NATIONAL ELIGIBILITY

CUM ENTRANCE TEST

NEET (UG), 2017
BOOKLET CODE-D
(APRA)
Time : 3 hrs.
Answers & Solutions
o m Max. Marks : 720

Important Instructions :
. c
1.
b
The Answer Sheet is inside this Test Booklet. When you are directed to open the Test Booklet, take out the

u
Answer Sheet and fill in the particulars on Side-1 and Side-2 carefully with blue / black ball point pen only.
2.

e h
The test is of 3 hours duration and Test Booklet contains 180 questions. Each question carries 4 marks.
For each correct response, the candidate will get 4 marks. For each incorrect response, one mark will be
deducted from the total scores. The maximum marks are 720.
3.
4.
t e
Use Blue / Black Ball Point Pen only for writing particulars on this page / marking responses.
Rough work is to be done on the space provided for this purpose in the Test Booklet only.
5.

t u
On completion of the test, the candidate must hand over the Answer Sheet to the invigilator before

.
leaving the Room / Hall. The candidates are allowed to take away this Test Booklet with them.

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6. The CODE for this Booklet is D. Make sure that the CODE printed on Side-2 of the Answer Sheet is the
same as that on this Booklet. In case of discrepancy, the candidate should immediately report the matter to
the Invigilator for replacement of both the Test Booklet and the Answer Sheet.
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8.
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The candidates should ensure that the Answer Sheet is not folded. Do not make any stray marks on the

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1
1. The two nearest harmonics of a tube closed at one Answer (2)
end and open at other end are 220 Hz and 260 Hz.
Sol. hoil oil g = hwater water g
What is the fundamental frequency of the system?
(1) 30 Hz (2) 40 Hz 140 × oil = 130 × water

(3) 10 Hz (4) 20 Hz 13
oil = × 1000 kg/m3
Answer (4) 14

Sol. Two successive frequencies of closed pipe oil = 928 kg m–3

nv 3. A particle executes linear simple harmonic motion

 220 ...(i)
4l with an amplitude of 3 cm. When the particle is at
2 cm from the mean position, the magnitude of its
 n  2 v  260 velocity is equal to that of its acceleration. Then its
...(ii)
4l time period in seconds is
Dividing (ii) by (i), we get
4 2
n  2 260 13 (1) (2)
  5 3
n 220 11

11n + 22 = 13n (3)


5

o m (4)
5
2
n = 11
Answer (1)

. c
b
v
So, 11  220
4l Sol. v   A – x 2 2

v
4l
 20

h u
a = x2

So fundamental frequency is 20 Hz.

e e v a

t
2. A U tube with both ends open to the atmosphere, is
 A2 – x 2  x 2
partially filled with water. Oil, which is immiscible with

. t
water, is poured into one side until it stands at a

u
distance of 10 mm above the water level on the other
side. Meanwhile the water rises by 65 mm from its
⎛ 2 ⎞
(3)2 – (2)2  2 ⎜ ⎟
⎝T ⎠

A
Pa

w F
Pa
w
original level (see diagram). The density of the oil is
5

T 
4
4
T

Oil
w
65 mm
E

D
10 mm
Final water level

Initial water level

4.
5
Two astronauts are floating in gravitational free space
after having lost contact with their spaceship. The
two will:
65 mm (1) Move away from each other
B C (2) Will become stationary

Water (3) Keep floating at the same distance between

them

(4) Move towards each other

(1) 800 kg m–3
Answer (4)
(2) 928 kg m–3

(3) 650 kg m–3 Sol. Both the astronauts are in the condition of
weightness. Gravitational force between them pulls
(4) 425 kg m–3 towards each other.

2
5. The de-Broglie wavelength of a neutron in thermal Initial energy
equilibrium with heavy water at a temperature T 1
(Kelvin) and mass m, is Ui  CV 2
2
2h 2h Final energy
(1) (2)
3mkT mkT
2 2
1 ⎛V ⎞ 1 ⎛V ⎞
h h Uf  C⎜ ⎟  C⎜ ⎟
(3) (4) 2 ⎝2⎠ 2 ⎝2⎠
mkT 3mkT
Answer (4)
CV 2
Sol. de-Broglie wavelength 
4
h
 Loss of energy = Ui – Uf
mv
h
= CV 2
2m(KE) 
4
h


m
i.e. decreases by a factor (2)
3
2m( kT )

o
2 7. Which one of the following represents forward bias
diode?

.c
h
 R
3mkT (1) –2 V +2 V
6. A capacitor is charged by a battery. The battery is
removed and another identical uncharged capacitor
is connected in parallel. The total electrostatic
(2)

u
3V
b R 5V

energy of resulting system

(1) Remains the same

e h (3) 0V R –2 V

(2) Increases by a factor of 2

(3) Increases by a factor of 4
t e (4) –4 V R –3 V

(4) Decreases by a factor of 2

Answer (4)
C
. t u Answer (3)
Sol. In forward bias, p-type semiconductor is at higher
potential w.r.t. n-type semiconductor.
Sol.

w w 8. The photoelectric threshold wavelength of silver is

3250 × 10–10 m. The velocity of the electron ejected
from a silver surface by ultraviolet light of wavelength

V
Charge on capacitor
q = CV
w 2536 × 10–10 m is

(Given h = 4.14 × 10–15 eVs and c = 3 × 108 ms–1)

(1)  61 × 103 ms–1 (2)  0.3 × 106 ms–1

when it is connected with another uncharged
(3)  6 × 105 ms–1 (4)  0.6 × 106 ms–1
capacitor.
C q Answer (3 & 4)* Both answers are correct.

Sol. 0 = 3250 × 10–10 m

 = 2536 × 10–10 m

1242 eV-nm
C =  3.82 eV
325 nm
q  q2 q0
Vc  1 
C1  C2 C  C 1242 eV-nm
h =  4.89 eV
V
253.6 nm
Vc 
2 KEmax = (4.89 – 3.82) eV = 1.077 eV

3
 1 
mv 2  1.077  1.6  10 19 i
2 R2
18
19 =
2  1.077  1.6  10 9
v=
9.1  10 31 =2A
Note : Not correctly framed but the best option out
v = 0.6 × 106 m/s
of given is (1).
9. Two cars moving in opposite directions approach 11. A beam of light from a source L is incident normally
each other with speed of 22 m/s and 16.5 m/s on a plane mirror fixed at a certain distance x from
respectively. The driver of the first car blows a horn the source. The beam is reflected back as a spot on
having a frequency 400 Hz. The frequency heard by a scale placed just above the source L. When the
the driver of the second car is [velocity of sound mirror is rotated through a small angle , the spot of
340 m/s] the light is found to move through a distance y on
the scale. The angle  is given by
(1) 411 Hz (2) 448 Hz
x x
(3) 350 Hz (4) 361 Hz (1) (2)
2y y
Answer (2)

⎡v  vo ⎤
(3)
y
2x
o m (4)
y
x
Sol. fA  f ⎢ ⎥
⎣ v  vs ⎦ Answer (3)

. c
b
⎡ 340  16.5 ⎤ Sol. When mirror is rotated by  angle reflected ray will
 400 ⎢ ⎥ be rotated by 2.
⎣ 340  22 ⎦
fA = 448 Hz

h u 2

e
10. Figure shows a circuit contains three identical
resistors with resistance R = 9.0  each, two
identical inductors with inductance L = 2.0 mH each,
and an ideal battery with emf  = 18 V. The current

te x

'i' through the battery just after the switch closed is

+
L
R
. t
R u y
y

(1) 2 A
–

w
R
w L

(2) 0 ampere
C x


 2

y
2x
(3) 2 mA
Answer (1*) w (4) 0.2 A 12. An arrangement of three parallel straight wires
placed perpendicular to plane of paper carrying same
current ‘I’ along the same direction is shown in Fig.
Magnitude of force per unit length on the middle wire
‘B’ is given by
R3
L1 R2
Sol  +
– C
B d
R1 L2 C
90°
At t = 0, no current flows through R1 and R3 d
i
A

20I 2 0I 2
+ (1) (2)
  R2 d 2d
–
2
0 I 20I 2
(3) (4)
2d d

4
Answer (2) Answer (1)
Sol. Force between BC and AB will be same in 1
magnitude. Sol. Spring constant  length

d C
B 1
F k
90° l
d F i.e, k1 = 6k

k2 = 3k
A
k3 = 2k
 I2
FBC  FBA  0 In series
2d
F  2FBC 1 1 1 1
  
k ' 6k 3k 2k
0 I 2
 2
2 d 1 6

F
 0I
2d
2

k ' 6k

k' = k
o m
13. Young’s double slit experiment is first performed in

. c
k'' = 6k + 3k + 2k

b
air and then in a medium other than air. It is found
that 8th bright fringe in the medium lies where 5th k'' = 11k
dark fringe lies in air. The refractive index of the
medium is nearly

h u k'

1
11
i.e k ' : k ''  1: 11
(1) 1.69

(2) 1.78

e e 15. A thin prism having refracting angle 10° is made of

t
glass of refractive index 1.42. This prism is combined
with another thin prism of glass of refractive index

u
(3) 1.25

t
1.7. This combination produces dispersion without

.
(4) 1.59 deviation. The refracting angle of second prism
should be

w
Answer (2)
(1) 8° (2) 10°
D
Sol. X1 = X5th dark

X2 = X8th bright
w w
= (2 × 5 – 1)

= 8
D
d
2d
(3) 4°
Answer (4)

Sol. (  1)A  (  1)A  0

(4) 6°

X1 = X2
(  1)A  (   1)A

9 D D
8 (1.42  1)  10  (1.7  1)A
2 d d
4.2 = 0.7A'
16
  1.78 A' = 6°
9
14. A spring of force constant k is cut into lengths of ratio 16. A gas mixture consists of 2 moles of O 2 and
1 : 2 : 3. They are connected in series and the new 4 moles of Ar at temperature T. Neglecting all
force constant is k. Then they are connected in parallel vibrational modes, the total internal energy of the
and force constant is k. Then k : k is system is
(1) 1 : 11 (2) 1 : 14 (1) 9 RT (2) 11 RT
(3) 1 : 6 (4) 1 : 9 (3) 4 RT (4) 15 RT

5
Answer (2) 19. Two discs of same moment of inertia rotating about
their regular axis passing through centre and
f f
Sol. U = n1 1 RT  n2 2 RT perpendicular to the plane of disc with angular
2 2
velocities 1 and 2. They are brought into contact
5 3 face to face coinciding the axis of rotation. The
= 2 RT  4  RT
2 2 expression for loss of energy during this process is
= 5 RT + 6 RT
(1) I(1 – 2)2
U = 11 RT
I
17. Consider a drop of rain water having mass 1 g falling (2) (1  2 )2
from a height of 1 km. It hits the ground with a speed 8
of 50 m/s. Take g constant with a value
10 m/s2. The work done by the (i) gravitational force 1
(3) I (1  2 )2
and the (ii) resistive force of air is 2
(1) (i) 100 J (ii) 8.75 J
1
(2) (i) 10 J (ii) –8.75 J (4) I (1  2 )2
4
(3) (i) – 10 J
(4) (i) 1.25 J
(ii) –8.25 J
(ii) –8.25 J
Answer (4)

o m
Answer (2)
Sol. KE 
1 I1I2

. c
2 I1  I2
(1   2 )2

b
Sol. wg + wa = Kf – Ki

u
1
mgh + wa = mv 2  0
2 1 I2

10–3 × 10 × 103 + wa =
1
2
 10 3  (50)2

e h  (   2 )2
2 (2I ) 1

t
wa = –8.75 J i.e. work done due to air resistance and
work done due to gravity = 10 J
e 
1
4
I (1   2 )2

. t
18. The x and y coordinates of the particle at any time
are x = 5t – 2t2 and y = 10t respectively, where x
and y are in meters and t in seconds. The
u 20. Thermodynamic processes are indicated in the
following diagram.

w
P
acceleration of the particle at t = 2 s is
IV

w
i f
(1) –4 m/s2
I III
f

w
(2) –8 m/s2
f II
(3) 0 700 K
f 500 K
(4) 5 m/s2 300 K
V
Answer (1) Match the following
Sol. x = 5t – 2t2 y = 10t Column-1 Column-2
P. Process I a. Adiabatic
dx dy
= 5 – 4t = 10 Q. Process II b. Isobaric
dt dt
R. Process III c. Isochoric
vx = 5 – 4t vy = 10
S. Process IV d. Isothermal
dv
x–4
dv
y  10 (1) P  c, Q  d, R  b, S  a
dt dt
(2) P  d, Q  b, R  a, S  c
ax = – 4 ay = 0 (3) P  a, Q  c, R  d, S  b
Acceleration of particle at t = 2 s is = –4 m/s2 (4) P  c, Q  a, R  d, S  b

6
Answer (4) 23. The diagrams below show regions of equipotentials.
Sol. Process I = Isochoric 20 V 40 V 20 V 40 V 10 V 30 V 40 V
20 V
II = Adiabatic
III = Isothermal A B A B A B A B

IV = Isobaric
10 V
21. The bulk modulus of a spherical object is ‘B’. If it is 30 V
10 V 30 V 10 V 30 V 20 V 40 V
subjected to uniform pressure ‘p’, the fractional (a) (b) (c) (d)
decrease in radius is
A positive charge is moved from A to B in each
3p p diagram.
(1) (2)
B 3B (1) Minimum work is required to move q in
figure (a).
p B
(3) (4) (2) Maximum work is required to move q in
B 3p figure (b).
Answer (2) (3) Maximum work is required to move q in

m
figure (c).
p
Sol. B  (4) In all the four cases the work done is the same.

⎝

⎛ V⎞
⎜ V ⎟
⎠
Answer (4)
Sol. Work done w = qV

. c o
V p
V

B
b
V is same in all the cases so work is done will be
same in all the cases.

u
24. Preeti reached the metro station and found that the
3
r p
r

B

e h
escalator was not working. She walked up the
stationary escalator in time t1. On other days, if she
remains stationary on the moving escalator, then the
r
r

p
3B

t e escalator takes her up in time t2. The time taken by

her to walk up on the moving escalator will be

t
22. The acceleration due to gravity at a height 1 km

. u
above the earth is the same as at a depth d below
the surface of earth. Then
t1t2
(1) t  t
2 1
(2) t1 – t2

w t1  t2 t1t2
3 (3) (4) t – t
(1) d  km 2 2 1

(3) d 
2
(2) d = 2 km

1
2
km
w w Answer (1)

Sol. Velocity of girl w.r.t. elevator 

d
t1
 v ge

d
(4) d = 1 km Velocity of elevator w.r.t. ground v eG  then
t2
Answer (2) velocity of girl w.r.t. ground
  
Sol. Above earth surface Below earth surface v gG  v ge  v eG

⎛ 2h ⎞ ⎛ d ⎞ i.e, v gG  v ge  v eG
g  = g ⎜⎝ 1 – R ⎟⎠ g  = g ⎜⎝ 1 – R ⎟⎠
e e
d d d
 
2h d t t1 t 2
g  = g R …(1) g = g R …(2)
e e
1 1 1
From (1) & (2)  
t t1 t2
d = 2h
t1t2
t
d = 2 × 1 km (t1  t2 )

7
25. Two blocks A and B of masses 3m and m 26. A spherical black body with a radius of 12 cm
respectively are connected by a massless and radiates 450 watt power at 500 K. If the radius were
inextensible string. The whole system is suspended halved and the temperature doubled, the power
by a massless spring as shown in figure. The radiated in watt would be
magnitudes of acceleration of A and B immediately
after the string is cut, are respectively (1) 1000

(2) 1800

(3) 225

(4) 450

A 3m Answer (2)

Sol. Rate of power loss

B m
g g r  R 2T 4
(1) g, g (2) ,
3 3

(3) g,
g
3
(4)
g
3
,g
r1 R12T14

r2 R22T24

o m
Answer (4)
= 4
1
16
. c
b
kx
450 1

Sol. 3m

h u
r2

4

r2 = 1800 watt
T

e e 27. Two rods A and B of different materials are welded

3mg
Before the string is cut

u t together as shown in figure. Their thermal

conductivities are K 1 and K 2 . The thermal

kx = T + 3mg ...(1)

. t conductivity of the composite rod will be

A K1

w
T = mg ...(2) T1 T2
B K2
T

mg w w (1) K1 + K2

(3)
K1  K 2
d
(2) 2(K1 + K2)

(4)
3  K1  K 2 
2 2
 kx = 4mg
Answer (3)
After the string is cut, T = 0
Sol. Thermal current
kx  3mg kx H = H1 + H2
a=
3m
K1A(T1  T2 ) K 2 A(T1  T2 )
= 
3m d d
m
4mg  3mg
a=  a = g K EQ 2 A(T1  T2 ) A(T1  T2 )
3m
mg  K1  K2 
d d
3mg
g ⎡ K  K2 ⎤
a=  K EQ  ⎢ 1 ⎥
3 ⎣ 2 ⎦

8
28. One end of string of length l is connected to a Answer (3)
particle of mass ‘m’ and the other end is connected Sol. Centre of mass may or may not coincide with centre
to a small peg on a smooth horizontal table. If the of gravity.
particle moves in circle with speed ‘v’, the net force
31. A rope is wound around a hollow cylinder of mass
on the particle (directed towards center) will be 3 kg and radius 40 cm. What is the angular
(T represents the tension in the string) acceleration of the cylinder if the rope is pulled with
a force of 30 N?
m v2
(1) T  (2) Zero (1) 25 rad/s2 (2) 5 m/s2
l
(3) 25 m/s2 (4) 0.25 rad/s2
2
mv
(3) T (4) T  Answer (1)
l
Answer (3) 40
Sol. cm

⎛ mv 2 ⎞
Sol. Centripetal force ⎜⎜ l ⎟⎟ is provided by tension so
⎝ ⎠
F = 30 N
the net force will be equal to tension i.e., T.
29. In a common emitter transistor amplifier the audio
=I
F × R = MR2
o m
signal voltage across the collector is 3 V. The
resistance of collector is 3 k. If current gain is 100

. c
30 × 0.4 = 3 × (0.4)2 

b
12 = 3 × 0.16 
and the base resistance is 2 k, the voltage and
power gain of the amplifier is

u
400 = 16 
(1) 150 and 15000 (2) 20 and 2000  = 25 rad/s2
(3) 200 and 1000
Answer (1)
(4) 15 and 200

e h
32. A long solenoid of diameter 0.1 m has 2 × 104 turns
per meter. At the centre of the solenoid, a coil of 100

Sol. Current gain () = 100

t e turns and radius 0.01 m is placed with its axis

coinciding with the solenoid axis. The current in the

u
solenoid reduces at a constant rate to 0 A from 4 A
R

t
Voltage gain (AV) =  c in 0.05 s. If the resistance of the coil is 102 , the
Rb

⎛ 3⎞
= 100 ⎜⎝ ⎟⎠
2
w . total charge flowing through the coil during this time
is
(1) 32 C (2) 16C

w
(3) 32C (4) 16 C
= 150
Answer (1)
Power gain = AV 

w
= 150 (100)
= 15000
Sol.   N



N d
d
dt

30. Which of the following statements are correct? R R dt

(a) Centre of mass of a body always coincides with N
dq  d
the centre of gravity of the body. R
(b) Centre of mass of a body is the point at which N ( )
Q 
the total gravitational torque on the body is zero R
(c) A couple on a body produce both translational total
Q 
and rotational motion in a body. R
(d) Mechanical advantage greater than one means (NBA)
that small effort can be used to lift a large load. 
R
(1) (b) and (c) (2) (c) and (d) 0 ni r 2

(3) (b) and (d) (4) (a) and (b) R

9
 Putting values 35. The given electrical network is equivalent to

4  107  100  4    (0.01)2

 A Y
102 B
Q  32 C
(1) NOR gate
33. The ratio of wavelengths of the last line of Balmer
series and the last line of Lyman series is (2) NOT gate
(1) 4 (2) 0.5
(3) 2 (4) 1 (3) AND gate

Answer (1) (4) OR gate

Sol. For last Balmer series
Answer (1)
1 ⎡1 1 ⎤
 R⎢ 2  2⎥ Sol. Y  A  B
b ⎣2  ⎦

4 1
b 

m
36. A Carnot engine having an efficiency of as heat
R 10
For last Lyman series

1
l
⎡1 1 ⎤
 R⎢ 2  2⎥
⎣1  ⎦
. c o
engine, is used as a refrigerator. If the work done on
the system is 10 J, the amount of energy absorbed
from the reservoir at lower temperature is

l 
1
R
(1) 99 J

u
(2) 100 J b
b R

4

e h
(3) 1 J

e
l 1 (4) 90 J
R

u t Answer (4)

t
b
4 1 
l

w .
34. Suppose the charge of a proton and an electron differ
slightly. One of them is –e, the other is (e + e). If
Sol.  =


1
1
9

w 10 10
the net of electrostatic force and gravitational force  
between two hydrogen atoms placed at a distance 1 1

w 10 10
d (much greater than atomic size) apart is zero,
then e is of the order of [Given mass of hydrogen
mh = 1.67 × 10–27 kg] =9
(1) 10–37 C (2) 10–47 C
Q2
(3) 10–20 C (4) 10–23 C =
W
Answer (1)
Q2 = 9 × 10 = 90 J
Sol. Fe = Fg
37. In an electromagnetic wave in free space the root mean
1 e2 Gm 2
 2 square value of the electric field is Erms = 6 V/m. The
40 d 2 d peak value of the magnetic field is
9 × 109 (e2) = 6.67 × 10–11 × 1.67 (1) 0.70 × 10–8 T
× 10–27 × 1.67 × 10–27
(2) 4.23 × 10–8 T
6.67  1.67  1.67
e 2
 10 74
9 (3) 1.41 × 10–8 T

e  10 37 (4) 2.83 × 10–8 T

10
Answer (4) 39. If 1 and 2 be the apparent angles of dip observed
in two vertical planes at right angles to each other,
Erms
Sol. c then the true angle of dip  is given by
Brms
(1) cot2 = cot21 – cot22
E
Brms  rms (2) tan2 = tan21 – tan22
c
6 (3) cot2 = cot21 + cot22

3  108 (4) tan2 = tan21 + tan22
Brms = 2 × 10–8
Answer (3)
B0
Brms = Sol. cot2 = cot21 + cot22
2
40. A 250-Turn rectangular coil of length 2.1 cm and
B 0  2  Brms width 1.25 cm carries a current of 85 A and
subjected to a magnetic field of strength 0.85 T.
= 2  2  10 –8 Work done for rotating the coil by 180° against the
= 2.83 × 10–8 T
38. Two Polaroids P1 and P2 are placed with their axis
torque is

(1) 2.3 J

o m
(2) 1.15 J

c
perpendicular to each other. Unpolarised light I0 is
(3) 9.1 J (4) 4.55 J
incident on P1. A third polaroid P3 is kept in between
P1 and P2 such that its axis makes an angle 45º
with that of P1. The intensity of transmitted light
Answer (3)

b .
through P2 is
I0 I0

h u
Sol. W = MB (cos1 – cos2)
When it is rotated by angle 180º then

e
(1) (2)
8 16 W = 2MB

(3)
I0
2
(4)
I0
4
te W = 2 (NIA)B
= 2 × 250 × 85 × 10–6[1.25 × 2.1 × 10–4] × 85
Answer (1)

P1 P3 P2
.tu = 9.1 J
× 10–2

Sol.
I0 I1
I2

w w I3
41. The resistance of a wire is ‘R’ ohm. If it is melted
and stretched to ‘n’ times its original length, its new
resistance will be
90°

45° w (1) n2R

(3) nR
(2)

(4)
R
n2
R
n
I0 Answer (1)
I2  cos2 45
2
R2 l 22
I
 0 
1 Sol. R  2
1 l1
2 2
I0 n 2l12
 
4
l12
I0
I3  cos2 45 R2
4  n2
R1
I0
I3  R2 = n2R1
8

11
42. A physical quantity of the dimensions of length that Answer (4)

e2 Sol. No option is correct

can be formed out of c, G and is [c is velocity
40
NA 1
If we take 
of light, G is universal constant of gravitation and e NB e
is charge]
Then
1
1 ⎡ e2 ⎤ 2 N A e 8 t
(1) 2 ⎢ ⎥  t
c ⎣ G 40 ⎦ NB e

1
2  e 7 t
1 e e
(2) G
c 40
–1 = –7t

1 1
t=
1 ⎡ e2 ⎤ 2 7
(3) 2 ⎢G ⎥
c ⎣ 40 ⎦

o m
44. A potentiometer is an accurate and versatile device
to make electrical measurements of E.M.F, because

⎡ e2 ⎤ 2
(4) c 2 ⎢G
1

. c
the method involves :

b
(1) A condition of no current flow through the
⎣ 40 ⎦ galvanometer

Answer (3)

h u
(2) A combination of cells, galvanometer and
resistances

Sol. Let
e
40
2
 A  ML3 T –2

e e (3) Cells

l= CxGy(A)z

u t (4) Potential gradients

.t
Answer (1)
L = [LT–1]x [M–1L3T–2]y [ML3T–2]z
Sol. Reading of potentiometer is accurate because during
–y + z = 0  y = z

w ...(i) taking reading it does not draw any current from the
circuit.

w
x + 3y + 3z = 1 ...(ii)
45. The ratio of resolving powers of an optical
–x – 4z = 0 ...(iii)

w
microscope for two wavelengths 1 = 4000 Å and
From (i), (ii) & (iii) 2 = 6000 Å is

1 (1) 3 : 2 (2) 16 : 81
z = y = , x = –2
2 (3) 8 : 27 (4) 9 : 4
43. Radioactive material 'A' has decay constant '8' and Answer (1)
material 'B' has decay constant ''. Initially they
have same number of nuclei. After what time, the 1
Sol. Resolving power 
ratio of number of nuclei of material 'B' to that 'A' will 
1 R1  2
be
e
? 
R2 1

1 1 6000 Å
(1) (2) 
8 9 4000 Å
1 1 3
(3) (4) 
 7 2

12
46. A disease caused by an autosomal primary Sol. Mitochondria are the site of aerobic oxidation of
non-disjunction is carbohydrates to generate ATP.
(1) Turner's syndrome 51. Zygotic meiosis is characterstic of
(2) Sickle cell anemia (1) Funaria
(3) Down's syndrome (2) Chlamydomonas
(4) Klinefelter's syndrome (3) Marchantia
Answer (3) (4) Fucus
Sol. Down’s syndrome is caused by non-disjunction of Answer (2)
21st chromosome.
Sol. Chlamydomonas has haplontic life cycle hence
47. A dioecious flowering plant prevents both: showing zygotic meiosis or initial meiosis.
(1) Geitonogamy and xenogamy 52. Good vision depends on adequate intake of carotene
(2) Cleistogamy and xenogamy rich food
(3) Autogamy and xenogamy
(4) Autogamy and geitonogamy

o m
Select the best option from the following statements

(a) Vitamin A derivatives are formed from carotene

Answer (4)
Sol. When unisexual male and female flowers are present
. c
(b) The photopigments are embedded in the

b
membrane discs of the inner segment
on different plants the condition is called dioecious

u
and it prevents both autogamy and geitonogamy. (c) Retinal is a derivative of vitamin A

h
48. Attractants and rewards are required for (d) Retinal is a light absorbing part of all the visual
photopigments

e
(1) Hydrophily (2) Cleistogamy

e
(3) Anemophily (4) Entomophily (1) (a) and (c)

Answer (4)

u t (2) (b), (c) and (d)

.t
Sol. Insect pollinated plants provide rewards as edible (3) (a) and (b)
pollen grain and nectar as usual rewards. While
some plants also provide safe place for deposition of (4) (a), (c) and (d)
eggs.

w w
49. Alexander Von Humboldt described for the first time
(1) Species area relationships
Answer (4)

Sol. Carotene is the source of retinal which is involved in

formation of rhodopsin of rod cells. Retinal, a derivative

w
(2) Population Growth equation
(3) Ecological Biodiversity
(4) Laws of limiting factor
of vitamin A, is the light-absorbing part of all visual
photopigments.

53. Among the following characters, which one was not

considered by Mendel in his experiments on pea?
Answer (1)
(1) Seed – Green or Yellow
Sol. Alexander Von Humboldt observed that within a
(2) Pod – Inflated or Constricted
region species richness increases with the increases
in area. (3) Stem – Tall or Dwarf
50. Which of the following cell organelles is responsible (4) Trichomes – Glandular or non-glandular
for extracting energy from carbohydrates to form
ATP? Answer (4)

(1) Chloroplast (2) Mitochondrion Sol. During his experiments Mendel studied seven
characters.
(3) Lysosome (4) Ribosome
Answer (2) Nature of trichomes i.e., glandular or non-glandular
was not considered by Mendel.

13
54. The association of histone H1 with a nucleosome 58. Hypersecretion of Growth Hormone in adults does
indicates: not cause further increase in height, because
(1) The DNA is condensed into a Chromatin Fibre (1) Bones loose their sensitivity to Growth Hormone
(2) The DNA double helix is exposed in adults
(3) Transcription is occurring (2) Muscle fibres do not grow in size after birth
(4) DNA replication is occurring (3) Growth Hormone becomes inactive in adults
Answer (1)
(4) Epiphyseal plates close after adolescence
Sol. The association of H1 protein indicates the complete
formation of nucleosome. Answer (4)
Therefore the DNA is in condensed form. Sol. Epiphyseal plate is responsible for the growth of
bone which close after adolescence so
55. The pivot joint between atlas and axis is a type of
hypersecretion of growth hormone in adults does not
(1) Synovial joint cause further increase in height.
(2) Saddle joint 59. Select the mismatch :

m
(3) Fibrous joint
(1) Anabaena – Nitrogen fixer
(4) Cartilaginous joint
Answer (1)
Sol. Synovial joints are freely movable joint which allow
(2) Rhizobium
(3) Frankia
(4) Rhodospirillum
.c o
–
–
–
Alfalfa
Alnus
Mycorrhiza

b
considerable movements. Pivot joint is a type of
synovial joint which provide rotational movement as Answer (4)
in between atlas and axis vertebrae of vertebral
column.

h u
Sol. Rhodospirillum is anaerobic, free living nitrogen fixer.
Mycorrhiza is a symbiotic relationship between fungi

e
56. Receptor sites for neurotransmitters are present on
and roots of higher plants.

e
(1) Tips of axons

t
60. Which one of the following statements is not valid for
(2) Post-synaptic membrane
aerosols?
(3) Membranes of synaptic vesicles
(4) Pre-synaptic membrane

.t u (1) They cause increased agricultural productivity

(2) They have negative impact on agricultural land

w
Answer (2)
Sol. Pre-synaptic membrane is involved in the release of (3) They are harmful to human health

w w
neurotransmitter in the chemical synapse. The
receptors sites for neurotransmitters are present on
post-synaptic membrane.
57. GnRH, a hypothalamic hormone, needed in
(4) They alter rainfall and monsoon patterns
Answer (1)
Sol. Aerosols can cause various problems to agriculture
reproduction, acts on through its direct or indirect effects on plants.
(1) Posterior pituitary gland and stimulates secretion However continually increasing air pollution may
of oxytocin and FSH represent a persistent and largely irreversible threat
to agriculture in the future.
(2) Posterior pituitary gland and stimulates secretion
of LH and relaxin 61. Which one of the following is related to Ex-situ
(3) Anterior pituitary gland and stimulates secretion conservation of threatened animals and plants?
of LH and oxytocin (1) Amazon rainforest
(4) Anterior pituitary gland and stimulates secretion
(2) Himalayan region
of LH and FSH
Answer (4) (3) Wildlife Safari parks

Sol. Hypothalamus secretes GnRH which stimulates (4) Biodiversity hot spots
anterior pituitary gland for the secretion of
Answer (3)
gonadotropins (FSH and LH).

14
Sol. Ex-situ conservation is offsite strategy for 65. The process of separation and purification of
conservation of animals and plants in zoological park expressed protein before marketing is called
and botanical gardens respectively. (1) Bioprocessing
62. Which of the following facilitates opening of stomatal (2) Postproduction processing
aperture?
(3) Upstream processing
(1) Radial orientation of cellulose microfibrils in the
cell wall of guard cells (4) Downstream processing

(2) Longitudinal orientation of cellulose microfibrils in Answer (4)

the cell wall of guard cells Sol. Biosynthetic stage for synthesis of product in
(3) Contraction of outer wall of guard cells recombinant DNA technology is called upstreaming
process while after completion of biosynthetic stage,
(4) Decrease in turgidity of guard cells the product has to be subjected through a series of
Answer (1) processes which include separation and purification
are collectively referred to as downstreaming
Sol. Cellulose microfibrils are oriented radially rather than
processing.

m
longitudinally which makes easy for the stoma to
open. 66. The water potential of pure water is
63. Select the mismatch :
(1) Salvinia – Heterosporous

. c
(2) More than one o
(1) More than zero but less than one

(2) Equisetum
(3) Pinus
– Homosporous
– Dioecious
(3) Zero

u b
(4) Less than zero

(4) Cycas
Answer (3)
– Dioecious

e h
Answer (3)
Sol. By convention, the water potential of pure water at

e
standard temperature, which is not under any

t
Sol. Pinus is monoecious plant having both male and pressure, is taken to be zero.
female cones on same plant.

t u
64. Asymptote in a logistic growth curve is obtained
when

.
67. The function of copper ions in copper releasing IUD's
is :

w
(1) They make uterus unsuitable for implantation
(1) K > N
(2) They inhibit ovulation

w
(2) K < N
(3) They suppress sperm motility and fertilising
(3) The value of 'r' approaches zero
(4) K = N
Answer (4) w
Sol. A population growing in a habitat with limited
capacity of sperms

(4) They inhibit gametogenesis

Answer (3)

resources shows logistic growth curve. Sol. Cu 2+ interfere in the sperm movement, hence
For logistic growth suppress the sperm motility and fertilising capacity
of sperms.
dN ⎛K – N⎞
 rN ⎜ ⎟ 68. Double fertilization is exhibited by
dt ⎝ K ⎠
(1) Fungi (2) Angiosperms
K–N
If K = N then =0 (3) Gymnosperms (4) Algae
K
Answer (2)
dN
 the = 0, Sol. Double fertilization is a characteristic feature
dt
exhibited by angiosperms. It involves syngamy and
the population reaches asymptote. triple fusion.

15
69. Presence of plants arranged into well defined vertical 73. Homozygous purelines in cattle can be obtained by
layers depending on their height can be seen best (1) mating of individuals of different breed
in :
(2) mating of individuals of different species
(1) Grassland
(3) mating of related individuals of same breed
(2) Temperate Forest
(4) mating of unrelated individuals of same breed
(3) Tropical Savannah Answer (3)
(4) Tropical Rain Forest Sol. Inbreeding results in increase in the homozygosity.
Answer (4) Therefore, mating of the related individuals of same
breed will increase homozygosity.
Sol. The tropical rain forest have five vertical strata on the
74. In Bougainvillea thorns are the modifications of
basis of height of plants. i.e., ground vegetation,
shrubs, short canopy trees, tall canopy trees and (1) Stem (2) Leaf
tall emergent trees. (3) Stipules (4) Adventitious root
70. Which ecosystem has the maximum biomass? Answer (1)
(1) Pond ecosystem
(3) Forest ecosystem
(2) Lake ecosystem
(4) Grassland ecosystem

o m
Sol. Thorns are hard, pointed straight structures for
protection. These are modified stem

Answer (3)
the release of

. c
75. A decrease in blood pressure/volume will not cause

b
Sol. High productive ecosystem are
(1) Aldosterone

u
– Tropical rain forest
(2) ADH

h
– Coral reef
(3) Renin
– Estuaries
– Sugarcane fields

e e (4) Atrial Natriuretic Factor

t
Answer (4)
71. Root hairs develop from the region of

u
Sol. A decrease in blood pressure / volume stimulates the

t
(1) Root cap release of renin, aldosterone, and ADH while

(2) Meristematic activity

(3) Maturation
w . increase in blood pressure / volume stimulates the
release of Atrial Natriuretic Factor (ANF) which
cause vasodilation and also inhibits RAAS (Renin
Angiotensin Aldosterone System) mechanism that
(4) Elongation

Answer (3)

w w
Sol. In roots, the root hairs arise from zone of maturation.
decreases the blood volume/pressure.
76. Which statement is wrong for Krebs' cycle?
(1) During conversion of succinyl CoA to succinic
This zone is differentiated zone thus bearing root acid, a molecule of GTP is synthesised
hairs. (2) The cycle starts with condensation of acetyl
group (acetyl CoA) with pyruvic acid to yield
72. DNA replication in bacteria occurs
citric acid
(1) Prior to fission
(3) There are three points in the cycle where NAD+
(2) Just before transcription is reduced to NADH + H+
(3) During S-phase (4) There is one point in the cycle where FAD+ is
(4) Within nucleolus reduced to FADH2

Answer (1) Answer (2)

Sol. DNA replication in bacteria occurs prior to fission. Sol. Krebs cycle starts with condensation of acetyl CoA
Prokaryotes do not show well marked S-phase due (2C) with oxaloacetic acid (4C) to form citric acid
to their primitive nature. (6C).

16
77. Anaphase promoting complex (APC) is a protein 81. Which of the following is correctly matched for the
degradation machinery necessary for proper mitosis product produced by them?
of animal cells. If APC is defective in a human cell, (1) Penicillium notatum : Acetic acid
which of the following is expected to occur?
(2) Saccharomyces cerevisiae : Ethanol
(1) Chromosomes will not segregate
(3) Acetobacter aceti : Antibiotics
(2) Recombination of chromosome arms will occur
(4) Methanobacterium : Lactic acid
(3) Chromosomes will not condense
Answer (2)
(4) Chromosomes will be fragmented
Sol. Saccharomyces cerevisiae is commonly called
Answer (1) Brewer’s yeast. It causes fermentation of
Sol. Anaphase Promoting Complex (APC) is a protein carbohydrates producing ethanol.
necessary for separation of daughter chromosomes 82. Fruit and leaf drop at early stages can be prevented
during anaphase. If APC is defective then the by the application of
chromosomes will fail to segregate during anaphase.
(1) Auxins

m
78. Which of the following options best represents the
enzyme composition of pancreatic juice? (2) Gibberellic acid
(1) Peptidase, amylase, pepsin, rennin
(2) Lipase, amylase, trypsinogen, procarboxy-
(3) Cytokinins
(4) Ethylene

. c o
b
peptidase
Answer (1)

u
(3) Amylase, peptidase, trypsinogen, rennin
Sol. Auxins prevent premature leaf and fruit fall.

h
(4) Amylase, pepsin, trypsinogen, maltase
NAA prevents fruit drop in tomato; 2,4-D prevents fruit

e
Answer (2) drop in Citrus.
Sol. Rennin and Pepsin enzymes are present in the

t
gastric juice. Maltase is present in the intestinal
e 83. Viroids differ from viruses in having :
(1) RNA molecules with protein coat

u
juice.

. t
79. Life cycle of Ectocarpus and Fucus respectively are
(1) Haplodiplontic, Diplontic
(2) RNA molecules without protein coat
(3) DNA molecules with protein coat
(2) Haplodiplontic, Haplontic

w
(3) Haplontic, Diplontic
(4) Diplontic, Haplodiplontic
w (4) DNA molecules without protein coat
Answer (2)

w
Sol. Viroids are sub-viral agents as infectious RNA
Answer (1) particles, without protein coat.
Sol. Ectocarpus has haplodiplontic life cycle and Fucus 84. Which of the following are not polymeric?
has diplontic life cycle.
(1) Polysaccharides
80. Which of the following is made up of dead cells?
(2) Lipids
(1) Phellem
(3) Nucleic acids
(2) Phloem
(4) Proteins
(3) Xylem parenchyma
Answer (2)
(4) Collenchyma
Sol. – Nucleic acids are polymers of nucleotides
Answer (1)
– Proteins are polymers of amino acids
Sol. Cork cambium undergoes periclinal division and cuts
off thick walled suberised dead cork cells towards – Polysaccharides are polymers of monosaccharides
outside and it cuts off thin walled living cells i.e.,
– Lipids are the esters of fatty acids and alcohol
phelloderm on inner side.

17
85. A temporary endocrine gland in the human body is 90. A gene whose expression helps to identify
transformed cell is known as
(1) Corpus luteum (2) Corpus allatum
(1) Plasmid
(3) Pineal gland (4) Corpus cardiacum
(2) Structural gene
Answer (1)
(3) Selectable marker
Sol. Corpus luteum is the temporary endocrine structure
formed in the ovary after ovulation. It is responsible (4) Vector
for the release of the hormones like progesterone,
Answer (3)
oestrogen etc.
Sol. In recombinant DNA technology, selectable markers
86. Phosphonol pyruvate (PEP) is the primary CO2
helps in identifying and eliminating non-transformants
acceptor in :
and selectively permitting the growth of the
(1) C2 plants (2) C3 and C4 plants transformants.

(3) C3 plants (4) C4 plants 91. Which of the following are found in extreme saline
conditions?
Answer (4)

m
(1) Cyanobacteria
Sol. PEP is 3C compound which serves as primary CO2
acceptor in the mesophyll cell cytoplasm of C4
plants like maize, sugarcane, Sorghum etc.
87. Plants which produce characterstic pneumatophores
(2) Mycobacteria

c
(3) Archaebacteria
(4) Eubacteria
. o
and show vivipary belong to
(1) Psammophytes (2) Hydrophytes

u
Answer (3)
b
h
Sol. Archaebacteria are able to survive in harsh conditions
(3) Mesophytes (4) Halophytes
because of branched lipid chain in cell membrane
Answer (4)
Sol. Halophytes growing in saline soils show

e e which reduces fluidity of cell membrane.

t
Halophiles are exclusively found in saline habitats.

u
(i) Vivipary which is in-situ seed germination 92. Out of 'X' pairs of ribs in humans only 'Y' pairs are

. t
(ii) Pneumatophores for gaseous exchange
88. Mycorrhizae are the example of
true ribs. Select the option that correctly represents
values of X and Y and provides their explanation :

w
(1) X = 24, Y = 7 True ribs are dorsally
(1) Antibiosis (2) Mutualism attached to vertebral

w
column but are free on
(3) Fungistasis (4) Amensalism ventral side
Answer (2)

w
Sol. Mycorrhizae is a symbiotic association of fungi with
roots of higher plants.
(2) X = 24, Y = 12 True ribs are dorsally
attached to vertebral
column but are free on
ventral side
89. If there are 999 bases in an RNA that codes for a (3) X = 12, Y = 7 True ribs are attached
protein with 333 amino acids, and the base at dorsally to vertebral
position 901 is deleted such that the length of the column and ventrally to the
RNA becomes 998 bases, how many codons will be sternum
altered? (4) X = 12, Y = 5 True ribs are attached
dorsally to vertebral
(1) 33 (2) 333
column and sternum on
(3) 1 (4) 11 the two ends

Answer (1) Answer (3)

Sol. If deletion occurs at 901st position the remaining 98 Sol. In human, 12 pairs of ribs are present in which 7
bases specifying for 33 codons of amino acids will pairs of ribs (1st to 7th pairs) are attached dorsally to
be altered. vertebral column and ventrally to the sternum.

18
93. MALT constitutes about ___________ percent of the 97. Which of the following statements is correct?
lymphoid tissue in human body
(1) The ascending limb of loop of Henle is permeable
(1) 70% (2) 10% to water
(3) 50% (4) 20% (2) The descending limb of loop of Henle is
permeable to electrolytes
Answer (3)
(3) The ascending limb of loop of Henle is
Sol. MALT is Mucosa Associated Lymphoid Tissue and
impermeable to water
it constitutes about 50 percent of the lymphoid tissue
in human body. (4) The descending limb of loop of Henle is
impermeable to water
94. Which one from those given below is the period for
Mendel's hybridization experiments? Answer (3)
(1) 1857 - 1869 (2) 1870 - 1877 Sol. Descending limb of loop of Henle is permeable to
(3) 1856 - 1863 (4) 1840 - 1850 water but impermeable to electrolytes while
ascending limb is impermeable to water but
Answer (3)

m
permeable to electrolytes.
Sol. Mendel conducted hybridization experiments on Pea

o
98. During DNA replication, Okazaki fragments are used
plant for 7 years between 1856 to 1863 and his data to enlongate
was published in 1865 (according to NCERT).
95. Adult human RBCs are enucleate. Which of the
. c
(1) The leading strand away from replication fork

following statement(s) is/are most appropriate

explanation for this feature?

u b
(2) The lagging strand away from the replication fork
(3) The leading strand towards replication fork

h
(a) They do not need to reproduce (4) The lagging strand towards replication fork

e
(b) They are somatic cells Answer (2)

e
(c) They do not metabolize Sol. Two DNA polymerase molecules work simultaneous

t
(d) All their internal space is available for oxygen

u
at the DNA fork, one on the leading strand and the
other on the lagging strand.

t
transport

.
Each Okazaki fragment is synthesized by DNA
(1) (a), (c) and (d) (2) (b) and (c) polymerase at lagging strand in 5  3 direction.

w
New Okazaki fragments appear as the replication
(3) Only (d) (4) Only (a) fork opens further.

w
Answer (3) As the first Okazaki fragment appears away from
Sol. In Human RBCs, nucleus degenerates during the replication fork, the direction of elongation would

w
maturation which provide more space for oxygen
carrying pigment (Haemoglobin). It lacks most of the
cell organelles including mitochondria so respires
anaerobically.
be away from replication fork.
99. Which one of the following statements is correct,
with reference to enzymes?
(1) Coenzyme = Apoenzyme + Holoenzyme
96. Myelin sheath is produced by
(2) Holoenzyme = Coenzyme + Cofactor
(1) Oligodendrocytes and Osteoclasts
(3) Apoenzyme = Holoenzyme + Coenzyme
(2) Osteoclasts and Astrocytes
(4) Holoenzyme = Apoenzyme + Coenzyme
(3) Schwann Cells and Oligodendrocytes
Answer (4)
(4) Astrocytes and Schwann Cells
Sol. Holoenzyme is conjugated enzyme in which protein
Answer (3)
part is apoenzyme while non-protein is cofactor.
Sol. Oligodendrocytes are neuroglial cells which produce
myelin sheath in central nervous system while Coenzyme are also organic compounds but their
Schwann cell produces myelin sheath in peripheral association with apoenzyme is only transient and
nervous system. serve as cofactors.

19
100. DNA fragments are 104. Select the correct route for the passage of sperms
in male frogs :
(1) Neutral
(1) Testes  Vasa efferentia  Bidder's canal 
(2) Either positively or negatively charged depending Ureter  Cloaca
on their size (2) Testes  Vasa efferentia  Kidney  Bidder's
(3) Positively charged canal  Urinogenital duct  Cloaca
(3) Testes  Bidder's canal  Kidney  Vasa
(4) Negatively charged
efferentia  Urinogenital duct  Cloaca
Answer (4) (4) Testes  Vasa efferentia  Kidney  Seminal
Sol. DNA fragments are negatively charged because of Vesicle  Urinogenital duct  Cloaca
phosphate group. Answer (2)

101. The DNA fragments separated on an agarose gel Sol. In male frog the sperms will move from
can be visualised after staining with Testes  Vasa efferentia  Kidney  Bidder’s
canal  Urinogenital duct  Cloaca.
(1) Aniline blue

m
105. Identify the wrong statement in context of heartwood.
(2) Ethidium bromide

o
(1) It conducts water and minerals efficiently
(3) Bromophenol blue

c
(2) It comprises dead elements with highly lignified
(4) Acetocarmine
Answer (2)
walls

b .
(3) Organic compounds are deposited in it

u
(4) It is highly durable
Sol. Ethidium bromide is used to stain the DNA

h
fragments and will appear as orange coloured bands Answer (1)

e
under UV light. Sol. Heartwood is physiologically inactive due to
deposition of organic compounds and tyloses

e
102. Which among the following are the smallest living
formation, so this will not conduct water and

t
cells, known without a definite cell wall, pathogenic
to plants as well as animals and can survive without minerals.
oxygen?
(1) Mycoplasma
. t u 106. Transplantation of tissues/organs fails often due to
non-acceptance by the patient's body. Which type of
immune-response is responsible for such rejections?
(2) Nostoc
(3) Bacillus
(4) Pseudomonas
w w (1) Hormonal immune response
(2) Physiological immune response

w
(3) Autoimmune response
Answer (1) (4) Cell-mediated immune response
Sol. Mycoplasmas are smallest, wall-less prokaryotes, Answer (4)
pleomorphic in nature. These are pathogenic on both
Sol. Non-acceptance or rejection of graft or transplanted
plants and animals.
tissues/organs is due to cell mediated immune
103. The morphological nature of the edible part of response.
coconut is
107. The region of Biosphere Reserve which is legally
(1) Endosperm protected and where no human activity is allowed is
(2) Pericarp known as

(3) Perisperm (1) Transition zone

(2) Restoration zone
(4) Cotyledon
(3) Core zone
Answer (1)
(4) Buffer zone
Sol. Coconut has double endosperm with liquid
endosperm and cellular endosperm. Answer (3)

20
Sol. Biosphere reserve is protected area with 111. Which of the following options gives the correct
multipurpose activities. sequence of events during mitosis?

It has three zones (1) Condensation  crossing over  nuclear

(a) Core zone – without any human interference membrane disassembly  segregation 
telophase
(b) Buffer zone – with limited human activity
(2) Condensation  arrangement at equator 
(c) Transition zone – human settlement, grazing
centromere division  segregation 
cultivation etc., are allowed. telophase
108. Thalassemia and sickle cell anemia are caused due
to a problem in globin molecule synthesis. Select (3) Condensation  nuclear membrane disassembly
the correct statement.  crossing over  segregation  telophase
(1) Thalassemia is due to less synthesis of globin (4) Condensation  nuclear membrane disassembly
molecules  arrangement at equator  centromere
(2) Sickle cell anemia is due to a quantitative division  segregation  telophase
problem of globin molecules

m
Answer (4)
(3) Both are due to a qualitative defect in globin
chain synthesis
(4) Both are due to a quantitative defect in globin
chain synthesis
be as follows

. o
Sol. The correct sequence of events during mitosis would

c
(i) Condensation of DNA so that chromosomes
Answer (1)
Sol. Thalassemia differs from sickle-cell anaemia in that

u b
become visible occurs during early to
mid-prophase.

h
the former is a quantitative problem of synthesising
(ii) Nuclear membrane disassembly begins at late
too few globin molecules while the latter is a

e
prophase or transition to metaphase.
qualitative problem of synthesising an incorrectly
functioning globin.

t e
109. Flowers which have single ovule in the ovary and are
(iii) Arrangement of chromosomes at equator occurs
during metaphase, called congression.

(1) Wind (2) Bat

. t u
packed into inflorescence are usually pollinated by
(iv) Centromere division or splitting occurs during
anaphase forming daughter chromosomes.

(3) Water
Answer (1)

w
(4) Bee

w
Sol. Wind pollination or anemophily is favoured by flowers
(v) Segregation also occurs during anaphase as
daughter chromosomes separate and move to
opposite poles.

w
having a single ovule in each ovary, and numerous
flowers packed in an inflorescence. Wind pollination
is a non-directional pollination.
110. An important characteristic that Hemichordates
(vi) Telophase leads to formation of two daughter
nuclei.

112. The final proof for DNA as the genetic material came
from the experiments of
share with Chordates is
(1) Avery, Mcleod and McCarty
(1) Pharynx with gill slits
(2) Pharynx without gill slits (2) Hargobind Khorana

(3) Absence of notochord (3) Griffith

(4) Ventral tubular nerve cord (4) Hershey and Chase
Answer (1)
Answer (4)
Sol. Pharyngeal gill slits are present in hemichordates as
well as in chordates. Notochord is present in Sol. Hershey and Chase gave unequivocal proof which
chordates only. Ventral tubular nerve cord is ended the debate between protein and DNA as
characteristic feature of non-chordates. genetic material.

21
113. What is the criterion for DNA fragments movement
on agarose gel during gel electrophoresis? suspended solids?

(1) Positively charged fragments move to farther end (1) Primary treatment (2) Sludge treatment

(2) Negatively charged fragments do not move (3) Tertiary treatment (4) Secondary treatment

(3) The larger the fragment size, the farther it moves Answer (1)

(4) The smaller the fragment size, the farther it Sol. Primary treatment is a physical process which
involves sequential filtration and sedimentation.
moves
117. Spliceosomes are not found in cells of
Answer (4)
Sol. During gel electrophoresis, DNA fragments separate (1) Animals (2) Bacteria
(resolve) according to their size through sieving effect (3) Plants (4) Fungi
provided by agarose gel.
Answer (2)
114. With reference to factors affecting the rate of
Sol. Spliceosomes are used in removal of introns during
photosynthesis, which of the following statements is
post-transcriptional processing of hnRNA in
not correct?

m
eukaryotes only as split genes are absent as
(1) C3 plants responds to higher temperatures with prokaryotes.
enhanced photosynthesis while C4 plants have
much lower temperature optimum
(2) Tomato is a greenhouse crop which can be
into

. o
118. Functional megaspore in an angiosperm develops

c
b
grown in CO2 - enriched atmosphere for higher (1) Embryo sac (2) Embryo
yield
(3) Light saturation for CO2 fixation occurs at 10%
of full sunlight

h u
(3) Ovule
Answer (1)
(4) Endosperm

(4) Increasing atmospheric CO2 concentration upto

0.05% can enhance CO2 fixation rate

e e Sol. Megaspore is the first cell of female gametophytic

generation in angiosperm. It undergoes three
Answer (1)

u t
Sol. In C3 plants photosynthesis is decreased at higher
successive generations of free nuclear mitosis to
form 8-nucleated and 7-celled embryo sac.

. t
temperature due to increased photorespiration.
C4 plants have higher temperature optimum because
119. Which of the following components provides sticky
character to the bacterial cell?

w
of the presence of pyruvate phosphate dikinase
enzyme, which is sensitive to low temperature.

w
115. Artificial selection to obtain cows yielding higher milk
(1) Plasma membrane
(2) Glycocalyx

w
output represents (3) Cell wall
(1) Disruptive as it splits the population into two one (4) Nuclear membrane
yielding higher output and the other lower output
Answer (2)
(2) Stabilizing followed by disruptive as it stabilizes
the population to produce higher yielding cows Sol. Sticky character of the bacterial wall is due to
(3) Stabilizing selection as it stabilizes this glycocalyx or slime layer. This layer is rich in
character in the population glycoproteins.

(4) Directional as it pushes the mean of the 120. Which among these is the correct combination of
character in one direction aquatic mammals?
Answer (4) (1) Whales, Dolphins Seals
Sol. Artificial selection to obtain cow yielding higher milk (2) Trygon, Whales, Seals
output will shift the peak to one direction, hence, will
be an example of Directional selection. In stabilizing (3) Seals, Dolphins, Sharks
selection, the organisms with the mean value of the (4) Dolphins, Seals, Trygon
trait are selected. In disruptive selection, both
extremes get selected. Answer (1)

22
Sol. Sharks and Trygon (sting ray) are the members of 125. Which cells of 'Crypts of Lieberkuhn' secrete
chondrichthyes (cartilaginous fish) while whale, antibacterial lysozyme?
Dolphin and Seals are aquatic mammals belong to (1) Zymogen cells (2) Kupffer cells
class mammalia.
(3) Argentaffin cells (4) Paneth cells
121. Which of the following represents order of 'Horse'?
Answer (4)
(1) Caballus (2) Ferus Sol. – Kupffer-cells are phagocytic cells of liver.
(3) Equidae (4) Perissodactyla – Zymogen cells are enzyme producing cells.

Answer (4) – Paneth cell secretes lysozyme which acts as

anti-bacterial agent.
Sol. Horse belongs to order perissodactyla of class
– Argentaffin cells are hormone producing cells.
mammalia. Perissodactyla includes odd-toed
mammals. 126. In case of a couple where the male is having a very
low sperm count, which technique will be suitable for
122. Lungs are made up of air-filled sacs the alveoli. They fertilisation?
do not collapse even after forceful expiration,

m
(1) Artificial Insemination
because of :

(1) Tidal Volume

(2) Expiratory Reserve Volume

c
(3) Intrauterine transfer

. o
(2) Intracytoplasmic sperm injection

(4) Gamete intracytoplasmic fallopian transfer

(3) Residual Volume

(4) Inspiratory Reserve Volume

u
Answer (1)
b
h
Sol. Infertility cases due to inability of the male partner to
inseminate the female or due to very low sperm

e
Answer (3)
count in the ejaculates, could be corrected by

e
Sol. Volume of air present in lungs after forceful expiration artificial insemination (AI).

alveoli even after forceful expiration.

u t
as residual volume which prevents the collapsing of
127. Frog's heart when taken out of the body continues

.t
to beat for some time
123. Capacitation occurs in
Select the best option from the following statements

w
(1) Vas deferens
(a) Frog is a poikilotherm

w
(2) Female Reproductive tract
(b) Frog does not have any coronary circulation
(3) Rete testis

(4) Epididymis

Answer (2)
w (c) Heart is "myogenic" in nature

(d) Heart is autoexcitable

Options
Sol. Capacitation is increase in fertilising capacity of
(1) (a) & (b)
sperms which occurs in female reproductive tract.
(2) (c) & (d)
124. Which of the following RNAs should be most
abundant in animal cell? (3) Only (c)

(1) m-RNA (2) mi-RNA (4) Only (d)

(3) r-RNA (4) t-RNA Answer (2)

Answer (3) Sol. Frog or the vertebrates have myogenic heart having
self contractile system or are autoexcitable; because
Sol. rRNA is most abundant in animal cell. It constitutes of this condition, it will keep on working outside the
80% of total RNA of the cell. body for some time.

23
128. Match the following sexually transmitted diseases 130. The hepatic portal vein drains blood to liver from
(Column - I) with their causative agent (Column - II) (1) Kidneys (2) Intestine
and select the correct option.
(3) Heart (4) Stomach
Column - I Column- II
Answer (2)
(a) Gonorrhea (i) HIV
Sol. In hepatic portal system, hepatic portal vein carries
(b) Syphilis (ii) Neisseria maximum amount of nutrients from intestine to liver.
(c) Genital Warts (iii) Treponema 131. Coconut fruit is a
(d) AIDS (iv) Human Papilloma (1) Nut (2) Capsule
virus (3) Drupe (4) Berry
Options : Answer (3)
(a) (b) (c) (d) Sol. Coconut fruit is a drupe. A drupe develops from
monocarpellary superior ovary and are one seeded.
(1) (iv) (ii) (iii) (i)
132. The vascular cambium normally gives rise to

m
(2) (iv) (iii) (ii) (i)
(1) Secondary xylem (2) Periderm

o
(3) (ii) (iii) (iv) (i)
(3) Phelloderm (4) Primary phloem

c
(4) (iii) (iv) (i) (ii)

.
Answer (1)
Answer (3)

b
Sol. During secondary growth, vascular cambium gives
Sol. Gonorrhoea – Neisseria (Bacteria) rise to secondary xylem and secondary phloem.
Syphilis – Treponema (Bacteria)
Genital Warts – Human papilloma virus (Virus)
h u
Phelloderm is formed by cork cambium.
133. In case of poriferans the spongocoel is lined with

AIDS – HIV (Virus)

e e flagellated cells called :

(1) Choanocytes (2) Mesenchymal cells

129. The genotypes of a Husband and Wife are IAIB and IAi.
Among the blood types of their children, how many

u t (3) Ostia (4) Oscula

.t
Answer (1)
different genotypes and phenotypes are possible?
Sol. Choanocytes (collar cells) form lining of spongocoel
(1) 4 genotypes ; 3 phenotypes

w
in poriferans (sponges). Flagella in collar cells provide
(2) 4 genotypes ; 4 phenotypes circulation to water in water canal system.
(3) 3 genotypes ; 3 phenotypes
(4) 3 genotypes ; 4 phenotypes
Answer (1)
ww 134. A baby boy aged two years is admitted to play
school and passes through a dental check-up. The
dentist observed that the boy had twenty teeth.
Which teeth were absent?
Sol. Husband  Wife (1) Pre-molars (2) Molars
AB A
I I I i
(3) Incisors (4) Canines

+ IA IB Answer (1)
A A A A B
I II II Sol. Total number of teeth in human child = 20.
A B Premolars are absent in primary dentition.
i Ii Ii
135. An example of colonial alga is
Number of genotypes = 4
(1) Ulothrix (2) Spirogyra
Number of phenotypes = 3
(3) Chlorella (4) Volvox
IAIA and IAi = A
Answer (4)
IAIB = AB
Sol. Volvox is motile colonial fresh water alga with definite
IBi = B number of vegetative cells.

24
136. An example of a sigma bonded organometallic (3) Sn2+ is reducing while Pb4+ is oxidising
compound is (4) Sn2+ is oxidising while Pb4+ is reducing
(1) Ferrocene (2) Cobaltocene
Answer (3)
(3) Ruthenocene (4) Grignard's reagent
Sol. Inability of ns 2 electrons of the valence shell to
Answer (4) participate in bonding on moving down the group in
Sol. Grignard's reagent i.e., RMgX is -bonded heavier p-block elements is called inert pair effect
organometallic compound. As a result, Pb(II) is more stable than Pb(IV)
137. Which one is the correct order of acidity? Sn(IV) is more stable than Sn(II)
(1) CH  CH > CH2 = CH2 > CH3 – C  CH > CH3
 Pb(IV) is easily reduced to Pb(II)
– CH3
 Pb(IV) is oxidising agent
(2) CH3 – CH3 > CH2 = CH2 > CH3 – C  CH >
CH  CH Sn(II) is easily oxidised to Sn(IV)
(3) CH2 = CH2 > CH3 – CH = CH2 > CH3 – C   Sn(II) is reducing agent
CH > CH  CH
140. Ionic mobility of which of the following alkali metal
(4) CH  CH > CH3 – C  CH > CH2 = CH2 > CH3
– CH3 are put under an electric field?

o m
ions is lowest when aqueous solution of their salts

.c
Answer (4) (1) Rb (2) Li
Sol. Correct order is (3) Na (4) K
H – C  C – H  H3 C – C  C – H  H2C  CH2  CH3 – CH3
(Two acidic
hydrogens)
(One acidic
hydrogen)
Answer (2)

u b
Sol. Li+ being smallest, has maximum charge density

138. Predict the correct intermediate and product in the

following reaction

e h  Li+ is most heavily hydrated among all alkali metal

ions. Effective size of Li+ in aq solution is therefore,

te
H2O, H2SO4 largest.
H 3C C CH HgSO4
intermediate product
(A) (B)  Moves slowest under electric field.

t. u
(1) A : H3C C CH3 B : H3C C CH 141. Match the interhalogen compounds of column I with
the geometry in column II and assign the correct
O
code
(2) A : H3C

(3) A : H3C
C

OH
C CH2
w w
CH2 B : H3C

B : H3C
C

O
C
CH3

CH3
Column I

(a) XX
Column II

(i) T-shape

(4) A : H3C w SO4

C

OH
CH2 B : H3C
O
C

SO4
CH2
(b) XX3

(c) XX5
(ii) Pentagonal
bipyramidal

(iii) Linear
Answer (2) (d) XX7 (iv) Square-pyramidal
OH
(v) Tetrahedral
Sol. H3C – C  CH H3C – C = CH
(A) Code :
O
Tautomerism
(a) (b) (c) (d)
H3C – C – CH3
(B) (1) (v) (iv) (iii) (ii)
139. It is because of inability of ns2 electrons of the (2) (iv) (iii) (ii) (i)
valence shell to participate in bonding that
(3) (iii) (iv) (i) (ii)
(1) Sn2+ and Pb2+ are both oxidising and reducing
(2) Sn4+ is reducing while Pb4+ is oxidising (4) (iii) (i) (iv) (ii)

25
Answer (4) (1) E1 > E2 (2) E2 = 0 ≠ E1
Sol. XX  Linear (3) E1 = E2 (4) E1 < E2
XX3  Example : CIF3  T-shape Answer (1)
XX5  Example : BrF5  Square pyramidal Sol. Zn|ZnSO4(0.01 M)||CuSO4(1.0 M)|Cu

XX7  Example : IF7  Pentagonal bipyramidal o 2.303RT (0.01)

 E1  Ecell –  log
142. Which is the incorrect statement? 2F 1
When concentrations are changed
(1) NaCl(s) is insulator, silicon is semiconductor,
silver is conductor, quartz is piezo electric o 2.303RT 1
crystal  E2  Ecell –  log
2F 0.01
(2) Frenkel defect is favoured in those ionic i.e., E1 > E2
compounds in which sizes of cation and anions
145. The correct statement regarding electrophile is
are almost equal
(1) Electrophiles are generally neutral species and
(3) FeO0.98 has non stoichiometric metal deficiency can form a bond by accepting a pair of electrons
defect

m
from a nucleophile
(4) Density decreases in case of crystals with (2) Electrophile can be either neutral or positively
Schottky's defect
Answer (2 & 3)
c o
charged species and can form a bond by
accepting a pair of electrons from a nucleophile

.
(3) Electrophile is a negatively charged species and

b
Sol. Frenkel defect occurs in those ionic compounds in can form a bond by accepting a pair of electrons
which size of cation and anion is largely different.

u
from a nucleophile
Non-stoichiometric ferrous oxide is Fe0.93–0.96O1.00 (4) Electrophile is a negatively charged species and
and it is due to metal deficiency defect.
143. Which one of the following statements is not

e h can form a bond by accepting a pair of electrons

from another electrophile

e
correct? Answer (2)

t
(1) Enzymes catalyse mainly bio-chemical reactions

u
Sol. Fact.
146. The correct order of the stoichiometries of AgCl

t
(2) Coenzymes increase the catalytic activity of

.
formed when AgNO3 in excess is treated with the
enzyme
complexes : CoCl36NH3, CoCl35NH3, CoCl34NH3

w
(3) Catalyst does not initiate any reaction respectively is
(4) The value of equilibrium constant is changed in (1) 3 AgCl, 2 AgCl, 1 AgCl

equilibrium
Answer (4)
w w
the presence of a catalyst in the reaction at

Sol. A catalyst decreases activation energies of both the

(2) 2 AgCl, 3 AgCl, 1 AgCl
(3) 1 AgCl, 3 AgCl, 2 AgCl
(4) 3 AgCl, 1 AgCl, 2 AgCl
Answer (1)
forward and backward reaction by same amount,
Sol. Complexes are respectively [Co(NH 3 ) 6 ]Cl 3 ,
therefore, it speeds up both forward and backward
[Co(NH3)5Cl]Cl2 and [Co(NH3)4Cl2]Cl
reaction by same rate.
147. The IUPAC name of the compound
Equilibrium constant is therefore not affected by
catalyst at a given temperature. O O
144. In the electrochemical cell
C
H is ________.
Zn|ZnSO4(0.01M)||CuSO4(1.0 M)|Cu, the emf of this
Daniel cell is E1. When the concentration of ZnSO4
is changed to 1.0 M and that of CuSO4 changed to (1) 5-methyl-4-oxohex-2-en-5-al
0.01 M, the emf changes to E2. From the following,
(2) 3-keto-2-methylhex-5-enal
which one is the relationship between E1 and E2?
(3) 3-keto-2-methylhex-4-enal
RT
(Given, = 0.059)
F (4) 5-formylhex-2-en-3-one

26
Answer (3) 150. Name the gas that can readily decolourises acidified
KMnO4 solution:
O O (1) NO2 (2) P2O5
2 (3) CO2 (4) SO2
Sol. H C 3 4
Answer (4)
1
5 6 Sol. SO2 is readily decolourises acidified KMnO4.
151. The most suitable method of separation of 1 : 1
Aldehydes get higher priority over ketone and alkene mixture of ortho and para-nitrophenols is
in numbering of principal C-chain.
(1) Crystallisation
 3-keto-2-methylhex-4-enal
(2) Steam distillation
148. The species, having bond angles of 120° is (3) Sublimation
(1) NCl3 (2) BCl3 (4) Chromatography
(3) PH3 (4) CIF3 Answer (2)
Answer (2) Sol. Steam distillation is the most suitable method of

Cl
120° m
separation of 1 : 1 mixture of ortho and para

o
nitrophenols as there is intramolecular H-bonds in
ortho nitrophenol.

c
Sol. B
Cl Cl

.
152. The reason for greater range of oxidation states in
actinoids is attributed to
149. The equilibrium constants of the following are


N2 + 3H2 
 2NH3 K1 b
(1) 5f, 6d and 7s levels having comparable energies

u
(2) 4f and 5d levels being close in energies

1


N2 + O2 
 2NO K2

e h
(3) The radioactive nature of actinoids
(4) Actinoid contraction
H2 
2
O2  H2O K3

te Answer (1)

u
The equilibrium constant (K) of the reaction Sol. It is a fact.

2NH3 
5
2
K

O2 
 2NO  3H2O, will be

. t 153. The element Z = 114 has been discovered recently.

It will belong to which of the following family group

w
and electronic configuration?
(1) K2K3 / K1 (2) K32K3 / K1 (1) Oxygen family, [Rn] 5f146d107s27p4

(3) K1K33 / K2

Answer (4)
w w (4) K2K33 / K1
(2) Nitrogen family, [Rn] 5f146d107s27p6
(3) Halogen family, [Rn] 5f146d107s27p5
(4) Carbon family, [Rn] 5f146d107s27p2
[NH3 ]2 Answer (4)
Sol. (I) 

N2  3H2 
 2NH3 ; K1  3
[N2 ] [H2 ] Sol. Z = 114 belong to Group 14, carbon family
Electronic configuration = [Rn]5f146d107s27p2

 [NO]2
(II) N2  O2 
 2NO; K 2  154. Mechanism of a hypothetical reaction
[N2 ] [O2 ]
X2 + Y2  2XY is given below :

1 [H2 O] (i) X2  X + X (fast)

(III) H2  O2  H2 O; K 3 
2 [H2 ] [O2 ]1/2 

(ii) X + Y2 
 XY + Y (slow)
(II + 3  III – II) will give (iii) X + Y  XY (fast)
5 K

The overall order of the reaction will be
2NH3  O2  2NO  3H2O;
2 (1) 0 (2) 1.5
 K  K2  K 33 / K1 (3) 1 (4) 2

27
Answer (2)
O – CH3 OH
Sol. The solution of this question is given by assuming
step (i) to be reversible which is not given in question HI
Sol. + CH3I
Overall rate = Rate of slowest step (ii)
= k[X] [Y2] ...(1)
158. The correct increasing order of basic strength for the
k = rate constant of step (ii) following compounds is
Assuming step (i) to be reversible, its equilibrium
NH2 NH2 NH2
constant,

1 1
[X]2
k eq  ⇒ [X]  k eq 2 [X2 ] 2 ...(2)
[X2 ]
NO2 CH3
Put (2) in (1) (I) (II) (III)

1 1 (1) III < II < I (2) II < I < III

Rate = kk eq 2 [X 2
2 ] [Y2 ]

m
(3) II < III < I (4) III < I < II
1 3

o
1 Answer (2)
Overall order =
2 2
155. If molality of the dilute solution is doubled, the value
of molal depression constant (Kf) will be
effect.
c
Sol. –NO2 has strong –R effect and –CH3 shows +R

.
(1) Tripled
NH2 b
 Order of basic strength is

u NH2 NH2

h
(2) Unchanged

e
(3) Doubled
< <

e
(4) Halved
Answer (2)

u t NO2 CH3

t
Sol. Kf (molal depression constant) is a characteristic of
159. In which pair of ions both the species contain
solvent and is independent of molality.

the following statements is true?

w .
156. With respect to the conformers of ethane, which of
S – S bond?

(1) S2O72–, S2O82– (2) S4O62–, S2O72–

same
w
(1) Both bond angle and bond length change

w
(2) Both bond angles and bond length remains

(3) Bond angle remains same but bond length

(3) S2O72–, S2O32–

Answer (4)

O O
(4) S4O62–, S2O32–

O
changes Sol. O –
S S S S –
O , S
(4) Bond angle changes but bond length remains S O–
O O O–
same
[S4O6]2(–) [S2O3]2(–)
Answer (2)
Sol. There is no change in bond angles and bond lengths 160. Which of the following is dependent on temperature?
in the conformations of ethane. There is only change
(1) Mole fraction (2) Weight percentage
in dihedral angle.
157. The heating of phenyl-methyl ethers with HI produces. (3) Molality (4) Molarity

(1) Phenol (2) Benzene Answer (4)

(3) Ethyl chlorides (4) Iodobenzene
Sol. Molarity includes volume of solution which can
Answer (1) change with change in temperature.

28
161. Of the following, which is the product formed when Answer (1)
cyclohexanone undergoes aldol condensation
Sol. In a solution containing HgCl2, I2 and I–, both HgCl2
followed by heating?
and I2 compete for I–.
Since formation constant of [HgI4]2– is 1.9 × 1030
(1) (2) which is very large as compared with I3– (Kf = 700)

OH O O  I– will preferentially combine with HgCl2.

O HgCl2 + 2I–  HgI2 + 2Cl–
Red ppt
(3) (4)
HgI2 + 2I–  [HgI4]2–
OH O soluble
Answer (4)
165. A first order reaction has a specific reaction rate of
O O 10–2 s–1. How much time will it take for 20 g of the
reactant to reduce to 5 g?
H
Sol. + H
(i) OH(–)
(ii) 
(1) 346.5 second
(2) 693.0 second
o m
O
162. Mixture of chloroxylenol and terpineol acts as (3) 238.6 second

. c
(1) Antipyretic

(3) Analgesic
(2) Antibiotic

(4) Antiseptic
u
Answer (4) b
(4) 138.6 second

Answer (4)

e h
Sol. t1/2 
0.693
10 –2
second

e
Sol. Mixture of chloroxylenol and terpineol acts as

t
antiseptic.
For the reduction of 20 g of reactant to 5 g, two t1/2

.t
at : (Assume that H and S do not vary withu
163. For a given reaction, H = 35.5 kJ mol –1 and
S = 83.6 JK–1 mol–1. The reaction is spontaneous
is required.

 t  2
0.693
10 –2
second

w
temperature)

(1) All temperatures (2) T > 298 K

w
= 138.6 second
(3) T < 425 K (4) T > 425 K 166. Which one is the most acidic compound?
Answer (4)

Sol. ∵ G = H – TS w
For a reaction to be spontaneous, G = –ve (1)
OH

(2)
O2N
OH
NO2

i.e., H < TS NO2 NO2

H 35.5  103 J
 T  OH OH
S 83.6 JK –1

i.e., T > 425 K (3) (4)

164. HgCl2 and I2 both when dissolved in water containing

CH3
I– ions the pair of species formed is
(1) HgI2– –
4 , I3 (2) Hg2I2 , I– Answer (2)

(3) HgI2 , I3– (4) HgI2 , I– Sol. –NO2 group has very strong –I & –R effects.

29
167. Correct increasing order for the wavelengths of Answer (3)
absorption in the visible region for the complexes of
Sol. Max. pressure of CO2 = Pressure of CO2 at equilibrium
Co3+ is
For reaction,
(1) [Co(H2O)6]3+, [Co(NH3)6]3+, [Co(en)3]3+


 SrO(s)  CO2
SrCO3 (s) 
(2) [Co(NH3)6]3+, [Co(en)3]3+, [Co(H2O)6]3+
(3) [Co(en)3]3+, [Co(NH3)6]3+, [Co(H2O)6]3+ Kp  PCO2  1.6 atm = maximum pressure of CO2
(4) [Co(H2O)6]3+, [Co(en)3]3+, [Co(NH3)6]3+
Volume of container at this stage,
Answer (3)
nRT
Sol. The order of the ligand in the spectrochemical series V …(i)
P
H2O < NH3 < en Since container is sealed and reaction was not
Hence, the wavelength of the light observed will be earlier at equilibrium
in the order  n = constant
[Co(H2O)6]3+ < [Co(NH3)6]3+ < [Co(en)3]3+ PV 0.4  20
n 

m
…(ii)
Thus, wavelength absorbed will be in the opposite RT RT
order
i.e., [Co(en)3]3+, [Co(NH3)6]3+, [Co(H2O)6]3+
168. Concentration of the Ag+ ions in a saturated solution
Put equation (ii) in equation (i)

V⎢ ⎥
.
⎡ 0.4  20 ⎤ RT
c
=5L
o
b
⎣ RT ⎦ 1.6
of Ag2C2O4 is 2.2 × 10–4 mol L–1. Solubility product
of Ag2C2O4 is
(1) 4.5 × 10–11 (2) 5.3 × 10–12

h u
170. Identify A and predict the type of reaction

OCH3
(3) 2.42 × 10–8
Answer (2)
(4) 2.66 × 10–12

e e NaNH2
A



Sol. Ag2C2O4 (s)   2
 2 Ag (aq)  C2O4 (aq)

u t Br

KSP = [Ag+]2 [C2O42–]

2s

. t s OCH3
Br

[Ag+] = 2.2 × 10–4 M

 [C2O24 ] 
w
2.2  104
w
M  1.1 104 M
(1) and cine substitution reaction

w
OCH3
2

 KSP = (2.2 × 10–4)2 (1.1 × 10–4) (2) and cine substitution reaction
= 5.324 × 10–12
169. A 20 litre container at 400 K contains CO2(g) at
OCH3
pressure 0.4 atm and an excess of SrO (neglect the
volume of solid SrO). The volume of the containers
is now decreased by moving the movable piston (3) and substitution reaction
fitted in the container. The maximum volume of the NH2
container, when pressure of CO 2 attains its
maximum value, will be OCH3


(Given that : SrCO3(s)  SrO(s) + CO 2(g). NH2
Kp = 1.6 atm) (4) and elimination addition reaction

(1) 4 litre (2) 2 litre

(3) 5 litre (4) 10 litre Answer (3)

30
 Answer (4)
OCH3 OCH3 OCH3
Sol. Micro-organisms present in the soil is a sink for CO.
Sol. H
NH2 174. Which one of the following pairs of species have the
same bond order?
Br Br
Benzyne (1) CN–, CO (2) N2, O2–
OCH3 (3) CO, NO (4) O2, NO+
NH2
OCH3 X Answer (1)
a
(Less stable)
NH2 Sol. CN(–) and CO have bond order 3 each.
OCH3
OCH3 175. A gas is allowed to expand in a well insulated
b H–NH2 container against a constant external pressure of 2.5
atm from an initial volume of 2.50 L to a final volume
NH2 of 4.50 L. The change in internal energy U of the
NH2 gas in joules will be

More stable as –ve charge is close to electron

withdrawing group
(1) –505 J
(3) 1136.25 J
o m
(2) +505 J
(4) –500 J
∵ Incoming nucleophile ends on same ‘C’ on which
‘Br’ (Leaving group) was present
Answer (1)

. c
 NOT cine substitution.
171. Which of the following reactions is appropriate for
Sol. U = q + w

u b
For adiabatic process, q = 0
converting acetamide to methanamine?
(1) Stephens reaction

e h
 U = w
= – P·V

e
(2) Gabriels phthalimide synthesis
(3) Carbylamine reaction
(4) Hoffmann hypobromamide reaction

u t = –2.5 atm × (4.5 – 2.5) L

= –2.5 × 2 L-atm
Answer (4)
O
. t = –5 × 101.3 J

w 
Sol. CH3 – C – NH2 + Br2 + 4NaOH = –506.5 J
 –505 J

w
CH3 – NH2 + 2NaBr + Na2CO3 + 3H2O
This is Hoffmann Bromamide reaction. 176. Extraction of gold and silver involves leaching with

(1) IBr2 , XeF2

w
172. Which of the following pairs of compounds is
isoelectronic and isostructural?

(2) IF3, XeF2

CN– ion. Silver is later recovered by
(1) Zone refining
(3) Liquation
(2) Displacement with Zn
(4) Distillation

(3) BeCl2, XeF2 (4) Tel2, XeF2 Answer (2)

Answer (1) Sol. Zn being more reactive than Ag and Au, displaces
Sol. IBr2–, XeF2 them.

Total number of valence electrons are equal in both From Native ore,
the species and both the species are linear also. Leaching
4Ag + 8NaCN + 2H2O + O2 
173. Which of the following is a sink for CO?
4Na[Ag(CN)2 ]  4NaOH
(1) Oceans Soluble
Sodium dicyanoargentate(I)
(2) Plants
Displacement
2Na[Ag(CN)2] + Zn  
(3) Haemoglobin
(4) Micro-organisms present in the soil Na2[Zn(CN)4] + 2Ag

31
177. Consider the reactions : CN – being strong field ligand forces pairing of
Cu / [Ag(NH3)2]
+ electrons
X A Silver mirror observed
573 K –OH, 
(C2H6O) 4 0
–OH,  This gives t2g eg
Y
O
NH2 – NH – C – NH2  Mn(III) = [Ar]
Z
Identify A, X, Y and Z
(1) A-Ethanal, X-Ethanol, Y-But-2-enal, 3d 4s 4p
Z-Semicarbazone 2 3
d sp
(2) A-Ethanol, X-Acetaldehyde, Y-Butanone,
Z-Hydrazone ∵ Coordination number of Mn = 6
(3) A-Methoxymethane, X-Ethanoic acid, Y-Acetate  Structure = octahedral
ion, Z-hydrazine [Mn(CN)6]3– =
(4) A-Methoxymethane, X-Ethanol, Y-Ethanoic acid,

m
Z-Semicarbazide
[Ar]      
Answer (1)
Sol. Since 'A' gives positive silver mirror test therefore, it
must be an aldehyde or -Hydroxyketone.

. c o d sp
179. Which one is the wrong statement?
2 3

b
Reaction with semicarbazide indicates that A can be (1) Half-filled and fully filled orbitals have greater
an aldehyde or ketone.

u
stability due to greater exchange energy, greater
Reaction with OH – i.e., aldol condensation (by symmetry and more balanced arrangement
assuming alkali to be dilute) indicates that A is
aldehyde as aldol reaction of ketones is reversible
and carried out in special apparatus.
e h
(2) The energy of 2s orbital is less than the energy
of 2p orbital in case of Hydrogen like atoms

These indicates option (1).

t e (3) de-Broglie's wavelength is given by  

h
mv
,

u
+ –
Cu [Ag(NH3)2] ,OH where m = mass of the particle, v = group

t
CH3–CH2OH 573 K
CH3–CHO CH3–COOH
 velocity of the particle

.
(X) (A)
ethanal
h
(4) The uncertainty principle is E  t 

w
O
–
OH 4
H2N – NH – C – NH2 OH
CH3 – CH – CH2 – CHO

w
Answer (2)
O
3-Hydroxybutanal
CH3 – CH = N – NH – C – NH2 Sol. Energy of 2s-orbital and 2p-orbital in case of

w

(Z)
hydrogen like atoms is equal.
CH3 – CH = CH – CHO
(Y) 180. Which of the following statements is not correct?
But-2-enal
(1) Blood proteins thrombin and fibrinogen are
178. Pick out the correct statement with respect involved in blood clotting
[Mn(CN)6]3– :
(2) Denaturation makes the proteins more active
(1) It is d2sp3 hybridised and octahedral
(3) Insulin maintains sugar level in the blood of a
(2) It is dsp2 hybridised and square planar
human body
(3) It is sp3d2 hybridised and octahedral
(4) Ovalbumin is a simple food reserve in egg-white
(4) It is sp3d2 hybridised and tetrahedral
Answer (2)
Answer (1)
Sol. Due to denaturation of proteins, globules unfold and
Sol. [Mn(CN)6]3– helix get uncoiled and protein loses its biological
Mn(III) = [Ar]3d4 activity.

32