1. Attenuation of ultrasound increases as distance _____.

A. Increases 
B. Decreases

2. Attenuation of ultrasound increases as frequency ______.

A. Increases 
B. Decreases

3. By definition, ultrasound is sound having a frequency greater than _____

cycles per second, that is, sound above the audible range.

A. 10,000 
B. 20,000 
C. 30,000 
D. 40,000

4. Which of the following is not a property of acoustic waves?

A. Pressure and particle velocity are in-phase. 

B. Particles in the medium oscillate with equal excursion in the positive and negative directions.

C. The wave front is attenuated by converting the energy in the pressure wave to heat.

D. There is movement of the material.

5. Which of the following types of tissue would have the lowest mean propagation velocity.

A. Air 
B. Fat 
C. Blood 
D. Water

6. The ___ transducer and corresponding field of excitation excites molecules in the traditional "pie-
shaped" field.

A. 1D 
B. 2D 
C. 3D 
D. 4D

7. 1 atmosphere (14.7 psi) =

A. 10kPa 
B. 50kPa 
C. 75kPA 
D. 100kPa

8. When c2>c1, total reflection can occur when the angle of incidence is ______ than the critical
angle.

A. Less 
B. Equal to 
C. Greater

9. ______ is defined by the number of elements used (effective transducer width).

A. Aperture 
B. Linear 
C. Transducer 
D. Propagation

10. Which of the following is not a factor determining spatial resolution?

A. Frequency (wavelength) 
B. Transmit intensity 
C. Pulse interval 
D. Acquisition

Answer Key 
1. A 
2. A 
3. B 
4. D 
5. A 
6. B 
7. D 
8. C 
9. A 
10. D

If the speed of sound in a medium is 100m/sec, how long will it take sound to
travel 420m?
1. .42 sec
2. 4.2 sec
3. 42 sec
4. 420sec
5. 4200 sec

Beneficial artifacts include all of the following except:

1. reverberation
2. Enchancement
3. shadowing

Enhancement of an echo results from a structure having ______.

1. higher attenuation than surrounding structures

2. higher impedance than surrounding structures
3. lower density than surrounding structures
4. lower attenuation than structures.

The shadowing and enhancement are description of __________ artifacts?

1. attenuation
2. refraction
3. propagation
4.reverberation

When the signal to noise ratio is low, the signal is __________ than the
noise, therefore the image quality is __________?
1. higher, better
2. lower, better
3, higher, worse
4. lower, worse

Which of the following will NOT result in a shorter pulse duration?

1. using a higher frequency

2. using a shorter period
3. a lower propagaion velocity
4. suing few pulses

Pulse duration will increase with all the following except?

1. period
2. number of cycles in the pulse.
3.Frequency
4. None of the abov

• Which modality allows quantitative measurement of

absolute blood velocity?
•
• ?
• Which off the following is true about sound wave
frequencies

v=λf
• Which of the following is false about acoustic impedance?
• If two materials have the same acoustic impedance, their
boundary will not produce an echo
• If the difference in acoustic impedance is small, a weak echo
will be produced,
• If the difference in acoustic impedance is large, a strong
echo will be produced.
•
•
• Doppler shift is given by the following formula:
• FD = (V X FO ) / C
• where
• FD is the Doppler shift
• FO is the original frequency
V is the velocity of blood
C is the speed of sound in tissues
Therefore V = (FD X C) / FO

Transducer
Piezoelectric crystal
Emit sound after electric charge applied
Sound reflected from patient
Returning echo is converted to electric signal  grayscale image
on monitor
Echo may be reflected, transmitted or refracted
Transmit 1% and receive 99% of the time

Which of the following is true about Ultrasound?

Ultrasound is not an electromagnetic wave and

it is non-ionizing.
Sound is a mechanical wave –
it needs a medium in order to propagate.

Ultrasound image formation is accomplished by using echoes, or reflections from different

media, such as organs, vessels or other structures.

The wavelength of a sound wave is the physical distance between any two compressions
or decompressions (rarefactions.)

Ultrasound imaging makes use out of the reflections of high frequency sound waves.
The transducer head contains the piezoelectric material and the transducer is acoustically coupled to
the body by using a gel.

The gel minimizes reflections of the ultrasound at the skin’s surface and a beam of ultrasound
pulses are delivered to the body.

The velocity of sound in soft tissue is approximately 1540-m/s.

The ultrasound pulse has an intensity I that decreases exponentially as it passes through the
body’s tissues and organs.

Doppler Effect:

- For stationary targets the number of waves encountered by unity of time is equal the wave
frequency.

- If the target is moving toward the transducer the frequency increases.

The number of additional wave fronts encountered is a function of the velocity of the moving target
and the velocity of sound.

Then; the frequency of ultrasound (perceived) at the target (cell):

However, if two materials have similar elastic properties then the US waves will produce small
reflections and most of the US will propagate into the second medium.

Advantages of US
Ultrasound examinations are non-invasive i.e. they do not require the body to be opened up, or
anything to be inserted into the body. This is a major advantage compared to fiber optic
endoscopy, for example, which may involve much more patient discomfort as the probe is
inserted.
Ultrasound methods are relatively inexpensive, quick and convenient, compared to
techniques such as X-rays or MRI scans. The equipment can be made portable, and the
images can be stored electronically.
No harmful effects have been detected, at the intensity levels used for examinations and
imaging. This contrasts with methods based on X-rays or on radioactive isotopes, which
have known risks associated with them, and ultrasound methods are preferred whenever
possible. This is particularly relevant to examination of expectant mothers.
Ultrasound is particularly suited to imaging soft tissues such as the eye, heart and other
internal organs, and examining blood vessels.

Disadvantages of US
The major disadvantage is that the resolution of images is often limited. This is being
overcome as time passes, but there are still many situations where X-rays produce a
much higher resolution.
Ultrasound is reflected very strongly on passing from tissue to gas, or vice versa. This means
that ultrasound cannot be used for examinations of areas of the body containing gas, such
as the lung and the digestive system.
Ultrasound also does not pass well through bone, so that the method is of limited use in
diagnosing fractures. It is possible to obtain quite good ultrasound scans of the brain,
but much greater detail is obtained by an MRI scan.

Some disadvantages of MRI

• Extreme precautions must be taken to keep metallic objects

out of the room where the machine is operating

• People with pacemakers can't safely be scanned

• Some people suffer from claustrophobia, and find the

confinement discomforting

• The machine makes a very loud continuous hammering

noise when operating

• Some people are too big to fit inside the magnet

• MRI scans require patients to hold very still for long

periods of time ... up to 90 minutes or more in some cases

• MRI systems are expensive to buy – and run – so are

currently beyond most DGHs. An MRI scan costs about

£500 to the NHS

In computerised tomography (CT) the X-ray source rotates around a plane of the
body, taking serial pictures with a detector (instead of a film) which are
synthesized by a computer. The resulting picture created by the computer is like
a section of the body and can be recorded on a film. CT pictures are therefore like
X-ray images.
Magnetic resonance imaging (MRI) uses the property of protons aligning
themselves in a magnetic field and their reaction to radio frequency waves. The
protons ‘resonate’ to the radio frequency and revert to normal (‘decay’) when the
radiation is stopped. Effectively it is the imaging of protons. The most commonly
imaged proton is a hydrogen nucleus. So far it is believed that this method does
not damage body tissues as X-rays do. MRI images are even more realistic than
CT images.
Ultrasound on the other hand uses mechanical waves of frequencies beyond the
audible range. These waves are reflected to various degrees from junctions of
tissues of different nature. Ultrasound pictures require considerable skill to
interpret. Ultrasound has a great advantage – it does not cause cellular damage
when used in quantities required for imaging.

(1) The fundamental measurement made by a CT scanner is the:

 (A) Sorting of CT numbers

 (B) Determination of gray scale
 (C) Pixel density
 (D) Relative x-ray attenuation
 (E) Voxel atomic number

(2) Which of the following has a Hounsfield unit value of approximately - 90?

 (A) Fat

 (B) Gray matter

  (C) Water

 (D) Bone

 (E) Lung

(3) Tissue characterization is difficult because the value of a CT number may

change because of:

 (A) Window level

 (B) Window width
 (C) Tube current
 (D) Scan time
 (E) Volume averaging

(4) The measured x-ray transmissions from a single CT fan beam through a
patient is called a:

 (A) Filter
 (B) Back-projection algorithm
 (C) Tomographic slice
 (D) Primary beam
 (E) Projection

(5) Which image reconstruction algorithm is used in current commercial CT

scanners?

 (A) Two-dimensional Fourier transform

 (B) Three-dimensional Fourier transform
 (C) Back projection
 (D) Filtered back projection
 (E) Algebraic reconstruction algorithm

(6) If a CT display is set at a window width of 100 and a window center of 50, the:
  (A) HU value of water changes to 50
 (B) White matter will look gray
 (C) Gray matter will look white
 (D) Bone will look black
 (E) Lung will look white

(7) The CT image display contrast:

 (A) Must be selected prior to the x-ray exposures

 (B) May be altered after the CT scan
 (C) Does not modify the appearance of the CT image
 (D) Can be used to change the Hounsfield unit values of image data
 (E) Uses an array processor

(8) Which of the following cannot be used to process CT images?

 (A) Window/level adjustment

 (B) Multiplanar reformatting
 (C) Phase encoding
 (D) Volume rendering 
 (E) Shaded-surface display 

(9) CT anode heat loading increases with all of the following except an increase
in:

 (A) Tube voltage 

 (B) Tube current 
 (C) Scan time
 (D) Section thickness
 (E) Number of sections 

(10) CT collimators are:

 (A) Variable for different section thickness

  (B) Not necessary for helical scans 
 (C) Usually made out of Plexiglas
 (D) Bowtie shaped 
 (E) Cooled using fans 

(11) Which would not likely be used as detectors in CT scanners?

 (A) Bismuth germanate

 (B) CdW04
 (C) Xenon gas
 (D) NaI
 (E) Air ionization chambers

(12) Fourth-generation CT detectors are frequently made of:

 (A) Low-pressure air ionization chambers

 (B) Geiger tubes 
 (C) CdW04 
 (D) High-pressure xenon
 (E) Selenium

(13) Electron-beam CT can acquire a CT image in:

 (A) Less than I millisecond

 (B) 1millisecond 
 (C) 8 millisecond
 (D) 25 millisecond
 (E) 50 millisecond

(14) The main advantage of helical CT over conventional (axial) CT is improved:

 (A) Spatial resolution

 (B) Low contrast detection
 (C) Data acquisition rate 
  (D) Patient dose
 (E) Image reconstruction time

(15) Multislice CT improves the utilization of the:

 (A) X-ray tube output 

 (B) Collimators 
 (C) Bow tie filter 
 (D) X-ray detectors 
 (E) Analog-to-digital converters 

(16) CT fluoroscopy minimizes radiation doses by using lower: 

 (A) Filtration 
 (B) Voltage 
 (C) Current 
 (D) Collimator thickness 
 (E) Field of view 

(17) The theoretically best possible CT resolution for a 512 2 matrix and 25 cm FOV
is:

 (A) 0.5 Ip/mm 

 (B) 1.0 Ip/mm 
 (C) 2.0 Ip/mm
 (D) 5.0 Ip/mm
 (E) 10.0 Ip/mm 

(18) CT scanner spatial resolution could improve with an increase of:

 (A) Focal spot size 

 (B) Detector elements size 
 (C) Tube voltage 
 (D) Scan time
 (E) Reconstruction matrix
(19) Visibility of small high-contrast CT lesions would most likely improve with
decreasing:

 (A) Patient dose

 (B) Scan time

 (C) Field of view

 (D) Slice thickness

 (E) Tube voltage

(20) Visibility of large low-contrast CT lesions may improve with increasing:

 (A) Filtration
 (B) mAs
 (C) Matrix size 
 (D) Display window width 
 (E) Size of film image

(21) Image noise is not affected by the:

 (A) Section thickness 

 (B) Reconstruction algorithm 
 (C) Patient thickness 
 (D) mAs 
 (E) Display settings (window/level)

(22) The difference in x-ray attenuation between white (40 HU) and gray matter (50
HU):

 (A) Is 0.1% 

 (B) Is 1% 
  (C) Is 10%

 (D) Is 25% 

 (E) Cannot be determined 

(23) Partial volume artifacts in CT are generally reduced by reducing the:

 (A) Section thickness

 (B) Scanning time 
 (C) Image matrix size 
 (D) Focal spot size 
 (E) Tube voltage 

(24) CT number depends on all the following except:

 (A) Beam hardening

 (B) Tissue heterogeneity
 (C) mAs
 (D) X-ray attenuation
 (E) Tube voltage 

(25) Ring artifacts in a third-generation CT scanner are caused by:

 (A) Kilovolt peak drift 

 (B) Tube arcing 
 (C) Faulty detector elements 
 (D) Patient motion
 (E) Poor collimation 

(26) Which of the following is least likely to be a source of CT image artifacts'?

 (A) Anode wobble 

 (B) Faulty detectors
  (C) Metallic implants in patient
 (D) Limited sampling of projection data
 (E) Radiofrequency source near CT scanner

(27) Which of the following is not a source of CT artifacts'?

 (A) Patient motion 

 (B) Metal implants
 (C) Beam hardening 
 (D) Low tube current 
 (E) Faulty calibration data 

(28) Representative patient doses in CT are expected to include all the following
except:

 (A) Head skin dose of 40 mGy (4 rad) 

 (B) Head central axis dose of 40 mGy (4 rad) 
 (C) Body skin dose of 20 mGy (2 rad)
 (D) Body central axis dose of 40 mGy (4 rad)
 (E) Embryo dose (abdomen CT) of 15 mGy (1.5 rad)

(29) The dose to the fetus during an abdominal CT scan would not increase with
increasing:

 (A) Patient size 

 (B) Tube voltage
 (C) Tube current
 (D) Scan time 
 (E) Number of sections 

(30) The scattered radiation dose 1 meter from a patient undergoing a head CT
scan is:

 (A) Less than 0.04 mGy (below 4 mrad)

 (B) About 0.04 mGy (4 nuad)
 (C) About 0.4 mGy (40 mrad)
  (D) About 4 mGy (400 mrad) 
 (E) More than 4 mGy (over 400 mrad) 

Computed Tomography Practice Test

1. What imaging parameter is defined as the extent to which the x-ray helix is
stretched during a helical scan, determines volume covered, and affects
radiation exposure and image quality?
a. Pitch
b. Table increment
c. Slice thickness
d. kVp

2. The thickness of the slice that is actually represented on the CT image as

opposed to the size selected by the collimator opening is called what?
a. Volumetric slice thickness
b. Serial slice thickness
c. Effective slice thickness
d. Selected slice thickness

3. What post-processing technique utilizes thin slices and overlapping helically

acquired image data to reformat cross sectional anatomy to anatomical surface
renderings?
a. Retrospective surface rendering
b. Slice misregistration
c. Temporal resolution
d. 3D surface rendering

4. What is the field of view that covers the area within the gantry from which the
raw data is acquired?
a. Scan field of view (SFOV)
b. Reconstruction field of view (RFOV)
c. Display field of view (DFOV)
d. None of the above
5. What post-processed image adjustment to the final displayed image determines
the range of CT numbers that occupy the full gray scale?
a. Window level
b. Window width
c. Image magnification
d. Image resolution

6. Which window center and window width would best display a lung window at
the viewing console?
a. C/W -50, 400
b. C/W -600, 1700
c. C/W 1000, 2500
d. C/W 700, -2000

7. What method or type of contrast administration may occur if the distal colon is
not properly opacified with timed oral contrast agents for a Pelvic CT exam?
a. IV contrast
b. Cystografin
c. Rectal contrast
d. Intrathecal contrast

8. A dilated non-opacified appendix with soft tissue stranding commonly

represents what diagnosis?
a. Acute appendicitis
b. Ruptured appendix
c. Normal appendix
d. Appendicolith

9. When the scan plane is perpendicular to the subtalar joint and the gantry is
tilted towards the patient at around 25 degrees, what is the directly acquired
imaging plane?
a. Oblique coronal plane
b. Direct axial plane
c. Coronal plane
d. Direct sagittal plane
 10. What is the optimal scan slice thickness when imaging all musculoskeletal
anatomy?
a. 5mm-7.5mm
b. 0.625mm-1.25mm
c. 2mm-3mm
d. 10mm

330 Cards in this Set

 Front
 
 Back

True or False
When two waves reach peaks and
False
cross the zero line at the exact same
Constructive
time, they are "in phase" or
destructive?

True or False
Nyquist criteria is used to determine True
aliasing?

True or False
Logartithms provide a powerful tool to True
compress data non-linearly?

True or False
The speed of sound in soft tissue is True
assumed to be 1540 m/sec?
Kilo is equal to? thousand

Mega is equal to? million

Giga is equal to? billion

nano is equal to? billionith

micro is equal to? millionith

deci is equal to? tenth

deca is equal to? ten

milli is equal to? thousandith

centi is equal to? hundredith

hecto is equal to? hundred

If two variables are directly

proportional, if one increases by a
factor of 5, then the other 
4. increases by a factor of 5
1. decreases
2. decreases by a factor of 5
3. increases
4. increases by a factor of 5

If two variable are inversely

proportional, if one decreased by a
factor of 5, then the other 
1. decreases 4. increases by a factor of 5
2. decreases by a factor of 5
3. increases
4. increased by a factor of 5

What is the travel time in 3. 65

microseconds for US to image a
structure that is 5cm deep?
1. 6.5
2. 13 (13u/sec x 5cm)
3. 65
4. 130

If the speed of sound in a medium is

100m/sec, how long will it take sound
to travel 420m?
2. 4.2 sec
1. .42 sec
(use t=d/r)
2. 4.2 sec
420/100=4.2 sec.
3. 42 sec
4. 420sec
5. 4200 sec

The cosine of 90 degrees is

1. -1
2. -.5
3. 0
3. 0
4. .5
5. 1

Log (x/y) equals?

2. log x - log y
1. log x + log y
2. log x - log y
(division = sub)
3. log x = log y
(mult = add)
4. answer is not here

Unit for wavelenght mm

Unit for Frequency hertz

Unit for intensity watts/cm square

Unit for propagational speed? meters/sec

unit for period seconds

Unit for power watts

How is frequency and power related? inversely

How is amplitude and power related? directly

How is amplitude and intensity directly

How is power and intensity related? directly

How is wavelength and intensity

unrelated
related?

How is acoustic velocity and density

Inverse
related

How is stiffness and sound speed

directly
related?

How is frequency and sound speed

unrelated
related?

How is power and frequency related unrelated

How is frequency and intensity

Unrelated
related?

Which of the following characteristic

will create the slowest speed of
sound?
3. high density, low stiffness
1. High density, high stiffness
2. low density, high stiffness
3. high density, low stiffness
4. low density, low stiffness

What is the wavelength of a wave 5. .51 mm

with an unknown frequency traveling
in soft tissue?

1. 51 us
2. .51 m/s (ans. is with units of length)
3. .51 pascals
4. 51 watts
5. .51 mm

pressure
density
What are the 4 acoustic variables?
distance
temperture

True or False
False
If the power of a wave is halved, the
intensity is reduced to one-fourth it
Power is proportional to intensity
original value?

True or False
The effects of tissue on sound waves False
are called bioeffects?

Chapt. 4 
Bandwidth
US pulses contain a range of
freguencies called the?

Pulsed US consists of ______

Pulses, gaps
separated by______ of time

Pulse repetition frequency is the

_________ of pulses occurring in 1 number
sec.

______ is the even and odd multiples

harmonics
of the fundamental frequency

The fraction of time that pulsed US is Duty Factor

on is called_______?

2.0 usec.
What is the pulse duration of a 4 cycle
pulse in a period of .5 usec?
(PD= period x # of cycles)

If the wavelength is .5mm, the spatial 2.0 mm

pulse length for a 4 cycle pulse
is____? (SPL= wavelength x # cycles)

The PRF is teh number of pulses that

Second
occur in a ________?

Calculate the pulse duration for a 1.3 usec.

3.0MHz transducer in soft tissue with (PD= period x # cycles)
a 4 cycle pulse. 1/3.0MHz = .33 x 4)

Pulse duration will increase with all

the following except?
1. period
3. Frequency
2. number of cycles in the pulse.
3.Frequency
4. None of the above

The duty factor will increase with all of

the following except.
1. Period
1. period
2. pulse duration (DF= PD/PRP)
3. PRF
4. none of the above

What is the SPL of a 4 cycle pulse 1. .4mm

with a wavelength of 0.1mm ? (SPL= wavelength x # cycles)
.1mm x 4)
1. .4mm
2. .4cm
3. 4.0 mm
4. 40.mm

The SPL will increase with all of the

following except?
1. Number of cycles in the pulse
3. Frequency
2. wavelength
3. frequency
4. None of the above

If the PD is 3 u and the PRP is 35-0

usec, the DF is _____%?
4. .086
1. 8.6
(DF=PD/PRP)
2. 1.16
3/350
3. .86
4. 086

True or False
A range of the DF is encountered in
DMS because of various conditions True
chosen by the instrument and the
operator?

True or False
Pulsed wave ultrasound is described
False
by the additional terms frequency,
wavelength and propagational speed?

True or False
True
DF is unitless?

True or False
False
SPL is determined by the length of
the pulse and the propagation speed.

True or False True

The shorter the pulse, the broader the
Larger pulse = narrow bandwidth
bandwidth?

True or False

With standard US pulses, the

False
frequency of the US changes
significantly as the wave opopagates
throught the body?

What is the PD equal to?

1. frequency x period
4. Period x # cycles in the pulse
2. period x wavelength
3. # of cycles in a pulse/wavelength
4. period x # of cycles in the pulse

In order to image deeper structures,

_______.

1. the TGC needs to be increased.

4. The PRF needs to be decreased.
2. the PRF needs to be increased.
3. the frame rate needs to be
increased
4. the PRF needs to be decreased.

The PRF is the number of

_______sent to the transducer each
second.
4. voltage pulses
1. none of the answers
2. cycles
3. ultrasound pulses
4. voltage pulses

Which resolution depends on 1. Temporal

penetration depth, lines per frame,
and the number of focuses.

1. Temporal
2. Contrast
3. Detail
4. Axial

To receive information for display at a

rapid rate, it is desirable to use a
_______.
4. High PRF
1. high operating frequency
2. lower operating frequency
3. Low PRF
4. high PRF

What is the maximum depth in soft

tissue for a PRF of 10kHz.
1. 7.5 mm
PRP= imaging depth x 13 usec.
1. 7.5 mm
PRF=1/PRP.
2. 7.7 mm
1/10kHz
3. 7.7 cm
4. 7.5 cm

What is the maximum penetration

depth with a frame rate of 32 frames
per second and a line density of 100
lines per fram and using only one
4. 24 cm.
focus.
FR = 77,000/3200 = 24
1. 24 mm
2. 12 cm
3. 20 cm
4. 24 cm

The PRF is ________ Hz if ther are 2. 1200

30 fram per secon and 40 lines per
frame. (30 x 40) = 1200
1. 12,000
2. 1200
3. 12
4. 120

The _______ is the number of

sonographic images entered into
memory per second.
1. Cine loop
1. cine loop
2. frame rate
3. image refresh rate 
4. PRF

True or False
If the penetration is increased the False
PRF must be increased

the range of frequencies found within

a pulse describes with of the following
terms?

1. pulse repetition frequency 3. bandwidith

2. harmonics
3. bandwidth
4. duty factor
5. compression

True or False
True
The DF is an indicator of mechanical
bioeffects?

True or False False

The SPL is equal to the frequency

multiplied by the number of cycles in
the pulse

If the maximum imaging depth is 10

cm, adn ther are 128 lines per frame,
16.64 msec/frame
how much time does it take to shoot
one frame?

if the maximum imaging depth is 10

66.56 msec/frame
cm and there are 4 packets per line
and 128 lines how long does it take to
10x4x128x13
shoot a color frame?

If a pulse has a duration of 4 msec

and a PRP is 10msec, what is the 40%
DF?

Which of the following will NOT result

in a shorter pulse duration?

1. using a higher frequency 3. a lower propagation velocity

2. using a shorter period
3. a lower propagaion velocity
4. suing few pulses.

True or False
A non scanned modality implies that
over time the acoustic beams are True
repeatedly transmitted in the same
direction

1024
How many gray levels can be
represented by 10 bits?
2 to 10 power.

Multiple transmit foci beams have the

Narrower display beam, lower
advantage of _______ and the
frame rate.
disadvantage of ____________.
Limiting dynamic range through
suppression of smaller, weaker rejection
signals is called?

What type of resolution includes axial,

Detail
lateral, and elevation resolution?

Contrast resolution is determined by

teh ____________ and the number of Scan Converter
bit per pixel in the display.

Which of the following approaches

would yield the best imaging results
on a large, difficult to image patient?

1. 6MHz transmit and recieive,.8 cm

aperture 4. 2. 5 MHz transmit and receive
2. 1.4 MHz transmit, 2.8 Mhz receive, and 2 cm aperture.
1 cm aperture
3. 2MHz transmit, 4MHz receive, 1.8
cm aperture
4. 2.5 MHz transmit and receive and
2, cm aperture

The display form the present the

depth in the vertical axis and the
A Mode
amplitude of the echo in the horizontal
axis is called?

Television monitors present images at

30 per second
a rate of _______?

Analog to digital converters convert

______ voltage representing echoes
Analog, numbers
to ________ for digital signal
processing and storage.

The ___________ is where the action Beam former

orginates.

After echo data are scan converted

into image format and preprocessed,
stored in image memory.
the 2D image frames are
____________.

With too much gain, __________.

1. saturation occurs
2. differenced in echo strenghth are
lost All of the above
3. there is a decrease in contrast
resolution.
4. All of the above

Typically TGC amplifiers compensate

for about ____________ of 60 dB
attenuation?

Holding and displaying one from out

of the sequence is known Freeze Frame
as:____________

To receive information for display at a

rapid rate, it is desireaable to use a High PRF
________

Reformats echos data into image

The scan coverter___________ form for image processing, storage
and display.

What is the term used to describe the

Pixel
picture elements?

Brightness mode is term? 4. All of the above

1. gray-scale
2. B-Mode
3. B-Scan
4. All of the above

Persistence does all of the following

except:
1. increase contrast resolution
2. Increase dynamic range.
2. Increase frame rate
3. improve dynamic range
4. decrease speckle

Picture, archiving and

PACS stands for:
communications system

The functions of a beam former aer all

of the following except:
1. compress the dynamic range
2. direct, focus, and apodize the 1. Compress the dynamic range.
transmitted beam.
3. determine the PRF
4. compensate for attenuation

All of the following are advantages of

spatial compounding except:
1. echo information is added from
previous frames
1. echo imformation is added from
2. specular surfaces are presented
previous frames.
more completely.
3. speckle reduction
4. surfaces are interogated at more
than one angle.

_________ determines how echo

data stored in memory will appear on Postprocessing
the display.

The ability of a gray scale display to

distinguish between echoes of slightly Contrast resolution
different intensities is called?
The ratio of teh largest to the smallest
amplitude that a system can handle is dynamic range
called:

The ______________ is responsible

for electronic beam scanning,
Beam former
steering, focusing, apodization, and
aperature functions with arrays.

To avoid echo misplacement:

1. a code is added to the pulser
All echoes from one pulse must be
2. multiple receivers are installed.
received before the next pulse is
3. all echoes from one pulse must be
emitted.
received before the next pulse is
emitted.

Contrast resolution depends on: number of bits per pixel.

The __________ is the number of

sonographic images entered into Frame rate
memory per second.

Normally the number of channels

does not exceed the number of elements in the transducer.
_________?

Television monitors produced

30
__________ images per second.

How many horizontal lines are used

to produced a picture on a television 525
monitor?

The ratio of the maximum

The dynamic range of an ultrasound
amplitude to the minimum echo
system is:
strength that can be displayed.

In real-time scanning, the PRF lines, frame

depends on the number of _______
per frame, and the ________ rate.

Which of the following forms of

resolution improved when frame rate
increases?
1. temporal 1. temporal
2. lateral
3. longitudinal
4. spatial

A sonographer adjusts an ultrasound

scan to double the depth of view from
5 cm to 10 cm. What happens to the
frame rate? 2. it is halved
1. it is doubled
2. it is halved
3. it is unchanged

A sonographer adjusts an ultrasound

scan to double the depth of view from
5 cm to 10 cm. If the frame rate
remains the same, which one of the
following also occurs? 2. Narrower sector
1. increased the line density.
2. narrower sector
3.mulit focused imaging turned on.
4. wider sector

A sonographer using a phased array

ultrasound system, turns off the multi-
focus feature. What is most likely
consequence of this action?
1. temporal resolution improves.
1. temporal resolution improves
2. frame rate decreases
3. temporal resolution degrades
4. imaging depth increases
Which of the following is the most
important in determining the frame
rate of the system?
1. transmitter output dynamic range of the receiver
2. tranducer frequency
3. speed of sound in the medium
4. dynamic range of the received

The acoustic power of a sound beam

emitted from a transducer is
Voltage
determined by the _____________ of
the pulser's signal.

Place in order the ultrasound system amplification, compensation,

functions compression, demodulation, reject.

Which electronic component is

scan converter
require for grayscale imaging?

All of the following are disadvantages

of analog scan converter except:
1. image fade
4. low resolution image
2. image flicker
3. deterioration
4. Low resolution image

All of the following are advantages of

PACS systems except:
1. older, archieve studies and reports
an be reviewed easliy 2. images have higher resolution
2. images have hight resolution than than that what appears on the
what appears on the systems display. systems display.
3. data will not deteriorate
4. images can be delivered to distant
location on the imaging netork.

All of the following are true about a 3. High contrast

wide dynamic range except:
1. perferred for imaging abdominal
organs.
2. low contrast
3. high contrast
4. many shades of gray

Which of the following are averaging

techniques of an ultrasound system?
1. parallel processing
persistence
2. pixel interpolation
3. smoothing
4. persistence

Changing the radio frequency signal

into a video signal is known demodulation
as______?

When the signal to noise ratio is low,

the signal is __________ than the
noise, therefore the image quality is
__________?
4. Lower, worse
1. higher, better
2. lower, better
3, higher, worse
4. lower, worse

What are the two key issues

concerning US data?
1. storage and displaying
4. Storage and compression.
2. receiving and storage
3. storage and compression
4. compression and displaying

The shadowing and enhancement are 1. attenuation

description of __________ artifacts?
1. attenuation
2. refraction
3. propagation
4.reverberation

Which of the following is not a form of

reverberation?
1. comet-tail
Speckle
2. mirrior image
3. ring-down
4. speckle

Which artifact displaces structures

axially?

1. Refraction Speed Error

2. Speed Error
3. Reverberation 
4. Grating lobes

Mirror image artifact is a form of:

1. reverberation
2. Grating Lobes 1. reverberation
3. speed error
4. refraction

Weakening of echoes distal to a

strongly attenuation structure 2. Shadowing
describes ________.

Aliasing is the appearacne of Doppler

information on the ________ of the Wrong side
baseline.

Axial resolution is determined by

________ and lateral resolution is SPL and beam width
determined by _______.

Mirror image is ocmmonly seen

Diaphragm
around which structure?
Enhancement of an echo results from
a structure having ______.

1. higher attenuation than surrounding

structures 4. lower attenuation than
2. higher impedance than surrounding surrounding structures
structures
3. lower density than surrounding
structures
4. lower attenuation than structures.

Ring-down artifact is a form of

Reverberation
_______.

How are axial and lateral resolutions

artifactual?
1. Two adjacent structures seen as
one.
2. increase from actual size of 4. All of the above.
structure.
3. Failura to resolve a mass due to
loss of detail.
4. All of the above

Which of the following is not an image

artifact?
1. Incorrect respresentation of motion
in color.
2. Anything not properly indicative of 4. None of the above.
teh structures imaged.
3. Errors in presentation of anatomic
structures.
4. None of the above.

Gray-scale artifacts include all of teh 2. aliasing

following except:
1. mirror image
2. aliasing
3. range ambiguity
4. shadowing

The most common artifact encounter

in Doppler US is ________. 
1. clutter
3. Aliasing
2, range ambiguity
3. aliasing
4. mirror image.

Additional beams emitted from an

array transducer produces what time duplicate structures laterallyy
of artifact?

Which of the following would likely

demonstrate acoustic enhancement?
1. Solid mass
3. gallbladder
2. gallstone
3.. gallbladder
4. complex mass

Aliasing does not occur in

Continuous Wave Doppler
_________.

Beneficial artifacts include all of the

following except:
1. reverberation 1. reverberation
2. Enchancement
3. shadowing

Which artifact duplicates a structure

on the opposite side of a strong Mirror image
reflector?

Refraction may display ______ 4. all of the above.

1 incorrect structure shape.
2. incorrect structure size.
3. incorrect structure location
4. all of the above

A change in sound direction from on

medium into another is known as refraction
__________.

Equally spaced relections with

decrease in amplitude with depth Reverberation
describes _______.

Which of the following would be least

likely to cause acoutic shadowing?
1. Urinary bladder
1. Urinary Bladder
2. uterine fibroid
3. gallstone
4. bowel gas

Mirror imaging of a Doppler spectrum

can ________.

1. appear on teh oposite side of the

baseline.
4. all of the above.
2. Occur when the Doppler angle is
near 90 degrees.
3. occur when the receiver gain is set
too high.
4. all of the above

The assumptions in teh design of

sonographic instruments include all of
the following except?
1. amplitude and intensity are
properties of the structure 4. sound travels at different speeds
2. sound travels in a straight line. in soft tissue.
3. echoes originate from objects
located on teh beam axis.
4. sound travels at different speeds in
soft tissues.
Range ambiguity can occur in which
of the following?
1. Pulsed Doppler instruments
4. All of the above
2. Color doppler instruments
3. Duplex instruments
4. All of the above

True or False
Artifacts can help or hinder proper True
interpretation and diagnosis

True or False
Grating lobes are esential for the
False
proper operation of a linear phased
array transducer.

True or False
Enhancement weakens the amplitued False
of structures idstally.

True or False
Some artifacts are produce by True
improper equipment settings.

True or False
External influences can also produced True
artifiacts.

Temporal average is almost always

CW Doppler because the pulse is
smaller than the pulse average, when
always on.
is this not the case?

What of kind of measurement does

the 1st letter of the 2nd cluster letter Intensity measurement over time.
refer to?

a measurement of the power in the

What is pulse average
pulse by the PD time.
 A specialized transducer to
What is a hydrophone
measure acoustic pressure fields

Measure of how uniform beam is

Beam uniformity factor?
uniformily.

Hydrophone parameters of Bandwidth, sensitivity, directivity

importance? and flatness response.

What is the hydrophone analysis used Safety, quality assureance and the
for? results used in the design process.

What is BUF always greater than or

equal to and what would perfectly BUF is always greater or equal to 1
uniform beam have and BUF equal 1= perfectly uniform.
to?

2 types of hydrophone? Needle and membrane

A predictive value which estimates

What are thermal indices? the Max Temp. rise expected for
current situation.

What present the greatest potential

2D
for mechancial bioeffects?

MI = Peak rerarefraction pressure /

Mechanical Index
sq. root. operating frequency.

What present the greatest potential

2D
for mechancial bioeffects?

What does an increase in mechancial

More likely to cause cavitation.
index indicated?

MI = Peak rerarefraction pressure /

Mechanical Index
sq. root. operating frequency.
 TIS = Soft tissue
3 thermal indices: TIB = Bone
TIC= cranial bone

What does an increase in mechancial

More likely to cause cavitation.
index indicated?

ALARA As Low As reasonably achievable.

TIS = Soft tissue

3 thermal indices: TIB = Bone
TIC= cranial bone

ALARA As Low As reasonably achievable.

What are the 2 principal components

Intensity and scan time duration.
to exposure.

What are the 2 principal components

Intensity and scan time duration.
to exposure.

What is In vivo? testing within the body

What is in vitro? testing outside the body

implies that there is a limited or

boundry above which a specific
Threshold effect
outcome is achieved and below a
different outcome is achieved.

Threshhold A limited or boundry

Increase amplitude shockwaves

and extremely increased
What does the bubble collapse of
tempeture.
cavitation cause
and localized cellular death around
implosion
What is the principal for mechancial
cavitation
bioeffects

What is the peak rerarfractional

the likelihood of implosion.
pressure related to?

-results in implosion mircrobubbles

-can completely fragment or lead to
What happens to unstable cavitation?
a colelction of smaller
microbubbles.

What can happen if micro streaming

It can cause cellular harm.
flow get to strong?

When fluids surrounds the bubbles

What is microstreaming? begin to flow because of bubble
vibration.

Occurs when ocillation of teh

Stable cavitation? microbubbles does not lead to
collapse

Stable
What are 2 types of cavitation?
Transient (Unstable)

-heat absorption
-for each 10 degrees C increased
How are thermal bioefftects caused?
there is a doubling in enzymatic
activity.

Two mechanisims for creating

Thermal and Mechanical
bioeffects?

When is TA and TP measurement

PRP
taken?

Pulse Average Formula? PA= energy (power)/PD

 How a beam is distributed over
What does spatial mean?
space.

What should the ISPTA never

720mW/cm squared
exceed?

-Uses an intense focused light

source to illunimate a transparent
What is the pulse Schliern System? medium.
-Used for beam assesment &
power measurment.

True or False
A peak is always greater than or True
equal to the average

True or False
Temporal average is almost always True
small than the pulse average.

Beam uniformity factor formula BUF = SP/SA

-time exposure
What are thermal bioeffects
-Increased intensities above 40
dependent on
degree C.

What is the best indicator of thermal

SPTA
bioeffects?

What is the best indicator for

SPPA
mechanical bioeffects?

What hold the smallest inetnisty both

SATA
spatially and temporally.

What hold the greatest intensity both SPTP

spatially & temporaly? SPTP>SPPA
Duty Factor equals TA/PA

What are the common ISPTA values

720mW/cm sq.
below?

How do you convert a pulse average

PA x DF=TA
to temporal average.

How do you convert the temporal

PA= TA/DF
average to the pulse average?

How do you convert SA to SP? SA x BUF = SP

What are common ISPPA values

190 w/cm sq.
below?

Name an example of a threshhold

Inertial cavitation
effect?

What are mechanical bioeffects

Short terms events.
related to:

-in vitro isn't complex as human

tissue.
-Different patients habitus.
-Can't test on human tissue
Issues as to why findings towards
-Latency period.
ultrasound guidelines are incomplete?
-Affects could be caused by many
different things.
-built in bias with already sick
patients.

American Institute of Ultrasound in

AIUM is?
Medicine.

A measure of the power in the

What is the pulse average
pulse divided by the PD time.
Diagnostic Ultrasound transducer
generate a ______ of sound into the
body?
1. Pulse 1. pulse
2. wave
3. frequency
4. Doppler

A rectangular image display would be

seen when using a ________
transducer?
3. linear
1. convex
2. sector
3. linear
4. vector

The location of each dot corresponds

to the _______ of the echo to return.
1. strength
3. time
2. pulse 
3. time
4. frequency

The ________ format determines the

starting points and paths for the
individual scan.
1. location 3. scan
2. display
3. scan
4. image

Vertical parallel scan lines are seen

with which transducer format?
1. Curvilinear
2. Linear
2. linear
3. vector
4. convex
A _______ scan is shaped like a slice
of pie?
1. convex
3. sector
2. curivilinear
3. sector
4. linear

Sonography is medicla anatomic

imaging using a ______-______
technique.
4. pulse echo
1. transducer instrument
2. starting point
3.vertical parallel
4. pulse echo

3D imaging requires many adjacent

tissue ____ ____ to build the image.

1. frequency shifts 4. cross sections

2. ultrasound pulses
3. moving objects
4. cross sections

True or False 
One pulse of ultrasound generates a
True
single scan line as it travels through
tissue.

True or False
Pulsed ultrasound transducers can False
only generate ultrasound pulses.

______ is the number of complete 4. Frequency

cycles per second.

1. period
2. propagation speed
3. wavelength
4. Frequency

Sound requires a ________ through

which to travel.
1. wave
4. medium
2. pressure
3. vacuum
4. medium

Stiffer media have ______ sound

speeds.

1. stiffness doesn't change the

propagation speed. 3. higher.
2. lower
3. higher
4. sound cannot propagate through
stiffer media.

Propagations speed is primaritly

determined by the _____ of the
medium.
1. thickness 2. stiffness
2. stiffness
3. density
4. water

Ultrasound pulses contain a range of

frequencies called the _______. 

1. fundamental frequencies 3. bandwidth

2. duty factor
3. bandwidth
4. pulse repetition frequenc.

Regions of lower pressure and 3. rarefactions

density are called
1. compressions
2. longitudinal waves
3. rarefactions
4. acoustic variables.

Period is the _____ it takes for one

_____ to occur.
1. time; wavelength
4. time; cycle
2. frequency; cycle
3. time; pulse
4. time; cycle

_______ is the even and odd

multiples of the fundamental
frequency.
3. Harmonics
1. bandwidth
2. mechancial waves
3. harmonics
4. side lobes

Propagation speed is higher in _____

than soft tissue.
1. bone
1. Bone
2. lung
3. fat 
4. water

The fraction of time that pulsed US is

on is called____?
1. PRP
2. DF
2. DF
3. Period
4. SPL

As sound travels, the reduction in 1. attenuation

amplituded and intensity of the wave
is called?
1. attenuation
2. absorption
3. reflection
4. scattering

The wavelenght of 3 MHz US in soft

tissue is ______ mm.
1. 0.51
1. 0.51
2. 5.1
3. 510
4. 4.6

If the wavelength is .5 mm the spatial

pulse length for a 4 cycle pulse is:
1. 2.0mm
1. 2.0mm
2. .8mm
SPL= wavelength x # of cycles
3. 8.0mm
4. .2mm

If you employ a 7.5 MHz transducer,

what is the wavelength of the sound
in soft tissue. 4. .20mm 
1. 1.1mm
2. .11mm wavelength = c/f
3. 025mm
4. .20mm

20 kHz is equal to _____ Hz.

1. 200,000
2.2000 4. 20,000
3. 200
4. 20,000

What is the attenuation coefficient for 2. 2.5dB/cm

a 5.0 MHz transducer in soft tissue?
1. 10.0 dB/cm attn. coeff. = 1/2 frequency.
2. .1 dB/cm
3. 2.5 dB/cm
4. .25dB/cm

The attenuation of a 5.0 MHz

transducer at a depth of 4cm is
_____dB. 2. 10. dB
1. 1.6 dB
2. 10 dB 1/2 freq. x imaging depth
3. 20 dB
4. 16. dB`

If the beam power increases, intensity

will _______. 3. increase
1. remain unchanged.
2. double power directly porportional to
3. increase intensity
4. decrease

Attenuation increases with increasing

______.
1. pressure
2. frequency
2. frequency
3. power
4. wavelength

For perpendicular incidence, the

0 degrees
incidence angle is ______ degrees.

The PRF is the number of pulses that

Second.
occur in a _______.

Calculate the pulse duration for a 3.

MHz transducer in soft tissue with a 4
cycle pulse. 4. 1.3 micro seconds
1. 1.2 micro second
2. 12. micro second PD = P x # cycles
3. 13. micro second
4. 1.3 micro second
CW Doppler has a DF of _____% 100%

Impedance is equal to density

multiplied by ____
1. wavelength
4. propagational speed
2. path length
3. stiffness
4. propagational speed

Snell's law relates the _____ beam

direction to the incident beam
direction and the speeds of sound in
the two materials forming the
interface? 1. transmitted
1. transmitted
2. rarefaction
3. Scattering
4. reflected

What does 3 dB of attenuation mean?

1. one third of the original intensity.

2. one half of the original intensity? 2. one half of the original intensity.
3. increasing amplitude
4 decibels more than the original
intensity.

The attenuation of a 5 MHz tranducer

in soft tissue would be _____ dB in 2
cm of depth.
3. 5.
1. 20.
1/2 freq. x imaging depth
2. 10.
3. 5.
4. 1.25

The distance to a reflector in soft 3. 195 micro second

tissue is 15 cm. What is th round trip
time to this depth?
1. 11.5 micro second
2. 19.5 micro second RT - 13 x 15
3. 195. micro second
4. 1.15 micro second

In oblique incidence the ____ and

____ angles are always equal.
1. normal ; transmitted
3. Incidence; reflection
2. incidence; transmitted
3. incidence; reflection
4. transmitted; reflected

If an echo returns 104u after a pulse

was emitted by a transducer, at what
depth is the structure that produced
4. 8.cm
the echo located?
1.8mm
104 / 13
2. 8.mm
3. 80.cm
4. 8.cm

Intensity is equal to the power of a

wave dived by the _____ over which
the power is spread. 1. area
1. area
2. diameter Intensity = power/beam area
3. radius
4. width

Amplitude is the maximum variation

that occurs in an acoustic ______.
1. variable
1. Variable
2. propagation speed.
3. Wave
4. medium

____ is the dominant factor Absorption

contributing to attenuation of
ultrasound in soft tissue.

If teh density of medium 2 is 10%

greater than that of medium 1 and the
propagation sppeds are equal, the 20%
impedance of medium 2 is _____
than medium 1.

True or False
Interfaces that scatter ultrasound
energy are usually considered to be True
those that are equal to or smaller than
the wavelength.

True or False
Spaltial pulse length is determined by
False
the length of teh pulse and the
propagation speed

True or False
The shorter the pulse, the broader teh True
bandwidth

Select the sequence that appears in

increasing order.
1. milli, hecto, centi, deci, nano, giga.
2. centi, deci, deca, hecto 2.
3. namo, milli, micro, deci, deca,
mega
4. mega, kilo, hecto, milli, giga

The direction of motion of a particle in

a wave is perpendicular to the
Transverse
direction of propagation of teh wave.
What type of wave is this?

Waves that exist at the same location 2. interference

and time will combine together. What
is this called?
1. rarefaction
2. interference
3. inference
4. mechanical interaction

What term describes the number of

cycles that an acoustic variable
completes in a second?
1. period  2. frequency
2. frequency
3. variable rate
4. PRP

If the power in an US beam is

Halved.
unchanged. While at the same time,
the beam area doubles, then the
i=p/area
beam's intensity.

A _____ impedance of the transducer

element allows more energy to
transmit into the patient.
1. faster 3. lower
2. slower
3. lower
4. higher

At a distance of two near zone

lengths, the beam diameter is ______ equal to
the transducer diameter.

Without matching the transducer has

an impedance of _______ times that 20
of the tissue.

Another name for fresnel zone

near zone
is_____
 reduces the reflection of ultrasound
The matching layer______.
at the element.

What principle states that some

materials produce a voltage when Piezoelelectric Principle
deformed by and applied pressure?

Electric ______ applied to a

Voltages
transducer are covertered to US.

Sequenced, phased, and vector are

types of:
1. operations
1. Operations
2. transducers
3. constructions
4. focusing

Which resolution relates to more

directly to transducers?
1. temporal
4. detail
2. Vectoral
3. contrast
4. detail

US transducers operate according to

Piezoelectric principle
________.

What image format is similar to that

for convex array except that the
Vector Image
transducer contace surface is
smaller?

Linear and convex are types of: Scanning

Three aspects of imaging resolutions

Detail
are contrast, temporal and _______.

Without being matched, the 80%

ultrasound transducer would cause
______ of the energy to be reflected
at the skin border.

Electronic scanning is performed by

_____.
1. mechanical transducers
2. array transducers
2. array transducers
3. sector transducers
4. linear transducers

_____ array is the combination of

linear and phased array operations.
1. phased 
3. Vector
2. convex
3. vector
4. interventional

The impedance of the matching layer

is _______.
1. less than the value between the
transducer element and tissue.
1. less than the value between the
2. equal to the tissue.
transducer element and tissue.
3. greater than the value between the
transducer element and tissue.
4. intermediate value between the
transducer element and tissue.

True or False
Optimum apodization changes True
continually with focusing and steering.

True or False
Lateral resolution consistent at any False
depth.

True or False True

The focal zone is the length of teh
focal region.

True or False
Intensity variations are greatest in the False
far zone.

True or False
Many frequencies are present in short True
pulses.

True or False
As sound travels, the width of the
False
beam remains unchanged due to
focusing.

True or False
Even unfocused transducer have a True
natural focus.

True or False
Elevational resolution can be
True
considered a third aspect of detail
resolution.

True or False
Contrast and temporal resolutions False
relate more directly to the transducer.

True or False
Snell's law can be applied to the
surface of a transducer to determine False
the beam profile of the wave that
emanates from the surface.

True or False
Cermanics used as materials in the
False
production of modern US transducer
element are naturally piezoelectric.
In order to image deep structures
__________. 
1. the TGC needs to be increased
2. the PRF needs to be decreased. 2. the PRF needs to be decreased.
3. the frame rate needs to be
increased.
4. the PRF needs to be increased.

a bit memory has an _______ shade

memory.
1. 4
4. 16
2. 8
3. 256
4. 16

Which resolution depends on

penetration depth, lines per frame and
the number of focuses?
1. axial 2. temporal
2. temporal
3. contrast
4. detail

To receive information for display at a

rapid rate, it is desirable to use a
_______.
1. high operating frequency. 4. high PRF
2. low PRF
3. lower operating frequency
4. high PRF

Old echo information from previous 3. panoramic imaging

frames is retained while the new
echoes are added to the image in the
direction in which the scan plane is
moving is called______.
1. spatial compounding
2. pixel interpolation
3. panoramic imaging
4. harmonic imaging

The frequency of the ______

determines the frequency of the
resulting ultrasound pulse.
1. voltage pulse 1. voltage pulse
2. bandwidth
3. beam former 
4. operating frequency

7.7cm
What is the maximum depth of soft
tissue for a PRF of 10kHz? PRP x ID x 13usec.
PRF 1/PRP = 1/10kHz

If the PRF of a real time system is

2200 Hz, the maximum depth of
4. 35mm
imaging would be ________.
1. 35cm
PRP= ID x 13usec.
2. 30 mm
PRF = 1/PRP
3. 30cm
4. 35mm

The PRF is _______ Hz if there are 1200

30 frames per second dn 40 lines per
frame. 30 x 40 = 1200

True or False
There are both transmission and True
reception channels.

True or False
If the penetration is increased the False
PRF must be increased.

____ is the number of complete 3. Frequency

cycles per second.
1. Period
2. Wavelength
3. Frequency
4. Propagation speed

The following are all ultrasound

frequencies except:
1. 30,000 Hz
3. 15.0 kHz
2. 250.0kHz
3. 15.0 kHz
4. .30 Hz.

If Frequency increases, period will

_____.
1. increase
3. decreased
2. None of the above
3. decrease
4. remain unchanged

Stiffer media have _____ sound

speeds.
1. Stiffness doesn't change the the
propagation speed.
3. higher
2. sound cannot propagate through
stiffer media.
3. higher
4. lower

Frequency _____ wavelength.

1. is equal to
2. has no bearing on 3. is inversely proportional to
3. is inversely proportional to
4. is directly proportional to

Propagation speed is primarily 1. stiffness

determined by the _____ of the
medium.
1. stiffness
2. density
3. thickness
4. water

Ultrasound pulses contain a range of

frequencies called the ______.
1. bandwidth
1. bandwidth
2. duty factor
3. fundamental frequencies
4. pulse repetition frequencies

Pulse repetition frequency is the ____

of pulses occuring in 1 second.
1. speed
2. number
2. number
3. type
4. cycle

Regions of lower pressure and

density are called _____.
1. longitudinal waves
4. rarefactions
2. compressions
3. acoustic variables
4. rarefactions.

_____ is (are) the even and odd

multiples of the fundamental
frequency.
1. side lobes 2. Harmonics
2. Harmonics
3. mechancial waves
4. bandwidth

The rate at which energy passes 1. intensity

through a unit area is called____.
1. Intensity
2. attenuation
3. power
4. amplitude

As sound travels, the reduction in

amplitude and intensity of the wave is
called____.
1. reflection 3. attenuation
2. scattering
3. attenuation
4. absorption

The wavelength of 3 MHz ultrasound

in soft tissue is _____ mm.
2. .51
1. 5.1
2. .51
1.53mm/3 = .51mm
3. 510
4. 4.6

What is the period of a 5.0 MHz in

soft tissue. 2. .2 us
1. 02 us
2. .2 us P= 1/f
3. 3.1 us 1/5.0 = .2 us
4. .2 sec

If you switch to a lower frequency for

penetration, the wavelength of the
transducer will ______?
1. remain unchanged 3. increase
2. double
3. increase
4. decrease

20 kHz is equal to _____ Hz.

1. 200,000
2. 2000 3. 20,000
3. 20,000 
4. 200
What is the attenuation coefficient for
a 5. MHz transducer in soft tissue. 4. 2.5 dB/cm
1. .25 dB/cm
2. 10. dB/cm
3. .1 dB/cm 1/2 frequency
4. 2.5 dB/cm

The attenuation of a 5.0MHz

transducer at a depth of 4cm is _____
dB. 4. 10.0 dB
1. 20. dB
2. 16.0 dB 1/2 frequency x imageing depth
3. 1.6 dB
4. 10. dB

If the beam power increases, intensity

will ____. 
4. increased.
1. double
2. remain unchanged
Intensity = power/beam area
3. decreased
4. increased

Attenuation increased with increasing

____.
1. power
4. frequency
2. wavelenght
3. pressure
4. frequency

Concept questions
Health Science Physics - Exam 6 - Q55
 A  B  C  D  E
See the solution   
Health Science Physics - Exam 2 - Q53

A  B  C  D  E
See the solution   
Health Science Physics - Exam 2 - Q54
 A  B  C  D  E
See the solution   

Larmor Frequency
Health Science Physics - Exam 5 - Q55
CT does use x-rays and the way x-rays interact with tissue is simple as far as imaging is
concerned. x-rays pass through tissue and get attenuated as x-ray photons are scattered by
tissue atoms. The denser the tissue along the x-ray path, the more photons are scattered. So,
we send the x-ray through the sample and measure what comes out on the other side. The
attenuation measured at the receiver is the total attenuation along the entire line of the x-
ray beam.

Let's say you're getting a regular x-ray, and not a CT, and you're standing up straight, with
your body facing the x-ray source. Let's call the x-ray beam axis the z axis. The image we
obtain will be a value for each point on the x-y plane opposite your body, and this value is
directly proportional to the sum of tissue density along z. We say that's a projection of your
body density map onto the x-y plane where the z-axis gets compressed/summed.

So, what makes a CT different from an x-ray? Imagine keeping that x-ray source at a
constant distance from the center of your body and rotating it around your body slightly to
obtain another x-ray image from another angle or another perspective. Imagine we keep
doing this around 180 degrees. The result is many x-ray images. How do we combine them
to obtain a CT scan? We then take these projections, smear them along their respective z
axis (axis perpendicular to the projection plane), and then add the smeared images. It looks
like this:

Here's a little bit more of an explanation, via another YouTube video:

MRI on the other hand works on a different principle: the basic idea is that we image
hydrogen in the body, which is amply present in water, and also in all the organic molecules
(fats, proteins, etc.). The hydrogen nucleus (a proton), aligns on average with the magnetic
field (which we supply - the MRI scanner consists of a huge magnet). Now, because there
are so many protons in the volume we measure, the ensemble average behaves classically.
So, we don't need to consider quantum mechanics for most imaging applications. Classically
speaking, we tip the proton magnetic moment away from its alignment using
radiofrequency energy, and the proton magnetic moment then precesses at its resonance
frequency, which is directly proportional to the field strength, emitting a signal that we
measure. In doing so, it loses energy, interacts with its environment and gives off a
radiofrequency signal. How the proton magnetic moments precess, the spread in their
precession frequency, and how long it takes them to go back to equilibrium, all these are
affected by various tissue properties.

We only measure from one antenna, and so the signal from the whole section being scanned
is added together into one measured signal; but how do we resolve which part of the signal
comes from which spatial location? Recall that we said that the resonance frequency of
precession of magnetic moments is proportional to the magnetic field we apply. So, we use
gradients (linear variations) in the field to vary the resonance frequency across the sample.
That way, we can resolve where each frequency is coming from. It's a bit more involved than
this, but this is the simple explanation.

This article explains MRI pretty well:  Fundamental Physics of MR ImagingThe same link
lets you download a PDF version (which I prefer for its better placement of the
figures): Page on rsna.org

If you like videos, this video series is helpful. You'd likely need to watch a few of them to
start to get a good feel:

Also, this introductory free online book/tutorial by Prof. Joseph Hornak is a great intro for
someone who wishes to get better acquainted with MRI: The Basics of MRI . If you really
want to learn how it works, I'd start with this tutorial and then move on to one of the more
advanced textbooks (Magnetic Resonance Imaging: Physical Principles and Sequence
Design by Haacke et al. being the main one).

So, from this, you should be able to note one big difference between MRI and CT. CT only
gives you one parameter: density. MRI tells you a lot more. It's looking at hydrogen in
different contexts and different tissue environments, and we have multiple ways to probe
tissue properties, hydrogen density being only one of at least a half dozen properties you can
look at, and some of these properties give you interesting multidimensional information