Number of female infected by COVID–19 in Italy = 3/10 of 4,102,500 = 1,230,750

Hence difference between number of male in Iran and female in Italy infected by COVID–19 = 151,350.
Q.23.4) Option (D).

Population of China = 8,119,800/0.5 ×100 = 1,623,960,000
Hence India population = 0.8 of 1,623,960,000 = 1,299,168,000
So percentage of Indian population infected by COVID–19 = 26500/1,299,168,000 × 100 = 0.002%
Q.23.5) Option (B).

Total (worldwide) number of male infected by COVID–19 = 5/9 of 24,657,300 = 13,698,500
Total Population of Spain = 1,807,600/4 × 100 = 45,190,000
Hence total (worldwide) number of male infected by COVID–19 as a percentage of total population of
Spain=13,698,500/45,190,000 × 100 = 30.31
Q.24.1) Option (B).

Difference in SP = 78% of MP – 75% of MP
So 3% of MP = 165
Solve, MP = 5500
So SP by store X = 82% of 5500 = Rs 4510
Q.24.2) Option (B).

Since MP is same hence average discount = (25 + 20 + 30)/3 = 25%
Hence MP = 35580 × 100/75 = 47440
(9)
Q.24.3) Option (D).
Let x% discount by store Y
So [78 + (100 – x)]/2% of MP = 1920
And [68 + (100 – x)]/2% of MP = 1800
Solve, x = 18% and MP = 2400
So SP by store X = 78% of 2400 = Rs 1872
Q.24.4) Option (A).

Let x and y are the discount bye store X and Z respectively.
Hence x /25 = 3/5 so x = 15
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Now
85% of MP = 75% of MP + 4500
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Solve, MP = Rs 45000
So SP by Z = 85% of MP – 1350 = 85% of 45000 – 1350 = 36900
Q.24.5) Option (C).

Let MP is 100
SP by store X = 84, SP by store Y = 88, SP by store Z = 92 ,
So CP by X = 100/120 of 84 = 70
Now CP is same
Profit by Y = 88 – 70 = 18 & Profit by Z = 92 – 70 = 22
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So required ratio = 18 : 22 = 9:11
Q.25.1) Option (D).

(A) The passage gives no information about the linguistic capacities of Australopithecus afarensis.
(B) The passage indicates that the discovered hyoid bone more closely resembles those of apes than humans.
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However, while the passage does generally relate to evolution, the discovered bone is not necessarily less primitive
than that of an ape. It could be slightly different in an equally primitive way; not all differences in structure would
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make a bone more advanced.

(C) While it can be inferred that this bone has an effect on speech, the passage does not indicate that it is
necessary for speech. It is possible that a modern species could be capable of speech without a hyoid bone.
(D) The passage states that the discovery of the hyoid bone has had a tremendous impact on theories about the
origins of speech. The passage goes on to say that it is the first hyoid found in such an early human–related species,
suggesting that the timeline of human verbal development would be changed by the discovery. Thus, it can be
inferred that the discovery made the reexamination of prior theories necessary.
Q.25.2) Option (C).

These sentences indicate that the discovery of the hyoid bone has either expanded or called into question certain
previously held ideas in the field. The correct answer will reflect this sort of impact in another field.
(A) This option discusses the impact of the discovery and analysis of cosmic rays on the field of physics. However, in
this example the discovery serves to support a widely accepted theory, as opposed to causing a reexamination of
earlier ideas.
(B) This option describes the original manuscript of an author that confirms ideas of the development of an
important work of literature. However, in this option the discovery serves to confirm earlier held ideas, as opposed
to causing a reexamination of accepted ideas.
(C) This option correctly describes a discovery that causes a re–examination of earlier ideas in another field. In this
case, newly uncovered journal entries by a politician spur a re–evaluation of certain historical ideas regarding an
important conflict.
(D) This option describes scientific advances in the field of biology as giving rise to new applications. It does not
discuss a discovery that calls accepted ideas into question.
(10)
Q.25.3) Option (C).
The location of the fossil discovery is mentioned in the first paragraph of the passage. However, the location is not
provided as a reason why the fossils are significant.
Q.25.4) Option (A).

(A) If the researchers always knew about the presence of hyoid bone and based their theories about origins of
speech based on it then the knowledge of presence of hyoid bone in the fossils would not have a tremendous
impact on the theories. Therefore, this option weakens the author’s claim.
(B) That the fossil hyoid done is not similar hyoid bone found in a modern human being is already mentioned by
the author. It’s not about its similarity with the modern human’s hyoid bone, but the knowledge of the presence of
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hyoid bone would impact the theories, as per the author.
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Q.25.5) Option (A).
Q.26.1) Option (C).

(A) The passage does not seek to initiate a debate; it is more concerned with documenting findings that pertain to
life on Mars. In other words, the passage presents the findings that frame a debate, not initiating the debate itself.
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(B) The passage presents evidence in support of and against the possibility of life on Mars. It is too limited to
suggest that the passage is primarily concerned with presenting evidence in support of life of Mars.
(C) This option avoids extreme words and best summarizes the purpose of the passage.
(D) This option is too specific. The passage does mention the Mars rovers Opportunity and Spirit, but it is
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inaccurate to suggest that the passage is primarily concerned with these two rovers.
Q.26.2) Option (D).

(A) In the second paragraph, the author states that while the presence of geological landforms may indicate the
presence of water, it is also possible that these landforms were caused by wind erosion or carbon dioxide oceans.
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(B) The first discoveries mentioned were as early as the mid–17th century. Therefore, it is reasonable to conclude
that it is likely that there were not many significant discoveries before this time.
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(C) In the second paragraph, the absence of a substantial global magnetic field is presented as evidence of the lack
of life on Mars.
(D) According to the second paragraph, the Mars rovers Opportunity and Spirit have both discovered geological
evidence of past water activity. This is both significant (as made clear by the subsequent sentence that these
findings substantially bolster claims...) and direct evidence supporting the claim that there was once water on
Mars. Thus, the passage contradicts the statement that this claim is supported by only limited and indirect
evidence.
Q.26.3) Option (C).
Q.26.4) Option (B).
Q.26.5) Option (A).
Q.27.1) Option (D).

“They point out that in the 1980’s, many European countries and the United States conquered high (by these
countries’ standards) inflation, but only by applying tight monetary and fiscal policies that sharply increased
unemployment.”
The only piece of the sentence that suggests a difference between the US/European countries and other countries
is the bit inside the parentheses –– "high (by these countries' standards) inflation." Here, the author implies that
what the US/European countries consider to be high inflation differs from that classification in other countries.
(11)
Q.27.2) Option (A).
Option (A) strengthens the author’s conclusion about the use of wage and price controls (expressed in the last
sentence of the passage) by giving evidence that, in fact, countries that have used wage and price inflation in the
past have experienced problems with long–term growth.
Q.27.3) Option (D).
Q.27.4) Option (A).
Q.27.5) Option (A).
1
Options (B), (C) and (D) can be inferred/mentioned in the passage. But they are narrow in scope. Option (A)
correctly captures the main point of the passage.
09
Q.28.1) Option (C).
The second paragraph states that most small asteroids should be monolithic, and the five observed asteroids are all
smaller than 200 metres in diameter.
Q.28.2) Option (C).

00
The author says “any loose aggregate spinning faster than once every few hours would fly apart”. So, an asteroid
500 meters in diameter rotating at a rate of once per hour would fly apart if it were not a monolith. The conclusion
states that asteroids larger than 200 meters across are multicomponent structures or rubble piles (that is/are not
94
monoliths), so this discovery would weaken the conclusion.
Q.28.3) Option (B).
Q.28.4) Option (D).

1
Q.29.1) Option (C).

19
Q.29.2) Option (D).
Q.30.1) Option (C).
Q.30.2) Option (C).
Q.31.1) Option (C).

The argument here talks about 8 million and 7 million people, but it doesn’t realize that the 7 million is NOT a
subset of the 8 million. Therefore the claim that this difference is “comparatively few” is wrong. Option C,
therefore, is correct.
Q.32.1) Option (C).
Q.33.1) Option (A).
Q.33.2) Option (B).
Q.33.3) Option (C).
Q.33.4) Option (B).
Q.33.5) Option (C).
(12)

Mock Clat - 36: (Answer and Explanation)

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MOCK CLAT – 36 Answer and explanation

Q.1.1) Option (C).

Q.1.2) Option (A).

Q.1.4) Option (C).

Q.1.5) Option (D). 00

Q.2.2) Option (C).

Q.2.3) Option (C).

Q.2.4) Option (C).

Q.2.5) Option (A).

Q.3.1) Option (A).

Q.3.2) Option (D).

Q.3.3) Option (A).

Q.3.4) Option (C).

Q.4.1) Option (B).

Q.4.2) Option (C).

Q.4.5) Option (C). 00

Q.5.2) Option (D).

Q.5.3) Option (A).

Q.5.4) Option (C).

Q.5.5) Option (B).

Q.6.2) Option (B).

Q.6.3) Option (D).

Q.6.5) Option (C).

Q.7.1) Option (C).

Q.7.3) Option (D).

Q.7.4) Option (B).

Q.7.5) Option (C).

Q.8.1) Option (A).

Q.8.2) Option (A).

Q.8.3) Option (B).

Q.8.4) Option (A).

Q.8.5) Option (A).

Q.9.1) Option (A).

Q.9.2) Option (C).

Q.9.3) Option (A).

Q.9.4) Option (C).

Q.9.5) Option (B).

Q.9.6) Option (A).

Q.10.1) Option (A).

Q.10.3) Option (A).

Q.10.4) Option (D).

Q.10.5) Option (A).

Q.11.1) Option (A).

Q.11.4) Option (C).

Q.11.5) Option (A).

Q.12.1) Option (B).

Q.12.2) Option (B).

Q.12.4) Option (C).

Q.12.5) Option (C).

Q.12.6) Option (B).

Q.13.1) Option (B).

Q.13.2) Option (D).

Q.13.3) Option (C).

Q.13.4) Option (B).

Q.13.5) Option (B).

Q.14.1) Option (B).

Q.14.2) Option (D).

Q.14.4) Option (D).

Q.15.1) Option (C).