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Physics X Rays Questions

The document contains multiple choice questions about physics concepts related to x-rays. It tests understanding of key properties of x-rays like their nature as electromagnetic waves, their production in x-ray tubes, their wavelength range and relationships between wavelength and frequency or penetrating power. It also contains questions about uses of x-rays in fields like medical imaging and radiation therapy. Overall, the questions assess fundamental knowledge about the physics of x-rays.

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kirki p
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0% found this document useful (0 votes)
85 views

Physics X Rays Questions

The document contains multiple choice questions about physics concepts related to x-rays. It tests understanding of key properties of x-rays like their nature as electromagnetic waves, their production in x-ray tubes, their wavelength range and relationships between wavelength and frequency or penetrating power. It also contains questions about uses of x-rays in fields like medical imaging and radiation therapy. Overall, the questions assess fundamental knowledge about the physics of x-rays.

Uploaded by

kirki p
Copyright
© © All Rights Reserved
Available Formats
Download as DOCX, PDF, TXT or read online on Scribd
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Physics x rays questions:

Ques: Compton effect shows that


(a) X-rays are waves
(b) X-rays have high energy
(c) X-rays can penetrate matter
(d) Photons have momentum
Ans. (d)
Ques: X-rays when incident on a metal
(a) Exert a force on it
(b) Transfer energy to it
(c) Transfer pressure to it
(d) All of the above
Ans. (d)
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Ques: What is the difference between soft and hard X-rays
(a) Velocity
(b) Intensity
(c) Frequency
(d) Polarization
Ans. (c)
Ques: When X   rays pass through a strong uniform magnetic field, Then they
(a) Do not get deflected at all
(b) Get deflected in the direction of the field
(c) Get deflected in the direction opposite to the field
(d) Get deflected in the direction perpendicular to the field
Ans. (a)
Ques: If the voltage of X-ray tube is doubled, the intensity of X-rays will become
(a) Half
(b) Unchanged
(c) Double
(d) Four times
Ans. (b)
Ques: X-rays cannot be deflected by means of an ordinary grating due to
(a) Large wavelength
(b) High speed
(c) Short wavelength
(d) None of these
Ans. (c)
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Ques: If energy of K-shell electron is – 40000 eV  and If 60000 V  potential is applied
at coolidge tube then which of the following X-ray will get form
(a) Continuous
(b) White X-rays
(c) Continuous and all series of characteristic
(d) None of these
Ans. (c)
Ques: On increasing the number of electrons striking the anode of an X-ray tube,
which one of the following parameters of the resulting X-rays would increase
(a) Penetration power
(b) Frequency
(c) Wavelength
(d) Intensity
Ans. (d)
Ques: X-rays are
(a) Stream of electrons
(b) Stream of positively charged particles
(c) Electromagnetic radiations of high frequency
(d) Stream of uncharged particles
Ans. (c)
Ques: X-rays which can penetrate through longer distances in substance are called
(a) Soft X-rays
(b) Continuous X-rays
(c) Hard X-rays
(d) None of the above
Ans. (c)
Ques: For harder X-rays
(a) The wavelength is higher
(b) The intensity is higher
(c) The frequency is higher
(d) The photon energy is lower
Ans. (c)
Ques: X-rays region lies between
(a) Short radiowave and visible region
(b) Visible and ultraviolet region
(c) Gamma rays and ultraviolet region
(d) Short radiowave and long radiowave
Ans. (c)
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Ques: The voltage applied across an X-rays tube is nearly
(a) 10 V
(b) 100 V
(c) 10000 V
(d) 106 V
Ans. (c)
Ques: X-rays are known to be electromagnetic radiations. Therefore the X-ray photon
has
(a) Electric charge
(b) Magnetic moment
(c) Both electric charge and magnetic moment
(d) Neither electric charge nor magnetic moment
Ans. (d)
Ques: X-rays were discovered by
(a) Becquerel
(b) Roentgen
(c) Marie Curie
(d) Von Laue
Ans. (b)
Ques: X-rays and gamma rays are both electromagnetic waves. Which of the
following statements is true
(a) In general X-rays have larger wavelength than of gamma rays
(b) X-rays have smaller wavelength than that of gamma rays
(c) Gamma rays have smaller frequency than that of X-rays
(d) Wavelength and frequency of X-rays are both larger than that of gamma rays
Ans. (a)
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Ques: The penetrating power of  X-rays increases with the
(a) Increase in its velocity
(b) Increase in its frequency
(c) Increase in its intensity
(d) Decrease in its velocity
Ans. (b)
Ques: A direct X-ray photograph of the intestines is not generally taken by the
radiologists because
(a) Intestines would burst on exposure to X-rays
(b) The X-rays would not pass through the intestines
(c) The X-rays will pass through the intestines without causing a good shadow for any
useful diagnosis
(d) A very small exposure of X-rays causes cancer in the intestines
Ans. (c)
Ques: The X-ray beam coming from an X-ray tube will be
(a) Monochromatic
(b) Having all wavelengths smaller than a certain maximum wavelength
(c) Having all wavelengths larger than a certain minimum wavelength
(d) Having all wavelengths lying between a minimum and a maximum wavelength
Ans. (c)
Ques: X-rays are in nature similar to
(a) Beta rays
(b) Gamma rays
(c) de-Broglie waves
(d) Cathode rays
Ans. (b)
Ques: In  radio theraphy, X-rays are used to
(a) Detect bone fractures
(b) Treat cancer by controlled exposure
(c) Detect heart diseases
(d) Detect fault in radio receiving circuits
Ans. (b)
Ques: Which of the following wavelength falls in X-ray region
(a) 10000 Å
(b) 1000 Å
(c) 1 Å
(d) 10–2 Å
Ans. (c)
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Ques: For continuous X-rays produced wavelength is
(a) Inversely proportional to the energy of the electrons hitting the target
(b) Inversely proportional to the intensity of the electron beam
(c) Proportional to intensity of the electron beam
(d) Proportional to target temperature
Ans. (a)
Ques: Penetrating power of X-rays can be increased by
(a) Increasing the potential difference between anode and cathode
(b) Decreasing the potential difference between anode and cathode
(c) Increasing the cathode filament current
(d) Decreasing the cathode filament current
Ans. (a)
Ques: The wavelength of X-rays is
(a) 2000 Å
(b) 2 Å
(c) 1 mm
(d) 1 cm
Ans. (b)

1.
Which of the following has a positive charge?
(a) proton
(b) neutron
(c) anion
(d) electron
(e) atom
2.
Rutherford carried out experiments in which a beam of alpha particles
was directed at a thin piece of metal foil. From these experiments he
concluded that:
(a) electrons are massive particles.
(b) the positively charged parts of atoms are moving about with a
velocity approaching the speed of light.
(c) the positively charged parts of atoms are extremely small and
extremely heavy particles.
(d) the diameter of an electron is approximately equal to that of the
nucleus.
(e) electrons travel in circular orbits around the nucleus.
3.
Consider the species 72Zn, 75As and 74Ge. These species have:
(a) the same number of electrons.
(b) the same number of protons.
(c) the same number of neutrons.
(d) the same number of protons and neutrons.
(e) the same mass number.
4.
The neutral atoms of all of the isotopes of the same element have
(a) different numbers of protons.
(b) equal numbers of neutrons.
(c) the same number of electrons.
(d) the same mass numbers.
(e) the same masses.
5.
What is the atomic weight of a hypothetical element consisting of two
isotopes, one with mass = 64.23 amu (26.0%), and one with mass =
65.32 amu?
(a) 65.3 amu
(b) 64.4 amu
(c) 64.9 amu
(d) 65.0 amu
(e) 64.8 amu
6.
Naturally occurring rubidium consists of just two isotopes. One of the
isotopes consists of atoms having a mass of 84.912 amu; the other of
86.901 amu. What is the percent natural abundance of the heavier
isotope?
(a) 15%
(b) 28%
(c) 37%
(d) 72%
(e) 85%
7.
What is the frequency of light having a wavelength of 4.50 x 10 -6 cm?
(a) 2.84 x 10-12 s-1
(b) 2.10 x 104 s-1
(c) 4.29 x 1014 s-1
(d) 1.06 x 1022 s-1
(e) 6.67 x 1015 s-1
8.
The emission spectrum of gold shows a line of wavelength 2.676 x
10-7 m. How much energy is emitted as the excited electron falls to
the lower energy level?
(a) 7.43 x 10-19 J
(b) 5.30 x 10-20 J
(c) 6.05 x 10-19 J
(d) 3.60 x 10-20 J
(e) 5.16 x 10-20 J
9.
Which of the responses contains all the statements that are consistent
with the Bohr theory of the atom (and no others)?
(1) An electron can remain in a particular orbit as long as it
continually absorbs radiation of a definite frequency.
(2) The lowest energy orbits are those closest to the nucleus.
(3) An electron can jump from the K shell (n = 1 major energy level)
to the M shell (n = 3 major energy level) by emitting radiation of a
definite frequency.
(a) 1,2,3
(b) 2 only
(c) 3 only
(d) 1,2
(e) 2,3
10.
The Heisenberg Principle states that _____________.
(a) no two electrons in the same atom can have the same set of four
quantum numbers.
(b) two atoms of the same element must have the same number of
protons.
(c) it is impossible to determine accurately both the position and
momentum of an electron simultaneously.
(d) electrons of atoms in their ground states enter energetically
equivalent sets of orbitals singly before they pair up in any orbital of
the set.
(e) charged atoms (ions) must generate a magnetic field when they
are in motion.
11.
Which statement about the four quantum numbers which describe
electrons in atoms is incorrect?
(a) n = principal quantum number, n = 1, 2, 3, ......
(b) l = subsidiary (or azimuthal) quantum number, l = 1, 2, 3, ... ,
(n+1)
(c) ml = magnetic quantum number, ml = (-l), .... , 0, .... , (+l)
(d) ms = spin quantum number, ms = +1/2 or -1/2.
(e) The magnetic quantum number is related to the orientation of
atomic orbitals in space.
12.
Which atomic orbital is spherical in shape? (Note: you should know
and be able to recognize the shapes of the s orbital, p x, py, and
pz orbitals, and dxy, dyz, dxz, dx2-y2 and dz2 orbitals.)
(a) 2s
(b) 3p
(c) 3d
(d) 4f
(e) they are all spherical
13.
The maximum number of electrons that can be accommodated in a
sublevel for which l = 3 is:
(a) 2
(b) 10
(c) 6
(d) 14
(e) 8
14.
The ground state electron configuration for arsenic is:
(a) [Ar] 4s2 4p13
(b) [Kr] 4s2 4p1
(c) 1s2 2s2 2p6 3s2 3p6 3d12 4s2 4p1
(d) 1s2 2s2 2p6 3s2 3p6 4s2 3d8 4p5
(e) 1s2 2s2 2p6 3s2 3p6 4s2 3d10 4p3
15.
Which of the following electron configurations is correct for nickel?
(a) [Ar] 4s1 3d8
(b) [Kr] 4s1 4d8
(c) [Kr] 4s1 3d8
(d) [Kr] 4s2 3d8
(e) [Ar] 4s2 3d8
16.
The outer electronic configuration ns 2np4 corresponds to which one of
the following elements in its ground state?
(a) As
(b) Ca
(c) Cr
(d) Br
(e) S
17.
In the ground state of a cobalt atom there are _____ unpaired
electrons and the atom is _____.
(a) 3, paramagnetic
(b) 5, paramagnetic
(c) 2, diamagnetic
(d) 0, diamagnetic
(e) 2, paramagnetic
18.
Which one of the following sets of quantum numbers could be those
of the distinguishing (last) electron of Mo?
(a) n = 4, l = 0, ml = 0, ms = +1/2
(b) n = 5, l = 1, ml = 9, ms = -1/2
(c) n = 4, l = 2, ml = -1, ms = +1/2
(d) n = 5, l = 2, ml = +2, ms = -1/2
(e) n = 3, l = 2, ml = 0, ms = +1/2
19.
How many p electrons are there in an atom of rubidium?
(a) 12
(b) 18
(c) 24
(d) 9
(e) 6
20.
A neutral atom of an element has 2 electrons in the first energy level,
8 in the second energy level and 8 in the third energy level. This
information does not necessarily tell us:
(a) the atomic number of the element.
(b) anything about the element's chemical properties.
(c) the total number of electrons in s orbitals.
(d) the total number of electrons in p orbitals.
(e) the number of neutrons in the nucleus of an atom of the element.

Answers:

1. (a) 2. (c) 3. (c) 4. (c) 5. (d) 6. (b) 7. (e) 8. (a) 9. (b) 10. (c) 11. (b) 12. (a) 1
3. (d) 14. (e) 15. (e) 16. (e) 17. (a) 18. (c) 19. (b) 20. (e)

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