MCQ On FOV
MCQ On FOV
MCQ On FOV
Virtualization Technologies
Answer: a
Explanation: You can define the features in software and hardware that enables flexibility as conforming
to one or more of the mobility patterns.
1
Answer: c
Explanation: Several important cloud computing approaches use a strictly hardware-based approach to
abstraction.
Answer: d
Explanation: To enable these characteristics, resources must be highly configurable and flexible.
Answer: c
Explanation: Load balancing is an optimization technique.
Answer: d
Explanation: Alternatively, systems can be virtualized through load-balancing technologies.
Answer: b
Explanation: Load balancing can be used to increase utilization and throughput, lower latency, reduce
response time, and avoid system overload
Answer: d
Explanation: Load balancing provides the necessary redundancy to make an intrinsically unreliable
system reliable through managed redirection.
2
8. Which of the following is a more sophisticated load balancer?
workload managers
workspace managers
rackserve managers
All of the mentioned
Answer: a
Explanation: They determine the current utilization of the resources in their pool.
9. An ______ is a combination load balancer and application server that is a server placed between a
firewall or router.
ABC
ACD
ADC
All of the mentioned
Answer: c
Explanation: An Application Delivery Controller is assigned a virtual IP address (VIP) that it maps to a
pool of servers based on application specific criteri
10. Which of the following should be replaced with the question mark in the following figure ?
Abstraction
Virtualization
Mobility Pattern
All of the mentioned
Answer: b
Explanation: Virtualization is a key enabler of the first four of five key attributes of cloud computing.
Hypervisors
3
Type 1
Type 2
Type 3
All of the mentioned
Answer: a
Explanation: :A hypervisor running on bare metal is a Type 1 VM or native VM.
Answer: c
Explanation: Google performs server load balancing to distribute the processing load and to get high
utilization rates.
Answer: a
Explanation: Some virtual machines are designed to run only a single application or process and are
referred to as process virtual machines.
4
Answer: a
Explanation: VMM is another name for Hypervisor.
Answer: d
Explanation: This makes virtual machine technology very useful for running old versions of operating
systems, testing applications in what amounts to a sandbox.
Answer: a
Explanation: Because it is a complete simulation of the hardware that it is running on.
Answer: d
Explanation: Type 1 VMs have no host operating system because they are installed on a bare system.
Answer: c
Explanation: Xen is used by Amazon Web Services to provide Amazon Machine Instances (AMIs).
9. Which of the following will be host operating system for Windows Server?
VirtualLogix VLX
Microsoft Hyper-V
Xen
All of the mentioned
5
Answer: b
Explanation: Type 2 virtual machines are installed over a host operating system.
10. Which of the following should be placed in second lowermost layer for the following figure ?
Answer: a
Explanation: Examples of Type 2 Virtual Machine Monitors are Containers, KVM, Microsoft Hyper V
and Parallels Desktop for Mac
6
None of the mentioned
Answer: c
Explanation: vSphere is the branding for a set of management tools and a set of products previously
labeled VMware Infrastructure.
Answer: b
Explanation: Not all CPUs support virtual machines, and many that do require that you enable this
support in the BIOS.
13. Which of the following type of virtualization is found in hypervisor such as Microsoft’s Hyper-V ?
paravirtualization
full virtualization
emulation
None of the mentioned
Answer: a
Explanation: It is the host operating system that is performing the I/O through a para-API.
14. In _______, the virtual machine simulates hardware, so it can be independent of the underlying
system hardware.
paravirtualization
full virtualization
emulation
None of the mentioned
Answer: c
Explanation: A guest operating system using emulation does not need to be modified in any way.
Answer: a
Explanation: An operating system running as a guest on a paravirtualization system must be ported to
work with the host interface.
16. In a ____________ scheme, the VM is installed as a Type 1 Hypervisor directly onto the hardware.
paravirtualization
7
full virtualization
emulation
None of the mentioned
Answer: b
Explanation: All operating systems in full virtualization communicate directly with the VM hypervisor.
17. Which of the following operating system support operating system virtualization?
Windows NT
Sun Solaris
Windows XP
Compliance
Answer: b
Explanation: This type of virtualization creates virtual servers at the operating system or kernel level.
18. Which of the following is a service that aggregates servers into an assignable pool ?
VMware vStorage
VMware vNetwork
VMware vCompute
Application Services
Answer: c
Explanation: VMware vSphere is a management infrastructure framework that virtualizes system, storage,
and networking hardware to create cloud computing infrastructures.
19. _________ is a service that creates and manages virtual network interfaces.
VMware vStorage
VMware vNetwork
VMware vCompute
Application Services
Answer: b
Explanation: VMware vStorage is a service that aggregates storage resources into an assignable pool.
20. Which of the following allows a virtual machine to run on two or more physical processors at the
same time?
Virtual SMP
Distributed Resource Scheduler
vNetwork Distributed Switch
Storage vMotion
Answer: a
Explanation: The virtualization layer that abstracts processing, memory, and storage uses the VMware
ESX or ESXi virtualization server.
Machine Imaging
8
1. Which of the following product migrate files from one datastore to another datastore?
vNetwork Distributed Switch
Storage vMotion
vMotion
None of the mentioned
Answer: b
Explanation: :Virtual machine uses the datastore continues to run.
Answer: b
Explanation: DVS has capability to maintain a network runtime state for virtual machines as they are
migrated from one physical system to another.
3. ________ virtualization abstracts networking hardware and software into a virtual network that can be
manage
Storage
Network
Software
None of the mentioned
Answer: b
Explanation: The key feature that makes virtual infrastructure so appealing for organizations
implementing a cloud computing solution is
flexibility.
4. Which of the following visualization is most commonly achieved through a mapping mechanism where
a logical storage address is translated into a physical storage address?
Storage
Network
Software
None of the mentioned
Answer: a
Explanation: Block-based storage such as those used in SANs use a feature called a Logical Unit
Identifier (LUN) with specific addresses stored in the form of an offset called the Logical Block Address
(L
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of working virtual machines
All of the mentioned
Answer: b
Explanation: Instantiating a virtual machine is a very fast process, typically only a few seconds in length.
6. A _______ image makes a copy or a clone of the entire computer system inside a single container such
as a file.
system
software
hardware
None of the mentioned
Answer: a
Explanation: The system imaging program is used to make this image and can be used later to restore a
system image.
Answer: a
Explanation: OVF stands for Open Virtualization Format.
Answer: a
Explanation: AMI stands for Amazon Machine Image.
Answer: d
Explanation: An AMI can be for public use under a free distribution license, for pay-per-use with
operating systems such as Windows, or shared by an EC2 user with other users who are given the
privilege of access.
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All of the mentioned
Answer: b
Explanation: The term virtual appliance is meant to differentiate the software image from an operating
virtual machine.
Porting Applications
1. Which of the following vendor is offering optimization appliances for VMware’s infrastructure ?
Expand Networks
Certeon
Replify
None of the mentioned
Answer: b
Explanation: Most virtual appliances are used to run a single application and are configurable from a Web
page.
Answer: a
Explanation: Cloud computing is the major reason for the interest in them and for their adoption.
Answer: a
Explanation: Other methods may be needed to make applications easily portable.
4. The __________ solution creates a virtual application appliance as an architectural layer between the
Windows or the UNIX operating system and applications.
AppOne
AppZero
AppSoft
None of the mentioned
Answer: b
Explanation: The running application in AppZero changes none of the registry entries or any of the files
on the Windows Server.
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5. Point out the wrong statement :
Cloud computing applications have the ability to run on virtual systems
Systems (VMs running applications), storage, and network assets cannot be virtualized
Applications that run in datacenters are captive to the operating systems and hardware platforms that they
run on
All of the mentioned
Answer: b
Explanation: VMs running applications have sufficient flexibility to give acceptable distributed WAN
application performance.
6. _______ creates a container that encapsulates the application and all the application’s dependencies
within a set of files.
VAA
VAS
VSA
None of the mentioned
Answer: a
Explanation: Dependencies include DLL, service settings, necessary configuration files, registry entries,
and machine and network settings.
7. Which of the following layer serves as the mediator for file I/O, memory I/O, and application calls and
response to DLLs?
application
client
virtualization
None of the mentioned
Answer: c
Explanation: The running application in AppZero changes none of the registry entries or any of the files
on the Windows Server.
8. Which of the following application delivery platform’s main focus is on desktop installations?
Microsoft App-V
Microsoft Hyper
Amazon EC2
All of the mentioned
Answer: a
Explanation: Installations can be done over the network after the AppZero application appliance is
installe
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Answer: a
Explanation: With load balancing, system requests are directed to appropriate systems on demand.
Answer: a
Explanation: vSphere can create virtual machines, virtual datastores, and virtual networks, and move
these resources about while the system is active.
Capacity Planning
Capacity Planning
Performance Planning
Network Planning
None of the mentioned
Answer: a
Explanation: Capacity planning measures the maximum amount of work that can be done using the
current technology and then adds resources to do more work as needed
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Resources are provisioned and allocated to meet demand
All of the mentioned
Answer: d
Explanation: Performance tuning and optimization is not a primary goal of capacity planners.
Answer: b
Explanation: With capacity, you are concerned about how much work a system can do, whereas with
performance, you are concerned with the rate at which work gets done.
Answer: b
Explanation: LAMP stacks based on Red Hat Linux are more common than the other distributions.
Answer: a
Explanation: Network performance is affected by network I/O at the server, network traffic from the
cloud to Internet service providers, and over the last mile from ISPs to homes and offices.
6. Which of the following is one of the major categories of Amazon Machine Instances that you can
create on the Amazon Web Service?
WAMP
XAMPP
LAMP
None of the mentioned
Answer: c
Explanation: On Amazon Web Services, machine instances are offered for both Red Hat Linux and for
Ubuntu.
7. Which of the following is used as substitute for PHP as scripting language in LAMP?
Scala
Perl
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Ruby
None of the mentioned
Answer: b
Explanation: Either Perl or Python is often substituted for PHP as the scripting language use
Answer: c
Explanation: MySQL is the database server developed by the Swedish company MySQL AB, owned by
Oracle Corporation through its acquisition of Sun Microsystems.
Answer: b
Explanation: Knowing when systems fail under load and what factor(s) is responsible for the failure is the
critical step in capacity planning.
Answer: b
Explanation: It is the goal of a capacity planner to identify the critical resource that has this resource
ceiling and add more resources to move the bottleneck to higher levels of deman
Baseline Measurements
1. Which of the following is another name for resources mentioned in the following figure ?
15
System Metrics
System Baseline
System Parameters
All of the mentioned
Answer: a
Explanation: A machine instance (physical or virtual) is primarily defined by four essential resources.
Answer: c
Explanation: There are two important overall workload metrics in the LAMP system.
3. Which of the following command is used to display the level of CPU activity in Linux?
sep
sav
sar
None of the mentioned
Answer: c
Explanation: sar is installed in Linux as part of the sysstat package.
4. Which of the following tool captures time-dependent performance data from resources such as a CPU
load?
RBTool
RRDTool
Perfmon
None of the mentioned
Answer: b
Explanation: RRDTool stands for Round Robin Database tool.
Answer: b
Explanation: Performance logs are not the only source of performance measurements.
6. Which of the following tool is used for Web site monitoring service in LAMP?
Alertra
Cacti
Collectd
16
None of the mentioned
Answer: a
Explanation: Cacti is RRDTool graphing module.
Answer: c
Explanation: GraphClick is a digitizer that can create a graph from an image.
8. Which of the following is not a commercial third-party Web site performance monitor?
Keynote
Munin
Gomez
All of the mentioned
Answer: b
Explanation: Munin is open source network resource monitoring tool.
9. Which of the following is available as both open source and commercial version?
Zabbix
ZenOSS
SiteUpTime
All of the mentioned
Answer: b
Explanation: ZenOSS is used to monitor operations.
10. Which of the following testing seeks to answer maximum load that my current system can support?
Load
Security
Navigation
All of the mentioned
Answer: a
Explanation: Load testing is also referred to as performance testing, reliability testing, stress testing, and
volume testing.
Resource Ceilings
1. Which of the following resource(s) represents the bottleneck in the current system that limits the
system’s performance?
17
ROM
Resource ceiling
Resource Parameters
All of the mentioned
Answer: b
Explanation: Depending upon a server’s configuration, any resource can have a bottleneck removed, and
the resource ceiling then passes onto another resource.
Answer: c
Explanation: Load testing is useful in testing the performance of not only Web servers, but also
application servers, database servers, network throughput, load balancing servers, and applications that
rely on client-side processing.
Answer: a
Explanation: This tool run the requests from a single client, which can be a resource limitation of its own.
Answer: a
Explanation: Network I/O (reaches its maximum 100-percent utilization at about 50 percent of the tested
load, and this factor is the current system resource ceiling.
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Answer: b
Explanation: When you have multiple virtual servers that are part of a server farm and have a load
balancer in front of them, you can use your load balancer to test your servers’ resource ceilings.
6. Which of the following resource has following graph structure for web servers ?
CPU
RAM
Disk
None of the mentioned
Answer: a
Explanation: Web sites prefer to scale out using many low-powered servers instead of scaling up with
fewer but more powerful servers.
7. Which of the following resource has following graph structure for web servers?
Network I/O
RAM
Disk
None of the mentioned
Answer: d
Explanation: Whatever performance measurement tool you use, the goal is to create a set of resource
utilization curves.
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8. What does WnsP represents in the following formula?
WT = Σ(WSnP WSnV)
workload of the virtual servers
workload of your physical server
sum over all the Web servers
All of the mentioned
Answer: b
Explanation: In this equation, WSnP represents the workload of your physical server(s) and WSnV is the
workload of the virtual servers (cloud-based server instances) of your infrastructure.
9. A master/slave MySQL replication architectural scheme is used for ________ database applications.
medium size
large
smaller
All of the mentioned
Answer: c
Explanation: As sites grow and the number of transactions increases, developers tend to deploy databases
in a federated architecture.
10. Which of the following performance analysis tool lets you save its state for Windows?
MMS
CloudWatch
Microsoft Management Console
All of the mentioned
Answer: c
Explanation: In the Amazon Web Service, the statistics monitoring tool is called Amazon CloudWatch,
and you can create a performance monitoring console from the statistics it collects.
High-CPU
High-Disk
High-ROM
All of the mentioned
Answer: a
Explanation: In cloud computing, you can often increase capacity on demand quickly and efficiently.
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2. Point out the correct statement:
Use of different machine instance sizes is an attempt to create standard servers
Reducing the variability between servers makes it easier to troubleshoot problems and simpler to deploy
and configure new systems
A server with the same set of software, system configuration, and hardware should perform similarly if
given the same role in an infrastructure
All of the mentioned
Answer: d
Explanation: As much as possible, you also should assign servers standardized roles and populate those
servers with identical services.
3. Which of the following instance has 68.4GB of memory and 26 EC2 Compute Units?
High-Memory Quadruple Extra Large Instance
Small Instance
Micro Instance
High-CPU Extra Large Instance
Answer: a
Explanation: I/O Performance is high and API name is m2.4xlarge.
Answer: b
Explanation: Small Instance has 1.7GB memory and 1 EC2 compute unit.
Answer: a
Explanation: This variability may be due to your machine instances or storage buckets being moved from
one system to another system.
6. Which of the following graph correctly describes relative costs and efficiencies of different physical
and virtual servers?
21
None of the mentioned
Answer: a
Explanation: This type of graph allows you to add the appropriate server type to your infrastructure while
performing a cost analysis of the deployment.
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Small Instance
Micro Instance
High-CPU Extra Large Instance
Answer: d
Explanation: High-CPU Extra Large Instance has 7GB of memory and 20 EC2 Compute Units.
8. EC2 Compute Unit is the equivalent of a _____ GHz 2007 Opteron or 2007 Xeon processor.
1
2
4
All of the mentioned
Answer: a
Explanation: We may add or substitute measures that go into the definition of an EC2 Compute Unit.
Answer: b
Explanation: Not all cloud computing infrastructures automatically manage your capacity.
10. Which of the following cloud computing infrastructures automatically manage your capacity?
High-Memory Quadruple Extra Large Instance
Small Instance
High-CPU Extra Large Instance
All of the mentioned
Answer: b
Explanation: API name for small instance is m1.small.
Network Capacity
Answer: c
Explanation: There are three aspects to assessing network capacity.
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Increasing the variability between servers makes it easier to troubleshoot problems and simpler to deploy
and configure new systems
A server with the different set of software, system configuration, and hardware should perform similarly
if given the same role in an infrastructure
All of the mentioned
Answer: a
Explanation: Cloud vendor moves virtual systems around on physical systems or reconfigure its network
pathways on the fly to accommodate demand
3. Which of the following is not the aspect considered for network capacity?
Network traffic from the cloud to the network interface
Network traffic to and from the network interface at the server
Network traffic from the cloud through your ISP to your local network interface
All of the mentioned
Answer: d
Explanation: It may be a physical or virtual interface or server.
Answer: a
Explanation: To measure network traffic at a server’s network interface, you need to employ network
monitor.
Answer: c
Explanation: Network Capacity isn’t easy to measure in a reliable way.
Answer: b
Explanation: Regardless of which of these tools you use, the statistics function of these tools provides a
measurement of network capacity as expressed by throughput.
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7. Which of the following factor can be considered to determine WAN Capacity?
Routing and switching protocols
Overall system traffic
Network interconnect technologies
All of the mentioned
Answer: d
Explanation: These factors are highly variable and unlike.
8. __________ scaling allows you to use a virtual system to run more virtual machines
Horizontal
Vertical
Out
All of the mentioned
Answer: b
Explanation: Vertical Scaling run more daemons on the same machine instance, or take advantage of
more RAM (memory) and faster compute times.
9. Which of the following is used to evaluate your own cloud application’s network performance?
Path Cloud
PathView Cloud
View Cloud
All of the mentioned
Answer: b
Explanation: It can also create scorecard of a cloud network.
10. Scaling _____ indefinitely leads you to an architecture with a large number of servers.
out
in
vertically
All of the mentioned
Answer: a
Explanation: Horizontal scaling allows you to run distributed applications more efficiently and is
effective in using hardware more efficiently.
1. Application frameworks provide a means for creating ________ hosted applications using IDE.
PaaS
SaaS
CaaS
All of the mentioned
25
Answer: b
Explanation: PaaS IDEs run the gamut from a tool that requires a dedicated programming staff to create
and run to point-and-click graphical interfaces.
Answer: a
Explanation: Drupal is extensively used and has broad industry impact, and it is a full-strength developer
tool.
3. Which of the following is based on the notion of information management and organization?
CMS
DMS
MIS
All of the mentioned
Answer: a
Explanation: Notion of a Web site as a CMS adds a number of special features to the concept that
includes rich user interaction, multiple data sources and extensive customization.
Answer: c
Explanation: 5GL environments have no programming requirement and you can host your application
anywhere.
Answer: d
Explanation: These services differ in which language they use, support for different rendering
technologies, and in other features.
26
All of the mentioned
Answer: d
Explanation: The Drupal core by itself contains a number of modules.
7. Which of the following programming language solves problems by acting on constraints and inputs?
3GL
4GL
5GL
None of the mentioned
Answer: c
Explanation: Force.com uses 4GL programming language environment.
8. ___________ PaaS application delivery platform creates SOA applications that work on several
different IaaS vendors.
AppOne
Eccentex AppBase
Ez Publish
All of the mentioned
Answer: b
Explanation: Eccentex is a Culver City, California, company founded in 2005 that has a PaaS
development platform for Web applications.
9. Which of the following AppBase tool allows you to assign access rights to different objects in the
system?
Security Roles Management
Dashboard Designer
Report Builder
All of the mentioned
Answer: a
Explanation: Security roles can be assigned in groups without users, and users can be added later as the
application is deploye
10. Which of the following should be replaced with question mark in the figure?
CaaS
SaaS
IaaS
None of the mentioned
27
Answer: b
Explanation: A good PaaS system has certain desirable characteristics that are important in developing
robust, scalable, and hopefully portable applications.
11. Which of the following layer of Wolf platform architecture is depicted in the following figure?
upper
middle
lower
All of the mentioned
Answer: c
Explanation: In Wolf, the data and transaction management conforms to the business rules you create.
Answer: b
Explanation: LongJump comes with an Object Model Viewer.
13. Which of the following instrumentation tool displays the real-time parameters of your application in a
visual form in AppBase?
Security Roles Management
Dashboard Designer
Report Builder
All of the mentioned
Answer: b
Explanation: Applications that you create are deployed with the AppBase Application Revision
Management console.
14. Which of the following lets you sort, aggregate, display, and format report information based on the
data in your application?
Presentation Builder
Dashboard Designer
Report Builder
Business Objects Build
Answer: c
Explanation: The applications you create in AppBase may be integrated with Amazon S3 Web Services
(storage).
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LongJump is WYSIWYG editor
None of the mentioned
Answer: c
Explanation: The applications are built using visual tools and deployed on hosted infrastructure.
16. Which of the following object database has the ability to create rich data objects and create
relationships between them?
Presentation Builder
Business Objects Build
Business Process Designer
All of the mentioned
Answer: b
Explanation: Presentation builder allows you to drag and drop visual controls for creating Web forms and
data entry screens and to include the logic necessary to automate what the user sees.
Answer: d
Explanation: Its development environment is based on Java and uses REST/SOAP APIs.
Answer: a
Explanation: WaveMaker is a visual rapid application development environment for creating Java-based
Web and cloud Ajax applications.
19. ___________ tool is used to create business logic for your application.
Presentation Builder
Business Objects Build
Business Process Designer
All of the mentioned
Answer: c
Explanation: With it, you can manage workflow, integrate modules, create rules, and validate dat
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AppOne
AppBase
AppSquare
All of the mentioned
Answer: b
Explanation: AppBase includes a set of different tools for building applications
1. Which of the following algorithm is used by Google to determine the importance of a particular page?
SVD
PageRank
FastMap
All of the mentioned
Answer: b
Explanation: Content on pages is scanned up to a certain number of words and placed into an index.
Answer: d
Explanation: Wolf lets you work with Adobe Flash or Flex or with Microsoft Silverlight.
3. Which of the following figure correctly describe major features provided by Google App Engine?
30
All of the mentioned
Answer: d
Explanation: For an application to run on GAE, it must comply with Google’s platform standards, which
narrows the range of applications that can be run and severely limits those applications’ portability.
4. Based on PageRank algorithm, Google returns __________ for a query that is parsed for its keywords.
SEP
SAP
SERP
Business Objects Build
Answer: c
Explanation: SERP stands for Search Engine Results Page.
Answer: b
Explanation: Wolf has architected its platform so applications can be built without the need to write
technical code.
6. Which of the following protocol lets a Web site list in an XML file information?
Sitemaps
Mashups
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Hashups
All of the mentioned
Answer: a
Explanation: Sitemaps can be useful in allowing content that isn’t browsable to be crawle
Answer: d
Explanation: Online content that isn’t indexed by search engines belongs to what has come to be called
the “Deep Web”.
Answer: a
Explanation: Google now has a procedure that helps the Google engine crawl this information.
9. Which of the following google product sends you periodic email alerts based on your search term?
Alerts
Blogger
Calendar
All of the mentioned
Answer: a
Explanation: By creating a Google Alert, you can get email notifications any time Google finds new
results on a topic that interests you.
Answer: b
Explanation: Google Checkout was an online payment processing service provided by Google aimed at
simplifying the process of paying for online purchases.
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1. Which of the following creates a custom search utility for a particular Web site?
Desktop
Directory
Custom Search
None of the mentioned
Answer: c
Explanation: Custom Search lets you programmatically build and manage custom search engines for your
site.
Answer: b
Explanation: Google search is the most popular search engine on the We
Answer: b
Explanation: The Google Web Directory integrates Google’s search technology with
OpenDirectoryProject pages to create a tool for finding information on the we
4. Which of the following is an online atlas and mapping service with mashups?
iGoogle
Earth
GOOG-411
Knol
Answer: b
Explanation: Google Earth lets you fly anywhere on Earth to view satellite imagery, maps, terrain, 3D
buildings, from galaxies in outer space to the canyons of the ocean.
Answer: c
Explanation: Blog Search is Google search technology focused on blogs.
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6. Which of the following indexes content on your local drive for fast searches?
Desktop
Code
Hash
All of the mentioned
Answer: a
Explanation: Google Desktop is a computer program with desktop search capabilities, created by Google
for Linux, Apple Mac OS X, and Microsoft Windows systems.
7. Google _______ is collection of applications and utilities under development and testing.
Code
Labs
Hash
All of the mentioned
Answer: b
Explanation: Google Labs was a page created by Google to demonstrate and test new projects.
Answer: d
Explanation: Organize and edit your photos using Picas
9. Which of the following product allows users to create 3D models and share them with others?
Toolbar
Blogger
SketchUp
All of the mentioned
Answer: c
Explanation: SketchUp is 3D modeling software that’s easy to learn and incredibly fun to use.
10. Which of the following gives statistical information on different search terms?
Trends
Stats
Tool
All of the mentioned
Answer: a
Explanation: Google Trends is a public web facility of Google In based on Google Search.
Google Toolkit
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1. Which of the following is a search service for online retailers that markets their products in their site
searches with a number of navigations?
Google Site Search
Google Commerce Search
Google Search Appliance
Google Mini
Answer: b
Explanation: As Google has built out its portfolio, it has released special versions of its products for the
enterprise.
Answer: c
Explanation: Google Chrome Sync is a Google Tool that Syncs your Google Chrome bookmarks across
multiple computers.
3. Which of the following can be deployed within an organization to speed up both local (Intranet) and
Internet searching?
Google Site Search
Google Commerce Search
Google Search Appliance
Google Mini
Answer: c
Explanation: The three versions of the Google Search Appliance can store an index of up to 300,000 (GB-
1001), 10 million (GB-5005), or 30 million (GB-8008) documents.
4. Which of the following is the smaller version of the GSA that stores 300,000 indexed documents?
Google Site Search
Google Big Search
Google Search Appliance
Google Mini
Answer: d
Explanation: Google sells its search engine customized for enterprises under the Google Site Search
service banner.
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None of the mentioned
Answer: c
Explanation: Google Correlate find search patterns that correlate with real-world dat
6. Which of the following is a targeted ad service based on matching advertisers and their keywords to
users and their search profiles?
Ads
AdSense
AdWords
All of the mentioned
Answer: c
Explanation: This service transformed Google from a competent search engine into an industry giant and
is responsible for the majority of Google’s revenue stream.
7. Google __________ is the most widely used Web traffic analysis tool on the Internet.
BigAnalytics
Analytics
Biglytics
All of the mentioned
Answer: b
Explanation: It is offered as a free service and has been adopted by many Web sites.
Answer: b
Explanation: Translate uses what is referred to as a corpus linguistics approach to translation.
9. Which of the following service that provides offline access to online data?
Gears
Blogger
Offline
All of the mentioned
Answer: a
Explanation: Google Gears includes a database engine installed on the client that caches data and
synchronizes it.
10. Which of the following is an open-source platform that has been used to create Google Wave and
Google AdWords?
GWT
GET
GTW
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All of the mentioned
Answer: a
Explanation: GWT allows developers to create AJAX applications using Java or with the GWT compiler
using JavaScript.
Miscellaneous
1.Which of the following dvPort binding types have been removed in vSphere 5?
Dynamic Binding
Ephemeral Binding
Static Binding
Answer: A
2.Your boss has asked you to setup 4 ESXi hosts to evaluate the new vSphere 5 release, which is the
recommended install method to use in this situation?
Interactive Installation
Scripted Installation
vSphere Auto Deploy Installation
Upgrade via VMware Update Manager
Answer: A
3.Your colleague has accidentally allocated more vRAM than your company are licensed for. What will
happen to your virtual machines?
All VM’s will be Powered Off
New VM’s cannot be Powered On
VMware will be notified
Nothing will happen
Answer: B
6.What is the name of the globally unique identifier assigned to each Fibre Channel Port?
IP Address
MAC Address (Ma
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World Wide Name (WWN)
Port_ID
Answer: C
10.Which of the following installation methods installs the ESXi image directly into the Host memory?
Interactive ESXi Installation
Scripted ESXi Installation
vSphere Auto Deploy ESXi Installation Option
Upgrade via VMware Update Manager
Answer: D
11.VMFS-5 upgraded from VMFS-3 continues to use the previous file block size which may be larger
than the unified 1MB file block size.
True
False
Answer: A
12.Which of the following formulas defines the amount of virtual machine memory that will always be
composed of disk pages?
Memory allocated -(minus) memory limit
Memory limit -(minus) memory reservation
Memory limit -(minus) memory available
Memory allocated -(minus) memory available
Answer: D
13.The upgrade procedure from VMFS-3 to VMFS-5 will require downtime of that datastore?
False
True
Answer: A
14.Which of the following actions would be LEAST likely to reduce resource contention?
Powering off a VM
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Enabling Swap-To-Cache
Disable transparent memory page sharing
Enabling vNUMA
Answer: C
17.After an upgrade from ESX4.X to ESXi5.0 you notice that when you run the following command via
the vMA: “esxcfg-vswif -l” you notice that there are no configured vswif interfaces liste Why would this
be?
The Service Console is no longer available with vSphere 5. All vswif interfaces are removed during the
upgrade.
During the upgrade process all vswif interfaces are migrated to vmk interfaces.
During the upgrade process, vswif interfaces are disable by default, they’ll need to be enable before they
will be liste
The wrong command is being use “vicfg-vswif -l” is the correct command to display all vswif interfaces.
Answer: B
20.What are the two iSCSI discovery methods that are supported by an ESXi host?
Static Targets, Dynamic Targets
Static Discovery, SendTargets
Static Discovery, FindTargets
Dynamic Discovery, FindTargets
Answer: A
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21.After an upgrade from ESX4.X to ESXi5.0 you notice that your Port Group named “Service Console”
is missing. Where has it gone?
Because ESXi 5.0 has no Service Console, upgrading from ESX 4.x to ESXi 5.0 removes the Service
Console port group.
During the upgrade all Port Groups are remove The Service Console Port Group will need to be recreate
During the upgrade all Port Groups are moved to Distributed Switches.
During the upgrade all Port Groups are moved to Standard Switches.
Answer: A
22.You have been asked to provide high availability for your vCenter server. Which product would you
use to help achieve this?
Fault-Tolerance
vCenter Linked-Mode
vCenter Heartbeat
Microsoft Clustering Services
Answer: C
23.VMware vSphere can be evaluated prior to purchase. What is the maximum number of days the
evaluation can be used before a license must be purchased?
30 Days
60 Days
90 Days
120 Days
Answer: B
24.Which feature of vSphere 5 can be used to increase network throughput to virtual machines?
SplitRX
NPIV
VMDirectpath I/O
RDM
Answer: A
25.Which feature of vSphere 5 can be used to reduce virtual machine memory overhead?
VMX Swap
SplitRX
Swap to Host
Memory Reservations
Answer: A
26.By default, where do hosts deployed with VMware Auto Deploy store logs?
In Memory
First mounted LUN
Local disk
vMA
Answer: A
27.Which new feature of vSphere 5 is used to create ESXi installation images with a customized set of
updates, patches, and drivers?
Image Builder
Host Profiles
Auto Deploy
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Esxcli
Answer: D
28.Which of the following is not a new feature made available with vSphere 5?
sDRS
vDR
VSA
vSphere Web Client
Answer: B
30.After an upgrade from ESX/ESXi 4.1 to ESXi 5.0, your monitoring department are reporting that they
have stopped receiving Syslog data from all of the ESXi hosts. What could be the problem?
Custom ports that were opened by using the ESX/ESXi 4.1 esxcfg-firewall command do not remain open
after the upgrade to ESXi 5.0.
Custom ports that were opened by using the ESX/ESXi 4.1 esxcfg-firewall command do not do not get
copied during the upgrade to ESXi 5.0.
Tech Support Mode is disable by default after an upgrade to ESXi 5.0 stopping all traffic on all ports
ESXi 5.0 cannot send logs to Syslog servers.
Answer: D
32.When deploying hosts with VMware Auto Deploy, which is the recommended method to configure
ESXi once it has been installed?
Host Profiles
PowerCLI
Manually
via Direct Console
Answer: A
33.What is an HA Slot?
A slot is a logical representation of the memory and CPU resources that satisfy the requirements for any
powered-on virtual machine in the cluster.
A slot is a given to each Host in an HA Cluster, there is a maximum of 32 in an HA Cluster
A slot is given to each Virtual Machine, this determines the restart priority.
A slot has nothing to do with HA, it’s how DRS calculates which Virtual Machine should be placed
where.
Answer: A
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34.Which new version of VMFS is introduced by vSphere 5?
VMFS-2
VMFS-3
VMFS-5
VMFS-4
Answer: C
37.Which if the following is not a supported location for a host diagnostic partition?
Shared local storage
Private local storage
Private SAN storage
Shared SAN storage
Answer: A
38.Which of the following actions is not available via the Direct Console?
Shutdown host
Enter host into Maintenance Mode
View host logs
Configure host DNS
Answer: B
40.To improve security which new feature has been added to ESXi?
Firewall
Local Mode
Anti-Virus
vShield
Answer: A
41.What the packaging format used by the VMware ESXi Image Builder?
.rar
.zip
.iso
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VIB
Answer: C
44.Which two users are assigned the Administrator role at the ESX Server level by default?
root, administrator
root, vpxuser
root, vpxa
root, hostd
Answer: B
45.After an upgrade from ESXi4.0 to ESXi5.0 you are unable to putty to your hosts. What could have
caused this?
SSH configuration is not migrated for ESX 4.x hosts or ESXi 4.0 hosts. For these hosts, SSH access is
disabled during the upgrade or migration process
SSH is not available with ESXi 5.0, it is only available with ESX 5.0.
SSH is always disabled after an upgrade or clean installation.
The SSH port in ESXi 5.0 has changed to 443 for added security.
Answer: A
46.What are the three Host Isolation Response options available on an HA Cluster?
Shut down, Power off, Leave powered on
Shut down, Power off, Leave powered off
Shut down, Restart, Leave powered on
Shut down, Restart, power on
Answer: B
47.Your boss has asked you deploy 40 ESXi hosts as quickly as possible, which is the recommended
install method to use in this situation?
Interactive Installation
Scripted Installation
VMware Auto Deploy Installation
Upgrade via VMware Update Manager
Answer: D
48.Distributed Power Management (DPM) requires which technology to be available on the NIC?
Wake On LAN (WOL)
DNS
BMC
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NetBIOS
Answer: A
49.The organisation you work for is currently running vSphere 4.1 U1. Your team have just created a new
Test/Dev environment based on vSphere 5. The VM management team have asked if you could combine
the current 4.1 U1 environment and 5.0 vCenters with Linked-Mode. What is the correct response to the
VM management team?
vCenter 4.1 and vCenter cannot be joined with Linked-Mode
Additional licensing is required to use Linked-Mode
Only vCenter Administrators can use Linked-Mode
No problem
Answer: D
51. ________ describes a cloud service that can only be accessed by a limited amount of people.
Data center
Private cloud
Virtualization
Public cloud
Answer: B
52. ________ describes a distribution model in which applications are hosted by a service provider and
made available to users.
Infrastructure-as-a-Service (IaaS)
Platform-as-a-Service (PaaS)
Software-as-a-Service (SaaS)
Cloud service
Answer: C
53. True or False: Access to a Cloud environment always costs more money compared to a traditional
desktop environment.
Answer: False
54. _________ is the feature of cloud computing that allows the service to change in size or volume in
order to meet a user’s needs.
Scalability
Virtualization
Security
Cost-savings
Answer: A
55. True or False: A Cloud environment can be accessed from anywhere in the world as long as the user
has access to the Internet.
Answer: True
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