Wbjee 2011 Sol

Q.
N
63487 67186 61975 65872
Q.N
81937 83746 86743 84961
Q.N
43957 48952 42796 47638
01 C C C D 01 C C C D 01 A D B D
02 B B B D 02 C A B B 02 B A D A
03 B B D B 03 C B C D 03 B B B B
04 C C C A 04 C B C D 04 B D C D
05 A A A B 05 B C D A 05 B C A C
06 B B B C 06 D A C B 06 A A B A
07 D D C D 07 B A B A 07 D B C B
08 B B A A 08 C C D D 08 D B D B
09 B B C B 09 D B C A 09 B D C D
10 C C B B 10 D B B C 10 D C C C
11 A A C B 11 C C C C 11 B A A A
12 C C B C 12 B C C B 12 A C A C
13 D D D C 13 C C C C 13 D A D A
14 D D B B 14 C C C C 14 B C C C
15 A A A A 15 D B B C 15 A A B A
16 B B A C 16 C D D C 16 B B D B
17 B B C A 17 B B B B 17 D B C B
18 C C C A 18 D C C D 18 B C B C
19 C C B A 19 C D D C 19 B D D D
20 A A B D 20 B D D B 20 B B A B
21 D C C C 21 D C D C 21 B A D B
22 D B B B 22 B B B A 22 D B A D
23 B D B D 23 D C D B 23 B B B B
24 A C C C 24 D C D B 24 C B D C
25 B A A A 25 A D A C 25 A B C A
26 C B B B 26 B C B A 26 B A A B
27 D C D C 27 A B A A 27 C D B C
28 A A B A 28 D D D C 28 D D B D
29 B C B C 29 A C A B 29 C B D C
30 B B C B 30 C B C B 30 C D C C
31 B C A C 31 C D C C 31 A B A A
32 C B C B 32 A B A C 32 A A C A
33 C D D D 33 B D B C 33 D D A D
34 B B D B 34 B D B C 34 C B C C
35 A A A A 35 C A C B 35 B A A B
36 C A B A 36 A B A D 36 D B B D
37 A C B C 37 A A A B 37 C D B C
38 A C C C 38 C D C C 38 B B C B
39 A B C B 39 B A B D 39 D B D D
40 D B A B 40 B C B D 40 A B B A
41 C D D A 41 A B B B 41 A B A A
42 B D D D 42 B A A B 42 A D B B
43 D B B A 43 B B B C 43 A B B B
44 C A A B 44 D D D B 44 A C B B
45 A B B A 45 C D D D 45 A A B B
46 B C C A 46 C C C B 46 B B A A
47 C D D D 47 B D D D 47 B C D D
48 A A A B 48 D C C D 48 C D D D
49 C B B C 49 B B B C 49 C C B B
50 B B B A 50 A B B B 50 C C D D
51 C B B B 51 C A C C 51 C A B B
52 B C C B 52 A B A A 52 C A A A
53 D C C A 53 B B B B 53 C D D D
54 B B B C 54 B D B B 54 D C B B
55 A A A D 55 D C D D 55 D B A A
56 A C C A 56 C C C C 56 B D B B
57 C A A A 57 A B A A 57 C C D D
58 C A A C 58 C D C C 58 D B B B
59 B A A C 59 A B A A 59 A D B B
60 B D D C 60 B A B B 60 B A B B
61 A A A C 61 B C B B 61 D A A A
62 D D D B 62 B A B A 62 A A A A
63 A A A B 63 C B C B 63 B A A A
64 B B B C 64 B B B D 64 D A A A
65 A A A A 65 D D D D 65 C A A A
66 A A A B 66 B C B C 66 A B B B
67 D D D D 67 D A D D 67 B B B B
68 B B B B 68 D C D C 68 B C C C
69 C C C B 69 C A C B 69 D C C C
70 A A A C 70 B B B B 70 C C C C
71 B B B A 71 B B A A 71 A C C C
72 B B B C 72 A B B B 72 C C C C
73 A A A D 73 B C B B 73 A C C C
74 C C C D 74 D B D D 74 C D D D
75 D D D A 75 D D C C 75 A D D D
76 A A A B 76 C B C C 76 B B B B
77 A A A B 77 D D B B 77 B C C C
78 C C C C 78 C D D D 78 C D D D
79 C C C C 79 B C B B 79 D A A A
80 C C C A 80 B B A A 80 B B B B
TOP RANKERS ALWAYS FROM AAKASH
WB-JEE - 2011
Answers by
Aakash Institute, Kolkata Centre
MATHEMATICS P H Y & C H E M B I O L O G Y
1. The charge on the capacitor of capacitance C shown in the figure below will be
C
E
r
R
2
R
1
I
(A) CE (B)
1
1
CE R
R r +
(C)
2
2
CE R
R r +
(D)
1
2
CE R
R r +
Ans : (C)
Hints :
2
E
I
R r
=
+
(Since finally no current flows through capacitor)
Potential difference across R
2
,
2
2
2
ER
V IR
R r
= =
+
Charge on the capacitor
2
2
CER
Q CV
R r
= =
+
2. The resistance across A and B in the figure below will be
R R R
A B
(A) 3 R (B) R (C)
R
3
(D) None of these
Ans : (C)
Hints : Resistance are in parallel
R
Req
3
=
3. Five equal resistance, each of resistance R, are connected as shown in figure below. A battery of V volt is connected between
A and B. The current flowing in FC will be
81937
[Q. Booklet Number]
ANSWERS & HINTS
for
WBJEE - 2011
by Aakash Institute & Aakash IIT-JEE
MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS
SUB : PHYSICS & CHEMISTRY
Regd. Office : Aakash Tower, Plot No. 4, Sector-11, Dwarka, New Delhi-110075
Ph. : 011-47623456 Fax : 011-47623472
WBJEE - 2011 (Answers & Hints ) Physics & Chemistry
Aakash Institute - Regd. Office: Aakash Tower, Plot No.-4, Sector-11, Dwarka, New Delhi-110075 Ph.: 011-47623456 Fax : 011-47623472
(1)
WBJEE - 2011 (Hints & Solutions) Physics & Chemistry
(2)
R
R
R
R
B
R
F
C
A
E
(A)
3V
R
(B)
V
R
(C)
V
2R
(D)
2V
R
Ans : (C)
Hints :
A
V
F
R R
R R
R
B
E
C
V I V
I Current in FC
R 2 2R
= = =
4. Two cells with the same e.m.f. E and different internal resistances r
1
and r
2
are connected in series to an external resistance R.
The value of R so that the potential difference across the first cell be zero is
(A)
1 2
r r (B) r
1
+ r
2
(C) r
1
r
2
(D)
1 2
r r
2
+
Ans : (C)
Hints :
I
E E
r
1
r
2
R
1 2
2E
I
R r r
=
+ +
Potential difference across first cell
1
V E Ir 0 = =
1
1 2
2Er
E 0
R r r
=
+ +
1 2 1
1 2
R r r 2r
0
R r r
] + +
=
]
+ +
]
2 1
R r r 0 + =
1 2
R r r =
5. Current through ABC and A'B'C' is I. What is the magnetic field at
A B
C
I
I
I
I
B'
A'
C'
P
P? BP = PB' = r (Here C'B' PBC are collinear)
(A)
1 2I
B
4 r
=
t
(B)
o
2I
B
4 r
u |
=
|
t
\ .
(C)
o
I
B
4 r
u |
=
|
t
\ .
(D) Zero
Ans : (B)
(3)
Hints :
A B
C
I
I
I
B'
A'
C'
r
r
P
o
I
B 2
4 r
u ]
=
]
t
]
6. The magnetic field at the point of intersection of diagonals of a square wire loop of side L carrying a current I is
(A)
o
I
L
u
t
(B)
o
2 I
L
u
t
(C)
o
2 I
L
u
t
(D)
o
2 2 I
L
u
t
Ans : (D)
Hints :

o o o
I
B 4 sin 45 sin 45
L 4
2
]
]
u
]
= +
t ] |
| ]
\ .
]
L
I
45
o
L
2
o
2I 2
.
L
2
u
=
t
;
o
2 2I
B
L
u
=
t
7. In an inelastic collision an electron excites a hydrogen atom from its ground state to a M-shell state. A second electron collides
instantaneously with the excited hydrogen atom in the M-State and ionizes it. At least how much energy the second electron
transfers to the atom in the M-state?
(A) +3.4 eV (B) +1.51 eV (C) 3.4 eV (D) 1.51 eV
Ans : (B)
Hints :

m
2
13.6
E 1.51
3
= =
Minimum energy required by electron should be +1.51 eV
8. A radioactive nucleus of mass number A, initially at rest, emits an o-particle with a speed v . The recoil speed of the daughter
nucleus will be
(A)
2
A 4
v
(B)
2
A 4
v
+
(C)
4
A 4
v
(D)
4
A 4
v
+
Ans : (C)
Hints : From conservation of momentum 4.V = (A4)V
1
;
1
4V
V
A 4
=
9. In the nuclear reaction

14 14 1
7 6 1
N X C H + + the X will be
(A)
0
1
e
(B)
1
1
H (C)
2
1
H (D)
1
0
n
Ans : (D)
(4)
Hints :
1
0
X n
10. Which type of Gate the following truth table represents?
Input Output
A B Q
0
0
1
1
0
1
0
1
1
1
1
0
(A) NOT (B) AND (C) OR (D) NAND
Ans : (D)
Hints :
11. Given

A 2i 3j = +
and

B i j = +
. The component of vector A
along vector B
is
(A)
1
2
(B)
3
2
(C)
5
2
(D)
7
2
Ans : (C)
Hints : Component of A
along B
=
B
A
| B|
.
Component of A
along B
=
5
2
12. A cubical vessel of height 1 m is full of water. What is the amount of work done in pumping water out of the vessel? (Take g =
10 m s
2
)
(A) 1250 J (B) 5000 J (C) 1000 J (D) 2500 J
Ans : (B)
Hints :
cm
1
2
m
3 3
V 1m = =
m 1 1000 1000kg = = ;
1
W mgh 1000 10 5000J
2
= = =
13. A stone of relative density K is released from rest on the surface of a lake. If viscous effects are ignored, the stone sinks in water
with an acceleration of
(A) g(1K) (B) g(1+K) (C)
1
g 1
K
|
|
\ .
(D)
1
g 1
K
|
+
|
\ .
(5)
Ans : (C)
Hints :
v g p
v g o
F v g v g v g 1
p |
= o p = o
|
o
\ .
1
mg 1
k
|
=
|
\ .
1
a g 1
k
|
=
|
\ .
14. If a person can throw a stone to maximum height of h metre vertically, then the maximum distance through which it can be
thrown horizontally by the same person is
(A)
h
2
(B) h (C) 2h (D) 3h
Ans : (C)
Hints :
h
u
2
2
u
h u 2gh
2g
= =
Maximum horizontal distance

2
o
max
u
R when 45
g
= u =
max
R 2h =
15. A body of mass 6 kg is acted upon by a force which causes a displacement in it given by
2
t
x
4
= metre where t is the time in
second. The work done by the force in 2 seconds is
(A) 12 J (B) 9J (C) 6 J (D) 3 J
Ans : (D)
Hints :
2
t
m 6kg x
4
= =

dx t 2
v v 0 0; v 2 1
dt 2 2
= = = = =

2
i
1
K m 0 0
2
= = ;
2
f
1 1
K m 1 6 1 3
2 2
= = = ;
f i
W K K 3 0 3J = = =
(6)
16. A box is moved along a straight line by a machine delivering constant power. The distance moved by the body in time t is
proportional to
(A)
1
2
t
(B)
3
4
t
(C)
3
2
t
(D) t
2
Ans : (C)
Hints :
dv
P Fv m. .v
dt
= =
vdv P/mdt =

;
2
v Pt
2 m
=
1
2
2p
V t
m
= ;
1
2
dx 2p
t
dt m
=
1
2
2p
dx t dt
m
=

;
3
3
2
2
2p t 2 2p
x t
3
m 3 m
2
= =
3
2
x t o
17. A particle is moving with a constant speed v in a circle. What is the magnitude of average velocity after half rotation?
(A)
2v
(B)
2
v
t
(C)
2
v
(D)
2
v
t
Ans : (B)
Hints :
r r
v
v
t=t
o
t=0
2 r
T
V
t
=
; o
T r
t
2 V
t
= =
; av
2r 2v
V
r
v
= =
t
t
18. A cricket ball of mass 0.25 kg with speed 10 m/s collides with a bat and returns with same speed within 0.01 S. The force acted
on bat is
(A) 25 N (B) 50 N (C) 250 N (D) 500 N
Ans : (D)
Hints :
kgm
P 2mV 2 0.25 10 5
s
A = = =
P 5
F 500N
t 0.01
A
= = =
A
19. If the Earth were to suddenly contract to
1
n
th of its present radius without any change in its mass, the duration of the new day
will be nearly
(A) 24/n hr. (B) 24 n hr. (C) 24/n
2
hr. (D) 24 n
2
hr.
(7)
Ans : (C)
Hints :
1 1 2 2
I I m = m
2
2
2
1 2
2 2 2 R 2
MR M.
5 T 5 T n
| | t t
=
| |
\ . \ .
1
2
2 2
T 24
T
n n
= =
20. If g is the acceleration due to gravity on the surface of the earth, the gain in potential energy of an object of mass m raised from
the earths surface to a height equal to the radius R of the earth is
(A)
mg R
4
(B)
mg R
2
(C) mg R (D) 2 mg R
Ans : (B)
Hints :
mgh mgR mgR
U
h R
2
1 1
R R
A = = =
+ +
21. A material has Poissons ratio 0.50. If a uniform rod of it suffers a longitudinal strain of 2 10
3
, then the percentage change in
volume is
(A) 0.6 (B) 0.4 (C) 0.2 (D) zero
Ans : (D)
Hints : Poissons ratio is 0.5 so there is no change in volume
22. Two identical springs are connected to mass m as shown (k = spring constant). If the period of the configuration in (a) is 2S, the
period of the configuration (b) is
(A) 2S (B) 1 S (C)
1
S
2
(D) 2 2 S
Ans : (B)
Hints :
1 2
2 1
T k 2 2k
2
k
T k T
2
= = =
k
k
m
(a)
m
(b)
k k
T = 1 S
23. An object weighs m
1
in a liquid of density d
1
and that in liquid of density d
2
is m
2
. The density d of the object is
(A)
2 2 1 1
2 1
m d m d
d
m m
(B)
1 1 2 2
2 1
m d m d
d
m m
(C)
2 1 1 2
1 2
m d m d
d
m m
(D)
1 2 2 1
1 2
m d m d
d
m m
Ans : (D)
Hints : V(d d
1
)g = m
1
g
V(d d
2
)g = m
2
g
1 1
2 2
d d m
d d m
1 2 2 1
1 2
m d m d
d
m m
24. A body floats in water with 40% of its volume outside water. When the same body floats in an oil, 60% of its volume remains
outside oil. The relative density of oil is
(A) 0.9 (B) 1.0 (C) 1.2 (D) 1.5
(8)
Ans : (D)
Hints : Vog = 0.6 Vo
1
g ...... (1)
Vog = 0.4 Vo
2
g .................. (2)
Dividing (1) and (2)
1 2
2 1
6 3
1
4 2
o o
= =
o o
25. Two soap bubbles of radii x and y coalesce to constitute a bubble of radius z. Then z is requal to
(A)
2 2
x y +
(B) x y + (C) x + y (D)
x y
2
+
Ans : (A)
Hints : n = n
1
+ n
2
pv = p
1
v
1
+ p
2
v
2
x + y z
p
1
= p
0
+
4T
x
, p
2
= p
0
+
4T
y
, p = p
0
+
4T
z
If the process takes place is vacuum then p
0
= 0
p
1
=
4T
x
, p
2
=
4T
y
, p =
4T
z
If process is isothermal
p
1
v
1
+ p
2
v
2
= pv
z =
2 2
x y +
26. A particle of mass m is located in a one dimensional potential field where potential energy is given by :
V(x) = A(1 cos px), where A and p are constants. The period of small oscillations of the particle is
(A)
m
2
(Ap)
t
(B)
2
m
2
(Ap )
t
(C)
m
2
A
t
(D)
1 Ap
2 m t
Ans : (B)
Hints :
x
v A(1 cos px) =
du
F Ap sin px
dx
= =
For small (x)
F = AP
2
x
2
2
Ap
a x a x
m
= = m
2
AP
m
m =
2
m
T 2
Ap
= t
27. The period of oscillation of a simple pendulum of length l suspended from the roof of a vehicle, which moves without friction
down an inclined plane of inclination o, is given by
(A)
1
2
gcos
t
o
(B)
l
2
gsin
t
o
(C)
l
2
g
t
(D)
l
2
g tan
t
o
Ans : (A)
(9)
Hints :
g
co
so
a
=
g
s
i
n
o
g
s
i
n
o
g
eff
= gcoso
eff
T 2
g
= t

28. In Youngs double slit experiment the two slits are d distance apart. Interference pattern is observed on a screen at a distance
D from the slits. A dark fringe is observed on the screen directly opposite to one of the slits. The wavelength of light is
(A)
2
D
2d
(B)
2
d
2D
(C)
2
D
d
(D)
2
d
D
Ans : (D)
Hints :
s
2
s
1
d
y = d/2
n
th
Dark fringe
D d
(2n 1)
2d 2
=
2 2
d d
(2n 1)D D
= =
[ for n = 1]
29. A plane progressive wave is given by y = 2 cos 6.284 (330 t x). What is period of the wave ?
(A)
1
S
330
(B) 2t 330 S (C) (2t 330)
1
S (D)
6.284
S
330
Ans : (A)
Hints : y = 2 cos 2t (330 t x)
m = 2t 330
1
T
330
=
s
30. The displacement of a particle in S.H.M. varies according to the relation x = 4(cos tt + sin tt). The amplitude of the particle is
(A) 4 (B) 4 (C)
4 2
(D) 8
Ans : (C)
Hints : R sin o = 4
R cos o = 4
R = 4 2
31. Two temperature scales A and B are related by
A 42 B 72
110 220

=
. At which temperature two scales have the same reading ?
(A) 42
0
(B) 72
0
(C) + 12
0
(D) 40
0
Ans : (C)
Hints :
A 42 B 72
110 220

=
, A = B
A 42 A 72
110 220

=
(10)
2A 84 = A 72
A = 12
32. An ideal gas is compressed isothermally until its pressure is doubled and then allowed to expand adiabatically to regain its
original volume ( = 1.4 and 2
1.4
= 0.38). The ratio of the final to initial pressure is
(A) 0.76 : 1 (B) 1 : 1 (C) 0.66 : 1 (D) 0.86 : 1
Ans : (A)
Hints :
i
i
P V T
V
2P T
2
| | |
f i
V
P V (2P )
2
|
=
|
\ .
f
i
P V
2
P 2V
|
=
|
\ .
= 2 (2)
= 2 0.38 = 0.76
33. Air inside a closed container is saturated with water vapour. The air pressure is p and the saturated vapour pressure of water
is p . If the mixture is compressed to one half of its volume by maintaining temperature constant, the pressure becomes
(A) 2(p p) + (B) 2p p + (C) (p p) / 2 + (D) p 2p +
Ans : (B)
Hints :
f
P 2P P = +
Saturated vapour pressure will not change if temperature remains constant
34. 1.56 10
5
J of heat is conducted through a 2 m
2
wall of 12 cm thick in one hour. Temperature difference between the two sides
of the wall is 20
0
C. The thermal conductivity of the material of the wall is (in W m
1
K
1
)
(A) 0.11 (B) 0.13 (C) 0.15 (D) 1.2
Ans : (B)
Hints :
dQ KA T
dt x
A
=
5
2
1.56 10 K 2 20
3600 12 10
5 2
1.56 10 12 10
K
3600 2 20

=

1.56
0.13
12
= =
35. A diver at a depth of 12 m in water
4
3
|
u =
|
\ .
sees the sky in a cone of semivertical angle :
(A)
1
4
sin
3
|
|
\ .
(B)
1
4
ta n
3
|
|
\ .
(C)
1
3
sin
4
|
|
\ .
(D) 90
0
Ans : (C)
(11)
Hints :
1
1
c sin
|
=
|
u
\ .
c
c
=
1
3
sin
4
|
|
\ .
36. Two thin lenses of focal lengths 20 cm and 25 cm are placed in cotact. The effective power of the combination is
(A) 9D (B) 2D (C) 3D (D) 7D
Ans : (A)
Hints : P = P
1
+ P
2
=
1 2
1 1 100 100
f f 20 25
+ = +
= 5 + 4 = 9D
37. A convex lens of focal length 30 cm produces 5 times magnified real image of an object. What is the object distance ?
(A) 36 cm (B) 25 cm (C) 30 cm (D) 150 cm
Ans : (A)
Hints :
1 1 1
5u u 30
|
=
|
\ .
1 1 1
5u u 30
+ =
,
5 1 1
5u 30
+
=
u = 36 cm.
38. If the focal length of the eye piece of a telescope is doubled, its magnifying power (m) will be
(A) 2 m (B) 3 m (C)
m
2
(D) 4 m
Ans : (C)
Hints :
0
e
f
m
f
=
m
m
2
' =
39. A plano-concave lens is made of glass of refractive index 1.5 and the radius of curvature of its curved face is 100 cm. What is the
power of the lens ?
(A) + 0.5 D (B) 0.5 D (C) 2 D (D) + 2 D
Ans : (B)
Hints :
1 2
1 1 1
P ( 1)
f R R
|
= = u
|
\ .
= (1.5 1)
1 1
1m
|
\ .
= 0.5 ( 1)
P = 0.5 D
40. Four charges equal to Q are placed at the four corners of a square and a charge q is at its centre. If the system is in equilibrium,
the value of q is
(A)
Q
(1 2 2)
4
+ (B)
Q
(1 2 2)
4
+ (C)
Q
(1 2 2)
2
+ (D)
Q
(1 2 2)
2
+
Ans : (B)
(12)
Hints :
F
1
F/2
F
F
Q
Q
q
a
Q
Q
F
F 2F
2
' = + =
1
F 2
2
|
+
|
\ .
2
2 2
qQ Q 1
2
2 a
2a
2
|
= +
|
\ .
|
|
|
\ .
,
Q 2 2 1
q
2 2
|
+
=
|
|
\ .

Q
q 2 2 1
4
= +
41. Two aromatic compounds having formula C
7
H
8
O which are easily identifiable by FeCl
3
solution test (violet colouration) are
(A) o- cresol and benzyl alcohol (B) m-cresol and p-cresol
(C) o-cresol and p-cresol (D) methyl phenyl ether and benzyl alcohol
Ans : (A)
Hints : O cresol contains phenolic group, thus it gives violet coloration with FeCl
3
where as benzylalchol donot contains
phenolic group, hence no coloration with FeCl
3
. Hence Identifiable
42. The ease of dehydrohalogenation of alkyl halide with alcoholic KOH is
(A) 3
o
< 2
o
< 1
o
(B) 3
o
> 2
o
> 1
o
(C) 3
o
< 2
o
> 1
o
(D) 3
o
> 2
o
< 1
o
Ans : (B)
Hints : Such dehydrohalogenation follows E
2
mechanism. The driving force of such reactions is the stability of alkene
produced. Since tetriary alkyl halide can give more substituted alkene, it reacts fastest followed by secondary and primary i.e.
3
o
> 2
o
> 1
o
.
43. The ease of Nitration of the following three hydrocarbons follows the order
CH
3
CH
3
CH
3
CH
3
CH
3
(A) II = III ~ I (B) II > III > I (C) III > II > I (D) I = III > II
Ans : (B)
Hints : Stability order of Arenium ion
II > III > I
44. The correct order of decreasing acidity of nitrophenols will be
(A) m-Nitrophenol > p-Nitrophenol > o-Nitrophenol
(B) o-Nitrophenol > m- Nitrophenol > p-Nitrophenol
(C) p-Nitrophenol > m- Nitrophenol > o-Nitrophenol
(D) p-Nitrophenol > o-nitrophenol > m-Nitrophenol
Ans : (D)
(13)
Hints :
OH
NO
2
OH
NO
2
OH
NO
2
Due to I and R influence, NO
2
in ortho-postion should have raised the acidity to the maximum extent. But it is due to
intramolecular H bonding, ortho-nitrophenol is less acidic than para nitrophenol.
O
N
H
O
O
45. Among the alkenes which one produces tertiary butyl alcohol on acid hydration
(A) CH
3
CH
2
CH = CH
2
(B) CH
3
CH = CH CH
3
(C) (CH
3
)
2
C = CH
2
(D) CH
3
CH = CH
2
Ans : (C)
Hints :
(CH ) C = CH
3 2 2
H
+
CH
3
C CH
3
CH
3
+
H O
2
CH
3
C CH
3
CH
3
O
+
H H
- H
+
CH
3
C CH
3
CH
3
OH
t-butyl alcohol
46. Which of the following compounds has maximum volatility?
(A)
OH
(B)
OH
(C)
OH
(D)
Ans : (C)
Hints : Due to intramolecular H bonding
47. Which one of the following will show optical isomerism?
(A) (B) (C) (D)
Ans : (B)
Hints : The central carbon is attached to four different substituents, hence it is chiral carbon, therefore optically active.
48. The pH of an aqueous solution of CH
3
COONa of concentration C(M) is given by
(A)
a
1 1
7 pK log C
2 2
(B)
w b
1 1 1
pK pK logC
2 2 2
+ +
(C)
w b
1 1 1
pK pK logC
2 2 2
(D)
w a
1 1 1
pK pK logC
2 2 2
+ +
Ans : (D)
Hints : In case of Hydrolysis of salt of weak acid and strong base, the pH is given by
w a
1 1 1
pK pK log c
2 2 2
+ +
(14)
49. The standard reduction potential E
o
for half reations are
Zn = Zn
+2
+ Ze E
o
= +0.76 V
Fe = Fe
+2
+ Ze E
o
= + 0.41 V
The EMF of the cell reaction
Fe
+2
+ Zn = Zn
+2
+ Fe is
(A) -0.35 V (B) + 0.35 (C) +1.17 V (D) 1.17 V
Ans : (B)
Hints :

Anode o.p
o o
cell cathode o.p
E E E =
= 0.76 0.41
= + 0.35 V
50. If the equilibrium constants of the following equilibria
2 2 3 3 2 2
1
SO O SO and 2SO 2SO O
2
+ +
are given by K
1
and K
2
respectively, which of the following relations is correct
(A)
2
2
1
1
K
K
|
=
|
\ .
(B)
3
1
2
1
K
K
|
=
|
\ .
(C) 2
1
1
K
K
|
=
|
\ .
(D) K
2
= (K
1
)
2
Ans : (A)
Hints :
|
| |
3
1 1
2
2 2
SO
K
SO O
=
| |
|
2
2 2
2 2
3
SO O
K
SO
=
Thus
2
2
1
1
K
K
|
=
|
\ .
51. The energy of an electron in first Bohr orbit of H atom is 13.6 eV. The possible energy value of electron in the excited state
of Li
2+
is
(A) 122.4 eV (B) 30.6 eV (C) 30.6 eV (D) 13.6 eV
Ans : (C)
Hints :
2 1
n 2
E
E z
n
=
13.6
9 30.6eV
4
= =
For the excited state, n = 2 and for Li
++
ion, z = 3
52. The amount of the heat released when 20 ml 0.5 M NaOH is mixed with 100 ml 0.1 M HCl is x kJ. The heat of neutralization is
(A) 100 x kJ/mol (B) 50 x kJ/mol (C) + 100 x kJ/mol (D) +50 x kJ/mol
Ans : (A)
Hints :
2
20 0.5 100 0.1
10millimoleproduced
NaOH HCl NaCl HO

+ +
During formation of 10 millimole of H
2
O the heat released is x KJ. Therefore heat of neutralisation is 100 x KJ/mol (heat released
hence negative)
53. Which one of the following has the lowest ionization energy?
(A) 1s
2
2s
2
2p
6
(B) 1s
2
2s
2
2p
6
3s
1
(C) 1s
2
2s
2
2p
5
(D) 1s
2
2s
2
2p
3
Ans : (B)
Hints : Its an alkalimetal; hence least I.P
54. The ozone layer forms naturally by
(A) the interaction of CFC with oxygen (B) the interaction of UV radiation with oxygen
(C) the interaction of IR radiation with oxygen (D) the interaction of oxygen and water vapour.
(15)
Ans : (B)
Hints :
h
2 rays
O O O
u
+ O
2
+ O O
3
55. 2 gm of metal carbonate is neutralized completely by 100 ml of 0.1 (N) HCl. The equivalent weight of metal carbonate is
(A) 50 (B) 100 (C) 150 (D) 200
Ans : (D)
Hints : Number of gram equivalents of HCl
=
100 0.1
1000
= 0.01
Number of gram equivalents of metal carbonate required for neutralisation must also be 0.01. Thus, mass of 1 gram eqivalent of
carbonate salt
2
200g
0.01
=
Equivalent mass of carbonate salt = 200
56. Which one of the following is not true at room temperature and pressure
(A) P
4
O
10
is a white solid (B) SO
2
is a coloureless gas (C) SO
3
is a colourless gas (D) NO
2
is a brown gas
Ans : (C)
Hints : SO
3
is colorless, crystalline transparent solid at room temperature.
57. An electric current is passed through an aqueous solution of a mixture of alanine (isoelectric point 6.0) glutamic acid (3.2) and
arginine (10.7) buffered at pH 6. What is the fate of the three acids?
(A) Glutamic acid migrates to anode at pH 6. Arginine is present as a cation and migrates to the cathode. Alanine in a dipolar
ion remains uniformly distributed in solution.
(B) Glutamic acid migrates to cathode and others remain uniformly distributed in solution.
(C) All three remain uniformly distributed in solution.
(D) All three move to cathode
Ans : (A)
Hints : At pH = 6, glutamic acid exists as a dianionic species & migrates to anode while arginine exists as cationic species &
moves to cathode. Alanine does not migrate to any electrode at its isoelectric point .
58. The representation of the ground state electronic configuration of He by box diagram as | | is wrong because it violates
(A) Heisenbergs Uncertainty Principle (B) Bohrs Quantization Theory of Angular Momenta
(C) Pauli Exclusion Principle (D) Hunds Rule
Ans : (C)
Hints : According to Pauli Exclusion Principle, In any orbital, maximum two electrons can exist, having opposite spin.
59. The electronic transitions from n = 2 to n = 1 will produce shortest wavelength in (where n = principal quantum state)
(A) Li
+2
(B) He
+
(C) H (D) H
+
Ans : (A)
Hints :
2
2 2 H
1 2
1
1 1
z .R
n n
]
=
]

2
H
1 1 1
z . R
1 4

=
`
)
=
2
H
3
R z
4
2
1
z
Hence, for shortest , z must be maximum, which is for Li

+2
.
60. In the following electron dot structure, calculate the formal charge from left to right nitrogen atom;
N N N = =

(A) 1, 1, + 1 (B) 1, +1, 1 (C) + 1, 1, 1 (D) + 1, 1, + 1
Ans : (B)
Hints : Formal charge = Number of electrons in
Valence shell (
1
2
numbers of electrons as bond pair + numbers of electrons as lone pair)
(16)
N = N = N
1 2 3
For N
1
& N
3
Formal charge = 5
4
4
2
|
+
|
\ .
= 5 (6) = 1
For N
2
= 5
1
2
8 0 = 5 4 = + 1
61. If the molecular wt. of Na
2
S
2
O
3
and I
2
are M
1
and M
2
respectively, then what will be the equivalent wt. of Na
2
S
2
O
3
and I
2
in the
following reaction?
2 2
2 3 2 4 6
2S O I S O 2I

+ +
(A) M
1
, M
2
(B) M
1
, M
2
/2 (C) 2M
1
, M
2
(D) M
1
,2M
2
Ans : (B)
Hints : 2S O + I
2
2
3 2
S O + 2I
4 6
2
Change in O.N per mole = 12=2

Change in O.N per mole = 0.52=1
(+2) (0) (+2.5)
(1)

2
2 3
n.f . S O 1
= , Equivalent mass =
1
1
M
M
1
=
n.f. (I
2
) = 2 , Equivalent mass =
2
M
2
62. A radioactive atom
X
Y
M emits two o particles and one particle successively. The number of neutrons in the nucleus of the
product will be
(A) X 4 Y (B) X Y 5 (C) X Y 3 (D) X Y 6
Ans : (B)
Hints :
M
X
Y
N
X8
Y4
o o
O
X4
Y2

X8
Y3
P
Number of neutrons = Mass no. Atomic no.
= X 8 Y + 3
= X Y 5
63. An element belongs to Group 15 and third period of the periodic table. Its electonic configuration will be
(A) 1s
2
2s
2
2p
3
(B) 1s
2
2s
2
2p
4
(C) 1s
2
2s
2
2p
6
3s
2
3p
3
(D) 1s
2
2s
2
2p
6
3s
2
3p
2
Ans : (C)
Hints : General valence shell electronic configuration of 15 group elements is ns
2
np
3
. where n = period number.
64. Which one of the following is paramagnetic?
(A) N
2
(B) NO (C) CO (D) O
3
Ans : (B)
Hints :
N 0
, Valence electron = 111

65. Platinum, Palladium and Iridium are called noble metals because
(A) Alfred Nobel discovered them (B) They are shining lustrous and pleasing to look at
(C) They are found in native state (D) They are inert towards many common reagents.
Ans : (D)
(17)
Hints : Fact
66. Which one is not a constituent of nucleic acid?
(A) Uracil (B) Guanidine (C) Phosphoric acid (D) Ribose sugar
Ans : (B)
Hints : Guanine is the constituent of nucleic acid and not guanidine.
67. The sp
3
d
2
hybridization of central atom of a molecule would lead to
(A) square planar geometry (B) Tetrahedral geometry
(C) Trigonal bipyramidal geometry (D) Octahedral geometry
Ans : (D)
Hints : Fact
68. In aqueous solution glucose remains as
(A) Only in open chain form (B) Only in pyranoze form
(C) Only in furanose forms (D) In all three forms in equilibrium
Ans : (D)
Hints : D glu cos e D glu cos e D glu cos e o
( ~ 64% ) (open chain ~ 0.02%) ( ~ 34%)
69. Which of the following is used to prepare Cl
2
gas at room temperature from concentrated HCl?
(A) MnO
2
(B) H
2
S (C) KMnO
4
(D) Cr
2
O
3
Ans : (C)
Hints : 2MnO
4
+ 16 H
+
+ 10Cl
2Mn
2+
+ 5Cl
2
+ 8H
2
O
70. NO
2
is not obtained on heating
(A) AgNO
3
(B) KNO
3
(C) Cu(NO
3
)
2
(D) Pb(NO
3
)
2
Ans : (B)
Hints :
3 2 2
1
KNO KNO O
2
A
+
71. The normality of 30 volume H
2
O
2
is
(A) 2.678 N (B) 5.336 N (C) 8.034 N (D) 6.685 N
Ans : (B)
Hints : Volume strength = 5.6 normality
30 = 5.6 N
N =
30
5.6
= 5.3
72. Reaction of formaldehyde and ammonia gives
(A) Hexamethylene tetramine (B) Bakelite
(C) Urea (D) Triethylene Tetramine
Ans : (A)
Hints : 6HCHO + 4NH
3
(CH
2
)
6
N
4
+ 6H
2
O
73. A plot of In k against
1
T
(abscissa) is expected to be a straight line with intercept on ordinate axis equal to
(A)
S
2.303R
A
(B)
S
R
A
(C)
S
R
A
(D) R AS
Ans : (B)
Hints : AG = RT InK
or, AH TAS = RT InK
(18)
or, InK =
H
RT
A
+
S
R
A
comparing with
ta n u =
A H
R
A S
R I n K
F o r E n d o t h e r m i c
R e a c t i o n
1 / T
y = m.x + c
y intercept is
S
R
A
74. Which of the following represents the composition of Carnallite mineral?
(A) K
2
O. Al
2
O
3
. 6SiO
2
(B) KNO
3
(C) K
2
SO
4
. MgSO
4
. MgCl
2
.6H
2
O (D) KCl. MgCl
2
.6H
2
O
Ans : (D)
Hints : Fact
75. The solubility of Ca
3
(PO
4
)
2
in water is y moles / litre. Its solubility product is
(A) 6y
4
(B) 36y
4
(C) 64y
5
(D) 108y
5
Ans : (D)
Hints :
2 3
3 4 2 4
Ca (PO ) (s) 3Ca (aq) 2PO (aq)
+
+
3y 2y
K
sp = [Ca
2+
]
3
.[PO
4
3
]
2
= (3y)
3
. (2y)
2
= 27y
3
4y
2
= 108 y
5
76. Paracetamol is
(A) Methyl salicylate (B) Phenyl salicylate
(C) N-acetyl p-amino phenol (D) Acetyl salicylic acid
Ans : (C)
Hints : Fact
33333333
OH
NHCOCH
3
77. Anhydrous ferric chloride is prepared by
(A) Dissolving Fe(OH)
3
in concentrated HCl (B) Dissolving Fe(OH)
3
in dilute HCl
(C) Passing dry HCl over heated iron scrap (D) Passing dry Cl
2
gas over heated iron scrap
Ans : (D)
Hints :
2 3
2Fe 3Cl 2FeCl
A
+
(19)
78. Which one of the following is s-butyl phynylvinyl methane?
(A)
Ph
Me
Me
Me
(B)
Ph Me
Me
(C)
Ph
Me
Me
(D)
Ph
Me
Me
Ans : (C)
Hints :
Ph
Me
Me
1
2
3
4
5
6
C H C H C H C H C H = C H 2
2 3
P h
C H
3
V i n y l
p h e n y l
s - b u t y l
79. Hybridization of C
2
and C
3
of H
3
C CH = C = CH CH
3
are
(A) Sp, Sp
3
(B) Sp
2
, Sp (C) Sp
2
, Sp
2
(D) Sp, Sp
Ans : (B)
Hints :
C H C H = C = C H C H
3 3
s p
2
s p
1 2 3
4 5
80. Which of the following compounds is not formed in iodoform reaction of acetone
(A) CH
3
COCH
2
I (B) ICH
2
COCH
2
I (C) CH
3
COCHI
2
(D) CH
3
COCI
3
Ans : (B)
Hints :
CH C CH
3 3
=
O
CH C CH I + OH
3 2
=
O
OI
CH C CH I
3 2
=
O
CH C CHI + OH
3 2
=
O
OI
CH C CHI
3 2
=
O
CH C CI + OH
3 3
=
O
OI
CH C CI
3
=
O
CH C + CHI
3
O
OH
3
O
3

(20)
1. A shell of mass m is at rest initially. It explodes into three fragments having masses in the ratio 2 : 2 : 1. the fragments having
equal masses fly off along mutually perpendicular direction with speed V. What will be the speed of the third (lighter) fragment?
A.
From conservation of momentum
1
O 2mv 2 mv = +
V
1
= 2 2 v
Hence, velocity of third part is 2 2 v at an angle of 135
o
with either part.
2. A small spherical ball of mass m slides without friction from the top of a hemisphere of radius R. AT what height will the ball lose
contact with surface of the sphere ?
A. If the ball lose contact at B then, from conservation of energy.
m
g
c
o
s
u
mg sinu
R
R cos = h u
R - R cos u
N
mV
2
R
A
V

2
1
mgR 1 cos mv
2
u =
v
2
= 2gR (1 cosu) ......(i)
At B
2
mV
N mg cos
R
+ = u
When the ball will lose the contact
N = O
2
mv
mg cos
R
u=
DESCRIPTIVE TYPE QUESTIONS
SUB : PHYSICS & CHEMISTRY
(21)
V
2
= gR cos u ........(ii)
from (i) & (ii)
2Rg(1 - cos ) = gRcos u u
2 2 cos u = cos u.
2 = 3 cos u.
Height from the ground
h = R cos u =
2R
3
3. Two identical cylindrical vessels, with their bases at the same level, each cotain a liquid of density p. The height of liquid in one
vessel in h
1
and that in the other is h
2
. The area of either base is A. What is the work done by gravity in equalizing the levels
when the vessles are interconnected ?
A.
P
h
1
A A h
2
p
Let find height = h
1 2
h h
h
2
+ |
=
|
\ .
decerese in height
1 2 1 2
1
h h h h
h h
2 2
+ | |
A = =
| |
\ . \ .
Mass of liquid

1 2
h h
m A
2
= p
Work done
1 2 1 2
h h h h
W A
2 2
] | ]
= p
] | ]
\ . ] ]
=

2
1 2
h h
g A
4
p
4. A battery of emf E and internal resistance r is connected across a pure resistive device (such as an electric heater) of resistance
R. Prove that the power output of the device will be maximum if R = r.
A.
I
R
r
E
E
I
R r
=
+
(22)
Power P = I
2
R =

2
2
E R
R r +
For maximum power
dp
0
dR
=

2
2
R r .1 R. 2 R r
E 0
R r 4
]
+ +
= ]
+
]
]
R + r 2R = 0
r = R
5. A radioactive isotope X with half life 1.5 10
9
yrs. decays into a stable nucleus Y. A rock sample contains both elements X and
Y in ratio 1 : 15. Find the age of the rock.
A.
X Y
t = 0, 16 0
t = 1, 1 15
9
1
2
T 1.5 10 yr =
n
o
1
N N
2
|
=
|
\ .
1 = 16
n
1
2
|
|
\ .
n 4
1 1
n 4
2 2
| |
= =
| |
\ . \ .
time t = 4 1.5 10
9
= 6 10
9
yrs
6. The bacterial growth follows the rate l aw,
dN
KN
dt
=
where K is a constant and N is the number of bacteria cell at any time.
If the population of bacteria (no. of cell) is doubled in 5 minutes, find the time by which the population will be eight times of the
initial one.
A.
dN
KN
dt
=
(1st order kinetics)
N = N
0
e
kt
(integrating)
in 5 min, N = 2N
0
0
2.303 N
K log
t N
=
(23)
o
0
2N 2.303
K log
5 N
|
=
|
\ .
min
1
2.303
K log 2
5
=
for 8N
0
o
o
8N 2.303
t log
2.303
N
log 2
5
|
|
=
|
|
|
\ .

5 3log 2
t 15min
log 2
= =
time required is 15 min.
7. In x ml 0.3 (N) HCl, addition of 200 ml distilled water or addition of 100 ml 0.1 (N) NaOH, gives same final acid strength.
Determine x.
A. When 200 ml H
2
O is added to x ml solution
(x) (0.3) = (x + 200) (Y) final conc.
Y =
0.3x
200 x +
in 2nd case
Number of equivalents of HCl after NaOH addition
0.3x
0.01
1000

no of eq. of NaOH added = 0.01)
conc. would be
0.3x
0.01
1000
1000(N)
100 x

`
)
+
by condition,
0.3x
0.01 1000
0.3x 1000
100 x 200 x

`
)
=
+ +

0.3x 10 0.3x
100 x (200 x)
=
+ +
(0.3x 10) (200 + x) = (0.3x)(100 +x)
60x 2000 + 0.3 x
2
10x = 30x + 0.3x
2
20x = 2000 x = 100 ml
8. Compound A treated with NaNH
2
followed by CH
3
CH
2
Br gave compound B. Partial hydrogenation of compound B produced
compound C, which on ozonolysis gave a carbonyl compound D, (C
3
H
6
O). Compound D did not respond to iodoform test with
I
2
/Kl and NaOH. Find out the structures of A, B, C and D
A. Assuming 1 eq. of NaNH
2
is used,
(24)
CH CH C CH
3 2
NaNH
2
NH
3
CH CH C C Na
3 2
+
CH CH Br
3 2
S+
S
(A)
S
N
2
| NaBr
CH
3
CH
2
CH = CH CH
2
CH
3
Partial
Hydrogenation
CH
3
CH
2
C CCH
2
CH
3
(C) (B)
(i) O
(ii) Zn + H O
2
3
Ozonolysis
2 CH
3
CH
2
CHO (No Keto Methyl group ve iodoform)
(D)
9. An organic compound with molecular formula C
9
H
10
O forms, 2, 4-DNP derivative, reduces Tollens reagent and undergoes
Cannizzaro reaction. On vigorous oxidation it gives a dicarboxylic acid which is used in the preparation of terylene. Identify the
organic compound.
A. +ve Bradys test indicates carbonyl compound, Tollens & Cannizzaro reaction indicates aldehyde without o H
end product is terepthalic acid, compound must be
CHO
CH CH
3 2
[Strong oxidation]
COOH
COOH
(Terepthalic acid)
p-ethyl-benzaldehyde
(25)
10. Deep blue CuSO
4
.5H
4
O is converted to a bluish white salt at 100C. At 250C and 750C it is then transformed to a white powder
and black material respectively. identify the salts.
A. One H
2
O molecule in blue vitriol is Hydrogen bonded from 4 sides and is thus released with more difficulty than the rest
four H
2
O molecules.
Cu
H O
2
H O
2
O H
O H
O
H . . . . . O
H . . . . . O
S
H Most ti ghtly held H O mol ecule
2
O
O
H
+2
2
4H O
4 2 4 2
CuSO .5H O CuSO .H O
A
bluish white salt (100C)
250C
[ ] A
3 4 750
CuO SO CuSO (White powder)
A
+
(black powder) 250C
ANSWERS & HINTS

for
WBJEE - 2011
SUB : MATHEMATICS
1. The eccentricity of the hyperbola 4x
2
9y
2
= 36 is
(A)
11
3
(B)
15
3
(C)
13
3
(D)
14
3
Ans : (C)
Hints :
2 2
x y
1
9 4
=
a 3, b 2 = =
2 2
2
a b 13 13
e
9 3
a
+
= = =
2. The length of the latus rectum of the ellipse 16x
2
+ 25y
2
= 400 is
(A) 5/16 unit (B) 32/5 unit (C) 16/5 unit (D) 5/32 unit
Ans : (B)
2 2
16x 25y 400 + =
2 2
x y
1
25 16
+ = ;
2 2
a 25; b 16 = =
Hints : Length of latus rectum =
2
b 2 16 32
2
a 5 5
= =
3. The vertex of the parabola y
2
+ 6x 2y + 13 = 0 is
(A) (1, 1) (B) (2, 1) (C)
3
,1
2
| |
|
\ .
(D)
7
,1
2
| |
|
\ .
Ans : (B)
Hints :
, i
2
y 1 6x 12 =
, i , i , i
2 6
y 1 6 x 2 4 x 2
4
| |
= + = +
|
\ .
, i Vertex 2, 1
63487
[Q. Booklet Number]
WBJEE - 2011 (Answers & Hints) Mathematics
Ph. : 011-47623456 Fax : 011-47623472
(1)
(2)
4. The coordinates of a moving point p are (2t
2
+ 4, 4t + 6). Then its locus will be a
(A) circle (B) straight line (C) parabola (D) ellipse
Ans : (C)
Hints :
2
x 2t 4, y 4t 6 = + = + ,
y 6
y 4t 6 t
4
| |
= + =
|
\ .
, i
2
2
y 6
y 6
x 2 4 x 4
4 8
| |
= + =
|
\ .
, i , i , i
2
y 6 4 2 x 4 =
5. The equation 8x
2
+ 12y
2
4x + 4y 1 = 0 represents
(A) an ellipse (B) a hyperbola (C) a parabola (D) a circle
Ans : (A)
Hints :
2 2
ax by 2hxy 2gx 2fy c 0 + + + + + =
represents ellipse if
2
h ab 0 <
2 2
3x 12y 4x 4y 1 0 + + =
h 0, a 3, b 12 = = =
2
h ab 0 <
6. If the straight line y = mx lies outside of the circle x
2
+ y
2
20y + 90 = 0, then the value of m will satisfy
(A) m < 3 (B) |m| < 3 (C) m > 3 (D) |m| > 3
Ans : (B)
Hints :
2 2 2
x m x 20mx 90 + +
, i
2 2
x 1 m 20mx 90 0 + + =
D 0 <
, i
2 2
400m 4 90 1 m 0 + <
2
40m 360 <
2
m 9 <
| m| 3 <
7. The locus of the centre of a circle which passes through two variable points (a, 0), (a, 0) is
(A) x = 1 (B) x + y = a (C) x + y = 2a (D) x = 0
Ans : (D)
Hints :
(a,0)
(0,h)
(a,0)
Centre lies on y-axis locus x = 0
(3)
8. The coordinates of the two points lying on x + y = 4 and at a unit distance from the straight line 4x + 3y = 10 are
(A) (3, 1), (7, 11) (B) (3, 1), (7, 11) (C) (3, 1), (7, 11) (D) (5, 3), (1, 2)
Ans : (B)
Hints : Let , i p h, 4 h
, i 4h 3 4 h 10
1
5
+
=
| h 2 | 5 + =
h 3, 7 =
Points P are
, i , i 3,1 , 7,11
9. The intercept on the line y = x by the circle x
2
+ y
2
2x = 0 is AB. Equation of the circle with AB as diameter is
(A) x
2
+ y
2
= 1 (B) x(x 1) +y(y 1) = 0
(C) x
2
+ y
2
= 2 (D) (x 1)(x2)+(y1)+(y2)= 0
Ans : (B)
Hints : , i
2
2x 2x 0 x x 1 0 x 0,1; y 0,1 = + = = =
, i , i 0,0 , 1,1 as diametric ends
, i , i , i , i x 0 x 1 y 0 y 1 0 + =
2 2
x y x y 0 + =
10. If the coordinates of one end of a diameter of the circle x
2
+y
2
+4x8y+5=0, is (2,1), the coordinates of the other end is
(A) (6, 7) (B) (6, 7) (C) (6, 7) (D) (7, 6)
Ans : (C)
Hints :
2 2
x y 9x 8y 5 0 + + + =
Centre circle (2, 4)
(2,1) (h,k)
(2,4)
h 2
2
2
+
=
h 4 2 6 = =
k 1
4 k 7
2
+
= =
, i , i h,k 6, 7
11. If the three points A(1,6), B(3, 4) and C(x, y) are collinear then the equation satisfying by x and y is
(A) 5x + y 11= 0 (B) 5x + 13y + 5 = 0 (C) 5x 13y + 5 = 0 (D) 13x 5y +5 = 0
Ans : (A)
(4)
Hints :
1 1 6
1 3 4 0
1 x y
=
, i , i , i 1 3y 4x y 6x 1 4 18 0 + + = 3y 4x y 6x 12 0 + + =
2y 10x 22 0 + =
y 5x 11 + =
12. If
2
2t
sin
1 t
u =
+
and u lies in the second quadrant, then cosu is equal to
(A)
2
2
1 t
1 t
+
(B)
2
2
t 1
1 t
+
(C)
2
2
1 t
1 t

+
(D)
2
2
1 t
1 t
+
Ans : (C)
Hints : u in 2nd quad Cosu < 0
2
2
2 2
1 t
1 t
cos
1 t 1 t
u = =
+ +
2
2
1 t
cos
1 t
u =
+
13. The solutions set of inequation cos
1
x < sin
1
x is
(A) [1, 1] (B)
1
,1
2
]
]
]
(C) [0, 1] (D)
1
,1
2
| ]
]
\ ]
Ans : (D)
Hints :
1 1
cos x sin x

<
1
x , 1
2
| ]
e
]
\ ]
,
1 1
cos x sin x

<
1
2
cos x
1
sin x
1
0
x
y
1
14. The number of solutions of 2sinx + cos x = 3 is
(A) 1 (B) 2 (C) infinite (D) No solution
Ans : (D)
Hints :
5 3 <
No solution
15. Let
a
tan
a 1
o =
+
and
1
tan
2a 1
| =
+
then o + | is
(A)
4
t
(B)
3
t
(C)
2
t
(D) t
Ans : (A)
(5)
Hints :
a 1
tan , tan
a 1 2a 1
o = | =
+ +
, i
, i , i
, i
, i , i
, i , i
, i , i
2
2
a 2a 1 a 1
a 1
a 1 2a 1
2a 2a 1
a 1 2a 1
tan 1
a
a 1 2a 1 a
2a 2a 1
1
a 1 2a 1
a 1 2a 1
+ + +
+
+ +
+ +
+ +
o + | = = = =
+ +
+ +
+ +
+ +
4
t
o + | =
16. If
4
t
u + o = , then (1 tan )(1 tan ) + u + o is equal to
(A) 1 (B) 2 (C) 5/2 (D) 1/3
Ans : (B)
Hints :
, i
, i 1 tan
1 tan 1
1 tan
| | u
+ u + |
|
+ u
\ .
, i
2
1 tan 2
1 tan
= + u =
+ u
17. If sinu and cosu are the roots of the equation ax
2
bx + c = 0, then a, b and c satisfy the relation
(A) a
2
+ b
2
+ 2ac = 0 (B) a
2
b
2
+ 2ac = 0
(C) a
2
+ c
2
+ 2ab = 0 (D) a
2
b
2
2ac = 0
Ans : (B)
Hints :
b
sin cos
a
u + u =
c
sin . cos
a
u u =
2
b 2c
1
a a
| |
= +
|
\ .
2 2
b a 2ac = +
2 2
a b 2ac 0 + =
18. If A and B are two matrices such that A+B and AB are both defined, then
(A) A and B can be any matrices (B) A, B are square matrices not necessarily of the same order
(C) A, B are square matrices of the same order (D) Number of columns of A = number of rows of B
Ans : (C)
Hints : Addition is defined if order of A is equal to order of B
A B
nxm nxm
is defined if m = n
A, B are square matrices of same order
19. If
3 x 1
A
2x 3 x 2
| |
=
|
+ +
\ .
is a symmetric matrix, then the value of x is
(A) 4 (B) 3 (C) 4 (D) 3
Ans : (C)
(6)
Hints : A = A
T
3 x 1 3 2x 3
2x 3 x 2 x 1 x 2
+ | | | |
=
| |
+ + +
\ . \ .
x 1 2x 3 = +
or x 4 =
20. If
1 1 2i 5i
z 1 2i 3 5 3i
5i 5 3i 7
+ | |
|
= +
|
|
\ .
then , i
i 1 =
(A) z is purely real (B) z is purely imaginary
(C)
z z 0 + =
(D)
, i z z i
is purely imaginary
Ans : (A)
Hints : , i , i , i , i , i , i
, i , i , i
1 1 2i 5i
z 1 2i 3 5 3i 1 21 34 1 2i 7 1 2i 5i 5 3i 5i 1 2i 5 3i 15i
5i 5 3i 7
+
= + = + + + + +
= Real
21. The equation of the locus of the point of intersection of the straight lines x sin u + (1 cos u) y = a sin u and x sin u (1 +
cos u) y + a sin u = 0 is
(A) y ax (B) x = ay (C) y
2
= 4x (D) x
2
+ y
2
= a
2
Ans : (D)
Hints : y = a sin u
x = a cos u.
2 2 2
x y a + =
22. If sinu + cosu = 0 and 0 < u < t, then u
(A) 0 (B)
4
t
(C)
2
t
(D)
3
4
t
Ans : (D)
Hints : sin u + cos u = 0
tan u = 1
3
4
t
u=
23. The value of cos 15
o
sin 15
o
is
(A) 0 (B)
1
2
(C)
1
2
(D)
1
2 2
Ans : (B)
Hints : cos 15
o
sin 15
o
=
o
1
2cos60
2
=
24. The period of the function f(x) = cos 4x + tan 3x is
(A) t (B)
2
t
(C)
3
t
(D)
4
t
Ans : (A)
Hints : LCM
2
,
3
4
t | |
t
=t
|
\ .
(7)
25. If y = 2x
3
2x
2
+ 3x 5, then for x = 2 and A x = 0.1 value of A y is
(A) 2.002 (B) 1.9 (C) 0 (D) 0.9
Ans : (B)
Hints :
2
dy
6x 4x 3
dx
= +
x 2
dy
y x 1.9
dx
=
| |
A = A =
|
\ .
26. The approximate value of
5
33
correct to 4 decimal places is
(A) 2.0000 (B) 2.1001 (C) 2.0125 (D) 2.0500
Ans : (C)
Hints :
1
5
dy
1
y x y x 1
80
dx
| |
= A = A =
|
\ .
y = 2 +
1
80
27. The value of
, i
2
2
x cos x sin x 1
+ +
dx is
(A) 2 (B) 0 (C) 2 (D) 4
Ans : (D)
Hints : , i
2 2
2 2
x cos x sin x 1 dx dx 4

+ + = =

28. For the function
cosx
f(x) e = , Rolles theorem is
(A) applicable when
3
x
2 2
t t
s s (B) applicable when 0 x
2
t
s s
(C) applicable when 0 x s st (D) applicable when x
4 2
t t
s s
Ans : (A)
Hints : , i , i
3
f f
2 2
t t
=
29. The general solution of the differential equation
2
2
d y dy
8 16y 0
dx dx
+ + =
is
(A) (A + B x)e
5x
(B) (A + Bx)e
4x
(C) (A + Bx
2
)e
4x
(D) (A + Bx
4
)e
4x
Ans : (B)
Hints :
2
2
d y dy
8 16 y 0
dx dx
+ + =
auxilary equation m
2
+ 8m + 16 = 0 m = 4
Solution y = (A + Bx)e
4x
30. If x
2
+ y
2
= 4, then
dy
y x
dx
+ =
(A) 4 (B) 0 (C) 1 (D) 1
Ans : (B)
Hints :
dy
x y 0
dx
+ =
(8)
31.
3
8
x dx
1 x
=
+
(A) 4 tan
1
x
3
+ c (B)
1 4
1
tan x c
4

+ (C) x + 4 tan
1
x
4
+ c (D)
2 1 4
1
x tan x c
4

+ +
Ans : (B)
Hints :
, i
, i
3
1 4
2
4
x dy 1
tan x
4
1 x

=
+
+ C
32.
16
sin x dx
t
t
=
(A) 0 (B) 32 (C) 30 (D) 28

Ans : (C)
Hints :
, i
0
0
15 sin x dx 15 cos x 30
t
t
= =
33. The degree and order of the differential equation

2
2
dy dx
y x
dx dy
| |
| |
= +
| |
\ .
\ .
are respectively
(A) 1,1 (B) 2, 1 (C) 4, 1 (D) 1, 4
Ans : (C)
Hints :
2 4
dy dy
y x 1
dx dx
| | | |
= +
| |
\ . \ .
34. f(x) =
0 , x 0
x 3 , x 0
=
>
The function f (x) is

(A) increasing when x > 0
(B) strictly increasing when x > 0
(C) Strictly increasing at x = 0
(D) not continuous at x = 0 and so it is not increasing when x > 0
Ans : (B)
Hints :
y
x
35. The function f(x) = ax + b is strictly increasing for all real x if
(A) a > 0 (B) a < 0 (C) a = 0 (D) a s 0
Ans : (A)
Hints : f' (x) = a
f'(x) > 0 a > 0
36.
cos 2x
dx
cos x
=
(A) 2 sin x + log | sec x + tan x | + C (B) 2 sin x log |sec x tan x| + c
(C) 2 sin x log |sec x + tan x| + C (D) 2 sin x + log |sec x tan x| + C
(9)
Ans : (C)
Hints :
2
2cos x 1
dx 2sin x log sec x tan x C
cos x
= + +
37.
8 8
2 2
sin x cos x
dx
1 2sin x cos x
(A)
1
sin 2x C
2
+ (B)
1
sin 2 x C
2
+
(C)
1
sin x C
2
+ (D)
1
sin x C
2
+
Ans : (A)
Hints : , i
2 2
1
sin x cos x dx cos 2xdx sin2x C
2
= = +

38. The general solution of the differential equation
e
dy
log x y
dx
| |
= +
|
\ .
is
(A) e
x
+ e
y
= C (B) e
x
+ e
y
= C (C) e
y
+ e
x
= C (D) e
x
+ e
y
= C
Ans : (A)
Hints :
x y
dy
e .e
dx
=

y x
e dy. e dx
=

x y
e e c
+ =
39. If
2
A
y Bx
x
= + , then
2
2
2
d y
x
dx
=
(A) 2y (B) y
2
(C) y
3
(D) y
4
Ans : (A)
Hints :
2
2 2
2
d y A
x 2 Bx 2y
x dx
| |
= + =
|
\ .
40. If one of the cube roots of 1 be e, then
2 2
2
1 1
1 i 1 1
i 1 1
+e e
e =
+e
(A) e (B) i (C) 1 (D) 0
Ans : (D)
Hints : C
1
C
1
C
2
+ C
3
41. 4 boys and 2 girls occupy seats in a row at random. Then the probability that the two girls occupy seats side by side is
(A)
1
2
(B)
1
4
(C)
1
3
(D)
1
6
Ans : (C)
Hints : n(e) = 5 . 2
n(s) = 6
5. 2
p
6
=
=
2
6
=
1
3
(10)
42. A coin is tossed again and again. If tail appears on first three tosses, then the chance that head appears on fourth toss is
(A)
1
16
(B)
1
2
(C)
1
8
(D)
1
4
Ans : (B)
Hints : Due to independent events probability of coining head in 4th toss =
1
2
43. The coefficient of x
n
in the expansion of
7x x
3x
e e
e
+
is
(A)
n 1 n 1
4 ( 2)
n

(B)
n 1 n 1
4 2
n

(C)
n n
4 2
n
(D)
n n
4 ( 2)
n
+
Ans : (D)
Hints :
7x x
4x 2x
3x
e e
e e
e

+
= +
Co-efficient of x
n
n n
n
(4) (2)
( 1)
n! n!
+
=
n n
4 ( 2)
n!
+
44. The sum of the series
1 1 1
.....
1.2 2.3 3.4
+
is
(A) 2log
e
2 + 1 (B) 2log
e
2 (C) 2log
e
2 1 (D) log
e
2 1
Ans : (C)
Hints :
1 1 1
s ......
1.2 2.3 3.4
= +
1 1 1 1 1 1
.....
1 2 2 3 3 4
| | | | | |
= +
| | |
\ . \ . \ .
=
1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1
....
1 2 2 3 3 4 4 5
+ + +
1 2 2 2 2
...
1 2 3 4 5
= + +
=
1 1 1 1 1
2 .... 1
1 2 3 4 5
]
+ +
]
]
= 2 log
e
2 1
45. The number (101)
100
1 is divisible by
(A) 10
4
(B) 10
6
(C) 10
8
(D) 10
12
Ans : (A)
Hints : (101)
100
1 =
100
C
1
100 +
100
C
2
100 +
100
C
3
100 + ................... +
100
C
100
100
100
= 100
2
[ 1 +
100
C
2
+
100
C
3
100 + ....... ]
= (10
4
)
46. If A and B are coefficients of x
n
in the expansions of (1+ x)
2n
and (1+x)
2n 1
respectively, then A/B is equal to
(A) 4 (B) 2 (C) 9 (D) 6
Ans : (B)
Hints : A =
2n
C
n.
B =
2n 1
C
n
2n
n
2n 1
n
C A 2n
B n C
= = = 2
(11)
47. If n > 1 is an integer and x =0, then (1 + x)
n
nx 1is divisible by
(A) nx
3
(B) n
3
x (C) x (D) nx
Ans : (C)
Hints : (1 + x)
n
=
n
C
0
+
n
C
1
x +
n
C
2
x +
n
C
3
x3 + .......
= 1 + nx + x (
n
C
2
+
n
C
3
x + .........)
(1 + x)
n
nx 1 = x (
n
C
2
+
n
C
3
x + ........)
48. If
n
C
4
,
n
C
5
and
n
C
6
are in A.P., then n is
(A) 7 or 14 (B) 7 (C) 14 (D) 14 or 21
Ans : (A)
Hints :
n
C
4
,
n
C
5
,
n
C
6
are in AP
2.
n
C
5
=
n
C
4
+
n
C
6
2 1 1
5(n 5) (n 4)(n 5) 30
= +

by solving n = 14 or 7
49. The number of diagonals in a polygon is 20. The number of sides of the polygon is
(A) 5 (B) 6 (C) 8 (D) 10
Ans : (C)
Hints :
n
C
2
n = 20
n = 8
50. 15 15 15
3 5 15
C C .. ... C + + + =
(A) 2
14
(B) 2
14
15 (C) 2
14
+ 15 (D) 2
14
1
Ans : (B)
Hints :
15
C
3
+
15
C
5
+ ............. +
15
C
15
= 2
14

15
C
1
= 2
14
15
51. Let a , b, c be three real numbers such that a + 2b + 4c = 0. Then the equation ax
2
+ bx + c = 0
(A) has both the roots complex (B) has its roots lying within 1 < x < 0
(C) has one of roots equal to
1
2
(D) has its roots lying within 2 < x < 6
Ans : (C)
Hints :
1 1
a b c 0
4 2
+ + =
2
1 1
a b c 0
2 2
| | | |
+ + =
| |
\ . \ .
x =
1
2
52. If the ratio of the roots of the equation px
2
+ qx + r = 0 is a : b, then 2
a b
( a b )
=
+
(A)
2
p
qr
(B) 2
pr
q
(C)
2
q
pr
(D)
2
pq
r
Ans : (B)
Hints : Let roots are ao and bo

, i
q
a b
p
+ o =
(12)

2
r
ab
p
o =
2 2
2 2 2
ab r p
.
p (a b) q
o
=
+ o
2 2
ab rp
(a b) q
=
+
53. If o and | are the roots of the equation x
2
+ x + 1 = 0, then the equation whose roots are o
19
and |
7
is
(A) x
2
x 1 = 0 (B) x
2
x + 1 = 0 (C) x
2
+ x 1= 0 (D) x
2
+ x + 1 = 0
Ans : (D)
Hints : o and | are the roots of x
2
+ x + 1 = 0
o = e | = e
2
o
19
= e |
7
= e
2
x
2
(o
19
+ |
7
)x + o
19
|
7
= 0
Thou,
x
2
(e + e
2
) x + e . e
2
= 0
x
2
+ x + 1 = 0
54. For the real parameter t, the locus of the complex number z = (1 t) +
2
i 1 t +
in the complex plane is
(A) an ellipse (B) a parabola (C) a circle (D) a hyperbola
Ans : (B)
Hints : Given z = (1 t) +
2
i 1 t +
Let z = x + iy
x = 1 t
2
y
2
= 1 + t
2
Thus, x + y
2
= 2
y
2
= 2 x
y
2
= (x 2)
Thus parabola
55. If x 2cos
x
1
+ = u , then for any integer n,
n
n
1
x
x
+ =
(A) 2 cos nu (B) 2 sin nu (C) 2i cos nu (D) 2i sin nu
Ans : (A)
Hints :
1
x 2cos
x
+ = u
Let x = cos u + i sin u

1
cos i sin
x
= u u
Thus
n
n
1
x 2cos n
x
+ = u
56. If e = 1 is a cube root of unity, then the sum of the series S = 1 + 2e + 3e + .......... + 3ne
3n 1
is
(A)
3n
1 e
(B) 3n(e 1) (C)
1
3n
e
(D) 0
Ans : (A)
(13)
Hints : S = 1 + 2e + 3e + .......... + 3n e
3n1
Se = e + 2e
2
+ ............... + (3n 1)e
3n
+ 3ne
3n
S(1 e) = 1 + e + e + ...........+ e
3n1
3ne
3h
= 0 3n
3n
S
1
=
e
=
3n
1 e
57. If log
3
x + log
3
y = 2 + log
3
2 and log
3
(x + y) = 2, then
(A) x = 1,y = 8 (B) x = 8, y = 1 (C) x = 3, y = 6 (D) x = 9, y = 3
Ans : (C)
Hints : log
3
x + log
3
y = 2 + log
3
2
x.y = 18
log
3
(x + y) = 2 x + y = 9
we will get x = 3 and y = 6
58. If log
7
2 = , then the value of log
49
(28) is
(A) (2 + 1) (B) (2 + 3) (C)
1
(2 1)
2
+ (D) 2(2 + 1)
Ans : (C)
Hints : log
49
28 = 2
7
log 4 7
|
7 7
1
2log 2 log 7
2
= + |
1
2 1
2
= +
59. The sequence log a,
2 3
2
a a
log , log ,
b b
........... is
(A) a G.P. (B) an A.P. (C) a H.P. (D) both a G.P. and a H.P
Ans : (B)
Hints : log a . (2log a log b)(3log a 2 log b)
= T
2
T
1
= log a log b
= T
3
T
2
= log a log b
60. If in a triangle ABC, sin A, sin B, sin C are in A.P., then
(A) the altitudes are in A.P. (B) the altitudes are in H.P.
(C) the angles are in A.P. (D) the angles are in H.P.
Ans : (B)
Hints :
1
2
ap
1
=
1
2
bp
2
=
1
2
cp
3
= A
a =
1 2
2 2 2
| b | c
p p p3
A A A
= =
H.P.
61.
a b b c c a
b c c a a b
c a a b b c

=

(A) 0 (B) 1 (C) 1 (D) 2
Ans : (A)
Hints : c
1
c
1
+ c
2
+ c
3
(14)
62. The area enclosed between y
2
= x and y = x is
(A)
2
3
sq. units (B)
1
2
units (C)
1
3
units (D)
1
6
units
Ans : (D)
Hints :
, i
1
0
A x x dx =
(0, 0)
A (1, 1)
O
= , i
1
3/ 2 2 1
o
0
2 1
x (x )
3 2
=
2 1
[1 0] [1 0]
3 2

=
1 4 3 1
3 2 6 6
2
= =
sq. unit.
63. Let f(x) = x
3
e
3x
, x > 0. Then the maximum value of f(x) is
(A) e
3
(B) 3e
3
(C) 27e
9
(D)
Ans : (A)
Hints : f(x) = x
3
.e
3x
= f '(x) = 3x
2
e
3x
+ x
3
e
3x
(3)
= x
2
3e
3x
[1 x] = 0, x = 1
Maximum at x = 1
f(1) = e
3
64. The area bounded by y
2
= 4x and x
2
= 4y is
(A)
20
3
sq. unit (B)
16
3
sq. unit (C)
14
3
sq. unit (D)
10
3
sq. unit
Ans : (B)
Hints : A =
2
4
0
x
4x dx
4
| |
|
\ .
O
(0,0)
A (4, 4)
= , i
4
3/ 2 3 4
0
0
2 1
2. x )(x )
3 4.3
=
3/ 2 3
4 1
4 0 [4 0]
3 4.3
]
]
=
5/ 2
4 16 32 16 16
3 3 3 3
= =
sq. unit
65. The acceleration of a particle starting from rest moving in a straight line with uniform acceleration is 8m/sec
2
. The time taken by
the particle to move the second metre is
(A)
2 1
2
sec (B)
2 1
2
+
sec (C) (1 2) + sec (D) , i
2 1
sec
Ans : (A)
Hints :
t = 0
1 m 1 m
(15)
2
2
2
1
S ut at
2
1
1 .8.t
2
1
t
4
1
t
2
= +
=
=
=
2
2
2
1
S uT aT
2
1
2 8.T
2
1
T
2
1
T
2
= +
=
=
=
Time =
1 1 2
2 2 2
=
=
2 1
2
66. The solution of

dy y y
tan
dx x x
= +
is
(A) x = c sin(y/x) (B) x = c sin(xy) (C) y = c sin(y/x) (D) xy = c sin (x/y)
Ans : (A)
Hints :
dy y y
tan
dx x x
= +
Put
y
x
= u , y = ux
dy xd
dx dx
u
= u +
d
x. tan
dx
u
u + = u + u
,
d dx
tan x
u
=
u
dx
cot d
x
u u =

log sinu = logx + logc
sinu = x.c sin
y
x.c
x
=
x = c sin
y
x
67. Integrating Factor (I.F.) of the defferential equation
2 2
3
dy 3x y sin (x)
dx 1 x 1 x
=
+ +
is
(A)
3
1 x
e
+
(B) log(1 + x
3
) (C) 1 + x
3
(D)
3
1
1 x +
Ans : (D)
Hints : If
2
3
3x dx
pdx
1 x
e e
=
=
3 3 1
log(1 x ) log(1 x )
e e

+ +
=
= (1 + x
3
)
1
=
3
1
1 x +
(16)
68. The differential equation of y = ae
bx
(a & b are parameters) is
(A)
2
1 2
yy y = (B)
2
2 1
yy y = (C)
2
1 2
yy y = (D)
2
2 1
yy y =
Ans : (B)
Hints : y = a.e
bx
............ (i)
y
1
= abe
bx
y
1
= by ........................... (ii)
y
2
= by
1
......................... (iii)
Dividing (ii) & (iii)
2 1
1 2
2 1
y y
y yy
y y
= =
69. The value of
3 n
4 4
n
r 1
r
lim
r n
=
+
is
(A)
1
2
log
e
(1/2) (B)
1
4
log
e
(1/2) (C)
1
4
log
e
2 (D)
1
2
log
e
2
Ans : (C)
Hints :
3
3
4
n
4
r
n
n
Lt .
r
n 1
n
| |
|
\ .
]
| |
+
]
|
\ .
]
]
=
3
1 1
4 4
4
0 0
1 x 1
. dx log(1 x )
4 4 1 x
] = +
]
+
=
e e e
1 1
(log 2 log 1) log 2
4 4
=
70. The value of
50 49
0
sin x cos x dx
t
is
(A) 0 (B) t/4 (C) t/2 (D) 1
Ans : (A)
Hints :
50 49
0 0
0
I sin x.cos x dx f (x) f ( x)
t
t t
]
= = t
]
]

50 49 50 49
0 0
I sin x( cos (x))dx sin x.cos x dx
t t
= =

I = I
I = 0
71.
x
2 (f (x) f (x) log 2)dx ' +
is
(A) 2
x
f'(x) + C (B) 2
x
f(x) + C (C) 2
x
(log 2)f(x) + C (D) (log 2) f(x) + C
Ans : (B)
Hints :
x x
I 2 f (x)dx 2 f (x) log 2dx ' = +

= 2
x
f(x) + C
(17)
72. Let f(x) = tan
1
x. Then f'(x) + f''(x) is = 0, when x is equal to
(A) 0 (B) + 1 (C) i (D) i
Ans : (B)
Hints : f(x) = tan
1
x
2
1
f (x)
1 x
' =
+
, i
2
1
f (x) .2x
1 x
'' =
+
, 2 2 2
1 2x
1 x (1 x )
=
+ +
1 + x
2
= 2x, (x 1)
2
= 0
x = 1
73. If y = tan
1
2
1 x 1
x
+
, then y'(1) =
(A) 1/4 (B) 1/2 (C) 1/4 (D) 1/2
Ans : (A)
Hints :
2
1
1 x 1
y tan
x
| |
+
| =
|
\ .
Put x = tanu
= tan
1
1
sec 1 1 cos
tan
tan sin
u u | | | |
=
| |
u u
\ . \ .
=
2
1 1
2sin
2
tan tan tan
2
2sin cos
2 2

u | |
|
u
=
|
u u
|
|
\ .
=
1
2 2
u
= .tan
1
x,
2
1
y
2(1 x )
' =
+
1 1
y (1)
2.2 4
' = =
74. The value of
2 n
x 1
x x ... x n
lim
x 1
+ + +
is
(A) n (B)
n 1
2
+
(C)
n(n 1)
2
+
(D)
n(n 1)
2
Ans : (C)
Hints :
2 3 4
x 1
(x 1) (x 1) (x 1).............(x 1)
Lt
x 1
+ +
= 1 + 2 + 3 ..................... + n =
n(n 1)
2
+
75.
2
2
x 0
sin( sin x)
lim
x
t
=
(A) t
2
(B) 3t (C) 2t (D) t
Ans : (D)
(18)
Hints :
, i
2
2
2 2
x 0 x 0
sin sin x
sin x
Lt
x x

t
= = t = t
= t
76. If the function
2
x (A 2)x A
for x 2
f (x)
x 2
2 for x 2
+ +
=
=

is continuous at x = 2, then
(A) A = 0 (B) A = 1 (C) A = 1 (D) A = 2
Ans : (A)
Hints : Function to be continuous at x = 2, A = 0
For existence of limit
2
x 2
x (A 2)x A 0
lim
x 2 0
+ + | |
|
\ .
4 (A + 2)2 + A = 0
A = 0
77.
[x] [ x], when x 2
f (x)
when x 2
+ =
=

=
If f(x) is continuous at x = 2, the value of will be

(A) 1 (B) 1 (C) 0 (D) 2
Ans : (A)
Hints :
h 0
LHL Lt [2 h] [ (2 h)]
= +
=
h 0
Lt 1 [ 2 h] 1 2 1
+ + = =
RML =
h 0
Lt [2 h] [ (2 h)]
+ + +
= 2 + [ 2 h] = 2 3 = 1
= 1
78. The even function of the following is
(A)
x x
x x
a a
f (x)
a a
+
=
(B)
x
x
a 1
f (x)
a 1
+
=
(C)
x
x
a 1
f (x) x.
a 1
=
+
(D)
, i
2
2
f (x) log x x 1 = + +
Ans : (C)
Hints :
x
x
a 1
f ( x) ( x)
a 1

=
+
= ( x)
x
x
1 a
1 a
+
=
x
x
(a 1)
x
(a 1)
+
= f(x)
79. If f(x + 2y, x 2y) = xy, then f(x, y) is equal to
(A)
1
4
xy (B)
1
4
(x
2
y
2
) (C)
1
8
(x
2
y
2
) (D)
1
2
(x
2
+ y
2
)
Ans : (C)
(19)
Hints :
x 2y a
x 2y b
2x a b
4y a b
+ =
=
= +
=
2 2
a b a b a b
f (a, b)
2 4 8
+ | || |
= =
| |
\ .\ .
80. The locus of the middle points of all chords of the parabola y
2
= 4ax passing through the vertex is
(A) a straight line (B) an ellipse (C) a parabola (D) a circle
Ans : (C)
Hints : 2h = x, 2k = y
y
2
= 4ax
k
2
= 2ah
y
2
= 2ax

(20)
1. The harmonic mean of two numbers is 4. Their arithemetic mean A and the geometric mean G satisfy the relation 2A + G
2
= 27. find
the numbers.
Ans. (3, 6)
Sol : Let the number be a, b
As A.M . H.M = G.M
2
A.M. = G
2
G
2
= 4 A ... (1)
G
2
= 4A
2A + G
2
= 27 2A + 4A = 27
27
A
6 2
9
= =
G
2
= 18 G =
18
a.b = 18
a + b = 9
a 6 or a 3
b 3 b 6
= =
= =
2. If the area of a rectangle is 64 sq. unit, find the minimum value possible for its perimeter.
Ans. 32
Sol. Let the dimesions be a, b
Area = ab
Paimeter = 2(a + b)
We have ab = 64 b =
64
a
Perimeter as function of a
P (a) =
64
2 a
a
| |
+
|
\ .
for maxima or minimum
, i
2
64
P a 2 1 0
a
| |
' = =
|
\ .
a = 8 = 8
, i
3 3
64 2 64
P a 2 0
a 8
'' = = >
P (8) is minimum
Minimum P (8) = 2 ( 8 + 8) = 32
SUB : MATHEMATICS
(21)
3. Find the image of the point (8, 12) with respect to the line 4x + 7y + 13 = 0
Ans. (16, 2)
Sol.
Image
(h, k)
A
P
(-8, 12)
h 8
2
(4x + 7y + 13 = 0)
A'
k + 12
2
,
h 8 k 12
4 7 13 0
2 2
+ | | | |
+ + =
| |
\ . \ .
2h 16 +
7k
2
+ 42 + 13 = 0
4h + 7k + 78 = 0
4 h 7k 78 + = ........ (i)
also,
Slope of AA' =
7
4
k 12 7
h 18 4
=
+
4k 48 = 7h + 56
4k 7h = 104 ........ (ii)
Solving (i) & (ii)
Equation (i) 7 + Equation (ii) 4
28h 49k 546

28h 16k 416
65k 130
+ =
+ =
=
k 2 =
h 16 =
A' ( 16, 2) is the image of (8, 12)
4. How many triangles can be formed by joining 6 points lying on a circle ?
Ans. 20
Sol. Number of triangle
6
C
3
=
6
20
3 3
=
5. If r
2
= x
2
+ y
2
+ z
2
, then prove that
1 1 1
yz zx xy
tan tan tan
rx ry rz 2

| | t | | | |
+ + =
| | |
\ . \ .
\ .
A.
1 1 3
2
S S
tan
1 S
| |
u=
|
\ .
1 S
2
= 1
2 2 2
2 2 2
z x y
r r r
| |
+ +
|
\ .
= 0
2
t
u =
(22)
6. Determine the sum of imaginary roots of the equation
(2x
2
+ x 1) (4x
2
+ 2x 3) = 6
Ans.
1
2
Sol. Put 2x
2
+ x = y
(y 1) (2y 3) = 6, on solving
2x
2
+ x +
1
2
= 0
1
2
o + |=
(y 1) (2y 3) = 6
2y
2
2y 3y + 3 = 6
2y
2
5y 3 = 0 y = 3,
1
2
where 2x
2
+ x = 3, x is real when 2x
2
+ x =
1
2
, x is imaginary. .
Sum of imaginary units =
1
2
7. If cos A + cos B + cos C = 0, prove that

cos 3A + cos 3B + cos 3C = 12 cos A cos B cos C
A. L.H.S = , i
3
4cos A 3cos A
=
3 3 3
4(cos A cos B cos C) 3(cos A cos B cos C) + + + +
= 4(3cos A cos B cos C) 3(cos A cos B cos C) + +
= 12cos A cos B cos C
8. Let IR be the set of real numbers and
f : IR IR
be such that for all x, y eIR,
|f(x) f(y)| s | x y|
3
. Prove that f is a constant function.
A.
, i , i 2
x y
f x f y
lim x y
x y
= |f' (x) | s | 0 | |f' (x)| = 0

f (x) = constant
9. Find the general solution of
(x + logy) dy + y dx = 0
Ans. xy + y lny y = 0
Sol. x dy + y dx + log y dy = 0
, i d xy log ydy 0 + =

xy + y lny y + C = 0
10. Prove that
/ 2
0
sec x
I dx
4 cos ecx sec x
t
t
= =
+
A.
2 2
0 0
sec x cos ec x
I dx dx
cos ec x sec x cos ec x sec x
t t
= =
+ +

2
0
2I dx I
4
t
t
= =
1. Glucose and amino acids are reabosorbed in the

(A) proximal tubule (B) distal tubule (C) collecting duct (D) loop of Henle
Ans : (A)
Hints : Glucose and amino acids are reabsorbed in the proximal tubule of nephron actively.
2. The amount of CSF in the cranial cavity
(A) 500 ml (B) 140 ml (C) 1 litre (D) 1.5 ml
Ans : (B)
Hints : The amount of CSF in the cranial cavity is 140 ml.
3. Which one is imino acid?
(A) Pepsin (B) Proline (C) Cysteine (D) Renin
Ans : (B)
Hints : Proline and hydroxyproline are imino acids.
4. The main difference between Gram positive and Gram negative bacteria is
(A) Cell membrane (B) Cell wall (C) Ribosome (D) Mitochondria
Ans : (B)
5. ACTH is secreted from
(A) Adrenal cortex (B) Pituitary (C) Adrenal Medulla (D) Thyroid
Ans : (B)
Hints : ACTH is secreted from anterior pituitary
6. Which of the following is the correct pathway for propagation of cardiac impulse?
(A) SA node AV node Bundle of His Purkinje fibers
(B) AV node Bundle of His SA node Purkinje fibers
(C) SA node Purkinje fibers AV node Bundle of His
(D) Purkinje fibers AV node SA node Bundle of His
Ans : (A)
Hints : Cardiac impulse is propagated in the following way : SA node Av node Bundle of His Purkinje fibres.
7. Inner surface of the bronchi, bronchioles and fallopian tubes are lined by
(A) cubical epithelium (B) columnar epithelium (C) squamous epithelium (D) ciliated epithelium
Ans : (D)
Hints : Ciliated epithelium is found in inner surface of bronchi, bronchioles and fallopian tubes
43957
[Q. Booklet Number]
Ph. : 011-47623456 Fax : 011-47623472
WBJEE - 2011 (Answers & Hints) Biology
(1)
ANSWERS & HINTS
for
WBJEE - 2011
SUB : BIOLOGY
(2)
8. Electric potential of the brain is recorded by
(A) CT Scan (B) Sphygmomanometer (C) ECG (D) EEG
Ans : (D)
Hints : Electrical potential of brain is recorded by EEG
9. Which of the following is related to humoral immunity?
(A) T-lymphocyte (B) B-lymphocyte (C) I-lymphocyte (D) P-lymphocyte
Ans : (B)
Hints : Humoral immunity is due to B-lymphocyte because it secretes antibodies in the blood plasma.
10. Fertilization occur in
(A) Uterus (B) Ureter (C) Vagina (D) Fallopian tube
Ans : (D)
Hints : Fertilization occurs in fallopian tube at the junction of ampulla and isthmus.
11. The Gastrin is secreted from
(A) Intestine (B) Stomach (C) Pancreas (D) Rectum
Ans : (B)
Hints : Gastrin hormone is secreted from G-cells of stomach.
12. The cause of cretinism is
(A) Hypothyroidism (B) Hypoparathyroidism (C) Hyperthyroidism (D) Hyperparathyroidism
Ans : (A)
Hints : Cretinism is caused by hyposecretion of thyroxine in children.
13. Which of the following is a minerelocorticoid?
(A) Testosterone (B) Progesterone (C) Adrenalin (D) Aldosterone
Ans : (D)
Hints : Aldosterone is secreted from adrenal cortex and controls RAAS. mechanism.
14. The part of the brain where the centre for hunger and thirst is located is
(A) Cerebrum (B) Hypothalamus (C) Cerebellum (D) Medulla Oblongata
Ans : (B)
Hints : Hypothalamus is the centre for hunger and thirst.
15. The reflex arc, which is made of two neurones is known as
(A) Monosynaptic reflex arc (B) Disynaptic reflex arc
(C) Polysynaptic refles arc (D) Asynaptic reflex arc
Ans : (A)
Hints : Monosynaptic reflex are has two neurons sensory and motor, which forms one synapse in CNS.
16. The lactase hydrolyzes lactose into
(A) Glucose (B) Glucose and galactose (C) Fructose (D) Glucose and fructose
Ans : (B)
Hints : Lactose Glucose + Galactose
17. In 24 hours, total glomerular filtrate formed in human kidney is
(A) 1.7 litres (B) 7 litres
(C) 17 litres (D) 170 litres
Ans : (D)
Hints : GFR is 120 ml/min, so, approx. 170 litre ultra fitrate is produced in 24 hrs.
18. When the oxygen supply to the tissue is inadequate, the condition is
(A) Dyspnea (B) Hypoxia
(C) Asphyxia (D) Apnea
Ans : (B)
Hints : Inadequate supply of oxygen to the tissue is called hypoxia
19. Which one of the following is not a second messenger in hormone action?
(A) Calcium (B) Sodium (C) cAMP (D) cGMP
Ans : (B)
(3)
Hints : Sodium is not a secondary messenger in hormone action.
20. The name of the pace maker of the heart is
(A) Lymph node (B) S.A. node (C) Juxtaglumerular apparatus(D) Semilunar valve
Ans : (B)
Hints : Pace maker of heart is SA node.
21. What is a genophore?
(A) DNA in prokaryotes (B) DNA and RNA in prokaryotes
(C) DNA and protein in prokaryotes (D) RNA in prokaryotes
Ans : (B)
Hints : Genophore = DNA + RNA
22. Example of a typical homopolysaccharide is
(A) Ligin (B) Suberin (C) Inulin (D) Starch
Ans : (D)
Hints : Starch and glycogen are typical homopolysaccharides.
23. Who wrote the famous book Origin of Species?
(A) Lamarck (B) Darwin (C) De Vries (D) Mendel
Ans : (B)
Hints : The book Origin of species was written by Darwin.
24. Polyploid derived from two different species is called
(A) Autopolyploid (B) Triploid (C) Allopolyploid (D) Monoploid
Ans : (C)
25. Electrons used in Electron Microscope are of the wavelength
(A) 0.05 (B) 0.15 (C) 0.25 (D) 0.30
Ans : (A)
26. Biolistic technique is used in
(A) Tissue culture process (B) Gene transfer process
(C) Hybridization process (D) Germplasm conservation process
Ans : (B)
Hints : Biolistic technique is a direct method of gene transfer.
27. Example of water soluble plant pigment is
(A) Chlorophyll-a (B) Chlorophyll-b (C) Anthocyanin (D) Xanthophyll
Ans : (C)
Hints : Anthocyanin is hot water soluble pigment.
28. Structural element of Chromatin is
(A) Histone (B) Acid protein and DNA (C) Nuclear matrix (D) Nucleosomes
Ans : (D)
Hints : Nucleosome is the first packaged structure of DNA with histone.
29. Inulin is a polymer of
(A) Glucose (B) Galactose (C) Fructose (D) Arabinose
Ans : (C)
30. Mannitol is
(A) Amino Acid (B) Amino alcohol (C) Sugar alcohol (D) Sugar acid
Ans : (C)
31. A flower which can be divided into two equal halves by only one plane is
(A) Zygomorphic (B) Actinomorphic (C) Regular (D) Perfect
Ans : (A)
32. Pieces of plant tissue used in tissue culture is called
(A) Explant (B) Somaclone (C) Inoculant (D) Clone
Ans : (A)
(4)
33. VAM is
(A) Symbiotic bacteria (B) Saprophytic bacteria (C) Saprophytic fungi (D) Symbiotic fungi
Ans : (D)
Hints : VAM (Endomycorrhizae) represent symbiotic association between fungi and roots of higher plants.
34. Ovule integument gets transformed into
(A) seed (B) fruit wall (C) seed coat (D) cotyledons
Ans : (C)
Hints : Outer integument transforms into testa where as the inner integument into tegmen.
35. Acid rain is caused by
(A) NO
2
(B) SO
2
(C) SO
3
(D) CO
2
Ans : (B)
36. Which one of the following bacterium is used for production of transgenic plants
(A) Escherichia coli (B) Bacillus thuringiensis
(C) Staphylococcus aureus (D) Agrobacterium tumefaciens
Ans : (D)
37. A plant cell becomes turgid due to
(A) Plasmolysis (B) Exosmosis (C) Endosmosis (D) Electrolysis
Ans : (C)
Hints : Endosmosis leads to diffusion of water into the cell.
38. Restriction enzymes are used to cut
(A) Single stranded RNA (B) Double stranded DNA (C) Single stranded DNA (D) Double stranded RNA
Ans : (B)
Hints : Restriction endunuclease is used to cut dsDNA at palindromic sequence.
39. Spindle fibre is made up of
(A) Humulin (B) Intermediate filament
(C) Flagellin (D) Tubulin
Ans : (D)
40. Edible part of Mushroom is
(A) Basidiocarp (B) Primary mycelium (C) Fungal hyphae (D) Basidiospores
Ans : (A)
41. Calcium level decreases in the blood due to hyposecretion of
(A) Parathyroid hormone (B) Calcitonin (C) Thyroxine (D) Adrenaline
Ans : (A)
Hints : Hyposecretion of PTH causes decrease in the level of calcium in the blood.
42. Kupffers cells are
(A) Phagocytic (B) Actin (C) Myosin (D) Fibrin
Ans : (A)
Hints : Kupffers cells are phagocytic cells of liver.
43. Which centre is stimulated during increase in body temperature
(A) Anterior hypothalamus (B) Posterior hypothalamus (C) Limbic system (D) Red nucleus
Ans : (A)
Hints : Anterior hypothalamus is stimulated during increase in body temperature.
44. Name the following having oxygen storing capacity
(A) Myoglobin (B) Prophase II (C) Anaphase I (D) Metaphase II
Ans : (A)
Hints : Myoglobin present in muscles stroes oxygen
45. Longest phase of meiosis
(A) Prophase I (B) Prophase II (C) Anaphase I (D) Metaphase II
Ans : (A)
(5)
46. Tetany is caused by
(A) Hyperparathyroidism (B) Hypoparathyroidism (C) Hyperthyroidism (D) Hypothyroidism
Ans : (B)
47. Which the following is a gastrointestine hormone?
(A) Prolactin (B) Enterokinase (C) GH (D) FSH
Ans : (B)
48. Name the hormone that has no role in menstruation.
(A) LH (B) FSH (C) GH (D) TSH
Ans : (C)
Hints : The alpha sub-unit of LH, FSH and TSH, hCG are identical and regulate menstruation.
49. Which of the following substances can cure Parkinsons disease?
(A) GABA (B) Acetylcholine (C) Dopamine (D) Glutamic acid
Ans : (C)
Hints : Dopamine deficiency causes parkinsons disease.
50. Movement of tongue muscle is controlled by
(A) facial nerve (B) trigeminal nerve (C) hypoglossal nerve (D) vagus nerve
Ans : (C)
Hints : 12th cranilal nerve (hypoglossal) is responsible for movement of tongue.
51. Which function will be lost due to damage of occipital lobe?
(A) Hearing (B) Speech (C) Vision (D) Memory
Ans : (C)
Hints : Damage of occipital lobe causes loss of vision.
52. Meissners corpuscles occur in
(A) Brain (B) Nerve cells (C) Skin (D) Tongue
Ans : (C)
53. Osteomalacia is a deficiency disease of
(A) Infants due to protein energy malnutrition (B) Adults due ot protein energy malnutrition
(C) Adults due to Vitamin D deficiency (D) Infants due to Vitamin K deficiency
Ans : (C)
54. The gene of sickle cell anaemia is inherited by
(A) Blood cells (B) Bone cells (C) Sex chromosomes (D) Autosomes
Ans : (D)
Hints : The gene for sickle cell anaemia is located in chromosome number 11.
55. Ptyalin is inactivated by a component of gastric juice known as
(A) Pepsin (B) Mucus (C) Rennin (D) HCl
Ans : (D)
Hints : Ptylin or -amylase of saliva is inactivated by HCl in stomach.
56. Which one of the following human cells do not contain mitochondria ?
(A) Nerve cell (B) Red blood cell (C) Liver cell (D) White blood cell
Ans : (B)
Hints : Matured Red blood cells are without mitochondria.
57. In which stage of the first meiotic division two sister chromatids are formed?
(A) Leptotene (B) Zygotene (C) Pachytene (D) Diplotene
Ans : (C)
Hints : During pachytene statge, chromosomes shortens & thickens and two sister chromatids become clearly visible.
58. Which one of the following triplet codons is a chain termination codon?
(A) UGU (B) AAU (C) UUG (D) UAG
Ans : (D)
Hints : UAG is a non-sense codon.
(6)
59. How many pairs of contrasting characters in pea pod were chosen by Mendel?
(A) 3 (B) 5 (C) 7 (D) 9
Ans : (A)
Hints : Three pairs of contrasting characters with respect to pea pod are (i) Pod position (ii) pod colour (iii) Pod shape
60. If a cross between two individuals produces offsprings with 50% dominant character (A) and 50% recessive character (a) the
genotype of parents are
(A) Aa Aa (B) Aa aa (C) AA aa (D) AA Aa
Ans : (B)
Hints : Aa aa. This is a test cross.
61. Structural lipids of cell membrane
(A) Simple lipid (B) Chromolipids (C) Steroid (D) Phospholipids
Ans : (D)
62. Which one of the following is polysaccharide ?
(A) Glycogen (B) Sucrose (C) Lactose (D) Maltose
Ans : (A)
Hints : Glycogen is a polysaccharide of glucose.
63. What will be the codons in m-RNA if the DNA codes are ATG-CAG ?
(A) TAC GTC (B) UAC GUC (C) UCA TUA (D) TCA GTC
Ans : (B)
64. Which of the following species is restricted to a specific area ?
(A) Sibling species (B) Allopatric species (C) Sympatric species (D) Endemic species
Ans : (D)
Hints : Endemic species is restricted to a specific area.
65. Which of the following is NOT correctly matched ?
(A) Sycon Canal system
(B) Star fish Radial symmetry
(C) Ascaris Flame cell
(D) Prawn Haemocoel
Ans : (C)
Hints : Flame cells are found in flat worms.
66. Which one of the following animal phyla does not possess a coelom ?
(A) Platyhelminthes (B) Annelida (C) Mollusca (D) Echinodermata
Ans : (A)
Hints : Platyhelminthes are acoelomate.
67. Cardiac muscles are
(A) Striated and voluntary (B) Striated and involuntary (C) Smooth and voluntary (D) Smooth and involuntary
Ans : (B)
68. Which one of the following immunoglobulins is found as pentamer ?
(A) IgG (B) IgM (C) IgA (D) IgE
Ans : (B)
Hints : IgM is a pentamer with 10 paratopes
69. Which one of the following cells is not a phagocytic cell ?
(A) Macrophage (B) Monocyte (C) Neutrophil (D) Basophil
Ans : (D)
Hints : Basophil is non-phagocytic WBC.
70. Which one of the following is the most primitive ancestor of man ?
(A) Homo habilis (B) Australopithecus (C) Rampithecus punjabicus (D) Homo neanderthalensis
Ans : (C)
Hints : Ramipithecus is one of the most primitive ancestors of man.
(7)
71. A female Anopheles mosquito can be recognized by
(A) Proboscis and palpi are long and more or less of equal length
(B) Proboscis long and palpi short
(C) Proboscis short and palpi long
(D) Both proboscis and palpi are short
Ans : (A)
Hints : Proboscis and palpi are long and of equal in length in female Anopheles.
72. The anterior V-spot in microfilaria of Wuchereria represents
(A) Nerve ring (B) Cervical papilla (C) Excretory system (D) Reproductive
Ans : (C)
Hints : V-spot in microfilaria of Wuchereria represents rudimentary excretory system.
73. In a population, unrestricted reproductive capacity is called
(A) Biotic potential (B) Fertility (C) Carrying capacity (D) Birth rate
Ans : (A)
74. When the two ecosystems overlap each other, the area is called
(A) Habitat (B) Niche (C) Ecotone (D) Ecotype
Ans : (C)
Hints : Ecotone represent transition zone between two ecosystems.
75. Pyramid of energy in ecosystems is
(A) Always upright (B) Always inverted (C) Mostly upright (D) Mostly inverted
Ans : (A)
76. Which one of the following is mainly responsible for green house effect ?
(A) SO
2
(B) CO
2
(C) CO (D) O
2
Ans : (B)
Hints : 60% of the total green house effect is due to CO
2
.
77. Which one of the following is an exotic carp species ?
(A) Barbus stigma (B) Cyprinus carpio (C) Labeo bata (D) Cirrhinus mrigala
Ans : (B)
78. Which of following two hormones are essential for induced breeding of fishes ?
(A) TSH and ACTH (B) Oestrogen and progesterone
(C) FSH and LH (D) Vassopressin and oxytocin
Ans : (C)
Hints : FSH and LH present in pituitary extract helps in induced beeeding.
79. Which stage of malarial parasite is infective to man ?
(A) Gametocyte (B) Merozoite (C) Cryptomerozoite (D) Sporozoite
Ans : (D)
Hints : Sporozoite stage of Plasmodium is infective to man.
80. The scientific name of the moth which produce tasar is
(A) Bombyxmori (B) Antheraea mylitta (C) Antheraea assamensis (D) Philosomia ricini
Ans : (B)

(8)
1. What are poikilothermic animals?
A. The body temperature of poikilothermic animals (cold blooded animals) changes according to environmental temperature.
Example are invertebrates, fishes, amphibians and reptiles.
2. Write two functions of juxtaglomerular apparatus.
A. The Juxta glomerular apparatus (JGA) possesses Juxta glomerular cells and Macula densa. The Juxta glomerular cells
secrete renin which regulates RAAS mechanism. Macula densa responds to the change in the mineral ion concentration
of glomerular filtrate.
3. State two differences between red and white muscles.
A.
White Muscle
1. Myoglobin present Myoglobin absent
2. Slow fatigue muscle Fast fatigue muscle
3. Mitochondria more in Mitochondria less in number
number
4. Sarcoplasmic reticulum Sarcoplasmic reticulum more
less in number in number
Red Muscle
4. What is the difference between pinocytosis and phagocytosis?
A.
Phagocytosis
1. It is "Cell drinking" pheno- It is a "Cell eating" phenome-
menon where bulk intake non where bulk intake of solid
of extracellular fluid with material from outside to inside
the help of vesicle called of a cell takes place with the
pinosome takes place. help of phagosome.
Pinocytosis
5. State four important functions of plasma membrane.
A. Four important functions of plasma membrane are :
(i) Involved in active and passive transport
(ii) Involved in a variety of cellular processess such as cell adhesion, ion conductivity & cell signalling.
(iii) As a cell envelope it contain the protoplasm thus protective in nature.
(iv) In prokaryotes, plasma membrane is the site of E.T.S.
6. What is bioaccumulation?
A. Bioaccumulation is the accumulation of toxic substance at a rate greater than at which the substance is lost by an
organism.
Longer the biological half life of the accumulated substance, greater is the risk of bioaccumulation.
SUB : BIOLOGY
(9)
7. What is a test cross? Why is it so named?
A. Test cross is a cross between F
1
hybrid and homozygous recessive parent.
Test cross is so named as it determines whether the individual with dominant phenotype is homozygous dominant or
heterozygous dominant.
8. What is ribozyme?
A. A ribozyme is a RNA molecule possessing a well defined tertiary structure that enables it to catalyse a chemical reaction
eg. 23S rRNA (peptidyl transferase).
9. What are mycorrhizae?
A. Mycorrhizae is a symbiotic association between roots of higher plants and fungi.
It plays a key role in mineral absorption specially phosphate.
10. Write down the scientific name of China rose plant. Give its floral formula.
A. Scientific name of China rose is Hibiscus rosa - sinensis
Floral formula : Br, , Epik
39
.
K(5) C A G
5 ( ) (5 )

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Q.

9. In the nuclear reaction

. The component of vector A

Hence, for shortest , z must be maximum, which is for Li

Change in O.N per mole = 12=2

, Valence electron = 111

WBJEE - 2011 (Hints & Solutions) Physics & Chemistry

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33. The degree and order of the differential equation

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66. The solution of

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WBJEE - 2011 (Answers & Hints) Mathematics

28h 49k 546

7. If cos A + cos B + cos C = 0, prove that

= |f' (x) | s | 0 | |f' (x)| = 0

1. Glucose and amino acids are reabosorbed in the

WBJEE - 2011 (Answers & Hints) Biology

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