SỞ GD&ĐT NINH BÌNH ĐỀ THI CHỌN HỌC SINH GIỎI THPT CẤP TỈNH

Năm học: 2019–2020

ĐỀ THI CHÍNH THỨC MÔN: TIẾNG ANH
Ngày thi 12/9/2019
(Thời gian 180 phút, không kể thời gian phát đề)
Đề thi gồm 4 phần, trong 08 trang
HỌ TÊN, CHỮ KÍ CỦA SỐ PHÁCH
ĐIỂM BÀI THI
GIÁM KHẢO (Do CTHĐ chấm ghi)
Bằng số:..................../18 điểm Giám khảo 1:..........................................
Bằng chữ:................................ Giám khảo 2:..........................................
(Thí sinh làm bài trực tiếp vào các tờ đề thi)
PART A: LISTENING (4.0 points)
- Bài nghe gồm 3 phần, thí sinh được nghe 2 lần.
- Hướng dẫn làm bài chi tiết cho thí sinh bằng tiếng Anh đã có trong từng phần nghe.
- Mở đầu và kết thúc bài nghe có tín hiệu nhạc.
I. Listen to a student called Jon giving a class presentation about the llama, an animal that comes
originally from South America. For questions 1-8, complete the sentences. Write NO MORE
THAN TWO WORDS for each answer. Write your answers in the corresponding numbered
boxes. (1.6 point)
1. Jon says that llamas and alpacas are generally distinguished by the shape of the _________.
2. Jon discovered that the wild ancestor of the llama was mostly _________in colour.
3. In ancient times, _________llamas most often worked in mining areas.
4. Jon says that the word _________is most often used by humans when talking about llamas.
5. Jon found out that well-trained llamas only spit and kick if they feel _________.
6. Jon describes the noise made by llamas for usual communication as a _________.
7. Jon says that llama fleece is popular with weavers because it contains no _________.
8. The commonest products made from llama hair are _________.
Your answers:
1. 2. 3. 4.
5. 6. 7. 8.
II. Listen to a radio interview in which a young man called Toby Burrow is talking about a year
he spent doing voluntary work in Madagascar. For questions 9-14, choose the correct answer A,
B, C or D. Write your answers in the corresponding numbered boxes. (1.2 point)
9. Why did Toby choose to work in Madagascar?
A. He thought it would offer interesting travel experiences.
B. He knew other students who had been there before him.
C. He believed it would offer challenging opportunities.
D. He had been influenced by a television programme.
10. How did Toby’s mother respond when he announced he was going to Madagascar?
A. She tried to dissuade him from taking the job.
B. She told him about her experience of working abroad.
C. She insisted he take measures to protect his health.
D. She did some research on the country.
11. What aspect of life in the village did Toby originally find hard?
A. the constant noise B. the lack of privacy
C. the basic facilities D. the sense of isolation
12. How did Toby feel after the incident with his wallet?
A. He wanted to quit his job and go home.
B. He thought it was a shame that not all people were honest.
C. He no longer trusted the people he worked with.
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 D. He believed he was partly responsible for the situation.
13. What does Toby say about his return to the UK?
A. He was eager to discuss his adventures with friends.
B. He felt relieved to be back in familiar surroundings.
C. He was keen to return to Madagascar.
D. He felt critical of his own country.
14. What advice does Toby offer students who are about to graduate?
A. Have the right attitude towards people you are helping.
B. Give up your voluntary work if you are unhappy.
C. Avoid just going abroad for your own pleasure.
D. Travel with someone you already know well.
Your answers:
9. 10. 11. 12. 13. 14.
III. Listen to a conversation and decide whether the following statements are true (T) or false
(F). Write your answers in the corresponding numbered boxes. (1.2 points)
15. Many famous and successful teenagers have used new technology.
16. Justin Bieber started off sending videos to talent scouts.
17. Some people say Justin Bieber is one of the most influential persons in the world because he is
Barack Obama’s friend.
18. A negative consequence of fame for Justin Bieber is he has very little privacy.
19. Tavi Gevinson started a fashion blog when she was 12 years old.
20. Tavi employs writers and photographers of all ages.
Your answers:
15. 16. 17. 18. 19. 20.

PART B: LEXICO – GRAMMAR (3.0 points)

I. Choose the correct answer (A, B, C or D) to complete each of the sentences. Write your
answers in the corresponding numbered boxes. (1.0 point)
1. I couldn’t tell what time it was because the workmen had removed the________ of the clock.
A. hands B. pointers C. arms D. fingers
2. Can I ________ your brains for a moment? I can’t do this crossword by myself.
A. have B. pick C. mind D. use
3. She travelled the world in ________ of her dreams.
A. pursuit B. finding C. chase D. trail
4. The reason why he gets into trouble so often is that he has a _______ temper.
A. fast B. rapid C. speedy D. quick
5. ________ your time! We don’t have to be there until after 8 o’clock.
A. Pass B. Have C. Take D. Run
6. The company has just got a big order and the workers are working round the ________.
A. day B. clock C. hour D. night
7. Such ________ remarks can incite the masses to rebel especially in times of high unemployment
and widespread hardship.
A. flammable B. inflammatory C. ardent D. spirited
8. The swimmer ________ himself in water to test how long he can hold his breath.
A. emerged B. immersed C. submerged D. drenched
9. Marrying into such a big family had always been________ his wildest dreams.
A. under B. above C. over D. beyond
10. Unfortunately, somebody spoke to a reporter and the whole thing________.
A. poured forth B. spilled over C. leaked out D. splashed down

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Your answers:
1. 2. 3. 4. 5.
6. 7. 8. 9. 10.
II. Give the correct form of the words in brackets. Write your answers in the corresponding
numbered boxes. (1.0 point)
Vitamins, taken in tiny doses, are a major group of organic compounds that regulate the
mechanisms by which the body converts food into energy. They should not be confused with minerals,
which are ________ (1. ORGANIC) in their makeup. Although in general the naming of vitamins
followed the ________ (2. ALPHABET) order of their ________ (3. IDENTIFY), the nomenclature
of individual substances may appear to be somewhat random and ________ (4. ORGANIZE). Among
the 13 vitamins known today, five are produced in the body. Because the body produces sufficient
quantities of some but not all vitamins, they must be supplemented in the daily diet. Although each
vitamin has its specific ________ (5. DESIGNATE) and cannot be replaced by another compound, a
lack of one vitamin can interfere with the processing of another. When a lack of even one vitamin in a
diet is continual, a vitamin deficiency may result.
The best way for an individual to ensure a necessary supply of vitamins is to maintain a
balanced diet that includes a variety of foods and provides adequate quantities of all the compounds.
Some people take vitamin supplements, ________ (6. PREDOMINATE) in the form of tablets. The
vitamins in such supplements are ________ (7. EQUAL) to those in food, but an adult who maintains
a balanced diet does not need a daily supplement. The ingestion of supplements is recommended only
to correct an existing deficiency due to ________ (8. BALANCE) diet, to provide vitamins known to
be lacking in a restricted diet, or to act as a ________ (9. THERAPY) measure in medical treatment.
________ (10. SPECIFY), caution must be exercised with fat-soluble substances, such as vitamins A
and D, because, taken in gigantic doses, they may present a serious health hazard over a period of time.
Your answers:
1. 2. 3. 4. 5.
6. 7. 8. 9. 10.
III. The passage below contains 10 mistakes. Underline the mistakes and write corrections in the
corresponding numbered boxes. (1.0 point)
1 In primary schools, a child is in a comparative simple setting and most of the time forms
2 a relationship with one familiar teacher. On enter secondary school, a new world opens
3 up and frequently it is a much more difficult world. The pupil soon learns to be least
4 free in the way he speaks to teachers and even to his fellow pupils. He begins to lose the
5 free and easy ways of the primary school, so he senses the need for a more cautious
6 approach in the secondary school where there are older pupils. Secondary staff and
7 pupils suffers from the pressure of academic work and seem to have less time to stop
8 and talk. Teachers with specialist roles may see hundred of children in a week, and a
9 pupil may be able to form relationships with very little of the staff. He has to decide
10 which adults are approachable; good schools will make clear to every young person
11 from the first year what person help is available – but weather the reality of life in the
12 institution actually encourages requests for help is other matter.

Your answers:
Line Mistake Correction Line Mistake Correction
1. 6.
2. 7.
3. 8.
4. 9.
5. 10.
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PART C: READING COMPREHENSION (6.0 points)
I. Fill each of the numbered blanks in the passage with ONE suitable word. Write your answers
in the corresponding numbered boxes. (2.0 points)
HOME-ALONE FATHERS
The number of (1) ______ fathers has increased considerably in recent years in Britain. We
spoke to one such dad, Steve Baker, about how he copes with it all. Steve, 43 years old, has brought up
his two teenage sons since he and his wife (2) ______ up two years ago. “It’s (3) ______ more difficult
for a man than it is for a woman,” says Steve. “It’s a full-time job, whoever you are. Fortunately, my
employers were very (4) ______ in the first new months and they let me take time off work to get
myself organized.
As far as the housework is (5) ______, I don’t mind cooking, as I’ve always been good at that;
it’s the ironing I can’t (6) ______! Generally (7) ______, the boys and I get on very well together but
of course, sometimes we have rows. That’s when I really miss having someone there with me to help
me (8) ______. I have had a couple of relationships in the last two years but they haven’t (9) ______
out. That has a lot to do with the fact that I put my kids before anyone else, I take fatherhood very (10)
______.”
Your answers:
1. 2. 3. 4. 5.
6. 7. 8. 9. 10.
II. Read the following passage and then choose the best answer A, B, C or D to the following
questions. Write your answers in the corresponding numbered boxes. (2.0 points)
Many prehistoric people subsisted as hunters and gatherers. Undoubtedly, game animals,
including some very large species, provided major components of human diets.
An important controversy centering on the question of human effects on prehistoric wildlife
concerns the sudden disappearance of so many species of large animals at or near the end of the
Pleistocene epoch. Most paleontologists suspect that abrupt changes in climate led to the mass
extinctions. Others, however, have concluded that prehistoric people drove many of those species to
extinction through overhunting. In their “Pleistocene overkill hypothesis,” they cite what seems to be a
remarkable coincidence between the arrival of prehistoric peoples in North and South America and the
time during which mammoths, giant round sloths, the giant bison, and numerous other large mammals
became extinct.
Perhaps the human species was driving others to extinction long before the dawn of history.
Hunter-gatherers may have contributed to Pleistocene extinctions in more indirect ways. Besides
overhunting, at least three other kinds of effects have been suggested: direct competition, imbalances
between competing species of game animals, and early agricultural practices. Direct competition may
have brought about the demise of large carnivores such as the saber-toothed cats. These animals
simply may have been unable to compete with the increasingly sophisticated hunting skills of
Pleistocene people.
Human hunters could have caused imbalances among game animals, leading to the extinctions
of species less able to compete. When other predators such as the gray wolf prey upon large mammals,
they generally take high proportions of each year’s crop of young. Some human hunters, in contrast,
tend to take the various age groups of large animals in proportion to their actual occurrence. If such
hunters first competed with the larger predators and then replaced them, they may have allowed
younger to survive each year, gradually increasing the populations of favored species. As these
populations expanded, they in turn may have competed with other game species for the same
environmental niche, forcing the less hunted species into extinction. This theory, suggests that human
hunters played an indirect role in Pleistocene extinctions by hunting one species more than another.
1. What does the passage mainly discuss?
A. The effects of human activities on prehistoric wildlife.
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 B. The origins of the hunter-gatherer way of life.
C. The diets of large animals of the Pleistocene epoch.
D. The change in climate at the end of the Pleistocene epoch.
2. The word “Undoubtedly” in paragraph 1 is closest in meaning to _______.
A. occasionally B. unexpectedly C. previously D. certainly
3. The word “sophisticated” in paragraph 3 is closest in meaning to _______.
A. simple B. advanced C. specific D. difficult
4. Which of the following is mentioned as supporting the Pleistocene overkill hypothesis?
A. Many of the animals that became extinct were quite large.
B. Humans migrated into certain regions around the time that major extinctions occurred.
C. There is evidence that new species were arriving in areas inhabited by humans.
D. Humans began to keep and care for certain animals.
5. The word “demise” in paragraph 3 is closest in meaning to _______.
A. emergence B. re-emergence C. appearance D. death
6. The author mentions saber-toothed cats in paragraph 3 as an example of a carnivore that _______.
A. became extinct before the Pleistocene epoch.
B. was unusually large for its time.
C. was not able to compete with humans.
D. caused the extinction of several species.
7. The word “they” in paragraph 4 refers to_______.
A. human hunters B. game animals C. other predators D. large mammals
8. According to the passage, what is one difference between the hunting done by some humans and the
hunting done by gray wolves?
A. Some humans hunt more frequently than gray wolves.
B. Gray wolves hunt in larger groups than some humans.
C. Some humans can hunt larger animals than gray wolves can hunt.
D. Some humans prey on animals of all ages, but gray wolves concentrate their efforts on young
animals.
9. The word “favored” in paragraph 4 is closest in meaning to _______.
A. large B. escaping C. preferred D. local
10. According to the passage, the imbalances discussed in paragraph 3 may have resulted from _______.
A. the effect of climate changes on large game animals.
B. large animals moving into a new environment.
C. humans hunting some species more than others.
D. older animals not being able to compete with younger animals.
Your answers:
1. 2. 3. 4. 5.
6. 7. 8. 9. 10.
III. Read the following passage and answer the following questions. Write your answers in the
corresponding space provided and numbered boxes. (2.0 points)
THE MEANING AND POWER OF SMELL
The sense of smell, or olfaction, is powerful. Odours affect us on a physical, psychological and
social level. For the most past, however, we breathe in the aromas which surround us without being
consciously aware of their importance to us. It is only when the faculty of smell is impaired for some
reason that we begin to realise the essential role the sense of smell plays in our sense of well-being.

A A survey conducted by Anthony Synott at Montreal’s Concordia University asked participants

to comment on how important smell was to them in their lives. It became apparent that smell
can evoke strong emotional responses. A scent associated with a good experience can bring a
rush of joy, while a foul odour or one associated with a bad memory may make us grimace with
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 disgust. Respondents to the survey noted that many of their olfactory likes and dislikes were
based on emotional associations. Such associations can be powerful enough so that odours that
we would generally label unpleasant become agreeable, and those that we would generally
consider fragrant become disagreeable for particular individuals. The perception of smell,
therefore, consists not only of the sensation of the odours themselves, but of the experiences and
emotions associated with them.

B Odours are also essential cues in social bonding. One respondent to the survey believed that
there is no true emotional bonding without touching and smelling a loved one. In fact, infants
recognize the odours of their mothers soon after birth and adults can often identify their children
or spouses by scent. In one well-known test, women and men were able to distinguish by smell
alone clothing worn by their marriage partners from similar clothing worn by other people. Most
of the subjects would probably never have given much thought to odour as a cue for identifying
family members before being involved in the test, but as the experiment revealed, even when not
consciously considered, smells register.

C In spite of its importance to our emotional and sensory lives, smell is probably the most
undervalued sense in many cultures. The reason often given for the low regard in which smell is
held is that, in comparison with its importance among animals, the human sense of smell is
feeble and undeveloped. While it is true that certain animals, they are still remarkably acute. Our
noses are able to recognise thousands of smells, and to perceive odours which are present only
in extremely small quantities.

D Smell, however, is a highly elusive phenomenon. Odours, unlike colours, for instance, cannot be
named in many languages because the specific vocabulary simply doesn’t exist. ‘It smells like
…,’ we have to say when describing an odour, struggling to express our olfactory experience.
Nor can odours be reordered: there is no effective way to either capture or store them over time.
In the realm of olfaction, we must make do with descriptions and recollections. This has
implications for olfactory research.

E Most of the research on smell undertaken to date has been of a physical scientific nature.
Significant advances have been made in the understanding of the biological and chemical nature
of olfaction, but many fundamental questions have yet to be answered. Researchers have still to
decide whether smell is one sense or two-one responding to odours proper and the other
registering odourless chemicals in the air. Other unanswered questions are whether the nose is
the only part of the body affected by odours, and how smells can be measured objectively given
the non-physical components. Questions like these mean that interest in the psychology of smell
is inevitably set to play an increasingly important role for researchers.

F However, smell is not simply a biological and psychological phenomenon. Smell is cultural,
hence it is a social and historical phenomenon. Odours are invested with cultural values: smells
that are considered to be offensive in some cultures may be perfectly acceptable in others.
Therefore, our sense of smell is a means of, and model for, increasing with the world. Different
smells can provide us with intimate and emotionally charged experiences and the value that we
attach to these experiences is interiorised by the members of society in a deeply personal way.
Importantly, our commonly held feelings about smells can help distinguish us from other
cultures. The study of the cultural history of smell is, therefore, in a very real sense, an
investigation into the essence of human culture.
For questions 1-6, choose the correct heading for paragraphs A-F. There are TWO extra
headings that you do not need to use. Write your answers in the corresponding space provided.

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 List of headings
i. The difficulties if talking about smells.
ii. The role of smell in personal relationships.
iii. Future studies into smell.
iv. The relationship between the colour and mental health.
v. The interpretation of smells as a factor in defining groups.
vi. Why our sense of smell is not appreciated.
vii. Why our sense of smell is highly appreciated.
viii. The relationship between smell and feelings.
Your answers:
1. Paragraph A: ___________ 2. Paragraph B: ___________ 3. Paragraph C: ___________
4. Paragraph D: ___________ 5. Paragraph E: ___________ 6. Paragraph F: ___________
For questions 7-10, choose ONE WORD ONLY from the passage for each answer. Write your
answers in the corresponding numbered boxes.
7. Tests have shown that odours can help people recognise the _______ belonging to their husbands
and wives.
8. Certain linguistic groups may have difficulty describing smell because they lack the appropriate
_______.
9. The sense of smell may involve response to_______which do not smell, in addition to obvious
odours.
10. Odours regarded as unpleasant in certain_______ are not regarded as unpleasant in others.
Your answers:
7. 8. 9. 10.

PART D: WRITING (5.0 points)

I. In about 250-300 words, write an essay on the following topic. (3.0 points)
Some people say that with the considerable benefits computers and the Internet bring
about, they can completely replace the traditional role of a teacher. To what extent do you agree
or disagree? Give reasons for your answer and include any relevant examples from your own
knowledge or experience.
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II. The chart below shows the number of houses built per year in two cities, Derby and
Nottingham, between 2000 and 2009. Write a report of about 150 words describing the
information in the chart. (2.0 points)

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The end