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Biotechnology MCQs
1. A recombinant DNA molecule is produced by joining together

1. One mRNA with a DNA segment 2. One mRNA with a tRNA segment
3. Two mRNA molecules 4. Two DNA segments
2. A gene produced for recombinant DNA technology contains a gene from one organism joined to the regulatory
sequence of another gene. Such a gene is called
1. Oncogene 2. Junk gene 3. Chimeric gene 4. None
3. A group of genetically similar organisms obtained by a sexual reproduction is called
1. Clone 2. Population 3. Assembly 4. None
4. To be useful in the preparation of recombinant DNA, a plasmid must have
1. No origin of replication 2. An origin of replication 3. The ability to alternate between the linear and circular
forms 4. Restriction endonuclease activity
5. Restriction endonucleases have the ability of cutting
1. DNA at random sites 2. DNA at specific sites 3. Both a and b 4. DNA and RNA at random sites
6. Endonucleases, a group of enzymes cleave DNA
1. Externally 2. Internally 3. Both 1 and 2 4. Neither a nor b
7. The extra chromosomal, self-replicating, double stranded, closed, circular DNA molecules are called
1. Plasmids 2. Phages 3. Viruses 4. Chloroplasts
8. A plasmid consisting of its own DNA with a foreign DNA inserted into it is called
1. Recombinant DNA 2. Non-coding DNA 3. Junk DNA 4. None of the above
9. Insulin, a protein, consisting of
1. 2 Polypeptide chains 2. 3 Polypeptide chains 3. 4 Polypeptide chains
4. More than 4 Polypeptides chains
10. The first human protein produced through recombinant DNA technology is
1. Insulin 2. Erythropoitin 3. Interferon 4. Somatostatin
11. Humulin, a genetically engineered insulin was produced for the first time by
1. Biocon India Limited 2. Glaxo 3. Eli-lilly and Company 4. Cipla
12. The first licenced drug produced through genetic engineering is
1. Interferon 2. Insulin 3. Penicillin 4. Somatotropin
13. Before the production of recombinant insulin, insulin for the treatment of diabetes in human was obtained from
1. Healthy humans 2. Dead human body 3. Cows and pigs 4. Dogs and cats
14. The plasmid generally used for the production of recombinant insulin is
1. RK 646 2. Ti-plasmid 3. ACY 17 4. pUC 18
15. In one of the techniques of recombinant insulin production the genes for α and β polypeptides were inserted into the
plasmid by the side of……..
1. Ori 2. β - galactosidase gene 3. Antibiotic resistant gene 4. Restriction endonuclease gene
16. During recombinant insulin synthesis, the bond between insulin polypeptide and galactosidase can be removed by
using………..1. Cyanogen bromide 2. Chymotrypsin 3. Carboxyl peptidase 4. Amylase
17. Prior to the production of recombinant insulin, insulin obtained from cows and pigs were given to patients. Some of
the problems faced by this treatment was
Ataullah BS (Hons) in Biotechnology [Gold Medalist] –Uomian cell#:0343-3002384

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1. The insulin was not active 2. In some humans it induced antibody production 3. It reduces the weight of patients
4. Loss of memory power
18. A plant called Rauolfia serpentina is under the threat of extinction. To save this plant, which technique is highly
useful?
1. Genetic engineering 2. DNA finger printing 3. Hybridoma technology 4. In vitro culture
19. Which group of enzymes are popularly called “Molecular stichers”
1. Restriction Endonuclease 2. Ligases 3. RNA polymerase 4. DNA polymerase
20. A clone is a group of organisms produced by
1. Asexual method and genetically similar 2. Asexual method and genetically dissimilar
3. Sexual method and genetically similar 4. sexual method and genetically dissimilar
21. Match the following:
1. Restriction endonuclease p. Kary Mullis 2. DNA Finger printing q. Kohler and Milstein
3. Polymerase chain reaction r. Alec Jaffreys
4. Monoclonal antibodies s. Arber
1. 1-s, 2-r, 3-p, 4-q 2. 1-s, 2-r, 3-q, 4-p 3. 1-q, 2-r, 3-p, 4-s 4. 1-s, 2-p, 3-q, 4-r
22. Some of the steps involved in Gene Cloning are given be……..
i) Insertion of isolated gene to the vector ii) Introduction of recombinant vector to the host
iii) Isolation of desired gene iv) Expression of recombinant gene in host v) Extraction of recombinant gene product
The correct sequence of steps involved are
1. iii, i, iv, ii, v 2. iii, i, ii, iv, v 3. i, ii, iii, iv, v 4. ii, i, iii, iv, v
23. A gene for insulin has been inserted into a vector for the purpose of obtaining its protein product only. Such a
vector is called
1. Expression vector 2. Suppression vector 3. Storage vector for genomic library 4. None of the above
24. Expression vectors are those
1. Produce protein products 2. Used for genomic libraries 3. Used for chromosome synthesis
4. Used for finger printing
25. E. coli is generally used for gene cloning because

1. It supports the replication of recombinant DNA 2. it is easy to transform
3. It is free from elements that interferes with replication and recombination of DNA 4. All of these
26. An ideal plasmid to be used for recombinant DNA technology must have
1. Minimum amount of DNA 2. Relaxed replication control
3. One recognition site for one restriction endonuclease 4. All of these
27. Transgenic organisms are
1. Produced by gene transfer technology 2. Extinct organisms 3. Naturally occurring and endemic
4. produced by traditional plant breeding technique
28. Transfer of recombinant plasmid into E. Coli cells needs
1. Heat treatment 2. UV rays treatment 3. Cacl2 treatment 4. lysis
29. Which of the following statement about a vector is correct
1. All vectors are plasmids only 2. Plasmids, phages can be used as vectors
3. Fungi can also be used as vectors 4. cyanobacteria can also be used as vectors
30. Which of the following statement about plasmids is correct?

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1. Plasmids are present in bacteria only 2. Plasmids are present in all organisms
3. Plasmids present in bacteria and phages 4. plasmids present in plants and animals
31. Which one of the following statement are not attributed to plasmids
1. They are circular DNA molecule 2. They have antibiotic resistant genes
3. They have the ability of autonomous replication 4. They have DNA that is as long as chromosomal DNA
32. Which one of the following statements about Restriction Endonuclease is true
1. All restriction endonucleases cut DNA at specific sites 2. All restriction endonucleases cut DNA at random sites
3. All restriction endonucleases join DNA segments at specific sites
4. All restriction endonucleases join DNA at random sites
33. Restriction endonucleases cut DNA at a specific site called..
1. Ligation site 2. Ori 3. Recognition sequence 4. Replication site
34. Restriction endonucleases, when present in a host cell act on foreign DNA molecule and cleave
them, but they do not act on host DNA molecule. It happens because..
1. Restriction endonuclease cannot act on host DNA 2. Host DNA is packed into chromosomes
3. Host DNA is methylated hence restriction endonucleases can’t act.
4. Restriction endonucleases become inactive when they reach host DNA
35. The presence of Restriction endonucleases were postulated in
1960 by…1. Khorana 2. Watson 3. Crick 4. Arber
36. The scientists who won Nobel prize for physiology for their discovery of restriction
endonucleases are….
1. Jacob and Monad 2. Smith, Nathans and Arber 3) Watson and Crick 4. Alec Jaffreys and Milstein
37. Restriction endonucleases are also called
1. Molecular scissors 2. Molecular stichers 3. DNA synthesis 4) polymerases
38. In restriction endonuclease EcoR1, “E” stands for
1. Extraction 2. The first letter of the genus in which it is present 3. Endonuclease 4. Endangered
39. EcoR1 cleaves DNA at
a) 5/G AATTC3/ b) 5/GTT↓AAC3/ 3/CTTAA G5/ 4/CAA↑TTG5/
c) 5/C↓AATTG3/ d) 5/GGGCC↓T3/ 3/GTTAA↑C5/ 3/CCCGG↑A5/
40. Restriction endonucleases recognize specific sequences on DNA called
1. Non-coding sequences 2. Satellites 3. Palindromes with rotational symmetry 4. Tandem repeats
41. Main tools required for recombinant DNA technology are
1. Vector, desired gene 2. Vector, desired gene, mRNA of desired gene, host, restriction enzymes, ligases
3. Desired gene, host, vector 4. Vector, desired gene, mRNA of desired gene, host
42. An example for autonomously replicating mini chromosome is
1. Virus 2. Phage 3. Plasmid 4. Lichen
43. Which one of the following statements about plasmids is correct
1. Plasmids are mobile 2. Plasmids are made up of RNA and proteins
3. Plasmids are present in eukaryotes 4. Plasmids are present in fungi
44. DNA Ligase, used in recombinant DNA technology is obtained from
1. E. coli only 2. E. coli and also Ligase encoded by T4 phage 3. Saccharomyces 4. Retroviruses
45. DNA finger printing was first developed by
1. David Suzuki 2. Khorana 3. Alec Jaffreys 4. Gilbert

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46. Using genetic technique in forensic science is also called

1. Genetic finger printing 2. In vitro culture 3.Hybridoma technology 4.Gene therapy
47. A technique called southern blotting is used in
1. Monoclonal antibody production 2. In vitro culture 3. Genetic finger printing 4. Polymerase chain reaction
48. Genetic finger printing is useful in
1. Identifying the criminals involved in rape, murder etc., 2. Establishing the parentage of a disputed child
3. Identifying illegal immigrants 4. All of these
49. RFLP is…

1. Restriction fragment length polymorphism 2. Repeated fragment length polymorphism
3. Renewed fragment length polymorphism 4. Required fragment length polymorphism
50. VNTR is
1. Variable nucleotide triplet repeat 2.variable nucleoside tandem repeat
3. Variable nucleoside triplet repeat 4.variable number of tandem repeats
51. A small, 15-30 bases long nucleotide sequences used to detect the presence of complementary
sequences in DNA sample during DNA finger printing is called
1. RFLP 2. Probe 3. VNTR 4. Reporter gene
52. A radio active probe used in DNA finger printing contains
1. 32 p 2. 14 C 3. 12 N 4. pUC18
53. Electrophoresis, a technique used in DNA fingerprinting helps to separate
1. DNA segments 2. Cells from DNA 3. Tissues 4. RNA from DNA
54. In DNA finger printing, even a smallest amount of DNA obtained from samples collected at crime place, can be
multiplied into millions of copies by using a technique called
1. Autoradiography 2. Southern blotting 3. Polymerase chain reaction 4. Electrophoresis
55. In DNA finger printing, the DNA from the gel is transferred to ______________ for hybridization
1. Nitrocellulose membrane 2. Agarose 3. Autoradiogram 4. PCR
56. Southern blotting is a technique used in genetic finger printing is called so because,
1. The blotting is done from the south side 2. It was discovered by a scientist, E.M. Southern
3. It was popular in South America 4. It was popular in sourthern countries
57. During DNA finger printing, DNA nucleotides hybridized with probe can be detected through
1. Electrophoresis 2. Polymerase chain reaction 3. Autoradiography 4. Hybridoma
58. DNA finger printing helps in
1. Identifying illegal immigrants 2. Detecting the real parent of child
3. Detecting the suspect involved in crime 4.all of these
59. RFLP, VNTR, Probe are some of the terminologies associated with
1. Hybridoma technology 2. Tissue culture 3. DNA finger printing 3. None
60. Dolly, the first animal produced through cloning is
1. Camel 2. Rat 3. Cow 4. Sheep
61. Some of the steps involved in DNA finger printing are listed below
I. Extraction of DNA II. Collecting the sample III. Treating DNA with REN
IV. GEL Electrophoresis V. Transfer segments of DNA to nitrocellulose membrane
VI. Hybridize with probe VII. Autoradiography.

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The correct sequence is _____

1. ii, iii, iv, vi, v, i, vii 2. ii, i, iii, vi, v, vi, vii
2. iv, i, ii, v, iii, vi, vii 4. i, iv, v, ii, iii, vi, vii
62. An aged person is suffering from Atherosclerosis. Since conducting a surgery is very difficult due to his old age,
which of the therapies can be adviced to him to overcome the problem?
1. Gene therapy for Anticoagulent 2. Gene therapy for the formation of angiogenic factors
3. Both 1 and 2 4. Genetics and finger printing
63. Gene therapy can be made highly effective by conducting
1. Gene therapy for each and every tissue 2. Gene therapy through injecting modified cells
3. Gene therapy for stem cells and bone marrow cells 4. Genetics and finger printing
64. Gene therapy, a technique that helps in
1. Saving endangered species 2. Curing genetic disorders
3. Clonal propagation 4. Producing monoclonal antibodies
65. In 1990, the first gene-therapy was conducted on a 4 year old girl in US. The girl was suffering
1. AIDS 2. CANCER 3. SCID 4. Malaria
66. SCID, a disease can be cured by Gene therapy is due to the deficiency of
1. ADA enzyme 2. Insulin 3. Glucagon 4. Dystrophin
67. Gene therapy, a technique to cure inherited diseases by
1. Repairing the faulty gene 2. Introducing the correct copy of the gene
3. Adding new cells to the body 4. Polymerase chain reaction
68. During gene therapy, the possible ways through which the genes can be introduced into the cell are
1. Micro injection 2. Some viruses 3. Both 1 and 2 4. Erythrocytes
69. In one type of gene therapy, functional genes are introduced into the sperm or the egg. This is called
1. Somatic cell gene therapy 2. Germline gene therapy 3. Vegetative cell gene therapy 4. Gametic gene therapy
70. In somatic cell gene therapy, the functional genes can be introduced into
1. Sperm 2. Egg 3. Any body cells 4. Germinal cells
71. The genes introduced through somatic cell gene therapy are
1. Heritable 2. Non-heritable 3. Partially heritable 4.None of these
72. During the recent tsunami disaster a child was separated from its parents in Srilanka. Later with the help of
technique the child was made to reunite with its true parents. The technique is
1. DNA finger printing 2. Gene therapy 3. Tissue culture 3. Hybridoma technology
73. Fearing that the child to be born may have a genetic disorder, a couple goes to a doctor. Which one of the
techniques will be suggested by the doctor cure genetic disorder?
1. Hybridoma technology 2. Gene therapy 3. ELISA 4. DNA finger printing
74. The work ‘Hybridization’ in DNA finger printing means
1. Pairing between the nucleotides of DNA sample with probe
2. Pairing between the nucleotides of DNA and mRNA
3. Pairing between the nucleotides of probe with mRNA
4. Pairing between the nucleosides with mRNA
75. The main aim of human genome project is
1. To identify and sequence of all the genes present in the human body
2. To introduce new genes to human beings 3. To remove disease causing genes from humans

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4. To improve techniques of finger printing

76. Bt cotton is a………,,,1. A cotton variety obtained by crossing two different cotton plants
2. A cotton variety brought from South America 3. An insecticide sprayed on cotton plant 4. A transgenic cotton variety
77. In biotechnology, mass culturing of cells / microbes can be achieved by using
1. Test tube culture 2. Bioreactor 3. Autoclave 4. Electrophoresis
78. A device in which a substrate of low value is utilized by living cells or enzymes to generate a product of higher
value is called………1. Bioreactor 2. Test tube culture 3. Electrophoresis 4. Chromotography
79. A bioreactor known for mass culturing of cells / microbes must have
1. Agitation for mixing of cells and medium 2. Sterile conditions
3. Regulation of temperature, aeration, etc., 4.All of these
80. Bioreactors are used for
1. Large scale production of desired substances by using cells /microbes 2. Kill bacteria
3. To store viruses 4. To get chemicals
81. The basic components of tissue culture media are

1. Micro and macro nutrients, glucose 2. Micro and macro nutrients, vitamins, agar
3. Micro and macro nutrients and growth regulators, glucose
4. Micro and macro nutrients, growth regulators, agar, vitamins, glucose
82. Agar agar is added to tissue culture media as
1. Carbon source 2. A growth regulator 3. Nitrogen source 4. Solidifying agent
83. Agar agar, used in plant tissue culture is extracted from,
1. A fungi 2. A bacteria 3. An algae 4.A virus
84. Glucose is added to the tissue culture media as
1. Growth regulator 2. Carbon source 3. Solidifying agent 4. An antibiotic
85. Explant is
1. Any cut part of the plant used in tissue culture 2. A plant extract used in tissue culture
3. A source of growth regulators added to media 4. Solidifying agent
86. Totipotency refers to
1. The ability of a plant cell to arrest the growth of a plant
2. The ability of a plant cell to develop disease in plant
3. The ability of a plant cell to develop into a complete plant
4. The ability of a plant cell to develop into a callus
87. Somatic embryos are
1. Embryos developed from zygote after fertilization 2. Embryos developed from egg without fertilization
3. Embryo like structure developed from the cells of callus 4. Embryo developed by ovules
88. In vitro culture of plant parts need
1. Controlled environmental condition 2. Aseptic condition 3. Maintenance of pH 4. All of these
89. An amorphous mass of loosely arranged thin walled parenchyma cells developing from explant is called
1. Thallus 2. Callus 3. Callose 4. Embryoids
90. The unique feature of callus is
1. It gives rise to cells only 2. It can give rise to zygotic embryos
3. It can give rise to root, shoot and embryoids 4. It can give rise to flowers directly

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91. Meristem culture helps in developing

1. Hybrid plants 2. Virus free plants 3. Disease resistant plants 3. Tall plants
92. Genetic variation observed in callus obtained from tissue culture is called
1. Morphogenesis 2. Rhizogenesis 3. Callogenesis 3. somaclonal variation
93. The name “Golden rice” is given to a rice variety because
1. It contains traces of gold 2. It is obtained from areas where gold mining is done
3. The seeds are golden yellow in colour because of the presence of β – carotene 4. It is made of gold
94. Golden rice is
1. Hybrid rice developed by traditional plant breeding 2. A rice variety obtained by plant tissue culture
3. A rice variety obtained by recombinant DNA technology 4. Hybrid rice developed by DNA finger printing
95. Golden rice a rice variety was developed by
1. Ingo Potricus and Peter Beyer 2. Alec Jaffreys and Kary Mullis
3. Jacob and Monad 4. Landsteiner and Weiner
96. Genes required to transfer a rice plant into “Golden rice” were obtained from
1. Carrot 2. A plant called Daffodil and a bacterium called Erwinia
3. E.coli and Daffodil 4. Sunflower and cotton
97. The golden rice is produced to help people suffering from
1. beri beri 2. Scurvy 3. Xerophthalmia 4. AIDS
98. A transgenic plant “Golden rice” consists of foreign genes that produces
1. β - Carotene 2. Niacin 3. Biotin 4. Nicotinic acid
99. The “Golden rice”, aimed at curing
1. Vitamin b deficiency 2. Vitamin a deficiency 3. Vitamin k deficiency 4. Zinc deficiency
100. The vector used to transfer gene to produce “Golden rice” is
1. pBR322 2. pUC18 3. Ti plasmid 4. Phage
101. A variety of rice plant, into which genes were transferred to produce “Golden rice” is
1. IR-22 2. Basmathi 3. Taipe-30 a 4. Sona
102. The objections raised by people against the introduction of Golden rice is
1. Consumption of Golden rice may cause hyper-vitaminoses
2. It is not a natural variety hence it may disturb the genotype of local varieties
3. The transgenic rice may cause allergy 4. All of these
103. Fruit juice or coconut milk is added to plant tissue culture media because
1. It is a source of micronutrients 2. It is a source of macronutrients
3. It is a source of growth regulators 4. It helps in maintaining pH of the media
104. Which one of the following statements about plant tissue culture is correct?
1. The culturing of root is not possible 2. Any cell that is totipotent can be cultured
3. The pH of the media need not be maintained 4. Fruit juices are added to media as carbon source
105. The plasmid used to transfer genes in plants is
1. Ti plasmid 2. PBR 322 3. ECOR 1 4. P UC 18
106. The bacterium used for gene transfer in plants is
1. E.coli 2. Rhizobium 3. Azatobacter 4. Agrobacterium
107. Match the following

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Scientists Associated with

1. Murashige and Skoog p. Restriction Endonuclease
2. Milstein and Kohler q. Golden rice
3. Potricus and beyer r. Tissue culture media
4. Arber and Nathan s. Hybridoma
1. 1-p, 2-q, 3-r, 4-s 2. 1-s, 2-p, 3-r, 4-q 3. 1-r, 2-s, 3-q, 4-p 4. 1-s, 2-r, 3-p, 4-q
108. All the cells in a callus are
1. Genetically homogeneous 2. Genetically heterogeneous 3. Similar in size 4. Inefficient to grow organs
109. Which one of the following statements about plant tissue culture is correct
1. Cells can be cultured only on solid medium
2. Cells can be cultured both on solid and liquid medium 3. Callus do not need hormone
4. The cells of the callus cannot be subcultured
110. POMATO, is
1. A transgenic plant 2. A plant obtained through protoplast hybridization
3. A plant obtained by organ culture 4. A plant developed by plant breeding method
111. The production of a large number of genetically similar plants through plant tissue culture is called
1. Hybridoma technology 2. Recombinant DNA technology
3. Gene therapy 4. Micropropagation
112. cDNA, a term used in recombinant DNA technology means
1. Competetive DNA 2. Chemical DNA 3. Complex DNA 4. Complementary DNA
113. The process of introduction of foreign DNA into an animal cells is called
1. Transversion 2. Conversion 3. Inversion 4. Transfection
114. Genes have been transferred into animals with a view to obtain a large scale production of the proteins encoded by
these genes in the milk, blood etc. This approach is also referred generally as
1. In vitro culture 2. Molecular farming 3. Gene therapy 4. Hybridoma technology
115. With reference to biotechnology, microinjection is a method of
1. Injecting a solution of DNA into the nucleus of a cell 2. Injecting nutrients into a cell culture media
3. Injecting microbes into a cell culture media 4. Injecting medicine to human beings
116. Pluripotent cells derived from the early pre implantation of an embryo in mice are called
1. Stem cells 2.organ culture 3. Somatic cell hybridization 4. Hybridoma
117. The advantage with embryonic stem cells in producing transgenic animals is
1. These cells are immortal
2. These cells can be maintained and multiplied in vitro long enough to permit various manipulations for gene transfer.
3. Both 1 and 2 4. Neither 1 nor 2
118. The development of transgenic animals like cattle which aims at the production of recoverable quantities of
pharmaceutically or biologically important proteins. Hence such transgenic animals can also be called
1. Hybrids 2. Cybrids 3. Bioreactors 4. Special varieties
1. Restriction endonucleases p. Small DNA segments used in DNA finger prints
2. Ligases q. Molecular scissors

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3. Probe r. Virus free plants

4. Meristem culture s. Molecular stichers
1. 1-q, 2-s, 3-p, 4-r 2. 1-p, 2-q, 3-r, 4-s 3. 1-q, 2-s, 3-r, 4-p 4. 1-p, 2-s, 3-q, 4-r
1. Electrophoresis p. Gene transfer in plants
2. Probe q. Breaks bond between insulin and –galactosidase
3. Cyanogen bromide r. Small DNA segment used for hybridization
4. Ti plasmid s. Separation of DNA segments
1. 1-r, 2-s, 3-q, 4-p 2. 1-s, 2-r, 3-q, 4-p
3. 1-p, 2-r, 3-q, 4-s 4. 1-q, 2-p, 3-s, 4-r
1. Explant p. Structures developed from callus
2. Embryoids q. Plant part for tissue culture
3. Glucose r. Source of growth regulators
4. Fruit juice s. Carbon source
1. 1-q, 2-s, 3-p, 4-r 2. 1-p, 2-q, 3-r, 4-s 3. 1-q, 2-p, 3-r, 4-s 4. 1-q, 2-p, 3-s, 4-r

1. PCR p. for hybridization
2. Probe q. for gene amplification
3. Electrophoresis r. for monoclonal antibody production
4. Hybridoma s. for DNA segments separation
1. 1-p, 2-q, 3-r, 4-s 2. 1-q, 2-s, 3-p, 4-r 3. 1-q 2-p 3-s, 4-r 4. 1-p, 2-q, 3-s, 4-r
123. In plant tissue culture, induction of roots and shoots is accomplished by
1. Using a tissue of certain minimum size 2. Using a particular auxin cytokinin ratio
3. Using a specific concentration of sucrose in the medium
4. Manipulating physical factors such as light, pH, temperature
124. A part of nucleic acid used to find a gene by hybridization is called
1. Vector 2. Clone 3. Probe 4. Cybrid
125. The cloned sheep “Dolly” had a genotype which is
1. Haploid and identical to that of the mothers egg cell
2. Diploid and identical to that of the mothers somatic cells
3. Diploid with the haploid set of chromosomes from the father and other from the mother
4. Diploid and identical to that of the donors somatic cells
126. A segment of DNA that reads from the same forward and backward is called
1. Palindromic DNA 2. Complementary DNA 3. Plasmid DNA 4. Copy DNA
127. Stem cells found in umbilical cord blood is
1. Totipotent 2. Pluripotent 3. Omnipotent 4. Multipotent
128. Which of the following is associated with DNA finger printing?
1. Hybridoma 2. Site specific mutagenesis 3. Shotgun cloning 4. RFLP
129. Which technique would most likely to be used to produce a large number of genetically identical offspring

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1. Cloning and in vitro culture 2. Polymerase chain reaction 3. Chromatography 4. Electrophoresis

130. The restriction Endonucleases are called so because
1. They have a very restrictive or site specific endonuclease activity
2. They cut DNA at a few restricted sites
3. They restrict the entry of foreign DNA into the cell by cleaving the DNA due to their endonuclease activity
4. Their distribution is restricted to only some bacterial cells
131. Which one of the following organism is used for the large scale production of recombinant insulin?
1. Plasmodium 2. Agrobacterium 3. Rhizobium 4. E.coli
132. ‘Thermal Cycler’ is used in the reaction
1. Enzyme linked immuno sorbant assay 2. Ligation reaction
3. Polymerase chain reaction 4. Immobilization reaction
133. Construction of a recombinant DNA involves
1. Cleaving DNA with restriction endonuclease and joining with ligase
2. Cleaving DNA with ligase and joining with endonuclease
3. Cleaving and joining DNA with restriction endonuclease
4. Cleaving DNA with restriction endonuclease and joining with polymerase
134. Haploid plants can be obtained through
1. Meristem culture 2. Embryo culture 3. Endosperm culture 4. Pollen culture
135. Which one of the following statements about genetic energy is NOT correct
1. This is the process of producing transgenic organisms
2. Through this technology, one can produce recombinant insulin
3. This process involves transfer of genes from one organism to another
4. Through this process chromosomes can be added or deleted from the cell
136. Which one of the following statements about human genome project is NOT correct………
1. It helps in identifying the exact location of genes on chromosomes
2. The information gathered from this project helps in curing genetic diseases
3. This helps in developing artificial organs
4. It helps in determining the sequence of 3 billion base pairs that makes up human genome
137. Which one of the following techniques is successfully used to compare two DNA samples………
1. Hybridoma technology 2. ELISA 3. Genetic finger printing 4. Gene therapy
138. The chemical nature of ‘humulin’ produced by recombinant DNA technology is
1. Lipid 2. Protein 3. Monosaccharide 4. Vitamin
139. pUC 18 is a
1. Phage used as a vector 2. Bacteria used for transformation 3. Restriction endonuclease 4. A plasmid
140. ECOR1 is a
1. DNA ligase enzyme 2. Restriction endonuclease 3.a vector used for insulin synthesis
4. A plasmid used as a vector
141. The unique feature of pluripotent stem cells is
1. They can develop into any tissue of the body 2. They can develop into whole individuals
3. They help in the production of monoclonal antibodies 4. None of these
142. Stem cells can be obtained from
1. Embryo only 2. Any part of the body 3. Blood only 4. Embryo, bone marrow, umbilical cord blood etc

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143. Which one of the following therapies can be suggested to cure a person who is suffering from spinal cord injuries
1. Hybridoma 2. Gene therapy 3. Stem cell therapy 4. Recombinant DNA technology
144. A hybridoma is
1. A hybrid cell obtained by fusing a β–lymphocyte with a myeloma cell in vitro
2. A hybrid cell obtained by fusing a β–lymphocyte with a myeloma cell in vivo
3. A hybrid cell obtained by fusing 2 β–lymphocyte cells in vitro
4. A hybrid cell obtained by fusing any 2 body cells in vitro
145. A hybridoma cell
1. Produces different types of antibodies against different types of antigens
2. Produces only specific antibodies only against a specific antigen
3. Produces different types of antibodies but only one type of antigen
4. None of the above
146. A cancerous / myeloma cell in hybridoma helps in
1. Continuous growth of hybridomas 2. Production of antibodies 3. Both 1 and 2 4. Neither 1 nor 3
147. All the antibodies produced through hybridoma are
1. Polyclonal 2. Monoclonal 3. Non active 4. Over active
148. A type of β–lymphocyte that produces antibody is
1. plasma cell 2. Memory cell 3. Adipocyte 4. Erythrocyte
149. The unique feature of monoclonal antibody is that
1. It is specific to a single antigenic determinant of a single antigen 2. It is non specific
3. It is specific to a few antigenic determinants 4. Restricted growth
150. Monoclonal antibodies are nowadays used in
1. Disease diagnosis 2. Detection of specific type of pathogen
3. Very early and accurate detection of cancer 4. All of these
151. Monoclonal antibodies are usually produced from
1. Myeloma cells 2. hybridoma cells 3. Monocytes 4. Adipocytes
152. To produce monoclonal antibodies in large scale, the techniques that can be used are
1. In vivo in the peritoneal cavity of mice 2. In vitro in large scale culture vessels
3. Both 1 and 2 4. Neither 1 nor 2
153. To produce monoclonal antibodies in large scale
1. Stirred bioreactors can be used 2. Air lift fermenters can be used
3. Vessels based on immobilized cells can be used 4. All of these
154. The first clinical gene therapy was given for treating?
1. Rheumatoid arthritis 2. Chicken pox 3. Diabetes mellitus 4. Adenosine Deaminase deficiency
Polymerase chain reaction
1. The PCR technique was developed by
a) Kary Mullis b) Kohler c) Milstein d) Altman
2. PCR is a ………..a) DNA degradation technique b) DNA amplification technique
c) DNA sequencing technique d) all of these
3. Which of the following statements are true regarding PCR
a) billions of copies of desired DNA can be synthesized from microgram quantities of DNA
b) Automated PCR machines are called thermal cyclers c) A thermostable DNA polymerase is required

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d) all of these
4. Thermus aquaticus is the source of
a) Taq polymerase b) Vent polymerase c) both a and b d) primase enzyme
5. All the following are thermostable polymerases except
a) Taq polymerase b) Vent polymerase c) DNA polymerase III d) pfu polymerase
6. The basic requirements of PCR reaction include
a) DNA segment to be amplified b) two oligonucleotide primers c) a heat stable DNA polymerase d) all of these
7. Pfu and Vent polymerase are more efficient than Taq polymerase because
a) of more efficient polymerase activity b) of proof reading activity c) both a and b d) none of these
8. The first step of PCR is
a) denaturation b) annealing c) primer extension d) none of these
10. The process of binding of primer to the denatured strand is called
a) Denaturation b) annealing c) renaturation d) none of these
11. Which of the following is true regarding PCR
a) Denaturation involves heating at 90-98 C b) annealing involves binding of primer between 40-60 C
c) Primer extension occurs at 72 C d) all of these
12. Asymmetric PCR is
a) used to generate single stranded copies for DNA sequencing b) used to generate double stranded copies for
DNA sequencing c) both a and b d) none of these
13. PCR is used in
a) Site specific recombination b) site directed mutagenesis c) both a and b d) Site specific translocation
14. Reverse transcriptase PCR uses
a) mRNA as a template to from cDNA b) RNA as a template to from DNA
c) DNA as a template to from ssDNA d) all of these
15. PCR is used to
a) Amplify gene of interest b) construct RAPD maps c) detect the presence of transgene in an organ
d) all of these
Answers 1.a) Kary Mullis 2. d) all of these 3. d) all of these 4. a) Taq polymerase 5. c) DNA polymerase III 6. d) all of these 7. b) of proof
reading activity 8. a) denaturation 9. a) heating between 9098 C 10. b) annealing 11. d) all of these
12. a) used to generate single stranded copies for DNA sequencing 13. b) site directed mutagenesis 14. a) mRNA as a template to from cDNA
15. d) all of these
DNA fingerprinting
1. DNA finger printing was developed by
a) Francis Crick b) Khorana c) Alec Jeffrey d) James Watson
2. The technique to distinguish the individuals based on their DNA print patterns is called
a) DNA fingerprinting b) DNA profiling c) Molecular fingerprinting d) All of these
3. DNA finger printing relies on
a) Difference in patterns of genes between individuals b) Difference in order of genes between individuals
c) Difference in junk DNA patterns between individuals d) All of these
4. Minisatellites are
a) 1040 bp sized short sequences within the genes b) Short coding repetitive regions on the eukaryotic genome
c) Short Noncoding repetitive sequences present throughout the chromosome
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d) Are regions of chromosomes after secondary constriction

5. Each individual has a unique DNA fingerprint as individuals differ in
a) Number of minisatellites on chromosome b) location of minisatellites on chromosome
c) Size of minisatellites on chromosome d) all of these
6. The correct order of procedures in DNA profiling is
a) DNA isolation>PCR amplification>electrophoresis >southern blotting>autoradiography>analysis of DNA print pattern
b) DNA isolation> restriction digestion> PCR amplification >electrophoresis>southern blotting >autoradiography>analysis of DNA print
pattern
c) DNA isolation> PCR amplification>restriction digestion >electrophoresis>southern blotting>autoradiography>analysis of DNA print pattern
d) DNA isolation> >restriction digestion> PCR amplification >southern blotting> electrophoresis > autoradiography >analysis of DNA print
pattern
7. DNA profiling is used
a) In Forensic studies and in cases of disputed parentage b) In pedigree analysis and to study migration pattern
c) To confirm cell line identity d) All of these
8. DNA profiling technique to demonstrate the similarity between different animal species with reference to some
specific protein coding DNA sequences is called
a) Zoo blot b) Phylogenetic blot c) Animal profiling d) Animal blot
9. The DNA fingerprint pattern of a child is
a) Exactly similar to that of both of the parents b) 100% similar to the father’s DNA print
c) 100% similar to the mother’s DNA print d) 50% bands similar to father and rest similar to mother
10. DNA profiling technique to demonstrate the similarity between different plant species with reference to some
specific protein coding DNA sequences is called
a) Phyto blot b) Garden blot c) Plant profiling d) All of these
Answers: 1.c) Alec Jeffrey 2.d) All of these 3.c) Difference in junk DNA patterns between individuals 4.c) Short Noncoding
repetitive sequences present throughout the chromosome 5.d) all of these 6.b) DNA isolation> restriction digestion> PCR amplification
>electrophoresis>southern blotting>autoradiography>analysis of DNA print pattern 7.d) All of these 8.a) Zoo blot 9.d) 50% bands similar to
father and rest similar to mother 10.b) Garden blot
Cloning Vectors
1. Any DNA molecule that has the ability to replicate in an appropriate host cell, to which the desired gene are
integrated for cloning, is called as
a) Plasmid b) linker c) vector d) adapter
2. Which of the following statement is true

a) a vector should have an origin of replication b) a vector should have selectable markers
c) a vector should have unique restriction sites d) all of these
3. Expression vectors differ from a cloning vector in having

a) an origin of replication b) suitable marker genes c) unique restriction sites d) control elements

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4. Extra chromosomal, double stranded, circular DNA molecule present in bacteria which is widely used as vector is
called… a) phagemid b) cosmid c) plasmid d) bacterial vectors
5. The first engineered plasmid vector is ….a) pBR 322 b) pUC vectors c) pSC101 d) pUC 19
6. The most popular and widely used engineered plasmid vector is

a) pBR 322 b) pUC vector s c) pSC1 01 d) pUC 19 7.
In pBR 322, pBR stands for

a) Plasmid bacterial recombination b) plasmid bacterial replication c) plasmid Boliver and Rodriguez
d) plasmid Baltimore and Rodriguez
8. Phage M13 vectors are widely used for

a) Obtaining single stranded copies of cloned DNA suitable for DNA sequencing
b) Obtaining double stranded copies of cloned DNA suitable for DNA sequencing
c) Obtaining fragments of cloned DNA suitable for DNA sequencing
d) Obtaining double stranded copies of cloned DNA suitable for electrophoresis
9. Cosmid is a plasmid with ……………a) a minimum of 250 bp of lambda DNA that includes cos site
b) a minimum of 250 bp of M13 DNA that includes cos site c) a minimum of 100 bp of lambda DNA that includes cos site
d) a minimum of 250 bp of T4 phage DNA that includes cos site
10. Vectors designed to replicate in cells of two different species are called
a) phasmids b) transfer vectors c) shuttle vectors d) phagemids
11. Autonomously replicating sequences (ARS) is a characteristic feature of
a) plasmid vectors b) phage vectors c) E.coli vectors d) yeast vectors
12. Which of the following are vectors for animals

a) SV 40 vectors and Bovine papillomavirus vectors b) CMV vectors and Gemini vectors
c) lambda phage and M13 phage vectors d) all of the above
13. The vectors commonly used for sequencing human genome

a) Yeast artificial chromosome (YAC) b) plasmid c) CMV vectors d) M13 vectors
14. Ti plasmids that is used as a plant vector is obtained from
a) Agrobacterium tumefaciens b) Agrobacterium rhizhogenes c) Agrobacterium radiobactor d) Thermus aquaticus
15. The most common vectors for plants are

a) SV 40 vectors and Bovine papillomavirus vectors b) Cauliflower mosaic virus (CMV vectors) and Gemini vectors
c) lambda phage and M13 phage vectors d) T4 phage vectors
Ans:- 1c 2d 3d 4c 5c 6a 7c 8a 9a 10c 11d 12a 13a 14a 15b
Animal Biotechnology
1. Animal biotechnology involves ……
a) production of valuable products in animals using rDNA technology
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b) rapid multiplication of animals of desired genotypes

c) alteration of genes to make it more desirable d) all of these
2. Animal cell cultures are used widely for the production of
a) insulin b) somatostatin c) mabs d) thyroxine
3. The first vaccine developed from animal cell culture was
a) Hepatitis B vaccine b) Influenza vaccine c) Small pox vaccine d) Polio vaccine
4. Which of the following are commonly produced in animal cell cultures
a) Interferon b) mab c) vaccines d) all of these
5. The cell line used for the production of polio vaccine was
a) Primate kidney cell line b) CHO cell line c) Dog kidney cell line d) mouse fibroblast cell line
6. Recombinant proteins are
a) Proteins synthesized in animals b) proteins synthesized by transgene in host cell by rDNA technology
c) proteins synthesised in cells that are produced by protoplast fusion d) proteins synthesized in mutated cell lines
7. Interferons are ……a) anti-bacterial proteins b) antiviral proteins c) bacteriostatic proteins d) all of these
8. The virus commonly used to infect cell cultures for the production ofinterferon is
a) Corona virus b) Sendai virus c) Polio virus d) Small pox virus
9. Hybrid antibodies are …..
a) antibodies produced in cell cultures b) antibodies designed using rDNA technology produced in cell cultures
c) antibodies produced in invivo d) both a and b
10. The technique used in animal biotechnology for the rapid multiplication and production of animals with a desirable
genotype is ….a) Protoplast fusion and embryo transfer b) hybrid selection and embryo transfer
c) In vitro fertilization and embryo transfer d) all of these
11. The production of complete animals from somatic cells of an animal is called
a) gene cloning b) animal cloning c) cell cloning d) all of these
12. The first successfully cloned animal was …..a) Monkey b) gibbon c) sheep d) rabbit
13. In humans, the babies produced by in vitro fertilization and embryo transfer was popularly called as
a) invitro babies b) test tube babies c) invitroinvivo babies d) all of these
Answers: 1. d) all of these 2. c) mabs 3. d) Polio vaccine 4. d) all of these 5. a) Primate kidney cell line 6. b) proteins synthesized by
transgene in host cell by rDNA technology 7.b) antiviral proteins 8. b) Sendai virus 9. b) antibodies designed using rDNA technology produced
in cell cultures 10. c) in vitro fertilization and embryo transfer 11.b) animal cloning 12. c) sheep 13. b) test tube babies
Recombinant DNA Technology

1. Who discovered recombinant DNA (rDNA) technology?
1) Har Gobind Khorana 2) J.D.Watson 3) Sutton and Boveri 4) Stanley Cohen and Herbert Boyer
2. Match the names of the scientists with their contributions and choose the correct answer
A. Walter Sutton
1) Discovered Penicillin 2) Discovered double helical structure of DNA
B. Stanley Cohen C. Alexander Flemming 3) Discovered the chromosomal basis of heredity
D. James.D.Watson 4) Discovered rDNA
A2, B1, C4, D3 A3, B4, C1, D2 A1, B3, C2, D4 A4, B3, C2, D1
3. Which of the following is a plasmid? …….Sal I Bam H1 Eco R1 pBR322
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4. Restriction enzymes are

DNA unwinding enzymes DNA joining enzymes DNA cleaving enzymes None of these
5. The enzyme used to join the DNA fragments
Topoisomerase DNA ligase DNA polymerase Reverse transcriptase
6. Which of the following is used as vector in gene therapy for SCID
arbovirus rotavirus parvovirus retrovirus
7. Ti plasmid used in genetic engineering is obtained from
Bacillus thuringiensis Agrobacterium rhizogenes Agrobacterium tumefaciens Bacillus subtili
8. The vector for TDNA is …Thermus aquaticus Bacillus tumefaciens Agrobacterium tumefaciens E. coli
9. cry II Ab and cry I Ab produce toxins
That control Corn borer and tobacco budworms respectively Nematodes and tobacco budworms respectivel
Cotton bollworms and corn borer respectively Corn borer and cotton bollworms respectively
Plant Tissue Culture

1. Who is the father of tissue culture? ….a) Bonner b) Haberlandt c) Laibach d) Gautheret
2. The production of secondary metabolites require the use of

a) Protoplast b) cell suspension c) meristem d) auxillary buds
3. Synthetic seed is produced by encapsulating somatic embryo with
a) Sodium chloride b) sodium alginate c) sodium acetate d) sodium nitrate
4. Hormone pair required for a callus to differentiate are
a) auxin and cytokinin b) auxin and ethylene c) auxin and absiccic acid d) cytokinins and gibberllin
5. DMSO (Dimethyl sulfoxide) is used as,.a) Gelling agent b) alkaylating agent c) Chelating agent d) Cryoprotectant6.
The most widely used chemical for protoplast fusion, as fusogens, is
a) Manitol b) Sorbitol c) Mannol d) Poly ethylene glycol (PEG)
7. Cybrids are produced by
a) Fusion of two different nuclei from two different species b) Fusion of two same nuclei from same species
c) Nucleus of one species but cytoplasm from both the parent species d) None of the above
8. Callus is…..
a) Tissue that forms embryo b) An insoluble carbohydrate c) Tissue that grows to form embryoid
d) Un-organized actively dividing mass of cells maintained in cultured
9. Part of plant used for culturing is called …a) Scion b) Explant c) Stock d) Callus
10. Growth hormone producing apical dominance is …a) Auxin b) Gibberellin c) Ethylene d) Cytokinin
11. A medium which is composed of chemically defined compound is called
a) Natural media b) Synthetic media c) Artificial media d) None of these
12. To obtain haploid plant, we culture…….. a) Entire anther b) Nucleus c) Embryo d) Apical bud
13. Somaclonal variations are the ones
a) Caused by mutagens b) Produce during tissue culture c) Caused by gamma rays d) Induced during sexual embryogeny
14. Which of the following plant cell will show totipotency? a) Xylem vessels b) Sieve tube c) Meristem d) Cork cells
15. Which vector is mostly used in crop improvement? a) Plasmid b) Cosmid c) Phasmid d) Agrobacterium

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Answers: 1. b) Haberlandt 2. b) cell suspension 3. b) sodium alginate 4. a) auxin and cytokinin 5. d) Cryoprotectant 6. d) Poly ethylene glycol
(PEG) 7. c) Nucleus of one species but cytoplasm from both the parent species 8. d) Un organised actively dividing mass of cells maintained in
cultured 9. b) Explant 10. a) Auxin 11. b) Synthetic media 12. a) Entire anther 13. b) Produce during tissue culture 14. c) Meristem 15. d)
Agrobacterium
Gene Transfer Methods

1. The virus mediated gene transfer using genetically modified bacteriophages is called……
a) Transfection b) transduction c) transformation d) conjugation
2. The ability of cells to take up DNA fragments from surrounding is called
a) Transfection b) transduction c) transformation d) conjugation
3. Which of the following bacterium is considered as ‘natural genetic engineer’
a) Agrobacterium tumefaciens b) Agrobacterium radiobactor c) Psueudomonas putida d) Thermus aquaticus
4. The removal or replacement of tumor causing genes from Ti plasmid is termed as
a) gene replacement b) disarming c) insertional inactivation d) gene displacement
5. Agrobacterium tumefaciens is a
a) Gram negative soil bacterium causing crown gall disease in dicots
b) Gram negative soil bacterium causing crown gall disease in monocots c) Gram positive soil bacterium
causing crown gall disease in dicots d) Gram positive soil bacterium causing crown gall disease in dicots
6. Which of the following statements are true for agrobacterium mediated gene transfer
a) Vir genes are essential for gene transfer b) T-DNA borders are essential for gene transfer c) both a and b d) none of these
7. Ti plasmid vectors include

a) Binary vectors and cointegrate vectors b) cointegrate vectors and multiple vectors
c) multiple vectors and binary vectors d) Ti plasmid based vector
8. Which of the following chemical enhances vir gene expression. a) cyanidin b) glutennin c) acetosyringone d)dextran
9. Chemicals used for gene transfer methods include…a) PEG b) CaCl2 c) dextran d) all of the above
10. Introduction of DNA into cells by exposing to high voltage electric pulse is
a) electrofusion b) elctrofision c) electrolysis d) electroporation
11. The transformation method that uses tungsten or gold particle coated with DNA accelerated at high velocity is called
a) Acceleration method b) high velocity method c) particle gun delivery method d) DNA particle delivery method
12. The method widely used for transforming invitro animal cell cultures that uses lipid vescicles or liposomes
a) lipotransformation b) liposome mediated transformation c) lipofection d) lipid mediated DNA transfer
13. DNA solution injected directly into the cell using micromanipulators is called
a) macroinjection b) micromanipulator mediated DNA delivery c) microfection d) microinjection
14. Fibre mediated DNA delivery uses
a) Silicon carbide fibres that will create pores in the membrane
b) aluminium carbide fibres that will create pores in the membrane
c) boron carbide fibres that will create pores in the membarne
d) Lead carbide fibres that will create pores in the membarne
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15. The injection of DNA into developing inflorescence using a hypodermic syringe is called
a) macroinjection b) micromanipulator mediated DNA deliver c) microfection d) microinjection
Answers: 1b 2c 3a 4b 5a 6c 7a 8c 9d 10d 11c 12c 13d 14a 15a
Phytohormone
1. The term auxin was coined by …..a) Skoog b) Haberlandt c) Miescher d) F.W. Went
2. Precursor of Indole acetic acid (natural auxin) is…….
a) Glycine b) Methionine c) Isopentynyl pyrophosphate d) Tryptophan
3. All the following hormones are growth inhibitors except….. a) Absiccic acid b) dormin c) ethylene d) IAA
4. Which of the following is a gaseous hormone…. a) IBA b) NAA c) Abscicic acid d) Ethylene
5. Which of the following is widely used as a rooting hormone…. a) NAA b) 2,4, D c) 2,4,5T d) cytokinnin
6. “Agent orange” the leaf defoliator used by USA in Vietnam war was…...
a) ethylene b) 2,4,D and 2,4,5T c) 2,4,D and NAA d) 2,4,5T, NAA and ethylene
7. All the following inhibits auxin transport (antiauxins) except
a) Cytokinnin b) α naphthyl thalamic acid c) 2,3,5tri iodo benzoic acid d) ethylene
8. Which of the following auxin is widely used as a selective weedicide….
a) IBA b) 2,4,D c) NAA d) 2,4,5T 9.
9) All are synthetic auxins except… a) NAA b) IAA c) 2,4,D d) 2,4,5T 10.
10) Auxin transport is……………… a) polar b) nonpolar c) symplast d) apoplast
11. Which of the following bioassays are used to detect the presence of auxin
a) Avena curvature test and tobacco pith culture b) Split pea stem curvature test and tobacco pith culture
c) Avena curvature test and Split pea stem curvature test d) tobacco pith culture only
12. Which of the following is not a function of auxin
a) inducing dormancy b) enhancing cell division c) inducing callus formation d) maintaining apical dominance
13. Nodule formation is induced by… a) IBA b) IAA c) Both (a) and (b) d) NAA
14. All are natural auxins except…… a) IAA b) Phenoxy acetic acid c) Indole3acetic acid d) NAA
15. Which of the following is an auxin receptor…. a) ETR1 b) CBP1 c) ABP1 d) GRE
Abbreviations used: * ABP: auxin binding protein 1 * GRE: giberillin responsive element * NAA: naphthalene acetic acid * IAA: indole
acetic aicd * TIBA: tri iodo benzoic acid * 2,4,D: 2,4dichloro phenoxy acetic acid
Answers: 1d 2d 3d 4d 5a 6b 7a 8b 9b 10a 11c 12a 13b 14d 15c
Cytokinins
1. Cytokinins are… a) adenine derivatives b) guanine derivatives c) cytidine derivatives d) thymine derivatives
2. Which of the following is a natural cytokinin…..
a) isopentanyl adenine b) zeatin c) 6isopentanyl aenine d) 6amino purine
3. The first kinetin isolated by Miller was from
a) coconut endosperm b) maize grains c) herring sperm DNA d) wheat grains
4. The first natural cytokinin isolated from liquid endosperm was
a) isopentanyl adenine b) zeatin c) 6isopentanyl aenine d) 6amino purine
5. Agrobacterium tumefaciens Ti plasmids tDNA has genes for….
a) Auxin and giberrellins b) cytokinins and ethylene c) cytokinins and giberrellins d) Auxin and cytokinins
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6. Which of the following is the precursor of cytokinins… a) adenine b) guanine c) cytidine d) thymine
7. Cytokinins are predominantly present in
a) permanent tissues b) meristamatic tissues c) endodermis d) cortical region
8. All are bioassays for cytokinins except
a) chlorophyll preservation test b) tobacco pith culture c) rice seedling growth inhibition test
d) excised radish cotyledon enlargement test
9. All the statement are true regarding cytokinin except ….
a) promote cell division b) delay senescence c) induce dormancy d) counteract apical dominance
10. Cytokinin treatment enhances…. a) chlorophyll synthesis b) chlorophyll degradation c) protein degradation d) water uptake
11. In tissue culture, high cytokinins to auxin ratio causes
a) root differentiation b) shoot differentiation c) both a and b d) none of these
12. In tissue culture, low cytokinins to auxin ratio causes
a) root differentiation b) shoot differentiation c) both a and b d) none of these

13. Translocation of cytokinin is polar and takes place through
a) Xylem b) phloem c) both phloem and xylem d) capillary rise
14. ‘Pomalin’ is effective in increasing apple size and is a combination of
a) Auxin and giberrellins b) cytokinins and ethylene c) cytokinins and giberrellins d) Auxin and cytokinins
15. Which of the following hormone is involved in counteracting apical dominance induced by auxin
a) cytokinin b) ethylene c) abscisic acid d) brassinosteroids
Answers 1a 2b 3c 4b 5d 6a 7b 8c 9c 10a 11b 12a 13a 14c 15a
Gibberellins
1. Gibberellins was named after a fungus called
a) Gibberella fujikuroi b) Gibberella gaditijirrii c) Gibberella acuminata d) Gibberella africana

2. Gibberellins are chemically... a) phenolic derivatives b) terpenoid derivatives c) adenine derivatives d) alkaloid derivatives
3. Gibberella fujikuroi the fungus causes
a) foolish seedling disease of rice or bakanae disease b) damping off seedling disease of rice or bakanae disease
c) fungal blight disease of rice or bakanae disease d) rust disease of rice or bakanae disease
4. The most studied gibberellin is…. a) GA1 b) GA9 c) GA3 d) GA4
5. All are anti giberrellins except… a) acetosyringone b) Amo1618 c) maleic hydrazide d) phosphon
6. All are functions of gibberellins except…
a) promote cell elongation….b) promote dormancy c) promote elongation of internodes d) promotes parthenocarpic fruit fromation
7. Which of the following bioassay is used to test the presence of giberrillins
a) chlorophyll preservation test b) dwarf pea elongation technique c) rice seedling growth inhibition test
8. The gibberilins present in the aleurone layer of barley increase transcription of
a) lipase and protease b) protease and cellulase c) protease and amylase d) lipase and cellulase

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9. Elongation of rosette plants is achieved by treatment with….a) auxin b) zeatin c) cytokinin d) gibberrellin
10. Translocation of gibberrelins is nonpolar and predominantly takes place through
a) Xylem b) phloem c) both phloem and xylem d) capillary rise

11. The hormone which is involved in regulation of florigen synthesis .a) Ethylene b) zeatin c) cytokinin d) gibberrellin
12. Which is the giberrellin involved in elongation response a) GA1 b) GA9 c) GA3 d) GA4
13. Which is the giberrellin involved in flowering………a) GA1 b) GA9 c) GA3 d) GA4
14. Early stages of gibberrellin synthesis take place in… a) mitochondria b) peroxisome c) plastids d) cytoplasm
15. Genetic dwarfism can be nullified by spraying with… a) auxin b) zeatin c) cytokinin d) gibberrellin
Answers: 1a 2b 3a 4c 5a 6b 7b 8c 9d 10b 11d 12a 13b 14c 15d
Abscisic acid (ABA)

1. Which of the following hormone is a growth inhibitor…..a) IAA b) 2ip c) GA3 d) dormin
2. Abscisic acid is also called as…. a) abscisin I b) abscisin II c) dormin d) all of the above
3. ABA regulates…….. a) flowering b) dormancy c) ripening d) etiolation
4. The active form of ABA is… a) (+) cis ABA b) (+) 2trans ABA c) (+) cis 2 trans ABA d) (+) trans ABA
5. The precusrsor of ABA is… a) violaxanthin b) methionine c) tryptophan d) carotenoids
6. Which of the following is a bioassay for ABA ….
a) chlorophyll preservation test b) triple pea test c) rice seedling growth inhibition test d) excised radish cotyledon enlargement test
7. All the following are functions of ABA except
a) induce dormancy b) enhances abscission c) involved in stress response d) cell elongation
8. ABA stimulates release of…. a) auxin b) ethylene c) cytokinin d) GA
9. During water stress rise in ABA levels initially cause
a) stomatal opening b) stomatal closure c) reduced transpiration d) increased transpiration

10. Transport of ABA takes place through…. a) xylem b) phloem c) endodermis d)both a and b
11. ABA is an…… a) antiauxin b) anticytokinin c) antigibberelin d) ethylene inhibitor
12. Which of the following hormone functions as an antitranspirant…. a) auxin b) cytokinin c) ABA d) ethylene
13. ABA is also called as…. a) stress hormone b) ripening hormone c) growth hormone d) none of these
14. High levels of ABA are synthesized in….
a) tissues undergoing cell division b) tissues undergoing cell elongation c) tissues undergoing stress d) tissues
undergoing ripening
15. ABA synthesis begins in…….
a) cytoplasm and chloroplast b) chloroplast and amyloplast c) cytoplasm and amyloplast d) chloroplast and amyloplast
Answers : 1d 2d 3b 4a 5a 6c 7d 8b 9b 10d 11c 12c 13c 14c 15d
Ethylene
1. Which of the following is a naturally occurring gaseous hormone….a) IAA b) zeatin c) 2iP d) ethylene
2. High concentration of ethylene is present in…

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a) young leaves b) meristamatic regions c) buds d) ripening fruits

3. The precursor of ethylene is ….a) tryptophan b) serine c) methionine d) cysteine
4. All the following are functions of ethylene except …..
a) promote senescence b) enhances abscission c) promote ripening d) induces cell division

5. All are ethylene inhibitors except….
a) phenyl mercuric acetate b) Ag+ c) amionooxy acetic acid d) aminoethoxy vinyl glycine
6. Which of the following ion is an ethylene inhibitor…a) Mg2+ b) NH3+ c) Ag+ d) Cl
7. Which of the following is a bioassay for ethylene….
a) chlorophyll preservation test b) triple pea test c) rice seedling growth inhibition test
8. Climacteric fruits are…..

a) fruits exhibiting increase in respiration before final stages of ripening
b) fruits exhibiting decrease in respiration before final stages of ripening
c) fruits exhibiting increase in photosynthesis before final stages of ripening
d) fruits exhibiting decrease in photosynthesis before final stages of ripening
9. All are climacteric fruits that respond to ethylene except ….a) apple b) banana c) grape d) mango
10. Ethylene treated shoots shows triple response that include
a) epinasty (down ward curvature of leaves) b) lateral cell expansion c) loss of gravity response d) all of the above
11. Aerenchyma formation in wet land species especially in rice is induced by…
a) auxin and ethylene b) cytokinin c) ABA d) ethylene
12. Which of the following enzyme production is enhanced by ethylene
a) amylase and protease b) protease only c) cellulase and chlorophyllase d) cellulase and protease
13. Which of the following is an artificial ripening agent… a) ethaphone b) 2,4D c) NAA d) ethylene
14. Which of the following hormone stimulates ethylene release…a) auxin b) cytokinin c) gibberellin d) abscisic acid
15. Ethylene production by organisms can be detected by….
a) coloum chromatography b) gas chromatography c) spectrophotometer d) colorimeter
Answers: 1d 2d 3c 4d 5a 6c 7b 8a 9c 10d 11d 12c 13a 14d 15b
1. The process of sorting and transporting newly synthesized proteins to correct destination in a cell is called
a) protein sorting b) protein targeting c) protein trafficking d) all of these
2. Proteins required in the cytosol like the enzymes of glycolysis are synthesized on…
a) ribosomes on endoplasmic reticulum b) SER c) free ribosomes in the cytosol d) ribosomes on nuclear membrane
3. Secretory proteins are synthesized by..
a) free ribosome b) ribosomes on endoplasmic reticulum c) ribosomes on nuclear membrane d) all of the above
4. Choose the correct order of transport of protein in a secretory pathway?

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a) Protein synthesized in the cytoplasm>SER lumen>RER lumen>cis golgi>median golgi>trans golgi>vescicles>fusion of

vesicles with plasma membrane> exocytosis
b) Protein synthesized in the cytoplasm>RER lumen>cis golgi >median golgi>trans golgi>vescicles>fusion of vesicles with
plasma membrane> exocytosis
c) Protein synthesized in the cytoplasm>vescicles>SER>RER lumen>cis golgi>median golgi>trans golgi>vescicles>fusion of
vesicles with plasma membrane> exocytosis
d) Protein synthesized in the cytoplasm>RER lumen>trans golgi>median golgi>cis golgi>vesicles>fusion of vesicles with plasma
membrane> exocytosis
5. According to signal hypothesis, the signal peptide for a secretory protein is

a) rich in hydrophobic amino acids at the centre of the signal peptide and is attached to the Nterminus of the protein
b) rich in hydrophilic amino acids at the centre of the signal peptide and is attached to the Nterminus of the protein
c) rich in hydrophobic amino acids at the centre of the signal peptide and is attached to the Cterminus of the protein
d) rich in Sulphur containing amino acids at the centre of the signal peptide and is attached to the Nterminus of the protein
6. Signal sequences are…….

a) short peptide sequences that serves as an address for transporting newly synthesized proteins to the correct location
b) glycoprotiens that serves as an address for transporting newly synthesized proteins to the correct location
c) short peptide sequences to transport a protein to the nucleus
d) short peptide sequences attached to a protein that initiates its degradation by digestive enzymes
7. The retention signal of proteins of endoplasmic reticulum consists of aminoacids

a) Gly—AspGluLeu at the N terminus b) Lys—AspGluLeu at the N terminus
c) Gly—AspGluLeu at the C terminus d) Lys—AspGluLeu at the C terminus
8. Proteins tagged with mannose 6phospahte are transported to.a) nucleus b) lysosome c) mitochondrion d) golgi apparatus
9. Nuclear localization signal that ensures transport of a protein to nucleus is rich in….
a) lysine and arginine b) glutamine and asparagine c) serine and threonine d) tryptophan and histidine 10.
Proteins targeted to mitochondrial matrix are tagged with matrix targeting sequence rich in
a) serine and threonine b) serine, threonine, lysine and arginine c) serine, threonine, glutamine and asparagine
d) serine, threonine tryptophan and histidine
Answers: 1. d) all of these 2. c) free ribosomes in the cytosol 3. b) ribosomes on endoplasmic reticulam 4. b) Protein synthesized in the
cytoplasm>RER lumen>cis golgi>median golgi>trans golgi>vescicles>fusion of vesicles with plasma membrane> exocytosis 5. a) rich in
hydrophobic amino acids at the centre of the signal peptide and is attached to the Nterminus of the protein 6. a) short peptide sequences that
serves as an address for transporting newly synthesized proteins to the correct location 7. d) Lys—AspGluLeu at the C terminus 8. b) lysosome
9. a) lysine and arginine 10. b) serine, threonine, lysine and arginine
Nucleic acid
1. The pentoses in nucleotides are… a) in β-furanose form b) in α-furanose form c) Both d) none of the above
2. To identify self DNA from nonself DNA, the self DNA may be….
a) Glycosylated b) carboxylated c) phosphorylated d) methylated
3. Functions of nucleotide includes…. a) information storage and transmission b) storage of chemical energy
15. DNA has……

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a) Autocatalytic function b) heterocatalytic function c) both autocatalytic and heterocatalytic function

d) none of the above
Answers:- 1 a) in βfuranose form (closed 5membered ring 2 d) methylated. 3 d) All of the above 15 c) both autocatalytic and heterocatalytic
function
7. Which of the following RNA serves as adaptor molecule during protein synthesis
a) rRNA b) mRNA c) tRNA d) hnRNA
8. rRNA is synthesised in….. a) Nucleus b) Cytoplasm c) RER d) Nucleolus
11. Ribozymes are……
a) Enzymes with catalytic activity b) RNAs with catalytic activity c) proteins with catalytic activity
d) nucleic acids with catalytic activity
12. RNA is primarily seen in….. a) nucleus b) Cytoplasm c) RER d) SER
13. Ribose sugar in RNA is……. a) Dribose b) Lribose c) Both L and D form d) None of these
14. Which of the virus has double stranded RNA as genetic material?
a) Tobacco mosaic virus b) Influenza virus c) Rous Sarcoma virus d) Reoviruses
15. Ribosomes are composed of… a) DNA and RNA b) RNA and proteins c) DNA and Proteins d) RNA only
Answers 1d 2a 3b 4a 5d 6a 7c 8d 9a 10a 11b 12b 13a 14d 15b
Proteins
16. 4hydroxy proline is present in……a) Collagen b) Plant cell wall c) Keratin d) Both plant cell wall and collagen
17. Peptide bonds between amino acids are highly stable and have a half life of seven years in intracellular condition.
This is due to
a) High activation energy required for hydrolysis b) Low activation energy required for hydrolysis
c) Peptide bond is a covalent bond d) Peptide bond is rigid and planar
18. Tripeptide consists….
a) 3 amino acids and 3 peptide bonds b) 2 amino acids and 3 peptide bonds c) 3 amino acids and 2 peptide bonds
d) 3 amino acids and 4 peptide bonds
19. All the following statements are true except
a) Ornithine and citrulline are uncommon aminoacids b) Ornithine is an intermediates in Urea cycle
c) Ormithine and citrulline are uncommon amino acids present in many proteins
d) Both ornithine and citrulline are intermediates in urea cycle

20. The characteristic strong absorbance of 280nm of proteins is due to
a) All amino acids can absorb at 280nm b) Only Tryptophan and tyrosine can absorb at 280 nm
c) Tryptophan is responsible for the absorbance d) Tryptophan, tyrosine and phenylalanine can absorb at 280 nm
21. The formation of cystine occurs at…..a) ER b) Golgi c) Cytosol d) Mitochondria
22. Which of the following interaction contributes most in protein folding…..
a) Covalent bond b) Ionic bond c) Hydrophobic interaction d) Vander walls interaction

23. Which of the following aminoacid has pKa near neutrality…a) Tryptophan b) Arginine c) Histidine
d) Asparagine
24. Desmosine is an unusual amino acid found in….. a) Myosin b) Elastin c) Troponin d) Actin
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25. How many small peptides are formed upon cleavage by trypsin if a protein has 5 lysine residues
a) 4 b)5 c) 6 d) 7
26. EF1α and EFTu are…….. a) Analogs b) Homologs c) Paralogs d) Syllogs
27. All the statements regarding peptide bond are true except
a) Peptide bond is a covalent bond b) Peptide bond is rigid and planar
c) Peptide bond has partial double bond character d) Peptide bond is formed by non-condensation reaction
28. Αlphahelix has…… a) 3.6 residues/turn and is a right handed helix b) 3.8 residues/turn and is a right handed helix
c) 3.6 residues/turn and is a left handed helix d) 3.8 residues/turn and is a left handed helix
29.Which of the following amino acids are rarely present in alpha helix……
a) Glycine and proline b) Proline and tryptophan c) Tryptophan and glycine d) Proline only
30. PDI is an enzyme involve in…. a) Protein synthesis b) Protein degradation c) Protein folding
d) Protein quaternery structure formation
Answers :-16.d) 17.a) 18.c) amino acids and 2 peptide bonds 19.c) Ormithine and citrulline are uncommon amino acids present in many proteins Remember, these two amino
acids are not present in any proteins. 20.d Tryptophan, tyrosine and phenylalanine can absorb at 280 nm. These are aromatic amino acids. Tryptophan and tyrosine absorbs strongly
at 280nm where as phenylalanine has comparatively low absorbance. 21. a) ER. Two cysteine amino acids are linked by disulphide bond to form cystine. Disulphide bonds are
formed only in the highly oxidizing environment of ER. 22. c Hydrophobic interaction (Bonds in Proteins) 23.c histidine has a pKa of 6.0 and has buffering capacity 24.b) Elastin
25.c) 6 Trypsin cleave at Cterminal of lysine or arginine residue 26.b) homologs. EFTu elongation factor is involved in protein synthesis of bacteria. The protein counterpart in
eukaryote is EF1α. Both are members of the same family with a common ancestry. 27.d Peptide bond is formed by noncondensation reaction. Actually Peptide bond is formed by
condensation reaction. 28.a) 3.6 residues/turn and is a right handed helix in all proteins. You have to read the options carefully before picking one. 29.a) glycine and proline.
Proline is an alpha helix terminator as it cannot form H bond with other residues. Glycine is the simplest amino acid and has high conformational flexibility. Polymers of glycine
form coiled structures entirely different from alpha helix. 30.c PDI (protein di sulphide isomerase) is an enzyme involved in shuffling of di sulphide bonds in protein folding. Refer
our post protein folding
Protein Function
1. A prosthetic group of a protein is a nonprotein structure that is:…
a) A ligand of the protein. b) A part of the secondary structure of the protein.
c) A substrate of the protein. d) Permanently associated with the protein.
2. In the binding of oxygen to myoglobin, the relationship between the concentration of oxygen and the fraction of
binding sites occupied can best be described as:….
a) Hyperbolic. b) Linear with a negative slope. c) linear with a positive slope. d) sigmoidal.
3. Myoglobin and the subunits of hemoglobin have….a) no obvious structural relationship. b) very different primary
and tertiary structures c) very similar primary and tertiary structures.
d) Very similar tertiary structures, but different primary structures.
4. In hemoglobin, the transition from T state to R state (low to high affinity) is triggered by:-
a) Fe binding. b) heme binding. c) oxygen binding. d) subunit association.
5. Which of the following is not correct concerning cooperative binding of a ligand to a protein?

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a) It is usually a form of allosteric interaction. b) It is usually associated with proteins with multiple subunits.
c) It rarely occurs in enzymes. d) It results in a nonlinear Hill Plot.
6. The fundamental cause of sickle cell disease is a change in the structure of:
a) blood. b) capillaries. c) hemoglobin. d) red cells.
7. The proteins of the Major Histocompatibility Complex (MHC) bind and display: -
a) Antigen fragments. b) B cell fragments. c) Immunoglobin fragments. d) Macrophage fragments.

8. A monoclonal antibody differs from a polyclonal antibody in that monoclonal antibodies:
a) Are labeled with chemicals that can be visualized.

b) Are produced by cells from the same organism that produced the antigen.
c) Are synthesized by a population of identical, or “cloned,” cells. d) Are synthesized only in living organisms
9. The predominant structural feature in myosin molecules is:
a) A b structure. b) An a helix. c) The Fab domain. d) The light chain.
10. During muscle contraction, hydrolysis of ATP results in a change in the:-
a) Conformation of actin. b) Conformation of myosin. c) Structure of the myofibrils.
d) Structure of the sarcoplasmic reticulum.
Answers 1. d) permanently associated with the protein. 2. A) hyperbolic. 3. d) very similar tertiary structures, but different primary structures
4. c) oxygen binding. 5. c) It rarely occurs in enzymes. 6. c) hemoglobin. 7. a) antigen fragments. 8. c) are synthesized by a population of
identical, or “cloned,” cells. 9. b) an a helix. 10. B) conformation of myosin
Sequence Alignment
1. The procedure of aligning two sequences by searching for patterns that is in the same order in the sequences
a) Sequence alignment b) pair wise alignment c) multiple sequence alignment d) all of these
2. Alignment method suitable for aligning closely related sequence is
a) Multiple sequence alignment b) pair wise alignment c) global alignment d) local alignment
3. The alignment procedure that tries to align the entire sequence is
4. The alignment method suitable for finding out conserved patterns in DNA or protein sequences is
5. The procedure of aligning many sequences simultaneously is called

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6. Sequence alignment helps scientists

a) To trace out evolutionary relationships b) to infer the functions of newly synthesized genes
c) To predict new members of gene families d) all of these
7. The alignment procedure that tries to align regions with high level of matches without considering the alignment of
rest of the sequences is
8. All are sequence alignment tools except
a) Rasmol b) BLAST c) FASTA d) Clustal W
9. Which of the following is a sequence alignment tool provided by NCBI a) Chime b) BLAST c) FASTA d) Clustal W
10. Which of the following is a multiple sequence alignment tool?
a) Clustal W b) Chime c) Dismol d) PDB
Answers 1. b) pair wise alignment 2. c) global alignment 3. c) global alignment 4. d) local alignment 5. a) multiple sequence alignment 6. d) all
of these 7. d) local alignment 8. a) Rasmol 9. b) BLAST 10. a) Clustal W
Bioinformatics Biological databases

1. Margaret Dayhoff developed the first protein sequence database called
a) SWISS PROT b) PDB c) Atlas of protein sequence and structure d) Protein sequence databank
2. Each record in a database is called an …….a) enter b) file c) record d) ticket
3. Literature databases include……
a) MEDLINE and PubMED b) MEDLINE and PDB c) PubMED and PDB d) MEDLINE and PDS
4. FlyBase is a ….a) biodiversity database b) model organism database c) literature database d) biomolecular database
5. Which of the following is an E.coli model organism database ….a) EcoGene b) EcoBase c) EcoSeq d) ColGene
6. Which of the following is a protein sequence database …..a) DDBJ b) EMBL c) GenBank d) PIR
7. GenBnak, the nucleic acid sequence database is maintained by
a) Brookhaven laboratory b) DNA database of Japan (DDBJ) c) European Molecular Biology laboratory (EMBL)
d) National Centre for Biotechnology Information (NCBI)
8. Submission to GenBanK are made using

a) BankIt and Sequin b) BankIt and BankIn c) Sequin and BankIn d)Entrez
9. STAG is maintained by …..

a) Brookhaven laboratory b) DNA database of Japan (DDBJ) c) European Molecular Biology laboratory (EMBL)
d) National Centre for Biotechnology Information (NCBI)
10. A comprehensive database for the study of human genetics and molecular biology is
a) PDB b) STAG c) OMIM d) PSD
11. All the following are protein sequence databases except…. a) PIR b) PSD c) SWISS PROT d) EMBL
12. The information retrieval tool of NCBI GenBank is…..a) Entrez b) STAG c) SeqIn d) text search
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13. The first secondary database developed was ……..a) PRINTS b) PROSITE c) PDB d) PIR
14. Which of the following is a sequence alignment tool ….a) BLAST b) PRINT c) PROSITE d) PIR
15. MAtDB is a model organism database for …….a) Mouse b) Human c) E.coli d) Arabidopsis
Answers: 1c 2a 3a 4b 5a 6d 7d 8a 9b 10c 11d 12a 13b 14a 15d
Bioinformatics
1. The term bioinformatics was coined by ……

a) J D Watson b) Margaret Dayhoff c) Pauline Hogeweg d) Frederic Sanger
2. Margaret Dayhoff developed the first protein sequence database called
a) SWISS PROT b) PDB c) Atlas of protein sequence and structure d) Protein sequence databank
3. Step wise method for solving problems in computer science is called …..
a) flowchart b) sequential design c) procedure d) algorithm
4. The first published completed gene sequence was of …a) M 13 phage b) T 4 phage c) φ X174 d) lambda phage
5. The term used to refer something ‘performed on computer or computer simulation”
a) dry lab b) web lab c) invitro d) insilico

6. ‘Laboratory work using chemicals, drugs etc using water’ is referred as
a) dry lab b) web lab c) wet lab d) insilico
7. ‘Laboratory work using computers and computer generated models generally offline’ is referred as
8. ‘Laboratory work using computers and associated web based analysis generally online’ is referred as
9. ‘invitro’ in latin means …..a) within the glass b) within the lab c) outside the lab d) outside the glass
10. NCBI was established in ……a) 1988 b) 1989 c) 1990 d) 1991

11. Application of bioinformatics include
a) Data storage and management b) drug designing c) understand relationships between organisms d) all of
the above 12. The computational methodology that tries to find the best matching between two molecule, a receptor and
ligand is called a) molecular matching b) molecular docking c) molecular fitting d) molecule affinity
checking
13. Proteomics is the study of
a) Set of proteins b) set of proteins in a specific region of the cell c) entire set of expressed proteins in a cell
d) none of these

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14. The process of finding relative location of genes on a chromosome is called a) gene tracing b) genome mapping
c) genome walking d) chromosome walking
15. A compound that has desirable properties to become a drug is called …
a) Lead b) find c) fit drug d) fit compound
Answers 1c 2c 3d 4c 5d 6c 7a 8b 9a 10a 11d 12b 13c 14b 15a
1. Which is model organism database? ………..GOLD PROMISE SGD SCOP
2. BLAST X program is used for………….

Translate protein sequence translate DNA databse translate input sequence none of these
3. Information of all known nucleotide and protein sequences are available on
EMBL DDBT NCBI's Gene Bank All of these

4. GeneBank and SWISSPORT are example of
primary database secondary databse composite database none of these
5. SCOP is
it is primary database it is nucleotide sequence databse SCOP database is ahierarachial classiᦸcation of
protein 2D domain structures structural databse, which identity strual and evolutionary relationships
6. 'FASTA' was published by….. a)Joseph Sambrook b)Pearson and Lipman c)Sanger d ) Altschul et al
7. PDB is …….
a)Primary database for macromolecules b) can be determined by gel electrophoresis c)composite database
d)database for three dimensional struture of biological macromolecule
8. BLOSUM matrices are used for
a) Phylogenetic analysis b) multiple sequence alighment c)pairwise sequence alighment d)none of these
9. Which is data retrieving tool?
a)ENTREZ b) EMBL c) PHD d)All of these
10. Proteomics research can be categorized as
a)structural proteomics and functional proteomics b) structural, functional and comparative proteomics
c)functioanl and comparative proteomics d)none of these
Agricultural Biotechnology
1. Two bacteria most useful in genetic engineering are
a)Rhizobium and Azobacter b)Nitrosomonas and Klebsilla c)Escherichia and Agrobacterium

d)Rhizobium and Diplococcus
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2. Transposon is known as ….a) IS element b)Jumping gene c)conservative gene d)co-integrate gene
3. The uptake of plasmid DNA into the bacterial cell is facilitated by the presence of in the medium
a) Calcium Chloride b) Potassium chloride c) Magnesium chloride d) none of these
4. The travel of gene expression and gene activation can be measured using which of the following?
a) Reporter gene b) Marker gene c) Gene sequences d)Promoter element
5. The enzyme required to obtained wall free/ nacked protoplasts are…
a) cellulase and proteinase b) cellulase and pectinase c) cellulase and amylase d) amylase and pectinase
6. A synchronous culture is one in which the majority of cells proceed through….
a) Lag phase b) Log phase c) exponential phase d) each cell cycle phase (G1, S, G2 and M)
7. DNA molecules, identical except for different numbers of superhelical turns are called
a) Chain isomers b) Topoisomers c) Helical isomers d) Geometrical isomers
8. Application of embryo culture is in …..

a) clonal propagation b) Production of alkaloids c) Production of soma clonal variation
d)overcoming hybridisation barrier
9. Haploid culture are got from…..a) leaves b) root tips c) pollen grain d) bud
10. Differentiation of shoot in plant tissue culture is controlled by …..
a)high auxin : cytokinin ratio b) high cytokinin : auxin ratio c) high gibberellin : cytokinin ratio
d) high gibberellin: auxin ratio
Answers 1.c) Escherichia and Agrobacterium 2.b) Jumping gene 3.a) Calcium Chloride 4.b) Marker gene 5.b) cellulase and pectinase 6.d)
each cell cycle phase (G1, S, G2 and M) 7.b) Topoisomers 8.d) overcoming hybridisation barrier 9.c) pollen grain 10.b) high cytokinin :
auxin ratio
Genetic Engineering and Recombinant DNA technology
1. DNA sequencing is done by….

a) Maxam Gilbert method b) Sanger dideoxy method c) Both a and b d) Watson and Crick
2. A vector should have which of the following properties…
i) MCS ii) Small size iii) Multiple ori iv) low replication speed
a) i, ii, iii b) ii, iii, iv c) i, ii, iv d) i, iii, iv
3. DNA staining is done by ……a) Cystal violet b) Giemsa staining c) Methylene blue d) Feulgen staining
4. Which of the following is not a restriction endonuclease? …a) Eco RI b) DNA ligase c) Hind III d) Bam H1
5. Use of alkaline phosphatase is to

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a) Remove terminal phosphates from 3’end b) remove terminal phosphates from 5’end
c) Remove terminal phosphate from both end d) All of these
4. Which of the following is not a restriction endonuclease?... a) Eco RI b) DNA ligase c) Hind III d) Bam H1
5. Use of alkaline phosphatase is to ……
a) Remove terminal phosphates from 3’end b) remove terminal phosphates from 5’end
c) Remove terminal phosphate from both end d) All of these
6. The uptake of plasmid DNA into bacterial cell is facilitated in the presence of …..
a) Calcium chloride b) magnesium chloride c) potassium chloride d) all of these
7. Taq polymerase is used in PCR because of its
a) Low thermal stability b) high fidelity c) high speed d) high thermal stability
8. Introduction of recombinant DNA into bacterial cell by using current is called
a) Transformation b) electroporation c) transformation d) tranduction
9. Nick translation is done by
a) DNA polymerase I b) DNA polymerase II c) DNA ligase d) Kinase 1
10. Telomeric sequences are found in …….a) HAC b) BAC c) YAC d) PAC
Answer 1. c) Both a and b 2. c) i, ii, iv 3. d) Feulgen staining 4. b) DNA ligase 5. d) all of these 6. d) all of these 7. d)
high thermal stability 8. b) electroporation 9. a) DNA polymerase I 10. c) YAC
Plant Biotechnology
1. Plant biotechnology involves ………

a) Production of valuable products in plants b) rapid clonal multiplication of desired genotypes
c) production of virus free plants d) all of these
2. the most common solidifying agent used in micropropagation is …..a) Agar b) dextran c) Mannan d) all of these
3. The culturing of cells in liquid agitated medium is called ….
a) Liquid culture b) micropropagation c) Agar culture d) suspension culture
4. Which of the following is best suited method for production of virus free plants
a) embryo culture b) meristem culture c) ovule culture d) anther culture
5. Batch cultures are type of suspension culture where
a) medium is continuously replaced b) medium is loaded only at the beginning
c) No depletion of medium occurs d) cellular wastes are continuously removed and replaced
6. Immobilized cell bioreactors are based on

a) Cells cultures in solid medium b) cells cultured in liquid medium

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c) Cells entrapped in gels d) all of these

7. All are plant derived alkaloids except ………..a) Menthol b) nicotine c) quinine d) codeine
8. Elicitors are molecules that
a) Induce cell divison b) stimulate production secondary metabolites c) stimulate hairy root formation that
accumulate secondary metabolites d) none of these
9. All are plant derived elicitors except ………..a) Chitin b) pectin c) cellulose d) pectic acid
10. The modification of exogenous compounds by plant cells is called
a) Biotransformation b) bioconversion c) both a and b d) bio-phytomodification
11. Artificial seeds are
a) Seeds produced in laboratory condition b) seeds encapsulated in a a gel
c) somatic embryos encapsulated in a gel d) zygotic embryos encapsulated in a gel
12. Hairy root cultures for secondary metabolite production are induced by transforming plant cells withs
a) virus b) Agrobacterium tumefaciens c) Bacillus thuringiensis d) Agrobacterium rhizogenes
13. The variation in invitro culture is called as
a) invitro variation b) mutation c) somaclonal variation d) all of these
14. Haploid plants are produced in large numbers by
a) anther culture b) Ovary culture c) both a and b d) embryo culture
15. Cybrids are ….a) nuclear hybrids b) hybrid plants derived from cross pollination
c) cytoplasmic hybrids d) cytological hybrids
Answers: 1. d) all of these 2. a)agar 3. d) suspension culture 4. b) meristem culture 5. b) medium is loaded only at the beginning 6. c)
cells entrapped in gels 7. a) menthol 8. b) stimulate production secondary metabolites 9. a) chitin 10. c) both a and b 11. c) somatic
embryos encapsulated in a gel 12. d) Agrobacterium rhizogenes 13. c) somaclonal variation 14. c) both a and b 15. c) cytoplasmic hybrids
Environmental Biotechnology
1. Environmental biotechnology involves

a) The use of microbes to clean up the environment b) bioremediation
c) the study of benefits and hazards associated with GMMs d) all of these
2. The use of living microorganism to degrade environmental pollutants is called
a) Microremediation b) Nanoremediation c) bioremediation d) all of these
3. Which of the following bacterium is called as the superbug that could clean up oil spills
a) Bacillus subtilis b) Pseudomonas putida c) Pseudomonas denitrificans d) Bacillus denitrificans

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4. The process of extracting metals from ore bearing rocks is called

a)bioextraction b) microbial extraction c) biofiltration d) bioleaching
5. The process of converting environmental pollutants into harmless products by naturally occurring microbes is called
a) exsitu bioremediation b) Intrinsic bioremediation c) extrinsic bioremediation d) none of these
6. Ex situ bioremediation involves the
a) degradation of pollutants by microbes directly
b) removal of pollutants and collection at a place to facilitate microbial degradation
c) degradation of pollutants by genetically engineered microbes d) none of these
7. Which of the following microbe is widely used in the removal of industrial wastes
a) Trichoderma sp b) Aspergillus niger c) Pseudomonas putida d) all of these
8. Microorganisms remove metals by………
a) Adsorption and complexation b) adsorption and precipitation c) adsorption and volatilization d) all of these
9. Chlorella sp are widely used in the removal of
a) organic wastes b) hydrocarbons c) heavy metals d) all of these
10. A non-directed physic-chemical interaction between heavy metal ions and microbial surface is called
a) Biotransformation b) bioconversion c) biosorption d) biomining
Answers 1. d) all of these 2. c) bioremediation 3. b) Pseudomonas putida 4. d) bioleaching 5. b) Intrinsic bioremediation 6. b) removal of
pollutants and collection at a place to facilitate microbial degradation 7. b) Aspergillus niger 8. d) all of these 9. c) heavy metals 10. c)
biosorption
Biofertilizers and Pesticides
1. Organic farming is the technique of raising crops through uses of?

a) manures b) biofertilizers c) resistant varieties d) all of these
2. Pyrethrin is got from.. a) Azardirachta indica b) Urtica dioca c) Tagetus erecta d) Chrsanthemum cinerarifolium
3. Which one is green manure/ biofertilizer… a) Sesbania b) Rice c) Oat d) Maize
4. Azolla is used as biofertilizer as it has. a) Rhizobium b) Cyanobacteria c) Mycorrhiza d) large quantity of humus
5. The most quickly available source of nitrogen to plants are….
a) amide fertilizers b) ammonia fertilizers c) nitrate fertilizers d) ammonia nitrate fertilizer
6. Most effective pesticide is…. a) carbamates b) Organophosphates c) organochlorines d) All of these
7. Which is true for DDT? It is..a) not a pollutant b) an antibiotic c) an antiseptic agent d) a non degradable pollutant
8. Which is major component of Bordeaux Mixture?
a) Copper sulphate b) sodium chloride c) calcium chloride d) magnesium sulphate
9. Which one is correctly matched?
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a) Carbamates malathion b) organophosphates carbofuran c) carbamates malathion d) organochloride endosulphan

10. IPM stands for…….. a) Integrated pest manufacture b) integrated plant management
c) integrated plant management d) integrated pest management
11. Azolla is used as biofertilizer as it has.. a) Rhizobium b) Cyanobacteria c) Mycorrhiza d) large quantity of humus
12. Green manuring increases the crop yield by… a) 510% b) 1525% c) 3050% d) 8090%
13. Insecticides generally attack… a) respiratory system b) nervous system c) muscular system d) circulatory system
14. Organisms associated with sorghum and cotton, which provide nutrition to them are…..
a) Azospirillium, Azotobacter b) Azotobacter, Azospirillum c) Anabaena, Rhizobium d) Rhizobium, Azotobacter
15. Azolla as biofertilizer, increases the yield of rice fields by.. a) 10% b) 20% c) 30% d) 50%
Answers: 1. d) all of these 2. d) Chrsanthemum cinerarifolium 3. a) Sesbania 4. b) Cyanobacteria 5. c) nitrate fertilizers 6. b)

Organophosphates 7. d) a non degradable pollutant 8. a) copper sulphate 9. d) organochloride endosulphan 10. d) integrated pest management
11. b) Cyanobacteria 12. c) 3050% 13. a) respiratory system 14. a) Azospirillium, Azotobacter 15. d) 50%
Enzymes in Genetic Engineering
1. Which of the following enzyme is used to synthesize DNA using an mRNA template
a) Taq polymerase b) alkaline phosphatase c) reverse transcriptase d) nuclease
2. Which of the following enzyme is used to cut DNA molecule internally
a) Restriction enzymes b) restriction endonuclease c) restriction exonuclease d) ribonuclease H
3. Which type of restriction enzymes are commonly used in rDNA technology
a) Type I b) Type II c) Type III d) Type IV
4. Which of the following enzyme is used to join two DNA molecule
a) Nuclease b) restriction enzymes c) lyases d) ligases
5. Which is the enzyme used to remove phosphate group from the 5’ end of the DNA
a) restriction enzymes b) alkaline phosphatase c) polynucleotide kinase d) ribonuclease H
6. The enzyme that adds mononucleotide triphosphates to the 3’ OH group of a DNA fragment is
a) polynucleotide kinase b) terminal nucleotidyl transferase c) terminal phosphoryl transferase d) all of these
7. The RNA strand in the RNADNA hybrid is removed by
a) RNAse b) RNaseH c) nuclease d) none of these
8. Klenow enzyme is the product of enzymatic breakdown of

a) DNA polymerase I b) DNA polymerase II c) DNA polymerase III d) RNA polymerase
9. Selective degradation of single stranded DNA is carried out by the enzyme
a) Nuclease b) ribonuclease c) SI nuclease d) deoxy ribonuclease
10. Which of the following is an RNA dependent DNA synthetase
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a) DNA polymerase I b) DNA polymerase II c) reverse transcriptase d) all of these

11. Which of the following is a thermo stable DNA polymerase
a) Taq polymerase b) Vent polymerase c) pfu polymerase d) all of these
12. Eco R1 is a
a) Endonuclease b) polymerase enzyme c) ligase d) exonuclease
Answers 1. c) reverse transcriptase 2. b) restriction endonuclease 3. b) Type II 4. d) ligases 5. b) alkaline phosphatase 6. b) terminal
nucleotidyl transferase 7. b) RNaseH 8. a) DNA polymerase I 9. c) SI nuclease 10. c) reverse transcriptase 11. d) all of these 12. a)
endonuclease
Basic Immunology
1. Injection of antivenom to a patient for snake bite is an example of

a) Naturally acquired active immunity b) Artificially acquired active immunity
c) Naturally acquired passive immunity d) Artificially acquired passive immunity
2. Newborns get their antibodies from mothers milk. This is an example of
3. Vaccination is an example of
4. Often patients are immune to diseases like chicken pox once infected. This immunity is an example of
5. Skin is the largest organ in the body and protects us by preventing pathogen entry. This is an example of
a) Naturally acquired innate immunity b) Artificially acquired adaptive immunity
6. All the following comes under nonspecific defence mechanism except
a) fever b) phagocytes c) cell mediated immunity d) complement system
7. Which of the following is the site of T cell maturation?
a) Bone marrow b) Thymus c) Spleen d) Appendix
8. Which of the following immune mechanism is responsible for protecting us from diseases of other species?
a) Active immunity b) Passive immunity c) Innate immunity d) Adaptive immunity

9. Primary lymphoid organs include
a) Thymus and spleen b) Thymus and bone marrow c) Thymus, bone marrow and spleen
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d) Thymus, bone marrow, spleen and lymph nodes

10. Activation of B cell receptor by the binding of an epitope result in the formation of
a) Plasma cells and T cytotoxic cells b) memory cells and T cytotoxic cells c) Plasma cells for antibody
production and memory cells for primary response d) Plasma cells for antibody production and memory cells for
secondary response
Answers 1. d) Artificially acquired passive immunity 2. c) Naturally acquired passive immunity 3. b) Artificially acquired active immunity 4.
a) Naturally acquired active immunity 5. a) Naturally acquired innate immunity 6. c) Cell mediated immunity 7. b) Thymus 8. c) Innate
immunity 9. b) Thymus and bone marrow 10. d) Plasma cells for antibody production and memory cells for secondary response
Immunology Antigens
1. Any substance or molecules that interact with antibodies are called

a) Antigens b) antibodies c) epitope d) Immunogens
2. Antigens can be……….a) Proteins b) carbohydrates c) nucleic acids d) all of these
3. Any molecule that induces or elicits an immune response are
a) Antigens b) antibodies c) epitope d) Immunogens
4. Majority of antigens are ……….a) Proteins b) carbohydrates c) nucleic acids d) lipids
5. A molecule that reacts with specific antibody but is not immunogenic by itself is called
a) carrier b) antigen c) hapten d) immunogen
6. Haptens are immunogenic upon binding covalently to a carrier protein
a) covalently to a carrier protein. b) covalently to an antibody c) covalently to a paratope d) none of these
7. Haptens cannot activate T cell or B cells due to
a) its low molecular weight antigens arbuscules b) its inability to bind to MHC c) both a and b d) none of these
8. A complete antigen is capable of
a) inducing an immune response b) can interact with antibody c) induces antibody production d) all of these
9. Which of the following is a hapten……a) Cyanide b) paracetamol c) Penicillin d) none of these
10. An incomplete antigens
a) are also called as haptens b) are immunogenic upon binding covalently to a carrier protein c) cannot induce
antibody production by itself d)all of the above
Answers 1. a) Antigens 2. d) all of these 3. d) immunogens 4. a) Proteins 5. c) hapten 6. a) covalently to a carrier protein. 7.c both a and b
8. d) all of these 9. c) Penicillin 10. d)all of the above
1. An antigen is
a) A highly specific protein produced by the body in response to a foreign body

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b) A chemical that inhibits the growth of micro organisms

c) An antibody produced by the body that stimulates the production of antibodies by the body’s immune system
d) A chemical substance that stimulates the production of antibodies by the body’s immune system
2. CD40 ligand is seen only on
a) Macrophages b) Cytotoxic T cells c) Helper T cells d) Dentritic cells
3. High titres of antinuclear antibodies are indicative of
a) Parasitic infections b) Fungal diseases c) Autoimmune diseases d) Bacterial diseases
4. Which of the following is an auto immune disease?
a) Type 1 Diabetes mellitus b) Type 2 Diabetes mellitus c) Haemophilia A d) Sickle cell anemia
5. DNA vaccines elicit protective immunity against a microbial pathogen by activating:
a) Humoral immune system b) Cellular immune system c) Both a and b d) None of these
7. In an immune response the type of cell which gets activated earliest is :
a) Killer T cells b) Plasma cells c) Helper T cells d) Cytotoxic T cells
8. What is a characteristic of early stages of local inflammation?
a) Fever b) Anaphylactic Shock c) Release of histamine d) Attack by cytotoxic T cells
9. An epitope associates with which part of an antibody?
a) The antibody binding site b) The heavy chain constant regions only c) Variable regions of a heavy chain and
light chain combined d) The light chain constant regions only
10. Which of the following is not true about helper T cells?
a) They function in cell mediated and humoral responses b) They are activated by polysaccharide fragments
c) They bear surface CD4 molecules d) They are subject to infection by HIV
Answers 1. d) A chemical substance that stimulates the production of antibodies by the body’s immune system 2. c) Helper T cells 3. c)
Autoimmune diseases a) Type 1 Diabetes mellitus 5. c) Both a) and b) 6. d) IgM 7. c) Helper T cells 8. c) Release of histamine 9. c) Variable
regions of a heavy chain and light chain combined 10. b) They are activated by polysaccharide fragments
Complement system
1. Complement system
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a) Consists of 20 serum proteins b) serum proteins acts as biological cascade c) both a and b d) are set of antibodies
2. Complemen t system is involved in
a) specific defence b) nonspecific defence c) both a and b d) none of these
3. Which of the following statements are true regarding complement activation
a) lysis of pathogen, tumor cells and allografts b) production of mediators that attracts neutrophils to the site of
inflammation c) opsonization d) all of these
4. Classical pathway of complement system is activated by
a) antibody-antigen complexes b) antigen c) antigenic peptides d) antigens bound to MHC
5. Alternate pathway of complement system is activated by
a) antibody-antigen complexes b) antigen c) microorganisms or its toxins d) antigens bound to MHC
6. Classical pathway of complement system is involved in
a) Specific defence b) adaptive immunity c) both a and b d) nonspecific defence
7. Alternate pathway of complement system is involved in
a) Nonspecific defence b) innate immunity c) both a and b d) adaptive immunity
8. Which of the following is the central molecule in complement pathway
a) C1 b) C2 c) C3b d) C5
9. Cell lysis in complement pathway is initiated by
a) Membrane destruction complex b) membrane degradation complex c) membrane attacking complex
d) Membrane lysis complex
10. MAC is
a) C5b6789 complex b) C5b5678 complex c) C5b5789 complex d) Protein polysaccharide complex
11. Which of the following is required for C1 activation
a) Ca b) Mg c) Mn d) Zn
12. Which of the following is the most potent anaphylatoxin…..a) C3a b) C4a c) C5a d) C1
13. In alternate pathway…..a) Factor b is involved b) factor d is involved c) both a and b d) Only factor f is involved
14. Biological role of complement system include
a) cytolysis and chemotaxis b) opsonisation c) anaphylotoxin and enhanced antibody production d) all of these
15. Body’s own cells are protected from membrane attack complex by a surface glycoprotein called
a) MHC b) DAF c) TCR d) BCR
Answers: 1. c) both a and b 2.c) both a and b 3. d) all of these 4. a) antibodyantigen complexes 5. c) microorganisms or its toxins 6. c) both
a and b 7. c) both a and b 8. c) C3b 9. c) membrane attacking complex 10. a) C5b6789 complex 11. a) Ca 12. c) C5a.( Anaphylotoxins:

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induces the release of inflammatory mediators like histamines from the mast cells. C3a, C4a and C5a are the anaphylatoxins of which C5a is
the most potent) 13. c) both a and b 14. d) all of these 15. b) DAF (Human cells have a glycoprotein situated on the cell surface called
as decay accelerating factor (DAF). DAF prevents the formation of membrane attack complex by destabilizing C3 and C5 convertase.)
Hypersensitivity Reactions
1. Allergy to penicillin is an example of
a) Type I hypersensitivity b) Type II hypersensitivity c) Type III hypersensitivity d) Type IV hypersensitivity
2. Type IV hypersensitivity is also called as

a) Immediate hypersensitivity b) delayed hypersensitivity c) cytotoxic hypersensitivity d) immune complex hypersensitivity
3. The most common class of antibody involved in type II hypersensitivity is
a) IgG b) IgM c) IgE d) IgD

4. T helper cell mediated hypersensitivity is
5. Type III hypersensitivity is triggered by
a) Mast cells and IgE b) K cells and IgG c) deposition of antigen antibody complexes d) Th cells
6. Autoimmune hemolytic anemia (AHA) is an example of
7. “Wheal and flare” reaction is characteristic reaction associated with identification of
8. K cells and IgG mediated hypersensitivity is
9. Antibody dependant cytotoxicity is associated with
10. Allergies to sea foods, eggs etc is an example of
Answers: 1. a) Type I hypersensitivity 2. b) delayed hypersensitivity 3. a) IgG 4. d) Type IV hypersensitivity 5. c) deposition of antigen
antibody complexes 6. b) Type II hypersensitivity 7. a) Type I hypersensitivity 8. b) Type II hypersensitivity 9. b) Type II hypersensitivity
10. a) Type I hypersensitivity
Antibodies or Immunoglobulins
1. Which of the following is the most abundant immunoglobulin (Ig)
a) IgM b) IgG c) IgA d) IgE
2. Which of the following IgG is targeted against polysaccharides of encapsulated bacteria
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a) IgG1 b) IgG2 c) IgG3 d) IgG4

3. IgG consists of
a) 2 light chains and two heavy chains joined by disulphide bond (H2L2)
b) 2 light chains and two heavy chains joined by hydrogen bond (H2L2)
c) 2 light chains and a heavy chain joined by disulphide bond (H1L2)
d) a light chain and two heavy chains joined by disulphide bond (H2L1)
4. Which is the Ig that can cross placenta and provide passive immunity to new born
a) IgM b) IgG c) IgA d) IgE
5. Which is the Ig that first reaches the site of infection……..a) IgM b) IgG c) IgA d) IgE
6. Which is the largest Ig ……………..a) IgM b) IgG c) IgA d) IgE
7. Which of the following statements are true regarding IgM
a) IgM is a pentamer and is the largest Ig and called as ‘natural antibody’
b) IgM exists as monomer on Bcell surface
c) IgM is involved in early primary immune response d) all of these
8. Which of the following statements are true
a) IgM is involved in primary immune response b) IgG is involved in primary immune response
c) Both IgM and IgG are involved in primary immune response d) IgG is involved only in secondary immune response
9. The antibody present in secretions like tears, saliva, colostrum is ,……a) IgM b) IgG c) IgA d) IgE
10. The primary Ig of exocrine secretions is ……..a) IgM b) IgG c) IgA d) IgE
Answers 1. b) IgG 2. b) IgG2 3. a) 2 light chains and two heavy chains joined by disulphide bond (H2L2) 4. b) IgG 5. a) IgM6. a) IgM 7. d) all
of these 8. c) Both IgM and IgG are involved in primary immune response 9. c) IgA 10. c) IgA
Monoclonal antibodies
1. Monoclonal antibodies are
a) heterogenous antibodies produced from single clone of plasma cells
b) homogenous antibodies produced from single clone of plasma cells
c) both a and b d) none of these
2. Natural humoral immune response against a pathogen leads to the production of
a) polyclonal antibodies b) monoclonal antibodies c) macrophages d) none of these

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3.The technology used for the production of monoclonal antibodies is

a) massculture technology b) hybridoma technology c) suspension culture d) none of these
4. Hybridoma technology was developed by
a) Kohler and Milstein b) Khorana and Nirenberg c) Khorana and Korenberg d) Beedle and Tautum
5. The hybridomas are made by
a) fusing T cells with myeloma cells b) fusing B cells with myeloma cells c) fusing T helper cells with myeloma cells
d) fusing B memory cells with myeloma cells
6. All are Mabs except
a) Rituximab b) Transtuzumab c) Infliximab d) tamoxifen
7. Mabs are……….
a) Specific towards a paratope b) specific towards an epitope c) specific towards an antigen d) none of these
8. Which of the following statement is incorrect regarding HAT medium
a) HAT medium is a selective medium b) Aminiopterin in the HAT medium blocks de novo pathway of nucleotide
synthesis c) Salvage pathway requires aminopterin and thymidine d) Hypoxanthin is converted to guanine by HGPRT
enzyme
9. HGPRT mutant cells are raised by inducing mutations using
a) 5bromouracil b) 8azaguanine c) colchicine d) 6methy isocyanate
10. In hybridoma technology, hybrid cells are selected in
a) MS medium b) HAT medium c) xgal medium d) Whites medium
11. Which of the following cell is made deficient of hypoxanthine guanyl phosphoribosyl transferase (HGPRT) enzyme
a) B cells b) hybrid cells c) myeloma cells d) none of these
12. Which of the following statement is incorrect regarding HAT selection
a) B cells are HGPRT + and can grow in HAT medium but undergoes normal cell death
b) Myeloma cells cannot grow in HAT medium as these cells lack HGPRT
c) Hybrid cell survive in HAT medium as it inherits HGPRT form B cells
d) Aminopterin in HAT medium blocks de novo pathway of nucleotide synthesis only in myeloma cells
13. Mabs are used in

a) the screening of recombinants b) diagnostic kits c) the treatment of many cancers d) all of these
14. The major hazards of Mabs are

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a) difficult in purification b) contamination with retroviral particles from mouse myeloma cells c) non specificity
d) all of these
15. Mabs are produced by
a) In vivo method b) suspended cell culture in fermenters c) Immobilized cell reactors d) all of these
Answers:- 1. b) homogenous antibodies produced from single clone of plasma cells 2. a) polyclonal antibodies 3. b) hybridoma technology 4.
a) Kohler and Milstein 5. b) fusing B cells with myeloma cells 6. d) tamoxifen 7. b) specific towards an epitope 8.c) Salvage pathway requires
aminopterin and thymidine 9. b) 8azaguanine 10. b) HAT medium 11. c) myeloma cells 12.d) Aminopterin in HAT medium blocks de novo
pathway of nucleotide synthesis only in myeloma cells 13. d) all of these 14. b) contamination with retroviral particles from mouse myeloma
cells 15.d) all of these
Transplantation
1. The process of removal and replacement of damaged tissues or organs with healthy ones from a donor is called as
a) transplantation b) replacement therapy c) repair and replacement d) none of these
2. The transfer of individuals own tissue to another part of the body is called
a) autograft b) xenograft c) allograft d) syngeneic graft
3. The transfer of tissue between genetically identical individuals (like twins) is called
4. The transfer of tissue between individuals of different species is called
5. The transfer of tissue between genetically different individuals of same species is called
6. Which of the following has the maximum transplantation success rate
7. The major molecules responsible for rejection of transplant is
a) B cells b) T cells c) MHC molecule d) antibodies
8. Genes encoding cell surface glycoproteins that are required for antigen presentation to T cells and also responsible
for rapid graft rejection is called as
a) MHC complex b) B cell complex c) T cell complex d)none of these
9. Which of the following statements are true regarding transplantation
a) The compatibility of MHC proteins of donor and recipient will determine the success of transplantation
b) MHCs are just like fingerprints and all nucleated cells possess this fingerprint

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c) The compatibility of MHC/HLA proteins of donor and recipient will be high if they are genetically closely related
and may lead to successful transplantation. d) all of these
10. In humans, MHC is called as
a) Human MHC b) Homo MHC c) Human leucocyte antigen (HLA) d) all of the above
11. The genes for HLA proteins are clustered in the major histocompatibility complex located
a) On the short arm of chromosome 6 b) on the long arm of chromosome 6 c) on the short arm of
chromosome10 d) on the long arm of chromosome 10
12. The test that is done prior to transplantation surgery to determine the compatibility of MHC proteins between donar
and recipient is called
a) MHC matching b) MHC typing c) tissue typing d) blood HLA test
13. Cyclosporine is an immunosuppressive drug given to avoid transplant rejection which acts by
a) Inhibition of T cells b) inhibition of B cells c) inhibition of immune system d) inhibition of complement system
14. MHC class I is a cell surface molecule present on
a) B cells b) all nucleated cells c) APCs d) T cells
15. MHC class II is a cell surface molecule present on
a) B cells b) all nucleated cells c) APCs d) T cells
Answer:- 1. a) transplantation 2. a) autograft 3. d) syngeneic graft 4. b) xenograft 5. c) allograft 6. a) autograft 7. c) MHC molecule (Major
histocompatibility complex) 8. a) MHC complex 9. d) all of these 10. c) Human leucocyte antigen (HLA) 11. a) on the short arm of
chromosome 6 12. c) tissue typing 13. a) inhibition of T cells 14. b) all nucleated cells 15. c) APCs
Adaptive Immunity
1. The specific targeted responses constitute the third line of defence in response to an infectious agent and is called as
a) third line of defence b) adaptive immunity c) acquired immunity d) all of these
2. The characteristics of adaptive immunity include
a) Specificity b) immunologic memory c) discrimination of self from non self molecules d) all of these
3. Which of the cells are involved in adaptive immunity
a) B cells and T cells b) B cells only c) T cells only d) macrophages and NK cells
4. T cell mediates
a) humoral immunity b) nonspecific defence c) cell mediated immunity d) none of these
5. The ratio of T cells to B cells is,……….a) 3:1 b) 1:3 c) 1:1 d) 1:2
6. The antibody mediated humoral immunity is mediated by
a) B cells and T cells b) B cells c) T cells d) macrophages and NK cells
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7. T cells and B cells are originated in ……a) Spleen b) thymus c) bone marrow d) lymph nodes
8. Injection of antivenom against snake bite is an example of
a) Active immunity b) passive immunity c) nonspecific immunity d) phagocytic immunity
9. Which of the following statements are true regarding adaptive immunity
a) Prior exposure to antigen is essential b) prior exposure to antigen is not essential
c) it is a nonspecific defence mechanism d) macrophages are the major cells involved
10. Active immunity involves
a) Contact with foreign antigens b) immunologic memory c) slow primary response d)all of the above
11. Active immunity is produced by…a) Clonal selection b) clonal expansion c) both a and b d) all of these
12. Cells involved in adaptive immunity or acquired immunity or specific defence include
a) T cells b) B cells c) antigen presenting cells d) all of these
13. Plasma cells are secreted by…….a) T cells b) B cells c) antigen presenting cells d) macrophages 1
4. The characteristics of passive immunity include
a) Immediate relief b) no immunologic memory c) resistance for a short period only d) all of these
15. Immunologic memory is provided by
a) B cells b) T cells c) both a and b d) phagocytes
Answers:- 1. d) all of these 2. d) all of these 3. a) B cells and T cells 4. c) cell mediated immunity 5. a) 3:1 6. b) B cells 7. c) bone marrow 8. c)
nonspecific immunity 9. a) prior exposure to antigen is essential 10. d) all of the above 11. c) both a and b 12. d) all of these 13. b) B cells 14.
d) all of these 15. c) both a and b
Humoral immunity
1. Humoral immunity is mediated by
a) B cells b) macrophages c) both a and b d) phagocytes
2. Humoral immunity is also called as
a) Antibody mediated immunity b) nonspecific immune response c) antigen mediated immunity d) all of these
3. B cell has receptor on its surface which is
a) Monomeric IgM b) dimeric IgM c) monomeric IgG d) B cell receptor
4. B cells upon activation by antigens
a) Undergo clonal expansion followed by clonal selection b) divides continuously

c) undergo clonal selection followed by clonal expansion d) secrete antibodies
5. B cells differentiates to form

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a) Plasma cells b) effector cells c) plasma cells and memory B cells d) none of these
6. Which of the following statement is incorrect regarding plasma cells
a) Plasma cells are the effector cells b) plasma cells secretes antibodies c) The precursor of plasma cell is B cell
d) plasma cell has surface receptors
7. Origin and maturation of B cells takes place at ….a) Spleen b) thymus c) bone marrow d) lymph nodes
8. The function of memory B cell is
a) Antibody production b) immunologic memory c) regulated antibody production d) none of these
9. B cells are
a) lymphocytes which are short lived b) lymphocytes which are long lived c) lymphocytes involved in non-
specific defence d) none of these
10. Generally antibodies produced against a pathogen is

a) monoclonal b) homogenous c) polyclonal d) all of same specificity
11. Antibodies produced by plasma cells are
a) Specific b) produced against the epitope that triggered B cell activation c) both a and b d) diverse
12. Antibodies clear out antigens by ……a) Neutralization b) precipitation c) agglutination d) all of these
13. Antibodies are………a) Opsonins b) lipoproteins c) serum phagocytes d) none of these
14. Any substance that promotes phagocytosis of antigens by binding to them are called as
a) Opsonins b) phagocytes c) macrophages d) interleukins
15. The phenomenon of selective proliferation of B cells in response to their interaction with the antigen is called
a) Clonal expansion b) monoclonal selection c) clonal proliferation d) clonal selection
Answers: 1. a) B cells 2. a) antibody mediated immunity 3. a) monomeric IgM 4. c) undergo clonal selection followed by clonal expansion 5.
c) plasma cells and memory B cells 6. d) plasma cell has surface receptors 7. c) bone marrow 8. b) immunologic memory 9. a) lymphocytes
which are short lived 10. c) polyclonal 11. c) both a and b 12. d) all of these 13. a) opsonins 14. a) opsonins 15. d) clonal selection
Immunization
1. The process of introduction of weakened pathogen into human body is called ………
a) Immunization b) vaccination c) attenuation d) none of these
2. The first vaccine was developed by… a) Louis Pasteur b) Edward Jenner c) Carl Landsteiner d) Joseph Miester
3. The concept of vaccination was first developed by…….
a) Louis Pasteur b) Edward Jenner c) Carl Landsteiner d) Joseph Miester
4. The process of weakening a pathogen is called.. a) vaccination b) attenuation c) immunization d) virulence reduction
5. The first vaccine developed by Louis Pasteur was against……
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a) Pox virus b) hepatitis virus c) rabies virus d)none of these

6. A vaccine can be… a) an antigenic protein b) weakened pathogen c) live attenuated pathogen d) all of these
7. Passive immunisation include…….. a) introduction of antibodies directly
b) transfer of maternal antibodies across placenta c) transfer of lymphocyte directly d) all of these
8. Which of the following statement is true regarding vaccination …….
a) vaccination is a method of active immunization b) vaccination is a method of passive immunisation
c) vaccination is a method of artificial passive immunisation
d) vaccination is a method of natural passive immunization
9. Active immunity may be gained by….. a) natural infection b) vaccines c) toxoids d) all of these
10. Which of the following is a combined vaccine………..
a) Hepatitis B vaccine b) Hib vaccine c) Var vaccine d) DPT vaccine
11. The first recombinant antigen vaccine approved for human use …..
a) Hepatitis B vaccine b) Hib vaccine c) Var vaccine d)DPT vaccine
12. Plasmids encoding antigenic protein from a pathogen that is directly injected into the cells where it express
constitute… a) protein vaccines b) nucleotide vaccines c) DNA vaccines d) recombined vaccines
13. All the given vaccines are attenuated or inactivated whole pathogen except. a) salk b) sabin c) hepatitis A d) tetanus
14. Which of the following statements are true regarding polio vaccines
a) Salk and Sabin are polio vaccines b) Sabin is live attenuated polio vaccine
c) Salk is an inactivated polio vaccine d) all of these
15. Which of the following is a polysaccharide vaccine……..
a) Anthrax vaccine b) rabies vaccine c) hepatitis A d) Hib vaccine
Answers 1. b) vaccination 2. a) Louis Pasteur 3. b) Edward Jenner 4. b) attenuation 5. c) rabies virus 6. d) all of these 7. d) all of these 8. a)
vaccination is a method of active immunisation 9. d) all of these 10. d) DPT vaccine 11. a) Hepatitis B vaccine 12. c) DNA vaccines 13. d)
tetanus 14. a) Salk and Sabin are polio vaccines 15.d) Hib vaccine (Haemophilus influenza type
Immunology Innate immune response
1. Nonspecific host defences that exist prior to exposure to an antigen is called………

a) acquired immunity b) innate immunity c) adaptive immunity d) all of these
2. Innate immunity is also called… a) familial b) genetic c) inborn d) all of these
3. Innate immunity involves all except……. a) anatomic barriers b) phagocytic
c) inflammatory mechanisms d) antibody production
4. First line of defence include….. a) skin b) mucus c) lysozyme secretion d) all of these
5. Skin prevents pathogen entry…….
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a) dead cells of the skin outer layer prevents pathogen entry

b) skin secretes oil by sebaceous gland that makes surface acidic
c) skin secretes sweat by sudoriferous gland that makes surface acidic d) all of these
6. Stomach clear out pathogens by… a) secreting HCl b) secreting digestive enzymes c) both a and b d) none of these
7. Vaginal bacterial symbionts like Lactobacilli prevents pathogen by
a) producing lactic acid thereby reducing pH b) secreting antibiotics
c) secreting toxins d) none of these
8. Bodies internal defence or second line of defence include.. a) phagocytes b) fever c) interferons d) all of these
9. The functions of macrophages include... a) phagocytosis b) antigen presenting cells c) cytokine production d) all of these
10.Kupffer cells are macrophages found on ……a) lung b) bone c) nephrons d) liver
11. Neutrophils are….. a) phagocytes b) short lived leucocytes c) involved in second line of defence d) all of these
12. Tissue damage caused by wound or invading pathogenic organisms induces a complex sequence of events
collectively known as…. a) opsonisation b) phagocytosis c) inflammation d) none of these
13. Temperature rising chemicals are called ….a) pyrogens b) thermogens c) both a and b d) none of these
14. The internal second line of defence involves all except…….
a) natural killer cells b) complement system c) interferons d) antibodies
15. Antiviral glycoproteins released by living cells in response to viral attack and induce a viral resistant state to
neighbouring cells is called as…. a) natural killer cells b) complement system c) interferons d) phagocytes
Answers 1. b) innate immunity 2. d) all of these 3. d) antibody production 4. d) all of these 5. d) all of these 6. c) both a and b 7. a) producing
lactic acid thereby reducing pH 8. d)all of these 9. d) all of these 10. d) liver 11. d) all of these 12. c) inflammation 13. a) pyrogens 14. d)
antibodies 15. c) interferons
Cytology Cell and Cell organelle

1. The term cell was coined by ……. a) Schwann b) Robert Hooke c) de Bary d) Tatum
2. Cell theory was proposed by

a) Beadle and Tatum b) Robert Hooke c) Schleiden and Schwann d) Leenuwenhoeck
3. The cell theory is not applicable to……… a) Bacteria b) algae c) Virus d) fungi
4. Semiautonomous organelle in the cell …. a) Peroxisomes b) Chloroplast c) Endoplasmic reticulam d) Golgibodies
5. The membrane around the vacuole is called.... a) cytoplast b) tonoplast c) amyloplast d) elaioplast
6. Identify the non membraneous organelle from the following
a) Ribosome b) Endoplasmic reticulam c) Nucleus d) Chloroplast

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7. Microfilaments are composed mainly of a protein called… a) actin b)tubulin c) myosin d) chitin
8. Experiments demonstrating the importance of the nucleus in controlling the growth of the cell was performed in
a) Starfish b) Acetabularia c) Neurospora d) Leucocytes
9. Which of the following is associated with the structure of Golgicomplex?
a) Cristae b) Cisternae c) Annuli d) Quatasomes
10. The subunit of prokaryotic ribosomes are
a) 60 S+40 S b) 70 S+30 S c) 60 S+30 S d) 50 S+30 S
11. Plant cell wall mainly composed of……. a) cellulose b) starch c) protein d) lipid
12. Smooth endoplasmic reticulum is the site of… ….a) protein synthesis b) carbohydrate synthesis c) amino acid
synthesis d) Lipid synthesis
13. In higher plants, the shape of the chloroplast is….. a) Discoid b) cup shaped c) girdle shaped d) ribbon shaped
14. The main function of Centrosome is…a) Secretion b) osmoregulation c) Protein synthesis d) Formation of spindle fibre
15. Assembly of two subunits 40 S and 60 S of the ribosome is…..a) 100 S unit b) 80 S unit c) 70 S unit d) 90 S unit
Answers: 1 b 2 c 3c 4b 5b 6a 7a 8b 9b 10d 11a 12d 13a 14d 15b
1. Oxysomes are ATP synthases present on

a) outer nuclear membrane facing cytoplasam b) outer mitochondrial membrane facing cytoplasm
c) inner mitochondrial membrane facing matrix d) inner mitochondrial membrane facing cytoplasm
2. Autophagy and heterophagy are processes associated with the function of

a) nucleus b) microbodies c) lysosome d) mitochondrion
3. Which of the following organelle is involved in lipid metabolism?

a) Golgi apparatus b) Peroxisomes c) SER d) RER
4. Arrange in correct order the function of each organelle……….
i.ribosomes ii. Chloroplast iii. Golgi apparatus iv. Mitochondrion
a) i. Protein synthesis ii. Organic molecule synthesis iii. Secretory centre iv. Beta oxidation
b) i. Protein synthesis ii. Beta oxidation iii. Secretory centre iv. Organic molecule synthesis
c) i. Protein synthesis ii. Secretory centre iii. Beta oxidation iv. Organic molecule synthesis
d) i. Protein synthesis ii. Secretory centre iii. Organic molecule synthesis iv. Beta oxidation
5. rRNA synthesis takes place in … a) nucleus b) mitochondrion c) nucleolus d) nucleoplasm

6. Which is the site of cellular respiration in prokaryotes? a) mitochondrion b) plasmids c) plasma membrane
d) cytosol
7. Which of the following organelles contain coding DNA

a) chloroplast and nucleus b) chloroplast, mitochondrion and nucleus c) chloroplast, mitochondrion, ribosomes
and nucleus d) chloroplast, mitochondrion, ribosomes, RER and nucleus

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8. The organelle that helps in penetration of sperm into egg during fertilization is
a) nucleus b) peroxisome c) mitochondrion d) lysosome
9. Glyoxysomes are organelles involved in
a) conversion of amino acids to prote b) conversion of fatty acids to carbohydrates

c) conversion of amino acids to carbohydrates d) conversion of fatty acids to lipids
10. H O clearance inside the cell is carried out by
a) glyoxysome with enzyme isocitrate lyase b) peroxisome with enzyme catalase

c) glyoxysome with enzyme catalase d) peroxisome with enzyme amino oxidase Learn more:
Answers 1. c) inner mitochondrial membrane facing matrix 2. c) lysosome 3. c) SER 4. i) 1. Protein synthesis ii. Organic molecule synthesis iii.
Secretory centre iv. Beta oxidation 5. c) nucleolus 6. c) plasma membrane 7. b) chloroplast, mitochondrion and nucleus 8. d) lysosome 9. b)
conversion of fatty acids to carbohydrates 10. b) peroxisome with enzyme catalase
Nucleus
1. Nuclei were first discovered by…..a) Strasburger b) Fonatana c) Robert Brown d) Robert Koch
2. Which of the is the central commanding centre of the cell …….a) nucleus b) mitchondria c) ER d) ribosomes
3. The Grafting experiment of Hammerling established the role of nucleus in heredity. The experimental material was
a) Chlorella b) Acetabularia c) Chara d) Scendesmus
4. Nucleus are absent in…

a) Red blood cells and bacterium b) Red blood cells, sieve cells and bacterium c) Red blood cells only
d) none of these
5. Which of the following statements is true regarding the size of nucleus?
a) The size of the nucleus is directly proportional to that of the cytoplasm
b) The size of the nucleus depends on the total cell volume
c) The size of the nucleus depends on the chromosome number or ploidy level of the cell d) all of these
6. Nucleus has….. a) DNA only b) DNA and protein only c) DNA, RNA and proteins d) none of these
7. Nuclear membrane is in continuous connection with…. a) SER b) RER c) Golgi apparatus d) lysosomes
8. The protein network that lines the inner side of nuclear membrane is called
a) Nucleolus b) nuclear matrix c) nuclear lamina d) nuclear proteins
9. The number of nuclear pores depends on the
a) Size of the cell b) transcriptional activity of the cell c) DNA content of the cell d) all of these
10. The most important function of nuclear envelope is to
a) Regulate nucleo-cytoplasmic traffic b) protect genetic material c) prevent the entrance of active ribosomes
into the nucleus d) synthesis rRNAs
11. The DNA protein ratio in chromatin is…….. a) 3:1 b) 2:1 c) 1:1 d) 4:1
12. Nucleolus is a prominent acidophilic spherical bodies in the nucleus. The function is
a) RNA synthesis b) DNA synthesis c) histone synthesis d) ribosomal subunit synthesis
13. The basic proteins of the nucleus are….. a) nucleohistones b) nucleoprotamines c) both a and b d) none of these

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14. The major amino acids in histones are
a) Gluatamate and aspartic acid.. a) lysine and arginine b) histidine c) arginine, lysine and histidine d) non of these
15. The light stained and diffused region of chromatin is known as
a) Heterochromatin b) Euchromatin c) chromatin d) none of these
Answers 1. c) Robert Brown 2. a) nucleus 3. b) Acetabularia 4. b) Red blood cells, sieve cells and bacterium 5. d) all of these 6. c) DNA, RNA
and proteins 7. b) RER 8. c) nuclear lamina 9. b) transcriptional activity of the cell 10. c) prevent the entrance of active ribosomes into the
nucleus 11. c) 1:1 12. d) ribosomal subunit synthesis 13. c) both a and b 14. c) arginine, lysine and histidine 15. b) Euchromatin
(Mitochondrion)
1. Which of the following is a semiautonomous organelle?
a) Mitochondrion b) chloroplast c) both a and b d) mitochondrion, chloroplast and ribosomes
2. Who coined the term mitochondria……. a) Kolliker b) Flemming c) Altman d) Benda
3. Myocardial muscle cells have numerous large mitochondria called as

a) myocardial mitochondrions b) mitosomes c) myosomes d) sarcosomes
4. The number of mitochondria in a cell depends on
a) pH of the cell b) shape of the cell c) both a and b d) functional state of the cell
5. Which of the following statements are true about mitochondria
a) Mitochondria has two envelopes b) Outer membrane has porin protein channels
b) Inner membrane is not permeable c) all of these
6. Cristae are………
a) The membraneous infolding’s of the outer membrane of mitochondria
b) the jelly like central matrix of mitochondria
c) The membraneous infolding’s of the inner membrane of mitochondria
d) enzymes located on the inner mitochondrial membrane
7. F0, F1 particles meant for ATP synthesis are present on

a) Outer mitochondrial membrane attached to the cytosolic or C face b) outer mitochondrial membrane attached
to the Matrix or M face c) inner mitochondrial membrane attached to the Matrix or M face
d) inner mitochondrial membrane attached to the cytosolic or C face
8. Which of the following stain is used to visualise mitochondrion
a) Janus green b) Acetocarmine c) Haematoxylin d) Orange G
9. Which of the following is the histochemical marker for mitochondrial inner membrane
a) Monoamine oxidase b) cytochrome oxidase c) malate dehydogenase d) adenylate kinase
10. Mitoplast are……….
a) Mitochondria without membranes b) mitochondria without outer membrane
c) mitochondria without inner membrane d) mitochondrial plastids

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Answers 1. c) both a and b 2. d) Benda 3. d) sarcosomes 4. d) functional state of the cell 5. c) all of these 6. c) The membraneous infolding’s of
the inner membrane of mitochondria 7. c) inner mitochondrial membrane attached to the Matrix or M face 8. a) Janus green 9. b) cytochrome
oxidase 10. b) mitochondria without outer membrane
Golgi apparatus
1. Which of the following organelle is called as the “traffic police” of the cell?
a) Lysosome b) SER c) Golgi apparatus d) RER
2. In 1873, Camillo Golgi discovered Golgi apparatus in Purkinje cells (nerve cells). Which is the stain that he used to
visualise Golgi apparatus? a) Janus green b) Silver stain c) Orange G d) Haematoxylin
3. Dictyosomes are…….. a) Golgi apparatus of plant cells b) Golgi apparatus of plant cells and lower invertebrates
c) Golgi apparatus of plant cells, lower invertebrates and animal cells d) Golgi apparatus like structure in prokaryotes
4. The simplest unit, the saucer like closed compartments of Golgi apparatus is called as
a) Tubules b) vescicles c) cristae d) cisternae
5. The region around Golgi apparatus where other organelles are absent is called as the
a) zone of inhibition b) zone of exclusion c) both a and b d) organelle inhibition zone

6. GERL region is the…….a) Golgi+RER+SER+lysosome+vescicles association involved in packaging and sorting of
cellular materials b) Golgi+RER+SER+lumen of cytoplasm association involved in packaging and sorting of cellular
materials c) Golgi+ER+lysosome association involved in packaging and sorting of cellular materials d) none of these
7. Histochemical localisation of Golgi is by staining with
a) Bismarck red b) Fast green c) Osmium tetroxide d) acetocarmine
8. Which of the following organelle is involved in cell plate formation…..
a) SER b) RER c) lysosme d) Golgi apparatus
9. The functions of Golgi apparatus include all except….
a) GA is the sorting centre of the cell b) GA is involved in post translational modification

c) GA is involved in secretory protein synthesis d) GA is involved in cell plate formation
10. Which of the following statements are true regarding golgi apparatus
a) GA has polarity b) cis-face is located close to either nucleus or transitional ER
c) transface is located near plasma membrane d) all of these
Answers 1. c) Golgi apparatus 2. b) Silver stain 3. b) golgi apparatus of plant cells and lower invertebrates 4. d) cisternae 5. b) zone of
exclusion 6. c) Golgi + ER + lysosome association involved in packaging and sorting of cellular materials 7. c) Osmium tetroxide 8. d) Golgi
apparatus 9. c) GA is involved in secretory protein synthesis 10. d) all of these
11. Which one of the following organelles is located near the nucleus and contains a collection of flattened membrane
bound cisternae? ….. a) Nucleus b) Centriole c) Mitochondrion d) Golgi apparatus
12. Golgi complex was first recognized in…… a) blood cell b) root cell c) nerve cell d) root cell
13. Besides giving out secretary vesicles, the Golgi apparatus is also concerned with the formation of
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a) Nucleus b) plastids c) nucleus d) Lysosomes

14. “Zone of exclusion” is associated with …….a) Nucleus b) Nucleolus c) Nucleoplasm d) Golgi complex
15. Golgi apparatus is absent in….. a) Higher plants b) yeast c) bacteria and blue green algae d) none
16. Acid phosphatase is the cyto-chemical marker for
a) Cisregion of GA b) trans region of GA c) GERL region d) median region of GA
17. After synthesis of secretory protein in RER, it moves through
a) RER>cis Golgi>median golgi>trans golgi> secretory vesicle
b) RER>trans Golgi>median golgi>cis golgi> secretory vescicel
c) RER> secretory vescicels >cis Golgi>median golgi>trans golgi> secretory vescicel d) all of these
18. Golgi apparatus is often seen associated with…… a) mitochondria b) RER c) lysosome d) none of these
19. Which of the following organelle is called as the ‘sorting centre’ of the cell
a) RER b) SER c) GA d) lysosome
20. Function of Golgi apparatus (GA) in animal cells include
a) Sorting and packaging b) exocytosis of melanin granules c) exocytosis of thyroxine hormone d) all of these
Answers 11. d) Golgi apparatus 12. c) nerve cell 13. d) Lysosomes 14. d) Golgi complex 15. c) bacteria and blue green algae 16. c) GERL
region 17. a) RER>cis Golgi>median golgi>trans golgi> secretory vesicle 18. b) RER 19. c) GA 20. d) all of these
Endoplasmic reticulum
1. Which of the following statements are incorrect regarding ER?

a) The adipose tissue has both SER and RER b) Plasma cells has RER only
c) RBC lacks both RER and SER d) Hepatocytes has both RER and SER
2. The term ‘endoplasmic reticulum’ was coined by….. a) Reinert b) Porter c) Pomaret d) Johnson
3. Which of the following organelles has a continuous connection with nuclear membrane….
a) Golgi apparatus b) Lysosome c) RER d) SER
4. In RER, ribosomes are located on…
a) The cytoplasmic side b) on the luminal side c) both a and b d) all through out
5. SER is involved in….
a) Phospholipid biosynthesis and detoxification reaction
b) Phospholipid biosynthesis and protein synthesis c) Protein synthesis d) Phospholipid biosynthesis

6. SER in the retinal cells are called as….
a) Sarcoplasmic reticulum b) Retinal reticulam c) Myeloid bodies d) Amyloid bodies
7. The functions of RER include……
a) Protein synthesis and detoxification b) Protein synthesis and post translational modification
c) Protein synthesis and phospholipid biosynthesis d) Protein synthesis only
8. Which of the following statements are true regarding endoplasmic reticulum…
a) ER provides structural framework to the cell b) ER acts as an intracellular transporting system

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c) SER is involved in synthesis of lipids d) All of these

9. The transport of secretory proteins takes place trough organelles in the order…
a) RER>SER>golgi> secretory vescicles b) SER>RER>golgi> secretory vescicles
c) RER>SER> secretory vescicles > golgi d) RER>golgi>SER> secretory vescicles
10. Rough Endoplasmic Reticulum is called ‘rough’ because….
a) Rough texture of the surface b) surface is studded with membrane proteins
c) surface is studded with ribosomes d) All of these
11. RER is involved in the synthesis of…..
a) Membrane proteins and secretory proteins b) Different proteins of the cell
c) Membrane proteins, secretory proteins and lysosomal proteins d) Membrane proteins and secretory proteins and
nuclear proteins
12. Which of the following organelle is involved in xenobiotic detoxification…..

a) Golgi b) Lysosome c) SER d) RER
13. Protein glycosylation occurs in the…..

a) Lumen of mitochondria b) lumen of rough endoplasmic reticulum c) lumen of smooth endoplasmic
reticulum d) lumen of lysosomes
14. Which of the following sequence functions as signals for Nlinked glycosylation
a) Asn-X-Ser and Asn-X-Thr b) Asn-X-Ser and Asn-X-Pro c) Asn-X-Thr and Asn-X-Gly d) Asn-X-Gly
15. Ribophorins are…
a) Transmembrane glycoprotein on RER b) transmembrane glycoprotein on SER
c) Luminal proteins on RER d) luminal proteins on SER
Answers 1. a) The adipose tissue has both SER and RER 2. b) Porter 3. c) RER 4. a) The cytoplasmic side 5. a) Phospholipid biosynthesis and
detoxification reaction 6. c) Myeloid bodies 7. b) Protein synthesis and post translational modification 8. d) All of these a) RER>SER>golgi>
secretory vescicles 10. c) Surface is studded with ribosomes 11. a) Membrane proteins and secretory proteins 12. c) SER 13. b) Lumen of
rough endoplasmic reticulum 14. a) AsnXSer and AsnXThr 15. a) Transmembrane glycoprotein on RER
Lysosomes
Lysosome (Gr., lyso=digestive +soma=body)

1. Which of the following organelle is called as the “perinuclear dense bodies”?
a) Lysosome b) nucleolus c) peroxisome d) all of these
2. Lysosomes are present in all except……….
a) muscle cells b) acinal cells c) erythrocytes d) hepatocytes
3. Which is the enzyme used as a marker for the lysosomes
a) Pyruvate dehydrogenase b) Phospholipase c) Acid phosphatase d) Succinate dehydrogenase
4. The pH of lysosome is…… a) neutral b) acidic c) basic d) depends on the cell type
5. The staining technique used to locate lysosome is…..
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a) Janus Green staining b) Bismarck stain c) Gamori stain d) Osmium tetroxide

6. Liposomal fractions are isolated by..
a) Electrophoresis b) ultra-centrifugation c) both a and b d) Sucrose density gradient centrifugation

7. The acidic pH of lysosome is due to
a) Deposition of waste materials b) presence of hydrolytic enzymes which has an acidic optimum pH
c) presence of anabolic enzymes which has an acidic optimum pH d) All of these
8. Which of the following organelle is called as the “suicidal bags of the cell”?
a) Lysosomes b) lysosomes and Golgi c) lysosomes and ER d) lysosomes and mitochondria

9. Which of the following is the function of lysosomes…..
a) Autophagy b) autolysis c) digestion d) all of these

10. During protein targeting, lysosomal proteins are tagged with…..
a) sialic acid b) KDEL sequence c) mannose 6phosphate d) glycolipids
11. Which of the following is not a diseases associated with lysosome malfunctioning…..
a) TaySachs disease b) Icell disease c) Pompe’s disease d) Marfan syndrome

12. Lysosomes are involved in …..
a) Extracellular digestion b) intracellular digestion c) both a and b d) none of these
13. Lysosomes involved in extracellular digestion are present in……
a) cardiac cells b) sperm c) zygote d) All of these
14. The acidic pH in the lysosome is maintained by….
a) GTP dependent proton pump in the lumen b) ATP dependent proton pump on the membrane
c) HCl in lysosome d) all of these
15. Lysosomal membrane is rich in…. a) cardiolipin b) sialic acid c) sterols d) all of these
Answers 1. a) lysosome 2. c) erythrocytes 3. c) Acid phosphatase 4. b) acidic 5. c) Gamori stain 6. d) Sucrose density gradient centrifugation
7. b) presence of hydrolytic enzymes which has an acidic optimum pH 8. a) lysosomes 9. d) all of these 10. c) mannose 6phosphate 11. d)
Marfan syndrome 12. c) both a and b 13. b) sperm 14. b) ATP dependent proton pump on the membrane 15. b) sialic acid
Cytoskeleton
1. Which of the following cells lacks cytoskeleton?
a) Eukaryotic plant cell b) prokaryotic bacterial cells c) both a and b d) Prokaryotic cells and eukaryotic animal cells
2. Cytoskeletons are chemically…..
a) Nucleoprotein filaments b) nucleoprotein filaments and lipids c) ribonucleoproteins filaments d) protein filaments
3. The existence of cytoskeleton was first postulated by...a) Strasburger b) Koltzoff c) Meischer d) Crick
4. The cytoskeleton consists of…a)macrofilaments b) microfilamemts c) intermediate filaments d) all of these

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5. Microtubules are made up of… a) flagellin b) desmin c) tubulin d) actin and myosin
6. Which of the following is a microtubule associated protein (MAPS)….
a) ‘tus’ protein b) ‘tau’ protein c) ‘rho’ protein d) G protein
7. The microtubule assembly is inhibited by.. a) Colchicine b) Vincristine c) Vinblastine d) All of these
8. Microfilaments are made up of… a) actin b) tubulin and actin c) desmin d) vimetin
9. Microfilaments are involved in….
a) cyclosis b) amoeboid movement c) furrow formation during cell division d) all of these
10. The intermediate filament present in nail and hair is a type I IF protein made of….
a) lamins b) vimetins c) keratins d) tubulins
11. Which of the following is a microfilament inhibitor…..
a) Aspirin b) Cinchonine c) colchicine d) cytochalasinB
12. Chromosome movement during cell division is regulated by…
a) Microtubules b) microfilaments c) intermediate filaments d) all of these
13. Which of the following statements are true…
a) Intermediate filaments are resistant to colchicine and cytochalasinB b) microtubules are made up of tubulins
c) microfilaments are made up of actin d) all of these
14. Cilia and flagella of Eukaryotic cells are made up of… a) keratin b) tubulin c) lamin d) desmin
15. Which of the following is the most heterogeneous type of cytoskeletal filament…
a) microtubules b) microfilaments c) intermediate filaments d) none of these
Answers 1. b) prokaryotic bacterial cells 2. d) protein filaments 3. b) Koltzoff 4. d) all of these 5. c) tubulin 6. b) ‘tau’ protein 7. d) All of these
8. a) actin 9. d) all of these 10. c) keratins 11. d) cytochalasinB 12. a) microtubules 13. d) All of these 14. b) tubulin 15. c) intermediate
filaments
Cilia and Flagella
Cilia and Flagella (L., cili=eye lash; Flagella=little whip)

1. Which of the following are functions of cilia and flagella?
a) Locomotion b) body’s defence c) excretion d) all of these
2. Which of the following are the features that differentiates cilia from flagella…
a) Cilia are short compared to flagella b) Flagella are less in number compared to cilia
c) Cilia are distributed throughout the cell surface d) all of these
3. Ciliary membrane is..a) Continuous with plasma membrane b) Continuous with cell wall c) Both a and b d) None of these
4. The basic microtubular structure of cilia and flagella is called.. a) radial spoke b) axoneme c) nexin d) dyenein
5. The immobile cytoplasmic ciliary extensions from the cell is called
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a) Kinocilia b) sterocilia c) motocilia d) none of these
6. In eukaryotic flagella, the arrangement of microtubules in axoneme is… a) 9+4 b) 9+3 c) 9+0 d) 9+2
7. The adjacent doublets in the outer ring are joined by a highly extensible protein called…
a) Radial spoke b) axoneme c) nexin d) dyenein
8. Bacterial flagella is made up of… a) dyenien b) tubulin c) flagellin d) vimetin

9. Eukaryotic flagella is made up of… a) dyenien b) tubulin c) flagellin d) vimetin
10. Bacterial flagella is… a) ATP driven b) proton driven c) both a and b d) none of these
11. Eukaryotic flagella is driven by… a) ATP b) proton c) both a and b d) none of these
12. Defects or absence in any one of the proteins in axoneme of cilia lead to….
a) immotile cilia syndrome b) motile cilia syndrome c) both a and b d) none of these
Answer 1. d) all of these 2. d) all of these 3. a) Continuous with plasma membrane 4. b) axoneme 5. b) sterocilia 6. d) 9+2 7. c) nexin 8. c)
flagellin 9. b) tubulin 10. b) proton driven 11. a) ATP 12. a) immotile cilia syndrome
Plastids
1. Which of the following is a double membrane bound organelle…
a) mitochondria b) chloroplast c) nucleus d) all of these

2. Plastids are absent in.. a) animals and plants b) fungi and animals c) animals, bacterium and fungi d) none of these
3. All are colourless plastids (leucoplasts) except…a) elaioplast b) amyloplast c) proteinoplast d) rhodoplast
4. Which of the following statements are incorrect regarding leucoplasts…
a) leucoplasts contain thylakoids and photosynthetic pigments b) Elaioplasts store lipids

c) proteinoplats store proteins d) amyloplasts store starch
5. The organelle responsible for life on this planet is…a) mitochondria b) chloroplast c) nucleus d) ribosomes
6. Which of the statements are true regarding chloroplast…
a) It is a double membrane bound organelle b) Chloroplasts are site of photosynthesis

c) Chloroplasts are responsible for the synthesis of carbohydrates d) all of these
7. Chloroplast is similar to mitochondria in having a…
a) Double layered membrane b) Circular DNA c) 70S ribosomes d) all of these

8. The site of light reaction is… a) grana b) stroma c) thylakoid lumen d) outer membrane
9. Photolysis or water splitting complex is present in.. a) Grana b) stroma c) thylakoid lumen d) outer membrane
10. Calvin cycle or dark reaction occurs in the…a) grana b) stroma c) thylakoid lumen d) outer membrane
11. Which of the following pigment is most abundant in green plants…
a) Chlorophyll a b) chlorophyll b c) carotene d) xanthophyll
12. Photosynthetic Pigments are located on the…

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a) Inner membrane b) thylakoid membrane c) thylakoid lumen d) outer membrane

13. Which of the following is an accessory pigment ...a) chl a b) chl b c) carotenoids d) none of these
14. Which of the following statements are incorrect regarding photosystems..
a) The reaction of PS I is P 700 and Chl a is predominant pigment b) The reaction centre of PS II is P680 and Chl b
is predominant pigment c) Both photosystems are located on the outer membrane
d) PSI is located on the thylakoid membrane
15. Which of the following statements are incorrect regarding light reaction
a) light reaction is called as Hill reaction b) light reaction takes place in the grana of the chloroplast
c) CO2 fixation to carbohydrate is the major event in light reaction d) ATP and NADPH are produced in light reaction
Answers 1. d) all of these 2. c) animals, bacterium and fungi 3. d) rhodoplast 4. a) leucoplasts contain thylakoids and photosynthetic pigments
5. b) chloroplast 6. d) all of these 7. d) all of these 8. a) grana 9. b) stroma 10. b) stroma 11. a) chlorophyll a 12. b) thylakoid membrane 13. c)
carotenoids 14. c) Both photosystems are located on the outer membrane 15. c) CO2 fixation to carbohydrate is the major event in light
Chloroplast
1. Which of the following is a double membrane bound organelle…..
a) Mitochondria b) chloroplast c) nucleus d) all of these
2. Plastids are absent in...a) Animals and plants b) fungi and animals c) animals, bacterium and fungi d) none of these
3. All are colourless plastids (leucoplasts) except.. a) elaioplast b) amyloplast c) proteinoplast d) rhodoplast
4. Which of the following statements are incorrect regarding leucoplasts..
a) Leucoplasts contain thylakoids and photosynthetic pigments b) Elaioplasts store lipids
c) proteinoplats store proteins d) amyloplasts store starch
5. The organelle responsible for life on this planet is.. a) mitochondria b) chloroplast c) nucleus d) ribosomes
6. Which of the statements are true regarding chloroplast….
a) It is a double membrane bound organelle b) Chloroplasts are site of photosynthesis
c) Chloroplasts are responsible for the synthesis of carbohydrates d) all of these
7. Chloroplast is similar to mitochondria in having a….

a) double layered membrane b) Circular DNA c) 70S ribosomes d) all of these
8. The site of light reaction is ..a) grana b) stroma c) thylakoid lumen d) outer membrane
9. Photolysis or water splitting complex is present in… a) grana b) stroma c) thylakoid lumen d) outer membrane
10. Calvin cycle or dark reaction occurs in the… a) grana b) stroma c) thylakoid lumen d) outer membrane
Answers 1. d) all of these 2. c) animals, bacterium and fungi 3. d) rhodoplast 4. a) leucoplasts contain thylakoids and photosynthetic pigments
5. b) chloroplast 6. d) all of these 7. d) all of these (Refer: Chloroplast vs Mitochondria) 8. a) grana 9. c) thylakoid lumen 10. b) stroma
Chloroplast

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11. The plastid responsible for photosynthesis is.. a) Leucoplast b) Chromoplast c) Chloroplast d) All of these
12. Which of the following pigment is most abundant in green plants …
a) Chlorophyll a b) chlorophyll b c) carotene d) xanthophyll
13. Photosynthetic Pigments are located on the…..
a) Inner membrane b) thylakoid membrane c) thylakoid lumen d) outer membrane
14. Which of the following is an accessory pigment.. a) chl a b) chl b c) carotenoids d) none of these
15. Which of the following statements are incorrect regarding photosystems…
a) The reaction of PS I is P 700 and Chl a is predominant pigment

b) The reaction centre of PS II is P680 and Chl b is predominant pigment
c) Both photosystems are located on the outer membrane d) PSI is located on the thylakoid membrane
16. Which of the following statements are incorrect regarding light reaction …
a) Light reaction is called as Hill reaction b) light reaction takes place in the grana of the chloroplast
c) CO2 fixation to carbohydrate is the major event in light reaction
d) ATP and NADPH are produced in light reaction1
17. All plastids have similar structure because they can
a) Store starch, lipids and proteins b) gets transformed from one type to another
c) be present together d) perform some function
18. All types of plastids possess essentially the same structure because they….
a) perform the same function b) occur in aerial parts
c) store food materials like starch, fats and protein d) can transform from one form to another
19. Chlorophyll in Chloroplast is located in.. a) grana b) stroma c) thylakoids d) both grana and stroma
20. Chlorophyll consists of..a) 75% chlorophyll a and 25% chlorophyll b b) 75% chlorophyll b and 25% chlorophyll a
c) 60% chlorophyll a and 40% chlorophyll b d) 100% chlorophyll a
Answers 11. c) Chloroplast 12. a) chlorophyll a 13. b) thylakoid membrane 14. c) carotenoids 15. c) Both photosystems are located on the outer
membrane 16. c) CO2 fixation to carbohydrate is the major event in light reaction 17. b) gets transformed from one type to another 18. d) can
transform from one form to another 19. c) thylakoids 20. a) 75% chlorophyll a and 25% chlorophyll b
Cell wall
1. Which of the following groups has cell wall......a) Bacteria, plant and animals b) Bacteria, fungi and plants
c) Bacteria, fungi, plants and animals d) Bacteria and plants only
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2. Bacterial cell wall is made up of….a) Nacetyl glucosamine b) Nacetyl muramic acid c) Both a and b
d) Nacetyl glucosamine, Nacetyl muramic acid and amino acids
3. Which of the following statements are not true regarding cell wall….
a) Plant cell wall is made up of cellulose b) Plant cell wall is a nonliving structure
c) Cell wall provides mechanical support to the cell d) Cell was is semipermeable
4. Plant cell wall is made up of…….. a) Cellulose, hemicelluloses and pectin b) Cellulose and chitin
c) Cellulose, hemicelluloses and chitin d) Cellulose only
5. Chitinous cell wall is present in… a) Plants b) Bacteria c) Protists d) Fungi
6. Pectin is stained using…. a) Sudan III b) acetocrmine c) Ruthenium red d) Iodine
7. Cellulose is a polymer of Dglucose units joined by.. a) α 14 linkage b) α 16 linkage c) β 14 linkage d) β 16 linkage
8. Chlorzinc Iodide is used to stain…. a) Cellulose b) Hemicellulose c) Pectin d) Lignin
9. Middle lamella is made up of pectin. Pectin is chemically….. a) Nacetyl glucosamine and Nacetyl muramic acid
b) Heteropolymer of xylose, mannose and arabinose c) Glucoronic and galacturonic acid d) Polymer of D-glucose units
10. Which of the following is a aromatic polymer of phenols…. a) Pectin b) Chitin c) Lignin d) Cutin
11. Fine cytoplasmic connections between neighbouring cells through the cell wall for cell to cell communication is
called…… a) Plasmosome b) Plasmodesmata c) Mesosome d) All of these
12. Which of the following organelle is involved in cell wall synthesis…

a) Mitochondria b) Chloroplast c) Golgi apparatus d) lysosome
13. Which of the following statements are true regarding cellulose synthesis
a) Cellulose is synthesized on the external surface of the cell b) The enzyme involved is a plasma membrane
bound complex called cellulose synthetase c) UDP glucose is the precursor of cellulose d) All of these
14. Secondary cell wall of plants is… a) Located outside the primary wall b) Located inside the plasma membrane
c) Located inside the primary wall d) Located just beneath middle lamellae
15. Which of the statements are incorrect regarding plant cell wall
a) Primary and secondary walls are present in meristamatic cells

b) Secondary cell wall consists of three concentric layers (S1, S2 and S3) one after the other
c) In certain plants, tertiary cell wall is also present which has xylan beside cellulose
d) Middle lamella is made up of pectin and lignin
Answers: 1. b) Bacteria, fungi and plants 2. d) Nacetyl glucosamine, Nacetyl muramic acid and amino acids 3. d) Cell was is semipermeable 4.
a) Cellulose, hemicelluloses and pectin 5. d) Fungi 6. c) Ruthenium red 7. c) β 14 linkage 8. a) Cellulose 9. c) Glucoronic and galacturonic acid
10. c) Lignin 11. b) Plasmodesmata 12. c) Golgi apparatus 13. d) All of these 14. c) Located inside the primary wall 15. a) Primary and
secondary walls are present in meristamatic cells
Cell Division Mitosis

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1. During mitosis, ER and nucleolus begin to disappear at…..

a) Late prophase b) Early prophase c) late metaphase d) early metaphase
2. Mitosis is similar to… a) Meiosis I b) Meiosis II c) Both a and b d) None of these
3. Which of the following represents the best stage to view the shape, size and number of chromosomes..
a) Interphase b) Prophase c) Metaphase d) Telophase
4. During metaphase mitosis chromosomes
a) undergo coiling b) line up at the equator c) undergo coiling d) break and disintegrate
5. Number of chromatids at metaphase is
a) two each in mitosis and meiosis b) Two in mitosis and one in meiosis
c) Two in mitosis and four inn meiosis d) One in mitosis and two in meiosis
6. During cell division in apical meristem, the nuclear membrane appears in
a) Metaphase b) Telophase c) Anaphase d) Cytokinesis
7. Mitotic anaphase differs from metaphase in possessing…..
a) Same number of chromosomes and same number of chromatids

b) Half number of chromosomes and half number of chromatids
c) Half number of chromosomes and same number of chromatids
d) Same number of chromosome and half number of chromatids
8. How many mitotic divisions are needed for a single cell to make 128 cells? a) 7 b) 14 c) 28 d) 32
9. Which aspect of mitosis is affected by colchicine in inducing polyploidy?
a) DNA replication b) Spindle formation c) Formation of cell plate d) Chromosome doubling

10. If you are provided with root tips of onion in your class and are asked to count the chromosomes, which of the
following stages can you most conveniently look into?
a) Prophase b) Metaphase c) Anaphase d) Telophase Answers 1. b) Early prophase 2. b) Meiosis II 3. c) Metaphase 4. b)
line up at the equator 5. a) two each in mitosis and meiosis 6. b) Telophase 7. d) Same number of chromosome and half number of chromatids
8. a) 7 Explanation: Each cell produces 2 daughter cells, therefore after 7 divisions one cell will give 128 cells. 1 (I) –>2 (II) –> 4 (III) –> 8
(IV) –> 16 (V) –> 32(VI) –> 64 (VII) –> 128 9. b) Spindle formation 10. b) Metaphase
Meiosis
1. Which statements best explains the evolutionary advantage of meiosis?
a) Meiosis is necessary for sexual reproduction

b) Meiosis alternates with mitosis from generation to generation
c) The same genetic system is passed on from generation to generation
d) Genetic recombination are possible from generation to generation

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2. Meiotic division occurs in….a) vegetative cells b) meristematic cells c) conductive cells d) reproductive cells
3. Meiosis I is reductional division. Meiosis II is equational division due to…
a) Crossing over b) Separation of chromatids c) Pairing of homologous chromosomes d) Disjunction of homologous

chromosomes
4. Meiosis II performs….a) Separation of sex chromosomes b) Synthesis of DNA and centromere
c) Separation of homologous chromosomes d) Separation of chromatids
5. Segregation of Mendelian factor (Aa) occurs during..
a) Diplotene b) Zygotene/ Pachytene c) Anaphase I d) Anaphase II
6. Synapsis occurs between… a) mRNA and ribosomes b) Spindle fibres and cetromere
c) a male and a female gamete d) Two homologous chromosomes
7. In Meiosis, the daughter cells differ from parent cell as well as amongst themselves due to….
a) Segregation, independent assortment and crossing over b) Segregation and crossing over
c) Independent assortment and crossing over d) Segregation and independent assortment
8. During which stage of prophase I of the crossing over takes place?
a) Leptotene b) Pachytene c) Zygotene d) Diplotene
9. Continuous variations are attributed to..a) Polyploidy b) Mutation c) Crossing over d) Chromosomal aberrations
10. When parental and maternal chromosomes change their materials with each other in cell division this event called
a) synapsis b) Crossing over c) Dyad forming d) Bivalent forming
Answers 1. d) Genetic recombination are possible from generation to generation 2. d) reproductive cells 3. b) Separation of chromatids 4. d)
Separation of chromatids 5. c) Anaphase I 6. d) Two homologous chromosomes 7. a) Segregation, independent assortment and crossing over 8.
b) Pachytene 9. c) Crossing over 10. b) Crossing over
Genetics Model Organisms

1. Hammerling’s experimental material to prove nucleus as the physical basis of heredity was…
a) Neurospora b) Amoeba c) Acetabularia d) Drosophila
2. Mendel’s experimental material was…a) Pisum sativum b) Oryza sativa c) Vigna sinensis
d) Arabidopsis thaliana
3. Which of the following is called as “Drosophila of the plant kingdom”

a) Neurospora b) E.coli c) Pisum sativum d) Arabidopsis thaliana
4. The organism used to study DNA replication…
a) Neurospora crassa b) Drosophila melanogaster c) Escherichia coli d) Bacillus sublitis

5. Griffith’s transformation experiment was carried out using….
a) Escherichia coli b) Bacillus sublitis c) Diplococcus pneumoniae d) Salmonella typhimurium
6. Incomplete dominance was first described in..
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a) Mirabilis jalapa b) Arabidopsis thaliana c) Pisum sativum d) Triticum aestivum

7. Mutation was discovered by Hugo de vries in….
a) Pisum sativum b) Triticum secale c) Oenothera lamarckiana d) Mirabilis jalapa
8. The model organism widely used for developmental and toxicological studies…
a) Neurospora crassa b) Drosophila melanogaster c) Danio rerio d) Bacillus sublitis
9. Temin and Baltimore discovered reverse transcriptase in…
a) Retro virus b) T2 phages c) Roux’s sarcoma virus d) herpes virus
10. The concept of pure line put forward by Johannsen was based on his experiments on…
a) Pisum sativum b) Phaseolus vulgaris c) Vigna sinensis d) Arabidopsis thaliana
11. The mitotic crossing over was reported in the fungus….
a) Aspergillus niger b) Penicillium notatum c) Aspergillus nidulans d) Sacharomyces cerviseae
12. Tetrad analysis confirmed the occurrence of crossing over during tetrad stage. This was first reported in….
a) Neurospora b) E.coli c) Pisum sativum d) Arabidopsis thaliana

13. Creighton and McClintock provided cytological evidence for crossing over based on experiments in…
a) Maize b) rice c) pea d) Arabidopsis
14. Sex determination in plants was extensively investigated in……
a) Pisum sativum b) Phaseolus vulgaris c) Melandrium d) Arabidopsis thaliana
15. The most widely used model for studying developmental biology and neurology
a) Escherichia coli b) Saccharomyces cervisae c) Caenorhabditis elegans d) Neurospora crassa
Answers: 1c 2a 3d 4c 5c 6a 7c 8c 9c 10b 11c 12a 13a 14c 15c
Human Genetic Disorders

1. Down’s syndrome is characterised by…
a) 19 trisomy b) 21 trisomy c) only one X chromosome d) two X and one Y chromosome
2. Which of the following is known as Royal disease?
a) Sickle cell anaemia b) Haemophilia c) Alzheimer’s disease d) Colour blindness
3. Patau’s syndrome occurs due to…..a) trisomy of 13 chromosome b) trisomy of 18 chromosome
c) trisomy of 21 chromosome d) trisomy of 22 chromosome
4. The most important example of point mutation is found in a disease called?
a) Thalassemia b) Night blindness c) Sickle cell anaemia d) Down’s syndrome
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5. The syndrome in which individual somatic cell contains three sex chromosome XXX is called
a) Down’s syndrome b) Super female c) Turner’s syndrome d) Klinefelter’s syndrome

6. Identify a Mendelian disorder from the following…..
a) Down’s syndrome b) Klinefelter’s syndrome c) Turner’s syndrome d) Phenylketonuria
7. A man has enlarged breasts, spare hair on body and sex complement as XXY. He suffers from
a) Down’s syndrome b) Klinefelter’s syndrome c) Turner’s syndrome d) Edward’s syndrome
8. In a family, father is having a disease and mother is normal. The disease is inherited to only daughters and not to the
sons. What type of disease is this?
a) Sex linked dominant b) Sex linked recessive c) Autosomal dominant d) Autosomal recessive
9. In man, which of the following genotypes and phenotypes may be the correct result of aneuploidy in sex
chromosomes? a) 22 pairs + Y females b) 22 pairs + XX females c) 22 pairs + XXY males d) 22 pairs + XXXY females
10. A woman with one gene for haemophilia and one gene for color blindness on one of the X chromosomes marries a
normal man. How will the progeny be?
a) Haemophilic and colour blind daughters

b) All sons and daughters are haemophilic and colour blind
c) 50% haemophilic and colour blind sons and 50% normal sons
d) 50% haemophilic colour blind sons and 50% colour blind daughters
Answers: 1. b) 21 trisomy 2. b) Haemophilia 3. a) trisomy of 13 chromosome 4. c) Sickle cell anaemia 5. b) Super female 6. d) Phenylketonuria
7. b) Klinefelter’s syndrome 8. a) Sex linked dominant 9. c) 22 pairs + XXY males 10. c) 50% haemophilic and colour blind sons and 50%
normal sons
Linkage and Crossing over

1. Who coined the term linkage? a) Correns b) Mendel c) Morgan d) de Vries
2. Mendel did not observe linkage due to .a) Mutation b) Synapasis c) Crossing over d) Independent assortment
3. The phenomenon of linkage was first observed in the plant ..
a) Lathyrus odoratus b) Pisum sativum c) Datura d) Mirabilus jalapa
4. How many linkage groups of chromosomes will be present in case of maize, if all its genes are mapped?
a) 5 b) 10 c) 15 d)100
5. Crossing over occurs during…. a) Pachytene b) diplotene c) diakinesis d) pachytene

6. Crossing over is more frequent in……….a) males b) females c) both d) None of these
7. Crossing over in diploid organism is responsible for….
a) dominance of genes b) Segregation of alleles c) Recombination of linked genes d) Linkage between genes
8. Complete linkage has been reported in.. a) Maize b) Human female c) Male Drosophila d) Female Drosophila
9. Coupling and repulsion phenomenon was concerned with..a) Crossing over b) Mutation c) Linkage d) All of these
10. Linkage prevents..a) Homozygous condition b) Segregation of alleles c) Hybrid formation d) Heterozygous

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condition ……Answers 1. c) Morgan 2. d) Independent assortment 3. a) Lathyrus odoratus 4. b) 10 5. a) Pachytene 6. b) females 7. c)

Recombination of linked genes 8. c) Male Drosophila 9. c) Linkage 10. b) Segregation of alleles
Gene Therapy
1. Gene therapy in humans was first practised by Blease and Andresco to cure….
a) Cystic fibrosis b) Hemophilia c) Thalassemia d) Severe combined immunodeficiency disease

2. Gene therapy is…… a) method aim to cure genetic disorders
b) method to provide correct version of the defective gene
c) method to replace a defective gene with a healthy gene d) all of the above
3. If the remedial gene does the function of defective gene. The approach is called as…
a) Gene replacement therapy b) gene augmentation therapy c) both a and b d) Corrective gene therapy
4. The introduction of remedial gene to bone marrow cells comes under…..
a) Germ line therapy b) somatic cell therapy c) both a and b d) Corrective gene therapy
5. The possibility of introducing correct version of the defective gene in all cells of the individual is achieved by…….
a) germ line therapy b) somatic cell therapy c) gene augmentation therapy d) Corrective gene therapy
6. Introduction of healthy gene into cells, tissues or organs cultured in vitro and re-implanting back to the patient is
referred as…
a) germ line therapy b) somatic cell therapy c) ex vivo therapy d) in vivo therapy
7. Somatic cell therapy include… a) ex vivo therapy b) in vivo therapy c) antisense therapy d) all of these
8. Embryo therapy was devised by Handyside et al to cure…
a) Cystic fibrosis b) Hemophilia c) Thalassemia d) Severe combined immunodeficiency disease
9. Introduction of healthy gene at specific sites to displace the defective gene is referred as….
a) germ line therapy b) somatic cell therapy c) both a and b d) Corrective gene therapy
10. The common gene delivery system for In vivo gene therapy is…
a) micro injection b) lipofecction c) Adeno viral vectors d) electroporation
11. The method of treating genetic diseases by introducing a remedial gene that prevents the expression of a specific
defective gene is…a) ex vivo therapy b) in vivo therapy c) antisense therapy d) all of these
12. Ex vivo therapy includes….a) bone marrow transplantation b) liver transplantation

c) kidney transplantation d) all of these
13. Which of the method is useful especially in the treatment of cancer …
a) ex-vivo therapy b) in vivo therapy c) antisense therapy d) all of these
14. Which of the statement is false regarding gene augmentation therapy….a) suitable for single gene disorders
b) random insertion of healthy gene c) suitable for multi gene disorders also d) no recombination event is required
15. Which of the following is most controversial approach in gene therapy…
a) Germ line therapy b) somatic therapy c) ex vivo therapy d) anti-sense therapy

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Answers 1. d) Severe combined immunodeficiency disease 2. d) all of the above 3. c) both a and b 4. b) somatic cell therapy 5. a) germ line
therapy 6. c) ex vivo therapy 7. d) all of these 8. a) Cystic fibrosis 9. d) Corrective gene therapy 10. c) Adeno viral vectors 11.c) antisense
therapy 12. d) all of these 13. c) antisense therapy 14. c) suitable for multi gene disorders also 15. a) germ line therapy
AIDS
1. AIDS (Acquired Immuno Deficiency Syndrome) Day is..a) May 1 b) December 1 c) December 20 d) June 1
2. AIDS was first reported in….a) Russia b) France c) Germany d) U.S.A
3. AIDS can be transmitted by… a) Blood transfusion b) Courtship c) Handshake d) all of the above
4. AIDS is caused by… a) Blood cancer b) Human T-cell leukaemia virus c) Bacterium d) TMV
5. AZT ( 3’azido 2’, 3’ dideoxy thymine) is used in the treatment of….
a) malaria b) AIDS c) Malaria d) Kalaazar
6. HIV virus has a protein coat and a genetic material which is…
a) Double stranded DNA b) Single stranded RNA c) Double stranded RNA d) Single stranded DNA
7. Which of the following could be called immune disorder?
a) AIDS and cholera b) SCID and AIDS c) AIDS and cholera d) Hepatitis and leukaemia
8. The confirmatory test used to diagnose AIDS is.. a) ELISA b) Western blot c) ESR d) PCR
9. AIDS testing on normal individuals is done by…. a) Separation by virus b) Reduction in immunity of the
individuals c) Identification of antibodies d) Identification of antigentoxin
10. AIDS is…. a) Endemic b) Epidemic c) Pandemic d) Sporadic
11. HIV belongs to which of the following families of virus? a) Reovirus b) Lentivirus c) Togavirus d) Adenovirus
12. Development of vaccine is difficult for AIDS because envelop gene
a) Undergoes mutation at rapid rate b) undergoes reverse transcription c) integrates into large number of host genes
d) integrates its genome into that of helper T cells
13. The causative agent for AIDS was first of all identified in 1984 and was named as..
a) HIV1 b) HIV2 c) LAV d) HTLV III
14. AIDS spread due to.. a) Homosexuality b) immoral way of life c) infected needles and syringes d) all of the above
15. The virus that causes acquired immune deficiency syndrome (AIDS) parasitizes..
a) B cells b) cytoxic Tcells c) Helper T cells d) The membrane of lymph nodes
Answers: 1 b 2 d 3a 4b 5b 6b 7b 8b 9c 10c 11b 12a 13a 14d 15c
Cancer
1. Cancer cells are….a) BHK b) Veo c) HL8 d) Hela cells
2. Cancer is caused by…. a) uncontrolled mitosis b) uncontrolled meiosis c) rupturing of cells d) loss of immunity of the cells
3. Cancer cells can easily be destroyed by radiations due to…
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a) Fast mutation b) rapid cell division c) lack of mutation d) lack of oxygen
4. Oncogenes are the cancer causing genes in the cells but they do not express usually. This is because of the presence
of…. a) proto oncogenes b) tumour promoters c) tumour suppressor genes d) transposons or jumping genes
5. Cancer of β lymphocytes is called….. a) Sarcoma b) Melanoma c) myeloma d) carcinoma
6.The basic difference between a cancer cell and a normal cell is
a) cancer cells divide continuously but normal cells do not divide b) normal cell is bigger than cancer cells
c) normal cells are immortal but cancer cells are mortal d) cancer cells divide do not differentiate like normal cells
7. Diethylstibetorol (DES) is a carcinogen. Which organ of the body does it effect?
a) Vagina b) heart c) lung d) kidney
8. Reason of lung cancer is.. a) coal mining b) cement factory c) calcium fluoride d) bauxite mining
9. Blastoma is a cancer involving which tissue…. a) bones b) connective tissue c) epithelial cells d) embryonic tissue
10. Which on of the following is used in treatment of thyroid cancer? a) U238 b) I131 c) C14 d) rA240
11. Migration of cancerous cells from the site of origin to other part of the body forming secondary tumours is called
a) diapedesis b) metastasis c) proliferation d) none of these
12. A patient is suspicious of having breast cancer. What type of test will a physician conduct to diagnose the cancer
a) blood test b) pap test c) CT scan d) mammography?
13. Which one of the following genes is involved in the conversion of protooncogenes into oncogenes causing cancer?
a) Metastasis genes b) angiogenesis genes c) transposons d) tumour suppressor genes
14. Which one of the following therapies will involve only the cancerous cells not the normal cells in treatment
a) immunotherapy b) surgery c) aromatherapy d) chemotherapy?
15. Which one of the following cancers does not form a solid neoplasm…
a) Leukemia b) lymphoma c) lipoma d) sarcoma
Answers: 1d 2a 3b 4c 5c 6d 7a 8a 9d 10b 11b 12d 13d 14a 15a
DNA Replication
1. Which of the following enzymes are used to join bits of DNA?
a) DNA ligase b) DNA polymerase c) primase d) Endonuclease
2. Semi conservative replication of DNA was first demonstrated in ….
a) Escherichia coli b) Streptococcus pneumonae c) Salmonella typhimuriam d) Drosophila melanogaster

3. Mode of DNA replication in E.coli is… a) Conservative and unidirectional b) Semiconservative and unidirectional
c) Conservative and bidirectional d) Semiconservative and bidirectional
4. When DNA replication starts,…. a) The phosphodiester bonds between the adjacent nucleotides break
b) The bonds between the nitrogen base and deoxyribose sugar break
c) The leading strand produces Okazaki fragments

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d) The hydrogen bonds between the nucleotides of two strand break
5. During the replication of DNA, the synthesis of DNA on lagging strand takes place in segments, these segments are
called….a) Satellite segments b) Double helix segments c) Kornbeg segments d) Okazaki segments
6. The elongation of the leading strand during DNA synthesis
a) Progresses away from the replication fork b) Occur in 3’5’ direction
c) Produces Okazaki fragment d) Depend on the action of DNA polymerase
7. Eukaryotes differ from prokaryote in mechanism of DNA replication due to:
a) Different enzyme for synthesis of lagging and leading strand b) Use of DNA primer rather than RNA primer
c) Unidirectional rather than bidirectional replication d) Discontinuous rather than semidiscontinuous replication
8. True replication of DNA is possible due to….
a) Hydrogen bonding b) Phosphate backbone c) Complementary base pairing rule d) None of the above
9. Unwinding of DNA is done by…. a) Helicase b) ligase c) Hexonuclease d) Topoisomerase
10. DNA synthesis can be specifically measured by estimating the incorporation of radio labelled
a) Uracil b) thymine c) Adenine d) Deoxyribose sugar
Answers 1. DNA ligase 2. a) Escherichia coli 3. d) Semiconservative and bidirectional 4. d) The hydrogen bonds between the nucleotides of
two strand break 5. d) Okazaki segments 6. d) Depend on the action of DNA polymerase 7. d) Discontinuous rather than semidiscontinuous
replication 8. c) Complementary base pairing rule 9. a) Helicase 10. b) thymine
Transcription
1. The process involved in the RNA formation on the DNA template is….
a) Transcription b) Translation c) Replication d) Transformation
2. The enzyme required for transcription is- a) Restriction enzymes b) DNA polymerase c) RNA polymerase d) RNAase
3. Transcription is the transfer of genetic information from
a) DNA to RNA b) tRNA to mRNA c) DNA to mRNA d) mRNA to tRNA
4. RNA required for the protein synthesis…..a) mRNA b) tRNA c) rRNA d) All of these
5. A promoter site on DNA a) Initiates transcription b) Regulates termination c) Codes for RNA d) Transcribes repressor
6. Sigma factor is component of…. a) DNA ligase b) DNA polymerase c) RNA polymerase d) endonuclease
7. What is the main function of tRNA in relation to protein synthesis?
a) Inhibits protein synthesis b) Proof reading c) Identifies amino acids and transport them to ribosomes d) all of these
8. RNA polymerase (Ochoa 1953) has polypeptide chains ….a) 2 b) 3 c) 4 d) 5
9. Which site of tRNA molecule hydrogen bonds to a mRNA molecule?

a) Codon b) Anticodon c) 5’ends of the tRNA molecule d) 3’ends of the tRNA molecule

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10. The DNA chain acting as template for RNA synthesis has the following order of bases, AGCTTCGA. What will be
the order of bases in mRNA?
a) TCGAAGCT b) UGCUAGCT c) TCGAUCGU d) UCGAAGCU
Answers 1. a) Transcription 2. c) RNA polymerase 3. c) DNA to mRNA 4. d) All of these 5. a) Initiates transcription 6. c) RNA polymerase 7.
c) Identifies amino acids and transport them to ribosomes 8. d) 5 9. b) Anticodon 10. d) UCGAAGCU
Genetic code
1. Genetic code is ….a) the sequence of nitrogenous bases in mRNA molecule that codes for a protein
b) is a triplet code c) is non-overlapping d) all of these
2. Translation is the ……a) synthesis of DNA from a mRNA template

b) Synthesis of protein from a mRNA template
c) synthesis of RNA from a mRNA template d) synthesis of RNA from a DNA template
3. Translation occurs in the…. a) nucleus b) cytoplasm c) nucleolus d) lysosome
4. During translation, proteins are synthesized;;

a) by ribosomes using the information on DNA b) by lysosome using the information on DNA
c) by ribosomes using the information on mRNA d) by ribosomes using the information on rRNA
5. The enzyme involved in amino acid activation is….. a) ATP synthetase b) aminoacyl tRNA synthetase
c) aminoacyl mRNA synthetase d) aminoacyl rRNA synthetase
6. Which of the following RNA molecules serves as an adaptor molecule during protein synthesis
a) rRNA b) mRNA c) tRNA d) tRNA and mRNA
7. In Prokaryotes, the first amino acid in the polypeptide chain is
a) methionine b) N-methyl methionine c) N-formyl methionine d) All of these
8. In Prokaryotes, the ribosomal binding site on mRNA is called…
a) Hogness sequence b) ShineDalgarno sequence c) Pribnow sequence d) TATA box
9. During translation, the role of enzyme peptidyl transferase is
a) transfer of phosphate group b) amino acid activation c) peptide bond formation between adjacent amino acids
d) binding of ribosome subunits to mRNA
10. Polysomes are,,,, a) aggregation of ribosomes b) aggregation of lysosomes
c) mRNA molecules to which many ribosomes are attached simultaneously d) all of these
11. Which is the energy rich molecule required for initiation of translation …
a) ATP b) GTP c) CTP d) AMP
12. eRF1 is the release factor in eukaryotes that requires…..

a) ATP for its binding to ribosome b) GTP for its binding to ribosome
c) ATP and GTP for its binding to ribosome d) Mn2+for its binding to ribosome

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13. In eukaryotes, translation is initiated by binding of ribosome to the ……

a) Pribnows box b) Hogness box c) 5’cap d) poly A tail
14. hsp 60 and 70 are proteins involved in……
a) initiation of translation b) elongation of translation c) termination of translation d) protein folding
15. Tetracycline blocks protein synthesis by…..
a) inhibiting binding of aminoacyl tRNA to ribosome b) inhibiting initiation of translation
c) inhibiting peptidyl transferase d) inhibiting translocase enzyme
Answers 1. b) is a triplet code 2. b) synthesis of protein from a mRNA template 3. b) cytoplasm 4. c) by ribosomes using the information on
mRNA 5. b) aminoacyl tRNA synthetase 6. c) tRNA 7. c) Nformyl methionine 8. b) ShineDalgarno sequence 9. c) peptide bond formation
between adjacent amino acids 10. c) mRNA molecules to which many ribosomes are attached simultaneously 11. b) GTP 12. b) GTP for its
binding to ribosome 13. c) 5’cap 14. d) protein folding 15. a) inhibiting binding of aminoacyl tRNA to ribosome
DNA Repair
1. Which of the following biomolecule has selfrepair mechanisms?

a) DNA,RNA and protein b) DNA and RNA c) DNA only d) DNA and proteins
2. Which of the following chemicals induce depurination…
a) methyl ethane sulphonate (MES) b) nitrosoguanidine c) ethyl ethane sulphonate (EES) d) all of these
3. Which of the following mechanism of DNA polymerase helps in preventing error during DNA replication…..
a) Rechecking b) proof checking c) proof reading d) all of these
4. The proteins involved in mismatch repair are ….a) Mut S b) Mut H c) Mut L d) all of these
5. Which of the following dimer formation is most common……

a) thymidine dimer b) cytidine dimer c) both a and b d) none of these
6. Dimer repair mechanism include.. a) excision repair b) photoreactivation c) recombinational repair d) all of these
7. Thymine dimers are often corrected by light induced repair mechanism. The enzyme involved in the process is
a) photolyase b) photoligase c) DNA glycosylase d) All of these
8. Which of the following is dark repair …
a) nucleotide excision repair (NER) b) base excision repair (BER) c) both a and b d) none of these
9. DNA glycosylase is an enzyme involved in base excision repair. The function is………..a) addition of correct base
b) addition of correct nucleotide c) removal of incorrect base d) removal of phosphodiester bond
10. Recombinational repair is often due to…a) incorporation of many incorrect nucleotides by DNA polymerase
b) many cytidine dimer and associated large gaps in a strand
c) many thymidine dimer formation and associated large gaps in a strand d) all of these
11. Which is the DNA polymerase involved in BER….. a) DNA polymerase α ……b) DNA polymerase β
c) DNA polymerase σ d) DNA polymerase £
12. Which of the following is a bypass repair system…a) BER b) NER c) SOS d) Recombinational repair
13. DNA repair mechanism is absent in…… a) nuclear genome b) mitochondrial genome c) chloroplast genome
d) both b and c
14. umu C, umu D gene family and Rec A proteins are involved in………
a) BER b) NER c) SOS repair d) Recombinational repair
15. The distortion in DNA helix due to pyrimidine dimer formation is called as….

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a) nick b) single stranded breaks c) kink d) none of these

Answers 1. c) DNA only 2. d) all of these 3. c) proof reading 4. d) all of these 5. a) thymidine dimer 6. d) all of these 7. a) photolyase 8. c) both
a and b 9. c) removal of incorrect base 10. c) many thymidine dimer formation and associated large gaps in a strand 11. b) DNA polymerase β
12. c) SOS 13. d) both b and c 14. c) SOS repair 15. c) kink
Microbiology Scientists
1. Who is regarded as the father of microbiology……

a) Leeuwenhook b) Robert Hook c) Louis Pateur d) Robert Koch
2. Who is regarded as the father of bacteriology... a) Leeuwenhook b) Robert Hook c) Louis Pateur d) Robert Koch
3. Who is regarded as the father of medical microbiology
a) Leeuwenhook b) Robert Hook c) Louis Pateur d) Robert Koch
4. The term virus was coined by…. a) Twort b) Iwanowsky c) Roux d) Meyer
5. The term bacteriophage was coined by… a) Twort b) Iwanowsky c) Roux d) Herelle
6. Germ theory of disease was postulated by…. a) Edward Jenner b) Robert Hook c) Louis Pateur d) Robert Koch
7. Virus was first discovered by…… a) Twort b) Iwanowsky c) Roux d) Herelle ...
8. Bacteriophages were studied in detail by……. a) Twort b) Iwanowsky c) Roux d) Herelle
9. Bacteria were first discovered by… a) Leeuwenhook b) Robert Hook c) Louis Pateur d) Robert Koch
10. Cyanophages were discovered by..a) Twort and Herelle b) Bold and Tippo c) Safferman and Morris d) Hershey and Chase
11. Viruses were first crystallised by… a) Twort b) Iwanowsky c) Roux d) Stanley
12. Gram staining was developed by… a) Louis Pasteur b) Robert Koch c) Christian Gram d) Gerald Gram
13. Viruses were first cultured by… a) Twort b) Iwanowsky c) Enders d) Stanley
14. Cancer causing viruses were discovered by… a) Twort b) Rous c) Enders d) Stanley
15. Who is regarded as the father of virology… a) Twort b) Iwanowsky c) Roux Sd) Stanley
Answers: 1a 2c 3d 4b 5d 6d 7b 8d 9a 10c 11d 12c 13c 14b 15d
Microbiology Bacteria
1. All the bacteria fix nitrogen except.. a) Rhizobium b) E.coli c) Azotobacter d) cyanobacteria
2. Differential staining of bacteria on Gram staining is due to…
a) difference in the cell wall layer components of Gram positive and Gram negative bacteria
b) difference in the cell structure of Gram positive and Gram negative bacteria
c) difference in the mode of nutrition of Gram positive and Gram negative bacteria d) none of the above
3. The iodine used in Gram staining serves as a… a) chelator b) catalyst c) mordant d) cofactor
4. Which among the following is called as filamentous bacteria….
a) Mycoplasmas b) Spirochetes c) Actinomycetes d) Vibrios
5. Which of the following group of bacteria is considered as a link between bacteria and virus…
a) Mycoplasmas b) Spirochaetes c) Actinomycetes d) Vibrios
6. Corkscrew shaped forms of bacteria are…. a) bacilli b) stalked bacteria c) spirochaetes d) actinomycetes
7. The ability of bacteria to change their morphological form frequently is termed as…
a) lysogeny b) pleomorphism c) alteromorphism d) none of these
8. Bacterial cell wall is made up of ….a) chitin b) cellulose c) dextran d) peptidoglycan
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9. Bacterial flagella is made up of… a) microtubules b) tubulin c) flagellin d) spinin

10. Surface appendage of bacteria meant for cell-cell attachment during conjugation is
a) pili b) flagella c) spinae d) cilia
11. Spinae is rigid tubular appendages in..
a) Gram positive bacteria b) Gram negative bacteria c) both a and b d) actinomycetes
12. The region where bacterial genome resides is termed as.. a) nucleus b) cytoplasm c) nucleoid
d) ribosome free region
13. Bacterial chromosome is…..a) single stranded and circular b) double stranded and circular
c) single stranded and linear d) double stranded and linear
14. Extra chromosomal, circular, double stranded, self-replicating DNA molecule in bacteria is called
a) cosmid b) plasmid c) phagemid d) phasmid
15. Membraneous infolding in bacteria that initiate DNA replication is ..
a) mesosomes b) carboxysome c) magnetosome d) nulcleosome
Answers 1b 2a 3c 4c 5a 6c 7b 8d 9c 10a 11a 12c 13b 14b 15a
Bacterial Reproduction
1. Bacteria reproduce vegitatively by….

a) Fission only b) Fission and fragmentation c) Fission, fragmentation and budding d) None of the above
2. Bacteria reproduce asexually by… a) Conjugation b) Amitosis c) Meiosis d) Transformation
3. Binary fission in bacteria involves all except…
a) Cell elongation b) Cytokinesis c) DNA duplication d) Spindle formation
4. Minute bodies that are formed during fragmentation in bacteria are called…
a) Conidia b) Gonidia c) Microconidia d) Oospore

5. Endospore formation is a method to tide over unfavorable condition which is generally seen in…….
a) Gram positive bacteria b) Gram negative bacteria c) Gram positive bacteria and Gram negative bacteria
d) Streptomycetes
6. Which of the following favors endospore formation….. a) High concentration of nitrogenous nutrients
b) Low concentration of nitrogenous nutrients c) Low concentration of oxygen d) None of these
7. The partial diploids formed as a result of sexual reproduction n bacteria is termed as..
a) Zygotes b) haplo-zygotes c) prozygote d) merozygote
8. The transfer of genetic material from one bacterium to another via virus is called…
a) Transformation b) Conjugation c) Recombination d) Transduction
9. The uptake of DNA fragments from surroundings by a bacterium is termed as….
10. The unidirectional transfer of genetic material from a donor bacterium to recipient bacterium by cell to cell contact
is termed as..
11. The ability of a cell to take up DNA fragments from the surroundings is called as….
a) Fitness b) Fecundity c) Competence d) Hfr
12. Conjugation between F+ and F cell results in ….

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a) Two F cells b) Fcell becomes F+ c) F cell remains F cell with a little DNA from F+ cell
d) remains same without ant change
13. If the F factor is attached to the bacterial genome the donor is called as….
a) F + b) F++ c) F+ super strains d) Hfr strains
14. Specialized transduction is mediated by…….
a) lytic phages b) lysogenic phages c) Both lytic and lysogenic phages d) T4 phages
15. Transduction was discovered by…….
a) Griffith b) Zinder and Lederberg c) Lederberg, Hayes and Woolman d) Iwanowsky
Answers: 1c 2b 3d 4b 5a 6b 7d 8d 9a 10b 11c 12b 13d 14b 15b
Gram Staining
1. Gram staining was developed by….a) French microbiologist Louis Pasteur b) Dutch lens maker Leeuwenhoek
c) Danish physician Christian Gram d) Dutch physician Christian Gram
2. Gram staining is an example of…. a) Acid fast stain b) Acid stain c) Differential stain d) None of the above
3. Gram staining was developed in… a) 1882 b) 1883 c) 1884 d) 1885
4. The most common stains used in Gram staining is ….a) crystal violet and methylene blue
b) crystal violet and safranin c) crystal violet and carbol fuschin d) safranin and methylene blue
5. Which of the following statement s are true regarding Gram positive bacteria
a) cell wall has a thick peptidoglyc an layer b) cell wall lipid content is very low
c) lipopolysaccharide layer is absent d) all of these
6. Which of the following statements is incorrect regarding Gram negative bacteria
a) cell wall has a thin peptidoglycan layer b) cell wall lipid content is very low
c) lipopolysaccharide layer is present d) all of these
7. In Gram staining, if some bacteria retain the crystal violet stain after alcohol treatment. Then the bacteria is
a) Gram positive b) Gram negative c) procedure is incomplete to answer this question d) none of these
8. Counter stain used in Gram staining is.. a) Safranin b) Crystal violet c) carbol fuschin d)acetocarmine
9. In Gram staining , the alcohol acts on… a) Teichoic acids b) Periplasm c) Membrane lipids d) Peptidoglycan
10. Lipopolysaccharide is found in cell wall of… a) Gram positive bacteria b) Gram negative bacteria
c) Both d) Fungi
11. The diffrential staining property of Gram staining is primarily due to….
a) difference in lipid content in Gram positive and Gram negative bacteria
b) difference in protoplasmic contents in Gram positive and Gram negative bacteria
c) difference in teichoic acid content in Gram positive and Gram negative bacteria d) all of these
12. In Gram staining iodine is used as a… a) fixative b) mordant c) solubiulizer d) stain
13. After ethanol treatment Gram negative bacteria can be visualized… a) only by counter staining with safranine
b) in violet colour of crystal violet c) only by addition of iodine solution d) none of these
14. Which of the following is a common Gram positive bacteria ….
a) Rhizhobium of root nodules b) Lactobacillus in curd c) Eschericia coli d) none of these
15. During ethanol treatment in gram staining,
a) crystal violet stain is dissolved in alcohol in Garm negative bacteria due to high lipid content in the outer layer
b) crystal violet stain is retained in Garm positive bacteria due to less lipid content and thick peptidoglycan wall
c) both a and b d) none of these
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Answers: 1. c) Danish physician Christian Gram 2. c) Differential stain 3. b) 1883 4. b) crystal violet and safranin 5. d) all of these 6. b) cell
wall lipid content is very low 7. a) Gram positive 8. a) Safranin 9. c) Membrane lipids 10. b) Gram negative bacteria 11. a) difference in lipid
content in Gram positive and Gram negative bacteria 12. b) mordant 13. a) only by counter staining with safranine 14. b) Lactobacillus in curd
15. c) both a and b
Virus
1. Viruses are… a) obligate parasites b) free living c) both free living and parasitic d) none of these
2. A fully formed infectious viral particle is called as… a) viroid b) virusoid c) virion d) capsid
3. The genetic material of viruses consists of either.. a) DNA b) RNA c) DNA or RNA d) ss DNA or ss RNA
4. The protein coat of virus is called as… a) nucleoid b) capsid c) capsomere d) outer envelope
5. Which of the following is the largest virus.. a) herpes virus b) arbovirus c) mumps virus d) pox virus
6. Tobacco mosaic virus is… a) spherical shaped b) rod shaped c) cuboidal d) oval shaped
7. The virus with the smallest genome… a) circovirus b) mimivirus c) herpes virus d) rabies virus
8. The functions of capsid include….. a) protect genetic material from nuclease attack
b) attachment and injection of viral genome into the host c) determines the antigenic specificity of virus
d) All of the above
9. The spike like projections seen on the outer surface of enveloped viruses are called….
a) capsomeres b) peplomers c) proteomeres d) viroid
10. Viruses that attacks bacteria are called… a) Lysophage b) bacteriophage c) virophage d) none of these
11. T2 phage is a…. a) ds DNA phage b) ss DNA phage c) ss RNA phage d) ds RNA phage
12. Viral genome attached to the bacterial genome is termed as…..
a) prophage b) lysogeny c) lytic cycle d) virulent phages
13. TMV is a…. a) DNA virus b) RNA virus c) ss DNA or ds DNA d) bacteriophage
14. Bacteriophages that induce bacterial cell lysis are called…..
a) temperate phages b) virulent phages c) lysogenic phages d) viroids
15. Infectious RNA particles without protein coat a) viroid b) virion c) virusoid d) prion
Answers: 1a 2c 3c 4b 5d 6b 7a 8d 9b 10b 11a 12a 13b 14b 15a
16. Viruses multiplies in… a) Soil b) Dead tissue c) Living tissue d) Culture medium
17. Prophase refers to….. a) Viral genome outside the host cell b) Viral genome that integrates with the bacterial
genome c) Viral genome in the culture medium d) Newly synthesized viral genome within the host cell
18. Longest known virus is…. a) Ø x 174 b) T 1 phage c) TMV d) Citrus tristeza
19. Who crystallised and isolated viruses for the first time…..
a) W.M Stanely b) F.C. Bawden c) K.M. Smith d) D. Ivanowski
20. Which of the following plant virus has DNA in it?
a) Tobacco Mosaic Virus b) Potato Mosaic Virus c) Tomato Mosaic Virus d) Cauliflower Mosaic Virus
21. The Bacteriophage contains an enzyme known as… a) dehydrogenase b) urease c) Protease d) lysozyme
22. Virion is... a) Nucleic acid of virus b) Protein of virus c) Antiviral agent d) Completely assembled virus outside host
23. Which of the following pair of diseases is caused by virus?
a) Rabies, Measles b) Typhoid, Tetanus c) Cholera, Tuberculosis d) AIDS, Syphilis
24. Viral Diseases have no cure because ….
a) Viruses have no cell wall b) Presence of capsid c) Virus possesses no cytoplasm

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d) Viruses can multiply repeatedly within the host cell

25. AIDS virus has effect upon….a) Leucocytes b) Lymphocytes c) Erythrocytes d) Thrombocytes
Answers 16. c) Living tissue 17. b) Viral genome that integrates with the bacterial genome 18. d) Citrus tristeza 19. a) W.M Stanely 20.d)
Cauliflower Mosaic Virus 21. d) lysozyme 22. d) Completely assembled virus outside host 23. a) Rabies, Measles 24. d) Viruses can multiply
repeatedly within the host cell 25. b) Lymphocytes
Microbes in Human Welfare

1. The discovery that led to the development of first antibiotic was made by….
a) Jenner b) Pasteur c) Fleming d) Pauling
2. Spirulina is a… a) edible fungus b) biofertilizer c) biopesticide d) single cell protein
3. Biogas is… a) Methane rich fuel b) ecofriendly and pollution free source c) Propane rich fuel d) Both a and c
4. High value of B O D (Biochemical Oxygen Demand) shows,,…..
a) water is normal b) water is highly polluted c) water is less polluted d) none of these
5. Which of the following is fermentation process? a) batch process b)continuous process c) both a and b
d) none of these
6. Who showed that Sacchaaromyces cerevisiae causes fermentation forming products such as beer and buttermilk?
a) Louis Pasteur b) Alexander Fleming c) Selman Waksman d) Schatz
7. Rennet is used in…. a) bread making b) fermentation c) cheese making d) antibiotics synthesis
8. Tissue plasminogen activator is… a) a vitamin b) an Enzyme c)a chemical that stimulates tissue differentiation
d) amino acid
9. A bioreactor is… a) hybridoma b) Culture containing radioactive isotopes c) Culture for synthesis of new chemicals
d) Fermentation tank
10. Humulin is,,,……a) carbohydrate b) protein c) fat d) antibiotics
11. Which of the following can be application of fermentation?
a) tanning of leather b) curing of tea c) production of vine d) all of these
12. Enzyme immobilisation is…. a) conversion of an active enzyme into inactive form
b) providing enzyme with protective covering c) changing a soluble enzyme into insoluble state
d) changing pH so that enzyme is not able to carry out its function
13. Biogas is produced by…. a) aeobic breakdown of biomass b) anaerobic break down of biomass
c) with the help of methanogenic bacteria d) both b and c
14. Name the first organic acid produced by microbial fermentation,…..
a) citric acid b) lactic acid c) acetic acid d) none of the above
15. Vinegar is obtained from molasses with the help of ….a) Rhizopus b) Acetobacter c) Yeast d) both b and c
Answers:- 1c 2d 3d 4b 5c 6a 7c 8b 9d 10b 11d 12b 13d 14b 15d
Biological Nitrogen Fixation

1. The conversion of nitrogen to ammonia or nitrogenous compounds is called as
a) Nitrogen assimilation b) Nitrogen fixation c) Denitrification d) Nitrification

2. Plants absorbs N2 in the form of……a) nitrites (NO ) b) nitrates (NO ) c) ammonium (NH ) d) all of the above
3. Plants cannot absorb molecular N2 in the atmosphere because……. a) N2 has double bonds making it highly stable
b) Abundance in the atmosphere inhibits absorption c) N2 has triple bonds making it highly stable d) None of these
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4. Symbiotic N fixing cyanobacteria are present in all except…. a) Anthoceros b) Azolla c) Cycas d) Gnetum
5. All the following are free living N fixers except…a) Rhizobium b) Azotobacter c) Rhodospirillum d) Clostridium
6. Which of the following N fixer is involved in symbiotic association with legumes forming root nodules?
a) Rhizobium b) Azotobacter c) Rhodospirillum d) Clostridium 7. Anabaena, a N fixer is present in the root pockets of
a) Marselia b) Salvinia c) Pistia d) Azolla
8. Splitting of dinitrogen molecule into free nitrogen atom in biological N2 fixation is carried out by….
a) hydrogenase b) nitrogenase c) dinitrogenase d) nitrate reductase
9. The conversion of amino acids to ammonium by soil decomposers is called….
a) ammonification b) mineralization c) deamination d) Both a and b
10. Industrial fixation is accomplished by….
a) Helmonts process b) Haber process c) Friedel Crafts reaction d)Reimer Tiemann Reaction
11. To fix one molecule of nitrogen ….... a) 6 ATP molecules are required b) 12 ATP molecules are
required c) 16ATP molecules are required d) 20 ATP molecules are required
12. The root nodules of legumes contain a pink pigment which has high affinity for oxygen is ………
a) nod haemoglobin b) leghaemoglobin c) haemoglobin d) bacterial haemoglobin
13. Conversion of NO to NO is carried out by…a) Nitrosomonas b) Nitrososcoccus c) Nitrobacter d) Clostridium
14. The process of conversion of soil NO to N is called………….
a) nitrification b) denitrification c) ammonification d) nitrogen fixation
15. Leghaemoglobin creates………
a) Anaerobic condition for optimum activity of nitrogenase b) Aerobic condition for optimum activity of nitrogenase
c) Required oxygen concentration for optimum activity of nitrogenase d) Suitable environment for nodule formation
Answer:- 1b 2d 3c 4d 5a 6a 7d 8b 9d 10b 11c 12b 13c 14b 15a
Molecular Markers
1. Specific biomolecules which show easily detectable differences among different strains of a species or among
different species is termed as ….a) DNA fingerprinting b) molecular markers c) molecular scissors d) RFLP
2. Molecular markers include….. a) RFLP b) RAPD c) AFLP d) all of these
3. Molecular markers are used to construct.. a) chromosome maps b) cytogenetic maps c) physical maps d) all of these
4. The variation in the restriction DNA fragment lengths between individuals of a species is called…….
a) restriction Fragment Length Polymorphism (RFLP) b) Random amplified Polymorphic DNA (RAPD)
c) Amplified Fragment Length Polymorphism (AFLP) d) Simple Sequence repeats (SSR)
5. RFLP is used to….. a) Construct high resolution linkage maps b) identify single gene diseases
c) construct QTL maps d) all of these
6. RFLP involves….. a) used to identify a specific protein b) used to identify a specific DNA
c) used to identify a specific RNA d) used to identify both DNA and RNA
7. Locations of quantitative genes on chromosomes are called………
a) Qualitative trait loci b) Quatitative trait loci c) both a and b d) none of these
8. RAPD is a… a) DNA sequencing based method b) Restriction digestion based method c) PCR based method d) all of these
9. The set of DNAs generated by using random primers in a PCR reaction is called…….
a) RAPD b) RFLP c) AFLP d) in situ hybridization
10. All the statements are true regarding RFLP and RAPD except……..
a) RAPD is a quick method compared to RFLP b) RFLP is more reliable than RAPD
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c) Species specific primers are required for RAPD d) Radioactive probes are not required in RAPD
11. DNA of eukaryotic organisms has several repeating units of short sequences called……..
a) random repeats b) tandem repeats c) mini satellites d) all of these
12. The variation in number of tandem repeats between two or more individuals is called……
a) Variable number of tandem repeats (VNTRs) b) Restriction Fragment Length Polymorphism (RFLP)
c) Simple sequence repeats (SSRs) d) Amplified Fragment Length Polymorphism (AFLP)
13. Simple sequence repeats are….. a) 16 bp long sequences distributed along the chromosome b) also called as
micro satellites c) individual specific in number and position d) all of these
14. AFLP is a…….. a) PCR based method b) method to detect polymorphism in the DNA throughout the genome
c) method that detects the presence or absence of a fragment d) all of these
15. The variant fragment that distinguish one individual from another one is called…….
a) variant fragment b) marking fragment c) differing fragment d) all of these
Answers 1. b) molecular markers 2. d) all of these 3. d) all of these 4. a) restriction Fragment Length Polymorphism (RFLP) 5. d) all of these
6. c) used to identify a specific RNA 7. b) Quatitative trait loci 8. c) PCR based method 9. a) RAPD 10. c) Species specific primers are required
for RAPD 11. b) tandem repeats 12. a) Variable number of tandem repeats (VNTRs) 13. d) all of these 14. d) all of these 15. b) marking
fragment
Blotting Techniques
1. Western blotting is the technique for the detection of........ a) Specific DNA in a sample
b) specific RNA in a sample c) specific protein in a sample d) specific glycolipid in a sample
2. Which of the following technique is used in DNA finger printing?
a) Western blotting b) Southern blotting c) Northern blotting d) Eastern blotting
3. Arrange the following in correct order
1. Southern Blotting a) Alwine
2. Western blotting b) E.M.Southern
3. Northern Blotting c) A. Jeffrey
4. DNA fingerprinting d) Towbin
a) 1A, 2C, 3D, 4B b) 1B, 2D, 3A, 4C c) 1B, 2A, 3D, 4C d) 1B, 2C, 3A, 4C
4. Labelled Antibodies are used to detect……. a) detect the presence of a particular DNA molecule in Southern blotting
b) detect the presence of a particular RNA molecule in Southern blotting
c) detect the presence of a particular protein molecule in Southern blotting
d) detect the presence of a particular protein molecule in Western blotting
5. Which of the following technique is suitable for identifying mRNA molecule in a sample ………
a) Western blotting b) Southern blotting c) Northern blotting d) Eastern blotting
6. Which of the following technique doesn’t involve electrophoresis for the separation of biomolecules…
a) Dot blotting b) Southern blotting c) Northern blotting d) Western blotting
7. Probe is a …a) protein for detecting a specific DNA molecule
b) short piece of labelled DNA which are complementary to the nucleic acid strand to be detected
c) short piece of labelled DNA or RNA which are complementary to the nucleic acid strand to be detected
d) none of these
8. Which of the following technique is most suitable for detecting the presence of a gene product…..
a) Dot blotting b) Southern blotting c) plaque blotting d) Western blotting
9. Aminobenzyloxymethyl filter paper is commonly used for transfer in……..
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a) Western blotting b) Southern blotting c) Northern blotting d) Dot blotting

10. Arrange the following in correct order
1. Southern Blotting A) RNA-DNA hybrid 2. Western blotting B) DNADNA hybrid
3. Northern Blotting C) Southern blotting 4. DNA fingerprinting D) antigen antibody reaction
a) 1A, 2C, 3D, 4B b) 1B, 2D, 3A, 4C c) 1B, 2A, 3D, 4C d) 1B, 2C, 3A, 4C
Answers:- 1. c) specific protein in a sample 2. b) Southern blotting 3. b) 1B, 2D, 3A, 4C 4. d) detect the presence of a particular protein
molecule in Western blotting 5. c) Northern blotting 6. a) Dot blotting 7. c) short piece of labelled DNA or RNA which are complementary to
the nucleic acid strand to be detected 8. d) Western blotting 9. c) Northern blotting 10. b) 1B, 2D, 3A, 4C
1. The repeating units of proteins are…. a) glucose units b) amino acids c) fatty acids d) peptides
2. Amino acids are joined by…. a) peptide bond b) hydrogen bond c) ionic bond d) glycosidic bond
3. The primary structure of protein represents……. a) Linear sequence of amino acids joined by peptide bond
b) 3dimensional structure of protein c) helical structure of protein d) sub unit structure of protein
4. Peptide bond is… a) rigid with partial double bond character b) planar, covalent c) covalent d) all of the above
5. Enzymes are… a) proteins b) carbohydrates c) nucleic acids d) DNA molecule
6. The first protein sequenced by Frederick Sanger is….a) Haemoglobin b) myoglobin c) insulin d) myosin
7. A dipeptide has ……..
a) 2 amino acids and 1 peptide bond b) 2 amino acids and 2 peptide bonds
c) 2 amino acids and 3 peptide bonds d) 2 amino acids and 4 peptide bonds
8. The most common secondary structure is…..
a) α-helix b) β-pleated sheet c) β-pleated sheet parallel d) β-pleated sheet non parallel
9. Myoglobin is a…… a) protein with primary structure b) protein with secondary structure
c) protein with tertiary structure d) protein with quaternery structure
10. Fibrous protein such as silk fibroin consists of polypeptide chains arranged in…..
a) α-helix b) β-pleated sheet c) β-helix d) none of these
11. α-helix has a) 3.4 amino acid residues/turn b) 3.6 amino acid residues/turn
c) 3.8 amino acid residues/turn d) 3.0 amino acid residues/turn
12. Tertiary structure is maintained by… a) peptide bond b) hydrogen bond c) disulphide bond d) all of the above
13. Haemoglobin has….a) primary structure b) secondary structure c) tertiary structure d) quaternery structure
14. Disulphide bonds are formed between…… a) cysteine residues that are close together
b) cystine residues that are close together c) proline residues that are close together
d) histidine residues that are close together
15. The 3-D structure of protein can be determined by…. a) Nuclear magnetic resonance b) X-ray crystallography
c) both a and b d) Spectroscopy
Answers 1b 2a 3a 4d 5a 6c 7a 8a 9c 10b 11b 12d 13d 14a 15c
Protein Purification
1. Protein purification refers to the……. a) Purification of proteins b) Separation of proteins from other biomolecules
c) Separation of a particular protein from other contaminating proteins d) all of these
2. Protein separation techniques are often based on the following properties except………
a) solubility of the protein b) viscosity of the protein c) charge of protein d) specific binding affinity of the protein
3. Primary steps in protein purification includes……..
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a) Homogenization b) Differential centrifugation c) Solubilisation d) all of these

4. Which of the following detergent is commonly used to release integral proteins from its membranes?
a) Urea b) dimethyl sulphoxide c) triton X 100 d) cyanogen bromide
5. Salting out process involves…………
a) precipitation of proteins using ammonium sulphate b) precipitation of proteins using copper sulphate
c) precipitation of proteins using sodium chloride d) none of these
6. Which of the following separation method is suited for a protein sample with large differences in molecular mass..
a) Dialysis b) salting out process c) density gradient centrifugation d) rate zonal centrifugation
7. In which of the following separation method where proteins are separated on the basis of their net charge….
a) Affinity chromatography b) Ion exchange chromatography c) dialysis d) gel filtration chromatography
8. In gel filtration chromatography, separation of proteins are based on their……..
a) Size and net charge b) size and shape c) size and specific affinity d) shape and net charge
9. The use of insulin hormone to purify its receptor is an example of……
a) Ion exchange chromatography b) Affinity chromatography
c) Gel filtration chromatography d) Ligand mediated chromatography
10. In anion exchange chromatography……..
a) the column contains negatively charged beads where positively charged proteins bind
b) the column contains positively charged beads where negatively charged proteins bind
c) the column contains both positive and negatively charged beads where proteins bind depending on their net charge
d) all of these
Answers 1. c) Separation of a particular protein from other contaminating proteins 2. b) viscosity of the protein 3. d) all of these 4. c) triton X
100 5. a) precipitation of proteins using ammonium sulphate 6. d) rate zonal centrifugation 7. b) Ion exchange chromatography 8. b) size and
shape 9. b) Affinity chromatography 10. b) the column contains positively charged beads where negatively charged proteins bind
Electrophoresis
1. The technique electrophoresis, for the separation of charged molecules was developed by…….
a) Tswett b) Svedberg c) Tiselius d) Sanger
2. In electrophoresis, DNA will migrate towards…… a) cathode or positive electrode b) anode or negative electrode
c) cathode or negative electrode d) anode or positive electrode
3. The speed of migration of ions in an electric field depends on……..
a) magnitude of charge and mass of molecules b) magnitude of charge and shape of molecules
c) shape and size of the molecule d) magnitude of charge, shape and mass of molecules
4. Which of the following statement is true regarding migration of bio molecules?
a) The rate of migration is directly proportional to the current
b) the rate of migration is inversely proportional to current
c) the rate of migration is directly proportional to the resistance of the medium
d) Low voltage is used for the separation of high molecular weight compounds
5. Electrophoresis cell or electrophoresis apparatus consists of……
a) power pack and electrophoresis unit b) Electrophoresis unit and DNA separator
c) buffer chamber and Electrophoresis unit d) Gel, buffer chamber and power pack
6. The most common type of gel used for DNA separation is…..
a) Agar b) Polyacrylamide c) Agarose d) All of the above
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7. Which is the technique suited for the separation of large DNA fragments.. a) AGE b) PAGE c) PFGE d) SDS-PAGE
8. What is the role of SDS in SDSPAGE?
a) protein denaturing and imparting net negative charge b) imparting overall negative charge to the protein
c) imparting equal mass to all proteins d) protein unfolding and imparting net positive charge
9. In SDSPAGE, separation is based on…. a) molecular weight b) shape c) charge d) all of the above
10. The electrophoresis technique that used isoelectric focusing is… a) AGE b) PFGE c) 2DPAGE d) SDS-PAGE
Answers: 1. c) Tiselius 2. d) anode or positive electrode 3. b) magnitude of charge and shape of molecules 4. a) the rate of migration is directly
proportional to current 5. a) power pack and electrophoresis unit 6. c) Agarose 7. c) PFGE 8. a) protein denaturing and imparting net negative
charge 9. a) molecular weight 10. c) 2D-PAGE
Nucleic acids
1. The technique used to identify specific DNA sequence in bacterial colonies is………..
a) Colony hybridization b) in situ hybridization c) dot blot technique d) western blotting
2. Sothern hybridization is……
a) used to identify a specific protein b) used to identify a specific DNA c) used to identify a specific RNA
d) used to identify both DNA and RNA
3. Which of the following statements are true regarding southern blotting…..
a) developed by E.M.Southern b) DNADNA hybridization is the basis
c) The transfer of DNA fragments from gel to nitrocellulose membrane is called blotting d) all of these
4. Applications of Southern blotting includes….. a) DNA fingerprinting b) preparation of RFLP maps
c) identification of transferred genes d) all of these
5. The technique used to detect the presence of DNA or RNA in a non-fractionated DNA sample is…….
a) colony hybridization b) in situ hybridization c) dot blot technique d) western blotting
6. Northern hybridization is ……. a) used to identify a specific protein b) used to identify a specific DNA
c) used to identify a specific RNA d) used to identify both DNA and RNA
7. In Northern hybridization probe hybridization forms ………
a) DNA:DNA hybrid b) RNA:DNA hybrid c) both a and b d) none of these
8. All are differences in procedure between Northern and Southern hybridization except…….
a) DBM membrane is used in northern hybridization b) RNA:DNA hybrids are formed in northern hybridization
c) Intially fragments are separated by electrophoresis in northern hybridization
d) DNA denaturation is required before blotting in Sothern hybridization
9. Sothern hybridization is…… a) used to identify a specific protein b) used to identify a specific DNA c) used
to identify a specific RNA d) used to identify both DNA and RNA
10. In Western blotting…… a) agarose gel is commonly used b) polyacrylamide gel is commonly used
c) both a and b d) high resolution gels
11. For glycoproteins, most commonly used probe is… a) antibody b) lectin c) antigens d) interferons
12. For protein detection, most commonly used probe is… a) antibody b) lectin c) antigens d) interferons
13. ELISA is based on……..
a) antigenantibody interaction b) antigenprotein interaction c) lectin antibody interaction d) all of these
14. The technique used to locate specific genes in chromosomes is……

79
a) colony hybridization b) in situ hybridization c) dot blot technique d) western blotting

15. The separation technique of charged molecules under the influence of electric current is called …..
a) Colony hybridization b) electrophoresis c) dot blot technique d) western blotting
Answers: 1. a) colony hybridization 2. b) used to identify a specific DNA 3. d) all of these 4. d) all of these 5. c) dot blot technique 6. c) used to
identify a specific RNA 7. c) both a and b 8. c) Intially fragments are separated by electrophoresis in northern hybridization 9. a) used to
identify a specific protein 10. b) polyacrylamide gel is commonly used 11. b) lectin 12. a) antibody 13. a) antigenantibody interaction 14. b) in
situ hybridization 15. b) electrophoresis
1. Who is the one awarded with Nobel Prize for contribution towards elucidation of 3D structure of DNA along with
Watson and Crick? … .a) Rosalind Franklin b) Maurice Wilkins c) Linus Pauling d) Temin
2. Andrew Z Fire and Craig C Mello got Nobel Prize in medicine for the discovery of …….
a) Split genes b) Transposons c) Ribozymes d) RNA interference mechanism
3. Stanley Prusiner, Nobel winner of 1997 discovered bizarre infectious protein particle called as…..
a) Prions b) Viroids c) Virusoids d) Proteomes
4. The key enzyme that helped Kary Mullis in the invention of PCR was……
a) Ligase b) Taq Polymersae c) Restriction endonuclease d) Vent polymerase
5. “All enzymes are proteins” this was the concept before the discovery of ribozymes or catalytic RNAs by….
a) Roberts and Sharp b) Cech and Altman c) Alwin and Towbin d) Sanger
6. Bacterial conjugation was discovered by………

a) Beadle and Tatum b) Meselson and Stahl c) Lederberg and Tatum d) Griffith
7. The first confirmation regarding the status of DNA as genetic material was given by the work of Avery, Macleod and
McCarty on…… a) E.coli b) Diplococcus pneumonia c) Klebsiella d) T2 phage
8. DNA finger printing using β-KMDNA probe was developed by……
a) Alec Jeffrey b) Kary Mullis c) Watson d) Lalji Singh
9. ‘Central dogma of Biology’ was put forward by…. a) Watson b) Crick c) Temin d) Khorana
10. The discovery of restriction enzyme actually paved way towards the development of modern biotechnology or
rDNA technology. The discoverers are……..
a) Kary Mullis and Mc Clintock b) Arber, Nathans and Smith c) Milstein and Saiki
d) Sanger, Maxam and Gilbert
Answers: 1. b) Maurice Wilkins 2. d) RNA interference mechanism 3. a) Prions 4 . b) Taq Polymersae 5. b) Cech and Altman 6. c) Lederberg
and Tatum 7. b) Diplococcus pneumoniae 8. d) Lalji Singh 9. b) Crick 10. b) Arber, Nathans and Smith
Translation
1. The end product of translation are……… a) amino acids b) lipids c) polypeptides d) all of these
2. All viruses consists of…. a) DNA and protein coat b) RNA and protein coat
c) Polysaccharides and proteins d)a nucleic acid and a protein coat
3. In bacteria, a small circle of DNA found outside the main chromosome is called a……
a) plasmid b) protein c)genetic fingerprint d) episome
4. The genetic instructions for forming a polypeptide chain are carried to the ribosome by the…..
a)tRNA b)rRNA c)mRNA d)DNA
5. The DNA of an elephant and the DNA of a mango tree will probably differ in all of the following ……
80
a) Sequence of DNA nucleotides b) Length of DNA molecules

c) Number of DNA molecules d) Kinds of nucleotides utilized in forming DNA
6. The lac operon in E.coli is involved in……. a) Regulating the expression of a gene
b) Controlling DNA replication c) Regulating the translation of mRNA
d) Controlling the formation of ribosomes
7. Genetic variation can be introduced into bacteria by all of the following methods except:………
a)transduction b)mutation c)transformation d)DNA amplification
8. Which of the following would most likely cause a mutation with the greatest deleterious effect?
a) An insertion of a nucleotide triplet into a DNA strand that codes for an mRNA
b) A single addition of a nucleotide in a DNA strand that codes for an mRNA
c) a deletion of a nucleotide triplet from a DNA strand that codes for an mRNA d) all of these
9. All of the following enzymes are involved in DNA replication except:
a) helicase b) primase c) DNA polymerase d) RNA polymerase
10. Which of the following is true? a) A messenger RNA molecule has the form of a double helix
b) Ribosomes contain RNA nucleotides and amino acids
c) The uracil nucleotide consists of the uracil nitrogen base, a deoxyribose sugar and a phosphate group.
d) In eukaryotes, DNA is manufactured in the nucleus and RNA is manufactured in the cytoplasm.
Answers 1c) polypeptides 2d)a nucleic acid and a protein coat 3a)plasmid 4c)mRNA 5d)Kinds of nucleotides utilized in forming DNA
6a)Regulating the expression of a gene 7d)DNA amplification 8b)A single addition of a nucleotide in a DNA strand that codes for an mRNA
9d)RNA polymerase 10b)Ribosomes contain RNA nucleotides and amino acids
Human Genome Project
1. The Human Genome Project was initiated by………

a) NIH and DOE b) NIH and EBI c) NIH and DDBJ d) DOE and DDBJ
2. The prime objective of HGP was….. a) To find out the exact functions of proteins in humans
b) To sequence the entire base pairs that makes up the 23 chromosomes
c) To sequence the entire base pairs that makes up the 24 chromosomes
d) To find out the active genes in human genome
3. HGP was also focused on identifying……. a) SNPs b) VNTRs c) Minisatellites d) Junk DNA
4. At the initial stage of HGP, the estimated time and budget was…..
a) 30 years, $100 billion b) 15 years and $ 15 billion c) 10 years and $ 6 billion d) 15years and $ 3 billion
5. The private company involved in Human genome sequencing in parallel with HGP was…..
a) Roche b) Gilead c) Celera d) Genentech
6. According to HGP, human genome consists of approximately ……
a) 100000 genes b) 50000 genes c) 30000 genes d) 20000 genes
7. The first draft of HGP was published in 2001 in the journal… a) ‘Science’ b)’ Cell’ c) ‘Nature’ d) ‘Plos Biology ‘
81
8. Which of the following vectors are widely used in HGP?

a) plasmid and cosmid b) lambda phage and M13 vectors c) phagemid and shuttle vectors d) BAC and YAC
9. According to HGP, genetic similarity between all humans is…. a) 90% b) 95% c) 99.9% d) 99.5%
Answers 1. a) NIH and DOE 2. c) To sequence the entire base pairs that makes up the 24 chromosomes 3. a) SNPs 4. d) 15years and $ 3 billion
5. c) Celera 6. d) 20000 genes 7. c) ‘Nature’ 8. d) BAC and YAC 9. c) 99.9% 10. b) dystrophin
11) A protein is poorly expressed in a diseased tissue. To determine whether the defect is at the level of transcription or
translation, which of the following blotting techniques would you use?
a) Southern and Western b) Southern and Northern c) Northern and Western d) Western and South –Western
12) The polymerase chain reaction (PCR)……
a) is used to transcribe specific genes b) amplifies specific DNA sequences
c) uses a DNA polymerase that denatures at 55 0 C d) is a method for sequencing DNA
13) Genome wise gene expression analysis is performed using….
a) DNA microarrays b) Northern analysis c) Real time PCR d) RT-PCR
14) Triton X100 is a surfactant that forms micellar structure in aqueous solutions. One can form reverse micelles of the
surfactants easily by……
a) Addition of salts b) Making the pH acidic from alkaline c) Addition of heavy metal ions d) Addition of non polar solvents
15) SDS is used in polyacrylamide gel electrophoresis of a mixture of proteins for their efficient separation on the gel.
SDS, in this experiment, is used to……….a) Solubilise the protein b) Stabilize the protein
c) decrease the surface tension of buffer d) have uniform charge density on the proteins
16) Exchange of Germplasm is carried out preferably through shoot tip culture because they are……….
a) Virus free b) Germplasm is present at shoot tip only c) Shoot tip is disease free d) All of these
17) Which of the following is the best method to determine bacteriophages concentration in a sample?
a) Spectrophotometry b) Plaque assay c) Copy assay number c) Light microscopy
18) Insertional inactivation of a gene helps in ………
a) Identification of recombinant clones b) Identification of deletion mutants
c) Identification of suppression mutants d)elimination of recombinant clones
19) Electroporation facilitates introduction of foreign DNA into the target organism by…….
a) Changing the porosity of the cell wall b) Changing the electric potential of the cell wall
c) Lysis of the cell wall d) Active transport across the cell wall
20) A method for transferring protein to a nitrocellulose filter on which protein can be detected by a suitable probe is:
a) Southern blotting b) Northern Blotting c) Western blotting d) None of these

82
Answers 11. d) Western and South Western 12. b) amplifies specific DNA sequences 13. a) DNA microarrays 14. d) Addition of non polar
solvents 15. d) have uniform charge density on the proteins 16. a) Virus free 17. b) Plaque assay 18. a) Identification of recombinant clones 19.
a) Changing the porosity of the cell wall 20. c) Western blotting
2. Bacterial cell wall is made up of…….. a) Nacetyl glucosamine b) Nacetyl muramic acid
c) Both a and b d) Nacetyl glucosamine, Nacetyl muramic acid and amino acids
4. Plant cell wall is made up of ………a) Cellulose, hemicelluloses and pectin b) Cellulose and chitin
c) Cellulose, hemicelluloses and chitin d) Cellulose only
5. Chitinous cell wall is present in……. a) Plants b) Bacteria c) Protists d) Fungi
6. Pectin is stained using….. a) Sudan III b) acetocrmine c) Ruthenium red d) Iodine
7. Cellulose is a polymer of D-glucose units joined by .a) α 14 linkage ...b) α 16 linkage c) β 14 linkage d) β 16 linkage
8. Chlorzinc Iodide is used to stain….. a) Cellulose b) Hemicellulose c) Pectin d) Lignin
9. Middle lamella is made up of pectin. Pectin is chemically……. a) Nacetyl glucosamine and Nacetyl muramic acid
b) Heteropolymer of xylose, mannose and arabinose c) Glucoronic and galacturonic acid
d) Polymer of Dglucose units
10. Which of the following is a aromatic polymer of phenols… a) Pectin b) Chitin c) Lignin d) Cutin
11. Fine cytoplasmic connections between neigh-bouring cells through the cell wall for cell to cell communication is
called….. a) Plasmosome b) Plasmodesmata c) Mesosome d) All of these
12. Which of the following organelle is involved in cell wall synthesis ……….
a) Mitochondria b) Chloroplast c) Golgi apparatus d) lysosome
13. Which of the following statements are true regarding cellulose synthesis…..
a) Cellulose is synthesized on the external surface of the cell
b) The enzyme involved is a plasma membrane bound complex called cellulose synthetase
c) UDP glucose is the precursor of cellulose d) All of these
14. Secondary cell wall of plants is …. a) Located outside the primary wall
b) Located inside the plasma membrane c) Located inside the primary wall
d) Located just beneath middle lamellae
15. Which of the statements are incorrect regarding plant cell wall…….
a) Primary and secondary walls are present in meristamatic cells
b) Secondary cell wall consists of three concentric layers (S1, S2 and S3) one after the other
c) In certain plants, tertiary cell wall is also present which has xylan beside cellulose
d) Middle lamella is made up of pectin and lignin

83
Answers: 1. b) Bacteria, fungi and plants 2. d) Nacetyl glucosamine, Nacetyl muramic acid and amino acids 3. d) Cell was is semipermeable 4.
a) Cellulose, hemicelluloses and pectin 5. d) Fungi 6. c) Ruthenium red 7. c) β 14 linkage 8. a) Cellulose 9. c) Glucoronic and galacturonic acid
10. c) Lignin 11. b) Plasmodesmata 12. c) Golgi apparatus 13. d) All of these 14. c) Located inside the primary wall 15. a) Primary and
secondary walls are present in meristamatic cells

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Phone #: 0343-3002384 ID:Ataullahbio@gmail.

1. A recombinant DNA molecule is produced by joining together

Ataullah BS (Hons) in Biotechnology [Gold Medalist] –Uomian cell#:0343-3002384

25. E. coli is generally used for gene cloning because

Ataullah BS (Hons) in Biotechnology [Gold Medalist] –Uomian cell#:0343-3002384

Ataullah BS (Hons) in Biotechnology [Gold Medalist] –Uomian cell#:0343-3002384

46. Using genetic technique in forensic science is also called

49. RFLP is…

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The correct sequence is _____

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4. To improve techniques of finger printing

81. The basic components of tissue culture media are

Ataullah BS (Hons) in Biotechnology [Gold Medalist] –Uomian cell#:0343-3002384

91. Meristem culture helps in developing

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Scientists Associated with

Ataullah BS (Hons) in Biotechnology [Gold Medalist] –Uomian cell#:0343-3002384

3. Probe r. Virus free plants

122. Match the following:

Ataullah BS (Hons) in Biotechnology [Gold Medalist] –Uomian cell#:0343-3002384

1. Cloning and in vitro culture 2. Polymerase chain reaction 3. Chromatography 4. Electrophoresis

Ataullah BS (Hons) in Biotechnology [Gold Medalist] –Uomian cell#:0343-3002384

Ataullah BS (Hons) in Biotechnology [Gold Medalist] –Uomian cell#:0343-3002384

d) Are regions of chromosomes after secondary constriction

2. Which of the following statement is true

3. Expression vectors differ from a cloning vector in having

Ataullah BS (Hons) in Biotechnology [Gold Medalist] –Uomian cell#:0343-3002384

6. The most popular and widely used engineered plasmid vector is

In pBR 322, pBR stands for

8. Phage M13 vectors are widely used for

12. Which of the following are vectors for animals

13. The vectors commonly used for sequencing human genome

15. The most common vectors for plants are

b) rapid multiplication of animals of desired genotypes

Recombinant DNA Technology

4. Restriction enzymes are

Plant Tissue Culture

2. The production of secondary metabolites require the use of

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Gene Transfer Methods

7. Ti plasmid vectors include

Answers: 1d 2d 3d 4d 5a 6b 7a 8b 9b 10a 11c 12a 13b 14d 15c

a) root differentiation b) shoot differentiation c) both a and b d) none of these

a) Gibberella fujikuroi b) Gibberella gaditijirrii c) Gibberella acuminata d) Gibberella africana

Ataullah BS (Hons) in Biotechnology [Gold Medalist] –Uomian cell#:0343-3002384

a) Xylem b) phloem c) both phloem and xylem d) capillary rise

Abscisic acid (ABA)

a) stomatal opening b) stomatal closure c) reduced transpiration d) increased transpiration

Ataullah BS (Hons) in Biotechnology [Gold Medalist] –Uomian cell#:0343-3002384

a) young leaves b) meristamatic regions c) buds d) ripening fruits

a) promote senescence b) enhances abscission c) promote ripening d) induces cell division

8. Climacteric fruits are…..

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a) Protein synthesized in the cytoplasm>SER lumen>RER lumen>cis golgi>median golgi>trans golgi>vescicles>fusion of

5. According to signal hypothesis, the signal peptide for a secretory protein is

6. Signal sequences are…….

7. The retention signal of proteins of endoplasmic reticulum consists of aminoacids