Computer Basic

Computer Fundamental
1. UNIVAC is
A) Universal Automatic Computer
B) Universal Array Computer
C) Unique Automatic Computer
D) Undervalue Automatic Computer

2. The basic operations performed by a computer are

A) Arithmetic operation
B) Logical operation
C) Storage and relative
D) All the above

3. The two major types of computer chips are

A) External memory chip
B) Primary memory chip
C) Microprocessor chip
D) Both b and c

4. Microprocessors as switching devices are for which generation computers

A) First Generation
B) Second Generation
C) Third Generation
D) Fourth Generation

5. The brain of any computer system is

A) ALU
B) Memory
C) CPU
D) Control unit

6. Chief component of first generation computer was

A) Transistors
B) Vacuum Tubes and Valves
C) Integrated Circuits
D) None of above

7. To produce high quality graphics (hardcopy) in color, you would want to use a/n
A) RGB monitor
B) Plotter
C) Ink-jet printer
D) Laser printer

8. Which of the following IC was used in third generation of computers?

A) SSI
B) MSI
C) LSI
D) Both a and b

9. Which of the following was a special purpose computer?

A) ABC
B) ENIAC
C) EDVAC
D) All of the above

10. Which of the following storage devices can store maximum amount of data?
A) Floppy Disk
B) Hard Disk
C) Compact Disk
D) Magneto Optic Disk
11. High density double sided floppy disks could store _____ of data
A) 1.40 MB
B) 1.44 GB
C) 1.40 GB
D) 1.44 MB

12. Which of the following is not an input device?

A) OCR
B) Optical scanners
C) Voice recognition device
D) COM (Computer Output to Microfilm)

13. When was vacuum tube invented?

A) 1900
B) 1906
C) 1910
D) 1880

14. Which of the following produces the best quality graphics reproduction?
A) Laser printer
B) Ink jet printer
C) Plotter
D) Dot matrix printer

15. Computers with 80286 microprocessor is

A) XT computer
B) AT comptuers
C) PS/2 computer
D) None of above

16. Software in computer

A) Enhances the capabilities of the hardware machine
B) Increase the speed of central processing unit
C) Both of above
D) None of above

17. Abacus was the first

A) electronic computer
B) mechanical computer
C) electronic calculator
D) mechanical calculator

18. BCD is
A) Binary Coded Decimal
B) Bit Coded Decimal
C) Binary Coded Digit
D) Bit Coded Digit

19. Properly arranged data is called

A) Field
B) Words
C) Information
D) File

20. A computer consists of

A) A central processing unit
B) A memory
C) Input and output unit
D) All of the above

21. John Napier invented Logarithm in

A) 1614
B) 1617
C) 1620
D) None of above

22. An integrated circuit is

A) A complicated circuit
B) An integrating device
C) Much costlier than a single transistor
D) Fabricated on a tiny silicon chip

23. Which of the following is used as a primary storage device?

A) Magnetic drum
B) Hard Disks
C) Floppy
D) All of above

24. A byte consists of

A) One bit
B) Four bits
C) Eight bits
D) Sixteen bits

25. The term gigabyte refers to

A) 1024 bytes
B) 1024 kilobytes
C) 1024 megabytes
D) 1024 gigabyte

Microsoft Word
1. How many different positions can you set for drop cap?
a. 1
b. 2
c. 4
d. 6

2. How many ways you can save a document?

a. 3
b. 4
c. 5
d. 6

3. What is the maximum number of lines you can set for lines to drop box?
a. 3
b. 5
c. 10
d. 15
4. Single spacing in MS-WORD document causes ____ point line spacing?
a. 10
b. 12
c. 14
d. 16

5. What is the default number of lines to drop for drop cap

a. 3
b. 10
c. 15
d. 20

6. What is the maximum number of lines you can set for a drop cap?
a. 3
b. 10
c. 15
d. 20

7. How many columns can you insert in a word document in maximum?

a. 35
b. 45
c. 55
d. 65

8. In a document what is the maximum number of columns that can be inserted in MS Word Table?
a. 35
b. 15
c. 63
d. 65

9. What is the maximum scale percentage available in Scale drop down box?
a. 500
b. 200
c. 100
d. 90

10. What is the maximum font size you can apply for any character
a. 163
b. 1638
c. 16038
d. None of above

11. Word, by default, places a tab stop at every _____ mark on the ruler.
a. .25"
b. .5"
c. .75"
d. 1"

12. What is the default file extension for all Word documents?
a. .txts
b. .word
c. .docs
d. .docx

13. The file type _____ indicates the file is a Word document.
a. .msw
b. .wor
c. .wrd
d. .doc

14. Which of the following button will allow you to add, delete, or change records in your Data
Source?
a. ‘Data Source’ button
b. ‘Edit’ button
c. ‘Edit Data Source’ button
d. ‘Data Editing’ button
15. How much space in minimum must be provided between columns?
a. 0"
b. 0.5"
c. 1"
d. 1.5"

16. What is the smallest width of a column?

a. 0"
b. 0.5"
c. 1"
d. 1.5"

17. By default, your document prints with:

a. 1 inch top and bottom margins
b. a portrait orientation
c. 1.25 inches left and right margins
d. all of the above

18. Word is preset to use standard 8.5-by-11-inch paper with _____ margins.
a. 1-inch left, right, top, and bottom
b. 1.25-inch left, right, top, and bottom
c. 1.25-inch left and right margins and 1-inch top and bottom
d. 1-inch left and right margins and 1.25-inch top and bottom

19. What is the default left margin in Word 2003 document?

a. 1"
b. 1.25"
c. 1.5"
d. 2"

20. What is the smallest and largest font size available in Font Size tool on formatting toolbar?
a. 8 and 72
b. 8 and 64
c. 12 and 72
d. None of above

21. What is the default font size of a new Word document based on Normal template in Word 2003?
a. 10 pt
b. 12 pt
c. 14 pt
d. None of above

22. The minimum number of rows and columns in MS Word document is

a. 1 and 1
b. 2 and 1
c. 2 and 2
d. None of above

23. In mail merge operation which of the following might represent the main document?
a. A sales brochure
b. A form letter
c. A database of Names and Addresses
d. All of above

24. Pressing F8 key for three times selects

a. a word
b. a sentence
c. a paragraph
d. entire document

25. What do you call ‘a collection of character and paragraph formatting commands’?
a. the defaults
b. a template
c. a style
d. a boilerplate

26. What is a Document Outline View?

a. A preview in a full screen
b. A preview with margins
c. A View with a margins and gutter
d. A view with a structure of heading at various levels

27. Ctrl + Z
a. Undo the last Action
b. Redo the last Action
c. Add the new page
d. Paste the contents from clipboard

28. The _____ in the Resume Wizard dialog box indicates the wizard is ready to create the document.
a. Start panel
b. Address panel
c. Add/Sort Heading panel
d. Finish panel

29. What does Ctrl + = key effect?

a. Superscript
b. Subscript
c. All Caps
d. Shadow
 
30. How can you make the selected character super scripted
a. Ctrl + =
b. Ctrl + Shift + =
c. Alt + Ctrl + Shift + =
d. None of above

 
 
31. When typing in a word field manually, what must you press to insert the code’s braces?
a. Ctrl + F6
b. Ctrl + F9
c. Alt + F11
d. Shift + F12

32. What is the short cut key to open the Open dialog box?
a. F12
b. Shift F12
c. Alt + F12
d. Ctrl + F12

33. What is the shortcut key to split a table?

a. Ctrl + Alt + Enter
b. Ctrl + Shift + Enter
c. Alt + Shift + Enter
d. Alt + Space + Enter

34. Which key is used to increase left indent?

a. Ctrl+I
b. Ctrl+M
c. Alt+I
d. F10

35. How many different documents you can open at one time?
a. No more than three
b. Only one
c. As many as your computer memory will hold
d. As many as your taskbar can display
36. Which of the following is the second step in creating a macro?
a. Start recording
b. Using your mouse or keyboard, perform the task you want to automate
c. Assign a keyboard shortcut to the macro
d. Give the macro a name

43. When assigning a shortcut key to a symbol, you should always try to select a key or key
combination that is:
a. unassigned
b. located on the ten-key pad section of your keyboard.
c. assigned to another task.
d. from the same font family as the symbol.

37. Which feature is used to replace straight quotes with smart quotes as you type?
a. Auto Correct as you type
b. Auto Change as you type
c. Auto Format as you type
d. Smart Tags as you type

38. Which of the following command is not available in Tools menu?

a. Auto text
b. Autocorrect
c. Auto summarize
d. Macro

39. Word has a list of predefined typing, spelling, capitalization, and grammar errors that _____ can
detect and correct.
a. AutoEntry
b. AutoCorrect
c. AutoAdd
d. AutoSpell

40. Which option is not available in Insert Table Autofit behavior?

a. Fixed Column Width
b. AutoFit to Contents
c. Autofit to Window
d. Autofit to Column

41. When you click on File menu in Word 2010, it opens

a. File menu
b. File Commands
c. Backstage View
d. File Ribbon

42. Tabs stop position cannot be the following alignment

a. Decimal Alignment
b. Center Alignment
c. Bar Alignment
d. Justify Alignment

43. Ctrl + B
a. Search the selected text
b. Paste the selected text
c. Bold the selected text
d. Open the specified file

44. To move the cursor page to page of document

a. Ctrl+PgDn
b. Ctrl+PgUp
c. Both of above
d. None of above

45. You can jump to the next column by

a. Clicking with your mouse on the next column
b. Press Alt + Down-arrow
c. Both of above
d. None of Above

46. Which of the following enables you to paste data multiple times?
a. Windows Clipboard
b. Office Clipboard
c. Both Windows & Office Clipboard
d. None of the all

47. You need to jump to the next column breaking current column right at the cursor position. How
can you break column?
a. Pressing Ctrl+Enter
b. Pressing Alt+Shift+Enter
c. Break command from Insert menu
d. Both b and c

48. What is the default font used in MS Word 2007 document?

a. Times New Roman
b. Arial
c. Calibri
d. Preeti

49. Word includes a series of predefined graphics called _____ that can be inserted into a Word
document.
a. clip art
b. hyperlinks
c. captions
d. bookmarks

50. A (n) _____is a dot or other symbol positioned at the beginning of a paragraph.
a. bullet
b. logo
c. cell
d. target
 
51. Which of the following is not a type of page margin?
a. Left
b. Right
c. Center
d. Top

52. Ctrl + A
a. Align Right
b. Select All
c. Change font
d. Save document

53. Which of the following is not on Home ribbon?

a. Columns
b. Font color
c. Change Style
d. Font

54. Ctrl + E
a. Exit Application
b. Select All
c. Clear All
d. Align Center

55. Which would you choose to save a document with a new name?
a. Press Ctrl+S
b. Click File, Save
c. Click Tools, Options, Save
d. Click File, Save As
56. You cannot close MS Word application by
a. Choosing File menu then Exit submenu
b. Press Alt+F4
c. Click X button on title bar
d. From File menu choose Close sub menu

57. Which of the following option is not available in Insert >> Picture ?
a. Chart
b. Word Art
c. Clip Art
d. Graph

58. Which option in File pull-down menu is used to close a file in MS Word?
a. New
b. Quit
c. Close
d. Exit

59. Ctrl + O
a. Save Document
b. Print Document
c. Close Document
d. Open Document

60. Which feature do you use to create a newspaper like document?

a. Bullets & numbering
b. Tables
c. Columns
d. Tab stops

61. A _____ contains buttons, boxes, and menus that allow tasks to be performed more quickly than
using the menu bar.
a. format bar
b. status bar
c. command bar
d. toolbar

62. What is the shortcut key you can press to create a copyright symbol?
a. Alt+Ctrl+C
b. Alt + C
c. Ctrl + C
d. Ctrl + Shift + C

63. What is the short cut key to open Font dialog box?
a. Ctrl + F
b. Alt + Ctrl + F
c. Ctrl + D
d. Ctrl + Shift + D

64. What is the shortcut key to "Center Align" the selected text?
a. Ctrl + C
b. Ctrl + E
c. Ctrl + F
d. None of above

65. What is the shortcut key for Spelling Check in document?

a. F7
b. Shift + F7
c. Ctrl + F7
d. Alt + F7

66. What is the shortcut key to Update Formula in a table?

a. F9
b. Alt + F9
c. Ctrl + F9
67. What is the shortcut key for "Font" dialog box?
a. Ctrl + F
b. Ctrl + D
c. Ctrl + G
d. None of the above

68. What is the shortcut key for "Find and Replace" dialog box?
a. Ctrl + F
b. Ctrl + R
c. Ctrl + H
d. Ctrl + Shift + F

69. What is the shortcut key to "Insert Hyperlink" in a document?

a. Ctrl + H
b. Ctrl + L
c. Ctrl + K
d. None of above

70. How can you access the font size tool on formatting toolbar?
a. Ctrl + S
b. Ctrl + Shift + S
c. Ctrl + P
d. Ctrl + Shift + P

1. Which of these is a word processor included in MS office

(a) MS Word
(b) MS Excel
(c) MS Power Point
(d) MS Paint

2. What is extension of files created in MS-Word 97-2003

(a) Txt
(b) BMP
(c) Dot
(d) DOC

3. What is extension of files created in MS-Word 2007-2015

(a) Txt
(b) XLS
(c) DOCX
(d) RTF

4. MS-Office is -
(a) Application Software
(b) System Software
(c) Operating System
(d) All of above

5. Which of these toolbars allow changing of Fonts and Their sizes?

(a) Standard
(b) Formatting
(c) Print Preview
(d) None of these

6. What is the shortcut key for new paragraph -

(a) Down Cursor Key
(b) Enter Key
(c) Shift + Enter
(d) Ctrl + Enter

7. What is shortcut key for check spelling check -

(a) F1
(b) F2
(c) F7
(d) F9

8. What is the smallest ……. & ………largest font size

(a) 8 & 72
(b) 8 & 68
(c) 6 & 72
(d) 6 & 68

9. Which menu used to change character size and typeface?

(a) View
(b) Tools
(c) Format
(d) Data

10. In Microsoft Word Shortcut Key CTRL + W is used for

(a) Open the Print dialog box
(b) Update current web page
(c) Close the current windows
(d) None of these

11. What is default lines to Drop Cap?

(a) 3
(b) 16
(c) 10
(d) 14

12. Thesaurus tool are used in MS word.

(a) Spelling Suggestions
(b) Synonyms & Antonyms
(c) Grammar options
(d) All of above

13. Which file starts MS Word in Run Dialog box ?

(a) Word
(b) MSWord
(c) Word2003
(d) Winword

14. Portrait and Landscape are -

(a) Page Orientation
(b) Paper Size
(c) Page Layout
(d) All of above

15. What is default font used in MS Word 93-2003

(a) Times New Roman
(b) Algerian
(c) Noticea Text
(d) Arial

16. What is the default size of a new word document based on Normal Template?
(a) 9 pt
(b) 12 pt
(c) 14 pt
(d) None of above
17. The mailing list is known as the………..
(a) Data Source
(b) Sheet
(c) Data Sheet
(d) Source

18. What is the shortcut key of "UNDO"

(a) Ctrl + A
(b) Ctrl + Z
(c) Ctrl + U
(d) Ctrl + X

19. What is CTRL + Q used for in MS Word ?

(a) To Remove Paragraph Formatting
(b) To open an existing file
(c) To delete the select text
(d) To spell check

20. To Change line height 1.5 we use shortcut key

(a) Ctrl + 1
(b) Ctrl + 2
(c) Ctrl + 3
(d) Ctrl + 5

21. We can insert a page number at -

(a) F1
(b) F2
(c) F7
(d) F9

22. Which bar is usually located below that Title Bar

(a) Menu Bar
(b) Status Bar
(c) Tool Bar
(d) Scroll Bar

23. The first letter of each word comes in small case and all other letters come in a big case.
(a) Upper case
(b) Lower case
(c) Title case
(d) Toggle case

25. How many maximum lines can be set for the drop cap ?
(a) 15
(b) 20
(c) 10
(d) 8

26. The shortcut key for Spelling Check

(a) F3
(b) F6
(c) F11
(d) F7

27. What is the shortcut key for Change Case

(a) F3
(b) Ctrl + F3
(c) Shift + F3
(d) Alt + F3

28. The shortcut key for "Replace

(a) Ctrl + R
(b) Alt + R
(c) Shift + R
(d) Ctrl + H

29. The shortcut key for "Find"

(a) Ctrl + F
(b) Alt + R
(c) Shift + F
(d) Ctrl + H

30. The shortcut key for "Undo" -

(a) Ctrl + U
(b) Ctrl + Z
(c) Ctrl + Y
(d) Ctrl + X

31. The shortcut key for "Redo" -

(a) Ctrl + R
(b) Ctrl + B
(c) Ctrl + X
(d) Ctrl + Y

32. The shortcut key for Change the "Font Style"

(a) Shift + Alt + F
(b) Ctrl + Shift + f
(c) Ctrl + F + S
(d) Ctrl + S

33. The shortcut key for change "Font Size" -

(a) Ctrl + Shift + P
(b) Alt + F
(c) Alt + S
(d) Ctrl + P

34. The shortcut key for "Copyright Symbol"

(a) Ctrl + C
(b) Alt + C
c) Ctrl + Shift + C
(d) Alt + Ctrl + C

35. The shortcut key for "Superscript"  

(a) Shift + S
(b) Ctrl + Shift + +
(c) Alt + S
(d) Ctrl + =

36. The shortcut key for "Subscript"  

(a) Alt + Ctrl + F
(b) Shift + +
(c) Ctrl + S
(d) Ctrl + =

37. Word Warp Means –

(a) Aligning text the right margin
(b) Inserting spaces between words
(c) Moving text automatically to the next line
(d) None of the above

38. Microsoft word is a

(a) Word Processing Program
(b) Spreadsheet Program
(c) Presentation Program
(d) None of the above

39. The "zoomed maximum" up to in MS Word

(a) 100 %
(b) 200 %
(c) 500 %
(d) 400 %

40. The "zoomed minimum" up to in MS Word

(a) 30%
(b) 20%
(c) 10%
(d) 15%

41. The smallest and largest font size available in font size
(a) 8 and 72
(b) 8 and 70
(c) 8 and 82
(d) 10 and 72

42. What is the maximum font size you can apply in ms word
(a) 1638
(b) 1683
(c) 16380
(d) 16038

43. How can you increase the font size of selected text by one point every time ?
(a) Ctrl + ;
(b) Ctrl + ,
(c) Ctrl + [
(d) Ctrl + ]

44. To "Copy" selected text, press the key

(a) Shift + C
(b) Ctrl + V
(c) Alt + C
(d) Ctrl + C

45. The shortcut key for "Cut" the selected text ?

(a) Ctrl + X
(b) Ctrl + V
(c) Ctrl + U
(d) Ctrl + C

46. The shortcut key for "Italic"

(a) Ctrl + L
(b) Ctrl + B
(c) Ctrl + I
(d) Ctrl + U

47. What is the shortcut key for "Bold"

(a) Ctrl + U
(b) Ctrl + M
(c) Ctrl + B
(d) Ctrl + V

48. What is the shortcut key for "Underline"

(a) Ctrl + I
(b) Ctrl + B
(c) Ctrl + L
(d) Ctrl + U
49. The shortcut key for "Increase Font Size"
(a) Ctrl + T
(b) Shift + Ctrl + >
(c) Shift + F
(d) Ctrl + M

50. The shortcut key for "Decrease Font Size"

(a) Shift + D
(b) Shift + F
(c) Alt + D
(d) Ctrl + Shift + <

51. The shortcut key to show font Dialog -

(a) Ctrl + Shift + P
(b) Ctrl + Shift + F
(c) All of the above
(d) Ctrl + D

52. The shortcut key to "Center Align"

(a) Ctrl + C
(b) Ctrl + R
(c) Ctrl + L
(d) Ctrl + E

53. The shortcut Key to "Right Align"

(a) Ctrl + C
(b) Ctrl + R
(c) Ctrl + L
(d) Ctrl + E

54. The shortcut key to "LEFT Align"

(a) Ctrl + C
(b) Ctrl + R
(c) Ctrl + L
(d) Ctrl + E

55. The shortcut key to "Justify Align"

(a) Ctrl + J
(b) Ctrl + R
(c) Ctrl + L
(d) Ctrl + E

56. The shortcut key to "Hyperlink"

(a) Ctrl + H
(b) Ctrl + K
(c) Ctrl + Y
(d) Ctrl + E

57. Which language does MS-Word use to create Macros?

(a) Visual Basic
(b) Access
(c) Ctrl + +
(d) Visual C++

58. The Key F12 opens a

(a) Print dialog box
(b) Open dialog box
(c) Save As dialog box
(d) Save Dialog box

59. What is the use of Bookmarks ?

(a) To correct the spelling
(b) Jump to specific location
(c) To ignore spelling mistakes
(d) None of these

60. Ctrl + T
(a) Left Indent
(b) First line indents
(c) Left & Right
(d) Hanging Indent

61. Ctrl + M
(a) Right Indent
(b) Left Indent
(c) First Line Indent
(d) None of these

62. Ctrl + W
(a) Save and Close document
(b) Save the document
(c) Without Save, Close document
(d) None of these

63. The shortcut key for "Clear All formatting"

(a) Ctrl + Del
(b) Ctrl + Enter
(c) Shift + F3
(d) Ctrl + Spacebar

64. What is shortcut key for check spelling check

(a) F1
(b) F2
(c) F7
(d) F9

65. The shortcut key for "Copyright Symbol"

(a) Ctrl + C
(b) Alt + C
(c) Ctrl + Shift + C
(d) Alt + Ctrl + C
MS Excel Question Bank Page No. 1
2
3
1. What is extension of files created in MS-Excel 97-2003
(a) .xlx
(b) .msx
(c) .Dot
(d) .xls

2. What is extension of files created in MS-Excel 2007-2015

(a) Txt
(b) XLS
(c) XLSX
(d) RTF

3. MS-Office is -
(a) Application Software
(b) System Software
(c) Operating System
(d) All of above

4. Which menu option in MS Excel has the option to "Sort the Data"
(a) Review
(b) Data
(c) Formula
(d) Insert

5. Which is the correct formula for SUM Function in MS Excel.

(a) /SUM(A1+A5)
(b) =SUM(A1-A5)
(c) =SUM(A1:A5)       
(d) +SUM(A1:A5)

6. What is the use of VLOOKUP function in MS Excel -

(a) to get the max value
(b) to copy a row
(c) to find things in a table
(d) None of these

7. Which button in MSExcel to calculate the sum of number

(a) AutoSum
(b) Fill
(c) Insert
(d) Merge

8. What is the Shortcut key for "Current Date" in Excel

(a) Ctrl + C
(b) Ctrl + D
(c) Alt + ;
(d) Ctrl + ;

9. What is the Shortcut key for "Current Time" in Excel

(a) Ctrl + Shift + :
(b) Ctrl + T
(c) Ctrl + D     
(d) Ctrl + ;

10. What is the shortcut to insert comment in MS Excel

(a) Ctrl + F6
(b) Alt + F8
(c) Shift + F9
(d) Shift + F2

11. Which function in MS Excel counts the number of characters in a Cell

(a) Len ( )       
(b) Length ( )
(c) Count ( )
(d) LNG ( )
Answer – (d) Len ( )
12. What of these is a shortcut to add a border to the selected cell in MS Excel
(a) Ctrl + T
(b) Ctrl + B
(c) Shift + B    
(d) Ctrl + Shift + &

13. What is the shortcut key of Hyperlink in Excel

(a) Ctrl + H     
(b) Ctrl + K
(c) Alt + S       
(d) Alt + K

14. What is the Shortcut key for select Complete Row

(a) Shift + Space
(b) Ctrl + Space
(c) Alt + Space
(d) None of these

15. What is the Shortcut key for select Complete Column

(a) Shift + Space         
(b) Ctrl + Space
(c) Alt + Space
(d) None of these

16. What  is the intersection of a column and row on worksheet called ?

(a) Row
(b) Column
(c) Cell
(d) Address

17. MS Excel is a -
(a) Word Processing Software
(b) Spreadsheet Program
(c) Presentation Program
(d) None of these

18. The Software which contains rows and column is called -

(a) Word Processing    
(b) Database
(c) Spreadsheet
(d) None of these

19. Formulas in Excel Start with -

(a) +
(b) #
(c) %
(d) =

20. To return the remainder after a no. is divided by a divisor in Excel

(a) Round ( )
(b) Mod ( )
(c) Fact ( )       
(d) None of these
 

21. Hyperlinks can be

(a) Text
(b) Drawing
(c) Picture
(d) All of the above

22. NOT, AND, OR and XOR are -

(a) Relational Operator
(b) Logical Operators
(c) Arithmetic Operators
(d) None of these

23. The shortcut key to hide entire column

(a) Ctrl + H     
(b) Ctrl + 0
(c) Ctrl + -       
(d) None of these

24. Which of the following is correct -

(a) = power (2^3)
(b) = power (2*3)
(c) = power (2,3)
(d) None of these

25. What is the shortcut key to insert a new comment in a cell ?

(a) ALT + F2
(b) Ctrl + F2
(c) Shift + F2
(d) None of these

26. What is the shortcut key to insert new sheet in current workbook ?
(a) Shift + F11
(b) Ctrl + F11
(c) Atl + F11
(d) None of these

27. How many sheets are there, by default, when we create a new excel file ?
(a) 1    
(b) 2
(c) 3    
(d) 4

28. Which sign display when formula error in MS Excel

(a) $    
(b) *
(c) #
(d) \

29. What is the Shortcut Key of "AutoSum"

(a) Ctrl + =      
(b) Alt + =
(c) Ctrl + A
(d) Shift + =
30. What is the Shortcut Key for Insert (Row, Column)
(a) Ctrl + +
(b) Ctrl + C
(c) Ctrl + R      
(d) Ctrl + A

31. What is the Shortcut Key for Delete (Row, Column)

(a) Ctrl + D     
(b) Ctrl + R
(c) Ctrl + C      
(d) Ctrl + -

32. The Shortcut Key for Hide Rows

(a) Ctrl + 9      
(b) Ctrl + S
(c) Ctrl + H     
(d) Ctrl + R

33. The Shortcut Key for Hide Columns

(a) Ctrl + H     
(b) Ctrl + C
(c) Ctrl + 9
(d) Ctrl + 0

34. The Shortcut Key for Unhide Rows

(a) Ctrl + Shift + (
(b) Ctrl + U
(c) Ctrl + H
(d) Ctrl + R

35. The Shortcut Key for Unhide Columns

(a) Ctrl + H       
(b) Ctrl + K
(c) Ctrl + Shift + )       
(d) Ctrl + Z
1. Which of the following methods cannot be used to enter data in a cell
a. Pressing an arrow key
b. Pressing the Tab key
c. Pressing the Esc key
d. Clicking on the formula bar

2. Which of the following will not cut information?

a. Pressing Ctrl + C
b. Selecting Edit>Cut from the menu
c. Clicking the Cut button on the standard
d. Pressing Ctrl+X

3. Which of the following is not a way to complete a cell entry?

a. Pressing enter
b. Pressing any arrow key on the keyboard
c. Clicking the Enter button on the Formula bar
d. Pressing spacebar

4. You can activate a cell by

a. Pressing the Tab key
b. Clicking the cell
c. Pressing an arrow key
d. All of the above

5. Text formulas:
a. Replace cell references
b. Return ASCII values of characters
c. Concatenate and manipulate text
d. Show formula error value

6. Which of the following is not a basic step in creating a worksheet?

a. Save workbook
b. Modifiy the worksheet
c. Enter text and data
d. Copy the worksheet

7. Hyperlinks can be
a. Text
b. Drawing objects
c. Pictures
d. All of above

8. Which button do you click to add up a series of numbers?

a. The autosum button
b. The Formula button
c. The quicktotal button
d. The total button
 
9. In a worksheet you can select
 
a. The entire worksheet
b. Rows
c. Columns
d. All of the above

10. Which area in an excel window allows entering values and formulas
a. Title bar
b. Menu bar
c. Formula bar
d. Standard toolbar

11. MS-EXCEL is based on ……….?

A. WINDOWS
B. DOS
C. UNIX
D. OS/2

12. In EXCEL, you can sum a large range of data by simply selecting a tool button called …..?
A. AutoFill
B. Auto correct
C. Auto sum
D. Auto format

13. To select an entire column in MS-EXCEL, press?

A. CTRL + C
B. CTRL + Arrow key
C. CTRL + S
D. None of the above

14. To return the remainder after a number is divided by a divisor in EXCEL we use the function?
A. ROUND ( )
B. FACT ( )
C. MOD ( )
D. DIV ( )
15. Which function is not available in the Consolidate dialog box?
A. Pmt
B. Average
C. Max
D. Sum

16. Which is not the function of “Edit, Clear” command?

A. Delete contents
B. Delete notes
C. Delete cells
D. Delete formats

17. Microsoft Excel is a powerful………..

A. Word processing package
B. Spreadsheet package
C. Communication S/W Package
D. DBMS package

18. How do you rearrange the data in ascending or descending order?

A. Data, Sort
B. Data, Form
C. Data, Table
D. Data Subtotals

19. The box on the chart that contains the name of each individual record is called the
a. cell
b. title
c. axis
d. legend

20. Which is an example of a formula?

a. =A1+A2
b. =add(A1:A2)
c. A1+A2
d. SUM(A1:A2)

21. What is the shortcut key to insert new sheet in current workbook?
a. F11
b. Alt + F11
c. Ctrl + F11
d. Shift + F11

22. Which Chart can be created in Excel?

A. Area
B. Line
C. Pie
D. All of the above

23. What will be the output if you format the cell containing 5436.8 as ‘#,##0.00’?
A. 5,430.00
B. 5,436.80
C. 5,436.8
D. 6.8

24. How do you display current date and time in MS Excel?

A. date ()
B. Today ()
C. now ()
D. time ()

25. How do you display current date only in MS Excel?

A. date ()
B. Today ()
C. now ()
D. time ()
 
26. How do you wrap the text in a cell?
A. Format, cells, font
B. Format, cells, protection
C. format, cells, number
D. Format, cells, alignment
27. What does COUNTA () function do?
A. counts cells having alphabets
B. counts empty cells
C. counts cells having number
D. counts non-empty cells

28. What is the short cut key to highlight the entire column?
A. Ctrl+C
B. Ctrl+Enter
C. Ctrl+Page Up
D. Ctrl+Space Bar

29. In the formula, which symbol specifies the fixed columns or rows?
A. $
B. *
C. %
D. &

30. Excel displays the current cell address in the ……….

A. Formula bar
B. Status Bar
C. Name Box
D. Title Bar

1. Which of the following is the latest among these versions of Excel?

A. Excel 2000                                   
B. Excel 2002
C. Excel ME                                      
D. Excel 2010
 
2. What is the default extension of Excel files?
A. XLS                                              
B. XLW
C. WK1                                             

3. Which of the following is a popular DOS based spreadsheet package?

A. Word                                            
B. Smart Cell
C. Excel                                            
D. Lotus 1-2-3

4. Which of the following is the oldest spreadsheet package?

A. VisiCalc                                       
B. Lotus 1-2-3
C. Excel                                            
D. StarCalc

5. Files created with Lotus 1-2-3 have an extension …..

A. DOC                                             
B. XLS
C. 123                                               
D. WK1

6. How many characters can be typed in a single cell in Excel?

A. 256                                               
B. 1024
C. 32,000                                          
D. 65,535

7. A Worksheet can have a maximum of ___ number of rows

A. 256                                               
B. 1048576
C. 32,000                                          
D. 65,536

8. A typical worksheet has ___ number of columns

A. 16384                                               
B. 256
C. 512                                               
D. 1024

9. Comments put in cells are called …..

A. Smart Tip                                     
B. Cell Tip
C. Web Tip                                       
D. Soft Tip

10.  Comments can be added to cells using …..

A. Edit -> Comments                       
B. Insert -> Comment
C. File -> Comments                        
D. View -> Comments
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
 

11.  Which menu option can be used to split windows into two?
A. Format -> Window                      
B. View -> Window-> Split
C. Window -> Split                          
D. View -> Split

12.  Getting data from a cell located in a different sheet is called….

A. Accessing                                    
B. Referencing
C. Updating                                     
D. Functioning

13.  Which of the following is not a valid data type in Excel?

A. Number                                       
B. Character
C. Label                                           
D. Date/Time

14.  Which elements of a worksheet can be protected from accidental modification?

A. Contents                                      
B. Objects
C. Scenarios                                     
D. All of the above

15.  A numeric value can be treated as label value if …... precedes it.
A. Apostrophe (‘)                            
B. Exclamation (!)
C. Hash (#)                                      
D. Tilde (~)

16. Concatenation of text can be done using

A. Apostrophe (‘)                            
B. Exclamation (!)
C. Hash (#)                                      
D. Ampersand (&)

17. Data can be arranged in a worksheet in an easy to understand manner by

A. Auto Formatting                          
B. Applying Styles
C. Changing fonts                            
D. All of these

18. Which area in an Excel window allows entering values and formulas?
A. Title Bar                                      
B. Menu Bar
C. Formula Bar                                
D. Standard Tool Bar

19. Multiple calculations can be made in a single formula using…..

A. Standard Formulas                      
B. Array Formula
C. Complex Formulas                      
D. Smart Formula
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
 

21. An Excel Workbook is a collection of …….

A. Workbooks                                 
B. Worksheets
C. Charts                                          
D. Worksheets and Charts

22. What do you mean by a Workspace?

A. Group of Columns                      
B. Group of Worksheets
C. Group of Rows                           
D. Group of Workbooks

23. MS-EXCEL is based on ……….?

A. WINDOWS                                                  
B. DOS
C. UNIX                                                            
D. OS/2

24. In EXCEL, you can sum a large range of data by simply selecting a tool button called …..?
A. AutoFill                                       
B. Auto correct
C. Auto sum                                    
D. Auto format

25. To select an entire column in MS-EXCEL, press?

A. CTRL + C                                                     
B. CTRL + Arrow key
C. CTRL + S                                        
D. None of the above

26.  To return the remainder after a number is divided by a divisor in EXCEL we use the
function?
A. ROUND ( )                                                   
B. FACT ( )
C. MOD ( )                                                        

D. DIV ( )

28.  Which is not the function of "Edit, Clear" command?

A. Delete contents                           
B. Delete notes
C. Delete cells                                  
D. Delete formats

29.  Microsoft Excel is a powerful………..

A. Word processing package           
B. Spreadsheet package
C. Communication S/W Package     
D. DBMS package

30.  How do you rearrange the data in ascending or descending order?

A. Data, Sort                                    
B. Data, Form
C. Data, Table                                  
D. Data Subtotals

31.  Which Chart can be created in Excel?

A. Area                                            
B. Line
C. Pie                                               
D. All of the above

32. What will be the output if you format the cell containing 5436.8 as '#,##0.00'?
A. 5,430.00                                     
B. 5,436.80
C. 5,436.8                                        
D. 6.8

33. How do you display current date and time in MS Excel?

A. date ()                                         
B. Today ()
C. now ()                                         

D. time ()

34. How do you display current date only in MS Excel?

A. date ()                                         
B. Today ()
C. now ()                                         
D. time ()

35. How do you wrap the text in a cell?

A. Format, cells, font                       
B. Format, cells, protection
C. format, cells, number                  
D. Format, cells, alignment

36. What does COUNTA () function do?

A. counts cells having alphabets      
B. counts empty cells
C. counts cells having number         
D. counts non-empty cells

37. What is the short cut key to highlight the entire column?
A. Ctrl+C                                         
B. Ctrl+Enter
C. Ctrl+Page Up                               
D. Ctrl+Space Bar

38. In the formula, which symbol specifies the fixed columns or rows?
A. $                                                 
B. *
C. %                                                
D. &

39. Excel displays the current cell address in the ……….

A. Formula bar                                
B. Status Bar
C. Name Box                                   
D. Title Bar

40. What is the correct way to refer the cell A10 on sheet3 from sheet1?
A. sheet3!A10                                 
B. sheet1!A10
C. Sheet3.A10                                 
D. A10

41.  Which language is used to create macros in Excel?

A. Visual Basic                                
B. C
C. Visual C++                                  
D. Java

42.  Which of the following is not a term of MS-Excel?

A. Cells                                            
B. Rows
C. Columns                                      
D. Document

43.  How many worksheets can a workbook have?

A. 3                                              
B. 8
C. 255                                           
D. none of above

44.  Which would you choose to create a bar diagram?

A. Edit, Chart                                
B. Insert, Chart
C. Tools, Chart                             
D. Format, Chart

45.  Which setting you must modify to print a worksheet using letterhead?
A. Paper                                           
B. Margin
C. Layout                                         
D. Orientation
46.  What do you call the chart that shows the proportions of how one or more data elements
relate to another data element?
A. XY Chart                                    
B. Line Chart
C. Pie Chart                                     
D. Column Chart

MS Power Point
1. Which file format can be added to a PowerPoint show?
a. .jpg
b. .giv
c. .wav
d. All of the above

2. In Microsoft PowerPoint two kind  of sound effects files that can be added to the presentation are
a. .wav files and .mid files
b. .wav files and .gif files
c. .wav files and .jpg files
d. .jpg files and .gif files

3. Material consisting of text and numbers is best presented as

a. A table slide
b. A bullet slide
c. A title slide
d. All of the above

4. What is a motion path?

a. A type of animation entrance effect
b. A method of advancing slides
c. A method of moving items on a slide
d. All of the above

5. What is a slide-title master pair?

a. The title area and text area of a specific slide
b. a slide master and title master merged into a single slide
c. A slide master and title master for a specific design template
d. All of above

6. Which of the following should you use if you want all the slide in the presentation to
have the same “look”?
a. the slide layout option
b. add a slide option
c. outline view
d. a presentation design template

7. in the context of animations, what is a trigger?

a. An action button that advances to the next slide
b. An item on the slide that performs an action when clicked
c. The name of a motion path
d. All of above

8. If you have a PowerPoint show you created and want to send using email to another teacher you can add the show to
your email message as a (an)
a. Inclusion
b. Attachment
c. Reply
d. Forward
9. In order to edit a chart, you can
a. Triple click the chart object
b. Click and drag the chart object
c. Double click the chart object
d. Click the chart object

10. to exit the PowerPoint

a. click the application minimize button
b. click the document close button
c. double click the applications control menu icon
d. double click the document control menu icon

 
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
 

11. to preview a motion path effect using the custom animation task pane, you should
a. click the play button
b. click the show effect button
c. double click the motion path
dd. all of above

12. You can create a new presentation  by completing all of the following except
a. Clicking the new button on the standard toolbar
b. Clicking file, new
c. Clicking file open
d. Pressing ctrl + N

13. To select one hyperlink after another during a slide presentation, what do you press?
a. Tab
b. Ctrl + K
c. Ctrl + h
d. All of above

14. special effects used to introduce slides in a presentation are called

a. effects
b. custom animations
c. transitions
d. present animations

15. You can edit an embedded organization chart object by

a. Clicking edit object
b. Double clicking the organization chart object
c. Right clicking the chart object, then clicking edit MS-Organizaiton Chart object
d. b and c both
 
16. The selected design template can be applied
A) To current slide only
B) To all the slides
C) To all the new presentation you create
D) All of above
17. What is the term used when you press and hold the left mouse key and more the
mouse around the slide?
a. Highlighting
b. Dragging
c. Selecting
d. Moving

18. Which of the following toolbars provide different options in various master views?
a. Common tasks toolbar
b. Drawing toolbar
c. Formatting toolbar
d. Standard toolbar

19. How can you create a uniform appearance by adding a background image to all slides?
a. Create a template
b. Edit the slide master
c. Use the auto correct wizard
d. All of the above

20. Which option on the custom animation task pane allows you to apply a preset or custom motion path?
a. Add effect
b. Emphasis
c. Animate now
d. All of the above
 
 
 
 
 
 
 

21. What is the term used when a clip art image changes the direction of faces?
a. Group
b. Flip
c. Rotate
d. All of the above

22. the slide that is used to introduce a topic and set the tone for the presentation is called the
a. table slide
b. graph slide
c. bullet slide
d. title slide
 
23. The effect applied to display when slides changes in slide show view is
A) Slide Animation
B) Custom Animation
C) Custom Transition
D) Slide Transition

24. Which of the following features should you use when typing in the notes text  box?
a. Slide show    
b. Insert
c. Slide maser
d. Zoom
25. Which option allows you to select line, curve, free form or scribble tools?
a. Create effect
b. Insert motion path
c. Draw custom path
d. All of the above

26. Which of the following should be used when you want to add a slide to an existing presentation?
a. File, add a new slide
b. Insert, New slide
c. File Open
d. File, New
 
27. Which of the following is not one of PowerPoint view ?
a. Slide show view
b. Slide view
c. Presentation view
d. Outline view

28. which of the following is the default page setup orientation of slide in PowerPoint
a. Vertical
b. Landscape
c. Portrait
d. None of above

29. Want a PowerPoint photo album slide show to play continuously?

a. Use random slide transitions
b. Launch an online broadcast
c. Loop continuously
d. All of the above

30. what is defined by the handout master?

a. Slide formatting
b. Layout of audience handout notes
c. Handout content formatting for Microsoft word export
d. All of above
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
 

31. Which of the following tool enables you to add text to a slide without using the standard placeholders?
a. Text tool box
b. Line tool
c. Drawing tool
d. Auto shapes tool

32. In notes master view, how do you modify the font size of text for all hte4 notes of a presentation?
a. Modify the slide design
b. Modify the notes master layout
c. Modify the text within the body placeholder
d. All of the above
33. Want your logo in the same position on every slide, automatically?
a. Handout master
b. Notes master
c. Slide master
d. All of the above

34. Which of the following views is the best view to use when setting transition effects for all slides in a presentation?
a. Slide sorter view
b. Notes pages view
c. Slide view
d. Outline view

35. Objects on the slide that hold text are called

a. Placeholders
b. Object holders
c. Auto layouts
d. Text holders

36. Which of the following provides a means of printing out feature notes with a miniature slide on a printed page?
a. Slide with animation
b. Outline view
c. Notes page
d. Audience handout

37. Which command brings you to the first slide in your presentation?
a. Next slide button
b. Page up
c. Ctrl + Home
d. Ctrl + End

38. In normal view, how can you quickly change to handout master view?
a. Click the outline tab and select handout master view
b. Press the shift key and click the handout master view button
c. On the view menu, click slide sorter, and click handouts.
d. All of above

39. how can you quickly reinstate a deleted footer placeholder in master view?
a. Create a new slide master
b. Re-apply the footer placeholder
c. Re-apply the slide layout
d. All of the above
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
 

40. Which of the following can you use to add times to the slides in a presentation?
a. Slide show menu
b. Rehearse timings button
c. Slide transition button
d. All of the above

41. To select all of the boxes of an organization chart

a. Clicking and edit and select all
b. Right click the chart background and then click select all
c. Press and hold the SHIFT key and click each box
d. All of above

42. You can show the shortcut menu during the slide show by
a. Clicking the shortcut button on the formatting toolbar
b. Right clicking the current slide
c. Clicking an icon on the current slide
d. a and b

43. Whidh of the following allow you to select more than one slide in a presentation?
a. Alt + Click each slide
b. Shift + drag each slide
c. Shift + Click each slide
d. Ctrl + Click each slide

44. The view that displays the slides on a presentation as miniature representations of the slides is called
a. slide show
b. slide sorter view
c. notes page view
d. outline view

45. The PowerPoint view that displays only text (title and bullets) is
a. Slide show
b. Slide sorter view
c. Notes page view
d. Outline view

46. In Microsoft PowerPoint the entry effect as one slide replaces another in a show is called a (an)
a. animation
b. slide transition
c. custom animation
d. preset animation

47. Which of the following presentation elements can you modify using the slide master?
a. Slide comments
b. Slide transitions
c. Speaker note font and color
d. All of above

48. Which of the following provides a printed copy of your presentation?

a. Outline
b. Speaker notes
c. Audience handouts
d. All of the above

49. To add a header or footer to your handout, you can use

a. The title master
b. The slide master
c. The handout master
d. All of above

50. Which of the following will not advance the slides in a slide show view?
a. Esc key
b. The spacebar
c. The Enter key
d. The mouse button
 
 
 
 
 
 
 

 
 

51. In Microsoft PowerPoint in order to see all the slides on one screen use
a. view, slide sorter
b. view, slide
c. view, master
d. view, slide show

52. What’s the best place to find animated images for your PowerPoint 2002 presentation?
a. Microsoft online
b. Word clipart
c. PowerPoint tools and ins
d. All of the above

53.Which of the following toolbars provides different options in various master views?
a. Common tasks toolbar
b. Drawing toolbar
c. Formatting toolbar
d. Standard toolbar

54.Which command brings you to the first slide in your presentation?

a. Next slide button
b. Page up
c. Ctrl + home
d. Ctrl + end

55. The maximum zoom percentage in Microsoft PowerPoint is

a. 100%
b. 200%
c. 400%
d. 500%
 
 

 
 

56.   PowerPoint 2000 has ……. Number of views

a. 3
b. 4
c. 5
d. 6

57.   Animation schemes can be applied to ….. in the presentation

a. All slides
b. Select slides
c. Current slide
d. All of the above

58.   To insert a new slide in the current presentation, we can choose

a. Ctrl + M
b. Ctrl + N
c. Ctrl + O
d. Ctrl + F

59.   Microsoft PowerPoint is a

a. Database program
b. Spreadsheet program
c. Presentation program
d. Word processing program

60.   What is the name of the form used to input chart values?
a. Datasheet
b. Microsoft Excel
c. Microsoft graph
d. Auto form

61.   Right clicking something in PowerPoint

a. Deletes the object
b. Selects the object
c. Opens a shortcut menu listing for the object
d. Nothing he right mouse button for operation
 
 
 
 
 

 
 
 
 
 

62.   Ellipse Motion is a predefined ….

a. Design template
b. Color scheme
c. Animation scheme
d. None of these

63.   We can replace a font on all slides with another font using the …. option
a. Edit, Fonts
b. Tools, Fonts
c. Tools, Replace Fonts
d. Format, Replace Fonts

64.   Special effects used to introduce slides in a presentation are called

a. Effects
b. Custom animations
c. Transitions
d. Preset animations

65.   PowerPoint can display data from which of the following add-in software of MS Office
a. Equation editor
b. Organization chart
c. Photo album
d. All of these

66.   Which key on the keyboard can be used to view slide show
a. F1
b. F2
c. F5
d. F10

67.   Which of the following fill effects can you use for the slide background?
a. Gradient
b. Texture
c. Picture
d. All of the above

68.   A chart can be put as a part of the presentation using

a. Insert -> Chart
b. Insert -> Pictures -> Chart
c. Edit -> Chart
d. View -> Chart

69.   The arrangement of elements such as Title and Subtitle text, pictures, tables etc. is called
a. Layout
b. Presentation
c. Design
d. Scheme

70.   Which of the following are types of sound files?

a. LOG files
b. DAT files
c. WAV files
d. DRV files
Microsoft Access
1. In MS-Access press CTRL+O to
A) Open a new database
B) Open an existing database
C) Exit MS-Access
D) None of these
 
2. In MS-Access to open an existing database press
A) CTRL+N
B) CTRL+O
C) ALT+F4
D) None of these
 
3. In MS-Access to Open a combo box
A) F4 or ALT+DOWN ARROW
B) DOWN ARROW
C) PAGE DOWN
D) F9

4. In MS-Access to open new database press

A) CTRL+N
B) CTRL+O
C) ALT+F4
D) None of these
5. Which symbol must all formula begin with:
A) @
B) =
C) +
D) %

6. In an excel sheet the active cell is indicated by:

A) A blinking border
B) A dotted border
C) A dark wide boarder
D) None of These

7. To add two cells (A1 and A2) together you use the following formula:
A) A1 plus A2
B) =A1 + A2
C) =Add(A1+A2)
D) =together(A1:A2)
 
8. There are three types of data found in a spreadsheet:
A) Numbers, formulas, labels
B) Data, words, numbers
C) Words, numbers, labels
D) Equations, data, numbers

9. What Are The Different Views To Display A Table

A) Datasheet View
B) Design View
C) Pivote Table & Pivot Chart View
D) All Of Above

10. Which Of The Following Creates A Drop Down List Of Values To Choose From?
A) Ole Object
B) Hyperlink
C) Memo
D) Lookup Wizard

11. The Command Center Of Access File That Appears When You Create Or Open The Ms
Access Database File.
A) Database Window
B) Query Window
C) Design View Window
D) Switchboard

12. The Third Stage In Designing A Database Is When We Analyze Our Tables More Closely
And Create A ___________ Between Tables
A) Relationship
B) Join
C) Query
D) None Of These
 
13. In A Database Table, The Category Of Information Is Called __________
A) Tuple
B) Field
C) Record
D) All Of Above

14. This Key Uniquely Identifies Each Record

A) Primary Key
B) Key Record
C) Unique Key
D) Field Name

15. It Is An Association Established Between Common

A) Line
 B) Relationship
 C) Primary Key
D) Records
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
 

16. This Is The Stage In Database Design Where One Gathers And List All The Necessary
Fields For The Database Project.
 A) Data Definition
 B) Data Refinement
C) Establishing Relationship
D) None Of The Above

17. A Database Language Concerned With The Definition Of The Whole Database Structure
And Schema Is ________
A) DCL
B) DML
 C) DDL
 D) All Of Above

18. Which Of The Field Has Width 8 Bytes?

A) Memo
B) Number
 C) Date/time
 D) Hyperlink

19. Following Is Not A Database Model

A) Network Database Model
B) Relational Database Model
C) Object Oriented Database Model
 D) None

20. Microsoft Access Is A

 A) RDBMS
 B) OODBMS
C) ORDBMS
D) Network Database Model
 
21. DCL Provides Commands To Perform Actions Like
A) Change The Structure Of Tables
B) Insert, Update Or Delete Records And Data Values
 C) Authorizing Access And Other Control Over Database
 D) None Of Above

22. The Database Language That Allows You To Access Or Maintain Data In A Database
 A) DCL
 B) DML
C) DDL
D) None Of Above
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
 

23. What Is The Maximum Length A Text Field Can Be?

A) 120
 B) 255
 C) 265
D) 75
 
24. Which Of The Following Is Not A Database Object?
A) Tables
B) Queries
 C) Relationships
 D) Reports

25. A __________ Enables You To View Data From A Table Based On A Specific Criterion
A) Form
 B) Query
 C) Macro
D) Report
26. What Are The Columns In A Microsoft Access Table Called?
A) Rows
B) Records
 C) Fields
 D) Columns

27. Which Of The Following Is Not A Type Of Microsoft Access Database Object?
A) Table
B) Form
 C) Worksheets
 D) Modules

 
28. Which Of The Following Database Object Hold Data?
 A) Forms
 B) Reports
 C) Queries
 D) Tables

29. Which Of The Following Store Command To Retrieve Data From Database?
 A) Forms
 B) Reports
 C) Queries
 D) Tables

30. Which Of The Following Database Object Produces The Final Result To Present?
 A) Forms
 B) Reports
 C) Queries
 D) Tables

31. Which Of The Following Is A Method To Create A New Table In Ms Access?

 A) Create Table In Design View
 B) Create Table Using Wizard
 C) Create Table By Entering Data
 D) All Of Above
32. To Create A New Table, In Which Method You Don’t Need To Specify The Field Type And
Size?
 A) Create Table In Design View
 B) Create Table Using Wizard
 C) Create Table By Entering Data
 D) All Of Above

33. When Creating A New Table Which Method Can Be Used To Choose Fields From Standard
Databases And Tables
 A) Create Table In Design View
 B) Create Table Using Wizard
 C) Create Table By Entering Data
 D) None Of Above

34. In Table Design View, Which Key Can Be Used To Switch Between The Field Names And
Properties Panels?
 A) F3
 B) F4
 C) F5
 D) F6

35. In Table Design View What Are The First Column Of Buttons Used For
 A) Indicate Primary Key
 B) Indicate Current Row
 C) Both Of Above
 D) None Of Above

36. The Default And Maximum Size Of Text Field In Access

 A) 50 And 255 Characters
 B) 8 And 1 Gb
 C) 266 Characters & 64000 Characters
 D) None Of Above
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
 

37. The Size Of Yes No Field Is Always

 A) 1 Bit
 B) 1 Byte
 C) 1 Character
 D) 1 Gb

38. Which Of The Following Is Not A Field Type In Access

 A) Memo
 B) Hyperlink
 C) Ole Object
 D) Lookup Wizard

39. The Size Of A Field With Number Data Type Can Not Be
 A) 2
 B) 4
 C) 8
 D) 16

40. Which Field Type Will You Select When Creating A New Table If You Require To Enter
Long Text In That Field?
 A) Text
 B) Memo
 C) Currency
 D) Hyperlink

41. Which Field Type Can Store Photos?

 A) Hyperlink
 B) Ole
 C) Both Of These Can Be Used
 D) Access Tables Can’t Store Photos
 
 
 
 
 

42. When Entering Field Name, How Many Characters You Can Type In Maximum?
 A) 60
 B) 64
 C) 68
 D) Any Number Of Character

43. Which of the following database object is created first before any other created?
 A) Table
 B) Form
C) Report
D) Query

44. This type of database contains multiple tables that are connected to produce combined
output from all tables.
A) Bound
B) Linked
 C) Relational
 D) Joined

45. The ‘Filter by selection’ allows you to filter those records

 A) That match the selected field
 B) That match the criteria specified
C) That meet any of several criteria specified
D) All of above
46. The operation of checking input data against specified criteria is known as?
A) Data Verification
 B) Data Validation
 C) Cross Check
D) Data Control

47. Some rules are set in databases to check and permit only correct values. What is this
feature called?
A) Data Verification
B) Auditing
C) Data Filtering
 D) Data Validation
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
 

48. Database access levels are specified so as to define who can access what in a database. It
is identified through
 A) User ID
 B) Password
C) Status
D) None of above
 
49. What it is called to present information in a particular order based on numeric or
alphabetical value?
 A) Sorting
 B) Searching
C) Arranging
D) Cropping

50. A collection of related records in database is known as a

A) Table
B) Database
 C) File
 D) None of above

51. A part of database that stores complete information about an entity such as employee,
sales, orders etc.
A) File
 B) Record
 C) Field
D) Query

52. To create this, you enter an expression in the design grid that instructs Access to
perform a calculation using the current field values.
A) Formulated field
B) Numeric field
C) Formula field
 D) Calculated field
53. The ascending order of data hierarchy is?
 A) Bit - Byte - Field - Record - File - Database
 B) Bit - Byte - Record - Field - File - Database
C) Byte - Bit - Field - Record - File - Database
D) Bit - Byte - Field - Record - Database - File

54. Which of the following database object can be used if you need to mail the invoice to
customers?
 
 A) A form
B) A Query
 C) A report
 D) A Table

55. When creating an input mask this character does not require an entry, but if an entry is
made it must be a letter from A-Z
 A) ?
 B) !
C) #
D) \

56. In Access, this displays the results of a calculation in a query

A) Lookup field
 B) Calculated field
 C) Source field
D) Child field

57. In Access, this operation copies a backup file from the storage medium back onto the
computer
A) Recreate
 B) Restore
 C) Copy
D) Structure

58. If you make an invalid entry in the Input Mask Wizard dialog box, this will display to
advise you that the entry is not correct
A) Text error
 B) Validation error
 C) Literal error
D) Entry error

59. In the Form Wizard dialog box, the fields from the selected table are displayed in this
list box.
A) All Fields
B) All Records
C) Available Records
 D) Available Fields

60. This form displays the field name labels down the left side of the column, with the data
for each field just to the right of its corresponding label.
A) Tabular
B) Justified
 C) Columnar
 D) Datasheet

61. This form displays data in a table layout with field name labels across the top of the page
and the corresponding data in rows and columns under each heading.
A) Columnar
B) Justified
C) Datasheet
 D) Tabular
 
62. This form displays multiple records, one per row, in the Form window
 A) Datasheet
 B) Tabular
C) Columnar
D) Justified

63. The file extension for an Access 2003 database is

A) EXE
B) DOC
C) EXC
 D) MDB

64. Which of the following is a database management system?

A) MS Word
B) MS Excel
 C) Oracle
 D) Lotus 1-2-3

65. Which of the following columns does not exist in Macro Design window?
A) Arguments
B) Comments
 C) Conditions
 D) Actions
Networking Concepts & Internet Concepts

Questions: Level 1

1 Which layer in OSI model performs network routing, flow control and error control function?

A Network layer

B Session layer

C Physical layer

D Data link layer

2 What is the full form of IP?

A internet protect

B intranet protocol

C internet protocol

D international protocol

3 What is the full form of TCP?

A Test Control Protocol

B Transfer Control Protocol

C Transport Control Protocol

D Transmission Control Protocol

4 Which layer is the layer 2 in OSI network model?

A Session layer

B Physical layer

C Data link layer

D Transport layer

5 Which layer is the layer 4 in OSI model?

A Session layer

B Network layer

C Data link layer

D Transport layer

6 Which is the 6th layer in OSI communication model?

A Session layer

B Network layer

C Application layer

D Presentation layer

7 What is the abbreviation of OSI?

A Open Source Internet

B Open System Interaction

C Open Source Interconnection

D Open System Interconnection

8 What is the full form of EFT?

A Electronic Form Transfer

B Electronic Fund Transfer

C Electronic Field Transfer

D Electronic Format Transfer

9 Which is an example for WAN?

A Ethernet

B Home network

C Campus network

D Bluetooth network

10 What is the full form of ADSL?

A Asymmetrical Digital System Line

B Automatic Digital Subscriber Line

C Asymmetrical Digital Subscriber Line

D Asynchronous Digital Subscriber Line

11 Which is the layer 3 in OSI model?

A Network layer

B Session layer

C Physical layer

D Data link layer

 
Questions: Level 2

1 Which is a reference tool for understanding data communication between any two network system?

A LAN

B WAN

C ISO model

D OSI model

2 What is called the interconnected computer systems located at different places?

A internet

B computer layout

C computer network

D connectivity of computer

3 Which topology combines characteristics of linear bus and star topologies?

A Bus

B Star

C Tree

D Mesh

4 How many pairs of wires contains in category 5 UTP cable?

A 3

B 4

C 5

D 6

5 What is the maximum speed supported by category 5 UTP cable?

A 1mbps

B 10mbps

C 100mbps

D 1000mbps

6 Which of the following cable transmits messages in the form of light waves?

A STP cable

B UTP cable

C Co-axial cable

D Optical fibre cable

7 Which device is installed in a subscriber’s telephone line to allow both ADSl and regular voice

(telephone) services to be used at the same time?

A Hub

B Switch

C MODEM

D Micro filter

8 Which layer of OSI Model, transfer data between network entities?

A Layer 1

B Layer 2

C Layer 3

D Layer 4
9 Which device connects multiple network segments along with the data link layer?

A Hub

B Bridge

C Router

D Switch

10 Which device is used to amplify or regenerate digital signals received while sending them from one

port of a network into another?

A Hub

B Bridge

C Switch

D Repeater

11 Which device modulates analog signal to encode digital information and demodulates carrier signal

to decode the transmitted information over the telephone network?

A Hub

B Bridge

C Switch

D MODEM

12 Which device is used to connect one network with another network that uses different protocols?

A Hub

B Router

C Switch

D Gateway

13 Which device forwards data packet between computer network?

A Hub

B Router

C Switch

D Gateway
14 What is the speed of standard 10 base T cable?

A 1 mbps

B 10 mbps

C 100 kbps

D 100 mbps

15 Which type of cable is used in 10 base-FL cable standard?

A UTP

B STP

C Co-axial

D Fibre optic

16 What is the speed of 100BASE-TX cable?

A 1 mbps

B 10 mbps

C 100 kbps

D 100 mbps

17 Which is the standard connector for category-5, unshielded twisted pair cabling?

A RJ11

B RJ14

C RJ25

D RJ45

18 How many pairs of wires are there in category 1 UTP cables?

A 1

B 2

C 3

D 4

19 Which is an application layer of internet standard protocol used by local e-mail clients to retrieve
e-mail from a remote server over a TCP/IP connection?

A IP

B FTP

C UDP

D POP

Questions: Level 3

1 Which layer in OSI model provides transfer the data between end users?

A Session layer

B Network layer

C Data link layer

D Transport layer

HTML MCQ
1. HTML stands for?
A.Hyper Text Markup Language
B.High Text Markup Language
C.Hyper Tabular Markup Language
D.None of these
 
2. which of the following tag is used to mark a begining of paragraph ?
A. <TD>
B. <br>
C. <P>
D. <TR>

3:  From which tag descriptive list starts ?

A. <LL>
B. <DD>
C. <DL>
D. <DS>

4. Correct HTML tag for the largest heading is

A. <head>
B. <h6>
C. <heading>
D. <h1>

5. The attribute of <form> tag

A. Method
 B. Action
C. Both (a) & (b)
D. None of these

6. Markup tags tell the web browser

A. How to organize the page
B. How to display the page
C. How to display message box on page
D. None of these

7. www is based on which model?

A. Local-server
B. Client-server
C. 3-tier
D. None of these

8. What are Empty elements and is it valid?

A. No, there is no such terms as Empty Element
B. Empty elements are element with no data
C. No, it is not valid to use Empty Element
D. None of these

9. Which of the following attributes of text box control allow to limit the maximum character?
A. size
B. len
C. maxlength
D. all of these

10. Web pages starts with which of the following tag?

A. <Body>
B. <Title>
C. <HTML>
D. <Form>

11. HTML is a subset of

A. SGMT
B. SGML
C. SGMD
D. None of these

12. Which of the following is a container?

A. <SELECT>
B. <BODY>
C. <INPUT>
D. Both (a) and (b)

13. Correct HTML to left align the content inside a table cell is
A. <tdleft>
B. <td raligh = "left" >
C. <td align = "left">
D. <td leftalign>

14. The tag which allows you to rest other HTML tags within the description is
A. <TH>
B. <TD>
C. <TR>
D. <CAPTION>

15. <Base> tag is designed to appear only between

A. <HEAD>
B. <TITLE>
C. <BODY>
 D. <FORM>

How can you open a link in a new browser window?

A. < a href = "url" target = "new">
B. <a href = "url" target= "_blank">
C. <a href = "url".new>
D.<a href = "url" target ="open">

A much better approach to establish the base URL is to use

A. BASE element
B. HEAD element
C. both (a) and (b)
D. none of these

16.The tag used to create a new list item and also include a hyperlink is
A. <LI>
B. <DL>
C. <DD>
D. <UL>

17. Which of the tag is used to creates a number list?

A. <LI>
B. <OL>
C. <LI> and <OL>
D. None of these
 
18. <INPUT> is
A. format tag
B. empty tag
C. both (a) and (b)
D. none of these

19. The latest HTML standard is

A. XML
B. SGML
C. HTML 4.0
D. HTML 5.0

20. The text inside the <TEXT AREA> tag works like
A. <P> formatted text
B. <T> formatted text
C. <PRE> formatted text
D. none of these

21. What i s the correct HTML for adding a background color?

A. <background>yellow<Background>
B. <body color = "yellow">
C. <body bg color = "yellow">
D. <body bg ="yellow">

22. Main container for <TR>, <TD> and <TH> is

A. <TABLE>
B. <GROUP>
C. <DATA>
D. All of these

23. The body tag usually used after

A. Title tag
B. HEAD tag
C. EM tag
D. FORM tag
24. How can you make an e-mail link?
A. <mail href +"xxx@y.com">
B. <a href ="mail to: xxx@y.com">
C. <a href = "xxx@y.com">
D. Both (b) and (c)

25. Which tag creates a number/order list?

A. <UL>
B. <OL>
C. <OT>
D. None of these

26. Symbol used at the beginning of the href text is

A. #
B. $
C. &
D. ^

27. Which of the following is a Valid Name?

A. <_person>
B. <123 person>
C. Both (a) and (b)
D. None of these
 
27. How can you open a link in a new browser window?
a. <a href="url" new>
b. <a href="url" target="new">
c. <a href="url" target="_blank">
d. <a href="url" target="">

28. A webpage displays a picture.  What tag was used to display that picture?
 
a. picture
b. image
c.img
d. src
 
29. <b> tag makes the enclosed text bold. What is other tag to make text bold?
 
a. <strong>
b. <dar>
c. <black>
d. <emp>

30. Tags and text that are not directly displayed on the page are written in _____ section.
 
a. <html>
b. <head>
c. <title>
d. <body>
 
31. Which tag inserts a line horizontally on your web page?
 
a. <hr>
b. <line>
c. <line direction="horizontal">
d. <tr>

32. What should be the first tag in any HTML document?

a. <head>
b. <title>
 c. <html>
d. <document>
 
33. Which tag allows you to add a row in a table?
 
a. <td> and </td>
b. <cr> and </cr>
c. <th> and </th>
d. <tr> and </tr>
 
34. What is the correct HTML tag for inserting a line break?
a. <br>
b. <lb>
c. <break>
d. <newline>

35. Which tag creates a check box for a form in HTML?

a. <checkbox>
b. <input type="checkbox">
c. <input=checkbox>
d. <input checkbox>

36. To create a combo box (drop down box) which tag will you use?
a. <select>
b. <list>
c. <input type="dropdown">
d. all of above

37. Which of the following is not a pair tag?

a. <p>
b. < u >
c. <i>
d. <img>

38. HTML documents are saved in

a. Special binary format
b. Machine language codes
c. ASCII text
d. None of above

39. There are ____ different of heading tags in HTML

a. 4
b. 5
c. 6
d. 7

40. Which of the following is not a style tag?

a. <b>
b. <tt>
c. <i>
d. All of above are style tags

41. The way the browser displays the object can be modified by _____
a. attributes
b. parameters
c. modifiers
d. None of above

42. Which of the following HTML code is valid?

a. <font colour="red">
b. <font color="red">
c. <red><font>
d. All of above are style tags

43. <b> tag makes the enclosed text bold. What is other tag to make text bold?
a. <strong>
b. <dar>
c. <black>
d. <emp>

44. Tags and test that are not directly displayed on the page are written in _____ section.
a. <html>
b. <head>
c. <title>
d. <body>

45. Which tag inserts a line horizontally on your web page?

a. <hr>
b. <line>
c. <line direction="horizontal">
d. <tr>

46. What should be the first tag in any HTML document?

a. <head>
b. <title>
c. <html>
d. <document>

47. Which tag allows you to add a row in a table?

a. <td> and </td>
b. <cr> and </cr>
c. <th> and </th>
d. <tr> and </tr>

48. HTML document start and end with which tag pairs?
a. <HEAD>….</HEAD>
b. <BODY>….</BODY>
c. <HTML>….</HTML>
d. <WEB>….</WEB>

49. In Satellite based communication, VSAT stands for?

a. Very Small Aperture Terminal
b. Varying Size Aperture Terminal
c. Very Small Analog Terminal
d. None of the above

50. Outlook Express is a _________

a. E-Mail Client
b. Browser
c. SearchEngine
d. None of the above

51. Text within <EM> … </EM> tag is displayed as ________

a. bold
b. italic
c. list
d. indented

52. Text within <STRONG> … </STRONG> tag is displayed as ________

a. bold
b. italic
c. listd
d. indented
53. Which tag is used to display the large font size?
a. <LARGE></LARGE>
b. <BIG></BIG>
c. < SIZE ></SIZE>
d. <FONT></FONT>

54. <SCRIPT> … </SCRIPT> tag can be placed within ________

a. Header
b. Body
c. both A and B
d. none of the above

55. using <P> tag will

a. start a new paragraph
b. break the line
c. end the current paragraph
d. none of the above

56. What is Internet Explorer?

a. An Icon
b. A File Manager
c. A Browser
d. The Internet

57. What is an ISP?

a.Internet System Protocol
b.Internal System Program
c. Internet Service Provider
d. None of the above

58. Which of the following is valid IP address?

a. 984.12.787.76
b. 192.168.321.10
c. 1.888.234.3456
d. 192.168.56.115

59. Which is not a domain name extension

a. mil
b. org
c. .int
d. .com

60. What is a FTP program used for?

a. Transfer files to and from an Internet Server
b. Designing a website
c. Connecting to the internet
d. None of the above

61. Choose the correct HTML tag for the largest heading?
a. <H1>
b. <H6>
c. <H10>
d. <HEAD>

62. Output of XML document can be viewed in a

a. Word Processor
b. Web browser
c. Notepad
d. None of the above

VBA
1. Which language is not a true object-oriented programming language?
a.)  VB.NET
b.)  VB 6
c.)  C++
d.)  C#
e.)  Java
 
2. A GUI:
a.)  uses buttons, menus, and icons.
b.)  should be easy for a user to manipulate.
c.)  stands for Graphic Use Interaction.
d.)  Both a and b.
e.)  All of the above.

3. Visual Studio .NET provides which feature:

a.)  debugging.
b.)  application deployment.
c.)  syntax checking.
d.)  Both a and b.
e.)  All of the above.

4. What does IDE stand for?

a.)  Integrated Development Environment
b.)  Integrated Design Environment
c.)  Interior Development Environment
d.)  Interior Design Environment
e.)  None of the above.

5. Which type of project can a developer choose in the New Project dialog box?
a.)  Visual Basic Projects
b.)  Visual C# Projects
c.)  Visual C++ Projects
d.)  Both a and b.
e.)  All of the above.

6. Which is not a main component of the Visual Studio IDE

a.)  Solution Explorer
b.)  Tool Box
c.)  Start Menu
d.)  Designer Window
e.)  Properties Window

7. Which does the solution explorer not display?

a.)  Form Properties
b.)  Reference Folder
c.)  Form File
d.)  Assemble File
e.)  All are part of the solution explorer.

 
 
 
 
 
 
 
8. Which is true about the name and text property of a control?
a.)  They are the same when the control is first created.
b.)  The text property changes to match any changes in the name property.
c.)  The name property changes to match any changes in the text property.
d.)  They are never the same unless the programmer makes it that way.
e.)  They are not allowed to be the same and an error will occur if they are.

9. For which task does the IDE provide multiple ways to accomplish the task?
a.)  Putting a control on the form
b.)  Running the program
c.)  Activating the property window for a control
d.)  Both a and b.
e.)  All of the above.

10. Which are the standard prefixes for the Button and Combo box controls respectively?
a.)  btn and chb
b.)  btn and cbo
c.)  bto and chb
d.)  bto and cbo
e.)  cmd and cbo

11. Which are the standard prefixes for the text box and label controls respectively?
a.)  tex and lbl
b.)  tex and lab
c.)  txb and lbl
d.)  txb and lab
e.)  txt and lab

12. Which task is accomplished in the Code editor?

a.)  Adding forms to the project
b.)  Adding controls to the form
c.)  Adding event procedures to the form
d.)  Both a and b.
e.)  All of the above.
 
13. Which is not a feature of a GUI that makes learning a program easy for users?
a.)  Online help
b.)  WYSIWYG formatting
c.)  Dialog boxes
d.)  Detailed key strokes and commands
e.)  Icons
 
14. An object is composed of:
a.)  properties.
b.)  methods.
c.)  events.
d.)  Both a and b.
e.)  All of the above.
 
15. Which statement about objects is true?
a.)  One object is used to create one class.
b.)  One class is used to create one object.
c.)  One object can create many classes.
d.)  One class can create many objects.
e.)  There is no relationship between objects and classes.
 
16. Which is not true about forms and controls in Visual Basic?
a.)  They are pre-built.
b.)  They are graphical objects.
c.)  New versions of the classes must be created with each project.
d.)  Buttons can be created with the drag and drop method.
e.)  All of the above are true.
 
17. Which is an example of Visual Basic Objects?
a.)  Control objects
b.)  ASP.NET
c.)  ADO.NET
d.)  Both a and b.
e.)  All of the above.

18. The .Net class library:

a.)  contains over 25,000 classes.
b.)  uses namespaces to manage all of the classes.
c.)  has the System.Form namespace for classes used in Windows-based application.
d.)  Both a and b.
e.)  All of the above.
 
19. Which is not a property of the Common control class?
a.)  Show
b.)  BackColor
c.)  Font
d.)  ForeColor
e.)  Name

20. Which property determines whether a control is displayed to the user?

a.)  Hide
b.)  Show
c.)  Visible
d.)  Enabled
e.)  Cursor
 
21. The Button control can be activated:
a.)  programmatically through the click event.
b.)  by clicking the button with the mouse.
c.)  with the form’s DefaultButton property.
d.)  Both a and b.
e.)  All of the above.

22. The CancelButton property belongs to which object?

a.)  Button
b.)  Form
c.)  Label
d.)  TextBox
e.)  Timer
 
23. A click event procedure stud for the label control can be created by:
a.)  selecting the object and event from the code editor window’s drop-down boxes.
b.)  typing the code in the code editor window.
c.)  by double clicking the control.
d.)  Both a and b.
e.)  All of the above.

24. In event-driven programming an event is generated by:

a.)  the system.
b.)  a user’s action.
c.)  the program itself.
d.)  Both a and b.
e.)  All of the above.
 
25. Which is not a common control event?
a.)  Click
b.)  SingleClick
c.)  DoubleClick
d.)  MouseMove
e.)  MouseDown
 
26. The Tick event is found only in which object?
a.)  Form
b.)  Button
c.)  TextBox
d.)  Label
e.)  Timer

27. The Activated event is found only in which object?

a.)  Form
b.)  Button
c.)  TextBox
d.)  Label
e.)  Timer

28. The Rnd statement will generate a(n):

a.)  decimal value between 0.01 and 1.00.
b.)  integer value between 0.01 and 1.00.
c.)  decimal value between 0.0 and 1.0.
d.)  integer value between 0.0 and 1.0.
e.)  decimal value between 0.0 and up to 1.0, but not including 1.0.
 
29. The analysis phase of software development involves:
a.)  collecting the requirements about what the program will accomplish.
b.)  creating a detailed plan on how the program will accomplish the requirements.
c.)  writing the software with a program such as VB.NET.
d.)  Both a and b.
e.)  All of the above.

30. Which phase of project development typically costs the most?

a.)  Analysis
b.)  Design
c.)  Implementation
d.)  Maintenance
e.)  Documentation

31. Which is not an integer data type?

a.)  Single
b.)  Byte
c.)  Short
d.)  Integer
e.)  Long

32. Which is a numeric data type?

a.)  Floating point
b.)  Integer
c.)  Boolean
d.)  Both a and b.
e.)  All of the above.

33. Which sequence of char data types is listed from lowest to highest?
a.)  a, A, z, Z
b.)  a, z, A, Z
c.)  A, a, Z, z
d.)  A, Z, a, z
e.)  z, a, Z, A

34. The Date data type does not hold which type of information.
a.)  Seconds
b.)  Hours
c.)  Days
d.)  Months
e.)  Quarters

35. The Boolean data type:

a.)  is unsigned.
b.)  has two states.
c.)  is displayed by the program as yes or no.
d.)  Both a and b.
e.)  All of the above.

36. Which is a valid statement for declaring a variable?

a.)  Const Form As Integer
b.)  Const myForm As Integer
c.)  Dim Form As Integer
d.)  Dim myForm As Integer
e.)  All of the above.

37. VB.Net identifiers:

a.)  are case sensitive.
b.)  can begin with an underscore.
c.)  can begin with a number.
d.)  Both a and b.
e.)  All of the above.

38. The name of a constant:

a.)  must both begin with a letter and be all upper case.
b.)  does not have to begin with a letter but must be all upper case.
c.)  must begin with a letter but can be upper or lower case.
d.)  does not have to begin with a letter and be either upper or lower case.
e.)  None of the above.

39. The proper operator precedence, from first to last, is:

a.)  logical, comparison, and arithmetic.
b.)  arithmetic, comparison, and logical.
c.)  arithmetic, logical, and comparison.
d.)  comparison, arithmetic, and logical.
e.)  logical, arithmetic, comparison.

40. With A = False and B = True, which statement evaluates as True?

a.)  A AND A
b.)  A AND B
c.)  B AND A
d.)  B AND B
e.)  None are true.

41. With A = False and B = True, which statement evaluates as False?

a.)  A OR A
b.)  A OR B
c.)  B OR A
d.)  B OR B
e.)  None are true.

42. Which operator is evaluated first?

a.)  NOT
b.)  AND
c.)  XOR
d.)  OR
e.)  They are always evaluated left-to-right.
43. The left side of an assignment statement will hold:
a.)  a variable.
b.)  an object property.
c.)  an expression.
d.)  Both a and b.
e.)  All of the above.

44. The right side of an assignment statement will hold:

a.)  a variable.
b.)  an object property.
c.)  an expression.
d.)  Both a and b.
e.)  All of the above.

45. Which function will return the monthly payments of a loan?

a.)  Pay (Rate, PV, Nper)
b.)  Pmt (Rate, Nper, PV)
c.)  FV (Rate, Nper, Pmt)
d.)  FV (Rate, Nper, PV)
e.)  None of the above.

46. Which function returns the numbers represented in the string “$56.7”?

a.)  Abs
b.)  CDbl
c.)  Int
d.)  Rnd
e.)  Val

47. What will the function Val ($165.30) return?

a.)  0
b.)  165
c.)  165.30
d.)  $165.30
e.)  An error

48. Which function displays a pop-up window?

a.)  MsgBox
b.)  InputBox
c.)  TextBox
d.)  Both a and b.
e.)  All of the above.

49. Which is true about the prompt argument?

a.)  It can be made of multiple values concatenated into one string.
b.)  It can include the vbCrLf constant.
c.)  It can include the ampersand symbol to concatenate strings.
d.)  Both a and b.
e.)  All of the above.

50. In order to process a number typed in a TextBox the programmer must:

a.)  use the Val function to convert the Text value.
b.)  use the CDbl function to convert the Text value.
c.)  use the IsNumeric function to convert the Text value.
d.)  Both a and b.
e.)  All of the above.
 
51. Which TextBox method does not use the clipboard?
a.)  Clear
b.)  Copy
c.)  Cut
d.)  Paste
e.)  All of these methods use the clipboard.
52. Which TextBox property should always be changed first?
a.)  AcceptsReturn
b.)  BorderStyle
c.)  Font
d.)  Name
e.)  Text
 
53. Which is not a valid value for the ListBox SectionMode Property?
a.)  None
b.)  One
c.)  MultiSimple
d.)  MultiExtended
e.)  All of the above.

54. Setting the SelectedIndex property of a ListBox to -1 will:

a.)  cause an error.
b.)  cannot be done.
c.)  de-select any selected item.
d.)  Both a and b.
e.)  All of the above.

55. Which method of a ListBox will remove just one item at a time?
a.)  Items.RemoveAt
b.)  Item.RemoveAt
c.)  Items.ClearAt
d.)  Item.ClearAt
e.)  Items.Clear
 
56. The Items property of a ComboBox:
a.)  is a collection of items.
b.)  is the same as the Items property of a ListBox.
c.)  contains methods and properties.
d.)  Both a and b.
e.)  All of the above.

57. Which value for the ComboBox DropDownStyle property allows a user to type in data?
a.)  DropDown
b.)  DropDownSimple
c.)  DropDownList
d.)  Both a and b.
e.)  All of the above.

58. Which two controls combined to form the ComboBox control?

a.)  ListBox and TextBox
b.)  ListBox and InputBox
c.)  ListBox and MsgBox
d.)  Label and TextBox
e.)  Label and InputBox

59. When a condition in an If…Then statements tests true:

a.)  the next Else statement is activated.
b.)  the next If statement is activated.
c.)  the next Then statement is activated.
d.)  the End If statement is activated.
e.)  a condition can never test true.
 
60. The End If statement is required:
a.)  in all If…Then statements.
b.)  in all Multi-line statements with Else.
c.)  in Single Line statements.
d.)  Both a and b.
e.)  All of the above.
Tally
1. Employee salary details are shown in
A) Attendance sheet
B) Gratuity papers
C) Exact reports
D) Pay roll

2. Salary comes under                      Head

A) Direct expense
B) current liability
C) Indirect expense
D) Current asset

3. Vouchers can be displayed in

A) Accounts info
B) Day book
C) inventory info
D) Ledger

4. Professionals usually maintain accounts as

A) Accounts with inventory
B) accounts only
C) Normal accounting
D) payroll accounting

5. A company can be deleted only in

A) Display
B) alter
C) delete
D) Create

6. Company features in tally includes

A) Accounting features
B) Inventory features
C) Statutory features
D) all of the above

7. Integrated accounts with inventory is available in

A) F12 configuration
B) f11 features
C) inventory info
D) accounts info

8. Collection of ledgers of same nature is called

A) Vouchers
B) asset
C) Group
D) None of these

9. The options ? use common narration? and ? narration each entry? appear
A) Account creation screen
B) Voucher entry screen
C) F11 accounting features
D) Voucher type creation screen

10. Predefined groups are also called as

A) Main group
B) Primary group
C) Statutory group
D) Parent group
11. Which of the following is not a disadvantage of introducing computerized accounting system
A) Possible demotivation through reundance
B) High expenditure on set up
C) Saving made on labour cost
D) Required staff training

12. Transfer from main cash to petty cash you require to pass                      
A) Voucher
B) Payment
C) Contra
D) Receipt 

13. Income tax number of the company will appear in which report
A) Cash/bank book
B) Profit and loss a/c
C) Reminder letter
D) None of these

14. Patent account falls under

A) Investments
B) Liabilities
C) Current assets
D) None of these

15. Drawings account is to be created by linking with

A) Capital
B) Current asset
C) Current liability
D) Drawings

16. Transactions are firstly entered in:

A) Journal
B) Ledger
C) Trial balance
D) None of these

17.  A trial balance is prepared

A) To prepare p &l a/c
B) To test the arithmetical accuracy
C) For making adjustments
D) To balance the a/c

18. Capital is treated as liability because of

A) Dual aspect concept
B) Money measurement concept
C) Matching concept
D) Entity concept

19.               are the liabilities which are payable after a long period
A) Fixed liabilities
B) Miscellaneous expenditure
C) Current liabilities
D) Contingent liabilities

20.               is an example for long term liabilities

A) Creditors
B) Debentures
C) Overdraft
D) Bills payable

21.                 is the collection of all accounts

A) Journal
B) Voucher
C) Invoices
D) Ledger

22.                 is the book of original entry

A) Journal
B) Voucher
C) Invoices
D) Ledger

23. The process of ascertaining the balance of a particular account on a given date is
A) Posting
B) Journalizing
C) Balancing
D) Accounting

24.                 is the expense which is unpaid at the end of the accounting period
A) Outstanding expenses
B) Prepaid expenses
C) Proposed expenses
D) Working capital

25.             is an example for tangible assets

A) Furniture
B) Debtors
C) Patent
D) Discount on issue of shares and debentures

26. Which account is the odd one

A) Furniture
B) Land and buildings
C) Stock of raw materials
D) Plant and machinery

27. Which of the following is the example of external users of accounting information
A) Government
B) Owners
C) Management
D) Employee 

28.  A              is sent to a customer when he returns the goods

A) Debit note
B) Credit note
C) Proforma invoice
D) Bill

29.  A              is sent to the seller when he is taken back the sold goods
A) Debit note
B) Credit note
C) Proforma invoice
D) Bill

30.  Which of the following is not a transaction

A) Goods are purchased on cash basis for rs 1000
B) Salaries paid for the month of may 2009
C) Land is purchased for rs 10 lakhs
D) An employee is dismissed from the job

31.              Bank account is                       

A) Personal account
B) Real account
C) Nominal account
D) Intangible real account

32. Income earned but not received is known as                       

A) Advance income
B) Proposed income
C) Earned income
D) Accrued income

33.             refers the amount invested by the owner into business

A) Loan
B) Advance
C) Capital
D) Prepaid expenses

34.                is the major source of revenue of any business

A) Investment
B) Advances
C) Loan
D) Sales
Answer : D

35. Assets acquired for long term use in the business are called                      
A) Fixed assets
B) Current assets
C) Fictitious assets
D) Liquid asset

36. A person who owes money to the business is a                             

A) Debtor
B) Creditor
C) Investor
D) Supplier

37. Accrued income comes under

A) Current liability
B) Capital
C) Current asset
D) Fixed asset

38. Taxes paid come under which group

A) Capital
B) Loans and liabilities
C) Direct expenses
D) Duties and taxes

39. Accounting principles are divided into two types. These are
A) Accounting concepts
B) Accounting conventions
C) Accounting standard
D) 1 and 3 both

40. The term current assets does not include                       

A) Debtors
B) B/r
C) Stock
D) Goodwill

41. There are                    predefined ledgers

A) One
B) Three
C) Two
D) Four

42. Closing stock come under                                  

A) Current asset
B) Fixed asset
C) Stock in hand
D) Direct income

43. E-mail can be used to

A) Send mail directly from tally screen
B) To send e-mail
C) Download information
D) Access help

44. In tally screen right extreme displays                                 

A) Selected companies
B) Current date
C) Gate way of tally
D) Button bar

45. Capital of the company is included under

A) Capital account
B) Fixed liabilities
C) Loans and advances
D) Current liabilities

46. Carriage inwards can be included in

A) Direct expenses
B) Indirect expenses
C) Current liability
D) Misc Expenses

47. The branch of accounting which analyses and interprets the overall data is                         
A) Financial accounting
B) Cost accounting
C) Management accounting
D) None of these
 
48. To activate cost centre and cost category feature we have to select
A) Configuration
B) F 11 features
C) Group creation
D) Voucher creation

49. The left hand side of tally screen shows

A) Current date
B) Last entered voucher
C) Gate way of tally
D) List of selected companies

50. Credit note is used for entering

A) Purchases
B) Sales
C) Purchase return
D) Sales return
E Commerce
1. What is the full form of B2C?
(a) Bihar to Chandigarh
(b) Bombay square to Chandigarh
(c) Business to Consumer
(d) none of them

2. Sale or purchase of items without physically visiting a shop is called .

(a) E-Commerce
(b) Point of Sale (POS)
(c) Goods and Services
(d) Disposal

3. E-Commerce may be carried out using modes.

(a) SMS/ phone conversation
(b) Web
(c) email
(d) all of them

4. What is the full form of ALE in ecommerce?

(a) Application Link Embedding
(b) Application Link Electronics
(c) Application Leakage Enabling
(d) none of them

5. What is the full form of EDI in ecommerce?

(a) Electronic Detailed International
(b) Electronic Data Interchange
(c) Electronic Digital Interchange
(d) none of them

6. Which e-commerce software requires initial one time password investment of licensing fee?
(a) OnPromise
(b) SaaS
(c) Open Source
(d) none of them

7. Which of the following is a cloud based eCommerce platform (applications are hosted and managed in service
providers datacentre, subscribed on payment basis)?
(a) OnPromise
(b) SaaS
(c) Open Source
(d) none of them

8. Which of the ecommerce software is free of charge (no licensing fee)?

(a) OnPromise
(b) SaaS
(c) Open Source
(d) none of them

9. What is the full form of C2B?

(a) Chandigarh to Bihar
(b) Chandigarh to Bombay square
(c) Consumer to Business
(d) none of them
10. What is the full form of CRM in ecommerce?
(a) Crime Report Management
(b) Customer Relationship Management
(c) Consumer Resource Management
(d) none of them

11. What is the term given to e-commerce site where product and inventory information is provided by multiple third
parties?
(a) online marketplace
(b) online e-commerce
(c) e-marketplace
(d) none of them
 
12. In an on line marketplace, transactions are processed by .
(a) marketplace operator
(b) customer
(c) seller
(d) none of them

13. Example of an online marketplace are.

(a) eBay
(b) Snapdeal
(c) Flipkart
(d) all of them

14. Which of the following ecommerce platforms allows consumers to buy goods directly from seller over the Internet?
(a) e-webshop
(b) e-shopping
(c) e-webstore
(d) all of them

15. Which software model allows accumulation of a list of items before making the online purchase?
(a) online shopping
(b) e-shopping
(c) shopping cart
(d) none of them

16. What is the name of front page of a web store accessed by visitors to the online shop?
(a) storefront
(b) webfront
(c) e-store
(d) none of them

17. If a company sends bills over the Internet and consumers pay the bills online, it is called .
(a) Internet billing
(b) web billing
(c) electronic billing
(d) none of them

18. Which parties are involved in electronic billing?

(a) billers
(b) bankers
(c) consolidators
(d) all of them

19. What is the full form of BPP in ecommerce?

(a) Biller Payment Provider
(b) Biller Provision Provider
(c) Biller Payment Protector
(d) none of them

20. What is the full form of BSP in ecommerce?

(a) Biller Service Protector
(b) Biller Service Provider
(c) Biller Service Packer
(d) none of them
 
21. What is the full form of CSP in ecommerce?
(a) Card Service Provider
(b) Customer Service Provider
(c) central Service Provider
(d) none of them

22. What is the full form of ACH in ecommerce?

(a) Association of Clearing Houses
(b) Anonymous Cleansing House
(c) Automatic Clearing House
(d) none of them

23. What is the full form of BITS in ecommerce?

(a) Bihartiya Institute of Technology & Society
(b) Banking Industry Technology Secretariat
(c) Banking Institute of Technology & Society
(d) none of them

24. Which system facilitates the adoption of electronic payment for online transactions?
(a) motivated electronic purchase system
(b) electronic payment system
(c) online payment system
(d) none of them
25. What is the fill form of CVN in ecommerce?
(a) Card Verification Number
(b) Commerce Verified Number
(c) Consumer Verified Number
(d) none of them

26. In system, payment gateway allows the consumer to specify the bank from which payment should be made.
(a) e-pay banking
(b) e-commerce banking
(c) net banking
(d) none of them

27. What can be used by a consumer and accepted by a merchant for making payments?
(a) merchant card
(b) payment card
(c) visiting card
(d) none of them

28. What is the size of payment card?

(a) 85.60 × 53.98cm
(b) 85.60 × 53.98mm
(c) 85.60 × 53.98m
(d) none of them

29. The default period of loan for a credit card holder is days.
(a) 55
(b) 50
(c) 58
(d) none of them

30. A partial payment of loan in case of charge cards may attract .

(a) bonus
(b) late fee
(c) interest
(d) none of them

31. In which card, a card holder is not required to make payments every month?
(a) charge
(b) credit
(c) debit
(d) none of them

32. In which card, funds are directly withdrawn from his bank account for each payment made through the card?
(a) debit
(b) credit
(c) ATM
(d) none of them

33. What is the full form of ATM?

(a) Any Time Money
(b) Automated Transaction Management
(c) Automated Teller Machine
(d) none of them

34. Which card cannot be used for cash withdrawal?

(a) ATM
(b) charge
(c) debit
(d) none of them

35. Which cards have a monetary value store on the card itself?
(a) ATM
(b) charge
(c) stored-value
(d) none of them

36. Which cards are not issued in the name of any individual?
(a) ATM
(b) stored value
(c) debit
(d) none of them

37. Which cards are commonly used to buy gasoline (petrol), diesel and other fuels?
(a) fleet/fuel
(b) ATM
(c) credit
(d) none of them

38. Which cards store card data that can be read by physical contact and swiping past a reading head?
(a) magnetic strip
(b) embossing
(c) smart
(d) none of them

39. Which card contains a chip having embedded integrated circuit which can process data?
(a) magnetic strip
(b) embossing
(c) smart
(d) none of them
40. Which of the following authenticates and handles credit card payment for eCommerce?
(a) payment gateway
(b) e-commerce gateway
(c) software gateway
(d) none of them

41. When the seller and the buyer are both business firms, it is called model of E-Commerce.
(a) C2B or Consumer to Business
(b) B2C or Business to Consumer
(c) B2B or Business to Business
(d) C2C or Consumer to Consumer
 
42. When the seller is a business and the is an individual consumer, it is called model of E-Commerce.
(a) C2B or Consumer to Business
(b) B2C or Business to Consumer
(c) B2B or Business to Business
(d) C2C or Consumer to Consumer
 
43. When the seller is an individual and the buyer is a business firm, it is called model of E-Commerce.
(a) C2B or Consumer to Business
(b) B2C or Business to Consumer
(c) B2B or Business to Business
(d) C2C or Consumer to Consumer
 
44. When the seller and the buyer are both individuals, it is called model of E-Commerce.
(a) C2B or Consumer to Business
(b) B2C or Business to Consumer
(c) B2B or Business to Business
(d) C2C or Consumer to Consumer

45. is the trading of goods and items through the Internet.

(a) E-Trade
(b) E-Commerce
(c) E-Network
(d) none of them
 
46. What is the full form of B2B?
(a) Bihar to Bihar
(b) Bombay to Bombay
(c) Business to Business
(d) none of them

Cyber Security
1. Why would a hacker use a proxy server?
A. To create a stronger connection with the target.
B. To create a ghost server on the network.
C. To obtain a remote access connection.
D. To hide malicious activity on the network.
 
2. What type of symmetric key algorithm using a streaming cipher to encrypt information?
A. RC4
B. Blowfish
C. SHA
D. MD5
 
3. Which of the following is not a factor in securing the environment against an attack on security?
A. The education of the attacker
B. The system configuration
C. The network architecture
D. The business strategy of the company
E. The level of access provided to employees
 
4. What type of attack uses a fraudulent server with a relay address?
A. NTLM
B. MITM
C. NetBIOS
D. SMB
 
5. What port is used to connect to the Active Directory in Windows 2000?
A. 80
B. 445
C. 139
D. 389

 
6. To hide information inside a picture, what technology is used?
A. Rootkits
B. Bitmapping
C. Steganography
D. Image Rendering
 
7. Which phase of hacking performs actual attack on a network or system?
A. Reconnaissance
B. Maintaining Access
C. Scanning
D. Gaining Access
 
8. Attempting to gain access to a network using an employee’s credentials is called the _____________ mode of ethical
hacking.
A. Local networking
B. Social engineering
C. Physical entry
D. Remote networking
 
9. Which Federal Code applies the consequences of hacking activities that disrupt subway transit systems?
A. Electronic Communications Interception of Oral Communications
B. 18 U.S.C. § 1029
C. Cyber Security Enhancement Act 2002
D. 18 U.S.C. § 1030

 
10. Which of the following is not a typical characteristic of an ethical hacker?
A. Excellent knowledge of Windows.
B. Understands the process of exploiting network vulnerabilities.
C. Patience, persistence and perseverance.
D. Has the highest level of security for the organization.
 
11. What is the proper command to perform an Nmap XMAS scan every 15seconds?
A. nmap -sX -sneaky
B. nmap -sX -paranoid
C. nmap -sX -aggressive
D. nmap -sX -polite
 
12. What type of rootkit will patch, hook, or replace the version of system call in order to hide information?
A. Library level rootkits
B. Kernel level rootkits
C. System level rootkits
D. Application level rootkits
 
13. What is the purpose of a Denial of Service attack?
A. Exploit a weakness in the TCP/IP stack
B. To execute a Trojan on a system
C. To overload a system so it is no longer operational
D. To shutdown services by turning them off
 
14. What are some of the most common vulnerabilities that exist in a network or system?
A. Changing manufacturer, or recommended, settings of a newly installed application.
B. Additional unused features on commercial software packages.
C. Utilizing open source application code
D. Balancing security concerns with functionality and ease of use of a system.
 
15. What is the sequence of a TCP connection?
A. SYN-ACK-FIN
B. SYN-SYN ACK-ACK
C. SYN-ACK
D. SYN-SYN-ACK
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
 

 
16. What tool can be used to perform SNMP enumeration?
A. DNSlookup
B. Whois
C. Nslookup
D. IP Network Browser
 
17. Which ports should be blocked to prevent null session enumeration?
A. Ports 120 and 445
B. Ports 135 and 136
C. Ports 110 and 137
D. Ports 135 and 139
 
18. The first phase of hacking an IT system is compromise of which foundation of security?
A. Availability
B. Confidentiality
C. Integrity
D. Authentication
 
19. How is IP address spoofing detected?
A. Installing and configuring a IDS that can read the IP header
B. Comparing the TTL values of the actual and spoofed addresses
C. Implementing a firewall to the network
D. Identify all TCP sessions that are initiated but does not complete successfully
 
20. Why would a ping sweep be used?
A. To identify live systems
B. To locate live systems
C. To identify open ports
D. To locate firewalls

 
21. What are the port states determined by Nmap?
A. Active, inactive, standby
B. Open, half-open, closed
C. Open, filtered, unfiltered
D. Active, closed, unused
 
22. What port does Telnet use?
A. 22
B. 80
C. 20
D. 23
 
23. Which of the following will allow footprinting to be conducted without detection?
A. PingSweep
B. Traceroute
C. War Dialers
D. ARIN
 
24. Performing hacking activities with the intent on gaining visibility for an unfair situation is called ________.
A. Cracking
B. Analysis
C. Hacktivism
D. Exploitation
 
25. What is the most important activity in system hacking?
A. Information gathering
B. Cracking passwords
C. Escalating privileges
D. Covering tracks
 
26. A packet with no flags set is which type of scan?
A. TCP
B. XMAS
C. IDLE
D. NULL

 
 
 

 
27. Sniffing is used to perform ______________ fingerprinting.
A. Passive stack
B. Active stack
C. Passive banner grabbing
D. Scanned
 
28. Phishing is a form of ____________________.
A. Spamming
B. Identify Theft
C. Impersonation
D. Scanning
 
29. Why would HTTP Tunneling be used?
A. To identify proxy servers
B. Web activity is not scanned
C. To bypass a firewall
D. HTTP is a easy protocol to work with
 
30. Which Nmap scan is does not completely open a TCP connection?
A. SYN stealth scan
B. TCP connect
C. XMAS tree scan
D. ACK scan
 
31. What protocol is the Active Directory database based on?
A. LDAP
B. TCP
C. SQL
D. HTTP
 
32. Services running on a system are determined by _____________.
A. The system’s IP address.
B. The Active Directory
C. The system’s network name
D. The port assigned
 
33. What are the types of scanning?
A. Port, network, and services
B. Network, vulnerability, and port
C. Passive, active, and interactive
D. Server, client, and network

 
 
 
 

 
34. Enumeration is part of what phase of ethical hacking?
A. Reconnaissance
B. Maintaining Access
C. Gaining Access
D. Scanning
 
35. Keyloggers are a form of ______________.
A. Spyware
B. Shoulder surfing
C. Trojan
D. Social engineering
 
36. What are hybrid attacks?
A. An attempt to crack passwords using words that can be found in dictionary.
B. An attempt to crack passwords by replacing characters of a dictionary word with numbers and symbols.
C. An attempt to crack passwords using a combination of characters, numbers, and symbols.
D. An attempt to crack passwords by replacing characters with numbers and symbols.
 
37. Which form of encryption does WPA use?
A. Shared key
B. LEAP
C. TKIP
D. AES
 
38. What is the best statement for taking advantage of a weakness in the security of an IT system?
A. Threat
B. Attack
C. Exploit
D. Vulnerability
 
39. Which database is queried by Whois?
A. ICANN
B. ARIN
C. APNIC
D. DNS
 
40. Having individuals provide personal information to obtain a free offer provided through the Internet is considered
what type of social engineering?
A. Web-based
B. Human-based
C. User-based
D. Computer-based

2 What is the purpose of the last three layers in OSI model?

A common application services

B data presentation within the end-user system

C passing traffic through the network to an end system

D manage the dialogue between end user application process

3 Which layers of OSI model is the router operate?

A Layer 2

B Layer 3

C Layer 6

D Layer 7

4 Which layer of OSI network model does repeater works?

A Layer 1

B Layer 2

C Layer 3

D Layer 4

5 Which is a standard network protocol used to transfer files from one host or to another host over a
TCP based network, such as the internet?

A FTP

B TCP

C UDP

D SMTP

6 Which is a network protocol used on the internet or LAN to provide a bi-directional interactive text

oriented communication facility using a virtual terminal connection?

A FTP

B TCP

C UDP

D Telnet