True or false:

1. Bacteria are living organisms that belong to the kingdom Prokaryotae. T

2. Gram staining of the bacteria is an important step in the classification and
identification. T
3. Fimbriae are organs of movement in all motile bacteria. F
4. Capsule is a protein layer that protects the bacteria from phagocytosis. T
5. Flagellae are responsible for adhesion of the bacteria to host cells. F
6. Mycoplasma have the power of forming spores which is highly resistant. F
7. Endospores can resist wide temperature changes and survive disinfectants and
boiling. T
8. Anthrax is a serious disease caused by spores. T
9. Viruses contain either RNA or DNA but never both. T
10. Viruses are metabolically active outside and inside the host cells. F
11. Candida, a medically important yeast is found as part of the normal intestinal
flora pf healthy human. T
12. Most of the bacteria constituting the normal flora are commensals and
symbiotic bacteria. T
13. Transient flora consists of both pathogens and non-pathogens that can inhabit
the skin or mucous membrane for a limited period. T
14. Pneumococci, meningococci and haemophilus are examples of the resident
flora of the nasopharynx. F
15. The beneficial resident flora can produce vitamins like vit K and B. T
16. The beneficial resident flora can prevent colonization and invasion of the
pathogens. T
17. Skin and mucous membrane carry normal flora while the internal body organs
are sterile. T
18. When infection is acquired by a patient in the hospital stay, it is known as
nosocomial infection. T
19. Staph carriage is of particular concern in hospital outbreaks of wound sepsis. T
20. Interferons are the first line of defense against viral infection. T
21. Interferons are group of proteins produced by human cells in response to viral
infection. T
22. Passive immunization is achieved by injecting the recipient with preformed
immunoglobulins. T
23. Active immunization is achieved by injecting the purified pathogens or their
products. T
24. Bactericidal antibiotics have the property to kill the bacteria. T
25. Bacteriostatic antibiotics have the property to inhibit bacterial multiplication.
T
26. Disc diffusion method is the most widely used to test antibiotic sensitivity. T
27. Amphotericin B is an example of antifungal agents. T
28. Sterilizations means freeing of an article from all living organisms including:
bacteria, viruses, spores and fungi. T
29. Disinfection means freeing of an article from some but not all of
microorganisms and can not remove bacterial spores. T
30. Pasteurization can not eliminate the spores from the food. T
31. Staph aureus is distinguished from other staphylococci by coagulase test. T
32. Staph aureus is a common commensal in the nose and skin. T
33. Staph epidermidis is a coagulase negative staph and present on the skin and
mucous membrane. T
34. Staph epidermidis can cause infection with implanted plastic devices. T
35. Antistreptolysin O (ASO) is of no value in diagnosis of rheumatic fever. F
36. Group B β-hemolytic streptococci is part of the perineal flora. T
37. Strep pneumonie is capsulated gram positive cocci in pairs and can cause otitis
media. T
38. Viridans streptococci can produce bacterial endocarditis with damaged heart
valves. T
39. C. tetani can produce powerful exotoxin leading to spastic paralysis. T
40. C. perfringens can produce muscle infection known as gas gangrene. T
41. C. diphtheriae can cause upper respiratory tract infection with cardiac and
neurological complications. T
42. Diphtheroids are found as normal skin flora. T
43. Listeria monocytogenes can cause neonatal infection leading to abortion. T
44. Hemophilus infleunza can cause genital ulcers called chancroids. F
45. Hemophilus ducreyi causes invasive infections in the first year of life. F
46. Pseudomonas has a characteristic fruity smell and produces blue/green
pigments. T
47. Treponema can be cultivated invitro and grows rapidly. F
48. T. pallidum is a strict human pathogen and causes syphilis. T
49. Borrelia causes a human disease called relapsing fever. T
50. Leptospira can be harbored in the kidney of the infected rodent. T
51. Mycobacterium tuberculosis can not survive for a long period in the
environment and killed by dryness. F
52. Mycobacterium tuberculosis appears as pink thin rods when stained in the
tissues by Z-N stain. T
53. Atypical Mycobacteria are transmitted to human mainly from the
environment. T
54. Human papilloma virus infection is associated with cervical cancer in women.
T
55. Influenza A virus is the principle cause of epidemic and pandemics associated
with antigenic changes of the virus. T
 56. Rubella infection in the first four months of pregnancy can cause congenital
defects to the fetus. T
57. Hepatitis B virus can be transmitted by blood transfusion. T
58. Hepatitis A virusis transmiotted by fecal-oral route and associated with
complete recovery. T
59. Hepatitis C virus is associated with high incidence of chronic hepatitis. T
60. Hepatitis D virus is a defective virus and replicates only in HBV infected cells.
T
61. Hepatitis E virus is associated with severe disease and high mortality in
pregnant women. T
62. Candida is a yeast like fungus and can produce vaginal thrush. T

Match the bacterial cell structure with its function:

1. Bacterial chromosome f
2. Ribosomes d
3. Inclusion granules e
4. Flagella c
5. Fimbria b
6. Capsule a
7. Plasmid g

a. Surrounds the bacteria and inhibits phagocytosis

b. Adhesion to host cells or gene transfer
c. Organ of movement
d. Protein synthesis
e. Energy and nutrient reserve
f. Single circular molecule of double stranded DNA
g. Small extrachromosomal DNA

Match:
1. Facultative anaerobes c
2. Micro-aerophilic bacteria b
3. Anaerobic bacteria d
4. Aerobic bacteria a

a. Affect the superficial wounds of the skin

b. Grow in low oxygen concentration
c. Can grow in presence or absence of oxygen
d. Affect mainly deep wounds like stab wound

Match the growth curve of the bacteria to its right description:

 1. Lag phase d
2. Logarithmic phase (log) c
3. Stationary phase b
4. Decline phase a

a. The number of living cells decrease and dead cells increase

b. Nutrients are depleted and cell division stops
c. Cell division proceeds in a maximal constant rate
d. Bacteria enters a period of adaptation with intense metabolic activity

Match the opportunistic pathogen with the infection it produces:

1. E. coli a
2. Viridans streptococci c
3. Staphylococcus epidermidis b

a. Urinary tract infection

b. Intravascular catheter infection
c. Bacterial endocarditis

Match the normal flora with the correct place:

1. Skin b
2. Nose a
3. Nasopharynx c
4. Gastrointestinal tract d
5. Genitourinary tract f
6. Oropharynx e

a. Staph aureus
b. Staph epidermidis
c. Diphtheroids
d. E. coli
e. Viridans streptococci
f. candida

Match:
1. infectious disease transmitted from animal to human c
2. organism causes urinary tract infection a
3. normal flora of the mouth b
4. infection spreads by droplet inhalation d
5. infection transmitted by fecal-oral route e
 6. a sexually transmitted disease g
7. infection transmitted by blood transfusion f
8. maternal infection that crosses the placenta h

a. E. coli
b. Viridans streptococci
c. Rabies
d. Infleunza
e. Hepatitis A
f. Hepatitis B
g. Gonorrhea
h. Toxoplasmosis

Match:
1. The humoral immune response b
2. Cell mediated immune response a
3. Antigens c
4. Antibodies e
5. B lymphocytes d
6. Cytokines f

a. Development of T cells
b. Appearance of antibodies in the blood
c. Initiates the immune response
d. Change to plasma cells
e. Neutralize the toxins and promote phagocytosis
f. Intercellular communication

Match the vaccine to its type:

1. Live attenuated vaccine a
2. Killed (inactivated) vaccine b
3. Microbial toxoid c

a. BCG
b. Cholera
c. Tetanus
Match the antibiotic with its mechanism of action:
1. Cell wall a
2. Cell membrane c
3. Protein synthesis b
4. DNA synthesis d
5. RNA synthesis e

a. Penicillin
b. Aminoglycosides
c. Polymyxin
d. Quinolones
e. Rifampicin

Match
1. Sterilization b
2. Disinfection a
3. Pasteurization d
4. Cleaning c
5. Antisepsis e

a. Killing of some but not all of microorganisms

b. Killing of all microorganisms and spores
c. Soil removing process
d. Eliminates pathogens from food and milk
e. Applied to living tissues

Match:
1. Dry heat (hot air oven) b
2. Moist heat (autoclave) a
3. Gamma rays d
4. Filtration c
5. Glutaraldehyde (cidex) e
6. Ultraviolet radiation f
7. Air filteration g

a. All culture media not destroyed by heat

 b. Oils, powders and glassware
c. Remove bacteria from liquids
d. Plastic syringes and catheters
e. Endoscopes
f. Surfaces of safety cabinets
g. Remove organisms from the air

Match with the category of the disinfectant:

1. Low level disinfectant b
2. Intermediate level disinfectant a
3. High level disinfectant c

a. Iodophors
b. Quaternary ammonium compound
c. Glutaraldehyde (cidex)

Match each item and its method of disinfection:

1. Floors b
2. Trays a
3. Surgeon’s hands c
4. Thermometer e
5. Endoscopes d

a. Hypochlorite
b. Vacuum cleaner
c. Chlorhexidine in alcohol or povidone iodine
d. Cidex
e. Wipe with 70% alcohol

Match
1. Gram positive cocci in clusters b
2. Gram positive cocci in chains a
3. Anaerobic spore forming bacilli c
 a. Streptococcus pyogenes
b. Staphylococcus aureus
c. Clostridium tetani

Match the bacterial morphology with its name:

1. Cocci b
2. Bacilli c
3. Comma shaped a

a. cholera
b. Neisseria gonorrhea
c. E. coli

Match the organism with the disease:

1. Staphylococcus aureus b
2. Staphylococcus epidermidis c
3. Staphylococcus saprophyticus a

a. Urinary tract infection in young women

b. Boils and wound infection
c. Central venous catheter infection

Match the bacteria with its type of hemolysis on blood agar:

1. Streptococcus pyogenes b
2. Viridans Streptococci a
3. Enterococci c

a. Partial hemolysis on blood agar

b. Complete hemolysis on blood agar
c. No hemolysis on blood agar

Match:
1. Enterococci c
2. Streptococcus viridans a
 3. Streptococcus pneumonie e
4. Streptococcus pyogenes b
5. Group B β-hemolytic streptococci d

a. Bacterial endocarditis on damaged valves

b. tonsillitis
c. Can grow in bile salt containing medium
d. Neonatal meningitis
e. Pneumonia and otitis media

Match:
1. C. tetani b
2. C. perfringens a
3. C. botulinum d
4. C. Difficile c
5. B. anthracis e

a. Gas gangrene (myonecrosis)

b. Spastic paralysis
c. Pseudomembranous colitis
d. Produces powerful toxin in preserved food
e. Spores transmitted from infected animals to human

Match:
1. N. gonorrhea d
2. N. meningitides e
3. E.coli f
4. Salmonella typhi c
5. Shigella a
6. Yersinia pestis b

a. Bacillary dysentery
b. plague
c. Enteric fever
d. Urethritis and ophthalmia neonatorum
e. Meningitis
 f. Can be pathogenic outside the gastrointestinal tract

Match:
1. Hemophilus influenza type b c
2. Hemophilus ducreyi d
3. Hemophilus aegyptius e
4. Bordetella a
5. Brucella b

a. Whooping cough
b. Zoonotic infection
c. Acute epiglottitis
d. Chancroid
e. Conjunctivitis

Match:

1. Vibrio cholera b
2. Campylobacter c
3. H. pylori a

a. Gastric and duodenal ulcers

b. Watery diarrhea
c. Reservoir in the cattle, poultry and other animals

Match the virus with site of infection:

1. Poliovirus d
2. Influenza virus e
3. Adenovirus f
4. Chicken pox virus g
5. Cytomegalovirus a
6. Rotavirus b
7. Hepatitis A virus c

a. Salivary gland
 b. Gastrointestinal tract
c. liver
d. Central nervous system
e. Respiratory tract
f. Eye (conjunctiva)
g. Skin

Match:

1. HIV c
2. Rabies virus d
3. Rotavirus b
4. SARS (coronavirus) a

a. Severe acute respiratory syndrome

b. Infantile gastroenteritis
c. AIDS
d. Transmitted by animal bite

Match the infectious agent and route of transmission:

1. Air borne c
2. Ingestion d
3. Parenteral a
4. Contact b

a. Hepatitis B
b. Staph aureus
c. Tuberculosis
d. Hepatitis A

Choose the correct answer:

1. Fungi are eukaryotic cells and……
a. Contain chlorophyll like plants
b. Only are microscopic in size
c. Include yeast and mycelia +
 d. Highly pathogenic to human

2. Structure of the virus include…….

a. A core of both DNA and RNA
b. A protein coat called capsid +
c. All viruses are surrounded by envelopes
d. All viruses have glycoprotein projections on the surface

3. Example of resident flora of the skin….

a. E. coli
b. Staph epidermidis +
c. Alpha hemolytic streptococci
d. Pneumococci

4. Example of the resident flora of the intestine ……

a. E. coli +
b. Staph epidermidis
c. Alpha hemolytic streptococci
d. Pneumococci

5. Example of the resident flora of the oropharynx ……

a. E. coli
b. Staph epidermidis
c. Alpha hemolytic streptococci +
d. Pneumococci
6. Which of the following vaccines is live attenuated?
a. Sabin vaccine (polyomylitis) +
b. Salk vaccine (polyomylitis)
c. Rabies
d. Cholera

7. Which of these antibiotics act by inhibiting the cell wall?

a. Polymyxin
b. Penicillin +
c. Tetracyclin
d. Sulphonamides

8. Which of these antibiotics act by inhibiting DNA synthesis?

a. Trimethoprim +
b. Aminoglycosides
c. Rifampicin
d. Penicillin

9. Which of the following viruses is not a herpes virus?

a. Varicella zoster
b. Cytomegalovirus
c. Epstein-Barr virus
d. Human papilloma virus +