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Markscheme: (164 Marks)

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T6-2 [164 marks]

[1 mark]
1a.
Markscheme
(children) with asthma have lower lung function / (children) without asthma have higher lung function

Examiners report
Answers to questions (a) to (c) were relatively good.

1b. [1 mark]

Markscheme
7 % (units needed) (accept answers in the range of 6 % to 8 %)

Examiners report
Answers to questions (a) to (c) were relatively good.

1c. [2 marks]

Markscheme
a. female lung function higher than male;
b. males and females both better (lung function) without asthma;
c. males with asthma have a greater reduction in lung function / greater difference between males and females with
asthma than without asthma;

Examiners report
Answers to questions (a) to (c) were relatively good.

1d. [2 marks]
Markscheme
a. asthma causes constriction/congestion/inflammation of the airways/breathing tubes/bronchi/bronchioles;
b. units measure ability to exhale quickly/efficiently which could indicate asthma;

Examiners report
Candidates were not very clear about the symptoms of asthma and the use of the units in (d), but nevertheless many
gained some marks. They were not able to relate the description of the units in the background information to the
physiological effects of asthma. Some have the misconception that the bronchioles contract as muscles, or that
asthma is due to a problem with gas exchange. Many thought that people breathe out less than they breathe in, and so
asthma sufferers had a less efficient gas exchange.
2a. [3 marks]
Markscheme
a. dopamine initiates depolarization of post-synaptic membrane;
b. cocaine binds to (transporter) carrier proteins/proteins in pre-synaptic membrane;
c. cocaine blocks reabsorption (of dopamine);
d. cocaine causes dopamine build up in synaptic cleft/space;
e. so stimulus continues/cocaine is excitatory;

Examiners report
Most candidates were able to explain the effect of cocaine at synapses.

2b. [2 marks]

Markscheme

Reject unqualified statements to the effect that both are types of evolution.

Examiners report
D3 (a) was reasonably answered by most candidates, though many answers in (b) were very vague.

[4 marks]
2c.
Markscheme
Polyploidy:
a. having more than 2 (complete) chromosome sets/description of polyploidy;
b. happens through chromosome mutation / non-disjunction;
c. occurs more frequently in plants than animals;

Contribution to speciation
d. polyploids cannot reproduce with original species / meiosis fails / chromosomes cannot pair;
e. creates reproductive barrier;
f. but can self-fertilize / reproduce with similar individuals;
g. thus forming a new species;
h. new species formed by sympatric speciation;

Examiners report
D3 (a) was reasonably answered by most candidates, though many answers in (b) were very vague.

2d. [3 marks]
Markscheme
a. each photosynthetic pigment has a different absorption spectrum;
b. as light of different wavelengths is absorbed differently;
c. absorption spectra combine to create the action spectrum / action spectrum shows how much photosynthesis occurs
at each wavelength;
d. so plant can use a wider range of wavelengths for photosynthesis;
e. appropriate labelled diagram of absorption and action spectra;
f. action spectrum takes into account “in vivo”/actual environmental conditions;
Examiners report
A relatively small number of candidates answered this option, but those who did generally achieved well.

The question was generally poorly answered.

2e. [2 marks]
Markscheme
a. consumer may have more than one food source;
b. organisms eaten may be at different trophic levels;
c. may change their trophic level over time;
d. different stages in life cycle might exist in different trophic level (eg frog);
e. example of organism (presenting such a difficulty);

Examiners report
This option was attempted by many candidates. The data was more challenging for some than in previous years but
candidates on the whole responded well to it.

Few candidates had any difficulty with this question.

[2 marks]
2f.
Markscheme
Award [1] for each structure clearly drawn and correctly labelled.
a. Z lines;
b. thin actin filaments shown attached to Z lines;
c. thick myosin filaments with heads;
d. light and dark bands;

Examiners report
A relatively small number of candidates answered this option, but those who did generally achieved well.

The diagram of the structure of a sarcomere was well answered on the whole.

2g. [2 marks]

Markscheme
a. appetite control centre (in brain) makes person feel full/satiated/hungry;
b. function is both nervous and hormonal;
c. after eating (centre) responds to hormones/insulin from pancreas/hormones/PYY from small intestine/hormones
from adipose tissue/leptin in response to fat storage;
d. centre responds to hormone/ghrelin released from empty stomach;
e. part of centre responds to levels of lipid/sugar in the blood;

Examiners report
Most students could outline the control mechanism for appetite.
[4 marks]
2h.
Markscheme
a. a process in which chemical substances become more concentrated at each trophic level;
b. valid named example (for example mercury, organophosphorous pesticides, DDT, TBT);
c. these substances cannot be broken down / are broken down slowly by metabolism;
d. are often stored in (adipose) tissues;
e. each organism consumes large quantities of the trophic level below it;
f. so substance accumulates/increases to reach toxic levels;
If no example is given award [3 max].

Examiners report
This option was attempted by many candidates. The data was more challenging for some than in previous years but
candidates on the whole responded well to it.

For G3(b) there were many full mark answers. Most candidates were able to give examples of biomagnification and
explain the cause and consequences of it.

2i. [4 marks]
Markscheme
a. raw sewage contains pathogens;
b. can contaminate drinking water / cause disease/death;
c. nitrate fertilizers cause algal blooms/(aquatic) plant development;
d. algae release toxins that can contaminate drinking water;
e. more organic matter results / eutrophication;
f. more oxygen required to decompose organic matter / increase in BOD;
g. (leading to) death of aquatic animals/organisms;
h. recovery follows since algae/plants release more oxygen;

Examiners report
Few candidates answered this option.

In (b) most candidates only scored one or two marks in this question as few could explain the consequences of
releasing raw sewage and nitrate fertilizer into rivers.

[4 marks]
2j.
Markscheme
a. calcium/Ca 2+ frees myosin binding sites on actin/thin filament;
b. ATP (linked to myosin head) hydrolysed to ADP + P(i);
c. myosin head cocked/assumes high energy configuration;
d. myosin head binds to actin / forms a cross-bridge;
e. actin filament slides towards center of sarcomere / dark band;
f. combined sliding of actin filaments shortens muscle fiber / muscle;
g. ATP binds to myosin head and breaks cross-bridge;
Accept answers with properly annotated diagrams.

Examiners report
A relatively small number of candidates answered this option, but those who did generally achieved well.

Most candidates had difficulty explaining the roles of actin and myosin in muscle contraction.
[3 marks]
2k.
Markscheme
a. high amount of one nutrient may cause deficiency in another one;
b. excess protein not stored as protein by the body / converted to fat;
c. results in weight/mass loss in many people (due to fat/carbohydrate deficiency);
d. health problems such as kidney stones/other health problems;
e. high protein as part of a weight/mass loss diet;

Examiners report
Few were able to achieve well in A3 (b), lacking the detail required of the consequences of protein rich diets.

[1 mark]
3a.
Markscheme
grasses

Examiners report
There were some comments on the G2 forms that said that these graphs were confusing. In fact the vast majority of
candidates gained all three marks on parts a and b.

[1 mark]
3b.
Markscheme
6 months

Examiners report
Most were able to state that the total volume was greatest at 6 months.

3c. [1 mark]
Markscheme
50 (%)

Examiners report
Almost all could state 50% for a.

[1 mark]
3d.
Markscheme
highest: Affar;
lowest: Tigray;
(both needed)

Examiners report
Almost every candidate gave the correct answers of Affar and Tigray.
[2 marks]
3e.
Markscheme
a. no clear trend in the inner layer whereas there is a decrease in the outer layer;
b. outer layer is higher (than inner layer) at 2 months and lower at 18 months;
(do not accept statements that are not comparisons)
Accept any other correct comparisons.

Examiners report
Most were able to gain a mark for spotting that there is no clear trend in the inner layer but a decrease in the outer.
Few gained the second mark. There were many correct statements, but few correct comparisons.

[1 mark]
3f.
Markscheme
reduces glycogen levels

Examiners report
In b, the command term was state, but many tried to explain at length, usually on extension sheets.

3g. [2 marks]
Markscheme
a. evidence of high malnutrition rates / some areas with many mothers below 18.5 BMI;
b. large range/15– 40% range (in mothers below 18.5 BMI);
c. many/6 regions in the range of 20–30 % / many/5 regions in the range of 22–25 % (are below 18.5 BMI);
d. lowest in Addis and highest in Affar/Gambela;

Examiners report
In b, even though the question was about mothers, many wrote about the sons, but also correctly commented on the
large range.

[1 mark]
3h.
Markscheme
feeding time on grasses (slightly) reduces / feeding time on bushes increases

Examiners report
There were some comments on the G2 forms that said that these graphs were confusing. In fact the vast majority of
candidates gained all three marks on parts a and b.

[1 mark]
3i.
Markscheme
feeding time on grasses (greatly) reduces / feeding time on bushes increases

Examiners report
There were some comments on the G2 forms that said that these graphs were confusing. In fact the vast majority of
candidates gained all three marks on parts a and b.
[2 marks]
3j.
Markscheme
feeding is similar without predators;
more feeding on grass by adults with predators;

Examiners report
In c there were often very wordy answers that did not get to the point, not being proper comparisons. Only the better
candidates were able to narrow it down to the fact that the feeding in adults and instars is similar without predators,
but there is more feeding on grass by adults with predators.

3k. [2 marks]
Markscheme
a. volume of neurons remains the same;
b. synapse density in the outer but not the inner layer decreases with age;
c. number of neurons may not be reduced even with fewer synapses;

Examiners report
In c most were able to state that the volume of neurons remains the same and that the synapse density in outer but
not inner decreases with age.

[2 marks]
3l.
Markscheme
a. hypothesis not supported; (do not award if unqualified)
b. no clear relationship / as malnutrition (mothers below 18.5 BMI) increases, there is no clear change in percentage
male offspring;
c. however, male birth percentage is usually higher than female (above 50 %) regardless of BMI / 9 of the regions are
above/2 regions are below;

Examiners report
In c most were able to comment that the hypothesis was not supported as there was no clear relationship.

[2 marks]
3m.
Markscheme
a. both lower the glycogen level;
b. much greater reduction with 6000 m programme;
c. no moderate (glycogen) levels exist after 6000 m programme / far more with no glycogen;

Examiners report
In c i and ii most were able to obtain 1 mark, with only the better candidates obtaining both.
[2 marks]
3n.
Markscheme
a. lower levels after 6000 m programme because more energy needed for longer swim;
b. lower levels after 6000 m programme because the pace of swimming was faster;
c. blood systems cannot supply glucose as fast as it is used during intense exercise;
d. slow (type I) muscle fibres only have moderate stamina so are not ideal for faster swimming;
e. less aerobic in 6000 m programme / vice versa;

Examiners report
In c i and ii most were able to obtain 1 mark, with only the better candidates obtaining both.

[1 mark]
3o.
Markscheme
a. instars are more protected from predators/camouflaged when feeding in bushes;
b. adults can escape predator attacks more easily/camouflaged when feeding in grasses;
c. adults are bigger and less easily captured;
Accept other reasonable responses.

Examiners report
Many could correctly suggest a reason why the feeding differs.

[2 marks]
3p.
Markscheme
a. smell perception may fall in aging humans;
b. changes in smell perception may change food eating habits/reduce quality of life;
c. ageing human brains may lose synapses but not neurons (as previously thought);
d. losing synapses in one part of the brain may be repeated in other parts of the brain;

Examiners report
In d most were able to gain the mark for loss of synapses, but not neurons, but only the more astute candidates could
link it back to the introduction and talk about smell perception.

[1 mark]
3q.
Markscheme
a. no measurement of glycogen levels in fast/type II muscle fibres;
b. no mention of sample number/sex;
c. data shows no SD or SE;

Examiners report
Many were able to obtain the mark in d for stating that there was no mention of the sex of the swimmers or
comparison of fitness.
[1 mark]
3r.
Markscheme
a. no data about sex of the mothers’ other children;
b. BMI below 18.5 means individual is underweight but not necessarily malnourished;
c. the number of mothers sampled in each region is not known;
d. no comparison between town and country;
e. no information about age of mothers;

Examiners report
In d many noted that there was no data about the sex of the mothers’ other children or the age of the mothers.

[2 marks]
3s.
Markscheme
a. water purifier is effective in removing bacteria;
b. no bacteria in 12/15 test sites, regardless of temperature or flow rate;
c. flow rate is less important than temperature;
d. no information about how contaminated the water was before various treatments;
e. no information about how effective the water purifier is in removing other harmful bacteria/substances;

Examiners report
In e most were able to say that it was effective in removing bacteria, but few were able to spot that there was no
information on how contaminated the water was beforehand or how effective it would be in removing other bacteria.

[1 mark]
3t.
Markscheme
food shortages / famine / insufficient food / poor food quality / warfare / epidemics / poverty

Examiners report
In e many did not relate back to the stem and remember that it was about Ethiopia, resulting in some nebulous
answers about ‘lack of essential nutrients‘ etc.

[1 mark]
4a.
Markscheme
a. lack of oxygen / anaerobic conditions;
b. excess water / bog/marsh conditions;

Examiners report
Most gained the mark in a for anaerobic or boggy ground, with some being vague with for example ‘humid’ or ‘damp’.
[2 marks]
4b.
Markscheme

Examiners report
Part a and b posed no trouble for the well prepared candidates.

[2 marks]
4c.
Markscheme
a. cartilage;
b. synovial fluid;
c. joint capsule (prevents fluid from leaking);

Examiners report
In 3a, a disappointing number could list cartilage and synovial fluid as the answers.

[1 mark]
4d.
Markscheme
excite and inhibit (both needed)

Examiners report
Few were able to give excite and inhibit as the two effects in a(ii).

[1 mark]
4e.
Markscheme
a. ATP;
b. NADH / H +;
c. three-carbon (atom) compound/pyruvate;
Award [1] for any two of the above.

Examiners report
Part a and b posed no trouble for the well prepared candidates.

[2 marks]
4f.
Markscheme
a. high calorie / fatty food;
b. cheap high-energy food;
c. large portions / overeating;
d. lifestyles with less physical activity;
e. economic growth / increases in wealth;
Examiners report
In b, apart from some imprecise answers about ‘fat food’ most were able to score two marks here. Some failed to
score both marks by giving too similar answers, e.g. sedentary occupations and too much car travel would be in the
same marking point.

[3 marks]
4g.
Markscheme
a. dopamine stimulates brain’s reward system/pathways / addiction requires dopamine excess in brain;
b. inhibitory drugs/benzodiazepines/alcohol/drugs decrease neuron activity that inhibits dopamine release so brain
becomes addicted;
c. excitatory drugs/cocaine/amphetamines/nicotine block removal of dopamine stimulating brain (reward system);
d. genetic component involved;
e. genetic tendency for addiction influenced by social factor/example of social factor (eg peer pressure, poverty, social
deprivation, trauma, mental health problem/culture);

Examiners report
In c the genetic components and the effects of social pressure were well known. Many knew that the cause was linked
to dopamine, but did not explain in sufficient detail.

[3 marks]
4h.
Markscheme
a. meaning of species has changed over time / no longer just based on morphological features/phenotype;
b. species members also resemble each other in physiology/biochemistry/DNA sequences/use of habitat/behaviour;
c. but species can evolve and features change/species gradually split up;
d. definition now based on ability to interbreed/produce viable, fertile offspring;
e. gene flow among populations of the species maintains the species’ uniqueness;
f. some interspecific hybrids are fertile making categorization difficult;
g. further accurate discussion point about species definition;

Examiners report
The discussions of the definition of ‘species’ were very varied, with very few gaining all three points.

[3 marks]
4i.
Markscheme
a. increase the surface area of inner (mitochondrial) membrane; (note: mitochondria is in the stem)
b. allow electron transport because of embedded protein electron carriers;
c. facilitate proton pumping because of high surface to volume ratio/increased surface area;
d. increase ATP production because of ATP synthase/synthatase embedded in membrane;

Examiners report
In c marks were lost due to imprecise answers which did not mention that the cristae are on the inner membrane.

[1 mark]
5.
Markscheme
D
Examiners report
Some teachers pointed out that in question 19, answer C is correct for a small proportion of the cardiac cycle at the
start of ventricular systole. There is an isovolumetric phase when both the atrioventricular and semi lunar valves are
closed and contraction of the ventricles causes a very rapid pressure increase. However, D was much the best answer.
Most candidates chose it and the question discriminated well.

[1 mark]
6.
Markscheme
D

Examiners report
N/A

[1 mark]
7.
Markscheme
C

Examiners report
N/A

[1 mark]
8.
Markscheme
C

Examiners report
G2 feedback commented that the wording of this question should have been about the consequences of the presence
of HIV. The question was designed to be about AIDS rather than the state of being HIV positive. It was in fact a poor
discriminator, with most students giving the right response, which was C. Very few candidates were distracted by the
other alternatives.

[1 mark]
9.
Markscheme
D

Examiners report
N/A

[1 mark]
10.
Markscheme
D
Examiners report
Feedback from the G2 forms implied that it is unclear whether the function of the lacteal is a required part of the
knowledge of the digestive system. Assessment statement 6.1.7 of the core syllabus requires students to explain how
the structure of the villus is related to its role in absorption. It was therefore felt that the lacteal was a necessary part of
the understanding of the villus, and that the question was fair. Many candidates gave options A, B and C as the answer,
but the question did discriminate well, with the majority choosing D, the correct response.

[1 mark]
11.
Markscheme
A

Examiners report
N/A

[1 mark]
12.
Markscheme
A

Examiners report
N/A

[1 mark]
13.
Markscheme
B

Examiners report
N/A

[1 mark]
14.
Markscheme
D

Examiners report
This question presented a different way of comparing blood vessels, since students often compare arteries and veins,
rather than capillaries, so it was an indirect assessment of the structure of the three types of blood vessel. Many
candidates picked options A or B, but overall the question discriminated well.

[1 mark]
15.
Markscheme
B
Examiners report
N/A

[1 mark]
16.
Markscheme
D

Examiners report
N/A

[1 mark]
17.
Markscheme
B

Examiners report
N/A

[1 mark]
18.
Markscheme
B

Examiners report
N/A

[1 mark]
19.
Markscheme
B

Examiners report
This was the question that elicited the smallest percentage of correct answers but it was an excellent discriminator.
Knowledge of changes in the LH surge before ovulation is not well known among the weaker candidates.

[1 mark]
20.
Markscheme
C

Examiners report
N/A
[1 mark]
21.
Markscheme
C

Examiners report
N/A

[1 mark]
22.
Markscheme
B

Examiners report
N/A

[1 mark]
23.
Markscheme
D

Examiners report
This question was quite easy for most candidates, probably due to the fact that the lacteal is only present in the villus
therefore very easy to spot the right answer.

[1 mark]
24.
Markscheme
C

Examiners report
Question 22 was answered relatively unsuccessfully, indicating gaps in candidates' knowledge of the structure and
function of motor neurones.

[1 mark]
25.
Markscheme
A

Examiners report
N/A

[1 mark]
26.
Markscheme
D
Examiners report
N/A

[1 mark]
27.
Markscheme
B

Examiners report
N/A

[1 mark]
28.
Markscheme
D

Examiners report
Some teachers pointed out that blood pH and other variables are not controlled by homeostasis; their control is a part
of homeostasis. This distinction did not seem to worry the candidates, with 70% getting the answer right and the
discrimination index indicating that these were largely the stronger candidates.

[1 mark]
29.
Markscheme
C

Examiners report
This was an example of a question that was too easy; it proved to be the easiest on the paper with candidates only
needing to know that we do not shiver on a very hot day.

[1 mark]
30.
Markscheme
C

Examiners report
N/A

[2 marks]
31a.
Markscheme
CXCL12 inhibition initially decreases occurrence of diabetes;
in the first 25 / up to 26/27/28 weeks;
CXCL12 inhibition does not prevent occurrence of diabetes (just delays it) / eventually the same level of diabetes
Examiners report
A similar pattern of student answers was seen in f, where many were picking each individual point on the graph, rather
than giving an outline as asked. Students need to pay attention to the distinction between a "describe‟ and an
"outline‟.

[1 mark]
31b.
Markscheme
CXCL12 breakdown allows stem cell mobilization reducing incidence of diabetes / stem cells from the bone marrow
can regenerate the islets (in pancreas)

Examiners report
In f(ii) students muddled the distinction between stem cells being produced and stem cells being released.

[2 marks]
31c.
Markscheme
isoprenaline is an inhibitor of CXCL12 / inhibits synthesis of CXCL12 mRNA;
delays onset of diabetes / allows stem cell mobilization / allows islet regeneration;
does not cure the disease;

Examiners report
N/A

[3 marks]
31d.
Markscheme
suffering of patients could be reduced / diseases could be cured / better treatments developed / might replace
treatment with cure;
(possibly) less cost than treating disease/diabetes;
specific example of ethical conflict; (e.g. patient groups support use of embryotic stem cells but religious groups
oppose / different views on the moral status of an embryo)
restrictions on research in some countries due to cultural/religious traditions;
still in experimental stages / risk to patient;
specific example of risk; (e.g. stem cells developing into tumours / rejection / need for immunosuppressants)
death of early-stage embryos / production of embryos for stem cell research;
use of stem cells from adults/patients could overcome these objections;

Examiners report
The ethical discussions in h were somewhat weak, with most gaining a mark for the death of early-stage embryos.
Students appear to be using "fetus‟ and "embryo‟ interchangeably. Many statements were nebulous, for example
referring to "playing God‟ without adequately unpacking its meaning. In bioethics, "playing God‟ refers to undertaking
a controversial action unilaterally without adequate consultation with stakeholders and runs counter to the
precautionary principle. In this expanded form, the notion of playing God would make for a good answer to a discuss
question. Few mentioned the positive ideas of reduction of suffering.

[1 mark]
31e.
Markscheme
83 (allow whole number answers in the range of 82 to 84)
Examiners report
In part a most students managed to give the correct answers for maximum number (between 82-84) of stem cells per
ml of blood, though some misread the graph. The maximum number needed to be a whole number.

[1 mark]
31f.
Markscheme
5 (allow 4)
Do not allow answers with two different numbers.

Examiners report
The number of hours (5) needed to release the maximum number of cells was correctly identified by most, though
some provided a longer amount of time.

[2 marks]
31g.
Markscheme
more stem cells are formed in control / jet lag reduces the release of stem cells into blood stream / greater range in
control;
graph is rhythmic in control / control has more regular pattern;
greater number of stem cells produced in light period in control, whereas greater number in dark period in jet lag;
graph is shifted to the right in jet lag / stem cells are released later in time in jet lag;

Examiners report
In b most gained either 1 or both marks. Some students described similarities when only the distinctions were
required.

[2 marks]
31h.
Markscheme
(hypothesis supported in control) if stem cells are harvested towards the end of the dark period / (hypothesis
supported) as stem cells start increasing in dark period;
(hypothesis not supported) in control as peak of stem cells occurs during light period/lowest number during dark
period;
(hypothesis supported) if patient is jet-lagged as more stem cells are produced in dark period;

Examiners report
In c, weaker answers failed to state whether or not the hypothesis was supported or not. In addition others lost marks
by failing to state whether they were referring to the control or the jet-lagged mice.

[1 mark]
31i.
Markscheme
mRNA is translated to protein / involved in protein synthesis.

Examiners report
In d many candidates failed to make the connection between mRNA and translation, with the weakest answers
describing a numerical relationship. A number misread the graph in terms of under what conditions the peaks and
lowest points occurred.
[3 marks]
31j.
Markscheme
clenbuterol and isoprenaline both produce more stem cells than control;
clenbuterol releases fewer stem cells than isoprenaline / isoprenaline releases the most stem cells;
isoprenaline produces the least mRNA for CXCL12;
clenbuterol produces the same amount of mRNA for CXCL12 as control;

Examiners report
In e there was a tendency to give descriptive answers, stating figures from the graph, without drawing a comparison
using comparative terms. As an example, "clenbuterol releases 40 stem cells‟ would not earn a mark, but
"isoprenaline releases more stem cells than clenbuterol‟ is. Students must use clear comparative terms and be
specific in their comparisons when there are multiple treatment groups.

[1 mark]
32.
Markscheme
A

Examiners report
N/A

[1 mark]
33.
Markscheme
D

Examiners report
There was a complaint on G2s about the use of the SAN in the question instead of the full name of the sinoatrial node.
The guide uses the acronym, so it is fair to use it in the exam. This question showed a bad discrimination factor. Many
candidates chose answer B instead of D.

[1 mark]
34.
Markscheme
A

Examiners report
N/A

[1 mark]
35.
Markscheme
B

Examiners report
N/A
[1 mark]
36a.
Markscheme
Award [1] for each of the following correctly labelled.

stomach (labelled A)

Examiners report
Candidates knew the role and location of the stomach.

[1 mark]
36b.
Markscheme
Award [1] for each of the following correctly labelled.

large intestine (labelled B)

Examiners report
Marks were lost when candidates mixed up the identity and role of the small and large intestine (A.S. 6.1.4, 6.1.5).

[1 mark]
36c.
Markscheme
Award [1] for each of the following correctly labelled.

small intestine / ileum (labelled C)

Examiners report
Marks were lost when candidates mixed up the identity and role of the small and large intestine (A.S. 6.1.4, 6.1.5).

[2 marks]
36d.
Markscheme
valves to avoid backflow;
thin wall allows them to be pressed flat by muscles to move/carry blood under low pressure;
wide lumen (for a given blood vessel diameter) for slow flowing blood;

Examiners report
This was similar to past exam questions about structure and function of veins (A.S. 6.2.5). An easy mark, gained by
most candidates, was that valves in veins prevent backflow of blood. Thin walls allowing muscle pressure to move
blood or wide lumens to accommodate slow moving blood were cited less often. There was also glaring confusion with
capillaries such as “veins have thin walls for diffusion of oxygen molecules” or “veins have walls of one cell thickness
so exchanges can occur.”
[2 marks]
36e.
Markscheme
attraction to foreign protein/pathogen / chemotaxis;
membrane invaginates / engulfs foreign matter / phagocytosis/endocytosis;
formation of vacuole/vesicle;
(phagocytes) can squeeze out of walls of capillaries;
Accept clearly annotated diagrams.

Examiners report
This question required an outline of how some cells can ingest pathogens in the blood and in body tissues (A.S. 6.3.4).
“Outline” meant only a brief account or summary, with or without a diagram. Quite a few candidates scored the
maximum of two marks. They knew that phagocytes can detect/recognize/identify foreign protein or pathogens which
can then be engulfed through phagocytosis. Unfortunately, more than a few candidates thought that antibodies engulf
pathogens.

[4 marks]
37a.
Markscheme
ventilation is moving air into and out of lungs/inhalation and exhalation;
involves (respiratory) muscle activity;
gas exchange involves movement of carbon dioxide and oxygen;
between alveoli and blood (in capillaries) / between blood (in capillaries) and cells;
cell respiration is the release of energy from organic molecules/glucose;
(aerobic) cell respiration occurs in mitochondria;
To award [4 max] responses must address ventilation, gas exchange and cell respiration.

Examiners report
As candidates distinguished between ventilation, gas exchange and cell respiration (A.S. 6.4.1), certain ideas keep
reappearing and others were infrequently expressed. Among the former were inhalation and exhalation; movement of
carbon dioxide and oxygen; and release of energy from organic molecules. Less common were involvement of muscle
activity for ventilation; exchange between alveoli and blood or between blood and cells; and that cell respiration
occurs in mitochondria. “Ventilation is moving air into the lungs” was not enough for a mark, nor was “cell respiration
is release of energy from food” which was too general.

[6 marks]
37b.
Markscheme
during glycolysis glucose is partially oxidized in the cytoplasm;
(small amount/yield of) ATP produced;
(two) pyruvate formed by glycolysis;
pyruvate absorbed into/broken down in the mitochondrion;
requires oxygen;
carbon dioxide is produced;
water is produced;
large amount/yield of energy/ATP molecules (per glucose molecule);

Examiners report
With this question on aerobic respiration (A.S. 3.7.2, 3.7.3), many candidates easily earned four of the six available
marks. These were that aerobic respiration requires oxygen, produces carbon dioxide, produces water and produces a
large yield of energy/ATP. Additional marks were earned with commentary on glycolysis, since it produces the
pyruvates that are eventually broken down aerobically.
[8 marks]
37c.
Markscheme
collisions between enzyme/active site and substrate;
enzyme activity increases as temperature rises;
more frequent collisions at higher temperatures;
each enzyme has an optimum temperature / enzymes have optimal temperatures;
high temperatures (above optimum) denature enzymes;
each enzyme has an optimum pH / enzymes have optimal pHs;
increase or decrease from optimum pH decreases rate of reaction/activity;
extreme pH alters/denatures the tertiary/3D protein/enzyme structure;
increasing substrate concentration increases the rate of reaction;
higher substrate concentration increases chance of collision;
until plateau;
when all active sites are busy;
Accept clearly annotated graph.

Examiners report
Factors that affect enzyme activity (A.S. 3.6.1-3.6.4) is another topic that has appeared repeatedly on past IB exams.
Furthermore, the topic is often visited during IA investigations. Details on how changes in temperature and pH affect
enzyme activity formed the heart of most answers. Denaturation of enzyme structure that alters the active site was
usually included in those answers. The effect of substrate concentration on enzyme activity was less common. Higher
quality answers mentioned collisions between enzyme and substrate and linked enzyme activity to the frequency of
collisions at different temperatures or substrate concentrations. Many written passages were supported with annotated
graphs that also earned marks. However, some candidates confused the graph for enzyme activity vs temperature
with the graph of enzyme activity vs. substrate concentration. They show a plateau in the temperature curve and
declared that the plateau represented denaturation of the enzyme at that temperature.

[1 mark]
38.
Markscheme
D

Examiners report
N/A

[1 mark]
39.
Markscheme
A

Examiners report
This question was tricky and did not discriminate well for the more able candidates. Many candidates chose option B
instead of A. Although usually type II diabetic patients do not require insulin injections, they may do. The more correct
answer is A.

40. [1 mark]

Markscheme
D
Examiners report
There was some concern about the terminology used in the question. This question proved to be a very good
discriminator, so it probably did not distract candidates, as the most able candidates were getting this question right.

41. [1 mark]
Markscheme
D

Examiners report
N/A

42. [1 mark]
Markscheme
C

Examiners report
Many candidates did not answer this question, it is possible that they did not have time to finish the exam.

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