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CHEMISTRY
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Advanced Package Chemistry
PART I: PHYSICAL CHEMISTRY

XI:
SECTION I: SINGLE OPTION CORRECT
1. The ionic product of water is 1 × 10–14 (mol/l)2. The number of H+ ions that present in one millionth
part of 1 ml of pure water is -
(A) 66.9 million (B) 52.2 million (C) 48.3 million (D) 60.3 million
Gas equation PV = nRT is obeyed by :
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2.
(A) only isothermal process (B) only adiabatic process
(C) both (A) and (B) se(D) none of these
3. [H+] and [OH–] ion in a 8 litre solution containing 9.25 gm/l of Ca(OH)2 at 25ºC, is
(A) [OH–] = 0.25 ×10–7, [H+] = 4 ×10–7 (B) [OH–] = 0.25, [H+] = 4 ×10–14
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(C) [OH ] = 1.25 ×10 , [H ] = 4 ×10
– –7 + –7
(D) [OH–] = 2.5, [H+] = 4 ×10–14
4. The degree of hydrolysis of a salt of weak acid and weak base in its 0.1 M solution is found to be
a
50%. If the molarity of the solution is 0.2 M, the percentage hydrolysis of the salt should be
(A) 100% (B) 50% (C) 25% (D) none of these
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5. Molar solubility of As2S3 in 0.3 M Al 2S3 solution in terms of solubility product K sp or As2S3 is–
C
K sp K sp K sp K sp
(A) (B) 3 (C) (D) 3
2.916 2.916 1. 2 1.2
6. In a gaseous mixture at 20°C the partial pressure of the components are, :

H2 : 150 Torr , CO 2 : 200 Torr , CH4 : 300 Torr , C2H4 : 100 Torr,
Volume percent of H2 is :
(A) 26.67 (B) 73.33 (C) 80.00 (D) 20
7. The volume of water needed to dissolve 1 g of BaSO 4(Ksp = 1.1 × 10–10) at 25ºC is –
(A) 820 litre (B) 410 litre (C) 205 litre (D) none of these
8. The wavelength of a spectral line for an electronic transition is inversely related to :

(A) Number of electrons undergoing transition
(B) the nuclear charge of the atom
(C) the velocity of an electron undergoing transition
(D) the difference in the energy levels involved in the transition
9. Number of moles of electrons taken up when 1 mole of NO 3– ions is reduced to 1 mole of NH 2OH
is :
(A) 2 (B) 4 (C) 5 (D) 6
CatalyseR Eduventures (India) Pvt. Ltd. 1

10. Amount of oxalic acid present in a solution can be determined by its titration with KMnO4 solution in the
presence of H2SO4. The titration gives unsatisfactory result when carried out in the presence of HCl,
because HCl :
(A) furnishes H+ ions in addition to those from oxalic acid.
(B) reduces permanganate to Mn2+.
(C) oxidises oxalic acid to carbon dioxide and water.
(D) gets oxidised by oxalic acid to chlorine.
11. Which of the following statements is not true ?
(A) The ratio of the mean speed to the rms speed is independent of the temperature.
(B) The square of the mean speed of the molecules is equal to the mean squared speed at
a certain temperature.
(C) Mean kinetic energy of the gas molecules at any given temperature is independent of
the mean speed.
(D) The difference between rms speed and mean speed at any temperature for different
gases diminishes as larger and yet larger molar masses are considered.
12. If velocity of an electron in  orbit of H atom is V, what will be the velocity of 3rd orbit of Li+2
(A) V (B) V/3 (C) 3 V (D) 9 V
13. When one gram mole of KMnO 4 reacts with HCl, the volume of chlorine liberated at NTP will be
(A) 11.2 litres (B) 22.4 litres (C) 44.8 litres (D) 56.0 litres
14. A solution contains both Na2CO 3 and NaHCO 3 was treated with excess of CaCl 2 solution and
filtered. The precipitate weighed m 1 grams. On adding NaOH in drops to the filtrate avoiding
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excess, a further m 2 grams was precipitated. If after adding excess CaCl 2, the solution (had not
been filtered) but was simply boiled and then filtered, what would be the total weight of the precipitate
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(A) (m 1 + m 2) grams (B) (m 1 + m 2/2) grams
(C) (m 1 + m 2) /2 grams (D) (m 2+m 1/2) grams
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15. 0.7 g of a sample of Na2CO 3. x H2O were dissolved in water and the volume was made to 100 ml
20 ml of this solution required 19.8 ml of N/10 HCl for complete neutralization. The value of x
is :
a
(A) 7 (B) 3 (C) 2 (D) 5

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16. Consider the following statements : The coefficient B in the virial equation of state
 B C 
PVm = RT 1   2  .....
C
 Vm Vm 
A : is independent of temperature
B : is equal to zero at Boyle temperature
C : has the dimension of molar volume
Which of the above statements are correct?
(A) A and B (B) A and C (C) B and C (D) A, B and C
17. A thermodynamic process is shown in the following figure. The pressure and volumes corresponding
to some point in the figure are :
PA = 3 × 104 Pa , PB = 8 × 104 Pa , VA = 2 × 10–3 m 3 , VD = 5 × 10–3 m 3
In the process AB, 600 J of heat is added to the system and in BC, 200 J of heat is added to the
system. The change in internal energy of the system in the process AC would be :
(A) 560 J (B) 800 J (C) 600 J (D) 640 J

18. Which of the following statements is correct in the contact of 3d z2 orbital?
(A) This orbital consists of two positive lobes along the ± z axis and a negative doughnut in the xy
plane.
(B) This orbital consists of two negative lobes along the ± z axis and a positive doughnut in the xy
plane.
(C) This orbital consists of one negative lobe along the ± z axis and a negative doughnut in the xy
plane.
(D) This orbital consists of one positive lobe along the ± z axis and a negative doughnut in the xy
plane.
19. 20 gm of N2 at 300 K is compressed reversibly and adiabatically from 20 dm 3 to 10 dm 3. Change

in internal energy for the process is :
(A) 284.8 J (B) 142.46 J (C) 1424.69 J (D) 3462.89 J
20. Which of the following is path function as well as an extensive property

(A) temperature (B) internal energy
(C) molar heat capacity (D) heat capacity
21. The shapes of PCl 4+, PCl 4– and AsCl 5 are respectively:
(A) square planar, tetrahedral and see-saw
(B) tetrahedral, see-saw and trigonal bipyramidal
(C) tetrahedral, square planar and pentagonal bipyramidal
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(D) trigonal bipyramidal, tetrahedral and square pyramidal
22. Number of electrons having l+ m value equal to zero in 24Cr may be:
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(A) 14 (B) 10 (C) 13 (D) 12
If the enthalpy change for the reaction

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23.
CH4(g) + Cl 2(g) CH3Cl(g) + HCl(g)
H = –25 kcal. bond energy of C – H is 20 kcal mol –1 greater than the bond energy of C – Cl and
a
bond energies of H – H and H–Cl are same in magnitude, then for the reaction :
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1 H (g) + 1 Cl (g)  HCl(g) ; H = ?

2 2 2 2
(A) –22.5 kcal/mol (B) –20.5 kcal/mol (C) –32.5 kcal/mol (D) –12.5 kcal/mol
C
24. The main factor responsible for weak acidic nature of B - F bond in BF 3 is ;
(A) Large electronegativity of F (B) Three centred two electron bond in BF 3
(C) P - d back bonding (D) P - P back bonding
25. Among the following species, identify the isostructural pairs : NF 3, NO 3–, BF 3, H3O +, HN3
(A) [NF 3, NO 3–] and [BF 3, H3O +] (B) [NF 3, HN3] and [NO 3–, BF 3]
(C) [NF 3, H3O ] and [NO 3 , BF 3]
+ –
(D) [NF 3, H3O +] and [HN3, BF 3]
26. Bond length of HCl is 1.275 Å (q = 4.8 × 10 –10 e.s.u.) if  = 1.02 D then HCl is :
(A) 100 % ionic (B) 83% covalent (C) 50% covalent (D) 40% ionic

SECTION II: MORE THAN ONE OPTION CORRECT
27. The dissociation of ammonium carbonate may be represented by the reaction
NH2COONH4(s) 2NH3(g) + CO 2
Hº for the forward reaction is negative. the equilibrium will shift from right to left if there is
(A) a decrease in pressure
(B) an increase in temperature
(C) an increase in the concentration of ammonia
(D) an increase in the concentration of carbondioxide
28. Which of the following samples of reducing agents is /are chemically equivalent to 25 ml of 0.2 N
KMnO4 to be reduced to Mn2+ and water.
(A) 25 ml of 0.2 M FeSO4 to be oxidized to Fe3+
(B) 50 ml of 0.1 M H3AsO3 to be oxidized to H3AsO4
(C) 25 ml of 0.1 M H2O2 to be oxidized to H+ and O2
(D) 25 ml of 0.1 M SnCl2 to be oxidized to Sn4+
29. The equilibrium of which of the following reaction will not be disturbed by the addition of an inert
gas at constant volume
(A) H2(g) + I 2(g) 2HI(g) (B) N2O 4(g) 2NO 2(g)
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(C) CO(g) + 2H2(g) CH3OH(g) (D) C(s) + H2O(g) CO(g) + H2(g)
30.
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1.2kg of iron pyrites (FeS 2) are roasted to convert sulphur in (FeS 2) to SO 2 with 80% efficiency. It
is then oxidised to SO 3 which is then absorbed in water to give H2SO 4. If the maximum and minimum
possible efficiencies are 60% and 30% respectively for any of these two steps, which of the
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following amounts of H2SO 4 could possibly be obtained ? (Fe = 56, S = 32)
(A) 0.8 mol (B) 1.5mol (C) 3.6mol (D) 5.7mol
a
31. Four gas balloons A, B, C, D of equal volumes containing H 2, H2O, CO, CO 2 respectively were
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pricked with needle and immersed in a tank containing CO 2. Which of them will shrink after some
time.
(A) A (B) B (C) C (D) Both A and D
C
32. Heisenberg uncertainty principle is not valid for

(A) moving electrons (B) motor car
(C) stationary particles (D) all
33. When HCl(g) is passed through a saturated solution of common salt, pure NaCl is precipitated
because
(A) HCl is highly soluble in water
(B) the ionic product [Na+] [Cl –] exceeds its solubility product (K sp )
(C) the Ksp of NaCl is lowered by the presence of Cl – ions
(D) HCl causes precipitation
34. Which is true about an electron

(A) Rest mass of electron is 9.1 × 10–28 gm
(B) Mass of electron increases with the increase in velocity
(C) Molar mass of electron in 5.48 × 10–4 gm/mole
(D) e/m of electrron is 1.7 × 108 coulomb/gm

35. Boyle’s law is represented by -
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
36. The incorrect order of decreasing oxidation number of S in compounds is :

(A) H2S2O7 > Na2S4O6 > Na2S2O3 > S8 (B) H2SO5 > H2SO3 > SCl2 > H2S
(C) SO3 > SO2 > H2S > S8 (D) H2SO4 > SO2 > H2S > H2S2O8
37. According to Charles’s law :
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1  dV   dT  1 V 
(A) V (B)   K (C)
se   K (D)   20
T  dT  P  dV  P T T 
38. Which of the following are correct statements?

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(A) vander Waal’s constant a is a measure of attractive force
(B) vander Waal’s constant b is also called covolume or excluded volume
(C) b is expressed in L mol –1
a
(D) a is expressed in atm L2 mol –2

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39. Which of the following will suppress the ionization of phthalic acid in an aqueous solution
(A) KCl (B) H2SO 4 (C) HNO 3 (D) NaOH
C
40. Following are the atoms having the number of neutrons and protons as given below :
Atoms Protons Neutron
A 8 8
B 8 9
C 8 10
D 7 8
E 7 9
Select incorrect conclusion(s) :
(A) A, B and C, D are isotopes (B) A and D are isotones
(C) A and E are isobars (D) A and B are isodiaphers
41. Three gases of densities A(0.82), B(0.25), C(0.51) are enclosed in a vessel of 4L capacity. Pick up
the correct statement :
(A) Gas A will tend to lie at the bottom
(B) The number of atoms of various gases A, B, C are same
(C) The gases will diffuse to form homogeneous mixture.
(D) The average kinetic energy of each gas is same.

42. In which of the following reaction is K p < Kc
(A) CO(g) + Cl 2(g) COCl 2(g) (B) CO(g) + 3H2(g) CH4(g) + H2O(g)
(C) 2BrCl(g) Cl 2(g) + Br2(g) (D) I 2(g) 2I(g)
43. Which of the following gases deviate fairly largely form ideal behaviour:
(A) CO 2 (B) SO 2 (C) C2H6 (D) None
44. Which is correct graph ( K.E. is kinetic energy of photo electron)
(A) (B)
(C) (D) None of these
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45. Which of the following are redox reactions ?
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(A) NaIO 3 + NaHSO 3  NaHSO 4 + Na2SO 4 + I 2 + H2O
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(B) FeCl 3 + K4[Fe(CN)6]  KCl + Fe4[(Fe(CN)6] 3
(C) AgCl + Na2S2O 3 Na3[Ag(S2O 3)2] + NaCl
(D) NaBiO 3 + MnSO 4 + HNO 3  HMnO 4 + Bi(NO 3)3 + NaNO 3 + Na2SO 4 + H2O
a
The oxidation number of Cr = +6 in

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46.
(A) FeCr2O 4 (B) KCrO 3Cl (C) CrO 5 (D) [Cr(OH)4] –
Which of the following have planar structure ?

C
47.
(A) I 3– (B) H2O 2 (C) Ni(CO)4 (D) [Ni(CN)4] 2–
48. Which have odd-order bond ?

(A) O 2+ (B) O 2– (C) NO (D) H2+
49. Which of the following mathematical relations are correct for an ideal gas?
 H   H   C V 
(A)   =0 (B)   = 0 (C) Cp – CV > R (D)   =0
 V  T  p  T  V  T
50. Which has (have) zero value of dipole moment
(A) [Ni(CN)4] 2– (B) CHCl 3 (C) CO 2 (D)
51. The standard molar enthalpy of CO 2 is equal to

(A) the standard molar enthalpy of combustion of gaseous carbon
(B) the standard molar enthalpy of combustion of carbon (graphite)
(C) the sum of the standard molar enthalpies of formation of CO and O 2
(D) - 394 kJ mol -1

52. Three centre-two electron bonds exist in –
(A) B2H6 (B) Al 2(CH3)6 (C) BeH2(s) (D) BeCl 2 (s)
53. Which of the following statements are correct ?

(A) the entropy of an isolated system increases in an irreversible process
(B) the entropy of an isolated system remains unchanged in a reversible process
(C) Entropy can never decrease
(D)  S(system) as well as (surroundings) are negative quantities
54. The factors that influence the heat of reaction are :

(A) the physical state of reactants and products
(B) the temperature
(C) the pressure or volume
(D) the method by which the final products are obtained
55. The condition for spontaneity in a chemical reaction is

(A) (G)T, p 0 (B) (U)S, V 0 (C) (H)S, p 0 (D) (S)U, V 0
SECTION III: COMPREHENSIONS

COMPREHENSION # 1
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Paragraph for Questions Nos. 56 to 58
ˆ ) for every physically observable property like
In the quantum mechanics there is operator ( A se
momentum (linear or angular), position, K.E., total energy etc., and whenever the function () is
operated upon by the operator of any property , we get back  multiplied by a constant (a) which is
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the value of the property under consideration. The function  obeying the condition is called
eigenfunction of the operator Â and the constant “a” is called eigen-value. Mathematically
a
Â  a 
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This equation is called eigen-value equation.

The Schrodinger wave equation is the energy eigen value equation. The operator for total energy is
called Hamiltonion operator (H) defined as
C
h2   2 2 2 
H   2  2  2  2  V
8 m  x y z 
Where V = PE, m = mass of microparticle.
Solving Schrodinger wave equation for H-atom after putting proper value of V, we get wave functions
() and corresponding energy values. Each wave function denotes an orbital. 2 measures the
probability of finding the electron and 2dx gives the probability if finding the electron in the region x
and x + dx. 4r22(r)dr gives the probability of finding the electron in spherical shell of thickness dr at
a distance r from the nucleus. A plot of radial distribution function [4r22(r)] vs. distance from the
nucleus (r) gives the radial probability distribution curve of electron. For 1s and 2s orbitals each containing
only one electron, these curves are as given below
4 r 2 2 (r ) 4 r 2 2 (r )
1s 2s
r r

The wave functions of 1s and 2s orbitals of hydrogenic atom or ion are given below:
1/ 2
Z
1s = 2   e Zr / a 0
 a0 
1/ 2
 Z   Zr   Zr / 2a 0
2s =   2  e
 2a 0   a0 
In 2s-orbital there occurs a point at the radius at which curve touches X-axis. Here the probability of
finding the electron is zero. This is called radial node.
On the basis of the above write-up, answer the following questions:
d2
56. Which of the functions given below is not the eigen function of the operator ?
dx 2
(A) e–3x (B) sin4x (C) 4x2 (D) cos2x
57. An electron moves along x-axis and restricted to move only between x = 0 and x = L. Hence
L L L L
2 2 2 2
(A) 
0
dx  1 (B) 
0
dx  0 (C) 
0
dx  1 (D) 
0
dx  1
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58. An electron is moving along X-axis in absence of any external field. The energy eigen-value of electron
with  = e–5x, is se
25 h 2 3 h2 h2 h2
(a) (b) (c) (d)
8  2m 8  2m 8 2 m 4 2 m
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COMPREHENSION # 2
a

From the Bohr’s model and De-broglie’s theory it can be proved that number of waves in an orbit is
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equal to its principal quantum nos.(n). The orbital motion of the electron around the nucleus is
described by angular momentum of the electron which is characterised by azimuthal quantum
number, l. l have all possible whole number values from 0 to n – 1 and magnitude of angular
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momentum is given by ( /   1)1/ 2  . The various sub shells are distributed as s, p, d, f, …

according to the value of l = 0, 1, 2, 3, … respectively.
Angular momentum about the z-axis is quantised and given by z-component of angular momentum
= m  . where m   (  1)1/ 2 cos  and is known as magnetic quantum number. Possible values
of m range from –l through 0 to +l, thus making a total of 2l + 1 values. The possible values of m
indicates the number of degenerate orbitals in a given energy sub level within a principal energy
level.
59. When the value of l = 1, then the values of  are

(A) 60°, 120°, 180° (B) 0, 90°, 180° (C) 45°, 90°, 135° (D) 30°, 60°, 90°
60. The difference between orbital angular momentum of a 2s and a 3d electron is

(A) 2 (B) 0 (C) 4 (D) 6

COMPREHENSION # 3
The radial probability at a distance r from the nucleus is given by the function 4r22dr. In this function,
as the probability factor 2 decreases, the volume factor 42dr increases with increse in value of r. The
probability increases gradually as the distance increases, goes to a maximum and then begins to
decrease. For 1s orbital of hydrogen atom, the maximum value is found by differentiating adial probability
distribution with respect to r and setting the derivative equal to zero as
dP  r  4  2r 2 
    2r  e2e/a0  0 .
dr a30  a0 
The radial motion of an electron in an atom is controlled by the centrifugal force  (   1) / r 3 as

well as by coulombing force of attraction (–Ze2/r2) or
 (   1 ) Ze
 2 0
r3 r
61. The probability of radial distribution function of an electron is zero becomes possible when distance r
is equal to
0.529
(A) 0.529Å (B) zero (C) 2  0.529Å (D) Å
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2
62. In two different cases under similar conditions, an electron tends to stay farther from the nucleus in
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case I with respect to case II. It shows that
(A) Orbital angular momentum in, case I  case II
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(B) Orbital angular momentum in, case I  case II
(C) Orbital angular momentum in, case I = case II
(D) None of the above
a
63. The electron distribution in 1s orbital is found to be symmetrical. Considering  and  be the angles
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involved in polar coordinate, it may be concluded that:

(A)  1s2 is dependent on  (B) is dependent on 
C
(C) is dependent on both  and  (D) is independent of  and 
COMPREHENSION # 4
In CBSE XII, a question was asked which reads as follows:
Dry air contains 80% N2 and 20% O2 by volume. Calculate density of dry air at 27°C and 1 atm
pressure.
If relative humidity of moist air is 50% and V.P. of water at 27°C is 40 mm. Calculate the density (g/L)
of moist air also. Assume ideal behavior of each gas. Relative humidity is defined as the ratio of the
partial pressure of moisture in air to its V.P.
Three students “X”, “Y” and “Z” solved 1st part of the problem in the following three different ways:
Solution of “X”: One litre dry air contains 0.8 L N2 and 0.2 L O2 at the partial pressure of 0.8 atm and
0.2 atm respectively while each at 27°C i.e. 300K. He then calculated number of mole (n) of each gas
using the ideal gas equation PV = nRT. He then multiplied number of mole with respective MW to get
the mass of each gas in gram. Adding the masses of the two gases he was able to find the mass of 1
litre air in gram and the same he reported as the density of dry air.
Solution of “Y”: One litre dry air contains 0.8 L N2 and 0.2 L O2 each at a pressure of 1.0 atm and
temperature of 27°C i.e. 300K. Thereafter he followed the same method as adpted by “X” and reported
the density of dry air.

Solution of “Z”:One litre dry air may be supposed to contain 1.0 L each of N2 and O2 at 27°C but at
a partial pressure of 0.8 atm and 0.2 atm, respectively. Then he followed the method as adopted by his
aforesaid guys, and reported the density of dry air.
64. The correct solution(s) is (are) that of:

(A) both X and Y (B) both Y and Z (C) All the three (D) Only X
65. If solution “X” is wrong what conceptual mistake he has committed:

(A) Boyle’s law is violated (B) Charle’s law is violated
(C) Graham’s law is violated (D) There is no violation of any gas law
66. If solution “Y” is wrong what conceptual mistake he has committed:

(A) Dalton’s law of partial pressure is violated
(B) Avogadro’s hypothesis has been violated
(C) Boyle’s law is violated
(D) There is no violation of any gas law
67. Solution of “Z” is wrong because

(A) Boyle’s law is violated (B) Charle’s law is violated
(C) Avogadro’s hypothesis is violated (D) The solution is correct
COMPREHENSION # 5
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Compressibility factor (Z): Real gases deviate from ideal behaviour due to the following two faulty
assumptions of kinetic theory of gases.
i)
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Actual volume occupied by the gas molecule is negligible as compared to the total volume of
the gases.
ii) Forces of attraction and repulsion among the gas molecules are negligible.
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To explain, the extent of deviation of the real gas from ideal behaviour in terms of compressibility
or, compression factor (Z), which is function of pressure and temperature for real gases.
a
P0 V0
Z
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nRT
For ideal gases Z = 1
For real gases either Z  1 or Z  1
C
When Z  1, then it is less compressible because force of repulsion dominates over force of attraction
when Z  1, force of attraction dominates over the force repulsion and it is more compressible.
Graph in between Z & P is shown as under
t  0 C
H2 N2
CH 4 CO 2
Z 1 ideal gas
On increasing temperature, Z increases and approaches to unity. Graph between Z and P at different
temperature for the same gases are as under:

T4
T3
T2
T1
Z 1 Ideal gas
68. Which of the following statements are correct?

(A) The compressibility factor for ideal gases dependent on temperature and pressure.
 dZ 
(B)  dP  for real gas is independent of pressure.
 T
(C) for all real gases have same value
(D) for different real gases have different values.
Which of the following is the correct order of temperature shown in the above graph Z vs P for the
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69.
same gases.
(A) T4  T3  T2  T1 se(B) T1  T2  T3  T4
(C) T1  T2  T-4  T3 (D) T3  T-4  T2  T1
70. Which of the following statements is correct for gas A having molar mass 16 g and density 0.75 g/litre
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at 2 atmospheric pressure and 27°C temperature?
(A) Force of attraction are dominating than force of repulsion among the gas molecules.
(B) Force of repulsion are dominating than force of attraction among the gas molecules.
a
(C) Gas molecules are behaving ideally

(D) None
at
COMPREHENSION # 6
C

The van der waal’s equaiton of state for 1 mole real gas is ... (i)
The virial equation for 1 mole real gas is as under:
Where A, B and C are constants which are known as 2nd, third and fourth virial coefficients respectively.
Since we known that V=f(P, T, n]
Since ideal gas equation for 1 mole ideal gas is
PV = RT ...(ii)
The temperature at wihch real gas obey ideal gas equation is known as Boyle’s temperature i.e. TB.
71. If equation (ii) be one of the form of equation (i), then value of “A” will be
a b a RT  b
(A) b (B) a (C) RT  (D)
RT RT b a
72. Which of the following is the correct statement about the Boyle’s temperature (TB)?
(A) Temperature at which second virial coefficient becomes zero
(B) Temperature at which first virial coefficient becomes zero
a
(C) The value of TB is equal to
Rb
(D) Both (a) and (c) are correct

73. The ideal gas equation for 1 mole of ideal gas is given as under
PV = nRT
The graph is drawn in between P and T for different isochoric process, or different constant volume,
which gives different straight lines shown as under:
V4
V3
P V2
V1
T
then which of the following is the correct order of volume?
(A) V4  V3  V2  V1 (B) V1  V2  V3  V4
(C) V1  V2  V4  V4 (D) V2  V1  V3  V4
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COMPREHENSION # 7
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Diffusion is the one of the most striking property of the gas, due to which one gas intermixes with other
against gravity at low pressure gradient at constant temperature. And according to Graham, rate of
diffusion of a diffusing gas is inversely proportional to the square root of the density or molecular mass
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of the diffusing gas i.e.,
1 1
r  ...(i)
a
d m
The rate of diffusion inside an open tube is directly proportional to the length
at
C
v A
r     length
t  t 
r  length
But, effusion is a special kind of diffusion, possible at high pressure gradient only. It is a kind of forced
diffusion. Infact, incase of effusion rate of intermixing will be influenced by pressure gradient. So, in
effusion pressure must be considered i.e.,
P P
r 
m d
74. At the start of an experiment one end of a U-tube of 6 mm glass tubing is immersed in conc. NH3
solution and the other end is immersed in conc. HCl solution. At the point in the tube where vapours of
NH3 and HCl meet, a white cloud of NH4Cl (s) forms. At what fraction of the distance along the tube
from the NH3 solution does the white cloud first form?
(A) 0.068 (B) 6.82 (C) 0.422 (D) 4.22

75. A long cylindrical glass tube, equipped with a process disc at the centre contain CH4 gas at 5 atm. on
one side and He gas at 2 atm on the other side of the disc as shown in the diagram.
CH4 He
5 atm. 2 atm.
Disc is permeable to both gases and rate of diffusion is directly proportional to the gas pressure and
inversely proportional to square root of molar masses as;
dP kP
 
dt M
If K for the CH4 is 2.5  10–2 sec–1, determine time after which pressure of CH4 chamber will drop to 4
atm?
(A) 8.778 sec. (B) 87.88 sec. (C) 48.2 sec. (D) 40 sec.
76. If a space capsule is filled with Ne gas at 1 atm and 290K. The gas effuses through a pin-hole into
outer space at such a rate that the pressure drops by 0.30 torr/s. If the capsule were filled with NH3 at
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the same temperature and pressure what would be the rate of pressure drop?
(A) 0.33 torr/s (B) 0.20 torr/s (C) 0.13 torr/s (D) 3.3 torr/s
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COMPREHENSION # 8
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“Percentage of available chlorine in the sample of blaching power”
Bleaching powder is a mixture of calcium hypochlorite (CaOCl 2) and the basic chloride
CaCl2.Ca(OH)2.H2O free slaked lime is also present in addition.
a
Available chlorine in bleaching powder is the amount of chlorine liberated by the action of dilute acids
at
on bleaching powder according to the equation.

OCl– + Cl– + 2H+ 
The available chlorine is expressed as the percentage by weight of the bleaching powder. It is measured
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by iodometric titration. The bleaching powder solution or suspension is treated with an excess of KI
and then acidified with acetic acid where I2 is liberated
OCl– + 2I– + 2H+  Cl– + I2 + H2O
The liberated I2 is determined with standard Na2S2O3 solution using starch as indicator near the end
point
I 2  2S2 O 32  
 2I   S4 O 62 
77. 0.05 moles of CaOCl2 reacts with excess of KI and liberated I2is titrated with V ml of 0.1M hypo
solution then value of V is
(A) 500 ml (B) 1000 ml (C) 2000 ml (D) 250 ml
78. A 20 ml (specific gravity 1.02) of chlorine water is treated with excess of KI and the liberated Iodine
required 25 ml of 0.2 N Na2S2O3. The percentage of free chlorine in chlorine water is
(A) 0.87 (B) 87 (C) 0.78 (D) 0.82
79. The volume of 0.2 M Na2S2O3 equivalent to I2 liberated by the oxidation of excess KI by 10 millimole
of bleaching powder (pure) is
(A) 50 ml (B) 20 ml (C) 25 ml (D) 100 ml

COMPREHENSION # 9
Like acid base titration, in redox titration also, the equivalence point is reached when the reducing
agent is completely oxidized by the oxidizing agent. But contrary to the acid-base titrations, oxidizing
agents can themselves be used as internal indicator in redox titration e.g. Cr2O72– (orange yellow),
Cr3+ (green), MnO4– (purple), Mn2+ (light pink), where strength of the solution may be expressed as
molarity i.e. number of moles of solute per litre of solution.
80. In a titration experiment, a student finds that 23.48 ml of a NaOH solution are needed to neutralize
0.5468g of KHP (molecular formula KHC8H4O4). What is the concentration in molarity of NaOH solution?
(A) 0.114 M (B) 0.228M (C) 0.057M (D) 0.028 M
81. A 16.42 ml volume of 0.1327M KMnO4 solution is needed to oxidize 25.00 ml of a FeSO4 solution in
an acidic medium. What is the number of moles of FeSO4 being oxidized for the reaction
5Fe2  MnO4  8H  Mn2  5Fe3   4H2 O
(A) 2.18  10–2 ml (B) 1.09  10–2 ml (C) 0.545  10–2 ml (D) 0.272  10–2 ml
82. A purple coloured solution is added from a burette to FeSO4 solution kept in the flask. After
sometime, the purple colour changes to light pink. The ion formed from that solution is
(A) MnO4 (B) Fe2+ (C) Fe3+ (D) Mn2+
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83. Concentrated aqueous sulphuric acid is 98% H2SO4 by mass and has a density of 1.84 g/ml. What
volume of the concentrated acid is required to make 5 litre of 0.50M H2S4 solution.
se
(A) 271.7 ml (B) 13.5 ml (C) 135.85 ml (D) 27.1 ml
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COMPREHENSION # 10
Double Titration
a
1. Methyl orange as an indicator

The volume of 0.1 NHCl used in the titration will correspond the neutralization as directed.
at
NaHCO3 + HCl  NaCl + CO2 + H2O (colour change)

C
Na2CO3 + 2HCl  NaCl + CO2 + H2O (colour change)

NaOH + HCl  NaCl + H2O (colour change)
The volume of 0.1M NaOH in the titration will neutralize as directed

HA (mono basic acid) + NaOH  NaA (colour change)
H2A (di basic acid) + NaOH  NaHA (colour change)
H3A (tribasic acid) + NaOH  NaH2A (colour change)
2. Phenolphthelien as an indicator
The volume of 0.1 NHCl used in the titration will correspond the neutralization as directed.
NaHCO3 + HCl  (no colour change)
Na2CO3 + HCl  NaHCO3 (colour change)
NaOH + HCl  NaCl (colour change)
The volume of 0.1M NaOH in the titration will neutralize as directed

HA (mono basic acid) + NaOH  NaA (colour change)
H2A (di basic acid) + 2NaOH  Na2A (colour change)
H3A (tribasic acid) + 2NaOH  Na2HA (colour change)

84. 0.01 mole of H3PO4 and 0.01 mole H3PO2 reacts with V ml standard NaOH in presence of
phenolpthelien indicator volume of NaOH used is
(A) 500 ml (B) 400 ml (C) 300 ml (D) 200 ml
85. 20 ml of x M HCl neutralizes completely 10 ml of 0.1 M solution and a further 5 ml of 0.2 M

solution to methyl orange end point. The value of x is:
(A) 0.167 M (B) 0.133M (C) 0.15 M (D) 0.2 M
86. Certain moles of is dissolved in excess of NaOH. The resulting solution is divided into two equal
parts. One part needs 30 ml of 2.5 N HCl and other part needs 40 ml of 2.5 N HCl using
phenolphthalein and methyl orange indicator respectively. The mass of dissolved is:
(A) 2.5  10 2 (B) 5 102 (C) 10  102 (D) 1.5  102
COMPREHENSION # 11
Bond length is the average distance between the nuclei of the two atoms held by a bond. This represents
the internuclear distance corresponding to minimum potential energy for the system. Main factors
which affect the bond length are given below:—
i) Multiple bonds are shorter than corresponding single bonds
ii) Sometimes single bond distances are some what larger than double of their respective covalent
radii (e.g. F2). It is due to strong repulsive interaction between the lone-pair electrons on adjacent
R
atoms.
iii) Some times single bond distances are some what shorter than double of their respective covalent
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radii because bonds acquire some partial double bond character. This normally happens when
one atom having vacant orbital and another atom containing lone pair. It is also possible it
become shorter due to high ionic character in the covalent bond.
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87. Which is not true about the N – N bond length among the following species
I. H2N — NH2 II. N2
a

III. H N— NH 2 IV. N2O
at
(A) N — N bond length is shortest in II

(B) N — N bond length in I is shorter than that of in III
C
(C) N — N bond length in III is shorter than that of in I

(D) N — N bond length IV is intermediate between I and III
88. The correct order about of C—O bond length is

I. CO, II. CO2 III. CO 3
2
(A) II  I  III (B) III  II  I (C) I  II  III (D) I  III  II
89. The bond angle is Cl2O is more than that in F2O because of so many reasons like
(a) p – d overlap in Cl2O which is not possible in F2O
(b) There is no lp – lp repulsion in Cl2O which is present in F2O
(c) F is more electronegative than oxygen while Cl is less electronegative than oxygen
The correct reason is (are)
(A) both a and b (B) only a (C) only b (D) all the three

COMPREHENSION # 12
“Dimethyl glyoxime is an important reagent, which is used in the detection of Ni2+ ion in fourth group of
qualitative analysis and also in its gravimetric estimation. The compound formed by Ni 2+ ions with
dimethyl glyoxime is diamagnetic with the structure as given below.
O H O
a
H3C C N N C CH3
Ni b
H3C C N N C CH3
O H O
‘a’ and ‘b’ are c—c bond length”.
90. Wchih of the following is correct regarding the bond length ‘a’ and ‘b’.
(A) a = b (B) a > b (C) b > a (D) none of the above
91. The necessary conditions for the formation of intramolecular hydrogen bonding is
(A) The ring formed as a result of hydrogen bond should be planar
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(B) A five or six membered ring should be formed
(C) Interacting atoms should be placed in such a way that there is minimum strain during the ring
formation se
(D) All of these
92. The atomic orbitals which the central atom is using in hybridisation are:
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(A) 4s, 4px ,4py and 4pz (b) 3dz2, 4s, px and 4py
a
(C) 3dx2  y 2 , 4s, 4px and 4py (d) 3dx2 y 2 , 4s, 4py and 4pz
at
COMPREHENSION # 13
C
The formal charge is the difference between the number of valence electrons in an isolated (i.e. free)
atom and the number of electrons assigned to that atom in a Lewis structure. While as a result of
polarization, the molecule possesses a dipole moment which is the product of charge on the dipole
and distance between them. For a molecule, the net dipole moment is the vector addition of all the
dipole moment. Just as all the covalent bonds have some partial ionic character the ionic bonds also
have partial covalent character. The polarizing power of the cation, the polarisability of the anion and
the extent of distortion of anion are the factors, which determine the percent covalent character of the
ionic bond.
93. Experiment shows that H2O has a dipole moment whereas CO2 has not. Point out the structures which
best illustrate these factor.
(A) O = C = O, H – O – H (B) C ,
O O H O H
O H
O
(C) O C O , H H (D)
C O , C H

94. It has been seen that in O3, the central O atom is bonded to two other oxygen atoms as
1
, O
O O
2 3
Arrange oxygen atoms marked as 1, 2 and 3 in order of their decreasing formal charge:
(A) 123 (B) 132 (C) 123 (D) 213
95. Among LiCl, BeCl2, BCl3 and CCl4, covalent bond character follows the order:
(A) LiCl  BeCl2  BCl3  CCl4 (B) LiCl  BeCl2  BCl3  CCl4
(C) LiCl  BeCl2  CCl4  BCl3 (D) LiCl  BeCl2  BCl3  CCl4
COMPREHENSION # 14
The delpletion of ozone in the stratosphere has been a matter of great concern among scientists in
recent years. It believed that ozone can react with nitric oxide (NO) that is discharged from the high
altitude jet plane. The reaction is:
O3  NO  O2  NO2
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96. If 0.740 g of O3 reacts with 0.670 g of NO, how many gram of NO2 will be produced ?
(A) 0.71 g (B) 0.74 g (C) 0.68 g
se (D) 0.81 g
97. Which compound is the limiting reactant?

(A) NO (B) O3
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(C) Both are in equimolar ratio (D) Both are in stoichiometric ratio
a
98. Number of moles of the excess reactant remaining at the end of the reaction is
(A) 0.007 mol O3 (B) 0.014 mol O3 (C) 0.007 mol NO (D) 0.014 mol NO
at
COMPREHENSION # 15
C
8.7 gm of a sample of is used in a chemical reaction with HCl to release . Released is used to displace
from excess of KI solution. The iodine hence released is estimated using hypo and consumes 100 ml
of hypo solution.. 12.5 ml of same hypo solution is required for complete reaction with 25 ml of 0.5 N
solution.
99. % purity of is
(A) 4.35 (B) 43.5 (C) 50 (D) 6.25
100. Wt. of which may be completely neutralized by the amount of HCl made to react quantitatively with
pure in the sample is
(A) 106 g (B) 10.6 g (C) 5.3 g (D) 53 g
101. Number of milli moles of iodine in the solution used with hypo are
(A) 6.25 (B) 12.5 (C) 10 (D) 20

COMPREHENSION # 16
Whenever any solute is dissolved in a given solvent, a solution is formed . Solution may be
homogeneous or heterogeneous. Homogenous solution is termed as true solution and in this
concentration of solution is defined as mole or mass of solute present in the given weight or
volume of solution. Units which depends on mass are temperature independent while which depends
on volume are temperature dependent. Answer following question after reading passage–
102. Which of the following unit is temperature dependent

(A) molality (B) ppm (C) mole fraction (D) molarity
103. If aqueous solution of KOH contains 28% by weight of KOH hence mole fraction of KOH is
(A) (B) (C) (D)
104. Mass of glucose (C6 H12 O 6 ) present in 50 ml of its 2 molar solution is

(A) 18000 gm (B) 180 gm (C) 18 gm (D) 1800 gm
COMPREHENSION # 17
In a reversible chemical reaction, the rate of forward reaction decreases and that of backward
reaction increases with the passage of time; at equilibrium the rate of forward and backward
R
reactions become same.
Let us consider the formation of SO 3 in the following reversible reaction:
se
2SO 2(g) +O 2(g)  2SO 3(g)
Following graphs are plotted for this reaction:
Graph – 1 Graph - 2
a ly
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Graph - 3

105. In the graph(1), the equilibrium state is reached at:
(A) t 1 (B) t 2 (C) t 3 (D) t4
106. If pressure decreases when the reaction is in the state of equilibrium, then the reaction
may shifted towards–
(A) SO3
(B) SO2 & O2
(C) No change as all the molecules are gases
(D) Not specified
107. The graph(2) tells us that:

(A) equilibrium is never achievable
(B) equilibrium is achieved after the concentrations of reactants and products become equal
(C) equilibrium is achieved before the concentrations of reactants and products become equal
(D) none of these
108. From the graph(3), it can be interpreted that:
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(A) equilibrium is achieved at X (B) reaction is nearer to the completion
(C)  G=0 at X se(D) all of the above
COMPREHENSION # 18
ly
When 306 g of NH4HS is introduced in a 4.1 litre evacuated flask and heated to 227ºC then solid
NH4HS decomposes into gaseous ammonia and hydrogen sulphide. At equilibrium, it is found that 170
gm of H2S are present in the container.
a
109. Mass of solid remaining in the container is -

at
(A) 51 g (B) 136 g (C) 68 g (D) 100 g
110. If after establishment of equilibrium, H 2S is added in the container in such a way that partial
C
pressure of H2S now equals to original total pressure, then partial pressure of NH 3 at new equilibrium
is -
(A) 50 atm (B) 25 atm (C) 100 atm (D) 75 atm
111. If at 227ºC, ammonia also starts decomposing into nitrogen and hydrogen and establishes
equilibrium (2NH3 N2 + 3H2) then Kp for the reaction NH4HS(s) NH3(g) + H2S(g)
and total pressure developed in the container will -
(A) decreaes, increases (B) increases, decreases
(C) no change, no change (D) no change, increases
COMPREHENSION # 19
Law of mass action can also be applied to the study of equilibria in which the substances are not
in the same phase. Considering the decomposition of solid NaHCO 3 to produce solid Na2CO 3,
gaseous CO 2 and H2O.
2NaHCO 3(s) Na2(CO 3(s) + CO 2(g) + H2O (g)
Applying the law of mass action.
[Na2CO3 ][CO2 ][H 2O ]
K C' =
[NaHCO3 ]2

It involves two pure solids, Na2CO 3 and NaHCO 3. It is customary not to include the concentrations
of pure solids in equilibrium expressions.
K'C [NaHCO 3 ]2
= [CO 2] [H2O] or KC = [CO 2] [H2O]
[Na 2 CO3 ]
In terms of partial pressures we have K p = pCO 2 × p H 2O . Similarly, in reactions in which a

reactant or product occurs as a pure liquid phase, the concentration of that substance in the pure
liquid is also constant. As a result, the concentrations of pure solid and pure liquid phases do not
appears in the equilibrium constant expression.
112. Ammonium hydrogen sulphide dissociates according to the equation

NH4HS(s) NH3(g) + H2S(g)
If the observed pressure at equilibrium is 2280 torr atm at 380 K, what is the equilibrium constant
Kp of the reaction?
(A) 1.5 (B) 2.25 (C) 3 (D) 4.5
113. A vessel at 1000 K contains carbon dioxide with a pressure of 0.5 atm. Some of the carbon
dioxide is converted to carbon monoxide on addition of graphite. Calculate the value of K p if total
pressure at equilibrium is 0.8 atm.
(A) 1.8 atm (B) 0.8 atm (C) 3.6 atm (D) 4 atm
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114. A sample of CaCO 3(s) is introduced into a sealed container of volume 0.64 litre and heated to
1000 K until equilibrium is reached. The equilibrium constant for the reaction,
se
CaCO 3(s) CaO(s) + CO 2(g),
is 4 × 10–2 atm at this temperature. Calculate the mass of CaO (in mg) present at equilibrium.
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(A) 3.584 (B) 1.792 (C) 17.92 (D) 35.84
COMPREHENSION # 20
a

at
Buffer Solutions : In general, a buffer solution is one which is resistant to change of pH upon the
addition of a small amount of acid or alkali. Such solutions usually consist of a micture of a weak acid
and salt of its conjugate base, e.g. HAc and NaAc (called acidic buffers), or of a weak base and salt of
C
its conjugate acid, e.g. NH4OH and NH4Cl (called basic buffers). A salt of a weak acid and a weak base,
e.g.NH4Ac, also has a buffer action.
The pH of an acidic buffer and basic buffer is expressed by Henderson-Hasselbalch equations
[conjugate base ] [conjugate acid ]
pH = pKa + log pOH = pKb + log
[weak acid ] [ weak base ]
But limitations of the above equations is that it works only for buffer solutions that fit the following
criteria
* The ratio, [conjugate base] / [weak acid] has a value between 0.1 and 10.
* Both [conjugate base] and [weak acid] exceed Ka by a factor of 100 or more.
The resistance to the charge in pH, on the addition of an acid or alkali is called ‘Buffer action’. This
db
buffer action ismeasured by ‘Buffer capacity’ ( β ). It is expressed as β 
dpH
where dbis no. of moles of base added to one litre buffer solution and dpH is charge in pH. The buffer
capacity ( β ) is maximum when the acid and the salt are pesent in equal concentrations.
115. The acetate-acetic acid buffer is suitable in the pH range (assume Kb of CH3COO– = 10–9)
(A) 8 – 10 (B) 4 – 6 (C) 5 – 7 (D) 5.5 – 7.5

116. A solution of pH = 6 will be maintained by acidic buffer. Below are the few options given to a chemist.
Which option will the chemist choose ?
(A) HA (0.1 M), NaA (1M) Kb of A– = 10–9 (B) HB (0.01 M), NaB (1 M) Kb of B– = 10–10
(C) HC (1 M), NaX (0.01 M) Kb of X = 10
– –6
(D) Any one of the above
117. pH of a mixture of 1 M benzoic acid (pKa = 4.20) and 1 M C6H5COONa is 4.5 what is the volume of
benzoic acidrequired to repare a 300 ml buffer [log 2 = 0.3] ?
(A) 200 ml (B) 150 ml (C) 100 ml (D) 50 ml
COMPREHENSION # 21
In a mixture of strong acid and a strong base , concentration of H+ions or OH- ions can be calcu-
lated as
[H+] or [OH-] = meq of S.A -meq of S.B / total volume in ml of the mixture or volume given
At equivalence point of titration of a strong acid with strong base pH=7 at 250C. Salt formed
does not under go salt hydrolysis.
In case of weak acid with strong base, before the equivalence point, pHis calculated using the
concept of acid buffer. At the equivalence point pH is calculated taking into consideration salt hy-
drolysis. pH= ½(pKw+pka+logC)
Beyond the equivalence point, there is excess of base, which mainly determines the pH. In case of
weak base with strong acid, before the equivalence point buffer concept is used, at the equivalence
point salt hydrolysis is taken into consideration.
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pH= ½(pKw-pkb-logC)
In case of titration of weak acid and weak base at equivalence point pH is calculated on the basis of
salt hydrolysis pH= ½(pKw+pka-pkb) se
118. 100ml of 0.1 M mono acid weak base, Kb=2x10-5 is titrated with 0.1M HCl. pH of the reaction mixture
at the titre value of 50ml and 100 ml are respectively.
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(A) 9.3, 9.3 (B) 9.3 , 6.6 (C) 9.3 , 5.3 (D) 4.7, 6.6
119. When 50ml of 0.2M HA ,Ka =1.0x10-5 is mixed with 50ml of 0.2M KOH at 250 C pH of the resulting
a
mixture would be
(A) 9.0 (B) 9.15 (C) 8.50 (D) 8.2
at
120. 100ml of 0.1M HCl is titrated with 0.1M NaOH . The pH of the reaction mixture after the addition of 50ml,
100ml, 150ml are respectively
C
(A) 1.3, 7.0, 9.23 (B) 1.48, 7.0, 12.3 (C) 1.7, 7.0 12.3 (D) 7.0, 1.3, 12.3
COMPREHENSION # 22
K sp of CdS  8 1027 , K sp of ZnS  11021 , K a of H 2 S  110 21
121. Which metal sulphide is precipitated first when H 2 S is added
(A) ZnS (B) CdS

(C) Both at same time (D) Both do not form ppt.
What  H  must be maintained in a saturated H 2 S (0.1M ) to precipitate CdS but not ZnS , if

122.
Cd 2    Zn 2   0.1M initially

(A)  0.1M (B)  0.01M (C)  0.2M (D)  0.02M
123. When ZnS starts precipitating. What is the concentration of Cd 2 is leftt

(A) 8  107 (B) 0.1 (C) 4  1010 (D) 2  109

COMPREHENSION # 23
Entropy is associated with the orientation and distribution of molecules in space. Disordered crystals
have higher entropy than ordered crystals and diffused gases have higher entropy than compressed
gases.
Gas
ui d
Liq
Entropy
id
Sol
O m.p. b.p. Temperature(K)
Entropy is also associated with molecular motion. As the temperature of a substance increases,
random molecular motion increases hence entropy increases. Figure gives variation of entropy
with temperature. At absolute zero (–273ºC) every substance is in solid state whose particle are
rigidly fixed in a crystalline structure. If there is no residual orientational disorder, like that in CO,
entropy of the substance at 0 K will be zero. Third law of thermodynamics states that. “At the
R
absolute zero of temperature the entropy of every substance may become zero and does
become zero in case of perfectly crystalline structure.”
lim s = 0 se
T 0
In case of CO and NO molecules in solid state, there is randomness even at 0 K due to their dipole
moment hence entropy in such cases is not zero even at 0 K.
ly
As the temperature is raised, the molecules begin to vibrate. The number of ways in which the
vibrational energy can be distributed increases with increase in temperature and the entropy of
the solid increases steadily as the temperature increases. At the melting point (m.p.) of a solid,
a
there is a discontinuous jump in entropy because there are many more ways of arranging the
molecules in the liquid than in the solid. An even greater jump in entropy is observed at the boiling
at
point (b.p.) because molecules in the gas are free to occupy a more larger volume and randomness
increases.
C
124. From the figure representing enthalpy change of various transition as indicated, a substance has
maximum enthalpy when present in:
Vapour
Hvap
Liquid Hsub
Hfusion
Solid
(A) solid state (B) liquid state
(C) gaseous state (D) equal in all states
125. For the following reaction, CaCO 3(s)  CaO(s) + CO 2(g)

If at 0 K,  S of this reaction is x cal mol –1 then entropy of CO 2 (g) at 0 K is :
(A) – x cal (B) –2x cal (C) + x cal (D) 0 cal
126. Which has the highest entropy per mol of the substance?
(A) H2 at 25ºC at 1 atm (B) H2 at STP
(C) H2 at 100 K at 1 atm (D) H2 at 0 K at 1 atm

COMPREHENSION # 24
Enthalpy of reaction : It is used for the heat change accompaining any reaction. depending upon
the nature of the reaction the enthalpy of the reaction is named accordingly
For example : In the reaction
CH4(g) + O 2(g)  CO 2(g) + H2O(l) H = –890.4 kJ/mole
This reaction shown that 890.4 kJ of heat is produced when methane is completely burnt it is
known as heat of combustion .
for example: In the reaction
C(s) + O 2(g)  CO 2(g) H = –393.5 kJ/mole
when CO 2(g) is formed from its elements i.e. from C(s) and O 2(g) 393.5 kJ of heat is produced and
the process in heat of formation.
127. The enthalpy of formation of methane from the following data
(i) C(s) + O 2(g)  CO 2(g) H = –393.7 kJ/mole
(ii) H2(g) + 12 O 2(g)  H2O(l) H = –285.8 kJ/mole
(iii) CH4(g) + 2O 2(g)  CO 2(g) + 2H2O(l) H = – 890.4 kJ/mol
(A) –74.9 kJ/mole (B) 54.6 kJ/mole (C) 99.7 kJ/mole (D) –89.6 kJ/mole
128. Calculate the enthalpy of formation of sucrose (C 12H22O 11) from the following data:
(i) C12H22O 11 + 12O 2(g)  12CO 2(g) + 11H2O(l),  H = –5200.7 kJ mol –1
R
(ii) C(s) + O 2(g)  CO 2(g), H = – 394.5 kJ mol –1
(iii)
(A)
H2(g) + 12 O 2(g)  H2O(l),
–10.3 kJ/mole
se (B)
H = – 285.8 kJ mol –1
+ 863.4 kJ/mole
(C) –2677.1 kJ/mole (D) –4321.3 kJ/mole
ly
129. Calculate the enthalpy of combustion of benzene from the following data:
(i) 6C(s) + 3H2(g) C6H6(l) , H = 49.0 kJ mol –1
a
(ii) H2(g) + 12 O 2(g)  H2O(l), H = –285.8 kJ mol –1

at
(iii) C(s) + O 2(g)  CO 2(g), H = –389.3 kJ mol –1

(A) + 463.6 kJ/mole (B) +32.4 kJ/mole
C
(C) –1432.3 kJ/mole (D) –3242.2 kJ/mole
COMPREHENSION # 25
3
Assume perfect gas behaviour in the following isotherm AB. Take C v = R, temperature of the
2
isotherm = 313 K
Pressure, P (in atm)
B D
100
1 A
C
0.1 10
Volume, V (in litres)

130. Number of moles of gas in this system at the start is:
(A) 0.39 mol (B) 0.17 mol (C) 0.78 mol (D) 0.34 mol
131. Work done on the gas along the isotherm AB is:

(A) –4.78 kJ (B) –8 kJ (C) +4.78 kJ (D) + 71 kJ
132. E (Change in internal energy) for path ACB or ADB is:

(A) 19.7 kJ (B) 0.00 kJ (C) 51.2 kJ (D) 3.0 kJ
SECTION IV: MATCH THE FOLLOWING

133. If volume strength of H2O 2 solution is ‘X-V’ then its
Column I Column II
(a) Strength in g/L (i)

X
11.2
(b) Volume strength X (ii)
X
5. 6
17 X
(c) Molarity (iii)
5.6
(d) Normality (iv) 5.6 × N
R
(A) (a) - (iii) , (b) - (i) , (c) - (iv) , (d) - (ii)
(B) (a) - (iv) , (b) - (i) , (c) - (ii) , (d) - (i)
(C) (a) - (iii) , (b) - (iv) , (c) - (i) , (d) - (ii) se
(D) (a) - (iii) , (b) - (ii) , (c) - (iv) , (d) - (i)
134. Column I Column II
ly
Reactant n-factor
(a) H3PO 3 (i) 11/3
(b) H3PO 4 (ii) 2
a
(c) 3MnO 4–  2Mn2+ + Mn+6 (iii) 3

(d) FeC2O 4  Fe3+ + 2CO 2
at
(e) 2H2O 2  O 2 + 2H2O

(A) (a) - (ii) , (b) - (iii) , (c) - (i) , (d) - (iii), (e)-(ii)
C
(B) (a) - (i) , (b) - (ii) , (c) - (iii) , (d) - (ii), (e)-(i)
(C) (a) - (ii) , (b) - (i) , (c) - (ii) , (d) - (iii), (e)-(ii)
(D) (a) - (iii) , (b) - (ii) , (c) - (i) , (d) - (ii), (e)-(iii)
(a) HClO 4 (i) Oxidising agent
(b) H2S (ii) Reducing agent
(c) Na2S2O7 (iii) Oxidising as well as reducing agent
(d) SO 2
(e) HNO 2
(A) (a) - (ii) , (b) - (iii) , (c) - (i) , (d) - (iii), (e)-(ii)
(B) (a) - (i) , (b) - (ii) , (c) - (iii) , (d) - (ii), (e)-(i)
(D) (a) - (i) , (b) - (ii) , (c) - (ii) , (d) - (iii), (e)-(iii)

136. When mixture of 0.1 equivalent of each of the reactants mentioned under column I are reacted
with 1 M HCl solution. in presence of indicator phenolphthalein, the volume required in ml of HCl
solution for complete neutralization will be:
Column I Column II
(a) Na2CO 3 + NaHCO 3 (i) 100 ml
(b) NaOH + NaHCO 3 (ii) 150 ml
(c) Na2CO 3 + Na2CO 3 (iii) 50 ml
(d) Na2CO 3 + NaHCO 3 + NaOH
(A) (a) - (i) , (b) - (iii) , (c) - (i) , (d) - (ii) (B) (a) - (i) , (b) - (ii) , (c) - (iii) , (d) - (ii)
(C) (a) - (ii) , (b) - (i) , (c) - (ii) , (d) - (iii) (D) (a) - (iii) , (b) - (i) , (c) - (ii) , (d) - (ii)

x  d  10
(a) MR on mixing two acidic solutions (i)
M solute
(b) MR on mixing two basic solutions (ii) n × M × V ml
M1V1  M 2 V2
(c) MR on mixing acidic and basic solutions (iii)
V1  V2
M1V1
(d) milliequivalent (iv)
R
V2
se M1V1  M 2 V2
(e) Molarity (v)
V1  V2
(A) (a) - (i) , (b) - (iii) , (c) - (i) , (d) - (ii), (e)-(iv)
ly
(B) (a) - (v) , (b) - (v) , (c) - (iii) , (d) - (ii), (e)-(i, iv)
(D) (a) - (i) , (b) - (ii) , (c) - (ii) , (d) - (iii), (e)-(iii)
a
at
138. Match the following

List I List II
(a) N2(g) + 3H2(g) 2NH3 (P) KP = KC
C
(b) H2(g) + S(s) H2S(g) (Q) KP > KC

(c) H2(g) + I2(g) 2HI(g) (R) KP < KC
(d) 2NaHCO3(s) Na2CO3(s) + CO2(g) + H2O(g)
(A) a-Q, b-P, c-P, d-R (B) a-P, b-P, c-Q, d-R
(C) a-Q, b-R, c-P, d-R (D) a-R, b-P, c-P, d-Q

List I List II
(a) Keq < 1 (P) Affected by temperature
(b) Degree of dissociation (Q) Affected by pressure
(c) Equilibrium constant (R) Kf < Kb
(d) Melting of ice (S) Kf > Kb
(A) a-R, b-P, c-S, d-Q (B) a-R, b-P,Q, c-P, d-P,Q
(C) a-R, b-S c-P, d-Q (D) a-Q, b-R, c-S, d-P

List I (Reaction) List II (units)
(a) N2 + O2 2NO (P) Kc = m/l
(b) N2 + 3H2 2NH3 (Q) no unit
(c) PCl5 PCl3 + Cl2 (R) kp = atm–2
(d) A(l) B(g) (S) Kp = atm
(A) a-Q, b-R,c-P,S, d-P,S (B) a-Q, b-R,c-P, d-S
(C) a-S, b-Q,c-P,R, d-P,S (D) a-R, b-Q,c-P,S, d-S
141. Match the following (Give correct match according to law of equivalence)
Oxidising agent Reducing agent
(A) 25 ml , 0.2 N KMnO 4  Mn2+ (P) 50 ml 0.1 M H3AsO 3  H3AsO 4
(B) 25 ml , 0.1 M K 2Cr2O 7  Cr+3 (Q) 25 ml 0.2 M FeSO 4  Fe+3
(C) 50 ml , 0.1 M Br 2/ H2O  Br –
(R) 25 ml 0.15 M H2O 2  H+ and O 2
(D) 25 ml , 0.1 M HNO 3  NO (S) 25 ml 0.3 M SnCl 2  Sn+4
142. Match the following :

Column I Column II
(A) NH3 (P) Non polar molecule
(B) PF2Cl3 (Q) Polar molecule
(C) XeF2 (R) Bonding taking place in ground state
R
(D) H2S (S) Bonding taking place in excited state.

Column I
se
Column II
(i) A process carried out infinitesimally (a)  E = 0,  H = 0
ly
slowly
(ii) A process in equilibrium (b) sublimation
(iii) A(s) A(g) (c) G = 0
a
(iv) Cyclic process (d) reversible

(A) i-c, ii-d, iii-a, iv-b (B) i-c, ii-d, iii-b, iv-a
at
(C) i-d, ii-c, iii-a, iv-b (D) i-d, ii-c, iii-b, iv-a

C
Column I Column II
(i) Extensive properties P, V & T (a) density (at constant pressure)
(ii) closed system (b) bursting of tyre
(iii) path function (c) additive in nature
(iv) adiabatic (d) E  constant
(v) intensive properties (e) heat
(A) i-c, ii-d, iii-e, iv-b, v-a (B) i-d, ii-c, iii-b, iv-e, v-a
(C) i-c, ii-e, iii-d, iv-b, v-a (D) i-e, ii-d, iii-c, iv-a, v-b

Column I Column II
(i) Exothermic (a)  H positive
(ii) Endothermic (b)  Hf(P) –  Hf(R)
(iii) Heat of reaction (c)  H negative
(iv) Change in free energy (d)  BER –  BEP
(v) Spontaneous process (e)  G negative
(f) H – TS
(A) i-c, ii-a, iii-bd, iv-f, v-e (B) i-d, ii-c, iii-b, iv-e, v-a
(C) i-c, ii-e, iii-d, iv-b, v-a (D) i-e, ii-d, iii-c, iv-a, v-b

Column I Column II
G H S T
(i) non spontaneous, exothermic (a) –ve +ve +ve high
(ii) spontaneous, endothermic (b) +ve +ve +ve low
(iii) non spontaneous, increase in entropy (c) +ve –ve –ve high
(A) i-c , ii-a , iii-b (B) i-a , ii-b , iii-c
(C) i-b , ii-a , iii-c (D) i-c , ii-b , iii-a

Column I Column II
(a) 10 vol H2O 2 (P) 0.05 N
(b) 2.25 g/L H2C2O 4 as reducing agent (Q) 3%(w/v)
(c) 2.5%(w/w) NaOH (density=1.2g/ml) (R) 10 ppm
(d) 5 mg CaF 2 in 500 gm paste (S) 0.625 m
148. Column - Column -

(Pair of species) (Identical Property in pairs of species)
(A) PCl3F2 and PCl2F3 (P) Hybridisation of central atom
(B) BF3 and BCl3 (Q) Shape of molecule/ion
(C) CO2 and CN2–2 (R)  (dipole moment)
R
(D) C6H6 and B3N3H6 (S) Total number of electrons
149. Match the following (1 to 1 matching): se

Column I Column II
(a) Rydberg Formula (P) Weak electrolyte
(b) Ostwald isolation method (Q) Spectrum of H atom
ly
(c) Ostwald–Walker method (R) Determination of kinetic order
(d) Ostwald dilution law (S) Determination of vapor pressure
a
(A) (a – Q, b – R, c – S, d – P) (B) (a – P, b – R, c – S, d – Q)
(C) (a – Q, b – R, c – P, d – S) (D) (a – Q, b – S, c – R, d – P)
at
150. Column-I (Compounds) Column-II (Properties)

(A) XeF4, [ClF4O]–, [XeO6]4–, IF5 (p) same hybridisation of central atom
C
(B) XeO3, [ClF2O]+, ClO3–, SO32– (q) same shape of the molecule/ion
(C) XeO4 , [XeO6]4–, PCl3F2 , I3– (r) all have zero dipole moment
(D) XeO2F2 , ClF3O , XeF+ , ICl– (s) all have atleast one lone pair of electrons on
the central atom
151. Match the column
Column I Column II
Measurement of pressure Device used
(i) Pressure of gas is less than (A) Sphygmomanometer
atm pressure
(ii) Pressure of gas is more than (B) Barometer
atm pressure
(iii) Absolute pressure of gas (C) open arm manometer
(iv) Atmospheric pressure (D) closed arm manometer
(a) (i) - CD; (ii) - CD; (iii)-D ; (iv) - B (b) (i) - AD; (ii) - BC; (iii)-A ; (iv) - B
(c) (i) - AC; (ii) - CD; (iii)-A ; (iv) -D (d) (i) - AD; (ii) - BC; (iii)-B ; (iv) - A

List I List II
Components present in solution Method of determination of pH
(a) CH3COOH + HCl (P) Basic buffer
(b) NH4OH + NH4Cl (Q) Stronge base
(c) NH4Cl (R) Strong acid
(d) NH4OH + NaOH (S) Salt hydrolysis
(A) a-Q, b-R, c-S, d-P (B) a-R, b-S, c-P, d-Q
(C) a-Q, b-S, c-P, d-R (D) a-R, b-P, c-S, d-Q

List I List II
Salt pH
(a) HCOONa (P) 7
(b) NH4Cl (Q) < 7
(c) MgSO4 (R) > 7
(d) CH3COONH4
(A) a–Q, b-P, c-R, d-P (B) a–P, b-Q, c-Q, d-R
(C) a–R, b-Q, c-P, d-P (D) a–R, b-R, c-Q, d-P
154. A weak acid HA having Ka = 10–4 is given 100 ml of 0.1 M acid is taken in container. Now 0.1 M NaOH
is added in the container List I contains volume of NaOH added and List II contains pH. Match them.
R
List I List II
se 1
(a) 10 ml NaOH solution (P) [pKw + pKa + log c]
2
(b) 25 ml NaOH solution (Q) pKa + log3
ly
(c) 75 ml NaOH solution (R) pKa – log3
(d) 100 ml NaOH solution (S) pKa – 2log3.
(A) a-S, b-R, c-Q, d–P (B) a-P, b-Q, c-R, d–S
a
(C) a-Q, b-R, c-S, d–P (D) a-S, b-P, c-Q, d–R
at

Column I Column II
(i) Boyle’s law (A) Mass = constant
C
(ii) Charle’s law (B) Pressure = constant

(iii) Gaylussac’s law (C) Temperature = constant
(iv) Avogadro’s law (D) Volum = constant
(a) (i) - A, C ; (ii) - A, D ; (iii) - A,B ; (iv) - B, C
(b) (i)- B, D ; (ii) - A, C ; (iii) - A, C ; (iv) - A, B, C, D
(c) (i)- A, D ; (ii) - D, C ; (iii) - A, C ; (iv) - A, C
(d) (i)- B, C ; (ii) - C, D ; (iii) - D, C ; (iv) - A, D

Column I Column II
P T1
T2
T3
(i) T1 > T2 > T3 (A)
1/V
Temperature-constant
V Pressure-constant
(ii) Charle’s Law (B)
n (no. of moles)
Temperature-constant
V Mass-constant
R
(iii) Boyle’s law (C)
se P
Pressure-constant
ly
V
(iv) Avogadro’s law (D) T
a
T
at
(a) (i) - CD; (ii) - CD; (iii)-D ; (iv) - B (b) (i) - AD; (ii) - BC; (iii)-A ; (iv) - B
(c) (i) - AC; (ii) - CD; (iii)-A ; (iv) -D (d) (i) - A; (ii) - D; (iii) - A,C; (iv) - B
C

Column I Column II
(a) For a gas repulsive tendency dominates (P) Effects in ‘a’ and ‘b’ compensates each other.
(b) At TB = – 3 °C for a gas in high pressure (Q) There is no difference between liquid and gas.
region
(c) at TC (R) Z>1
(d) for He gas at 0°C in all pressure region (S) TC = 80 K

SECTION V: INTEGER TYPE
158. 3 moles of hydrogen are compressed isothermally and reversibly from 60 dm 3 to 20 dm 3 and
13.695 kJ of work is done on it. Assuming ideal behaviour, calculate the temperature of gas.
[ R = 8.3 J/mol–K , ln 3 = 1.1 ]
159. A compound which contains one atom of X and two atoms of Y for each three atoms of Z is made
by mixing 5.00 g of X , 1.15  1023 atoms of Y and 0.03 mole Z atoms . Given that only 4.40 g of
compound results . Calculate the atomic weight of Y if the atomic weights of X and Z are 60 and 80
amu respectively .
160. If the oxidation number of Fe in [Fe(CN)6]–3 , [Fe(CN)6]–4, [Fe(SNC)]+2 and [Fe(H2O)6]+3 respectively
would be ABCD, the the value of that 4 digit integer will be:
161 The Enthalpy change involved in the oxidation of glucose is  2880 kJ mol 1 . 25 % of this energy
is available for muscular work . If 100 kJ of muscular work is needed to walk one km. W hat is the
maximum distance (in m) a person will be able to walk after eating 120 g of glucose.
162. Work done is expansion of an ideal gas from 4 litre to 6 litre against a constant external pressure
of 2.5 atm was used to heat up 1 mole of water at 293 K. If specific heat of water is 4.184 J g –1 K–
1
, what is the final temperature of water (in K) to the nearest integer?
R
163 For 10 minutes each, at 27ºC, from two identical holes nitrogen and an unknown gas are leaked into a
common vessel of 3 litre capacity . The resulting pressure is 4.18 bar and the mixture contains 0.4
mole of nitrogen. What is the molar mass (in gm/mol) of the unknown gas ? Give your answer to the
se
nearest integer
164. A drug marijuana owes its activity to tetrahydro cannabinol , which contains 70 % as many as
ly
carbon atoms as hydrogen atoms and 15 times as many hydrogen atoms as oxygen atoms . The
number of mole in a gram of tetrahydro cannabinol is 0.00318 . If it’s molecular formula is
Cx Hy Oz, Then find (x+y*z)
a
Calculate the pH at which Mg(OH)2 begins to precipitate from a solution containing 0.10 M Mg+2 ions.
at
165
Ksp of Mg(OH)2 = 1 × 10–11.
A mixture of (NH4)2 SO 4 and NH4Cl in the ratio 43.7 % and 56.3 % respectively was dissolved in
C
166.
water to prepare 1 litre solution . 25 mL of this solution was boiled with 50 mL of N/10 NaOH until
all the NH3 was evolved . The excess of NaOH was neutralized by 24.3 mL of N/10 HCl . Calculate
the weight of each component in mixture .
167. 13.6 eV is needed for ionisation of a hydrogen atom. An electron in a hydrogen atom in its ground state
absrobs 1.50 times as much energy as the minimum energy required for it to escape from the atom.
What is the wavelength of the emitted electron in Angstrom? (Answer to the nearest integer)
(me = 9.109 × 10–31 kg, e = 1.602 × 10–19 coulomb, h = 6.63 × 10–34 J.s)
168. A series limit of the Balmer series of hydrogen is given by 3.65  10–5 cm . An element is found to
give k line of wavelength 10–8 cm . Find out the atomic number of the element .
169. The maximum possible number of hydrogen bonds in which a water (H2O) molecule can participate?
170 For the reaction Ag(CN2)– Ag+ + 2CN–, the KC at 25°C is 4 × 10–19. If the [Ag+] concentration is
(ab × 10 ) in solution which was originally 0.1 M in KCN and 0.03 M in AgNO3. Give the value of 4 digit
–cd
integer ‘abcd’ eg. 1234.

171. When light of frequency v is thrown on a metal surface with threshold frequency v0 , Photoelectrons
are emitted with maximum kinetic energy = 1.3  10–18 J . If the ratio , v : v0 = 3 : 1 , calculate the
threshold frequency v0 .
172. The ionization constant of benzoic acid is 6.46 × 10–5 and Ksp for silver benzoate is 2.5 × 10–13. How
many times is silver benzoate more soluble in a buffer of pH 3.19 compared to its solubility in pure water.
Answer to the nearest integer.
173. A balloon of diameter 20 m weighs 100 kg. Calculate payload if it is filled with He at 1 atm and
270C. Density of air = 1.2 kg/m 3 . Answer tp the nearest integer
174. 0.1 g sample of chromite was fused with excess of Na 2O 2 and brought into solution according to
reaction , 2 Fe (CrO 2)2 + 7 Na2O 2  2 NaFeO 2 + 4 Na2CrO 4 + 2 Na2O
The solution was acidified with dilute HCl and 1.2 g mohr salt (molecular weight 392) added . The
excess of Fe2+ required 24 mL of 0.05 N K 2Cr2O 7 for titration . What is percent of Cr in sample ?
175. How many unpaired electrons are present in N2+ ?
176. Calculate the root mean square velocity of ozone kept in a closed vessel at 20ºC and 82 cm
mercury pressure.
The angle between the bonding orbitals of a molecule AX3 with zero dipole moment is?
R
177.
178 At 270C, hydrogen is leaked through a tiny hole into a vessel for 20 minutes. Another unknown
se
gas at the same temperature and pressure as that of H 2 is leaked through the same hole for 20
minutes . After the effusion of the gases the mixture exerts a pressure of 6 atm. The hydrogen
content of the mixture is 0.7 mole . If the volume of the container is 3 litre , what is molecular
ly
weight of unknown gas.
179. The dissociation pressure of solid ammonium hydro-sulphide at 27 ºC is 60 cm . What will be the
a
total pressure when it dissociates at the same temperature in presence of NH 3 at a pressure of

45 cm ? Assume NH4HS dissociates completely into NH 3 and H2S .
at
180. In the following reaction , KAl + LFe 3O 4  MAl 2O 3 + NFe

The values of the 4 digit integer KLMN is?
C
181.  B is given by,,

The rate of disappearance of A at two temperature for the equilibrium A 
dA
– = 2  10–2 [A] – 4  10–3 [B] at 300 K
dt
dB
– = 4  10–2 [A] – 16  10–4 [B] at 400 K
dt
Calculate : (i) equilibrium constants at 300 K and 400 K and
(ii) heat of reaction
182. How will the concentration of Ag+ in a saturated solution of AgCl diminish if such an amount of
HCl is added to it that the concentration of Cl – in the solution becomes equal to 0.03 mol litre –1 ?
[ K sp = 1.8  10–10 ]
AgCl

XII
183. Lowering of vapour pressure due to a solute in 2 molal solution at 100ºC is -
(A) 13.44 Torr (B) 14.12 Torr (C) 312 Torr (D) 26.4 Torr
184. An aqueous solution containing liquid A (M. wt. = 128) 64% by weight has a V. P. of 145 mm. If the
vapour pressure of water is 155 mm then vapour pressure of A at the same temperature will be -
(A) 205 mm (B) 105 mm (C) 185 mm (D) 52.5 mm
185. Liquids A and B form an ideal solution and the B has stronger intermolecular forces. If X A and X A
are the mole fractions of A in the solution and vapour in equilibrium, then -
X 'A X 'A X 'A
(A)
XA = 1 (B)
XA > 1 (C)
X A <1 (D) X'A + X A = 1
186. A solution of a non-volatile solute in water has a boiling point of 375. 3 K. The vapour pressure of
water above this solution at 338 K is -
[Given p0 (water) = 0.2467 atm at 338 K and K b for water =0.52 K kg mol -1]
(A) 0.18 atm (B) 0.23 atm (C) 0.34 atm (D) 0.42 atm
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187. Which of the following is wrong :
(A) Enthalpy (numerical value) of physisorption is greater than that of chemisorption
se
(B) Physisorption is not very specific but chomisorption is highly specific
(C) Chemisorption takes place at relatively high temperatures
(D) In physisorption generally multi–molecular layers are formed on the adsorbent
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188. Which of the following gases, will be adsorbed maximum on a solid surface :
a
(A) CO2 (B) O2 (C) N2 (D) H2

at
189. Which of the following has minimum gold number?

(A) Potato starch (B) Gum arabic (C) Gelatin (D) Albumin
C
190. Which of the following is a mismatch :

(A) Lyophilic colloids – reversible sols
(B) Associated collides – micelles
(C) Tyndall effect – scattering of light by colloidal particle
(D) Electrophoresis – movement of dispersion medium under the influence
of electric field
191. Which of the following ions will be most effective in coaogulating the As2S3 sol :
(A) Fe3+ (B) Ba2+ (C) Cl– (D) PO 34
192. When freshly precipated Fe(OH)3 is shaken with aqeous solution of FeCl3, a colloidal solution is formed.
This process is known as :
(A) Emulsification (B) Coagulation (C) Petpization (D) Electro–osmosis

193. (i) At 298 K the volume of NH3 adsorbed by 1g of charcoal is higher than that of H2 under similar
conditions.
(ii) The movement of collodial particles towards the oppositely charged electrodes on passing electric
current is known as Brownian movement.
(A) T, T (B) T, F (C) F, T (D) F, F
194. Two solution of CH2ClCOOH and CH3COOH are prepared separately molarity of both in 0.1 M and
osmotic pressure are P 1 & P2. The correct relationship between the osmotic pressure is
P1 P2
(A) P2 > P1 (B) P1 > P2 (C) P1 = P2 (D) =
P1  P2 P1  P2
195. The f.p of a 0.08 molal solution of NaHSO 4 is –0.372ºC. The dissociation constant for the reaction
, HSO 4–  H+ + SO 42– ; is - [Kf for water = 1.86ºC]
(A) 2 × 10–4 (B) 4 × 10–4 (C) 2 × 10–2 (D) 4 × 10–2
196. 1 g of monobasic acid in 100 g of water lowers the freezing point by 0.168º. If 0.2 g of same acid
requires 15.1 mL of N/10 alkali for complete neutralization, degree of dissociation of acid will be -
[Kf for H2O is 1.86 K mol–1 kg]
(A) 16.8% (B) 22.4% (C) 19.6% (D) 26.2%
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197. Which of the following expressions is true in case of sodium chloride unit cell :
a
(A) rc + r a = a (B) rc + r a = (C)
se rc + ra = 2a (D) rc + r a = 2a
2
198. Two electro chemical cells are assembled in which the following reactions occur,
ly
V2+ + VO 2+ + 2H+  2V3+ + H2O ; Eºcell = 0.616 V
V3+ + Ag+ + H2O  VO 2+ + 2H+ + Ag(s) ; Eºcell = 0.439 V
a
then Eº for the half reaction , V3+ + e–  V2+, is : [ Given : EºAg+|Ag = 0.799 V ]
(A) –0.256 V (B) +0.256 V (C) –1.05 V (D) +1.05 V
at
199. For the cell reaction , Cu2+ (aq) + Zn(s)  Zn+2 (aq) + Cu(s)
(C1) (C2)
of an electrochemical cell , the change in free energy  G at a given temperature is a function
C
of :
(A)  n(C1) (B)  n(C2/C1) (C)  n(C1 + C2) (D)  n(C2)
200. Consider the reaction of extraction of gold from its ore

1 1 
Au + 2CN– (aq.) + O2 (g) + H2O  Au (CN ) 2 + OH–
4 2
Use the following data to calculate G° for the reaction

Kf {Au (CN ) 2 } = X
O2 + 2H2O + 4e–  4OH– ; E° = + 0.41 volt
Au3+ + 3e–  Au ; E° = + 1.5 volt
Au3+ + 2e–  Au+ ; E° = + 1.4 volt
(A) – RT ln X + 1.29 F (B) – RT ln X – 2.11 F
1
(C) – RT ln + 2.11 F (D) – RT ln X – 1.29 F
X

201. The activity of a radionuclide (X100) is 6.023 curie. If the disintegration constant is 3.7 × 10 4 sec–1,
the mass of radionuclide is:
(A) 10–14 g (B) 10–6 g (C) 10–15 g (D) 10–3 g
202. The ionization constant of a weak electrolyte is 64 × 10 -6 while the equivalent conductance of its
0.01 M solution is 20 s cm 2 eq-1. The equivalent conductance of the electrolyte at infinite dilution (in
S cm 2 eq-1) will be :
(A) 250 (B) 196 (C) 392 (D) 384
203. The conductivity of 0.35 M solution of univalent weak electrolyte XY is 0.0175  -1 cm -1. The value
of m of XY is 500  -1 cm 2 mol -1. the value of Ostwald dilution constant of AB is :

(A) 3.89 × 10-3 (B) 2.5 × 10-4 (C) 2.8 × 10-3 (D) 2.8 × 10-4
204. Solid CO2 is an example of the crystal type :

(A) ionic (B) covalent (C) metallic (D) molecular
205. Name the crystal class for which all the four types of unit cells are possible.
(A) hexagonal (B) tetragonal (C) monoclinic (D) orthorhombic
206. Co-ordination ratio changes to lower number e.g. 8 : 8 to 6 :6 on :

(A) applying pressure (B) increasing temperature
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(C) a and b (D) change in catalyst
207. Radium has atomic weight 226 and half life of 1600 year. The number of disintegration produced
se
per sec. from 1 g are:
(A) 4.8 ×1010 (B) 3.7 ×1010 (C) 9.2 ×106 (D) 3.7 ×108
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208. NaCl shows schottky defects, AgCl frenkel defects. Their electrical conductivity is due to :
(A) motion of ions and not motion of electrons
(B) motion of electrons and not motion of ions
a
(C) lower co-ordination number of KCl

(D) higher co-ordination number of AgCl
at
209. In a crystalline solid, anion B are arranged in CCP lattice and cations A occupy 50% of the octahedral
voids and 50% of the tetrahedral voids. What is the formula of the solid?
C
(A) AB (B) A3B2 (C) A2B2 (D) A2B3
210. An aqueous solution containing one mole per litre each of Cu(NO3)2, AgNO3, Hg2(NO3)2, Mg(NO3)2 is
being electrolysed by using inert electrodes. The value of standard potentials are
EAg  |Ag  0.80V, E Hg 2 |Hg  0.79V, ECu 2 |Cu  0.34V and EMg 2 |Mg  2.3V
2
With increasing voltage, the sequence of deposition of metals on the cathode will be
(A) Ag, Hg, Cu, Mg (B) Mg, Cu, Hg, Ag (C) Ag, Hg, Cu (D) Cu, Hg, Ag
211. If ‘a’ is the edge length of the unit cell of an atomic crystal having face centered cubic lattice,
then what is the distance of closest approach between the two atoms in the crystal ?
a 2 1
(A) 2a (B) (C) (D) ( 2a )
2 a 2
212. The number of  -particle emitted during the change aXc  d Yb is:
a b a  b c  b a  b
(A) (B) d+   + c (C) d+   – a (D) d + –c
4  2   2   2 

dC dn dP
213. Which is correct relation in between , and where C, n, P, represents concentration,
dt dt dt
mole and pressure terms for gaseous phase reactant A(g)  product.
dC 1 dn 1 dP dC dn dP
(A) – =– =– (B) = =–
dt V dt RT dt dt dt dt
dC RT dn dP
(C) = =– (D) All
dt V dt dt
214. For the reaction, H2(g) + Br2(g) = 2HBr(g), the reaction rate = K [H 2] [Br2] 1/2. Which statement is
true about this reaction :
(A) The reaction is of second order (B) Molecularity of the reaction is 3/2
(C) The unit of K is sec –1 (D) Molecularity of the reacion is 2
215. A radioactive isotope having a half life of 3 day was received after 12 day. It was found that there
were 3 g of the isotope in the container. The initial weight of the isotope when packed was:
(A) 12 g (B) 24 g (C) 36 g (D) 48 g
216. The rate constant for a reaction is 10.8 × 10 –5 mol litre–1 sec–1. The rection obeys :
(A) First order (B) Zero order (C) Second order (D) Half order
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217. Salts of A (atomic weight = 7), B (atomic weight =27) and C (atomic weight = 48) were electrolysed
under identical conditions using the same quantity of electricity. It was found that when 2.1 g of A was
se
deposited, the weights of B and C deposited were 2.7 and 7.2 g. The valencies of A, B and C
respectively are
(A) 3, 1 and 2 (B) 1, 3 and 2 (C) 3, 1 and 3 (D) 2, 3 and 2
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238
The 92 U disintegrates to give 4 -and 6- particles. The atomic number of the end product is
a
218.
(A) 92 (B) 96 (C) 84 (D) 90
at
219. What is the order of reaction ,

A2 + B2  2 AB ; having following mechanism
C
A2 A + A ........ (fast)
A + B2  AB + B ........ (slow)
A + B  AB ........ (fast)
(A) 2 (B) 1 (C) 3/2 (D) 1/2

220. 1 mol benzene (Pºbenzene = 42 mm) and 2 mol toluene (Pºtoluene = 30 mm) will have
(A) total pressure 38 mm
(B) mol fraction of vapours of benzene above liquid mixture is 7/19
(C) positive deviation from Raoult’s law
(D) negative deviation from Raoult’s law

(A) The rate of the reaction involving the conversion of ortho-hydrogen to parahydrogen is
d[ H 2 ]
– = k[H2] 3/2
dt
(B) The rate of the reaction involving the thermal decomposition of acetaldehyde is
k[CH3CHO] 3/2
(C) In the formation of phosgene gas from CO and Cl 2, the rate of the reaction is
k[CO][Cl 2] 1/2
(D) In the decomposition of H2O 2, the rate of the reaction is k[H 2O 2].
222. Emulsion can be destroyed by

(A) the addition of an emulsifier which tends to form an emulsion of the same type
(B) electrophoresis with a high potential
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(C) freezing (D) all of these
223. Which of the following statements are correct se

(A)  Ecell is temperature independent
(B) A reaction is spontaneous from left to right if Q < Keq in which case  Ecell > 0
ly
(C) A reaction occurs from right to left if K eq < Q, in which case  Ecell < 0
(D) none of these
a
224. During discharging of lead storage battery, which of the following is/are true ?
(A) H2SO4 is produced (B) H2O is consumed
at
(C) PbSO4 is formed at both electrodes (D) Density of electrolytic solution decreases
C
225. Isoelectric point is the pH at which colloidal particles

(A) coagulate (B) becomes electrically neutral
(C) can move toward either electrode (D) none of these
226. To 10 mL of 1 M BaCl 2 solution 5 mL of 0.5 M K2SO 4 is added, BaSO 4 is precipitated out. W hat will
happen?
(A) F. pt. is increased (B) B. pt. is increased
(C) F. pt. is lowered (D) B. pt. is lowered
227. Which of the following is/are correct

(A) -rays are more penetrating than  -rays
(B) -rays have greater ionizing power than  -rays
(C)  -particles are not present in the nucleus, yet they are emitted from the nucleus
(D)  -rays are not emitted simultaneously with  and  -rays
228. Which of the following arrangement will produce oxygen at anode during electrolysis ?
(A) Dilute H2SO4 solution with Cu electrodes.
(B) Dilute H2SO4 solution with inert electrodes.
(C) Fused NaOH with inert electrodes.
(D) Dilute NaCl solution with inert electrodes.

229. The azeotropic solution of two miscible liquids
(A) can be separated by simple distillation
(B) may show positive or negative deviation from raoult’s law
(C) are super saturated solutions
(D) behave like a single component and boil at a constant temperature
230. Which of the following are macromolecular colloids

(A) starch (B) soap (C) detergent (D) cellulose
231. Which of the following statements is correct for electrophoresis ?

(A) colloids are uncharged particles and do not migrate towards the electrodes when electric
field is applied
(B) in electrophoresis, solution migrates either to the anode or to the cathode depending on the
positively or negatively charged solution
(C) electrophoresis is a useful method for finding the charge of a solution
(D) none of these
232. The basic theory of Arrhenius’s equation is that

(A) the number of effective collisions is proportional to the number of molecules above a certain
threshold energy
(B) as the temperature increases, the number of molecules with energies exceeding the threshold
energy increases
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(C) the rate constant is a function of temperature
(D) activation energy and pre-exponentional factors are always temperature independent
233.
(Assume standard state conditions).
se
Pick out the correct statements among the following from inspection of standard reduction potentials
ly
o
Cl 2 (aq.) + 2e l 2Cl–(aq.) E Cl  = + 1.36 volt
2 / Cl
Br2 (aq.) + 2e l 2Br–(aq.) E oBr = + 1.09 volt

a

2 / Br
at
I2(s) + 2e l 2I– (aq.) E oI  = + 0.54 volt

2 /I
C
S2O82 (aq.) + 2e l 2SO 24  (aq.) E So 2 2

= + 2.00 volt
2O8 / SO 4
(A) Cl2 can oxidise SO 24  from solution

(B) Cl2 can oxidise Br– and I– from aqueous solution
(C) S2O82 can oxidise Cl–, Br– and I– from aqueous solution
(D) S2O82– is added slowly, Br– can be reduce in presence of Cl–
234. Effect of adding a non volatile solute to a solvent is

(A) to lower the vapour pressure (B) to increase its freezing point
(C) to increase its boiling point (D) to decrease its osmotic pressure
235. Methods used for the preparation of colloidal solutions are

(A) peptisation (B) hydrolysis
(C) ultrasonic dispersion (D) coagulation
236. The correct starting material and product of different disintegration series are
(A) 232Th, 208Pb (B) 235U, 206Pb (C) 238U, 207Pb (D) 237Np, 209
Bi

237. Surfactant molecules or ions can cluster together as micelles, which
(A) are colloid-sized cluster of molecules
(B) due to their hydrophobic tails tend to congregate
(C) due to their hydrophobic head provide protection
(D) none of these
238. Which of the following are correctly matched?

(A) Butter-gel (B) Milk-emulsion (C) Fog-aerosol (D) Dust-solid sol
239. Which of the following are incorrect statements?

(A) Hardy schulz rule is related to coagulation
(B) Brownian moment and Tyndall effect are the characteristic of colloids.
(C) In gel, the liquid is dispersed in liquid
(D) Lower the gold number, more is the protective power of lyophillic sols.
240. Which of the following are multimolecular colloids?

(A) Sulphur (B) Egg albumin in water
(C) Gold sol (D) Soap solution
241. The origin of charge on colloidal solution is

(A) Frictional rubbing
(B) Electron capture during Bredig's arc method
R
(C) Selective adsorption of ion on their surface
(D) It is due to addition of protective colloids
se
242. Which of the following are based on Tyndall effect.
(A) Ultra microscope (B) Deltas (C) Blue colour of sky (D) Coagulation
ly
243. If 270.0 g of water is electrolysed during an experiment performed by miss Abhilasha with 75% current
efficiency then
a
(A) 168 L of O2 (g) will be evolved at anode at 1 atm & 273 K

at
(B) Total 504 L gases will be produced at 1 atm & 273 K.

(C) 336 L of H2 (g) will be evolved at anode at 1 atm & 273 K
(D) 45 F electricity will be consumed
C
244. Which of the following reactions is of the first order ?

(A) The decomposition of ammonium nitrate in an aqueous solution
(B) The inversion of cane-sugar in the presence of an acid
(C) The acidic hydrolysis of ethyl acetate
(D) All radioactive decays.
245. If two solution are isotonic then : [ C is concentration of solution and i is vant Hoff factor ]
(A) C1 = C2 (if both are non-electrolyte)
(B) i × C1 = C2 ( If one is electrolyte and another is non-electrolyte)
(C) i 1 × C1 = i 2 × C2 (if both are electrolytes)
(D) none of these

246. Which of the following is correctly matched ( where Z is number of atoms per unit cell, a is edge
lenght of cube and r is radius of atom)
(A) SCC Z=1 a= 2r
4
(B) BCC Z=2 a= r
3
(C) FCC Z=4 a=2 2r
(D) HCP Z=4 a=2r

(A) the work done by the system on the surrounding is negative
(B) the work done on the system by the surroundings is positive
(C) the heat absorbed by the system from the surroundings is positive
(D) the heat absorbed by the surroundings from the system is negative
248. Oxygen and hydrogen gas are produced at anode and cathode during the electrolysis of dilute
aqueous solution of
(A) Na2SO 4 (B) AgNO 3 (C) H2SO 4 (D) NaOH
249. The calculation of the pre-exponential factor is based on the

(A) idea that, for a reaction to take place, the reactant species must come together
R
(B) Calculation of the molecularity of the reaction
(C) idea that the reactant species must come together, leading to the formation of the
se
transition state which then transforms into the products
(D) calculation of the order of the reaction
ly
250. In which of the following ways does an activated complex differ from an ordinary molecule ?
(A) It is quite unstable and has no independent existence.
(B)  H°f is probably positive
a
(C) The system has a greater vibrational character.

(D) The system has no vibrational character.
at
251. Zn + 2H+  Zn2+ + H2

Half-life period is independent of concentration of zinc at constant pH. For the constant
C
concentration of Zn, rate becomes 100 times when pH is decreased from 3 to 2. Hence
dx
(A) = k[Zn] 0[H+]2
dt
 dx 
(B)   = k [Zn] [H+]2
 dt 
(C) rate is not affected if concentration of zinc is made four times and that of H + ions is halved.
(D) rate becomes four times if concentration of H + ion is doubled at constant Zn concentration,.

(A) The electrolysis of aqueous NaCl produces hydrogen gas at the cathode and chlorine gas at
the anode.
(B) The electrolysis of a dilute solution of sodium fluoride produces oxygen gas at the anode
and O 2 gas at the cathode.
(C) The electrolysis of concentrated sulphuric acid produces SO 2 gas at the anode and O 2 gas at
the cathode.
(D) After the electrolysis of aqueous sodium sulphate, the solution becomes acidic.

(A) The electrolysis of concentrated H 2SO 4 at 0–5ºC using a Pt electrode produces H 2S2O 8.
(B) The electrolysis of a brine solution produces NaClO 3 and NaClO.
(C) The electrolysis of a CuSO 4 solution using Pt electrodes causes the liberation of O 2
at the anode and the deposition of copper at the cathode
(D) All electrolytic reactions are redox reactions.
254. In an electrochemical process , a slat bridge is used :

(A) to maintain electroneutrality in each solution
(B) to complete the circuit so that current can flow
(C) as an oxidizing agent
(D) as a colour indicator
255. The decomposition of hydrogen peroxide is an example of

(A) Exothermic reaction (B) Endothermic reaction
(C) Negative catalysis (D) Auto-oxidation
256. A concentration cell is a galvanic cell in which :

(A) the electrode material and the solutions in both half-cells are composed of the same
substances
(B) only the concentrations of the two solutions differ
R
(C)  E0cell = 0
se 0.0592 
(D) the Nernst equation reduces to  Ecell = –   log Q at 25ºC
 n 
ly
257. Pb(s)| PbSO 4 | PbI2 | Pb(s)
saturated saturated
solution solution
a
Which of the following expressions represent the emf of the above cell at 25 ºC ?
at
(a pb 2  ) 2 (a pb 2  )1
0.0592 0.0592
(A) E = log (B) E= log (a )
2 (a pb 2  )1 2 pb 2  2
C
0.0592 [Ksp (PbI2 )]1/ 3 0.0592

K sp (PbI 2 )
(C) E = log (D) E= log K ( PbSO )
2 [Ksp (PbSO4 )]1/ 2 2 sp 4
258. When a non-volatile solute is added to a pure solvent, the

(A) vapour pressure of the solution becomes lower than that of the pure solvent
(B) rate of evaporation of the pure solvent is reduced
(C) solute does not affect the rate of condensation
(D) rate of evaporation of the solution is equal to the rate of condensation of the solution at a lower
vapour pressure than that in the case of the pure solvent.
259. Which of the following combinations are correct for a binary solution, in which the solute as well as the
solvent are liquid?
(A) C6H6 and C6H5CH3; Hsoln > 0; Vsol = 0
(B) CH3COCH3 and CHCl3; Hsoln < 0; Vsol < 0
(C) H2O and HCl; Hsoln > 0; Vsol < 0
(D) H2O and C2H5OH; Hsoln > 0; Vsol > 0

260. Which of the following statements are correct for a binary solution which shows negative deviation from
Raoult’s law?
(A) The negative deviation from linearity diminishes and tends to zero as the concentration
of the solution component approaches unity.
(B) When solutions from, their volumes are smaller than the sum of the volumes of their
components
(C) Heat is released during the formation of the solution.
(D) Heat is absorbed during the formation of the solution.
261. Which of the following structures have layered lattices ?

(A) cadmium iodide (B) ice
(C) graphite (D) diamond
262. A binary liquid (AB) shows positive deviation from Raoult’s law wen
(A) pA > pA0 XAliq > pB0 XBliq (B) intermolecular forces: A–A, B–B > A–B
(C) Vmix > 0 (D) Hmix > 0
263. Lead metal has a density of 11.34 g/cm3 and crystallizes in a face–centered lattice. Choose the correct
alternatives
(A) the volume of one unit celt is 1.214 × 10–22 cm3
(B) the volume of one unit cell is 1.214 × 10–19 cm3
(C) the atomic radius of lead is 165 pm
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(D) the atomic radius of lead is 155.1 pm
264. Consider following solutions: se

I : 1 M aq. glucose II : 1 M aq. sodium chloride
III : 1 M benzoic acid in benzene IV : 1 M ammonium phosphate
Select correct statement (s)
ly
(A) all are isotonic solutions (B) III is hypotonic of I, II, IV
(C) I, II, IV are hypertonic of III (D) IV is hypertonic of I, II, III
a
265. Which of the following is (are) lyophobic colloids?

(A) Gold sol (B) As2 S3 sol (C) Starch sol (D) Fe(OH)3 sol
at
266. The ionic radii of Cs and Cl are 0.165 nm and 0.181nm respectively. Their atomic weights are 133 and
35.5. Then,
C
(A) the lattice parameter is 0.4 nm

(B) the lattice parameter can not be determined from this data
(C) the density of CsCI is 4.37 × 103 kg/m3
(D) the CsCI structure has a fcc structure with a basis
267. Which of the following statements are correct about half-life period
(A) it is proportional to initial concentration for zeroth order
(B) average life = 1.44 half-life for first order reaction
(C) time of 75% reaction is thrice of half-life period in second order
(D) 99.9% reaction takes place in 100 minutes for the case when rate constant is 0.0693
min–1
268. Which type of crystals contain one Bravais lattice?

(A) hexagonal (B) triclinic (C) rhombohedral (D) monoclinic
269. TiO2(rutile) shows 6 : 3 coordination.Which of the following solids have a rutile-like structure ?
(A) MnO2 (B) ZnS (C) KCl (D) SnO2
270. The hcp and ccp structure for a given element would be expected to have
(A) the same coordination number (B) the same density
(C) the same packing fraction (D) all the above

271. Two reaction A  products and B  products have rate constant k A and kB at temperature
T and activation energies E A and EB respectively. If k A > kB and EA < EB and assuming that A for
both the reactions is same, then
(A) at higher temperatures k A will be greater than k B
(B) at lower temperatures k A and kB will be close to each other in magnitude
(C) as temperature rises, k A and kB will be close to each other in magnitude
(D) at lower temperatures k B > kA
272. Which of the following statements are correct for the rock-salt structure ?
(A) the tetrahedral sites are smaller than the octahedral sites
(B) the octahedral sites are occupied by cations and the tetrahedral sites are empty
(C) the radius ratio is 0.732
(D) the radius ratio is 0.999

(A) the coordination number of each type of ion in a CsCl crystal is eight
(B) a metal that crystallizes in a bcc structure has a coordination number of twelve
(C) a unit cell of an ionic crystal shares some of its ions with other unit cells
(D) the length of the unit cell is NaCl is 552 pm (given that rNa+ = 95 pm and rCl- = 181 pm)
274. Which of the followings are examples of pseudo-unimolecular reaction :
R
H
(A) CH3CO 2C2H5 + H2O 
 CH3CO2H + C2H5OH

(B) C12H22O 11 + H2O H
 C6H12O6 + C6H12O6
se (glucose) (Fructose)
(C) CH3COCl + H2O  CH3CO 2H + HCl
ly

(D) CH3CO 2C2H5 + H2O  CH3CO2H + C2H5OH
OH
a
275. Which of the following compounds represent a normal 2 : 3 spinel structure ?

(A) MgIIAl2IIIO4 (B) CoII(CoIII)2O4 (C) Zn(TiZn)O4 (D) Ni(CO)4
at
C

SECTION III: COMPRHENSIONS
COMPREHENSION # 26
In a parallel reaction reactant cobalt which is a transition metal decays by parallel pathways to
form 2 products B and C.
B
 - emission (k1 )
58
27 Co
  emission (k 2 )
The ratio of concentration of [B] : [C] are 2 : 98 and the half life Co is 22 years.
276. The decay constant for (B) should be
(A) 63  10–5 y–1 (B) 126  10–5 y–1 (C) 863  10–3 y–1 (D) None of these
277. The decay constant for C is

(A) 0.03 y–1 (B) 1.5 y–1 (C) 0.09 y–1 (D) None of these
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278. The product B will be se
(A) Copper (B) Manganese (C) Nickel (D) Zinc
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279. The product C will be
(A) Copper (B) Manganese (C) Nickel (D) Iron
a
COMPREHENSION # 27
at

THE BRAGG METHOD OF CRYSTAL ANALYSIS
A simple method of crystal analysis is that suggested by W.H. and W.L. Bragg, and this is discussed
C
below.
The Braggs first called attention to the fact, since a crystal is composed of a series of equally
spaced atomic planes, it may be employed as a reflection grating. A beam of X rays striking the
atoms which constitute these planes will be diffracted then in such a manner as to cause either
interference with or reinforcement of the beam diffracted from the first, or outer plane, and the
whole beam will behave as if it had been reflected from the surface of the crystal.
To understand better the theory of this method consider, as shown in figure,
H E
 G
H E
G
H
G O O 
W
C d
X 
Y B
A
Z

Reflection of X rays by parallel planes
A wave front GGG of X rays approaching at an angle  a series of parallel, equidistant
planes, W, X, Y, Z, etc., which constitute the atomic planes of the crystal. Part of the beam HGO
will be reflected at O along OE at the angle of reflection , which is the same as the angle of
incidence. Similarly , the beam HGO will be reflected party at O along OE, and then again at
C on the second plane along COE. In order to emerge along OE the second beam has to travel a
longer distance than the first, namely, the distance H G O CO as against the distance HGO. If
the difference in distance of the two paths is exactly equal to an integral multiple of the wave
length of the radiation, the two beam will be in phase at O, will reinforce each other, and the
intensity of the reflected rays will be at a maximum. When the two beams are out of phase,
however interference will result, and the intensity of the reflected beam will be less than the
maximum. The condition for maximum reflection intensity is then that the distance
GCO – GO = n
where  is the wave length of the X rays employed, while n is an integer taking on the values 1, 2,
3, .... and known as the order of reflection. If a perpendicular is drawn now from O to the extension
of the line GOC, while another is dropped from O to A perpendicular to W, X, and Y, it follows that
GCO = GA – CA + CO
= GA
Since CO = CA from the construction of the figure. But
GO = GB
Therefore, GCO – GO = GA – GB
R
= BA
and hence BA = n
It can readily be shown that the angle BOA is also . Then, since OB was constructed perpendicular
se
to GA,
BA
sin  =
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OA
and BA = OA sin 
= 2d sin 
a
Where d is the distance between any two atomic planes in the crystal.
Therefore, n = 2d sin 
at
This simple equation connect directly wave length and order of reflection of X rays with the
interplanar distance d and the angle of maximum reflection . Without any further information the
ration /d is deducible by measuring n and . On the other hand, if  is known, d may be calculated;
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or vice versa, if d is known, the crystal may be employed to determine the wave length of the X
rays.
280. The longest X-ray wavelength that may be used to determine a lattice spacing of 1Å by the Bragg
reflection method is
(A) 1Å (B) 2Å (C) 3Å (D) 4Å
281. Using X-rays of wavelength 20 pm, it was found that the first order reflection from the face planes
and planes parallel to face planes containing Cl – ions, of a crystal of KCl (NaCl type structure) at
25°C is at  = 1.8°. The density of the crystal determined is therefore nearly . K – 39, Cl – 35.5
1
(Take = 0.3183)

(A) 3.84 g/cc (B) 1.92 g/cc (C) 2.91 g/cc (D) 4.83 g/cc
282. What is the size of the K + ion if the size of the Cl – ion is 1.8Å ? Take data from the above question.
(A) 0.9 Å (B) 1.0 Å (C) 1.18Å (D) 1.38 Å

COMPREHENSION # 28
IMPERFECTION IN IONIC SOLIDS:
In an ideal crystal there must be regular repeating arrangement of the constituting particles and its
entropy must be zero at absolute zero temperature. However, it is impossible to obtain an ideal crystal
and it suffers from certain defects called imperfections, In pure crystal, these defects arise either due to
disorder or dislocation of the constituting particles from their normal positions or to the movement of the
particles even at absolute zero temperature. Such defects increase with rise in temperature. In addition
to this, certain defects arise due to the presence of some impurities. Such defects not only modify the
existing properties of the crystalline solids but also impart certain new characteristics to them.
In pure crystal, e.g. silicon or germanium at 0 K, the electrons are present in fully occupied lowest
energy states and are not expected to conduct any electricity. However at temperature above 0K, some
electrons leave their bonds and become free to move in the crystal lattice, giving rise to electrical
conductivity. The electron deficient bonds, called holes (+ively charged) and thermally mobile electrons
move in opposite directions under the electric field.
Stoichiometric point defects include (1) Schottky defects, which arise due to missing of both cations
and anions from their lattice sites without disturbing the stoichiometry and (2) Frenkel defects, which
arise due to misplacement of certain ions in the crystal lattice. The former defect gives rise to decrease
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in density of the crystal and the latter leads to no change of density.
Another type of defects are non-stoichiometric defects where the cations and anions are not present in
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the stoichiometric ratio. In metal excess defect, metal ions or positive ions are in excess as compared
to anions of non-metals stoichiometrically. On the other hand in metal deficient defect, the cations are
in lesser proportion than stoichiometric value. Since the crystal is neutral electrically, the balance of
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charge is maintained by free electrons or extra positive charges. The metal excess defects give rise to
conduction of electricity due to the presence of free electrons. Also crystals having metal excess defects
a
are paramagnetic and coloured due to the presence of electrons in the anions vacancies.
at
Impurity defects arise when some foreign atoms are present at the lattice sites in place of the host
atoms or at the vacant interstitial sites.
C
When 15 group elements like P or As are doped into Si or Ge, the added impurity atoms occupy the
lattice sites forming four covalent bonds with 4 Si/Ge atoms leaving an extra electron free to move.
Such a crystal is said to be n-type semi conductor because the conduction of electricity is due to the
movement of extra unbonded electrons.
If doping of a covalent crystals of 14 group elements are caused by addition of small amounts of
elements of group 13, e.g. Al or Ga with three valence electrons, one covalent bond formed will be
electron deficient and acts as a positive hole. The presence of such holes in the crystal leads to electrical
conductivity and the crystal is said to be p-type semiconductor.
283. When LiCI is heated into the vapour of lithium, the crystal acquires pink colour. This is due to
(A) Schottkty defects (B) Frenkel defects
(C) Metal excess defect leading to F-centres (D) Electronic defect
284. Strongly heated ZnO crystal can conduct electricity. This is due to
(A) Movement of extra Zn2+ ions present in the interstitial sites
(B) Movement of electrons in the anion vacancies
(C) Movement of both Zn2+ ions and electrons
(D) None of these

285. AgCl is crystallized from molten AgCl containing a little CdCl2. The solid obtained will have
(A) cationic vacancies equal to number of Cd2+ ions incorporated
(B) cationic vacancies equal to double the number of Cd2+ ions
(C) anionic vacancies
(D) neither cationic nor anionic vacancies
286. Lattice defect per 1015 NaCl is 1. What is the number of lattice defects in mole of NaCI?
(A) 6.02 × 1023 (B) 6.02 × 108 (C) 1014 (D) None of these
287. Which of the following statements is correct about the conduction of electricity in pure crystal of silicon
at room temperature?
(A) The conduction is due to electrons present in fully occupied lowest energy states
(B) The conduction is due to only some electrons capable of leaving the bonds at room temperature
(C) The conduction is only due to the holes formed following release of electrons
(D) The conduction is due to the movement of both the electrons released and holes formed.
COMPREHENSION # 29
Consider the figure given for solid XY. Answer the following questions
R
se
a ly
288. The site Y represents
(A) tetrahedral void (B) Octahedral void (C) triangular void (D) cubical void.
at
289. The number of XY units per unit cell is

(A) 4 (B) 3 (C) 3 (D) 8
C
290. Co-ordination number of Y is

(A) 3 (B) 4 (C) 6 (D) 8
291. Which of the following type of solid adopt above crystal structure?
(A) CaCl (B) CaF2 (C) ZnS (D) NaCl.
COMPREHENSION # 30
The arrhenius equation

K = Ae–Ea/RT
The represents the variation of the specific rate constant with temperature.
exponential term represents the fraction of molecules having the energy to cross the energy barrier i.e. to
reach the transition state and A signifies the number of collisions / unit time with effectiveness in order to
form the product. 3.6  10–16% of reactant molecules exists in the activated state of a reaction.
292. The energy of activation is
(A) 100 kJ (B) 200 kJ (C) 150 kJ (D) 250 kJ

293. If a graph is plotted between K against 1/T the intercept obtained is
Ea 1
(A) logK (B) logA (C)  (D) log
2.303R T
294. The dimension of A will be

(A) dimensionless (B) time (C) Joules/mol (D) time–1
295. If a graph is plotted between K against 1/T the slope obtained is

Ea Ea
(A) logK (B) logA (C)  (D) 
2.303R 2.303R
COMPREHENSION # 31
concentration
R
R
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30 Time
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The above graph shows the variation of the reactants product w.r.t time for a given reaction at 27°C for
a first order reaction.
a
296. The half life of the reaction is

(A) 15 minutes (B) 60 mintues (C) 30 minutes (D) infinite
at
297. The specific rate constant of the reaction is

(A) 0.0462 min–1 (B) zero (C) 0.0231 min–1 (D) infinite
C
298. 3/4th life period of the reaction is

(A) 20 (B) 80 (C) 60 (D) none of these
299. The plot log [A]t vs time will have a intercept equal to
(A) –K (B) +K (C) A (D) logA
COMPREHENSION # 32
(Read the following passage and answer the questions. They have only one correct option)
In HCP or CCP, constituent particles occupy 74% of the available space. The remaining space (26%) in
between the spheres, remains unoccupied and is called interstitial voids or holes. Considering the close
packing arrangement, each sphere in the second layer rests on the hollow space of the first layer, touching
each other. The void created is called tetrahedral void. If R is the radius of the sphere in the close packed
arrangement, then
r (radius of tetrahedral void) = 0.225 R
In a close packing arrangement, the interstitial void formed by the combination of two triangular voids of the
first and second layer is called octahedral void. Thus, double triangular void is surrounded by six spheres.
The centre of these sphere on joining, forms octahedron. If R is the radius of the sphere in a close packed
arrangement, then

r (radius of octahedral void = 0.414 R.
300. If the anions (A) form hexagonal close packing and cations (B) occupy only 2/3rd octahedral voids in it,
then the general formula of the compound is
(A) AB (B) A3B2 (C) A2B (D) AB2
301. If the spinel structure, oxide ions are cubic close whereas 1/8th of tetrahedral voids are occupied by A2+
cations and 1/2 of octahedral voids are occupied by B3+ cations. The general formula of the compound
having spinel structure is:
(A) A2B2 O4 (B) AB2O4 (C) A2B4O2 (D) A4B2O2
COMPREHENSION # 33
(Read the following passage and answer the questions. They have only one correct option)
The Colloidal particles are electrically charged as is indictated by their migration toward cathode or
anode under the applied electric field. In a particular colloidal system, all particles carry either positive
charge or negative charge.
The electric charge on colloidal particles originate in several ways. According to preferential adsorption
theory, the freshly obtained precipitate particles adsorb ions from the dispersion medium, which are
common to their lattice and acquire the charge of adsorbed ions. For example, freshly obtained Fe(OH)3
R
precipitated is dispersed, by a little FeCI3, into colloidal solution owing to the adsorptions of Fe3+ ions in
preference. Thus sol particles will be positively charged.
se
In some cases the colloidal particles are aggregates of cations or anions having ampiphilic character.
When the ions possess hydrophobic part (hydrocarbon end) as well as hydrophilic part (polar end
group), they undergo association in aqueous solution to form particles having colloidal size. The formation
ly
of such particles, called micelles plays a very important role in the solubilization of water insoluble
substances, (hydrocarbon, oils, fats, grease etc.). In micelles, the polar end groups are directed towards
water and the hydrocarbon ends into the centre.
a
The charge on sol particles of proteins depends on the pH. At low pH, the basic group of protein
at
molecule is ionized (protonated) and at higher pH (alkaline medium), the acidic group in ionized. At
Isoelectric pH, characteristic to the protein, both basic and acidic groups are equally ionized.
The stability of colloidal solution is attributed largely to the electric charge of the dispersed particles.
C
This charge causes them to be coagulated or precipitated. On addition of small amount of electrolytes,
the ions carrying opposite charge are adsorbed by sol particles resulting in the neutralization of their
charge.When the sol particles either with no charge or reduced charge, come closer due to Browman
movement, they coalesce to form bigger particles resulting in their separation from the dispersion medium.
This is what is called coagulation or precipitation of the colloidal solution. The coagulating power of the
effective ion, which depend on its charge, is expressed in terms of its coagulating value, defined as its
minimum concentration (m mol/L) needed to precipitate a given sol.
302. A gelatin sol at pH less then the isoelectric value is subjected to an electric field. The sol particles migrate
toward
(A) Anode (B) Cathode
(C) Both anode and cathode (D) Neither anode nor cathode
303. Which of the following ions would have the minimum coagulating value for sol obtained on peptizing
Sn(OH)4 by little NaOH solution.
(A) Cl– (B) SO42– (C) K + (D) Ba2+
304. How would you obtain a sol of AgI, the particles of which migrate toward cathode under the electric field ?
(A) By adding little excess of K to AgNO3 solution
(B) By adding little excess of AgNO3 to K solution
(C) By mixing equal volumes of 0.010 M AgNO3 and 0.010 M K
(D) None of these

305. When 9.0 ml of arsenius sulphide sol and 1.0 ml of 1.0 × 10–4 M BaCl2 are mixed, turbidity due to
precipitation just appears after 2 hours. The effective ion and its coagulating value are respectively
(A) Cl–, 10 m mol/L (B) Cl–, 20 m mol/L
(C) Ba , 10 m mol/L
2+
(D) Ba2+ , 20 m mol/L
306. 100 ml each of two sols of Ag, one obtained by adding AgNO3 to slight excess of K and another obtained
by adding K to slight excess of AgNO3, are mixed together. Then
(A) The two sols will stabilize each other
(B) The sol particles will acquire more electric charge
(C) The sols will coagulate each other mutually
(D) A true solution will be obtained
307. Under the influence of an electric field, the particles in a sol migrate towards cathode. The coagulation of
the same sol is studied using NaCl, Na2SO4 and Na3PO4 solutions. Their coagulating values will be in the
order
(A) NaCl > Na2 SO4 > Na3 PO4 (B) Na2 SO4 > Na3 PO4 > NaCl
(C) Na3 PO4 > Na2 SO4 > NaCl (D) Na2 SO4 > NaCl > Na3 PO4
COMPREHENSION # 34
Ozone is prepared in laboratory by passing silent electric discharge through pure and dry oxygen in an
apparatus known as ozoniser. This conversion from oxygen to ozone is a reversible and endothermic
reaction. When oxygen is subjected to an ordinary electric discharge, most of the O3 produced will get
R
decomposed. When any insulating material such as glass, is inserted in the space between the two
electrodes and high current density is applied, silent electric discharge passes on between the two
se
electrodes. By this process no spark is produced and much less heat is generated, and as a result the
decomposition of the produced ozone is much retarded.
The decomposition of ozone is believed to occur by the following mechanis:
ly
Kf
 O2  O
O3  (fast step)
Kb
a
K1
O3  O  2O2 (slow)
at
308. Order of the reaction is

(A) 1 (B) 2 (C) 3 (D) 0
C
309. Molecularity of reaction is defined by

(A) slow step (B) reversible step
(C) from overall reaction (D) fast step
310. When the concentration of O2 is increased, for the same concentration of ozone, its rate
(A) increases (B) decreases
(C) remains the same (D) cannot be answered
311. When the concentration of O3 is increased, for the same concentration of oxygen, its rate
(A) increases (B) decreases
(C) remains the same (D) cannot be answered
COMPREHENSION # 35
Silicon carbide (SiC) and diamond are covalent solids which crystallize in cubic strucures. In SiC, carbon
atoms occupy points of the face centred cubic lattice (FCC positions) and silicon atoms occupy half of the
tetrahedral voids available. In diamonds, same position of the tetrahedral voids are occupied by other
carbon atoms.
Also the density of SiC and diamond are 3.2 and 3.6 g/cc respectively. Answer the following four questions
based on the above information: (M : Si = 28)

312. The radius of silicon atom is
(A) 0.76 Å (B) 1.12 Å (C) 3.54 Å (D) 4.75 Å
313. Which of the following will not change the density of SiC solid?
(A) Substitution of some Si atoms by some carbon atoms
(B) Schottky defects
(C) Interchange of some Si atom by some C atom
(D) Decreasing the temperature of solid.
COMPREHENSION # 36
Nuclear fission is the process of spliting of a heavy nucleus by bombarding with thermal neutrons in
to two approximately equal parts, with simultaneous liberation of a huge amount of energy. If the
sample of the fissionable material has a sufficiently large mass called critical mass, the neutrons
produced cause additional fission reaction and a chain fission reaction ensues.
57 La  ?  3  0 n  is
235
314. The missing product in the reaction : 92 u  01n  146 1
(A) 86
(B) (C) (D)
87 89 89
35 Br 35 Br 35 Br 32 Ge
315. The pair of elements that are produced in the following nuclear fission is
R
235
92 u  01 n 
 236  products  x  01n 
92 u 
where x is either 2 or 3. se
1) 2) 3) 4)
144 90 144 144
56 Ba 36 Kr 54 Xe 55 Cs
(A) 3, 4 (B) 2, 3 (C) 1, 2 (D) 1, 4
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316. Which one is correct for a nuclear fission reaction.
(A) the n/p ratio is low for the product elements
a
(B) in general  - emission is observed after the product elements are formed
(C) in general  - emission is observed after the product elements are formed
at
(D) the product elements are not radioactive in nature.

C
COMPREHENSION # 37

Copper reduces NO 3 into NO and NO 2 depending upon conc. of HNO 3 in solution. Assuming
[Cu2+] = 0.1 M, and PNO= PNO =10–3 atm and using given data answer the following questions:
2
Eo = + 0.34 volt
Cu 2  / Cu
Eo = + 0.96 volt
NO3 / NO
Eo = + 0.79 volt
NO3 / NO2
RT
at 298 K (2.303) = 0.06 volt
F

317. ECell for reduction of NO3  NO by Cu(s), when [HNO3] = 1M is [At T = 298]
(A) ~ 0.61 (B) ~ 0.71 (C) ~ 0.51 (D) ~ 0.81


318. At what HNO3 concentration thermodynamic tendency for reduction of NO 3 into NO and NO2 by copper
is same?
(A) 101.23 M (B) 100.56 M (C) 100.66 M (D) 100.12 M
COMPREHENSION # 38
The potential associated with each electrode is known as electrode potential. If the concentration of
each species taking part in the electrode reaction is unit (if any gas appears in the electrode reaction,
it is confined to 1 atmospheric pressure) and further the reaction is carried out at 298 K, then the
potential of each electrode is said to be the standard electrode potential. By convention, the standard
electrode potential of hydrogen electrode is 0.0 volt. The electrode potential value for each electrode
process is a measure of relative tendency of the active species in the process to remain in the
oxidised/reduced form. A negative Eº means that the redox couple is a stronger reducing agent than
the H+/H2 couple. A positive Eº means that the redox couple is a weaker reducing agent than the H +/
H2 couple. The metal with greater positive value of standard reducion potential forms the oxide of
greater thermal stability.
319. Calculate the minimum mass of NaOH required to be added in R.H.S. to consume all the H + present
in R.H.S. of the cell of emf + 0.701 volt at 25ºC before its use.
Zn | Zn 2 || HCl | Pt ( H 2g ) E 0Zn / Zn 2  = 0.760 V

0.1 M 1 litre .
R
1atm
(A) 1.264 g (B) 4g (C) 3.2 g (D) 2.258
320.
0.05 M
se
The emf of the cell , Ag | AgI in KI | NH 4 NO3 | AgNO 3 | Ag
Sol. 0.05 M
ly
is 0.788 volt at 25 ºC . The degree of dissociation of KI and silver nitrate in the above solution
is 0.90 each . Calculate the solubility product of AgI
(A) 9.472 ×10–17 (B) 4 ×10–17 (C) 11 ×10–17 (D) 2.105 ×10–17
a
321. The standard reduction potential at 25ºC of the reaction 2H 2O + 2e–  H2 + 2OH– is
at
– 0.8277 volt. Calculate the equilibrium constant for the reaction in which water is forming from its
ions at 25ºC.
(A) 10–14 (B) 10–7 (C) 1014 (D) 107
C
COMPREHENSION # 39
Kohlrausch Law of independent migration of ions relates the ionic conductivities and molar conductivities
of the electrolyte. Mobility of ion is not just the speed but, speed under a potential gradient. Moreover
mobility of an ion is directly proportional to current carried by it. The fraction of total current carried by an
ion is the transport number.
Given ionic mobilities of NH 4 , H+, ClO4 , Na  are 6.6 x 10-4, 3.62 x 10-3, 5.7 x 10-4, 5.2 x 10-4, cm2 Volt-1
Sec-1 respectively at infinite dilution.
322. The equivalent conductance of NaClO4 in S cm2 eq-1 is

(A) 105.18 (B) 118.7 (C) 404.3 (D) 356.8
323. Which of the following incorrect with respect to kohlrausch law

(A) 0 Al 2 SO4 3  30 Al  3   2 0 SO4  2  (B) 0 MgCl 2   0 Mg  2   2 0 Cl  
(C) 0 NH 4 NO3  0 NH 4    0 NO3   (D) 0 FeCl3  0 Fe 3   30 Cl  

324. The ionic mobility of Na+ if a potential of 15 Volt is applied across the electrodes 5cm apart.
(A) 5.2 x 10-4 (B) 15.6 x 104 (C) 10.4 x 10-4 (D) 20.8 x 10-4
COMPREHENSION # 40
An aqueous solution of NaCl on electrolysis gives H 2(g), Cl 2(g) and NaOH according to reaction
2Cl –(aq) + 2H2O  2OH–(aq) + H2(g) + Cl 2(g)
A direct current of 25 ampere with a current efficiency of 62% is passed through 20 litre of NaCl
solution (20% by weight)
Answer the following questions based on above passage.
325. Reaction taking place at cathode and at anode respectively are:
(A) 2e– + 2H2O  2OH– + H2 ; 2Cl –  Cl 2 + 2e–
1
(B) Na+ + e–  Na ; 2OH–  H2O + O + 2e–
2 2
(C) 2e– + H2  2H– ; H2  2H+ + 2e–
(D) 4e– + O 2  2O –2 ; H2 + 2OH–  2H2O + 2e–
326. Time required to produce 1 kg of Cl 2 is –
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(A) 30.2 hr (B) 15.1 hr (C) 24.35 hr (D) 48.71 hr
327. Molarity of solution with respect to OH– ions is –

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(A) 2.8 (B) 0.35 (C) 1.4 (D) 0.7
COMPREHENSION # 41
ly
Concentration cell is one in which anode and cathode of a voltaic cell is made of same electrode
a
Ex. A | A n  || A n  | A
c1 c2
at
c1 should not be equal to c2 to have some emf in the cell. Now consider the cell
(Pt) Cl2 | NaCl || AgCl | Cl2 (Pt)
P1 c (sat) P2
C
Ksp of AgCl is 10-12

328. If P1 = P2, required condition so that the above cell has positive emf
(A) c > 10-6 M (B) c < 10-6 M
(C) P1 = P2 = 1 atm
(D) Emf of the cell cannot be found as it is not a concentration cell
329. If c = 10-6 which of the following conditions will give positive emf
(A) P1 > P2 (B) P1 < P2 (C) P1 = P2 (D) None
330. Which one of the statements is correct about the cell (Pt) H2 | HCl || NaOH | H2 (Pt)
1 atm c c 1 atm
(A) It is not a concentration cell
(B) It has a positive emf
(C) It has a negative emf
(D) cannot say anything about emf without knowing the value of c

COMPREHENSION # 42
Colligative properties i.e., the [properties of solution which depends upon the number of particles
present in solution are osmotic pressure. Depression in freezing point, elevation in boiling point and
lowering in vapour pressure. Experimental values of colligative properties for electrolytes are always
higher than those obtained theoretically because electrolytes dissociates to furnish more ions in
solution. On the other hand experimentally obtained values of colligative properties for associating
nature of solute are lower than those obtained theoretically. The ratio of experimental colligative
properties to theoretical colligative properties is called as Vant Hoff factor (i).
331. Vant Hoff factor (i) for tetramerisation of a substance A in water, assuming 80% degree of association
is:
(A) 0.6 (B) 0.4 (C) 1.6 (D) 1.4
332.
1
Value of  for the reaction , A  5 A5 is given by the relation
(A)  = 54 (i –1) (B)  = 54 (1 – i) (C)  = 54 (1 – i) (D)  = 54 (i – 1)
333. The maximum depression in freezing point is noticed in:

(A) 1 M NaCl (B) 1M Na2SO4 (C) 1 M Na3PO 4 (D) 1 M Na4Fe(CN)6
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COMPREHENSION # 43se
At any fixed temperature, the vapour phase is always richer in more volatile component as compared
to the solution phase. In other words, mole fraction of more volatile component is always greater
ly
in vapour phase than in solution phase. We can also say that vapour phase is relatively richer in
the component whose addition to liquid mixture results in an increase in total vapour pressure.
334. If 2 moles of A and 3 moles of B are mixed to form an ideal solution, vapour pressures of A and
a
B are 120 and 180 mm of Hg respectively. The total vapour pressure of solution will be :
(A) 48 mm Hg (B) 108 mm Hg (C) 156 mm Hg (D) 15.6 mm Hg
at
335. From the statement in question number 202, the composition of A and B in the vapour phase when
the first traces of vapours are formed is :
C
(A) A = 0.407 ; B = 0.592 (B) A = 0.8 ; B = 0.1

(C) A = 0.109 ; B = 0.791 (D) A = 0.307 ; B = 0.693
336. From the statement in question number 202 , at what pressure will the last traces of liquid disappear
(A) 100 mm Hg (B) 130 mm Hg (C) 140 mm Hg (D) 150 mm Hg

COMPREHENSION # 44
Figure explains elevation in boiling point when a non-volatile solute is added to a solvent
337. Elevation in boiling point of an aqueous urea solution is 0.520 ( K b of water is 0.52 K Kg mol 1 ).
Hence mole fraction of urea in this solution is
(A) 0.982 (B) 0.0567 (C) 0.943 (D) 0.018
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338. A complex of iron and cyanide ions is 100% ionized at one molal solution. If the elevation in boiling
se
point is 2.080 C ( K b for water 0.52K Kg mol 1 ) then the complex is

(A) K3  Fe(CN )6  (B) Fe(CN )2 (C) K 4  Fe(CN )6  (D)  Fe(CN ) 4 
ly
Tb
a
Ratio of
339.
K b of 6% AB2 and 9% A2 B (both are non electrolytes) is one mole/Kg in both the cases.
at
Hence atomic masses of A and B are respectively.

(A) 60, 90 (B) 40, 40 (C) 40, 10 (D) 10, 40
C
COMPREHENSION # 45
 0
 
When a volatile substance A PA  400mm is added to another volatile substance B PB  500mm ,
0

the vapour pressure of the resulting solution is 470 mm of Hg. To this solution a third volatile solvent C
P0
C  600m  is added and vapour pressure of final solution is 496 mm of Hg.
340. Mole fraction of A in the final solution

(A) 0.20 (B) 0.22 (C) 0.24 (D) 0.26
341. Mole fraction of A in the vapour phase

(A) 0.2 (B) 0.22 (C) 0.24 (D) 0.26
342. Mole fraction of C in the vapour phase

(A) 0.2 (B) 0.22 (C) 0.24 (D) 0.26

COMPREHENSION # 46
When atoms are arranged in ABC ABC type of packing or ABAB type of packing, some space is left
in between the atom which is known as voids. Depending upon the situation, voids can be classified
as triangular, tetrahedral, octahedral or cubic
For example;
void shown in the figure is triangular void because it is formed by touching 3 atoms.
343. If radius of sphere is 200 pm then ideal radius of triangular void is:
(A) 31 pm (B) 45 pm (C) 62 pm (D) 90 pm
344. If for a particular compound AB, radius of A + is 80 pm and radius of B – is 200 pm then location of A +
ion in the crystal and % occupancy respectively is:
(A) Octahedral void 100% (B) Tetrahedral, 100%
(C) Tetrahedral , 50% (D) Octahedral, 50%
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345. Formula of a compound formed by A, B and C in which A is arranged in ccp , B is present in 25%
of the tetrahedral voids and C is present in all the remaining voids (tetrahedral as well as octahedral)
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is :
(A) AB2C2 (B) A2BC5 (C) ABC5 (D) A2B5C
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COMPREHENSION # 47
a
Many lyophilic sols and a few lyophobic sols when coagulated under some special conditions, change into
semi rigid mass, enclosing whole amount of liquid within itself, it is called Gel process is called gelation.
at
Gelatin Agar-Agar, gum-Arabic can be converted into gels by cooling them under moderate concentration
conditions. Hydrophobic sols like silicic acid, Al(OH)3 are prepared by double decomposition and exchange
of solvent method.
C
346. Which of the following is not a gel?

(A) Cheese (B) Jellies (C) Curd (D) Milk
347. When liquid is dispersed in solid, it is called

(A) Sol (B) Emulsion (C) Gel (D) Aerosols
348. Which of the following is used to adsorb water

(A) Silica gel (B) Calcium acetate (C) Hair gel (D) Cheese
349. The process of imbibing water when elastic gels are placed in water is called
(A) Imbibation (B) Sybneresis (C) Coagulation (D) Thioxotropy
350. Some types of gels like gelatin and silica liquify on shaking thereby changing into sols. The sols on
standing change back into gels. This process is known as:
(A) Syneresis (B) Thixotropy
(C) Double decomposition (D) Peptization

COMPREHENSION # 48
Dilute solutions show colligative properties. These properties depend on the number of particles of the
solute but not on their nature. If solute undergoes dissociation (or) association. The colligative property
differ considerably from the calculated value.
351. Which of the following solutions has highest boiling point

(A) 1% (w/v) glucose (B) 1% (w/v) fructose (C) 1% (w/v) sucrose (D) 1% (w/v) urea
352. For a solute undergoing association, the Van’t Hoff’s factor is

(A) i > 1 (B) i < 1 (C) i = 0 (D) i=1
353. Solutions having same vapour pressure are called

(A) isotonic solutions (B) isopiestic solutions
(C) isochoric solutions (D) isoelectric solutions.
COMPREHENSION # 49
Whenever a mixture of gases is allowed to come in contact with a particular adsorbent under the same
conditions, the more strong adsorbate is adsorbed to greater extent irrespective of its amount present,
e.g. H2O is adsorbed to more extent on silica gel than N2 and O2. This shows that some adsorbates are
R
preferentially adsorbed. It is also observed that preferentially adsorbable adsorbents can displace a
weakly adsorbed substance from the surface of an adsorbent.
354. Which of the following gases is adsorbed to maximum extent:
se
(A) He (B) Ne (C) Ar (D) Xe
355. Which of the gas can displace remaining all the gases
ly
(A) O2 (B) N2 (C) CO (D) H2
356. When temperature is increased

a
(A) extent of adsorption increases

(B) extent of adsorption decreases
at
(C) no effect on adsorption

(D) extent of adsorption first decreases, then increases
C
357. Chromatogarphic separations are based on

(A) differential solubility (B) differential adsorption
(C) differential absorption (D) None of these
358. Activated charcoal is prepared by

(A) heated charcoal with steam so that it becomes more porous
(B) adding Ca3(PO4)2 to charcoal
(C) adding impurity to charcoal
(D) reacted with conc. HNO3
COMPREHENSION # 50
The clouds consist of charged particles of water dispersed in air. Some of them are + vely charged, others
are negatively charged. When + vely charged clouds come closer they have cause lightening and thundering
whereas when + ve and –ve charged colloids come closer they cause heavy rain by aggregation of minute
particles. It is possible to cause artificial rain by throwing electrified sand or silver iodide from an aeroplane
and thus coagulation the mist hanging in air.
359. When excess of AgNO3 is treated with KI solution, AgI forms
(A) +ve charged sol (B) –vely charged sol (C) neutral sol (D) true solution

360. Clouds are colloidol solution of
(A) liquid in gas (B) gas in liquid (C) liquid in liquid (D) solid in liquid
361. AgI helps in artificial rain because

(A) It helps in coagulation (B) It helps in dispersion process
(C) Both (D) None
362. Electrical chimneys are made on the principle of

(A) Electroosmosis (B) Electrophoresis (C) Coagulation (D) All of these
COMPREHENSION # 51
In macromolecular type of colloids, the dispersed particles are themselves large molecules (usually polymers).
Since these molecules have dimensions comparable to those of colloidal particles, their dispersions are
called macromolecular colloids. Most lyophilic sols belong to this category. There are certain colloids which
behave as normal strong electrolytes at low concentrations, but exhibit colloidal properties at higher
concentrations due to the formation of aggregated particles. These are known as micelles or associated
colloids. Surface active agents like soaps and synthetic detergents belong to this class.
· Critical micelle concentration (CMC) is the lowest concentration at which micelle formation
appears. CMC increases with the total surfactant concentration. At concentration higher than
CMC, they form extended parallel sheets known as lamellar micelles which resemble biological
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membranes. With two molecules thick, the individual molecule is perpendicular to the sheets
such that hydrophilic groups are on the outside in aqueous solution and on the inside is a non-polar
medium.
·
se
In concentrated solutions, micelles take the form of long cylinders packed in hexagonal arrays
and are called lytotropic mesomorphs.
· In an aqueous solution (polar medium), the polar group points towards the periphery and the
ly
hydrophobic hydrocarbon chains point towards the centre forming the core of the micelle.
· Micelles from the ionic surfactants can be formed only above a certain temperature called the
a
Kraft temperature.
· They are capable of forming ions
at
· Molecules of soaps and detergents consist of lyophilic as well as lyophilic parts which associate
together to form micelles.
· Micelles may contain as many as 100 molecules or more.
C
363. Select incorrect statement(s):

(A) Surface active agent like soaps and synthetic detergents are micelles
(B) Soaps are emulsifying agents
(C) C17H35 (hydrocarbon part) and –COO– (carboxylate) part of stearate ion (C17H35COO–) both are
hydrophobic
(D) Soap is manufactured by the base catalysed hydrolysis(saponification) of animal fat.
364. Which part of the soap (RCOO–) dissolves grease and forms micelle?
(A) R part (called tail of the anion) (B) –COO– part (called head of the anion)
(C) both (A) and (B) (D) none of these
365. In multimolecular colloidal sols, atoms or molecules are held together by:
(A) H-bonding (B) van der Waals forces
(C) ionic bonding (D) polar covalent bonding
366. Cleansing action of soap occurs because:

(A) oil and grease can be absorbed into the hydrophobic centres of soap micelles and washed away
(B) oil and grease can be absorbed into hydrophilic centres of soap micelles acid washed away
(C) oil and grease can be absorbed into both hydrophilic and hydrophobic centres but not washed away
(D) cleansing action is not related to micelles

COMPREHENSION # 52
The protective power of the lyophilic colloids is expressed in terms of gold number a term introduced by
Zsigmondy.Gold number is the number of milligram of the protective colloid which prevent the coagulation
of 10 ml of red gold sol. when 1 ml of a 10 percent solution of sodium chloride is added to it. Thus, smaller
the gold number of lyophilic colloid, the greater is the protective power.
367. On addition of one mL of solution of 10% NaCl to 10 mL of red gold sol in presence of 0.025 g of starch, the
coagulation is just prevented. The gold number of starch is
(A) 0.025 (B) 0.25 (C) 2.5 (D) 25
368. Which of the following statement(s) is/are correct

(A) Higher the gold number, more protective power of colloid
(B) Lower the gold number, more the protective power
(C) Higher the coagulation value, more the coagulation power
(D) Lower the coagulation value, higher the coagulation power
369. Gold number gives an indication of
(A) protective nature of colloids (B) purity of gold in suspension
(C) the charge on a colloidal solution of gold (D) g-mole of gold per litre
COMPREHENSION # 53
R
A fuel cell is a cell that is continuously supplied with an oxidant and a reductant so that it can deliver a
current indefinitely. Fuel cells offer the possibility of achieving high thermodynamic efficiency in the
se
conversion of Gibbs energy into mechanical work. Internal combustion engines at best convert only the
fraction (T2 – T1)/T2 of the heat of combustion into mechanical work. While the thermodynamic efficiency of
ly
G
the fuel cell is given by,   , where G is the Gibbs energy change for the cell reaction and H is the
H
enthalpy change of the cell reaction. This efficiency can be upto 80% - 90% also in contrast to normal heat
a
engine efficincies which are generally about 40%.

at
C
Fuel cells may be classified according to the temperature range in which they operate : low temperature
(25 to 100°C), medium temperature (100 to 500°C), high temperature (500 to 1000°C), and very high

temperature (above 1000°C).The advantage of using high temperature is that catalysts for the various steps
in the process are not so necessary. Polarization of a fuel cell reduces the current. Polarization is the
result of slow reactions or processes such as diffusion in the cell
The figure, indicates the construction of a hydrogen-oxygen fuel cell with a solid electrolyte, which is an
ion exchange membrane. The membranes is impermeable to the reactant gases, but is permeable to
hydrogen ions , which carry the current between the electrodes. To facilitate the operation of the cell at 40
to 60°C, the electrodes are covered with finely divided platinum that function as a catalyst. Water is drained
out of the cell during operation. Fuel cells of this general type have been used successfully in the space
program and are quite efficient. Their disadvantages for large-scale commercial application are that hydrogen
presents storage problems, and platinum is an expensive catalyst. Cheaper catalysts have been found for
higher temperature operation of hydrogen-oxygen fuel cells.
Fuel cells that use hydrocarbons and air have been developed, but their power per unit weight is too low to
make them practical in ordinary automobiles. Better catalysts are needed.
A hydrogen-oxygen fuel cell may have an acidic or alkaline electrolyte. The half-cell reactions are
1
O (g) + 2H+ + 2e– = H2O() E° = 1.2288 V
2 2
2H+ + 2e– = H2(g) E° = 0
––––––––––––––––––––––––––––––––––––––––
1
H2(g) + O (g) = H2O() E° = 1.2288 V
2 2
or
R
1
O (g) + H2O() + 2e– = 2OH– E° = 0.4009 V
2 2
2H2O() + 2e– = H2(g) + 2OH–
se E° = – 0.8279 V
–––––––––––––––––––––––––––––––––––––––––––––––––––
1
H2(g) + O (g) = H2O() E° = 1.2288 V
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2 2
To maximize the power per unit mass of an electrochemical cell, the electronic and electrolytic resistances
of the cell must be minimized. Since fused salts have lower electrolytic resistances than aqueous
a
solutions, high-temperature electrochemical cells are of special interest for practical applications.
High temperature also allow the use of liquid metal electrode, which make possible higher current densities
at
than solid electrodes.

370. If 560 mL of H2 gas at STP is fed into and is consumed by the fuel cell in 10 minutes, then what is the
current output of the fuel cell?
C
(A) 4 A (B) 8 A (C) 16 A (D) 12 A
371. For a Hydrogen - Oxygen fuel cell if Hf0(H2O,) = – 285 kJ/mole, then what will be its thermodynamic
efficiencyunder standard conditions(use data given in the passage if required)
(A) 0.91 (B) 0.41 (C) 0.63 (D) 0.83
372. Why are fuel cells not being used in daily life despite their very high efficiency.
(A) The fuels needed for their operation are rarely found in nature
(B) Their operation always needs very high temperature
(C) The catalyst used in fuel cells at normal temperature are very expensive
(D) The design of fuel cells is so complicated that it is not feasible to construct these for daily life
applications.
373. In a H2 – O2 fuel cell, 6.72 L of hydrogen at NTP reacts in 15 minutes, the average current produced in
amperes is
(A) 64.3 amp (B) 643.3 amp (C) 6.43 amp (D) 0.643 amp
374. The reduction and oxidation potentials(approximately) of water respectively are

(A) 1.23 V, – 0.83 V (B) –1.23 V, 0.83 V (C) 0.40 V, – 0.83 V (D) – 0.83 V, 1.23 V

375. Match the following columns
Column I Column II Column III
Structure Location of atoms Coordination number
(a) SCC (i) corners as well as face centre (x) 8
(b) BCC (ii) Only at corners (y) 12
(c) FCC (iii) Corners as well as body centre (z) 6
(A) (a) - (i) - (z) , (b) - (ii) - (x) , (c) - (iii) - (y)
(B) (a) - (ii) - (x) , (b) - (i) - (y) , (c) - (iii) - (z)
(C) (a) - (iii) - (z) , (b) - (i) - (x) , (c) - (ii) - (y)
(D) (a) - (ii) - (z) , (b) - (iii) - (x) , (c) - (i) - (y)
376. Name of colloidal solution Example

(a) Emulsion (i) Pumic stone
(b) Aerosol (ii) Rocks salts
(c) Sol (iii) Cheese
(d) Solid sol (iv) Protein
(e) Foam (v) Milk
(f) Gel (vi) Mist
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(g) Solid foam (vii) Whipped cream
377. Match the following columns se

Column I Column II Column III
Location of ions No. of occupied voids Void
(a) Cs+ in CsCl structure (i) All (p) Octahedral
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(b) Na+ in NaCl structure (ii) Alternate (q) Tetrahedral
(c) Zn++ in ZnS structure (iii) One fourth (r) Triangular
(d) F¯ in CaF2 structure (iv) One third (s) Cuboidal
a
(e) Na+ in Na2O structure

at
(A) (a) - (i) - (s) , (b) - (i) - (q) , (c) - (ii) - (q) , (d) - (i) - (q) , (e) - (i) - (q)
(B) (a) - (ii) - (s) , (b) - (i) - (r) , (c) - (ii) - (q) , (d) - (iii) - (q) , (e) - (i) - (q)
C
(C) (a) - (i) - (s) , (b) - (iii) - (r) , (c) - (ii) - (r) , (d) - (i) - (q) , (e) - (i) - (s)
(D) (a) - (ii) - (r) , (b) - (i) - (s) , (c) - (iii) - (q) , (d) - (i) - (q) , (e) - (ii) - (q)
378. Match the following column

Column I Column II
Structure Packing efficiency
(a) atoms are present at corners as well as on edge centre (i)  /6
(b) atoms are present at corners as well as on face centre (ii) 3 /8
(c) atoms are present at corners as well as on body centre (iii) /12
(d) atoms are present only at corners (iv) 2 /6
(A) (a) - (iii) , (b) - (i) , (c) - (iv) , (d) - (iii) (B) (a) - (ii) , (b) - (v) , (c) - (iv) , (d) - (iii)
(C) (a) - (iii) , (b) - (iv) , (c) - (ii) , (d) - (i) (D) (a) - (v) , (b) - (iv) , (c) - (i) , (d) - (iii)

379. Column (I) Column (II)
(A) Gold sol (P) Bredig's Arc method
(B) Purification of colloidal solution (Q) Negatively charged
(C) As2S3 sol (R) Ultra centrifugation
(D) Zeta potential (S) Electro kinetic potential
(E) Casein (T) Double decomposition reaction
380. Property Reason
(a) Brownian movement (i) Due to the scattering of light
(b) Tyndal effect (ii) Due to the presence of charge
(c) Electrophoresis (iii) Due to the neutralization of charge
(d) Coagulation (iv) Due to unequal bombardment by solvent
molecules
381. Name of colloidal solution Example
(a) Emulsion (i) Pumic stone
(b) Aerosol (ii) Rocks salts
(c) Sol (iii) Cheese
(d) Solid sol (iv) Protein
(e) Foam (v) Milk
(f) Gel (vi) Mist
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(g) Solid foam (vii) Whipped cream
382. Property se Application
(a) Tyndal effect (i) Smoke precipitator
(b) Electrophoresis (ii) Ultra microscope
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(c) Coagulation (iii) Medicine
(d) Adsorption (iv) Sewage water disposal
a

Column I Column II
at
Structure Examples
(a) Spinel structure (i) K2O
(b) Antifluorite structure (ii) ZnFe2O4
C
(c) Wurtzite structure (iii) BaCl2

(d) Fluorite structure (iv) ZnS
(e) Corundum (v) Fe2O3
(A) (a) - (ii) , (b) - (i) , (c) - (iv) , (d) - (iii) , (e) - (v)
(B) (a) - (ii) , (b) - (v) , (c) - (iv) , (d) - (iii) , (e) - (ii)
(C) (a) - (iii) , (b) - (iv) , (c) - (v) , (d) - (i) , (e) - (ii)
(D) (a) - (v) , (b) - (iv) , (c) - (i) , (d) - (iii) , (e) - (ii)
Column I Column II
Structure Crystal defect
(a) Density of crystal decreases (i) Schottky defect
(b) dielectric constant increases (ii) Frenkel defect
(c) equal no. of cations & anions are (iii) F-centres
missing from the lattice
(d) Anion vacancies having unpaired electrons
(e) Cation is missing from its site and occupies void
(A) (a) - (ii) , (b) - (i) , (c) - (iv) , (d) - (iii) , (e) - (v)
(B) (a) - (i) , (b) - (ii) , (c) - (i) , (d) - (iii) , (e) - (ii)
(C) (a) - (iii) , (b) - (iv) , (c) - (v) , (d) - (i) , (e) - (ii)
(D) (a) - (v) , (b) - (iv) , (c) - (i) , (d) - (iii) , (e) - (ii)

Column I Column II
(a) if the activation energy is 65 kJ then how much time (i) 5
faster a reaction proceed at 25°C than at 0°C
(b) Rate constant of a first - order reaction is 0.0693 min –1. (ii) 11
If we start with 20 mol L–1, it is reduced to 2.5 mol L–1
in how many minutes
(c) Half - lives of first - order and zeroth order reactions are same. (iii) 30
Ratio of rates at the start of reaction is how many times of 0.693
1
(d) the half-life periods are given , (iv)
2
[A]0 (M) 0.0677 0.136 0.272
t1/2 (sec) 240 480 960
order of the reaction is
(e) Rate of formation of SO 3 in the following reaction (v) 2
2SO 2 + O 2  2SO 3
is 100 g min–1. Rate of disappearance of O 2 in g min–1 (vi) 1
(vii) zero
(viii) 40
(ix) 50
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Column A
seColumn B
k t 10
(i) Zero order reaction (a)
ly
kt
dx
(ii) First order reation (b)
a
dt
at
dx
(iii) Second order reaction (c) – = k[A] 2[B]
dt
C
hv
(iv) Instantaneous rate (d) H2 + Cl2  2HCl
(v) Temperature coefficient (e) CH3COOCH3 + NaOH 
CH3COONa + CH3OH
(vi) Rate equation for third order reaction (f) 2H2O 2  H2O + O 2
(vii) Acidic hydrolysis of ester (g) Pseudo-unimolecular reaction
(A) i-e, ii-f, iii-g, iv-c, v-a, vi-d, vii-b (B) i-d, ii-f, iii-e, iv-b, v-a, vi-c, vii-g
(C) i-e, ii-g, iii-f, iv-d, v-a, vi-c, vii-b (D) i-b, ii-c, iii-a, iv-d, v-f, vi-g, vii-e

Column I Column II
order Rate reaction
x
(i) Zero (a) k2 =
at (a  x )
x
(ii) One (b) k0 =
t
x (2a  x )
(iii) Two (c) k3 =
t.2a 2 (a  x ) 2
2.303 a
(iv) Three (d) k1 = log
t ax
(A) i-b, ii-d, iii-a, iv-c (B) i-d, ii-b, iii-c, iv-a
(C) i-c, ii-a, iii-b, iv-d (D) i-a, ii-b, iii-c, iv-d
388. The following data are for the reaction A + B  products:

concn. A concn. B Initial Rate
R
(M) (M) (mol L 1 s1)
0.1 0.1 4.0 x 104
0.2 0.2 1.6 x 103
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0.5 0.1 2.0 x 103
0.5 0.5 1.0 x 102
Column I Column II
ly
(a) the order with respect to A (i) 2.8 × 10–3 M·s1
(b) the order with respect to B (ii) One
(c) the rate constant (iii) 1.8 × 10–3 M·s1
a
(d) the reaction rate for A and B are (iv) k[A][B]

0.2M and 0.35M, respectively.
at
(e) the reaction rate for A and B are (v) 4 × 102M1s1

0.3M and 0.15M, respectively.
(f) rate of reaction (vi) k[A] 2 [B]
C
389. Given the following steps in the mechanism for a chemical reaction :
A + B fast C
B + C slow D + E
D + F fast A + E
Column I Column II
(a) The stoichiometric equation (i) Second
for the reaction
(b) Catalysts in this reaction (ii) rate = k [B][C]
(c) Intermediates in this reaction (iii) rate = k'[A][B]
(d) The rate-determining step (iv) B + C  D + E
(e) The rate law for the (v) 2 B+F  2E
rate-determining step
(f) Order of the reaction (vi) A
(vii) C
(viii) D

Examples of solution Types of solution
(a) Acetone + Aniline (i) Positive deviation from ideal behaviour
(b) Water + Methanol (ii) Negative deviation from ideal behaviour
(c) Benzene + Toluene (iii) Ideal solution
(d) n-Hexane + N-heptane
(e) Water + HCl

Condition for various solutions Type of solutions
(a) PA + PB < PAº xA + PºB xB (i) Positive deviation from ideal behaviour
(b) A–B attractive forces should be (ii) Negative deviation from ideal behaviour
weaker than B–B attractive forces. (iii) Ideal solution
(c) Vmix > 0 & Endothermic dissolution
(d) Hmix < 0 & volume decreased
during dissolution
(e) Raoult’s law is obeyed at every range
of temperatre
Example of electrolyte Value of Van’t Hoff factor.
(a) K3[Fe(CN)3] (i) 2
R
(b) Benzoic acid in benzene (ii) 1
(c) NaCl (iii) 1 + 
(d) CH3COOH
se
(iv)
 1
1 – 1 
 
 n
ly
(e) Urea (v) 1 + 3

a
Colligative properties. Their formula

(a)  (i) P0xB
at
nRT
(b) P0–Ps (ii)
V
C
(c) Tf (iii) Kb.m

1000 K f WA
(d) Tb (iv)
m A WB

Properties Formula
1000  K f  W
(a) Molal depression constant (Kf) (i)
W  Tf
i 1
(b) degree of dissociation (ii)
1
1
n
M solute (normal)
(c) degree of association (iii)
M solute (observed)
i 1
(d) Van’t Hoff factor (iv)
n 1
R Tf 2
(e) Msolute (observed) (v)
1000  Lf
R
Column I Column II
(i) Cell constant (a)
se  cm
(ii) m (b) cm –1
(iii)  eq (c) S cm –1
(iv) k (d) S cm 2 mol –1
ly
(v)  (e) S m 2 eq–1
(A) i-b, ii-d, iii-e, iv-c, v-a (B) i-a, ii-d, iii-c, iv-e, v-b
(C) i-d, ii-b, iii-a, iv-c, v-e (D) i-b, ii-d, iii-a, iv-e, v-c
a
Match the following:

at
396.
Column I Column II
Electrolyte Anode Cathode Product at cathode at anode
(i) Aq CuCl 2 Pt Pt (a) Cu(s) Cu++
C
(ii) Aq CuCl 2 Cu Cu (b) Cu(s) Cl2(g)

(iii) Aq CuCl 2 Cu Ag (c) Cu(s) Cu++
(iv) Aq CuCl 2 Ag Cu (d) Cu(s) Ag ++
(A) i-b, ii-d, iii-a, iv-a (B) i-a, ii-b, iii-a, iv-d
(C) i-a, ii-b, iii-a, iv-d (D) i-b, ii-a, iii-a, iv-d

Column I Column II
Electrode Type
(i) Pt, H2(1 atm) | H+ (1M) (a) Secondary refrence electrode
(ii) Zn(s) | Zn2+ || Cu2+ | Cu(s) (b) Primary reference electrode
(iii) Calomel electrode (c) NHE
(iv) Ag | AgCl | Cl – (1M) (d) Denial cell
(A) i-bc, ii-d, iii-a, iv-a (B) i-bc, ii-a, iii-d, iv-a
(C) i-ac, ii-d, iii-b, iv-a (D) i-bc, ii-d, iii-a, iv-b

Column I Column II
(i) Salt bridge (a) + G
(ii) nFE (b) Diffusion in ions
(iii) Corrosion (c) –G
(iv) Cu(s) | Cu++ || Zn++ | Zn(s) (d) Fe2O3 x .H2O
(A) i-d, ii-c, iii-b, iv-a (B) i-c, ii-b, iii-a, iv-d
(C) i-b, ii-c, iii-d, iv-a (D) i-a, ii-c, iii-d, iv-b

Column I Column II
(i) Loss of electron (a) Cathode to anode
(ii) Gain of electron (b) Anode to cathode
(iii) Flow of current (c) Cathode
(iv) Flow of electron (d) Anode
(A) i-c, ii-c, iii-a, iv-d (B) i-a, ii-c, iii-d, iv-c
(C) i-d, ii-c, iii-a, iv-c (D) i-c, ii-a, iii-d, iv-c

400. What will be the initial rate of a reaction if its rate constant is 10 –3 min–1 and the concentration
R
of reactant is 0.2 mol dm –3 ? How much of reactant will be converted into products in 200 minute ?
401. Same quantity of electricity is being used to liberate iodine (at anode) and a metal x (at cathode). The
se
mass of x deposited is 0.617g and the iodine is completely reduced by 46.3 cc of 0.124M sodium
thiosulphate. Find the equivalent mass of x to the nearest integer.
ly
402. One litre water in a bucket is placed in a closed dry air room having dimensions 4  2  1.5 m 3 at
300 K . If the vapour pressure of water at 300 K is 27.0 mm and density of water at 300 K is 0.990
g cm –3 , calculate the amount of water left in liquid state .
a
The composition of a sample of wurtzite is Fe0.93O1.00. What percentage of iron is present in the form of
at
403.
Fe(III) ?
We have taken a saturated solution of AgBr.Ksp of AgBr is 12 × 10–14. If 10–7 mole of AgNO3 are added to
C
404.
1 litre of this solution find conductivity (specific conductance) of this solution in terms of 10–7 S m–1 mol–1.
0 0 0
Given :  ( Ag  ) = 6 ×10–3 S m2 mol–1 ;   = 8 ×10–3 S m2 mol–1 ;  = 7×10–3 S m2 mol–1
( Br ) ( NO3 )
405. From the following data, estimate the activation energy (in kcal/mol) for the reaction,
H2 + I2  2HI
T, K 1/T, K–1 log k

769 1.3 x 10–3 2.9
667 1.5 x 10–3 1.1
406. A radioactive isotope of P 32 (t 1/2 = 14.3 day) used in biotracer studies of phosphorus metabolism
accumulates in waste material having activity 1 millicurie . If it is unsafe to dispose off this waste
material until the activity falls to 0.01 microcurie , how long must we store the waste in lead container
before it is safe to dispose it ?

407. To reduce nitrobenzene to aniline , 20 g of C6H5NO 2 , 30 mL of an alcohol , 250 mL of water , 11 g
of HCl and 1 g of SnCl 2 . 2 H2O were placed in the cathode space . After passing a current of 26.5
ampere hour through the lead cathodic electrolytic cell , 12.76 g of aniline was produced . Determine
the current efficiency .
408. Copper sulphate solution (250 mL) was electrolysed using a platinum anode and a copper cathode. A
constant current of 2 mA was passed for 16 mintue. It was found that after electrolysis, the absorbance
(concentration) of the solution was reduced to 50% of its original value. If the calculated concentration of
copper sulphate in the solution to begin with comes out to be abc × 10–d M. (Give the value of 4 digit integer
no. ‘abcd’)
409. During the discharge of a lead storage battery the density of sulphuric acid fell from 1.294 to
1.139 g.ml1. H2SO4 of density 1.294 g mL1 is 39% and that of density 1.139 g mL1 is 20% by weight.
The battery holds 3.5L of acid and the volume practically remains constant during the discharge. Calculate
the number of ampere hours for which the battery must have been used. The discharging reactions are:
Pb + SO42  PbSO4 + 2e (anode)
+ 2
PbO2 + 4H + SO4 + 2e  PbSO4 + 2H2O
  (cathode)
410. Calculate the numbers of  and  particles emitted in the conversion of 92U238 to 82Pb206.
(Suppose the no. of  and  particles is x and y respectively then give your answer as two digit integer ‘xy’)
R
411. A binary compound AB (formula weight 6.023 Y amu , where Y is some arbitrary number) AB exists in
rock salt structure (1 : 1) . The shortest cation-anion distance is Y1/3 nm .
se
Calculate :
(i) The density
(ii) If observed density is 20 kg/m3 then find which point defect is present ?
ly
412. A small amount of solution containing Na24 radio nucleide with activity A = 2 × 103 dps was administered
a
into blood of a patient in a hospital. After 5 hour, a sample of the blood drawn out from the patient showed
an activity of 16 dpm per c.c. t1/2 for Na24 = 15 hr. Find –
at
(a) volume of the blood in patient

(b) Activity of blood sample drawn after a further time of 5 hr.
C
413. The vapour pressures of ethanol and methanol are 44.5 and 88.7 mm of Hg respectively. An ideal solution
is formed at the same temperature by mixing 60 g of ethanol and 40 g of methanol. Calculate the total
vapour pressure of solution and mole fraction of methanol in vapour phase.
414. The coagulation of 100 ml of a colloidal sol of gold is completely prevented by addition of 0.25 g of starch
to it before adding 1 ml of 10 % NaCl solution. Find out the gold number of starch.
415. The vapour pressure of liquids A and B at 100 ºC are 300 and 100 mm of Hg respectively . A mixture
of two liquids forming ideal solution at 100 ºC exerts a vapour pressure in gaseous phase in which A
and B are one mole each in vapour phase . Calculate the vapour pressure of mixture and the mole
fraction of liquid mixture in which two liquids are mixed .
416. If an element crystallizes in a cubic structure of edge length 5 Å . If the density and the atomic mass
of the element are 2 gm/cc and 75 respectively , then calculate the radius ?
417. The acid catalysed hydrolysis of an organic compound A at 30 ºC has half life of 100 minute when
carried out in a buffer solution of pH = 5 and 10 minute when carried out at pH = 4 . Both the times the
half life are independent of the initial concentration of A . If the rate of reaction is given by , rate = K
[A] m [H+] n , what are the values of m and n ?

418. 200 g of a non-electrolyte compound (molar mass = 20) are dissolved in 2.0 litre of X M Na2SO 4
aqueous solution . The osmotic pressure of this solution is found to be 480 atm at 27 ºC. Calculate
the value of X. Assume complete dissociation of NaCl and ideal behaviour of this solution .
[ R = 0.08 litre atm mol –1 K–1 ]
419. How many kinds of space lattices are possible in a crystal ?
420. A metal of atomic weight 80 has density 50 gm/cm 3. If edge length of unit cell is 200 pm then
calculate no. of atoms per unit cell (N0 = 6 × 1023)
421. A wooden lamp excavated recently was found to emit 5  -particles per minute per gram of carbon. The
freshly cut wood is found to emit 14  -particles per minute per gram of carbon. how old is wooden lamp.
Half life period of 14 C is 5770 yrs.
422. For the coagulation of 100 ml of arsenious sulphide sol, 5 ml of 1 M NaCl is required. What is the
Flocculation value of NaCl?
423. A nuclear reactor produces radioactive phosphorus (P32) with half life of 13.8 days. Initially the activity was
2.0 x 109 nuclei per second. After how much time from the begining of production the activity will reduce to
1 x 109 dps. answer to the nearest integer.
R
424. The volume of nitrogen gas Um (measured at STP) required to cover a sample of silica gel with a
se
mono-molecular layer is 129 cm3 g–1 of gel. Calculate the surface area per gram of the gel if each nitrogen
molecule occupies 16.2 × 10–20 m2.
a ly
at
C

XI
425. The order of increasing thermal stabilities of ,
(I) K2CO 3 , (II) MgCO 3 , (III) CaCO 3 , (IV) BaCO 3 is:
(A) II < III < IV < I (B) IV < II < III < I
(C) IV < II < I < III (D) II < IV < III < I
426. Iron is harder than sodium because

(A) iron atoms are smaller (B) iron atoms are more closely packed
(C) metallic bonds are stronger in sodium (D) metallic bonds are stronger in iron
427. Which of the following is the right order of lattice energy ?

(A) Na2O = Al 2O 3 (B) Al 2O 3 < Na2O (C) Na2O > MgO (D) Na2O < MgO
428. The maximum covalency is equal to –

(A) the number of unpaired p-electrons
(B) the number of paired d-electrons
(C) the number of unpaired s and p-electrons in the outermost shell
(D) the actual number of s and p-electrons in the outermost shell
429. The volatility of HF is low because of
R
(A) its low polarizability
(B) the weak dispersion interaction between the molecules
(C) its small molecular mass se
(D) its strong hydrogen bonding
430. Acetylene does not form hydrogen bond because :

ly
(A) absence of lone pair of electron in higher electronegative carbon atom
(B) absence of more electronegative atom
(C) size of more electronegative atom is large
a
(D) None of these

at
431. Anhydrous AlCl 3 is covalent but AlCl 3 . 6 H2O is ionic because :

(A) AlCl 3 has a plane triangular structure
(B) the ionization energy of Al is very low
C
(C) the hydration energy of AlCl 3 is very high

(D) the hydration energy of AlCl 3 compensates for the high ionization energy of aluminium
432. Which of the following employ(s) the technique of fractional crystallisation?

(A) Parke’s process (B) Pattinson’s process
(C) Vanarkel’s process (D) zone refining
433. When a small amount of solid calcium phosphide, Ca3 P2 , is added to water, what are the most likely
products ?
(A) aqueous Ca+2 and OH– ions and PH3 gas
(B) aqueous Ca+2 and OH– ions and aqueous H3PO3
(C) solid CaH2 and aqueous H3PO3
(D) solid CaO and PH3 gas
434. In Ostwald's Process, _________ is oxidised to NO using _________.

(A) N2O, O2 (B) N2, O2 (C) NH3, N2O (D) NH3, O2
435. A metal oxide when heated with water gas at 50 0C under atmospheric pressure, gets converted
completely to a gas which is highly toxic and inflammable. The metal could be
(A) Pb (B) Ni (C) Hg (D) Ba

436. Which variety of coal is used for reduction of tinstone in metallurgy of tin?
(A) Peat (B) Lignite (C) Bone char (D) Anthracite
437. In which of the following is highest temperature attainable

(A) kiln (B) induction furnace
(C) blast furnace (D) reverberatory furnace
438. For the confirmatory tests of acid radicals, sodium carbonate extract is prepared because –
(A) all anions react with Na
(B) Na is more reactive
(C) Na2CO 3 is water soluble
(D) sodium salts of almost all anions are water soluble
439. In a suspected case of poisoning, a forensic expert is analysing a food sample. When the sample
is heated with zinc and dil. acid after appropriate treament, a foul-smelling gas is evolved which
gives a silver mirror when passed through a heated glass tube. The poisonous element from the
sample gives (in its ionic form in the solution) a yellow precipitate when H 2S is passed in its
ammonical solution. The poisonous element could be
(A) Hg (B) Sb (C) As (D) Pb
440. The name of the blue product of the reaction between ferrous ion and ferricyanide ion is –
(A) thenard blue (B) turnbull's blue (C) Prussian blue (D) ultramarine blue
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441. The correct lewis acid order for boron halides is -
(A) BF 3 > BCl 3 > BBr3 > BI 3 (B)
se BCl 3 > BF 3 > BBr3 > BI 3
(C) BI 3 > BBr3 > BCl 3 > BF 3 (D) BBr3 > BCl 3 > BI 3 > BF 3
442. Permutit is
ly
(A) hydrated sodium aluminium silicate (B) sodium hexametaphosphate
(C) sodium silicate (D) sodium metaaluminate
a
443. The H bonding slip HF can be best represented as –

at
(A) H – F .. H – F .. H – F (B)
C
(C) (D)
444. Soda extract of the salt is prepared by –

(A) fusing mixture of backing soda and slat and then extracting with water
(B) dissolving NaHCO 3 and salt in dil HCl
(C) boiling Na2CO 3 and salt in dil HCl
(D) boiling Na2CO 3 and salt in distilled water
445. Ferric ions form a Prussian blue coloured precipitate with K 4Fe(CN)6 due to the formation of –
(A) K3[Fe(CN)6] (B) Fe4[Fe(CN)6]3 (C) Fe(OH)3 (D) KFe[Fe(CN)6]
446. What is incorrect about Al 2(SO 4)3 ?

(A) it is a white salt
(B) its aqueous solution gives precipitate of compound Al with AgNO 3 solution.
(C) on adding NaOH solution to its aqueous solution, a precipitate is formed which dissolved in
excess of NaOH
(D) it will give precipitate with lead acetate solution

447. The main factor responsible for weak acidic nature of B - F bond in BF 3 is ;
(A) Large electronegativity of F
(B) Three centred two electron bond in BF 3
(C) P - d back bonding
(D) P - P back bonding
448. Na2CO 3 can be manufactured by Solvay process but K 2CO 3 can not be prepared because –
(A) K2CO 3 is more soluble (B) K2CO 3 is less soluble
(C) KHCO 3 is more soluble than NaHCO 3 (D) KHCO 3 is less soluble than NaHCO 3
449. Which one of the following does not have intermolecular H-bonding
(A) H2O (B) o-nitrophenol (C) HF (D) CH3COOH
450. An acid among the following is -

(A) B(OH )3 (B) Al(OH)3 (C) NaOH (D) None
451. Inert pair effect is prominent characteristic of :

(A) s - block (B) d - block (C) p - block (D) f - block
452. For Be(NO 3)2 anhydrous which is correct .

(A) starting material is Be(NO 3)2.2H2O with N2O 4
(B) Be(NO 3)2 (anh.) on heating upto 125º C gives basic beryllium nitrate [Be 4O(NO 3)6]
R
(C) Be + HNO 3 (dil. )  Be(NO 3)2 (anh.) + H2O
(D) all of these are correct se
453. CaNH on hydrolysis will give gas (A) which on oxidation by CaOCl 2 will convert into (B) . What are
(A) and (B) ?
ly
(A) A = NH3 , B = N2 (B) A = N2 , B = NH3
(C) A = NH3 , B = NH3 (D) A = N2 , B = N3H
a
454. The correct order of viscosity of alcohol, ethylene glycol and glycerol is
(A) alcohol > glycol > glycerol (B) glycerol > glycol > alcohol
at
(C) glycol > glycerol > alcohol (D) alcohol > glycerol > glycol
455. Highly pure dilute solution of sodium in liquid ammonia :

C
(A) shows blue colour

(B) exhibits electrical conductivity & act as reducing agent
(C) produces sodium amide
(D) All of these
456. Which of the following sets of characteristics leads to the increase in solubility of ionic substances
(A) High dipole moment, strong attraction by an ion and large solvation energy
(B) Low dipole moment, weak attraction by an ion and high solvation energy
(C) High dipole moment, strong attraction by an ion and low solvation energy
(D) High dipole moment, weak attraction by an ion and large solvation energy
457. What is the chemical composition of matte?

(A) Cu2O + FeS (B) Cu2O + Cu2S (C) FeS + SiO2 (D) Cu2S + FeS
458. The second I.P. of Na, third I.P. of Mg and fourth I.P. of Al are very high because
(A) the ion Na+, Mg2+ and Al 3+ have high ionic potential
(B) these ions are isoelectronic
(C) these ions have outer ns2np6 configuration
(D) these ions are of normal elements

459. Which of the following exhibit/s H-bonding?
(A) CH4 (B) H2Se (C) N2H4 (D) H2S
460. Correct order of electronegative difference between bonded atom is :

(A) AlCl 3 < MgCl 2 < NaCl (B) NaCl < AlCl 3 < MgCl 2
(C) NaCl < MgCl 2 < AlCl 3 (C) MgCl 2 < NaCl < AlCl 3

461. Three centre-two electron bonds exist in –
(A) B2H6 (B) Al 2(CH3)6 (C) BeH2(s) (D) BeCl 2 (s)
462. Adding electron to neutral gaseous atom usually leads to

(A) Liberation of energy (B) Formation of ion
(C) Proton/electron ratio decreases (D) Stabilizing the species
463. Sodium nitrate decomposes above ~ 800ºC to give

(A) N2 (B) O 2 (C) NO 2 (D) Na2O
464. Select correct statement(s):
R
(A) Borax is used as a buffer
(B) 1 M borax solution reacts with equal volumes of 2 M HCl solution
se
(C) Titration of borax can be made using methyl orange as the indicator
(D) Coloured bead obtained in borax-bead test contains metaborate
ly
465. Select correct statement about B2H6
(A) Bridging groups are electron-deficient with 12 valence electrons
(B) It has 2c - 2e B–H bonds
a
(C) It has 3c - 2e B–H–B bonds

(D) All of above are correct statements
at
466. Which one of the following process(es) will produce temporary hard water?
(A) Addition of Na2SO4 to water. (B) Saturation of water with CaCO3
C
(C) Saturation of water with MgCO3 (D) Saturation of water with CaSO4
467. The reagent(s) that can’t be used to determine hardness of water titrimetrically is/are :
(A) oxalic acid (B) disodium salt of EDTA
(C) sodium citrate (D) sodium thiosulphate
468. In context with the industrial preparation of hydrogen from water gas (CO + H2), which of the following
is/are the incorrect statement(s)?
(A) CO is oxidised to CO2 with steam in the presence of a catalyst followed by absorption of CO2 in
alkali.
(B) CO and H2 are fractionally separated using differences in their densities.
(C) CO is removed by absorption in aqueous Cu2Cl2 solution.
(D) H2 is removed through occlusion with Pd.
469. Hydrogen peroxide is

(A) A stronger acid than water (B) A weaker acid than water
(C) An oxidising agent (D) A reducing agent

470. Hydrogen can be obtained from water by
(A) Reaction with metal oxides (B) Reaction with non-metal oxides
(C) Reaction with metals (D) Reaction with metal hydrides
471. Which of the following is/are hard water(s)

(A) Water containing some potash alum (B) Water containing a few drops of HCl
(C) Water containing common salt (D) Water containing calcium nitrate
472. Pick the incorrect statement(s):

(A) Sodium borohydride reacts very slowly with cold water
(B) Sodium borohydride reacts very violently with cold water to produce H 2
(C) Solubility of sodium borohydride in water at 25°C is 10.05 g/mL
(D) Melting point of sodium borohydride is 500°C
473. Hydrogen can be obtained from water, by the action of water on

(A) Calcium carbide (B) Calcium hydride (C) Calcium oxide (D) Calcium
474. What is true about ice

(A) Its density is more than water (B) It is a good conductor of heat
R
(C) It is a thermal insulator (D) Its density is less than water
475. Which of the following order is wrong:
(A) NH3 < PH3 < AsH3 – Acidic

se (B) Li < Be < B < C – IE1
ly
(C) Al2O3 < MgO < Na2O < K2O – Basic (D) Li+ < Na+ < K+ < Cs+ – Ionic radius
a
476. True statement(s) for periodic classification of elements is

at
(A) The properties of the elements are periodic function of their atomic numbers
(B) No. of nonmetallic elements is less than the no. of metallic elements
C
(C) First ionization energy of elements does not change continuously with increasing of atomic no. in
a period .
(D) d-subshell is filled by directional electron with increasing atomic no. of transition elements.
477. Which of the following is / are correct for group 14 elements?

(A) The stability of dihalides are in the order CX2 < SiX2 < GeX2 < SnX2 < PbX2
(B) The ability to form p–p multiple bonds among themselves increases down the group
(C) The tendency for catenation decreases down the group
(D) They all form oxides with the formula MO2.
478. The incorrect statement(s) among the following is/are:
(A) The first ionisatioin potential of Al is less than the first ionisation potential of Mg
(B) The second ionisation potential of Mg is greater than the second ionisation potential of Na
(C) The first ionisation potential of Na is less than the first ionisation potential of Mg
(D) The third ionisation potential of Mg is greater than the third ionisation potential of Al

479. The correct statement(s) related to allotropes of carbon is/are
(A) graphite is the most stable allotropes of carbon and having a two dimensional sheet like structure
of hexagonal rings of carbon (sp2)
(B) diamond is the hardest allotrope of carbon and having a three dimensional network structure of
C(sp3)
(C) fullerene (C60) is recently discovered non-crystalline allotrope of carbon having a football-like
structure.
(D) Vander Waal's force of attraction acts between the layers of graphite 6.14 Å away from each
other
480. The hydrolytic constants are expressed as Khydr. At 25ºC, pKhydr of the following calions are as given:
Cations
Mg2+ Ca2+ Al3+ Fe2+
pKhydr 11.4 12.6 5.1 9.5
(A) Smaller the value of ionisation constant of base, greater is the extent of hydrolysis
(B) Greater the polarisation power of the cation stronger the hydrolysis
(C) pKhydr for Fe3+ is expected to be lesser than 9.5
(D) pKhydr for Ba2+ is expected to be greater than 12.6
R
481. When an inorganic compound (X) having 3c-2e as well as 2c-2e bonds reacts with ammonia gas at a
se
certain temperature, gives a compound (Y) iso-structural with benzene. Compound (X) with ammonia
at a high temperature, produces a hard substance (Z). Then
(A) (X) is B2H6 (B) (Z) is known as inorganic graphite
ly
(C) (Z) having structure similar to graphite (D) (Z) having structure similar to (X)
a
482. Which of the following statements is/are correct regarding B2H6?

(A) banana bonds are longer but stronger than normal B–H bonds
at
(B) B2H6 is also known as 3c–2e compound

(C) the hybrid state of B in B2H6 is sp3 while that of sp2 in BH3
(D) it cannot be prepared by reacting BF3 with LiBH3 in the presence of dry ether
C
483. Select correct statements -

(A) Ca3(PO4)2 is part of bones and 3Ca3(PO4)2.CaF2 is part of enamel in teeth
(B) Ca2+ ions are important in blood clotting
(C) BeH2 and MgH2 are covalent and polymeric while CaH2 , SrH2 and BaH2 are ionic
(D) BeH2 contain three-centre two-electron bonds
484. Which of the following cannot be used as primary standard base -

(A) NaOH (B) Ca(OH)2 (C) Na2B4O7, 10H2O (D) Na2C2O 4
485. Which of the following is correct among the following?

(A) Increasing polarising power : Na + < Ca+2 < Mg+2 < Al +3
(B) Increasing covalent character : LiF < LiCl < LiBr < LiI
(C) Ionic character: MCl < MCl 2 < MCl 3
(D) Increasing polarisibility : F¯ < Cl¯ < Br¯ < I¯
486. Which of the following carbides are methanides?

(A) CaC2 (B) Mg2C3 (C) Al 4C3 (D) Be2C

487. Which of the following statements about alkaline earth metals are correct ?
(A) Hydration energy of Sr 2+ is greater than that of Be2+
(B) CaCO 3 decomposes at a higher temperature than BaCO 3
(C) Ba(OH)2 is stronger base than Mg(OH) 2
(D) SrSO 4 is less soluble in water than CaSO 4
488. Which of the following pairs of elements will give superoxides and peroxides respectively when
heated in excess of air
(A) K, Ba (B) Na,Rb (C) K,Rb (D) Na, Ba
489. Which one of the following statement (s) is (are) correct?

(A) The electronic configuration of Cr is [Ar] 3d5 4s1.(Atomic No. of Cr = 24)
(B) The magnetic quantum number may have a negative value
(C) In silver atom, 23 electrons have a spin of one type and 24 of the opposite type. ( Atomic No. of
Ag = 47)
(D) The oxidation state of nitrogen in HN3 is –3.
490. In Alkali metal family cesium is

(A) Used in photoelectric cells (B) Lightest of all
(C) Less electropositive than francium (D) Soft and has low melting and boiling points.
491. Alkali metals are characterised by
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(A) Good conductor of heat and electricity (B) high oxidation potentials
(C) High melting points (D) Solubility in liquid ammonia.
492.
(A) RbO 2 (B) CsO 2
se
Which of the following superoxides are orange coloured
(C) KO 2 (D) None of these
ly
493. All the following substances react with water, in which of the cases same gaseous product is
obtained?
(A) Na (B) Na2O2 (C) KO 2 (D) NaH
a
at
494. Solutions of equal strength of XOH and QOH are prepared. The Ionisation Potential of X and Q are 5.1
and 13.0eV respectively, whereas their Electronegativity are 0.9 and 3.2 respectively. Using the infor-
C
mation, spot the correct conclusion(s)
(A) Reaction of XOH and NH4Cl will produce NH3
(B) Solution of QOH will give effervescence with NaHCO3
(C) Phenolphthalein will give pink colour with XOH solutions
(D) The pH of QOH solution will be more than 7
495. Which of the following statement/s is/are correct?

(A) The structure of carborundum is as same that of diamond
(B) Carbogen is a mixture of O 2 and CO 2 (5–10%) which is used for artificial respiration in
pneumonia patients
(C) SnCl 2 is a strong oxidizing agent.
(D) PbO a yellow coloured powder is known as litharge.

COMPREHENSION # 54
100 ml of hard water sample containing Ca2+ as only hardness imparting cation was divided into two
equal parts.
To the first part, 1 ml of NH4Cl-NH4OH buffer was added and pH adjusted to 11, addition of 4–5 drops
of Erichrome black T indicator. The colour of the resulting solution was pink. The solution so obtained
was titrated with 10–3 (M) disodium salt of EDTA (Na2 EDTA), 40 ml of Na2 EDTA solution was required
to change the colour of solution from pink to blue. For the following reaction
Na2 EDTA + Ca2+  Ca EDTA + 2Na+
To the second part 103 ml of excess Ca(OH)2 solution was added, thoroughly stirred,
6 × 10–4 gm of white ppt of CaCO3 was obtained.
The density of hard water sample was 1gm/ml
496. What was the temporary hardness of given hard water sample? Hardness is expressed in ppm of
CaCO3.
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(A) 3 ppm (B) 6 ppm (C) 18 ppm (D) 20 ppm
497.
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What was the permanent hardness of the given hard water sample with respect to ppm of CaCO3?
(A) 80 ppm (B) 74 ppm (C) 64 ppm (D) 84 ppm
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498. If the 100 ml of the given water sample is passed through in cation exchange resin only then what
a
should be the pH of effluent water from the resin?

Given log 2 = 0.3 and log 3 = 0.48
at
(A) 4.8 (B) 2.52 (C) 2.8 (D) 5.8

C
COMPREHENSION # 55
Depletion of resources of fossil fuels will at some future time make hydrogen, either for use directly by
combustion and electrochemically in fuel cells or indirectly via hydrogenation of coal, the major
alternative to nuclear energy; hence arises the current interest in the so-called hydrogen economy.
A thermochemical cycle for hydrogen production involves at least one element that can exist in two
different oxidation states .
2H2O  2H2 + O2
499. Production of H2 from H2O requires a net input of energy that would come from -
(A) nuclear source (B) solar source (C) both of these (D) none of these
500. In the above thermochemical cycle, FeCl2 is one of the catalyst involved and thus regenerated at the
end of the reaction, after formed into -
(A) FeCl3, FeO, Fe2O3 (B) FeCl3, Fe2O3, Fe3O4
(C) FeCl3, FeO (D) FeCl3, Fe3O4

501. H2 is produced in the following thermochemical reaction -
(A) FeCl2 + H2O  (B) Fe3O4 + Cl2 + HCl 
(C) FeO + H2O  (D) FeCl3 + H2O 
COMPREHENSION # 56
Consider the following flowsheet and answer the questions given after it
x
C3H8(g) + A – Syngas 

Fe 2O 3 / Cr2 O 3
Cold water
Y+ Z High
   Z(g) + Aq. solution of Y..
pressure
Z has low chemical reactivity at room temperature but under vigorous suitable conditions it reacts with
other elements to form very useful compounds. Z is also being looked upon as prospecitve source of
energy for future.
502. The above flowsheet refers to which process -

(A) Lane’s process (B) Haber’s process (C) Bosch process (D) Mond’s process
503. Which two substances are same?
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(A) X and Z (B) A and X (C) A and Y (D) A and Z
504. Which of following represents dihydrogen? se

(A) Y (B) Z (C) X (D) None of these
505. Components of syngas are -

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(A) CO2, CO (B) CO, H2O (C) CO, H2 (D) CO2, H2
506. Which compound of Z is called oxidane ?

a
(A) X (B) Y (C) H2O2 (D) N2H4

at
COMPREHENSION # 57
C

The mineral colemanite is fused with sodium carbonate, compound (Z) is obtained along with
white ppt. When (Z) reacts with conc. H 2SO 4 gives a compound (A) which on hydrolysis gives
monobasic acid (B) which on strong heating gives (C). (C) on reduction with Mg produced (D) and
non metal (X). (X) is a II period element and its valency shell have 3 electrons . Treatment of
halogen on a mixture of (C) and carbon at high temperature gives a halide (E) which is fuming
liquid (b. pt. 13ºC) along with a oxide (F), which is neutral in nature.
Based on the above paragraph answer the following questions .
507. Compound (B) is weak acid in ........(1)......... & strong acid in ..........(2)........... What are (1) and
(2)?
(1) (2) (1) (2)
(A) H2O glycol (C) glycol H2O
(1) (2) (1) (2)
(C) glycol NH4OH (D) glycol NaOH
508. By heating the non metal (X) in the atmosphere of nitrogen yields a compound (Y). The structure
of (Y) is similar to :
(A) diamond (B) graphite (C) silicate (D) carborundum

509. The anhydrous form of (A) is :
(A) H3BO 3 (B) B2O3 (C) H 2 B 4 O7 (D) B
COMPREHENSION # 58
The electronic configuration of the elements show a periodic variation of increasing atomic
number. Consequently there are also periodic variations in physical and chemical behaviour of
the elements. Before examining the variation in properties, the concept of effective nuclear charge
should also be understood as it influences the atomic size and ionization energy. The effective
nuclear charge effect is the charge felt by the valence electron Z eff = z –  , where z is actual
nuclear change and  is screening constant. Now variation in different type of atomic radii i.e.
metallic radius covalent radius and Vander Wall radius can be studied keeping Z eff in consideration.
Z eff also plays an important role in variation of ionization energy across the period and group. A
large Z eff means a more tightly held outer electron and hence greater first ionization energy.
510. The increasing order of effective nuclear charge in Na, Al, Mg and Si atoms
(A) Na < Mg < Si < Al (B) Na < Mg < Al < Si
(C) Mg < Na < Al < Si (D) Na = Mg = Al = Si
511. Which of the following option is correct? [ State T for true and F for false ]
(i) On moving from left to right in a period screening constant value is increase
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(ii) In a s, p, d, f-orbitals the order of screening effect is s > p > d > f in a given shell
(iii) In any period left to right effective nuclear charge increases so electronegativity is also
increases se
(iv) The effective nuclear charge of Na is 2.85
(A) TTTF (B) FFFT (C) FFTT (D) TTFF
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512. Calculate the screening constant for the last electron of Si
(A) 4.15 (B) 9.85 (C) 8.85 (D) 4.85
a
COMPREHENSION # 59
at

Read the following short write-up and answer the questions at the end of it
The name 'silica' covers an entire group of minerals, which have the general formula SiO2, the most
C
common of which is quartz. Quartz is a framework silicate with SiO4 tetrahedra arranged in spirals. The
spirals can turn in a clockwise or anticlockwise direction – a feature that results in there being two mirror
images, optically active, varieties of quartz.
513. The following pictures represent various silicate anions. Their formulae are respectively:
(A) SiO 32 Si 3O 72 (B) SiO 44 8

Si 3O10
(C) SiO 24 Si 3O 92 (D) SiO 34 Si 3O87

514. Si 3O 69 (having three tetrahedral) is represented as:
(A) (B)
(C) both (D) none
515. The silicate anion in the mineral kinoite is a chain of three SiO4 tetrahedra that share corners with
adjacent tetrahedra. The mineral also contains Ca2+ ions, Cu2+ ions, and water molecules in a 1:1:1 ratio
mineral is represented as:
(A) CaCuSi3O10·H2O (B) CaCuSi3O10·2H2O
(C) Ca2Cu2Si3O10·2H2O (D) none of these
COMPREHENSION # 60
Silicons are synthetic polymers containing repreated R2SiO units. Since, the empirical formula is that of
a ketone (R2CO), the name silicone has been given to these materials. Silicones can be made into oils,
rubbery elastomers and resins. They find a variety of applications because of their chemical inertness,
water repelling nature, heat-resistance and good electrical insulating property.
R
Commercial silicon polymers are usually methyl derivatives and to a lesser extent phenyl derivatives
and are synthesised by the hydrolysis of
R2SiCl2[R=methyl (Me) or phenyl ()]
se
Me Me Me
| | |
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H 2O
Me2SiCl 2  O  Si  O  Si  O  Si  O 
| | |
Me Me Me
a
516. If we mix Me3SiCl with Me2SiCl2, we get silicones of the type:

at
Me Me
| |
C
Me Me Me Me  O  Si  O  Si  O 
| | | | | |
(A) Me  Si  O  Si  O  Si  O  Si  Me (B) O O
| | | | | |
| |
Me Me
(C) both of the above (D) none of the above

517. If we start with MeSiCl3 as the starting material, silicones formed is:
Me Me
| |
| | | | | |
(A) Me  Si  O  Si  O  Si  O  Si  Me (B) O O
| | | | | |
| |
Me Me
(C) both of the above (D) none of the above
COMPREHENSION # 61
Lattice enthalpy: The lattice enthalpy of an ionic solid is defined as the energy required to
completely separate one mole of a solid ionic compound into gaseous constituent ions. For e.g.,
the lattice enthalpy of NaCl is 788 kJ mol –1. This means that 788 kJ of energy is required to
separate to an infinite distance 1 mole of solid NaCl into 1 mole of Na +(g) and one mole of Cl –(g).
This process involves both the attractive forces between ions of opposite charges and the repulsive
R
forces between ions of like charge. The solid crystal being three-dimensional; it is not possible to
calculate lattice enthalpy directly from the interaction of forces of attraction and repulsion only.
Factors associated with the crystal geometry have to be included.
se
The first theoretical interpretation of lattice enthalpy was given by Born and Lande. They gave a
simple equation for the calculation of lattice enthalpy.
ly
AN A | z  || z  | e 2
U0 = (1 – 1 / n)
40r0
a
Where U0 is the lattice enthalpy ; A, the Madelung constant (this take care of interaction with all
the other ions besides the nearest neighbours) N A, the Avogadro constant ; z +, charge on the
at
positive ion ; z–, the charge on the negative ion ; e, charge on the electron ;  , constant (3.14159);
0 ; vacuum permittivity ; r0 inter-ionic distance , n is the born exponent in the repulsion terms.
On moving up to down lattice energy decreases in groups. Same for hydration energy also. If
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lattice energy is less than hydration energy, means that salt will be soluble in water.
518. Which one has highest melting point among the following?
(A) NaCl (B) KCl (C) CsCl (D) RbCl
519. Which of the following order is correct for lattice energy (U) .
(A) Fe2O 3 > FeO (B) Fe2O 3 < FeO (C) Fe2O 3 = FeO (D) none of these
520. BaSO 4 is inosluble in water because :

(A) lattice energy is greater than hydration energy
(B) lattice energy is less than hydration energy
(C) lattice energy is almost same its hydration energy
(D) None of these

COMPREHENSION # 62
Calcium sulphate is available in nature in two forms, anhydride, CaSO4 and gypsum,
CaSO4. 2H2O. Gypsum when heated at 120ºC, from the monoclinic form it changes to orthorhombic
form and then it loses three fourth of it’s water of crystallisation and plaster of paris is produced
521. What will be the product if gypsum is heated at 200ºC?
(A) CaSO4. H2O (B) 2CaSO4. H2O
(C) CaSO4 (D) CaO, SO2 and O2
522. Suspension of gypsum is used for production of nitrogeneous fertilizer as follows –

(A) CaSO4 + NH3  (NH4)2 SO4 + Ca(OH)2
(B) NH3 + CaSO4 + CO2  (NH4)2SO4 + CaCO3
(C) CO2 + CaSO4  Ca(OH)2 + CaCO3
(D) NH3 + CaSO4 + CO2  CaCO3 + (NH4)2CO3 + H2SO4
Which of the following represent the setting reaction of plaster of paris ?
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523.
(A) 2CaSO4. H2O 
 CaSO4
(B) 2CaSO4. H2O H O

2
seCaSO4. 2H2O
(orthorhombic)
ly
(C) 2CaSO4. H2O H2 O
 CaSO4. 2H2O
(monoclinic)
a
(D) 2CaSO4. H2O H O

2 CaSO4. H2O
(monoclinic)
at
COMPREHENSION # 63
C

Boron forms a number of hydrides having the general formulae BnHn+4 and BnHn+6. These hydrides
are called boranes. The simplest hydride of boron is diborance, B2H6. Boranes contain special types
of bonds known as multicentre bonds. Boranes have high heat of combustion.
524. The type of hybridization of boron in diborane is

(A) sp (B) sp2 (C) sp3 (D) dsp2
525. Three centre two electron bond(3c – 2e) is present in :-

(A) BF3 (B) B2H6 (C) H3BO 3 (D) None of these
526. Which of the following is electron deficient compound :

(A) C2H6 (B) SiH4 (C) PH3 (D) B2H6
527. Which hydride does not exist :

(A) BH3 (B) H2F 2 (C) SbH3 (D) N2H4

528. From B2H6, all the following can be prepared except :
(A) H3BO 3 (B) B2(CH3)4H2 (C) B2(CH3)6 (D) NaBH4
529. In B2H6 :
(A) There is direct boron-boron bond
(B) The boron atoms are linked through hydrogen bridges
(C) All the B-H bond distances are equal
(D) All the atoms are in one plane
COMPREHENSION # 64
Element A has two electrons in its valence shell & its principal quantum number for last electron is
2 & element B has 4 electrons in its valence shell & its principal quantum no. for last electron is 2
& element X has 3 electrons in its valence shell & principal quantum no. for last electron is 3.
530. The nature of the oxide of element X is:
(A) amphoteric (B) acidic (C) neutral (D) basic
531. Which of the following option is correct
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(A) The element B and X element show diagonal relationship with each other
(B) The ionization potential value of A & X element is nearly same
(C) The electronegativity of A & X element is nearly same
se
(D) The ionic potential value ( ) of A & X element is nearly same
532. Compound XB and AB on hydrolysis gives

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(A) CO 2 (B) CH4 (C) B2H6 (D) SO 2
COMPREHENSION # 65
a

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The atoms have an outer electronic configuration of s2p1. Monovalency is explained by the s
electrons in the outer shell remaining paired, and not participating in bonding. This is called the
‘inert pair effect’. If the energy required to unpair them exceeds the energy evolved when they
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form bonds, then the s electrons will remain paired. The inert pair effect is not the explanation of
why monovalency occurs in group 13. It merely describes what happened, i.e. two electrons do
not participate in bonding. The reason that they do not take part in bonding is energy. The inert
pair effect is not restricted to group 13, but also occurs among the heavier elements in other
groups in the p-block
Thus in the s-block, groups 1 and 2 show only the group valency. Groups in the p-block show
variable valency, differing in steps of two. Variable valency also occurs with elements in the d-
block.
533. Which of the following elements are capable of showing inert pair effect?
(A) Carbon (B) Aluminium (C) Lead (D) All of these
534. The correct order of shielding effect is s, p, d, f orbital

(A) s > p > d > f (B) s < p > d > f (C) s < p < d < f (D) s>p<d>f
535. Due the inert pair effect

(A) Heavier p-block element show lower oxidation state as stable oxidation state
(B) Heavier p-block element show higher oxidation state as stable oxidation state
(C) Strong shielding effect by inner-penultimate electrons
(D) The oxidation state is equal to the valence shell electron

SECTION III: MATCH TYPE
Column I Column II
(a) NaCl (P) Soluble in water
(b) AgCl (Q) Lattice energy > Hydration energy
(c) CdCl 2 (R) Lattice energy < Hydration energy
(d) FeSO 4 (S) Cation has Pseudo inert (18 e – in valence
shell) gas configuration
537. Match list I with list II & then select the correct answer from the codes given below
List - I List - II
(A) Increasing atomic size (a) Cl < O < F
(B) Decreasing atomic radius (b) B > Be > Li
(C) Increasing electronegativity (c) Si < Al < Mg
(D) Decreasing effective nuclear charge (d) N>O>F
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538. Column- I Column-II
(A) Permanent hardness (P) Na+ (aq)
(B)
(C)
Temporary hardness
React on heating
se(Q)
(R)
Ca2+ (aq)
Mg2+ (aq)
(D) Not responsible for hardness (S) HCO3 (aq)
a ly
539. Column- I Column-II
(A) Primary standard base (P) Na2C2O 4
at
(B) Equiv. wt = (Q) Na2B4O 7

C
(C) Primary standard reducing agent (R) Na2CO 3
(D) Capable of reducing hardness of (S) As2O 3

water due to the presence of Ca2+
540. Column-I Column-II

(A) oxone (P) Na2SO 4
(B) Aq. Solution is Neutral toward litmus (Q) Na2O 2
(C) solvay process (R) NaHCO3
(D) Evolve CO2  on heating (S) Na2CO 3
541. Column I(Heating effect of oxalate salts) Column II(Products of heating effect)
(A) (COONa)2 (P) CO

(B) Ba(COO)2 (Q) CO2
(C) Mg(COO)2 (R) Carbonate salts
(D) (COOAg)2 (S) Pure metal

(A) [Be(OH)4]2- (P) Amphoteric
(B) BeF2 (Q) Tetrahedral
(C) Be(OH)2 (R) Polymeric
` (D) MgO (S) NaCl type structure

(A) KHCO3 (P) Exists in the solid state
(B) NaHCO3 (Q) Soluble in water
(C) LiHCO3 (R) Hydrogen bonding
(D) NH4HCO3 (S) Dimeric anion

(A) NaO2 (P) Paramagnetic
(B) KO2 (Q) Yellow, pyrites structure
R
(C) RbO2 (R) Orange
(D) CsO2 (S)
se Brown

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Column I Column II
(a) Chlorine (P) transition element
(b) Helium (Q) highest electron affinity
a
(c) Iron (R) high ionisation energy

(d) Lithium (S) strongest reducing agent
at

Column I Column II
C
(a) Ionization energy (P) Amount of energy released when an extra

electron is added in any neutral gaseous
atom.
(b) Electron affinity (Q) The charge or partial charge which comes
by transfer or parital shifting of electron in
any atom during its compound formation.
(c) Electronegativity (R) Minimum amount of energy required to
remove an outermost electron.
(d) Oxidation number (S) Relative tendency to attract shared pair
of electron towards itself.
547. Match List I with List II and select the correct answer using the codes given below the lists -
List I List II
(1) Heavy water (A) Bicarbonates of Mg and Ca in water
(2) Temporary hard (B) lather with soap water
(3) Soft water (C) D2O
(4) Permament hard (D) Sulphates and water chloride of Mg and Ca

548. Column (A) Column (B)
below
(a) Ca(OH)2 + Cl2  
35 º C
(i) Calcium chloride
(slaked lime)
(b) Ca(OH)2 + Cl2 
cold
 (ii) Calcium chloride and cal. chlorate
(milk of lime)
(c) 2Ca(OH)2 + 2Cl2 
heat
 (iii) Bleaching powder
(d) 2Ca(OH)2 + 2Cl2  red heat
 (iv) Calcium chloride and calcium hypochlorite
(Slaked lime) (v) Calcium chloride & calcium chlorite
(A) (a – iii) (b – iv) (c – ii) (d – i) (B) (a – ii) (b – i) (c – iv) (d – iii)
(C) (a – iv) (b – i) (c – iii) (d – i) (D) (a – ii) (b – iii) (c – iv) (d – i)
549. Match the following:

Column I Column II
(a) Anhydrous AlCl3 (i) Antiseptic
(b) Alum (ii) Alloy
(c) Ultramarine (iii) Friedel-Craft’s reaction
(d) Borax (iv) Complex blue coloured silicate
(e) Magnelium (v) Tincal
R
(A) (a–i); (b–iv); (c–iii); (d–v); (e–ii) (B) (a–iii); (b–i); (c–iv); (d–v); (e–ii)
(C) (a–v); (b–ii); (c–iii); (d–iv); (e–i) (D) (a–ii); (b–i); (c–v); (d–iv); (e–iii)
550.
Sequences
se
Match the various sequences with the appropriate orders:
Orders
(I) Na+ Mg+2 Al+3 (a) increasing size of ion in gaseous state
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(II) I– S2– N3– (b) decreasing size of ion in gaseous state
(III) O O– O–2 (c) increasing size of ions aqueous state.
a
(IV) N F O (IE2) (d) decreasing size of ions aqueous state.

(e) increasing order of IE2
at
(f) decreasing order of electron affinity

C
Column I Column II
(A) Bi3+  (BiO)+ (P) Heat
(B) [AlO2]–  Al(OH)3 (Q) Hydrolysis
(C) SiO 44  Si 2O67 (R) Acidification

2
(D) ( B4 O 7 )  [B(OH)3] (S) Dilution by water

552. How much energy in joules must be needed to convert all the atoms of sodium to sodium ions present
in 2.3 mg of sodium vapours ? Ionisation energy of sodium is 495 kJ mole–1
553. The nuclei of tritium (H3) atom would contain neutrons -
554. How many maximum Hydrogen bonds can be made by 1 molecule of water?
555. How many bridging chlorine are present in Al2Cl6?
556. Calculate the E.N. of Cl from the bond energy of ClF (61 KCal/mol). Given that bond energies of F2 and
Cl2 are 38 and 58 KCal/mol respectively.
557. What mass of CaO will be required to remove the hardness of 103 litres of water containing 1.62 gm of
calcium bicarbonate per litre -
Which property will NOT increase for IA group as we go down the group.
R
558.
(a) Atomic size (e) Melting point (i) Valance e–
(b) Ionic radii (f) Boiling point (j)
se Metallic ch
(c) IE (g) E N (k) Chemical reactivity
(d) Density (h) At. mass
ly
559. If there were 10 periods in the periodic table then how many elements would this period can maximum
comprise of.
a
560. Calculate the effective nuclear charge (Z*) for valence shell electrons of bromine atom
at
561. The electron affinity of chlorine is 3.7 eV. How much energy in kcal is released when 2 g of chlorine is
completely converted to Cl– ion in a gaseous state ?
C
(1 eV = 23.06 kcal mol–1)
562. Find the degree of hardness of a sample of water containing 30 ppm of MgSO4.
563. Certain sample of water was found to contain 68 ppm of CaSO4 and 19 ppm of MgCl2. What will be the
total hardness of water ?
564. Calculate the electron affinity of the hydrogen atom using the following enthalpy data
H2(g) 2H(g) ; H = +436 kJ mol–1
H2(g) + 2K(s) 2KH(s) ; H = –118 kJ mol–1
K(s) K(g) ; H = +83 kJ mol–1
K(g) K (g) + e
+ –
; H = +413 kJ mol–1
H–(g) + K+(g) KH(s) ; H = –742 kJ mol–1

565. Indicate whether the following process is exothermic or endothermic :
M(g) + 2X(g) M2+(g) + 2X–(g)
(I. E.)1 of M(g) = 737.7 kJ mol–1
(I. E.)2 of M(g) = 1451 kJ mol–1
(E. A.) of X(g) = –328 kJ mol–1
566. The ionization energy of lithium is 520 kJ mol–1. The amount of energy required to convert 70 mg of
lithium atoms in gaseous state into Li+ ions is :
567. The n/p ratio for 1H1 is -
568. 5.0 mL solution of H2O2 liberates 0.508 g of iodine from an acidified KI solution. Calculate the strength
of H2O2 in terms of volume strength at STP.
569. A diatomic molecule has a dipole moment of 1.2 d. If the bond distance is 1.0 Å, what fraction of an
electronic charge, e, exists on each atom ?
570. The dipole moment of LiH is 1.964 × 10–29 cm and the interatomic distance between Li and H in this
molecule is 1.596Å. What is the percent ionic character in LiH.
R
se
a ly
at
C

PART III: INORGANIC CHEMISTRY
XII
571. The extraction of Nickel involves:
(A) The formation of Ni(CO)4
(B) The decomposition of Ni(CO)4
(C) The formation and thermal decomposition of Ni(CO)4
(D) The formation and catalytic decompostiion of Ni(CO) 4
572. Consider the following statements:

According the Werner’s theory.
1. Ligands are connected to the metal ions by covalent bonds
2. Secondary valencies have directional properties
3. Secondary valencies are non-ionisable.
of these statements:
(A) 1, 2 and 3 are correct (B) 2 and 3 are correct
(C) 1 and 3 are correct (D) 1 and 2 are correct
573. Which compound have all the types of bonds are present and count how many H  bond is present
(A) White vitriol & 2 H  bond (B) Green vitriol & 6 H  bond
R
(C) Blue vitriol & 4 H  bond (D) Mohr salt & 5 H  bond
574.
(A) Volatile stable compound
se
Van Arkel method of purification of metals involves converting the metal to a :
(B) Volatile unstable compound
(C) non volatile stable compound (D) none of the above
ly
575. What is the colour of (NH4)2SnCl 6 ?
(A) white (B) pink (C) red (D) yellow
a
576 What is the coordination number of Cr in K 3[Cr(ox)3] ?

at
(A) 6 (B) 5 (C) 4 (D) 3
577. In the following precipitate reactions which one is not possible :

C
(A) CdCl 2 + NaOH 

 Cd(OH)2 + NaCl
(B) AgNO 3 + Na3AsO 4 cold
 Ag3AsO4 + NaNO3
(C) Pb(NO 3)2 + KI 
 PbI2 + KNO3
(D) AgNO 2 + Na3AsSO 4 cold
 Ag3AsO4 + NaNO2
578. When NH4OH is added to solution of NiCl 2 the green colour precipitate is formed but when excess
of NH4OH is added in that precipitate., the complex is formed. What is the formula of that precipitate
& complex :
(A) Ni(OH)2, [Ni(NH3)6]Cl2 (B) Ni(OH)3, [Ni(NH3)6]Cl2
(C) NI(OH)2, [Ni(NH3)4]Cl2 (D) NI(OH)3, [Ni(NH3)4]Cl2
579. A mixture of two salts is not soluble in water but dissolves completely in dil HCl to form a colourless
solution. The mixture could be :
(A) AgNO 3 + KBr (B) BaCO 3 + ZnS (C) FeCl 3 + CaCO3 (D) Mn(NO3)2 + MgSO4

580. The correct IUPAC name of the complex :
OH
H3C—C==N
CoCl2 is:
H3C—C==N
OH
(A) Dichlorodimethylglyoximatocobalt (II) (B) Bis(dimethylglyoxime)dichlorocobalt (II)
(C) Dimethylglyoximecobalt(II) chloride (D) Dichlorodimethylglyoxime-N, N-cobalt (II)
581. Zinc white is a better white pigment than lead white because it :
(A) Has more covering power than lead white
(B) Is not blackened by the action of atmosphere
(C) Is soluble in water
(D) Becomes yellow when heated
582. The effective atomic number of cobalt in the complex [Co(NH 3)4] 3+ is –
(A) 36 (B) 33 (C) 32 (D) 30
583. KF combines with HF to form KHF 2. The compound contains the species
R
(A) K+, F – and H+ (B) K+, F – and HF (C) K+ and [HF 2] – (D) [KHF] + and F –
584. Iron , once dipped in concentration H2SO 4, does not displace copper from sulphate solution because
se
(A) It is less reactive than copper (B) A layer of sulphate is deposited on it
(C) A layer of oxide is deposited on it (D) None
ly
585. In [Cr(C2O4)3]3–, the isomerism shown is
(A) ligand (B) optical (C) geometrical (D) ionisation
a
586. Which statement about corrosive sublimate is incorrect :

(A) It is prepared by heating mercury & chlorine
at
(B) It reduces stannic chloride

(C) It oxidises stannous chloride
(D) It sublimes at readily
C
587 Consider the following isomerisms:

1. Ionization 2. Hydrate 3. Co-ordination 4. Geometrical
(5) Optical
Which of the above isomerisms are exhibited [Cr(NH3)2(OH)2Cl2]–1?
(A) 1 and 5 (B) 2 and 3 (C) 3 and 4 (D) 4 and 5
589. In the metallurgy of iron when lime stone is added to the blast furnace, the calcium ion ends up in
(A) Slag (B) Gangue (C) Metallic calcium (D) Calcium carbonate
590. The oxidation of Fe in Na2 [ Fe (CN)5 NO ] & Na4 [ Fe (CN)5 NOS ] are:
(A) + 2 & + 3 (B) +2 & +2 (C) + 3 & + 3 (D) +3 & +2
591. From gold amalgam, gold may be recovered by:

(A) Addition of Zn metal (B) Electrolytic refining
(C) Distillation (D) Dissolving Hg in HNO3
592. The purification method used for mineral Al 2O 3.2H2O is –

(A) Froth floatation (B) Leaching (C) Liquation (D) Magnetic separation

593. Which of the following is linear?
(A) XeF2 (B) XeF4 (C) SO 2 (D) ClF3
594. Consider the following observation –

(A) Mn+ + HCl white precipitate 
 water solution
the metal ion M will be –
n+
(A) Hg2+ (B) Ag + (C) Pb2+ (D) Sn2+
595. Reaction of K2Cr2O 7 with NaCl and conc. H2SO 4 gives –

(A) CrCl3 (B) CrOCl2 (C) CrO2Cl2 (D) Cr2O3
596. Preparation of looking mirrors involves the use of :

(A) red lead (B) ammonical silver nitrate
(C) ammonical AgNO 3 + red lead (D) ammonical AgNO 3 + red lead + HCHO
597. Which of the following oxides is amphoteric in nature ?

(A) N2O3 (B) P2O3 (C) Sb2O3 (D) Bi2O3
598. Which of the following salt liberate reddish brown gas on treatment with dilute H 2SO 4 ?
(A) ZnBr2 (B) KBr (C) KNO2 (D) KNO3
R
599. In which of the following Xe atom is sp3 d2 hybridised
(A) [XeO6]4– (B) [XeF3]+ (C) XeO4 (D) XeF26
600.
se
In a research lab a scientist is doing an experiment. He takes two test tubes one containing Ba(NO 3)2
solution and other contains salts of chloride , fluoride and iodide . Now he mixed test tube I st with
test tube II nd . then what happens
ly
(A) chloride is precipitate BaCl 2 form
(B) fluoride is precipitated in BaF 2 form
(C) iodide is precipitated in BaI 2 form
a
(D) all are precipitate in BaCl 2, BaF 2 and BaI 2 form

at
601. In comparison of ferrous salt, ferric salt is :

(A) More stable (B) Less stable (C) Equally stable (D) None of these
C
602. Salt (A) on decomposition gives basic gas, acidic gas , neutral gas along with H 2O . (A) is :
(A) (NH4)2 SO4 (B) (NH4)2 C2O4 (C) (NH4)2 CO3 (D) (NH4)2 Cr2O7
603. The chromyl chloride test is meant for which of the following ion ?
(A) Cl – ions (B) SO 4– – ion (C) I – ions (D) Cl – and CrO 42– ions
604. Salt (A) gives black colour precipitate with H2S in acidic medium . The precipitate dissolves in HNO 3
and gives solution (B) . (B) on reaction with K 4 [ Fe (CN)6] gives brown colour (C) . What is (B) ?
(A) CuS (B) Cu (NO3)2 (C) Cu2 [ Fe (CN)6 ] (D) CuSO4
605. A yellow turbidity, sometimes appears on passing H2S gas even in the absence of the second group
radicals. This happens because –
(A) sulphur is present in the mixture as in impurity
(B) the fourth group radicals are precipitated as sulphides
(C) the H2S is oxidised by some acidic radicals present in solution
(D) the third group radicals are precipitated
606. Which is the hybridisation for Indian yellow .

(A) d2sp3 (B) dsp3 (C) sp3d2 (D) sp3d3

607. Which of the following oxyacids of sulphur contain no sulphur  sulphur (S  S) bonds ?
(A) H2S2O4 (B) H2S2O5 (C) H2S2O7 (D) H2S2O3
608. Precipitate of AgCl dissolves in liquid ammonia due to the formation of –

(A) [Ag(NH4)2]OH (B) [Ag(NH3)2]Cl (C) [Ag(NH3)2]OH (D) [Ag(NH3)2]Cl

609. Which of the following is/are not yellow in colour?
(A) CdS (B) HgS (C) PbS (D) Bi 2S3
610. Colour of which of the following is attributed to charge transfer spectrum?

(A) KMnO 4 (B) KO 2 (C) K2Cr2O7 (D) AgI
611. p – d bonding occurs between oxygen and

(A) phosphorus in P 4O 10 (B) chlorine in HClO 4
(C) nitrogen in N2O5 (D) carbon in CO 2
612. Which of the following statement(s) is are correct when a mixture of NaCl and K 2Cr2O 7 is gently
warmed with concentrated H2SO 4?
(A) A deep red vapour is evolved
(B) The vapour when passed into NaOH solution gives a yellow solution of Na2CrO4
R
(C) Chlorine gas is evolved
(D) Chromyl chloride is formed
613.
(A) distillation method
se
Extraction of silver from argentiferrous lead (Pb +Ag) involves
(B) cupellation
(C) froth flotation method (D) treatment with NaCl
ly
614. Which of the following metals sulphides are soluble in hot and 50% HNO 3 ?
(A) HgS (B) Bi2S3 (C) CuS (D) all these
a
615. BiF 5 doesn’t exist due to

at
(A) the inert pair effect (B) the stable +3 oxidation state
(C) high ionisation energy (D) higher polarisation power of cation
C
616. Which of the following option is/are correct for the given complex :
K 2 [Cr(NO)(NH 3 )(CN) 4 ],  = 1.73 BM
(A) The hybridization is d 2 sp 3
(B) The hybridization is sp 3 d 2
(C) The oxidation state of NO in this complex is +1
(D) The name of this complex is Potassiumamminetetracyanonitrosoniumchromate (I)
617. Potassium manganate (K2MnO4) is formed when

(A) chloride is passed into aqueous KMnO4 solution
(B) manganese dioxide is fused with potassium hydroxide in air
(C) formaldehyde reacts with potassium permanganate in presence of a strong alkali
(D) potassium permanganate reacts with conc. sulphuric acid
618. The aqueous solutions of the following salts will be coloured in the case of
(A) Zn(NO3)2 (B) LiNO3 (C) Co(NO3)2 (D) CrCI3
619. Which of the following alloys contains(s) Cu and Zn?

(A) Bronze (B) Brass (C) Gun metal (D) Type metal

620. Which of the following statement (s) is/are true ?
(A) Ag+ ions do not give white precipitate with concentrated HCl
(B) Cu2+ ions produce a white precipitate when KCN solution is added in a small quantity
(C) Hg2+ ions give deep blue precipitate with cobalt acetate and ammonium thiocyanate
(D) Black precipitate of BiI3 turns orange when heated with water
621. Na2SO4 and Na2S can be distinguished from each other by using :
(A) conc.H2SO4 (B) acidified KMnO4 solution
(C) sodium nitroprusside solution (D) cadmium acetate solution
622. K solution is the reagent for :

(A) Hg2+ (B) Pb2+ (C) Ag+ (D) Cu2+
623. The correct statement(s) is /are.

(A) titan yellow solution gives red colouration with a neutral solution containing Mg +2 ions
(B) solution of nitrite is decomposed by sulphamic acid.
(C) Fe2+ ions give brown colour precipitate with [Fe(CN)6]3– ions solution.
(D) Green precipitate of Cr(OH)3 is soluble in Na2O2.
R
624. Which of the following statement(s) is /are false ?
se
(A) Fe3+ gives red precipitate with dimethyl glyoxime in alkaline solution.
(B) Cu2+ ion with excess KI gives a dirty white ppt. which turns white on adding hypo solution.
(C) A filter paper soaked in mercurous nitrate turns black in contact with ammonia gas.
ly
(D) Ag2+ gives white precipitate with BaBr2
a
625. Solution of (X) + dil HCl  yellow ppt + gas having smell of burnt sulphur
at
solution of (X) + KCN solution  (Y) + (Z)

(Y) + excess of dil HCl + FeCl3 solution  blood red colouration
C
(Z) + Pb(NO3)2 solution  white ppt boiling

  white ppt (M)
Solution of (Y) + Pb(NO3)2 solution boiling
  black ppt :
(A) (X) is Na2S2O3 (B) Y is SCN– (C) Z is SO32– (D) M is PbSO3
626. In nitroprusside ion the iron and NO exist as Fe+2 and NO+ rather than Fe+3 and NO. These forms can be
differentiated by .
(A) estimating the concentration of iron
(B) measuring the concentration of. CN
(C) measuring the solid state magnetic moment
(D) thermally decomposing the compound.
627. Addition of high proportions of manganese makes steel useful in making rails of railroads, because
manganese
(A) gives hardness to steel
(B) helps the formation of oxides of iron
(C) can remove oxygen and sulphur
(D) can show highest oxidation state of + 7

628. When a compound X reacts with ozone in aqueous medium, a compound Y is produced. Ozone also
reacts with Y and produces compound Z. Z acts as an oxidising agent, then X, Y and Z will be
(A) X = HI, Y = I2 and Z = HIO3 (B) X = KI, Y = I2 and Z = HIO3
(C) X = KI, Y = I2 and Z = HIO4 (D) X = HI, Y = I2 and Z = HIO4
629. The species that undergo(es) disproportionation in an alkaline medium is/are

(A) Cl2 (B) MnO42– (C) NO2 (D) CIO4–
630. Which of the following pairs of nitrates gives the same gaseous products on thermal decomposition?
(A) KNO3 and Pb(NO3)2 (B) KNO3 and NaNO3
(C) Pb(NO3)2 and Cu(NO3)2 (D) NaNO3 and Ca(NO3)2
631. Which of the following statements is/are correct regarding inter-halogen compounds of ABx types?
(A) x may be 1,3,5 and 7
(B) A is a more electronegative halogen than B
(C) FBr3 cannot exit
(D) The structures of ClF3 and IF7 show deviation from normal structures and could be explained on the
basis of VSEPR theory
632. Al2(SO4)3 + NH4OH X, then

(A) X is a white coloured compound (B) X is insoluble in excess of NH4OH
R
(C) X is soluble in NaOH (D) X cannot be used as an antacid
633.
(A) CoS (B) NiS
se
Which of the following sulphides dissolves only in aquaregia?
(C) CuS (D) HgS
ly
634. Which of the following will give the same colour in oxidising flame as well as in the reducing flame in
borax bead test (when cold) :
(A) Chromium (B) Copper (C) Cobalt (D) Nickel
a
at
635. Which of the following reduction reactions are actually employed in commerical extraction of metals?
(A) Fe2O3 + 2Al  Al2O3 + 2Fe
(B) Cr2O3 + 2Al  Al2O3 + 2Cr
C
(C) 2Na[Au(CN)2] + Zn  Na2[Zn(CN)4] + 2Au

(D) Cu2S + Pb  Cu + PbS 
636. The metal which gives amphoteric oxide is :

(A) Zn (B) Cu (C) Sn (D) Ga
637. Metallurgical process of zinc involves roasting of zinc sulphide followed by reduction. Metallic zinc distills
over as it is volatile and impurities like Cu, Pd and Fe gets condensed. The crude metal obtained is called
spelter, which may be purified by
(A) electrolysis process (B) fractional distillation
(C) polling (D) heating with iodine
638. Which of the statement is correct ?

(A) In PCl 5 hybridisation is sp3d and it has trigonal bipyramidal structure.
(B) The angle between the P and Cl is 90º which is same for all the P and Cl present in PCl 5
(C) The bond length of P—Cl in axial position is higher than in equatorial position.
(D) PCl 5 is ionic in solid phase

639. The pairs of compounds which cannot exists together in aqueous solution are
(A) NaH2PO4 and Na2HPO4 (B) Na2CO3 and NaHCO3
(C) NaOH and NaH2PO4 (D) NaHCO3 and NaOH
640. Epsom salt is used

(A) As a purgative
(B) As a mordant is dyeing
(C) As a stimulant to increase the secretion of bile
(D) For removal of S from petroleum
641. Mark the wrong statement/s. Pure alumina is

(A) A good conductor of electricity (B) A bad conductor of electricity
(C) Volatile in nature (D) An electrovalent compound
642. In which of the following alloys Mg is present

(A) Electron (B) Magnalium (C) Duraluminium (D) Aluminium bronze
643. Which of the following pair of compounds is/are not an oxide?

(A) Felspar, sylvine (B) Magnesia, magnesite
(C) Lime, corundum (D) Sylvine, magnesite
645. Which of the following does not disproportionate?
R
(A) Cu+ (B) Au3+ (C) Cu2+ (D) Au +
646. During the extraction of Ag and Au using a KCN solution, cyanide ions react with metal ions as:
se
(A) A reducing agent (B) a complexing agent
(C) an oxidizing agent (D) a lewis acid
ly
647. Which of the following complexes have tetrahedral geometry?
(A) Ni (CO)4 (B) Na2 [Zn (CN)4] (C) K2 [PtCl4] (D) [RhCl (PPh3)3]
a
648. Hoop’s process of purification of aluminium involves formation of layers during electrolysis. This is
at
because :
(A) the three layers have same densities but different materials
(B) the three layers have different densities
(C) the upper layer is of pure aluminium which acts as a cathode
C
(D) the bottom layer is of impure aluminium which acts as an anode and middle layer
consists of NaF, BaF 2 & AlF 3.
649. Which of the following option is/are correct?

(A) On fast cooling of pig iron we will get white cast iron & carbon impurity is present in form of
cementite Fe3C
(B) On slowly cooling of pig iron we will get grey cast iron ‘C’ impurity is present in form of graphite
(C) The M. Pt. of grey cast iron is more than pure iron due to presence of impurity
(D) Cast iron does not rust easily and neither be tempered. Due to high carbon content it is hard &
brittle cannot be welded
650. Which options are true for pattinson’s process

(A) This process is based on the fact that silver lead system has an eutectic mixture with 2.6%
silver
(B) This eutectic mixture has M. Pt 303ºC where as pure Pb has M. Pt. 327ºC
(C) Further purification is done by cupellation process
(D) Argentiferous lead contain 2% Ag.

651. Bessemer convertor which is used for the extraction of copper -
(A) hot air acts as oxidising agent & Cu2S acts as self reducing agent
(B) slag is CaSiO 3
(C) SiO 2 lining is used in Bessemer convertor
(D) the copper obtained in this process is blister copper.
652. Which of the following option is/are correct ?

(A) vapour phase of XeF 6 is covalent and hybridisation is sp3d3
(B) Solid phase of XeF 6 is ionic and hybridisation is sp3d2
(C) XeF 2 is linear in shape
(D) XeO 2F 2 follows bent rule and structure is see-saw.
653. For Dow’s process which is/are correct?

(A) For extraction of Mg by sea water
(B) Ca(OH)2 is used to ppt Mg
(C) Mg is precipitated in form of Mg(OH) 2
(D) ppt. of Mg(OH)2 is treated with HCl & then electrolysis for extraction of ‘Mg’
654. Nitrogen (I) oxide is produced by :

(A) thermal decomposition of ammonium nitrate
(B) disproportionation of N2O4
(C) thermal decomposition of ammonium nitrite
R
(D) interaction of hydroxylamine and nitrous acid
655. Mercury is a liquid at 0°C because of se

(A) very high ionisation energy (B) weak metallic bonds
(C) high heat of hydration (D) high heat of sublimation
ly
656. Which of the following statements concern with transition metals?
(A) compounds containing ions of transition elements are usually coloured
(B) the most common oxidation state is +3
a
(C) they show variable oxidation states, which differ by two units only
(D) they easily form complexes
at
657. Correct statement(s) is/are

(A) an acidified solution of K2Cr2O7 liberates iodine from KI
C
(B) K2Cr2O7 is used as a standard solution for estimation of Fe2+ ions

(C) in acidic medium, M = N/6 for K2Cr2O7
(D) (NH4)2Cr2O7 on heating decomposes to yield Cr2O3 through an endothermic reaction
658. Interstitial compounds are formed by

(A) Co (B) Ni (C) Fe (D) Ca
659. The catalytic activity of transition elements is related to their

(A) variable oxidation states (B) surface area
(C) complex formation ability (D) magnetic moment
660. In the equation: M + 8CN– + 2H2O + O2  4[M(CN)2]– + 4OH–, metal M is

(A) Ag (B) Au (C) Cu (D) Hg
661. To an acidified dichromate solution, a pinch of Na2O2 is added and shaken. What is observed:
(A) blue colour (B) Orange colour changing to green
(C) Copious evolution of oxygen (D) Bluish - green precipitate
662. Amphoteric oxide(s) of Mn is/are

(A) MnO2 (B) Mn3O4 (C) Mn2O7 (D) MnO

COMPREHENSION # 66
When hydrogen peroxide is added to an acidified solution of a dichromate gives a deep blue coloured
compound 'A' in presence of organic solvent, which decomposes rapidly in aqueous solution into 'B' and
dioxygen. Compound 'A' can be extracted by dimethyl ether forming the adduct 'C'.
663. The oxidation state of the metal ion in compound 'A' are
(A) 3+ (B) 10 + (C) 6+ (D) 4+
664. The magnetic moment of compound 'B' is:

(A) 2.8 B.M (B) 4.9 B.M (C) 0 (D) 3.8 B.M
COMPREHENSION # 67
(T) imparts violet colour

 compd. ( U )  conc . H 2SO 4 (V)Red gas NaOH  AgNO 3 (W)Red ppt. NH3 so ln . (X)
             
(W) Red ppt.dil  (Y) white ppt.
. HCl

R
(U) NaOH
 (Z) gas (gives white fumes with HCl)
sublimes on

heating se
665. The compound 'W' is
(A) CrO3 (B) Ag2CrO4 (C) HgI2 (D) AgNO2
ly
666. The compound 'T' & 'U' are
(A) KMnO4, HCl (B) K2Cr2O7, HCl
a
(C) K2Cr2O7, NH4Cl (D) K2CrO4, KCl

at
667. The compound 'V' is

(A) CrO3 (B) Cl2 (C) Br2 (D) CrO2Cl2
C
COMPREHENSION # 68
There are some deposits of nitrates and phosphates in earth’s crust. Nitrates are more soluble in water.
Nitrates are difficult to reduce under the laboratory conditions but microbes do it easily. Ammonia forms
large number of complexes with transition metal ions. Hybridization easily explains the ease of sigma
donation capability of NH3 and PH3. Phosphine is a flammable gas and is prepared from white phosphorous.
668. Among the following, the correct statement is
(A) Phosphates have no biological significance in humans
(B) Between nitrates and phosphates, phosphates are less abundant in earth’s crust
(C) Between nitrates and phosphates, nitrates are less abundant in earth’s crust
(D) Oxidation of nitrates is possible in soil

669. Among the following, the correct statement is :
(A) Between NH3 and PH3, NH3 is a better electron donor because the lone pair of electrons occupies
spherical ‘s’ orbital and is less directional
(B) Between NH3 and PH3, PH3 is a better electron donor because the lone pair of electrons occupies
sp3 orbital and is more directional
(C) Between NH3 and PH3, NH3 is a better electron donor because the lone pair of electrons occupies
sp3 orbital and is more directional
(D) Between NH3 and PH3, PH3 is a better electron donor because the lone pair of electrons occupies
spherical ‘s’ orbital and is less directional
670. White phosphorus on reaction with NaOH gives PH3 as one of the products. This is a
(A) dimerization reaction (B) disproportionation reaction
(C) condensation reaction (D) precipitation reaction
COMPREHENSION # 69
The following flow diagram represents the industrial preparation of nitric acid from ammonia:
NH3 + O2 (
A)
 ( B)
NO  (C) water
 HNO + NO
3
900C air
(excess air)
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Answer the questions given below:
671. Which line of entry describes the undefined reagents, products and reaction conditions?
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A B C
(A) catalyst R.T. (25°C) NO2
(B) catalyst R.T. (25°C) N2O
(C) catalyst high pressure NO2
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(D) high pressure catalyst N2O3
Formation of HNO3 when (C) is dissolved in H2O takes place through various reactions. Select the reaction
a
672.
not observed in this step.
(A) NO2 + H2O HNO3 + HNO2 (B) HNO2  H2O + NO + NO2
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(C) NO2 + H2O  HNO3 + NO (D) none of these

C
COMPREHENSION # 70
A is a colourless crystalline salt which is soluble in water to form a super saturated solution. Salt (A)
reacts with salt (B) (which is sensitive to light & gets photo reduction to give its metal) it gives a white
ppt (C) and with excess of salt (A), (C) gives a soluble complex (D). (C) in exposure in air and (D) on
heating both produces same black coloured ppt (E). (A) is used in medicine and also in extraction of
gold and decoloured I 2 in KI solution.
673. When salt (A) reacts with HCl solution it decompose to give
(A) brown coloured gas (B) rotten eggs smelled gas
(C) white turbidity (D) violet coloured gas
674. When salt (A) is heated to 223ºC the product obtained are
(A) Na2SO4, Na2S5 (B) PbO, SO 2 (C) CuO, SO2 (D) FeCl2, Cl2
675. Identify (E)

(A) Hg2O (B) Ag2S (C) PbO2 (D) CuS

COMPREHENSION # 71
(I) FeCr2O4 + NaOH + air  (A) + Fe2O3
(II) (A) + (B)  Na2Cr2O7
(III) Na2Cr2O7 + X 
 Cr2O3
(IV) Cr2O3 + Y 
 Cr
676. Compounds (A) and (B) are:

(A) Na2CrO4, H2SO4 (B) Na2Cr2O7 , HCl
(C) Na2CrO5, H2SO4 (D) Na4[Fe(OH)6], H2SO4
677. (X) and (Y) are:

(A) C and Al (B) Al and C (C) C in both (D) Al in both
678. Na2CrO4 and Fe2O3 are separated by

(A) dissolving in conc. H2SO4 (B) dissolving in NH3
(C) dissolving in H2O (D) dissolving in dil. HCl
COMPREHENSION # 72
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(i) A certain inorganic compounds (X) shows the following reactions on passing H 2S through
acidified solution of (X) a brown ppt is obtained.
(ii) The ppt. obtained in (i) is dissolved in excess of yellow (NH 4)2S2.
(iii)
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On adding an aqueous solution of NaOH of solution of (X) first white ppt. is obtained, which
dissolves in excess of NaOH.
(iv) the compound X reduces FeCl 3 solution.
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679. The soluble complex which is obtained with excess of NaOH on oxidation produces -
(A) Na2SnO3 (B) Na2MnO4 (C) Na2ZnO2 (D) Na2AlO2
a
680. When salt X reacts with AuCl 3 we get –

at
(A) purple of cassius (B) liquid gold

(C) gold rush (D) candy fluid
C
681. The salt (X) gives grey mass and another compound (Z) with corrosive sublimate. (Z) on reaction with
NH4Cl gives (Y). Which is the correct statement about (Y).
(i) it is known as pink salt
(ii) it is used as mordant
(iii) it is used as moderator in nuclear reactors
(iv) it is known as scheele’s salt
(A) i, ii (B) i, iii (C) ii, iv (D) iii, iv
COMPREHENSION # 73
(i) A white solid (A) on heating with NaOH gives an alkaline gas (B) and solid (C). Both (A) and (C)
gives ring test while (C) gives golden yellow flame. (A) on strong heating it decomposed to give a gas
(D) & H2O. (D) is a neutral oxide which does not burn but helps more than air in burning. (D) on
heating at 920°C which gives two gases (E) and (F). The gas (E) when mixed with hydrogen at high
temperature and pressure give gas (B). Gas (F) is essential for living system. (D) combines with ‘C’,
‘S’, ‘P’ to form their acidic oxides. (D) on heating with sodamide gives sodium azide & water.
682. What is compound (A) -
(A) N3H (B) NH4NO2 (C) (NH4)2Cr2O7 (D) NH4NO3

683. The compound D is -
(A) N2O (B) N2 (C) CO (D) None of these
684. Hybridisation of central atom in cation and anion present in compound (A) respectively -
(A) sp3, sp2 (B) sp3, sp3 (C) sp2, sp3 (D) sp3, sp
COMPREHENSION # 74
Read the following passage based on applications of crystal field theory to explain magnetic and
spectral properties of complexes carefully and answer the questions .
With the help of CFT number of unpaired electrons in a compound can be calculated and we can
calculate its paramagnetic moment (due to spin only( by the formula , u = n (n  2) Bohr magneton
(BM) , where ‘n’ is the number of unpaired electron in the complex . For spectral analysis the
separation between t 2g and eg orbitals called ligand field splitting . Parameter  0 (for octahedral
complexes) should be known to us , which can be easily calculated by observing the absorption
spectrum of one electron complex . Figure shows the optical absorption spectrum of the
hexaaquatitanium (III) ion [Ti (H2O)6]3+ . The CFT assigns the first absorption maximum at 20,300
cm –1 to the transition eg  t 2g . For multielectronic (d2 to d10) system , the calculation of  0 by
absorption spectrum is not that easy as the absorption spectrum will also be affected by electron-
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electron repulsions .
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a ly
at
(h = 6.6 × 10–34 Joule-sec , C = 3 × 108 m/sec, N0 = 6.023 × 1023 , 1 KCal= 4.2 KJ )

C
685. The magnetic moment of following arranged in increasing order will be :

[ atomic number of Co = 27 ]
(i) Co3+ (octahedral complex with a strong field ligand)
(ii) Co3+ (octahedral complex with a weak field ligand)
(iii) Co2+ (tetrahedral complex)
(iv) Co2+ (square planar complex)
(A) i > ii > iii > iv (B) iii > ii > iv > i (C) ii > iii > iv > i (D) ii > iv > iii > i
686. The energy of transition for complex given in the passage , [Ti (H2O)6]3+ will be :
(A) 243 KCal/mole (B) 58 KCal/mole (C) 97 KCal/mole (D) 143 KCal/mole
COMPREHENSION # 75
Because of the presence of vacant d-orbitals ,transition metals can accept ligands. Dependidng on the
strengths of the ligands the complexes have different hybridization of the central atoms and consequently
exhibit different magnetic properties. Thus strong ligands like CN  , CO, NH 3 , NO2 etc. cause maximum
pairing of electrons and hence are diamagnetic ir have low spins. Weak ligands like F  , Cl  , Br  , l  etc.
produce weak ligand field resulting in a large number of unpaired electrons in the complex. They are

referred to as high spin complexes.
2 2
687. They hybridization in the complexes  Ni  CN  4  and Cu  NH 3  4  are respectively
(A) sp 3 , sp3 (B) sp 3 , dsp 2 (C) dsp 2 , sp 3 (D) dsp 2 , dsp 2
688. The species that is paramagnetic is

4 3 3
(A)  Fe  CN 6  (B) Cr  CN  6  (C)  Ni  CO  4  (D) Co  CN 6 
689. Three moles of AgNO3 solution is added to 1 mole of CrCl3.6H2O and mixed thoroughly. It was found
that 1 mole AgNO3 remained in solution. The formula of the complex can be represented as
(A) Cr  H 2 O 6  Cl3 (B) CrCl  H 2O 5  Cl2 .H 2O
(C) CrCl3  H 2O 3  3H 2 O (D) CrCl2  H 2O 6  Cl.2 H 2 O
COMPREHENSION # 76
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Questions given below are based on electronic configurations of the elements. The three elements X, Y
and Z with the electronic configurations shown below all form hydrides:
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Element Electronic configuration
X 1s2, 2s2, 2p2
Y 1s2, 2s2, 2p6, 3s1
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Z 1s2, 2s2, 2p6, 3s2, 3p6, 3d10, 4s2, 4p5
Which line of properties (A, B, C, or D) correctly lists properties of the hydrides of these elements?
a
690.
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Hydride of X Hydride of Y Hydride of Z

(A) Colourless gas Silver/grey solid, reacts Colourless gas form a
C
insoluble in H2O with H2O to form an strong acid in H2O

alkaline solution
(B) Colourless liquid, no Silver/grey solid, forms Ionic solid with formula
reaction with H2O H2 O ZH
(C) Colourless gas found Does not conduct Colourless gas, reacts
naturally electricity in the molten with Cl2

state
(D) Non-polar compound Silver/grey ionic solid Forms when water is
reacts with Cl2 in light with formula YH2 added to phosphorus
and element Z
691. Which of the following exists as gas?

(A) X2 (B) Y2 (C) Z2 (D) all of the above

COMPREHENSION # 77
Pyrolusite on heating with KOH in the presence of air gives a dark green compound (A). The solution
of (A) on treatment with H2SO4 gives a purple coloured compound (B), which gives following is reactions:
(i) KI on reaction with alkaline solution of (B) changes into a compound (C)
(ii) The colour of compound (B) disappears on treatment with the acidic solution of FeSO 4.
(iii) With conc. H2SO 4 compound (B) gives (D) which can decompose to yield (E) and oxygen.
692. The compound (C) is
(A) I2 (B) I2O5 (C) KIO3 (D) KIO4
693. The comopund (E) is:

(A) MnO (B) MnO2 (C) Mn2O3 (D) Mn3O4
694. Oxidation state of manganese of the compound (A) is

(A) +2 (B) +4 (C) + 7 (D) +6
COMPREHENSION # 78
A salt (A) on reaction with NaOH gives a gas (B) , which gives black coloured water insoluble
compound with Hg2Cl 2. After completely expelling the gas (B) from the solution, zinc dust is added
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and boiled. Appearance of gas (B) again observed. The salt (A) on heating gives a gaseous product
(C) which supports combustion.
695. The gas (C) reacts with NaNH2 to obtain
(A) Na2CO3 (B) NH2–NH2
se (C) NaN3 (D) Na2CN2
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696. The gas (B) reacts with excess of Cl 2. The product obtained is
(A) N2 (B) NCl3 (C) COCl2 (D) NOCl
a
697. The gas (B) reacts with corrosive sublimate to obtain

(A) HgNH2Cl (B) HgNH2Cl–Hg (C) Hg2Cl2 (D) K2HgI4
at
COMPREHENSION # 79
C

A green coloured compound (A) gave the following reactions :
(i) (A) dissolves in water to give a green solution. The solution on reaction with AgNO3 gives
a white ppt.(B) which dissolves in NH 4OH solution and reappears on addition of dil HNO3 .It
on heating with K2Cr2O7 and conc. H 2 SO4 produced a red gas which dissolves in NaOH to
give a yellow solution (C). Addition of lead acetate solution to (C) gives a yellow ppt. which is used
as a paint
(ii) The hydroxide of cation of (A) in borax bead test gives brown colour in oxidising flame and grey
colour in reducing flame.
(iii) Aqueous solution of (A) gives a block ppt. on passing H 2 S gas. The block ppt. dissolves in
aquaregia and gives back (A).
(iv) (A) on boiling with NaHCO3 and Br2 water gives a block ppt. (D).
(v) (A) on treatment with KCN gives a light green ppt. (E) with dissolves in excess of KCN to
give (F).(F) on heating with alkaline bromine water gives the same black ppt. as (D).

698. Thye hybridization & magnetic behaviour of comnpound F ' is
(A) dsp 2 , dia (B) sp 3 , para (C) dsp 3 , para (D) sp 3 , dia
699.. The cpd A, D & E respectively are

(A) COCl 2 , C 2O3 , CO (CN ) 2 (B) NiCl2 ,CO2 O3 CO(CN)2
(C) NiCl 2 , Ni2O3 , Ni (CN ) 2 (D) Ni ( NO3 ) 2 NiCl 2 Ni (CN ) 2
700. The cpd B & C respectively are & the Maximum OX state shown by the fromation metal in cpd ‘C’ is
(A) AgCl , pbCrO4 &  6 (B) AgBr , NaCro &  4
(C) MnCl2 , NariO4 & 7 (D) NiCl2 , K 2 ( Ni (CN ) 4 )  2
COMPREHENSION # 80
Some observations related to an unknown inorganic substance A are presented below.
1 A is a yellowish – white deliquescent solid and it sublimes on heating. It has a molecular weight of 267.
2 A reacts violently with water, forming solution B.
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3 When a solution of NH4Cl and NH4OH is added to solution B, a white gelatinous precipitate is obtained
4 A sample of B also gives a curdy white precipitate C on addition of dilute nitric acid and silver nitrate
solution. This white precipitate C readily dissolves when dilute NH4OH is added, though a gelatinous white
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precipitate D is formed in its place with excess NH4OH.
5 Precipitate D is filtered off and is dissolved in excess NaOH to give a clear solution E.
6 When CO2 is passed through solution E, compound D is reprecipitated.
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7 Substance A unchanged in dry ether, when this solution is reacted with excess LiH, it transforms to G.
701. Compound A is likely to be
a
(A) Dimer of FeCl3 (B) Dimer of AlCl3 (C) Dimer of SnCl2 (D) Dimer of CrCl3
at
702. The curdy white ppt (C) is
Al  OH  3 Sn  OH  2 Cr  OH  3
C
(A) (B) (C) (D) AgCl
703. The compound (G) reacts with boran trichloride to form

(A) acidic oxide of boron (B) compound containing 3c-2e bond
(C) boran nitride (D) lithium borohydride
COMPREHENSION # 81
A white crystalling solid (a) on dehydration gave a poisonous pseudohalogen gas (B). Compound (A) when
boiled with alkali gave a clourless gas (C). Which froms white fume with HCl . The fume condenses to a
white solid (D) on cooling. (B) dissolves in caustic potash solution to gave two compounds (pseudo
halides ) (E) and (F). Compound (F) gives white precipitate (G) with AgNO3 solution but the precipitate
dissolves in excess of (E) When (F) is heated together with (D) a well known fertilizer (H) is ob-
tained. identify (A) to (H) and write the reaction involved.
704. The hybridzaition shown by cpd 'B' (pseudo halides)
(A) Sp 3d (B) Sp 3d 2 (C) Sp 2 (D) Sp

705. The ppt dissolves in excess of (E) due to formations of complex. The nature complex is
(A) Parra, colourless (B) Dia, colourless
(C) Dia, coloured (D) Parra, coloured
706. The hybridization shown by the cation & anions of compound ' A' are
(A) Sp 2 , Sp 3 (B) Sp 2 , Sp 2 (C) Sp 3 , Sp 3 (D) Sp 3 , Sp 2
707. How many  and  bonds present in between 2 C atoms of cyanogen gas and their hybridization?
(A) 1  , 0  ; sp , sp (B) 1  , 2  ; sp , sp
(C) 1  , 0  ; sp , sp
3 3
(D) 1  , 1  ; sp , sp
COMPREHENSION # 82
A white solid (A) on heating with NaOH gives an alkaline gas (B) & a solid (C) . Both (A) and (C) gives
ring test while (C) gives golden yellow flame.(A) on strong heating is decomposed to give a gas (D)
& H2O . (D) is a neutral oxide it does not burn but helps more than air in burning.(D) on heating at 920
°C which gives two gases (E) and (F) . The gas (E) when mixed with hydrogen at high temperature
and pressure give gas (B) . Gas (F) is essential for living system.(D) combines with ‘C’ , ‘S’ , ‘P’ to
form their acidic oxides . (D) on heating with sodamide gives sodium azide & water.
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708. Gas (B) is used in clock in Washington due to:
(A) flipping (B) gaseous form (C) liquid (D) rotation
709.
(A) sp3 & sp3 (B) sp3 & sp2
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The hybridization of central metal atom in cation and anion of compound (A) are respectively :
(C) sp2 & sp2 (D) sp & sp2
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710. Bond order of compound (D) is :
(A) 2.73 & 1.6 (B) 1.73 & 1.25 (C) 3&2 (D) 3.5 & 2.5
a
COMPREHENSION # 83
at

A , B, and C are three complexes of chromium (III) with the empirical formula H 12O 6Cl 3Cr. All the
three complexes have water and chloride ions as ligands . Complex A does not react with concentrated
H2SO 4, whereas complexes B and C loss 6.75% and 13.5% of their original weight respectively, on
C
treatment with concentrated H2SO 4.

711. Complex A is :
(A) [Cr(H2O)5Cl]Cl2.H2O (B) [Cr(H2O)6]Cl3
(C) [Cr(H2O)4Cl2]Cl.2H2O (D) none of these
712. Which of the following statement is correct? [State T for true and F for false]
(i) The effective atomic number of the complex B is 33
(ii) H2SO 4 is act in above question is used as a dehydrating agent
(iii) The number of ions provided by complex B is 3
(A) TTT (B) FTF (C) TTF (D) FFF
713. In the above complexes, which of the following complex is maximum hydrated ?
(A) Complex C (B) Complex B
(C) Complex A (D) All are equally hydrated

COMPREHENSION # 84
In octahedral complexes the filling of t 2 g orbitals decreases the energy of a complex , that is makes
it more stable by  0.4  0 per electron . Filling the eg orbitals increases the energy by  0.6 0 per
electron . The total crystal field stabilisation energy is given by
CFSE (octahedral) =  0.4  0 (t 2 g )  0.6 0 (eg )
eg
Average energy level

Average
Energy energy of 
metal ion in
spherical
fields
t2g
The CFSE increases the thermodynamic stability of the complexes i.e it affects the actual lattice
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energy over the theoretically calculated energy that does not take CFSE it into account. In studying
tetrahedral complexes a regular tetrahedron is related to a cube . One atom is at the centre and four
of eight corners are occupied by the ligands . The directions of x , y , z point to the centres of the
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faces of the cube . The directions of the approach of the ligands does not coincide exactly with the
atomic orbitals .
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In these complexes the eg orbitals are more stable compared to the t 2 g orbitals.
714. In an octahedral complex X the central metal ion has 24 electrons . If its pairing energy is  0.8  0
a
(where  0 is the difference in energy between the t 2 g and the eg orbitals). Will it obey Hund’s rule
and what is its spin magnetic moment
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(A) Yes , 2.83 (B) No , 2.83 (C) Yes , 4.89 (D) No , 4.89
During the formation of a tetrahedral complex the angle between the eg orbital and the central metal
C
715.
is X° and that of t 2g orbital and the central metal is Y° then X0-Y0 is.
(A) 24.3° (B) 19.3° (C) 35.36° (D) 21.24°
716. Considering Mn2+ if the measured lattice energy is X kJ / mol and the calculated lattice energy is
Y kJ/mol then their relation between X and Y in a strong and a weak ligand field respectively is
(A) X Y, X Y (B) X Y, X Y (C) X Y, X Y (D) X Y, X Y
COMPREHENSION # 85
Four elements P, Q, R & S have ground state electronic configuration as:
P  1s2 2s2 2p6 3s2 3p3 Q  1s2 2s2 2p6 3s2 3p1
2 2 6 2 6
R  1s 2s 2p 3s 3p 3d 4s 4p 10 2 3 S  1s2 2s2 2p6 3s2 3p6 3d10 4s2 4p1
717. Comment which of the following option represent the correct order of true (T) & false (F) statement.
I size of P < size of Q
II size of R < size of S
III size of P < size of R (appreciable difference)
IV size of Q < size of S (appreciable difference)
(A) TTTT (B) TTTF (C) FFTT (D) TTFF

718. Order of IE1 values among the following is
(A) P > R > S > Q (B) P < R < S < Q (C) R > S > P > Q (D) P > S > R > Q
COMPREHENSION # 86
Compounds containing M-C bonds are called organometallic compounds of which carbonyls constitute an
important part. Synergic effect in bonding in the metal carbonyls makes them stable species, metal
carbonyls abide by the effective atomic number (EAN) rule.
719. Which of the following is not an organ metallic compound ?
(A) Al  C2 H 5O 3 (B) Fr  C5 H 5 2

(C)  PtCl3  C2 H 2   (D) Cr  Co 6
x
720. The value of x in  Mn  Co 5  is
(A) 3 (B) 2 (C) 1 (D) 0
721. Which of the following is true for the synergic bonding in metal carbonyls ?
(A) The C-O bond length increases (B) The bond order of CO increases
(C) The C-O bond length does not change (D) None of these
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COMPREHENSION # 87
se
The following “cycle of copper” experiment is performed in some general chemistry laboratories. The series
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of reactions starts with copper and ends with metallic copper. The steps are as follows : (1) A piece of
copper wire of known mass is allowed to react with concentrated nitric acid [The products are copper (II)
nitrate, nitrogen dioxide, and water]. (2) The copper (II) nitrate is treated with a sodium hydroxide solution
a
to form copper (II) hydroxide precipitate. (3) On heating copper (II) hydroxide decomposes to yield copper
(II) oxide. (4) The copper (II) oxide is reacted with concentrated sulphuric acid to yield copper (II) sulphate.
at
(5) Copper (II) sulphate is treated with an excess of zinc metal to form metallic copper. (6) the remaining
zinc metal is removed by treatment with hydrochloric acid and metallic copper is filtered, dried, and
weighted.
C
722. Assuming that a student started with 65.6 g of copper, calculate the theoretical yield of copper sulphate.
(A) 165 g (B) 82.4 g (C) 90 g (D) 100.2 g
723. Copper obtained at the end of the cycle is............ amount originally taken.
(A) less than (B) greater than
(C) nearly equal (D) only copper salts are obtained.
724. CuSO4 solution thus formed is subjected to electrolysis. To deposit all the copper formed at the end, a
current of 50 A will have to be used for approximately :
(A) 10 hours (B) 1 hour (C) 5 hours (D) 0.5 hours
COMPREHENSION # 88
At high temperature carbon reacts with water to produce a mixture of carbon monoxide, CO and hydrogen,
H2.
red heat
C + H2O    CO + H2
CO is separated from H2 and then used to separate nickel from cobalt by forming a volatile compound,
nickel tetracarbonyl, Ni(CO)4.
Ni + 4 CO  Ni(CO)4

725. How many moles of Ni(CO)4 could be obtained from the CO produced by the reaction of 75.0 g of carbon ?
Assume 100% reaction and 100% recovery in both steps.
(A) 6.25 (B) 1.563 (C) 3.125 (D) 25.0
726. Formation of volatile NI(CO)4 and its subsequent heating gives pure Ni. process is called :
(A) Hall (B) Dow (C) Serpeck (D) Mond
COMPREHENSION # 89
Valence bond theory explains the magnetic bahaviour of coordination species Depending upon the mag-
netic behaviour one can understand whether the inner d- orbitals or outer d- orbitals are being used in a
particular hybrid station However, the colours of coordination species can he explained by the crystal filed
theory.
727. Which of the following compounds is diamagnetic as well as coloured

4 2 3
(A)  Fe  CN 6  (B)  Ni  CN  4  (C) Co  NH 3 6  (D) All of these
728. Though NH3 is a strong filed ligand, in which of the following compounds, the d-electrons are not paired
3 2
(A) Cr  NH 3 6  (B)  Ni  NH 3 6  (C) CrCl3  NH 3 3  (D) All of these
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729. The correct order of paramagnetic moment is given by
(A)
2 3
Cu  NH 3  4    FeF6   Cr  NH 3  6 
se 3
3 2 3
(B)  FeF6   Cu  NH 3  4   Cr  NH 3 6 
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2 3 3
(C) Cu  NH 3  4   Cr  NH 3 6    FeF6 
a
3 2
at
3
(D) Cr  NH 3 6   Cu  NH 3  4    FeF6 
COMPREHENSION # 90
C

Magnesium is a valuable, light weight metal used as a structural material as well as in alloys, in batteries,
and in chemical synthesis. Although magnesium is plentiful in Earth’s crust, it is cheaper to “mine” the
metal from seawater. Magnesium forms the second most abundant cation in the sea (after sodium); there
are about 1.3 g of magnesium in a kilogram of sea-water. The process from obtaining magnesium from sea
- water employs all three types of reactions precipitation, acid-base, and redox reactions.
730. Precipitation reaction involves formation of :

(A) insoluble MgCO3 by adding Na2CO3 (B) insoluble Mg(OH)2 by adding Ca(OH)2
(C) insoluble MgSO4 by adding Na2SO4 (D) insoluble MgCl2 by adding NaCl
731. Acid-base reaction involves reaction between:

(A) MgCO3 and HCl (B) Mg(OH)2 and H2SO4
(C) Mg(OH)2 and HCl (D) MgCO3 and H2SO4
732. Redox reaction involves reaction between :

(A) in the electrolytic cell when fused MgCl2 is subjected to electrolysis.
(B) when fused MgCl2 is heated.
(C) when fused MgCO3 is strongly heated
(D) in none of the above.

733. Instead of calcium hydroxide, why don’t we simply add sodium hydroxide to seawater to precipitate
magnesium hydroxide ?
(A) Solubility of Ca(OH)2 is smaller than that of NaOH so that Mg(OH)2 is precipitated.
(B) NaOH may dissolve Mg(OH)2 formed.
(C) NaOH may also precipitate other species, being a strong electrolyte
(D) NaOH, being a weak electrolyte will not coagulate Mg(OH)2
734. Which is the best source of the given process in the metallurgical process?
(A) Magnesite (B) Kieserite (C) Epsomite (D) Dolomite
COMPREHENSION # 91
An inorganic salt (A) is decomposed at about 523 K to give products (B) and (C). Compound (C) is a liquid
at room temperature and is neutral to litmus paper while oxide (B) on burning with white phosphorous,
given a dehydrating agent (D).
735. Compound (A) is

(A) NH4NO3 (B) N2O (C) H2O (D) P2O5
736. Compound (B) is

R
737. Compound (C) is
(A) NH4NO3 (B) N2O se(C) H2O (D) P2O5
738. Compound (D) is

ly
COMPREHENSION # 92
a
There are some deposits of nitrates and phosphates in earth’s crust. Nitrates are more soluble in water.
at
Nitrates are difficult to reduce under the laboratory conditions but microbes do it easily. Ammonia forms
large number of complexes with transition metal ions. Hybridization eaily explains the ease of sigma
donation capability of NH3 and PH3. Phosphine is a flammable gas and is prepared from white phosphorus.
C
739. Among the following, the correct statement is –

(A) Phosphates have no biological significance in humans
(B) Between nitrates and phosphates, phosphates are less abundant in earth’s crust
(C) Between nitrates and phosphates, nitrates are less abundant in earth’s crust
(D) Oxidation of nitrates is possible in soil
740. Among the following, the correct statement is –

(A) Between NH3 and PH3, NH3 is a better electron donor because the lone pair of electrons occupies
spherical ‘s’ orbital and is less directional.
(B) Between NH3 and PH3, PH3 is a better electron donor because the lone pair of electrons occupies
sp3 orbital and is more directional.
(C) Between NH3 and PH3, NH3 is a better electron donor because the lone pair of electrons occupies
sp3 orbital and is more directional.
(D) Between NH3 and PH3, PH3 is a better electron donor because the lone pair of electrons occupies
spherical ‘s’ orbital and is less directional.
741. White phosphorus on reaction with NaOH gives PH3 as one of the products. This is a –
(A) dimerization raection (B) disproportionation reaction
(C) condensation reaction (D) precipitation reaction

COMPREHENSION # 92
A white crystalling solid (A) on dehydration gave a poisonous pseudohalogen gas (B). Compound (A) when
boiled with alkali gave a clourless gas (C). Which froms white fume with HCl. The fume condenses to a
white solid (D) on cooling. (B) dissolves in caustic potash solution to gave two compounds (pseudo
halides ) (E) and (F). Compound (F) gives white precipitate (G) with AgNO3 solution but the precipitate
dissolves in excess of (E) When (F) is heated together with (D) a well known fertilizer (H) is ob-
tained. identify (A) to (H) and write the reaction involved.
742. The hybridzaition shown by cpd 'B' (pseudo halides)

(A) sp3d (B) sp3d2 (C) sp2 (D) sp
743. The ppt dissolves in excess of (E) due to formations of complex. The nature complex is
(A) Parra, colourless (B) Dia, colourless (C) Dia, coloured (D) Parra, coloured
744. The hybridization shown by the cation & anions of compound ' A' are
(A) sp2, sp3 (B) sp2, sp2 (C) sp3, sp3 (D) sp3, sp2
COMPREHENSION # 93
R
A sulphate of a metal (A) on heating evolves two gases (B) and (C) and an oxide (D). Gas (B) turns K2Cr2O7
paper green while gas (C) forms a trimer in which there is no S – S bond. Compound (D) with HCl, forms a
se
Lewis base (E) which exists as a dimer.
745. Compound (A) is
(A) FeSO4 (B) SO2 (C) SO3 (D) Fe2O3
ly
746. Compound (B) is
a
at
747. Compound (C) is

C
748. Compound (D) is

749. Compound (E) is

(A) FeCl3 (B) SO2 (C) SO3 (D) Fe2O3
COMPREHENSION # 94
A  O 2 
XYZ
(organic compound)
Compound (A) in pure form does not give ppt. with AgNO3 solution. A mixture containing 70% of (A) and
30% of ether is used as an anaesthetic. Compound (X) and (Y) are oxides while (Z) is a pungent smelling
gas. (X) is a neutral oxide which turns cobalt chloride paper pink. Compound (Y) turns lime water milky and
produces an acidic solution with water.
750. Compound (A) is –
(A) CHCl3 (B) H2O (C) CO2 (D) Cl2
751. Compound (X) is –

(A) CHCl3 (B) Cl2 (C) CO2 (D) H2O

752. Compound (Y) is –
753. Compound (Z) is –

COMPREHENSION # 95
A crystalline solid (A) reacts with hydrogen gas to form a monoatomic gas (B) and a highly associated
liquid (C). (A) is soluble in water and undergoes hydrolysis slowly to form (B), (C) and a diatomic gas (D).
When pure and dry (D) is subjected to a silent electric discharge an another pale blue gas (E) is produced
which like (A) also acts as a strong oxidising agent. (E) dissolves in potassium hydroxide forming an
orange coloured solid which is paramagnetic in nature. (A) reacts with IF5, SbF5, PF5 etc to form the
addition compounds. (C) forms an addition compound (F) with KF which when electrolysed in molten state
forms a most reactive gas (G). (B) and (G) (taken in 2 : 1 ratio) when heated in nickel tube at 400ºC and 6
atm. pressure forms (A). The IE1 of (B) is fairly close to (D).
754. Gas (G) is produced by reacting K2 MnF6 with :

(A) SbF5 (B) MnF3 (C) KSbF6 (D) MnF5
R
755. Which of the following statement is correct for (A)?
(A) The central atom of (A) is sp3d hybridised with three lone pairs of electrons
(B) (A) reacts with S8 molecules in presence of (C) to form a compound in which the S atom is sp3 d2
se
hybridised.
(C) (A) reacts with SbF5 as a lewis base.
(D) All of these
ly
756. Which is correct choice for (D) and (E)
a
(A) (E) reacts with dry iodine to form I2O5

(B) A filter paper soaked in alcoholic benzidine becomes brown when brought in contact with (E)
at
(C) (D) is prepared by Brin’s process

(D) (B) and (C) both
C
COMPREHENSION # 96
Look at the location of elements A,B,C and D in the following periodic table and answer the questions given
below :
757. Which of the elements indicated by A,B, C and D is expected to be found in native state
(A) A (B) B (C) C (D) D
758. Which is found as its sulphide?

(A) A (B) B (C) C (D) D
759. Which is found as its carbonate?

(A) A (B) B (C) C (D) D
760. Imagine a planet with an atmosphere that contains O2 and SO2 but no. CO2 . What is the chemical
composition of the mineral you would expect to find for the alkaline earth metals (M) on such a planet ?
(A) MO2,M2O2 (B) MSO3,MSO4
(C) M(HSO3)2 M(HSO4)2 (D) All of the above

COMPREHENSION # 97
The chief ore of zinc is the sulphide, ZnS. The ore is concentrated by flotation process and then heated in
air, which converts the ZnS to ZnO.
2ZnS + 3O2 90 .6
%
 2ZnO + 2SO2 ......(1)
The ZnO is then treated with dilute H2SO4
ZnO + H2SO4 100 %
  2ZnSO4 + H2O ......(2)
to produce ZnSO4(aq.) which produces Zn metal on electrolysis.
98.2%
2 ZnSO4 + 2H2O  2Zn + 2H2SO4 + O2 .......(3)
761. What mass of Zn will be obtained from an ore containing 225 kg of ZnS ? Efficiencies of the process have
been indicated above the arrow mark. (Zn = 65, S = 32, O=16, H=1)
(A) 134 kg (B) 112 kg (C) 102 kg (D) 130 kg
762. What amount of current is required (with 100% efficiency) in step (3) if it takes one month ?
(A) 10.2 A (B) 15.4 A (C) 17.0 A (D) 154.0 A
763. ZnO is step (i) can also be dissolved in NaOH forming :

(A) Zn(OH)2 (B) Na2ZnO2 (C) Na2O3 (D) NaZn(OH)4
R
764. How many kilomoles of NaOH are required to dissolve all the ZnO of step (1) assuming 100% yield ?
(A) 2.32 (B) 1.16 (C) 4.64
se (D) 9.28
765. What valume of 98% H2SO4 (by weight, density 1.8 g/mL) is required in step (2) ?
(A) 130 L (B) 140 L (C) 120 L (D) 150 L
ly
COMPREHENSION # 98
a
The Carbon–metal bond in carbonyls may be represented as M  C  O. A stronger second bond is

at

formed by back bonding. This arises form sideways overlap of
 2Py orbital of carbon with full dxy
orbital of the metal.
C
766. Because of back bonding ‘CO’ is called as:

(A)  – acceptor ligand (B)  – donar ligand
(C)  – acceptor base (D)  – donor ligand
767. In metal carbonyls the C–O bond length

(A) Decreases from double bond length to triple length.
(B) Increases from triple bond length to double bond length.
(C) Remain as triple bond length.
(D) Cannot be predicted.
768. Which pair of carbonyl is correctly matched with shape.

(A) Nickel carbonyl – Square planar (B) Iron carbonyl – Pentagonal bipyramidal
(C) Vanadium carbonyl – Tetrahedral (D) Chromium carbonyl – Octahedral

COMPREHENSION # 99
Coordination compounds can also exhibit ionization and limeage isomerism types along with other isomerism
types. In ionization isomerism type, the exchange of ions between coordination sphere and ionic sphere
is observed. On the other hand, is linkage isomerism, the change in the donar atom of a ligand is
observed.
769. Which one of the following is correct with respect to SCN  ion ?
(A) metal - S bonds are stable in solvent with low dielectrtic constant
(B) metal - N bonds are stable in solvent with high dielectric constant
(C) metal - S bonds are stable in solvent with high dielectric constant
(D) in any solvent metal - S and metal - N bonds are stable
770. Which one of the following is not an example for ionization isomerism:
(A)  NH 3 5 Co 18OH   NO2   NH 3 5 Co  NO2   18 OH
(B)  NH3  4 Co  H2O Cl   2Br   NH3 4 Co  Br2    Cl .H2O

 
(C)
 NH3 5 Co  SO4    NO3   NH3 5 Co  NO3   SO4
R
(D)  NH 3  4 Co  NO2  Cl   Cl   NH 3  4 CoCl2   NO2
se
771. How many ways are possible to represent a coordination complex with a molecular formula
n
 M m  a4b2  (when m may or may not be equal to n ) in - terms of geometrical isomerism
ly
(A) 12 Cis forms and 3 trans forms (B) 6 Cis forms and 6 trans forms
(C) 4 Cis forms and 4 trans forms (D) 8 Cis and 4 trans formss
a
at
COMPREHENSION # 100
A metal complex having composition Cr ( NH 3 ) 4 Br2 I was isolated in two forms (x) and (y). Form (x)
C
reacts with AgNO3 to give a pale yellow precipitate which is partially soluble in excess of NH 4OH .
Whereas (y) gives a greenish yellow precipitate which is insoluble in NH 4OH .
772. (A) The formula of (x) and (y) are [Cr ( NH 3 ) 4 IBr ]Br and [Cr ( NH 3 ) 3 Br2 I ] NH 3
(B) The formula of (x) and (y) are [Cr ( NH 3 ) 4 IBr ]Br and [Cr ( NH 3 ) 4 Br2 ]I respectively
(C) The formula of (x) and (y) are both [Cr ( NH 3 ) 4 Br ]BrI
(D) The formula of (x) and (y) are [Cr ( NH 3 ) 2 IBr2 ]( NH 3 ) 2
773. Both the (x) form and (y) form show

(A) linkage isomerism (B) Co-ordination isomerism
(C) ionization isomerism (D) none of these
774. The oxidation state and co-ordination number of the central atom in the complex is
(A) +6, 6 (B) +6, 5 (C) +3, 5 (D) +3, 6

SECTION III: MATCH TYPE
Column I Column II
(a) V (CO)6 (P) Paramagnetic with 1 unpaired electron
(b) [NiCl2 (PPh3)2] (Q) Paramagnetic with 2 unpaired electrons
(c) [Ni(NH3)4]2+ (R) sp3 hybridization
(d) Ni (CO)4 (S) Diamagnetic

(A) Zn(OH)2 precipitate dissolves in (P) Potassium cyanide
(B) Cr(OH)3 precipitate dissolves in (Q) Ammonia
(C) AgCl precipitate dissolves in (R) Sodium hydroxide
(D) CuS precipitate dissolves in (S) Sodium peroxidse

(A) Highest density (P) Os
(B) Colourless salts (Q) Cr
(C) Maximum magnetic moment (R) Zn
(D) Variable oxidation state (S) Mn
R
(A) Bi3+ gives black ppt with (P) H2S (saturated solution in water)
(B) Cu2+ gives black ppt with (Q)
se Potassium thiocyanate solution
(C) Zn2+ gives white ppt with (R) Potassium iodide solution
(D) Ag+ gives white ppt with (S) Potassium ferrocyanide solution
ly
(A) Coloured ion (P) Cu+
(B) µ = 1.73 B.M. (Q) Cu2+
a
(C) d10 configuration (R) Fe2+

(D) More than 3 unpaired electrons (S) Mn2+
at

C
Reactants Products
Cold
(a) anhydrous form of blue vitirol + P 4 + H2O  (P) H3PO4
Hot
(b) anhydrous form of blue vitirol + P 4 + H2O   (Q) Cu3P (black)
(c) anhydrous form of blue vitirol + PH3 + H2O  (R) Cu
(d) anhydrous form of blue vitirol + H3PO 2 + H2O  (S) Cu2H2 (Red)

Column A Column B
(i) Na + Cl 2 (water) + CCl 4 - shake (a) yellow ppt
(ii) CH3COO¯ + FeCl 3 + H2O - boil (b) green mass
(iii) CoCl 2 + KNO 2 + CH3COOH - warm (c) black ppt
(iv) MnCl 2 + KOH + KClO 3 - fusion (d) purple colour
(v) MnCl 2 + NaOH + Br2 (water) (e) red brown ppt
(vi) FeCl 3 + KSCN (f) blood red colour

782. Name % of C
[1] Wrought iron/Meleable (a) 0.25 to 2.0
[2] Steel (b) 2.6 to 4.3
[3] Pig Iron (c) 0.1 to 0.25
[4] Cast Iron (d) 2.3 to 4.6

(A) Zn (P) d-block metal
(B) Cu (Q) Coinage metal
(C) Ag (R) Native metal
(D) Fe (S) Transitional metal

List I List II
(a) NH3 (P) sp3 hybridisation
(b) XeF6 (Q) 1 lone pair are present
(c) B2H6 (R) multi centre bond are present
(d) NH4+ (S) pyramidal shape
785. Match the geometry (given in column A) with the complex (given in column B).
R
Column (A) Column (B)
i) Tetrahedral (a) [Cu(NH3)4]2+
ii) Octahedral (b) [Ag(NH3)2]+
se
iii) Square planar (c) Fe(CO)5
iv) Trigonal bipyramidal (d) [Cr(H2O)6]3+
v) Linear (e) [NiCl4]2–
ly
(A) (i)-(e), (ii)-(d), (iii)-(a), (iv)-(c) ,(v)-(b)
(B) (i)-(d), (ii)-(e), (iii)-(a), (iv)-(c) ,(v)-(b)
a
(C) (i)-(d), (ii)-(e), (iii)-(b), (iv)-(a) ,(v)-(c)

(D) (i)-(c), (ii)-(e), (iii)-(b), (iv)-(a) ,(v)-(d)
at
786. Match column - I with column - II

Column - I (Property) Column - II (Element/compound)
C
(A) Explosive (P) Cu

(B) Self-reduction (Q) Fe3O4
(C) Magnetic material (R) Cu(CH3COO)2.Cu(OH)2
(D) Verdigris (S) Pb(NO3)2
787. Match column - I and column - II and select the correct answer using the codes given below the lists:
Column - I Column - II
(A) Cyanide process (P) Ultrapure Ge
(B) Floatation process (Q) Dressing of HgS
(C) Electrolytic reduction (R) Extraction of Al
(D) Zone refining (S) Extraction of Au
788. Column  Column 

1. White crystalline precipitate (a) K3 [Co(NO2)6]
2. Reddish brown precipitate (b) Cr(OH)3
3. Yellow precipitate (c) Fe(OH)3
4. Green precipitate (d) PbCl2

789. Column  Column 
1. 2NiS + 2HNO3 + 6HCl – Evaporate (a) Black ppt & imparts greenish blue flame
to dryness
2. CoCl2 + 4NH4 CNS + amyl (b) Blue colour in organic layer
alcohol – Shake & allow to stand
3. CuCl2 + NaOH – Heat strongly (c) White ppt insoluble in conc HNO3 & HCl
4. Sr(CH3COO)2 + (NH4)2 C2O4 – Mix (d) Yellow residue turns green in water
5. H2SO4 + BaCl2 – Mix (e) Yellow ppt soluble in NaOH
6. Na2CrO4 + (CH3OO)2 Pb – Mix (f) Scarlet red ppt
7. HgCl2 + KI – Mix (g) White ppt & imparts crimson red flame
790. Column (A) Column (B)

(a) Fe3+ , Zn2+ & Cu2+ can be differentiated by (i) KI solution
(b) PbS,CuS and CdS dissolve in (ii) Alkaline Na2SnO 2 solution
(c) Pb2+ gives yellow precipitate with (iii) 50% HNO3
(d) Bi 3+ gives a black precipitate with (iv) K2CrO4 solution
(e) [Ag(NH3)2] Cl gives back precipitate with (v) Aqueous NH3 .
R
791. Column – I Column – II
(a) FeO + SiO2  FeSiO3 (i) Calcination
(b)
DryHCl
MgCl2.6H2O   MgCl
se (ii) Leaching
2
ly
(c) Cu2S + 2Cu2O 
 6 Cu + SO2 (iii) Smelting
(d) Fe2O3 + 3C  2Fe + 3CO (iv) Roasting
a
(e) 2Na[Ag(CN)2] + Zn  Na2 [Zn(CN)4] + 2Ag (v) Bessemerisation

at
792. Match the various sequences with the appropriate orders:

Sequences Orders
C
(I) Na+ Mg+2 Al+3 (a) increasing size of ion in gaseous state
(II) I– S2– N3– (b) decreasing size of ion in gaseous state
(III) O O– O–2 (c) increasing size of ions aqueous state.
(IV) N F O (IE2) (d) decreasing size of ions aqueous state.
(e) increasing order of IE2
(f) decreasing order of electron affinity

(A) Containing carbonate radicals (P) Anglesite
(B) Soluble in dilute H2SO4 (Q) Cerussite
(C) Insoluble in dilute H2SO4 (R) Azurite
(D) Substance containing lead (S) Calamine

794. Match Column-I with Column-II and select the correct answer using the codes given below .
Column-I (Metals) Column-II (Method used for refining)
(A) Iron & copper (P) Poling
(B) Zirconium & Titanium (Q) Bessemerisation
(C) Lead & Tin (R) Van-Arkel
(D) Copper & Tin (S) Liquation

1. Double salt (a) [Co(NH3)3Cl3]
2. Zeise's salt (b) Hexadentate
3. Neutral molecule (c) bidentate
4. EDTA (d) Paramagnetic
5. Ni(CO)4 (e) FeSO4.(NH4)SO4.6H2O
6. [Cr(NH3)6]3+ (f) K4Fe(CN)6
7. Low spin complex (g) Diamagnetic
8. Glycine (h) An organometallic compound
(A) (1–e); (2–h); (3–a); (4–b); (5–g); (6–d); (7–f); (8–c).
(B) (1–h); (2–e); (3–a); (4–b); (5–g); (6–d); (7–f); (8–c).
(C) (1–h); (2–e); (3–a); (4–b); (5–d); (6–g); (7–c); (8–f).
(D) (1–h); (2–a); (3–e); (4–b); (5–d); (6–g); (7–f); (8–c)
796. Match list I with List II and select the correct answer using the codes given below the lists.
R
List I (Complex) List II(Geometry)
A. [Ni(CN)4]2– 1. Tetrahedral
B. [ZnCl4]2– 2. Tetragonal
C.
D.
[Co(en)3]3+
[Cu(NO2)6]4–
se 3.
4.
Square planar
Square pyramidal
5. Octahedral
ly
Code A B C D
(A) 1 2 3 4
(B) 3 1 5 2
a
(C) 2 3 4 5
at
(D) 3 1 5 4
List I List II
C
(a) Arsenic (P) highest electron affinity (among list I)

(b) Chlorine (Q) strongest reducing agent (among list I)
(c) Fluorine (R) p-block element (among list I)
(d) Lithium (S) highest ionisation energy (among list I)

(a) chalcopyrites (or) copper pyrites (P) CuCO3.Cu(OH)2
(b) Chalcocite (or) copper glance (Q) Cu3FeS3
(c) Bornite (R) Cu2S
(d) Cuprite (red) (S) Cu2O
(e) Malacite (green) (T) CuFeS2
(f) Azurite (blue) (U) 2CuCO3.Cu(OH)2
799. Match column (I) (process) with column (II) (electrolyte)

Column (I) (process) Column (II) (electrolyte)
(A) Downs cell (P) fused MgCl2
(B) Dow sea water process (Q) fused (Al2O3 + Na3AlF6 + CaF2)
(C) Hall-Heroult (R) fused (40% NaCl + 60% CaCl2)
(S) (AN + C + N2)

800. Match column - I with column - II and select the correct answer using the codes given below the lists:
(A) Van Arkel method (P) Manufacture of caustic soda
(B) Solvay process (Q) Purification of titanium
(C) Cupellation (R) Manufacture of Na2CO3
(D) Poling (S) Purification of copper
(T) Refining of silver

(A) Reduction of oxides with Al (P) Ti
(B) Reduction of chlorides with Mg (Q) Cu
at higher temperature
(C) Auto reduction of Sulphides (R) Cr
during reduction
(D) Strong heating of metal oxides (S) Ag

(a) K2MgCl4.6H2O (i) Thomas slag
(b) Al2O3 (ii) Azurite
R
(c) Ca3(PO4)2 (iii) Calamine
(d) 3Ag2S.Sb2S3 (iv) Langbeinite
(e)
(f)
2CuCO3.Cu(OH)2
PbSO4
se(v)
(vi)
Carnallite
Pyrargyrite
(g) K2Mg2(SO4)3 (vii) Corundum
ly
(h) ZnCO3 (viii) Anglesite
a

(A) 4 Au + 8 NaCN + 2 H2O + O2 (air) (P) Leaching
at
 4 Na [Au (CN)2] + 4 NaOH

(B) CuFeS2 + 2 H2SO4 (Q) Smelting
C
 CuSO4 + FeSO4 + 2 H2S

823 K
(C) Fe3O4 + 4 CO    3 Fe + CO (R) Hydrometallurgy

(D) MgCl2. 6 H2O    MgCl + 6 H O
Dry HCl ( g ) 2 2
(S) Calcination
(T) Dow’s process
804. Match the column –

Column I Column II
(A) N2O4 (p) Produces mixed acids on reaction with water as
final product
(B) Cl2O6 (q) Exists as ion pair in the solid state
(C) SO2Cl2 (r) Paramagnetic in monmeric form
(s) Stronger dehydrating agent compared to conc.
H2SO4

805. Match the column –
Column I Column II
(A) Cl2O (p) Exists in equilibrium with monomer
(B) ClO2 (q) Paramagnetic
(C) Cl2O6 (r) Strongest acidic oxide
(D) Cl2O7 (s) Maximum steric on crowding
806. Match the column correctly –

Column I Column II
(A) Best reductant (p) Fluorine
(B) Arracks glass (q) F¯
(C) Highest. hydrated halide ion (r) HF
(D) Tri-iodide ion (s) HI
(E) Does not show +1 oxidation state (t) Linear species
807. Match List–I with List–II and select the correct answer using codes given below in the list –
List – I List – II
(a) Cyanide process (P) Ultrapure Ge
(b) Floation process (Q) Pine oil
(c) Electrolytic reduction (R) Extraction of Al
(d) Zone refining (S) Extraction of Au
R
SECTION V: INTEGER TYPE se
808. The oxidation state of Fe in brown ring complex [Fe(H2O)5NO]SO 4 is
809. The most common oxidation state of Lanthanoids is

ly
810. Total number of inner transition elements in the periodic table is
a
811. How many statements are incoorect from the following:

(i) In the testing of v group radical NH4OH is added to convert NH4HCO3 to (NH4)2CO3 so that Ba2+, Sr2+
at
and Ca2+ precipitate completely.

(ii) In the fusion test for Mn2+ ions, purple mass obtained turns green on adding NaOH solution (fusion
with KClO3 + KOH).
C
(iii) The addition of zinc dust during the testing of S2– by dil H2SO4 enhances the evolution of H2S gas.
(iv) Nonluminous flame is called oxidising flame and luminous flame is called reducing flame.
(v) Cr2 (SO4)3 + 3B2O3 
 2Cr(BO2)3 (blue bead) + 3SO3
812. Consider the following complex : [Co(NH3)5CO3]ClO4

The coordinations number, oxidation number, number of d-electrons and number of unpaired d-electrons
on the metal are respectively –
813. Benitoite is represented as BaTi [Si3On], the value of n iS?
814. A metal complex of co-ordination number six having three different types of ligands a, b and c of
composition Ma2b2c2 can exist in several geometrical isomeric forms; the total number of such isomers
is
815. Effective atomic number of Fe in the complex K 4[Fe(CN)6] is
816. % of silver in 'german silver' is

817. From the following information
A– (g)  A+2 (g) + 3e– H1 = 1400 kJ
A (g)  A+2 (aq) + 2e– H2 = 700 kJ
H EG [A+(g)] = – 350 kJ /mol
(IE1 + IE2) for A(g) = 950 kJ/mol
Find IE2 ( kJ/mol) of A
818. f-Sub shell of which principle quantum no. is filled up progressively in actinoids?
819. How many of the following statements are correct

(i) All the lone pairs are not necessarily used in coordinate bonding.
(ii) Tetrahedral complex of coordination no. of ‘4’ show geometrical isomerism
(iii) A polydentate ligands have flexidentate character.
(iv) Geometrical isomerism is not noticed in complex coordination no. 2 and 3 .
(v) EDTA has six lone pairs but it will be less than 6 lone pair s can be used in some
coordinate complexes.
(vi) Perfect complexes are those in which complex ion is fairly stable.
(vii) It can be considered as undissociated and doesn’t give the individual tests for cations and
anions.
(viii) For the complex K4[Fe(CN)6] it will give 4K+ and [Fe(CN)6]4– but will not give individual test for
Fe2+ & 6CN–.
R
(ix) Square planar complexes of coordination no. of ‘4’ shows geometrical isomerism
(x) Octahedral complexes of coordination no. of ‘6’ showing geometrical isomerism
(xi) It is either not dissociated or feebly dissociated in solution state.
se
(xii) Ambidentate ligands are those in which only one donor atom is attached to metal atom
820. What is the oxidation state of lead in litharge?

ly
821. When Fe(s) is dissolved in aqueous hydrochloric acid in a closed vessel, the work done is?
a
822. Theoritically the No. of geometrical isomers expected for octahedral complex [Mabcdef] is :
at
823. The magnetic moment of a transition metal ion is found to be 3.87 BM. The number of unpaired electrons
present in the ion is
C
824. Inorganic graphite is BXNY, the value of X+Y is?
825. An ornament of gold has 75% of gold, then it is of how many carat?
M 
826. In an alkaline medium, the equivalent mass of KMnO4 is   . Then x is?
 x 
827. The number of unpaired electron in the complex ion [CoF 6]3– is
828. The possible number of optical isomers in [Co(en)2Cl2]+ are
829. The number of milli-moles of acidified KMnO4 required to convert one mole of sulphite ion into sulphate ion is
830. Colemanite has the formula : Ca2B6O11·xH2O. What is x?
831. The atomic number of an element is 22. The highest oxidation state exhibited by it in its compounds is]

832. Out of the following the number of process(es) which uses a catalyst is/are?
(I) Contact process
(II) Thermite process
(III) Ostwald's process
(IV) Haber's process
833. The mononuclear complex salt having the molecular composition [Co(en) 2 (SCN) (NO 2)]Br can exist
in a number of isomeric forms. The total number of possible isomer of all type is
834. Number of equivalent Cr —O bonds in the dichromate dianion are?
R
se
a ly
at
C

PART III: ORGANIC CHEMISTRY
XI
835. During the preparation of ethane by Kolbe’s electrolytic method using inert electrodes, the pH of the
electrolyte:
(A) increases progressively as the reaction proceeds
(B) decreases progressively as the reaction proceeds
(C) remains constant throughout the reaction
(D) may decrease , if the concentration of the electrolyte is not very high
836. Arrange the following compounds in increasing order of their reactivity towards E 2 elimination with
(CH3)3COK in t-butanol:
(I) PhCHClCH3 (II) PhCH2CH2Cl
(III) CH3COCH2CH2Cl (IV) CH3COCHClCH3
(A) I < II < III < IV (B) III < II < IV < I (C) III < IV < II < I (D) I < IV < II < III
837. Which of the following compound would exhibit aromatic properties:
(A) B–H (B) B–H (C) N–H (D) H–N N–H
R
838. Which of the following is the enol tautomer of the compound shown?
C–CH2–C
se
O O
ly
C–CH2–C C–CH=C
(A) (B)
a
OH O O OH
at
CH–CH2–CH C–CH2–C
(C) (D)
C
OH OH OH O
839. Highest heat of combustion is observed in:

(A) n-hexane (B) 2-methylpentane
(C) 3-methylpentane (D) 2,2,3-trimethylbutane
840. Which of the following has highest dipole moment ?
(A) H–F (B)
(C) (D)

841. Which of the following reactions involves a carbene reaction intermediate?
(A) aq. NaOH O

   
EtOH
(B) (CH3)3CBr  
 (CH3)3COC2H5
hv
(C) CH4 + 4Cl 2  CCl 4 + 4HCl
H3C CH3 CBr

(CH ) COK
(D) C=C + CHBr3  3 
3
 (CH3)2C—C(CH3)2
H3C CH3 (CH 3 ) 3 COH
842. Which of the following is the most stabilized carbocation?

OMe OMe
(A) (B)
R
OMe OMe
(C) (D)
se
ly
843. Sodium formate on Kolbe’s electrolysis, the products liberated at anode and cathode respectively
are A and B.
a
(A) A =CO 2 B = H2 (B) A = H2 B = CO 2

(C) A =H2 B = H2 (D) A = CO 2 B = CO 2
at
844. How many stereoisomers are possible for the following molecule?
H
C
CHCH=CHCOOH
H3C
(A) 1 (B) 2 (C) 3 (D) 5
845. Kolbe's synthesis of 2, 2-dimethyl propanoic acid gives the following major product(s) at anode.
(A) isoctane (B) isobutene & isobutane
(C) 2, 2, 3, 3-tetramethyl butane (D) hydrogen gas
846. The relative reactivity of 1o : 2o : 3o hydrogens to chlorination is 1 : 3.8 : 5. The percentage of

2 - chlorobutane, formed during the reaction of chlorine and butane.
(A) 72 % (B) 28 % (C) 44 % (D) 33. 3 %

COOH
NaOH
847.   The product is
CaO
Cl
O
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
Cl OH
NaOH
848. Cl COOH   The major product is
CaO
(A) (B) Cl
R
(C) Cl COOH (D) Cl Cl
849.
se
Among the following compounds , the one that undergo deprotonation most radily in the presence
of a base to form a carbanion is :
ly
(A) (B)
a
at
(C) (D)
C
850. Increasing bond dissociation energy of the indicated C–H bond:
Hb
Hc
Hd
Ha
(A) c<b<a<d (B) b<a<d<c
(C) b<c<d<a (D) d<c<b<a

581. Which is the most stable resonance form?
OCH3 OCH3
H H H H
(A) (B)
H CH 3 H CH 3
H C(CH 3)3 H C(CH 3)3
OCH3 OCH3
H H H H
(C) (D)
H CH3 H CH3
H C(CH3)3 H C(CH3)3
852. What is the IUPAC name for the compound shown?

O
R
CHCH2CH2CH
CH(CH3)2 se
(A) 4-Benzyl-4-isopropylbutanal (B) 4-Isopropyl-4-phenylbutanal
(C) 2-methyl-3-phenylhexanal (D) 5-Methyl-4-phenylhexanal
ly
853. Which one of the amines is the least basic?
a
(A) CH2N(CH3)2 (B) Cl N(CH3)2

at
O
(C) H3C N(CH3)2 (D) HC N(CH3)2
C
854. Give the major product of the following reaction:
AlCl3
major
Cl
(A) (B)
(C) (D)

855. Which of the following are feasible reactions?
(i) HC CH + CH3Li  HC CLi + CH4
(ii) HC CH + NaOH  HC CNa + H2O
(iii) HC CNa + NH3  HC CH + NaNH2
(iv) H2C==CH2 + HC CNa  H2C==CHNa + HC CH
(A) i, ii and iii (B) ii, iii and iv (C) i, iii and iv (D) only i
CH3
(i) O / Ag
856.  2     A. A is
(ii ) CH 3OH / H 
(A) OH H3C (B) OH OCH3
H OCH3 H CH3
(C) OH OCH3 (D) OH H
R
H3C H se H3C OCH3
857. Which of the following method will obtain major yield of coupling product?
CH3 CH3
ly
| |
(A) CH3  CH2 Mg Cl + CH3  C  CH2  Cl  CH3  CH  CH2  CH2  CH3
a
|
H
at
CH3 CH3
| |
(B) CH3  CH  CH2  MgCl + CH3  CH2  Cl CH3  CH  CH2  CH2  CH3
C
CH3 CH3
| |
(C) (CH3  CH2)2 CuLi + CH3  CH  CH2  Cl  CH3  CH  CH2  CH2  CH3
CH3 CH3
| |
(D) (CH3  CH  CH2)2CuLi + CH3  CH2  Cl  CH3  CH  CH2  CH2  CH3
858. Arrange the following reaction in decreasing order of reactivity with NBS/heat:
(1) (2) (3) (4)
(A) 1 > 2 > 3 > 4 (B) 2 > 1 > 3 > 4 (C) 1 > 2 > 4 > 3 (D) 4 > 3 > 2 > 1

859. Which starting material should be used to produce the compound shown below?
H O O
O3
? O
Zn-H2O
O
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
860. Which of the following reagents can be used for the following conversions
C=C–CH2–Br CH2–CH2–CH2–Br
R

H H se
(A) NH2–NH2/H2O2 (B) H2/Pd–C
(C) LiAlH4 (D) Zn-Cu/EtOD
ly
861. Reactivity of F is highest in–
(A) DMF (B) H2O (C) EtOH (D) benzene
a
862. Which one of the following alkene will react fastest with H 2 under catalytic hydrogenation?
(A) Trans-cyclohexene (B) Cis-cyclohexene
at
(C) (D)
C
Mg / Et O
863. Br–CH2–CCH   2 The product is
(A) HCC–CH2–Mg+Br¯ (B) CH3–CC–Mg+Br¯
(C) HCC–CH2–O–Et (D) Both (a) and (b)

864. Which of the following are aromatic:
2–
(A) (B) (C) (D)

H
H

Na Et 2O
865.    (major)
(A) (B) (C) (D) none of these

ALKANES
COMPREHENSION # 101
Alkanes can be prepared by Wurtz reaction, in which, alkyl halides are coupled each other with the help
of metallic sodium is dry ether solvent, to give alkanes.
Na
2 RX  R R
R
dry ether
Due to elimination and rearrangement reactions, different byproducts are formed. Unsymmetrical alkanes
can be prepared by this method, but practically it is very difficult to separate the individual alkane from the
se
mixture of alkanes.
866. Which one of the following is correct for the following dihalide:
ly
X
a
X
(A) intramolecular coupling alone take place
at
(B) extramolecular coupling alone take place

(C) intramolecular coupling dominates extramolecular coupling
C
(D) extramolecular coupling dominates intramolecular coupling
867. Identify the incorrect statement. In the stoichiometric Wurtz reaction on ethyl chloride.
(A) disproportionation of alkyl carbanion and alkyl halide take place.
(B) some sodium metal remains in the reaction mixture
(C) the byproducts dominate the chief product
(D) inter molecular hydrogenation take place
868. The intermediate in Wurtz reaction is:

(A) Carbanion (B) Carbocation
(C) anion radical (D) organo metallic compound

COMPREHENSION # 102
Wurtz reacton involves the condensation of two molecules of alkyl halides in the presence of sodium
and dry ether R  X  2 Na  X  R 
DryEehter
 R  R  2 NaX
In this reaction small amount of alkene is also formed as by-product.
Na / Dry ehter
CH 3CH 2 Br  CH 3CH 2 Br 
 CH 3  CH 2  CH 2  CH 3  CH 2  CH 2  CH 3  CH 3
By-products
Tertiary alkyl halides do not give Wurtz reaction. Frankland reaction is similar but has similar but has
certain advantages over Wurtz reaction. It is useful in the synthesis of symmetrical alkanes. Frankland
reaction is shown by primary, secondary as well as tertiary alkyl halide.
Answer the following questions
869. Which of the following alkanes is not obtained from Wurtz reaction?
(A) Methane (B) Ethane (C) Propane (D) Butane
R
870. A mixture of ethyl iodide and methyl iodide is subjected to the Wurtz reaction. The products formed are:
(A) ethane (B) butane se (C) propane (D) 2-methylpropane
871. The intermediate compound(s) formed in frankland reaction is/are:

(A) RZnI2 (B) R2Zn (C) RZnI (D) R2ZnI
ly
COMPREHENSION # 103
a

Chlorination on alkanes at below 3000 C
at
Reactivity order 30  H  20  H  10  H
C
4.5 : 3.25 : 1
mono chlorination on 2-methyl butane
872. In the above reaction major product is
Cl
A) B) C) D)
Cl
Cl Cl
873. Number of isomers obtained in the above reaction

(A) 4 (B) 3 (C) 6 (D) 5
874. If chlorination takes place at ‘1’ and ‘3’ positions an 2-methyl butane simultaneously then how many
optically active isomers are possible.
(A) 2 (B) 4 (C) 6 (D) 8

COMPREHENSION # 104
Na
R  X  d 
ry ether
 R  R  NaX
Mechanism is uncertain but explained by both ionic and free radical mechanism.
Cl
875. +
Cl Na
 dry 
ether
 product (major)
H
H
A) H B) C) D)
Na
876. CH 3Cl  Cl 
dry ether
A BC
A, B, C are saturated hydrocarbons . Then A, B, C are
(A) Chain isomers (B) Positional isomers
(C) Homologous (D) Diastereomers
R
877. Which of the following reactant is not suitable for wurtz reaction
Cl se Br
Br
Cl
A) B) C) Br D)
ly
COMPREHENSION # 105
a

An alkane (A) molecular formula C6H14 reacts with chlorine in the presence of ultra violet light to yield
at
three isomeric monochloro derivatives (B) , (C) and (D) . Of these only (C) and (D) undergo
dehydrohalogenation with sodium ethoxide in ethanol to produce an alkene . Moreover (C) and (D)
yields the same alkene (E) (C6H12) . Hydrogenation of (E) produces (A) . Treating (E) with HCl produces
C
a compound (F) that is an isomer of (B) , (C) and (D) . Treating (F) with Zn and acetic acid gives a
compound (G) , which is isomeric with (A). Propose structures for (A) to (G) .
878. The structure of A is
CH3
(A) CH3–CH2–CH2–CH2–CH2–CH3 (B) CH3–CH–CH 2–CH2–CH3

CH3 CH3 CH3
(C) CH3–C–CH2–CH3 (D) CH3–CH–CH–CH3
CH3

879. The structure of G is
CH3 CH3 CH3
(A) CH3–CH2–CH–CH2–CH3 (B) CH3–CH––CH–CH3

CH3 CH3
(C) CH3–CH–CH 2–CH2–CH3 (D) CH3–C–CH2 –CH3
CH3
880. The compound (F) on treatment with alcoholic KOH, the major product obtained is
(A) 1-hexene (B) 2,3-dimethyl-2-butene
(C) 2,3-dimethyl-1-butene (D) 3-hexene
COMPREHENSION # 106
Alkanes are the saturated hydrocarbons. They are represented by a general formula C n H2n + 2 (n = 1,
2.......). They can be synthesized by different methods. One of the important method of formation is
Corey-House synthesis. In this process when alkyl halide is treated with lithium, it forms alkyl lithium.
R
Alkyl lithium on treatment with cuprous halide the formation of lithium dialkyl cuprate takes place.
When it is treated with another alkyl halide or same alkyl halide, an alkane formation takes place.
The reactions are as follows :
R–X + Li  RLi + LiX
se
2RLi + CuX  R2CuLi + LiX
ly
R2CuLi + R'X  R–R' + RCu + LiX
Alkane
And in case of Wurtz reaction when alkyl halide (RX) is treated with sodium in presence of dry ether
a
it gives the formation of alkane.

at
Dry
2RX + Na 
 R–R + 2NaX.
Ether
881. In Corey house reaction the yield of R–R' by raction of R'–X with R 2CuLi is in the following order
C
(A) Primary > Secondary > Tertiary (B) Tertiary > Secondary > Primary
(C) Secondary > Primary > Tertiary (D) Secondary > Tertiary > Primary
882. In case of Wurtz reaction which alkyl halide gives maximum yield of alkane?
(A) Isopropyl bromide (B) Methyl bromide
(C) Tert-butyl bromide (D) Ethyl bromide
883. To form the isopentane which of the following alkyl halides should be used in Corey house synthesis
(RX) and (R'X) respectively as shown above :
(A) Both CH3– CH– Br (B) CH3Br and CH3CH2CH2CH2Br
CH3
(C) CH3– CH– Br and CH3Br (D) CH3Br and CH3– CH– CH2Br
CH3 CH3

COMPREHENSION # 107
Two unknown compounds (A & B) have same molecular formula C 4H9Br which give n-butane on
reaction with Zn-Cu/EtOH
884. The compound A on wurtz reaction gives a linear hydrocarbon (X) which on further reaction with
Cr2O3/Al 2O 3 gives an hydrocarbon that has octane number more than 100. The compound is:
CH3
CH3
(A) (B)
CH3 CH3
CH3
(C) (D)
CH3 CH3
R
LiAlH AlCl KMnO
885. The compound A  
4  C 3  D  4  E. The structure of E is:
seH
CH3 CH3
ly
(A) CH3–C–OH (B) CH3–C–CH2–OH
a
CH3 H
at
CH3 CH3
(C) CH3–CH2–CH–OH (D) CH3–CH–CH2–CH2–OH

C
Mg D O
886. The compound B 
 Y 
2
 Z. The compound Z is
Et 2O
CH3 CH3
(A) CH3–C–CH3 (B) CH3–CH–CH2–D
D
(C) CH3–CH2–CH2–CH2–D (D) CH3–CH2– CH –CH3

ALKENES
COMPREHENSION # 108
Citral is unsaturated aldehyde found in lemon oil. Fragrance of citral leaves and fruits is due to the
presence of this compound.
CH3
CHO
NH2–NH2/OH/
887. (A) .
CH3 CH3
Citral
The product (A) is :
CH3
(A) CH–CH2–CH2–CH=CH–CH2OH
R
CH3 CH3
(B) CH3–C=CH–CH2–CH2 –C=CH–CH3

se
CH3 CH3
ly
(C) CH3–C=CH–CH2–CH2 –C=CH–CH=N–NH2
a
CH3 CH3
at
(D) CH3–CH–CH2–CH=CH–C=CH–CH=O
C
CH3
CHO
H3 O +
888. (B) . The product (B) is :
CH3 CH3
Citral
Me Me Me Me
(A) (B) (C) (D)
H3C OH
C OH
C—OH CH3—C—OH C
H3C H3C CH3 H3C CH3
CH3

CH3
CHO
KMnO 4 / H 
889.       products .The product(s) is/are :
CH3 CH3
Citral
O O O
(A) CH3– C –CH2–CH2– C –OH (B) CH3– C –CH3
(C) CO2 (D) All of these
COMPREHENSION # 109
Alkenes can be oxidized in the presence of different reagents to give different products. Alkenes on oxida-
tion in presence of silver at high temperature give cyclic ethers, which also can be synthesized by using
per acids Alkenes on reductive ozonolysis give carbonyl compounds in presence of Zinc and H2O2. On
reaction with acidic KMnO4, it also produces corresponding Carbonyl compound. Alkynes can be also
R
oxidized in presence of such reagents but the products are different.
890. Ethylene on reaction with mCPBA(m-chloro per Benzoic acid) in CH 2 C 2 forms a compound (X), which
(A)
se
on reaction with CH3MgI and subsequent Hydrolysis gives a compound (Y). (X) and (Y) are respectively
(B) CH3
OH and CH3
and
ly
HO O
O
OH
a
(C) (D) H3C - CHO and H3C

at
CH3
and OH
O H3C
C
OH
891. An open chain Hydrocarbon (C7H12) on ozonolysis produces propanone ; methanal and 2
– oxo – propanal. The Hydrocabon could be
CH 3
(A) H3C CH2 (B)
CH 3 CH 2
CH3 CH3 CH 3
(C) Either of these (D) CH3 – CH2 COOH

892. A Hydrocarbon (C8H16) on oxidation with a hot acidified solution of KMnO4 forms 2-Butanone and Isobutyric
acid as a product. The Hydrocarbon is
CH3
(A) (CH3)2 C = C (CH2 CH3)2 (B) H3C
CH3
CH3
CH3 CH3
(C) (D) CH3 CH3
H 3C C CH
CH3 CH3 H3C
CH3
COMPREHENSION # 110
An alkene (A) on oxidation with K 2Cr2O 7/H2SO 4 gives only two moles of gas (X), which turns lime
water milky.
The ‘A’ can be:
R
893.
(A) H2C=CH2 (B) CH2=CH–CH=CH2
(C)
se(D) CH2=CH–CH2–CH=CH2
ly
894. ‘B’ that is next homologous of ‘A’. The product/s on oxidation of ‘B’ are:
(A) Acetic acid (B) Acetic acid and formic acid
(C) Acetone and acetic acid (D) Acetic acid/ CO 2
a
at
895. The compound ‘C’ is the just higher homologous of ‘B’ but on oxidation does not evolve CO 2. The ‘C’
is
CH3
C
(A) H3C–CH=CH–CH3 (B) H2C=C–CH3

(C) H2C=CH–CH2–CH3 (D) None of these
COMPREHENSION # 111
An unsaturated hydrocarbon A (C 7H12) absorbs 2 molecule of hydrogen when hydrogenated. On
oxidation it gives one molecule each of acetic acid, and acetoacetic acid and on reduction give 2-
methylhexane :
896. The structure of A:
CH2 CH3
(A) CH3—CH2— C— CH2—CH=CH2 (B) CH3—CH= C— CH2—CH=CH2
CH2 CH3
(C) CH3— C— CH2—CH=CH—CH3 (D) CH3—CH= C— CH=CH—CH3

897. The compound A on heating produces a more stable compound:
CH3 CH3
(A) CH3—CH2— C=CH —CH=CH2 (B) CH3—CH= C— CH=CH—CH3
CH2 CH3
(C) CH3–C–CH=CH–CH2–CH3 (D) CH3–C=CH–CH=CH–CH3
898. The A on Birch Reduction with Na/Lq.NH3 gives:

CH3 CH3
(A) CH3—CH2— CH— CH2—CH=CH2 (B) CH3—CH= C— CH2—CH2—CH3
CH3 CH3
(C) CH3— CH— CH2—CH=CH—CH3 (D) CH3—CH2— CH —CH2—CH2—CH3
COMPREHENSION # 112
Dehydrobromination of (A) & (B) gives same alkene (C). Alkene (C) can regenerate (A) & (B) by the
R
addition of HBr in presence & absence of peroxide respectively. 1, 1 – diphenyl ethane is obtained on
reaction of (C) with benzene in the presence of H+ ions.
899. Compound ‘A’ & ‘B’ are

se
(A) H H
ly
C  C  CH 3 CH 2  CH  Br  CH 3
A: B:
Br H
a
Br
at
( B) Br
A: B:
C
Br
( C)
CH 2  CH 2  Br CH  CH 3
A: B:
(D) None
900. Hydrolysis of (A) & (B) gives isomeric products (D) & (E). Which of the following statement for D & E is not
true ?
(A) Both D & E gives iodoform test
(B) Both D & E gives same alkene upon dehydration
(C) Both D & E reacts with NaOH
(D) None of these
901. A when treated with NBS & then with NaNH2 gives (X), when (X) is reacted with H2O / H+ it gives :-
(A) Phenol (B) Acetophenone (C) Benzoic acid (D) None of these

902. Match the reactions with their mechanism types
List - I List - II
(a) 25°C (P) SN reaction

1
CH3COCl + NaOH
(b) HO H NaOH/
H (Q) E2 reaction
Br
CH3 H
(c)
C – CHI + CH3CH2ONa (R) SN2 (NGP)
|
CH3 CH3
R
CH3 Br
-
(d) OH / H2O se (S) SN2 (tetrahedral
25°C
intermediate)
ly
Ans. aS bR cQ dP
a
at
C

903. Match the following compounds.
R
se
a ly
at
C

Identify the relationship between following pairs and match for the correct option in next column.
CH3
CH3 NH
C=N
(a) & C=N (P) Functional
H NH
H
Br Br
Br Br
(b) H & H (Q) Position
H H
COOCH3
H
CH3O
H H
(c) & (R) Geometrical
COOH
H
OH
R
CH3 OC2H5 CH3CH2 H
C=C C=C
(d) & se (S) Metamers
H H H OCH3
a ly
at
C

Column I Column II
CH3 H
D H D OH
(P) Configurational
(a) & Diastereomer
H D CH3 D
OH H
NHCH3 CH3
H CH3 H H
(b) & (Q) Homologs
CH3 H H NCH3
H |
CH3
CH3
COOCH3 CH3
CH3 H H CH3
(c) & (R) Configurational
R
H H OCOCH3 Enanatiomer
CH3
CH3 CH3 se
COOH COOH
ly
H OH HO COOH (S) Metamers
(d) &
H H
a
OH HO
COOH H
at
C

906.
Cl Br Br Cl
(P) Optical isomers
(a) & only
CH3 CH3
CH3 CH3
H CH3 H H
H H (Q) identical
(b) &
CH3 H CH3 CH3
CH3 CH3
& (R) Geometrical
(c) C=C=C=C=C=C isomers only
H H
CH3 H
C=C=C=C=C=C
H CH3
R
COOH H COOH CH3
(S) Both optical and
(d) H 3C
H OH CH3 & H3C
H OH se
H
geometrical
H H H H
a ly
at
C

Match the following
907. Match the relationship and properties of the compounds of different pairs given in column I. Only
one option of ' I' matches with one option of II and III.
R
se
a ly
at
C
907. Nature of mechanism in terms of unknown A, B, C, D

Column I Column II
A
(a) CH3Cl  CH3OH (P) S N1
B
(b) (CH3)3CCl  (CH3)3C–OH (Q) E2
C
(c) CH3–CH–CH2–CH2  CH3–C=CH–CH3 (R) SN2
CH3 Br CH3
CH3
D
(d) CH3–CH–CH2–CH2  CH–CH=CH2 (S) E1
CH3 Br CH3

XII:
908. A basic substance, A(C7H9N), reacts with sodium nitrite and hydrochloric acid at 0ºC to give a salt, B
(C7H7ClN2). When a solution of B in dilute hydrochloric acid was heated with aqueous copper (I)
cyanide and potassium cyanide, a product was obtained which upon complete hydrolysis gave an
acid, C(C8H8O2). This acid could be oxidized to another acid which, on heating, formed an anhydride,
D(C8H4O 3). Compound A is:
(A) benzylamine (B) p-toluidine
(C) mono-methylaniline (D) o-toludine
909. Vinyl methyl ether reacts with Cl 2 water. The main product obtained in this reaction is
(A) CH2–CH–OCH3 (B) ClCH2–CHO
OH Cl
(C) CH2–CH–OCH3 (D) CH3–CHO
O
910. Which molecule will give the following decarboxylic acid upon treatment with acidic solution of KMnO4?
O
R
HOOC
se O
CH2COOH
a ly
(A) (B)
at
C
(C) (D)
911. The reaction conditions leading to best yields of Br  CH2  CH = CH2 is :

h
(A) CH3  CH = CH2 + Br2 CCl 4  

h
(B) CH3  CH = CH2 + Br2   

vapourphase
high temp.
(C) CH3  CH = CH2 + Br2  
vapour phase
Fe
(D) CH3  CH = CH2 + Br2 CCl 4 

912. When treated with acid, the strained ether shown below is protonated on oxygen, and ring opens to
give a resonance-stabilized carbocation. Which diene listed below when treated with acid will give
the same carbocation.
O
HO HO
HO HO
(A) (B) (C) (D)
913. What is the product of the following sequence of reaction?
NaNH2/NH3 H2/Pd/BaSO4 BH3/H2O2 /NaOH
R
HO OH HO OH
OH OH OH
(A)
se (B)
ly
HO OH OH HO OH OH OH
(C) (D)
a
at
914. Which of the following compounds was the starting material for the oxidation shown below?
O
C
O
KMnO4/H+ HO OH + CO2
?
OH
(A) (B)
(C) (D)

915. What is the final product of the following reaction?
Excess KMnO4
H+
O O O O
OH OH
(A) (B)
O O O O
O O O O
OH OH
(C) (D) H
O O O O
916. The major product on debromination of 1, 2, 3  Tri bromopropane with alcoholic KOH is :
(A) CH2 = C  CH2 (B) CH = CH  CH2
| | | |
Br Br Br Br
(C) CH2 = C = CH  Br (D) CH2  CH  CH2
R
| | |
OH OH OH
se
917. CH3O + CH2 = CH COOC2H5 
 The major product is:
a ly
at
(A) (B)
C
(C) (D)

CH3
(i) O / Ag
918.  2     A. A is
(ii ) CH 3OH / H 
(A) OH H3C (B) OH OCH3
H OCH3 H CH3
(C) OH OCH3 (D) OH H
H3C H H3C OCH3
OH
CH–CH2–Br alc. KOH
919.    The product is
R
O se OH
C–CH3 C=CH2
(A) (B)
ly
CH–CH2 CH–CH2
(C) (D)
a
O OH OH
at
920. Consider the following reaction of 1-methyl cyclohexene with NBS. Four likely products of the reaction
are shown below. One of the likely products is not shown, however.
C
Which of the following is the missing product?
Br Br Br
(A) (B) (C) (D)
Br Br

921. Compound X on catalytic hydrogenation gives 2,6-dimethyloctane. On ozonolysis followed by treatment
with Zn–H2O, X yields formaldehyde, acetone and a dialdehyde shown below. The most likely structure
of starting compound X is:
O
H H
O O
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
922. Select the best starting material for the following reaction:
H
H
O3/Zn-H2O
?
O
R
O H
H se
(A) (B)
ly
H
H
a
(C) (D)
at
H
C
923. When 2-bromo-2, 3-dimethylbutane reacts with any of the bases shown below under E 2 conditions,
two alkenes are produced: 2,3-dimethyl-1-butene and 2,3-dimethyl-2-butene. Which one of the above
base would produce the highest yield of 2,3-dimethyl-butene?
ONa
ONa
(A) CH3CH2ONa (B) (C) (D)
ONa
924. Which will be the major product of the following:
NaOH
Ph TsO Ph Ph H3 C Ph
(A) (B) (C) (D)
Cl H3 C H H3C Cl Cl
H

OH
MnO2
Major product
OH
O OH OH O
OH
(A) (B) (C) (D)
OH
OH OH O O
926. If the following C labelled compound undergo the following reaction, which product would be obtained.
One mole of KCN

EtOH
R
13
C O
(A) HO Cl se (B) 13 CN
C
CN
13
C
ly
(C) CN Cl (D)
OH
a
927. What is the major product from the following reaction?

at
COOH
One mole of NaOH
C
HOCH2—CH
H—N—H
Cl–
H
COO– COOH
(A) HOCH2—CH (B) HOCH2—CH
H—N—H H—N
Cl–
H H
COOH COO–
(C) –OCH —CH (D)

–OCH —CH
2 2
H—N—H H—N—H
Cl–
H H Cl–

928. Which of the following is (are) not a feasible Grignard synthesis:
OH
H O
(i) CH3CH2COOCH3 + CH3MgBr 3 

OH

HO
(ii) HC C—CH2CHO + CH3MgBr 3 
 HC C––CH2 CHCH3
H O
(iii) CH3CH CH2CHO + CH3MgBr 3
 CH3CHCH2CHCH3
Cl Cl OH

HO
(iv) + CH3MgBr 3 
 CH3CH2CH2OH
O
(A) (i), (ii) (B) (i), (iii) (C) (ii), (iii) and (iv) (D) (ii) and (iii)
929. A compound X(C7H8O) is is insoluble in water, dilute HCl and aqueous NaHCO 3 but dissolve in dilute
NaOH. When X is treated with bromine-water, it is converted into a compuond of formula, C 7H5OBr3.
Compund X is:
OMe OH OH OH
R
CH3
(A) (B) (C) (D)
se CH3
CH3
ly
CHO
a
H
930.  Major

at
OH
OH
C
CHO CHO CHO

O
(A) (B) (C) (D)
931. When 1,3,9-tribromo-9-methyl-5-decanol is treated with a strong base, the major product will be?
Br Br
(A) (B)
O Br Br O
Br
(C) O (D) None
Br

932. What is the product, C of the following sequence of reactions?
O OH
H + HO H CH3MgBr H3O+
CH3 A B C
O
OH OH OH OH
(A) (B)
OH OH
(C) CHO (D)
OH
H PO
3 4 
R
(A) (B)
(C)
se (D)
ly
a
OH
BF3
at
+
OH
C
(A) OH (B)
(C) (D)
935. Which of the following reagent should not be used for the following conversion
HO CH2–CH2–Cl HO CH2–CH2–Cl
(A) Zn–Hg/HCl (B) NH2–NH2/OH¯
(C) P + HI (D) All of these

SO3
PCl
5  Major product
SO2Cl SO3H SO2 SO3H
(A) (B) (C) (D)

Cl
Cl Cl
COOPh
Br , FeBr
2 3  Major product
R
COOPh COOPh COOPh OCOPh
(A) (B)
Br se
(C) (D)
ly
Br
Br Br
a
938. Give the major product from the following reaction sequence:
at
CH 3 I HNO Zn ( Hg ), HCl CH 3 COCl

  3       
OH     major product
NaOH H 2SO 4
C
H OMe
N CH3
(A) (B)
O
HN
O CH3
OH
NO2 OCOCH3
(C) (D)
H3C
CH3 NO2

Ph H KNH
939. C=C  2  X
Ph Br
O
Ph
(A) CH–C–H (B) Ph–CC–Ph
Ph
Ph H Ph Ph
(C) C=C (D) C=C
Ph OH H Br
O
 e
940. O + EtOH ?  ? The final proudct is:
O
O O O
R
(A) EtO– C –CH2–CH2–CH2–CH2– C –OEt (B) EtO– C –CH2–CH2–CH2–CH2–COOH
(C) CH2=CH2 se (D) EtO= C –CH2–CH2– C –OEt
|| ||
O O
ly
941. Rank the following compunds in decreasing order of reactivity in electrophilic aromatic substitution
reaction:–
a
O
O O
at
(I) (II) (III) (IV)

N
H
C
(A) IV > I > III > II (B) III > I > IV > II
(C) I > III > IV > II (D) III > II > I > IV
942. Increasing rate of reaction in a Diels-Alder reaction

O O
(CH 3)2N O
(i) (ii) (iii) CH3O (iv)
CH3
(A) iii < ii < iv < i (B) ii < i < iv < iii (C) i < iv < iii < ii (D) iv < iii < ii < i

943. What is compound Z?
NBS NaOCH 2CH 3 NBS Br2

CH(CH3)2    W     X     Y  Z
light , heat ethanol, heat Light , heat CCl 4
CHBr CBr2
(A) C (B) C
CH2Br CH2Br
CH2Br CHBr2
(C) CBr (D) CBr
CH2Br CH2Br
944. Which reagent is best suited for step 1 in the synthesis shown?
Step 1 Step 2
compound X compound Y
R
OH
se 1. NaNO 2 ,H 2SO 4
1. Fe, HCl H O, 0 5º C
   2    
2.NaOH 2. H 2O, Heat
ly
C(CH3)2
(A) A mixture of HNO3 and H2SO 4
a
(B) (CH3)3CCl, AlCl3

(C) Br2, FeBr3
at
(D) N-bromosuccinimide, benzoyl peroxide, CCl 4, heat
945. What is the product of the following intramolecular aldol condensation reaction?
C
O
H KOH.CH 3 OH
H      
heat
O
O O CHO CHO
(A) (B) (C) (D)
946. Which one of the following reacts with ammonia at the fastest rate?
(A) (B) (C) (D)

O O O O O O O

947. What is the major product of the following reaction?
O
NaOC 2 H 5 H O
    ?
 3
O C 2 H 5 OH
O O
(A)
O O
O O
(B) O
O
(C)
COOCH2CH3
(D)
COOCH2CH3
R
948. Which balanced equation best describes the hydrolysis of the compound shown? The reaction is
carried out at a pH of 2.
O
se O
ly
(A) CNHCH3 + H2O CNH3 + CH3 OH
a
O O
(B)
at
CNHCH3 + H2O COH + CH3NH2
O O
C
(C) CNHCH3 + H2O CO– + CH3NH3
O O
(D) CNHCH3 + H3O+ COH + CH3NH3
949. Which pair of reagents would be used to make the following amine by reductive amination?
H / Pd
? + ?   CH3CH2CHCH2NHCH3
2
CH3
(A) Methylamine and 2-methylbutanoic acid
(B) Methylamine and 2-methylbutanal
(C) Ammonia and 3-methyl-2-pentanone
(D) dimethylamine and 2-butanone

950. Which of the following synthetic routes gives the best yield of meta-bromoaniline starting with
benzene?
Br HNO (1) Sn , HCl
(A) Benzene 
2
  3     
FeBr3 H 2SO 4 (2) NaOH
HNO (1) Sn , HCl Br

(B) Benzene  3
     
2

H 2SO 4 (2) NaOH FeBr3
HNO Br (1) Sn , HCl

(C) Benzene  3
 
2
    
H 2SO 4 FeBr3 (2) NaOH
(1) Sn , HCl HNO Br

(D) Benzene      3  
2

(2) NaOH H 2SO 4 FeBr3
951. Which of the following undergoes electrophilic aromatic substitution at the fastest rate?
O
O O
(A) (B) (C) O (D)
R
se
952. In which of the following compounds formation of diazocompound is not possible
ly
NH2
(A) C6H5NH2 (B) C6H4
a
CH3
at
(C) C6H5CH2NH2 (D) C6H5N(CH3)2
953. Diazomethane reacts with

C
(A) RCOOH (B) RCH2OH in presence of HBF 4

(C) C6H5OH in presence of NaOH (D) Alkenes
954. Which of the following polymers are used as fuels in rocket propellents:
(A) Acrylic rubber (B) Chloroprene (C) Polybutadiene (D) Polyurethane
955. Which of the following carbohydrates on treatment with excess of phenylhydrazine gives same osazone
(A) Glucose (B) nannose (C) fructose (D) Galactose
956. Which are generally used for preparing derivative of aldehydes and ketones.
(A) hydroxylamine hydrochloride (B) 2,4-dinitrophenylhydrazine
(C) Phenylhydrazine hydrochloride (D) hydrogen cyanide
957. P-chloro anilline and anillinium hydrochloride can be distinguished by

(A) Carbylamine test (B) NaHCO3
(C) AgNO3 (D) Sandmeyers reaction
958. A new carbon-carbon bond formation is possible in:

(A) Cannizaro’s reaction (B) Friedel-Crafts alkylation
(C) Clemmenson reduction (D) Riemer Tiemann reaction

959. When methyl Iodide is treated with ammonia, the product obtained is
(A) Methyl amine (B) Dimethyl amine (C) Trimethylamine (D) None
960. Which of the following are hydroxy acids

(A) Lactic acid (B) Tartaric acid (C) Citric acid (D) Succinic acid
961. Carboxylic acids can be directly reduced to primary alcohols by

(A) LiAlH4 (B) Na + C2H5OH (C) NaBH4 (D) H2
962. A mixture of calcium acetate and calcium formate are heated then they yield
(A) Acetone (B) Acetaldehyde (C) formic acid (D) Acetic acid
963. Which will under go aldol condensation?

(A) Acetaldehyde (B) Propanaldehyde
(C) Benzaldehyde (D) Trideutroacetaldehyde
964. For acetone and aldehyde which of the followning statements are true.
(A) Both react with HCN (B) Both gives Iodoform test
(C) Both react with NaOH to give polymer (D) Both can be reduced to alcohols
965. When —O—CH2— treated with HI produces
R
(A) C6H5CH2I (B) C6H5OH (C) C6H5I (D) C6H5CH2OH
966. Ethyl alcohol on oxidation with K 2Cr2O 7 gives

(A) Formic acid (B)
se
Formaldehyde (C) Acetic acid (D) Acetaldehyde
ly
967. When ethyl bromide reacts with alcoholic AgNO 2 it yields
(A) Ethane (B) Ethene (C) nitroethane (D) Ethylnitrite
a
968. Which of the following are organo metallic compound?

at
(A) CHCNa (B) C2H5SNa (C) C2H5MgI (D) C2H5ONa
969. The reaction of the following with I 2/NaOH gives yellow precipitate
C
(A) ICH2COCH2CH3 (B) CH3COOCOCH3

(C) CH3CONH2 (D) CH3CH(OH)CH2CH3
970. Which of the following will not give a ppt with AgNO 3:
(A) CHCl3 (B) KCl (C) CCl4 (D) H3Cl

COMPREHENSION # 113
An organic lactum (A) on acid hydrolysis produced B an amino acid. B on treatment with nitrous acid
gives (C). (C) on heating with concentrated H2SO4 produces a lactone (D). (A) can also be synthesized
by the reaction of cyclopentanone with hydroxylamine followed by treatment of product with
concentrated H2SO 4.
971. The structure of lactam is
NH O
NH NH NH
(A) (B) (C) (D)
O O O

972. The lactone (C) on reaction with LiAlH4 gives
(A) 1,6-hexanediol (B) 1,5-pentanediol
(C) 1,4-butanediol (D) 1,7-heptanediol
973. The lactam A upon reaction with LiAlH4. Produces.

NH
NH NH
(A) (B) NH (C) (D)
OH
COMPREHENSION # 114
Vanillin (A) C8H8O3 is isolated from vanilla beans, which gives intense blue colour with neutral FeCl 3
and also gives the tollen’s test. It reacts with conc. HBr to give a compound B. One mole of vanillin
gave one mole of AgI with zeise’s methoxy estimations. Compund B on oxidation with Tollen’s reagent
gave catechol and also can be prepared from catechol by Gattermann KOCH reaction.
974. The structure of A is
CHO CHO
(A) (B)
R
OH OCH3
OH
se OH
CHO CHO
ly
OCH3
(C) (D)
a
CH3O OH
at
OH
975. Compound B on heating with Zinc dust will give ‘X’. ‘X’ is
C
CHO CHO OH OH
OH OH
(A) (B) (C) (D)
OH
976. In the above question If X reacts with acetic anhydride in presence of CH 3COONa at 180ºC gives.
(A) Cinnamic acid (B) Crotonic acid (C) Pyruvic acid (D) Acetic acid

COMPREHENSION # 115
Limonene (A) is a naturaly occuring hydrocarbon with fragence of lemons. When (A) is hydogenated
over Pd/C it absorbs 2 moles of hydrogen and produce 4-methyl-1-isopropyl cyclohexane. When (A)
is treated with Ozone, followed by reduction two products are isolated i.e. formaldehyd and diketone.
977. The structure of ‘A’ is:
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
978. Identify the diketone,
O O O O
R
(A) (B)
CHO se CHO
O O O
ly
(C) (D)
O
a
at
979. The compound A on reaction with OsO 4 gives

OH
HO OH
C
OH OH
(A) (B)
OH
OH
HO OH
(C) (D)
OH OH
OH
OH

ALCOHOLS
COMPREHENSION # 116
Alcohol and considered as a best starting material far preparing alkyl halides. Most common reagent
used for this are HX, PCl 5, PCl 3, SOCl 2. Among the halogen acid the order of reactivity is HI > HBr >
HCl > HF & for Alcohol 3° > 2° > 1° CH3–OH.
In the case of 1° Alcohol when we use HX rearrangement occurs and mixture of product farm but if we
use PCl 3 or SoCl 2 it occurs v/a SN2.
ZnCl2
980. + HCl   + H2O this reaction occurs
OH Cl
(A) within a minutes (B) when temperature is 0 – 100°c
(C) after 5 minutes (D) Reaction does not take place
981. Which of the following is not true

(A) SOBr2 is less stable and SOI 2 does not exist
(B) In preparing alkyl halide from Alcohol the best method is application of SOCl 2
(C) 3° Alcohal react with HX via SN1 pathway.
(D) optically active alcohal (1°) react with PCl 3 give the racemic mixture
R
982. R – OH + A  R – Cl
Which of the following should be taken as A to give the highest yield & no separation of product will
required ?
(A) PCl5 (B) PCl3
se
(C) SOCl2 (D) HCl/ZnCl2
ly
COMPREHENSION # 117
a
CH3
at
NaBH4
CH3–C = CH2+ Hg(OAc)2– PhOH A B
C
O2/Ag (1) LiAlH4

C D
(2) H3O+
(1) LiAlH4–AlCl3
E
(2) H3O+
HI
983. The compound B
CH3 I OH
(A) CH3–C–I (B) (C) (D) Both (A) and (C)
CH3

984. The compound D is:
CH3 CH3
(A) CH3–C–OH (B) CH3–CH–CH2–OH
CH3
CH3 CH3 CH3
(C) CH3–C–CH2–OH (D) CH3–CH–CH2–O–CH2–CH–CH3

OH
985. The compound E is:

CH3 CH3
(A) CH3–C–OH (B) CH3–CH–CH2–OH
CH3
R
CH3 CH3 CH3
(C) CH3–C–CH2–OH (D)

se CH3–CH–CH2–O–CH2–CH–CH3
OH
a ly
at
C

COMPREHENSION # 118
Protonation of organic compounds gives a lots of product having great synthetic application. Alcohols,
alkenes and many other groups react with H  ion to give carbocation which may undergo rearrangement
to from stable carbocation. In general the stability of carbocation is 30  20  10
986. H+
OH
Rearranged alkene product after rearrangement at low temperature will be mainly
(A) (B)
R
se
ly
(C) (D)
a
at
OH O
C–CH3
C
H+Br–
987.
O O
Br O
C–CH3 C–CH3
(A) (B)
Br
O O
Br
C–CH3 C–CH3
(C) Br (D)

Ph
H I
988. O 
I
Ph Ph Ph OH
(A) OH (B) I (C) (D) I
I OH OH Ph

(I) (II)
Alcohol Water solubility
in g/100 mol
(a) Butan-1-ol (P) 0.6
(a) Pentan-1-ol (Q) 2.7
R
(c) Hexane-1-ol (R) 9.1
se
(d) 2-Methyl propan-1-ol (S) 10.0
a ly
990. The polarimeter readings in an experiment to measure the rate of inversion of cane suger (1st order
reaction) were as follows
at
time (min) : 0 30 
angle (degree) : 30 20 – 15
Then match the following :
C
Column I Column II
(a) The half life of the reaction (i) 131 min.
(b) The solution is optically inactive at (ii) 7.5°
(c) The equimolar mixture of the products (iii) 82.7 min.
(d) The angle at half time (iv) laevorotatory

991. For the following conversions mater with the correct reagent?
OH
OH
(a) (P) [CH3)2CHO]3Al
CHO
R R
(b) C=O CH–OH (Q) KCN/150ºC
R' R'
(c) C6H5N2Cl C6H5CN (R) CHCl3 + NaOH
R R
(d) (S) HCN/CuCN

CN
NO2
R
Column I
se Column II
CH3
ly
HCHO / H  / H O
(a)      2 (P)
a
O
at
HCl CH2–CH2–CH2–CH2
(b)  (Q)
C
OH OH
O
Br CH3 CH3
Alc.KOH
(c)    (R) OH
CH2OH
OH
Cl
O
(d) LiAlH (S)
O   4 
OH

Column I Column II
O
(a) (P) Elbs per sulphate oxidation reaction
O CHO
OH OH
K2S2O8
(b) (Q) Etards reaction
OH , H+
OH
CH3 COOH
(c) CS (R) Gattermann Aldehyde synthesis

+ 2CrO2Cl2 2 
(d) RCONH2 RNH2 (S) Hoffmann’s Bromamide reaction
R
994. Identify A,B,C,D from P,Q,R,S
A
se(P) NH4Cl–Cu2Cl2
ly
B
a
(Q) Cu2Cl2/CH3OH/Pyridine/Air
CHCH
at
C
CH2=CH–CCH (R) Ni(CN)2
C
D
CHC–CCH (S) Red hot Fe

995. Match the following question
Column I Column II
OH
CH2OH
CH–CH2 –CH3
(a) (P)
CH=CH–CH3 O
CH2
(b) (Q)
CH=CH2
CH2
(c) (R) O
CH=CH2 Me
(d) (S)
R
se CH=CH2
(T) O
ly
Column I Column II
(a) CH3–CH=CH–CH2Cl + KOH (aq) major (P) But-2-en-1-ol
a
(b) CH3– CH– CH=CH2 + Ag2O(Moist)major (Q) But-3-en-2-ol

at
Cl
(c) C2H5Cl + Ag–O–N=O  major product (R) Ethyl nitrite
C
(d) C2H5Cl + K–O–N=O  major product (S) Nitro ethane

Column I Column II
(a) FeCl3 (P) CH3CHO, CH3COCH3
(b) Fehling’s solution (Q) HCOOH, CH3OH
(c) Aqueous solutions of KOH (R) But-1-yne and But-2-yne
+ dil. HNO 3 + AgNO 3
(d) Aqueous KOH + 4-DNP (S) Benzene and cyclohexene

Column I Column II
(a) m-dinitro benzene to m-nitro anilline (P) NaBH4
(b) CH3–CH=CH–CHO
 CH3–CH=CH–COOH (Q) Tollen’s reagent
NaNO  HCl,05º C
(c) C6H5–CH=CH–CHO (R)   2
   
KI
 C6H5CH=CH–CH2OH
NH2 I
(d) (S) (NH4)2S

Br Br

Column I Column II
O
O
R
C COOEt
H2SO4
(a) se(P)

COOH
ly
CMe2
OEt
(b) EtOOC(CH2)5COOEt (Q)
a
at
O
OH OH
Ph—C—C—Me H SO 4
C
(c) 2   (R)
Ph Me
O
O O OH
OH
(d) + Me — C —Me (S) Ph—C—C—Me
Me

1000. Match the four starting materials (P, Q, R, S) given List – I with reaction schemes (I, II,
III, IV) provided in list II & select the correct answer using the code given below the
lists.
(P) 1. (i) KMnO4 , HO  , heat .
(ii) H  , H 2 O .
(iii) SOCl2 .
(iv) NH 3 .

C7 H 6 N 2 O3
(Q) 2. (i) Sn / HCl .
(ii) CH 3COCl .
(iii) Conc. H 2 SO4 .
(iv) HNO3 .
(v) dil. H 2 SO4 , Heat .
(vi) HO  .
R

C6 H 6 N 2 O2
(R) 3. (i) Red hot iron, 873 K
se (ii) fuming HNO3 , H 2 SO4 , heat .
(iii) H 2 S, NH 3 .
(iv) NaNO2  H 2 SO4 .
ly
(v) Hydrolysis

C6 H 5 NO3
a
(S) 4. (i) conc. H 2 SO4 , 60C .

(ii) conc. HNO3 , conc. H 2 SO4 .
at
(iii) dil. H 2 SO4 , heat

 C6 H 5 NO4 .
C
P Q R S
(A) 1 4 2 3
(B) 3 1 4 2
(C) 3 4 2 1
(D) 4 1 3 2

JEE ADVANCED REVISION PACKAGE - AnswerKey (CHEMISTRY)
Qs. Ans. Qs. Ans. Qs. Ans. Qs. Ans.
1 D 51 BD 101 A 151 A
2 C 52 AB 102 D 152 D
3 B 53 ABC 103 A 153 A
4 B 54 ABC 104 C 154 A
5 A 55 ABCD 105 C 155 A
6 D 56 C 106 C 156 D
7 B 57 A 107 D 157 A-(R),B-(RS),C-(Q),D-(R)
8 D 58 A 108 D 158 500
9 D 59 C 109 A 159 70
10 B 60 D 110 B 160 3233
11 B 61 B 111 D 161 4800
12 A 62 A 112 B 162 300
13 D 63 D 113 A 163 5
14 D 64 B 114 C 164 81
15 C 65 A 115 B 165 9
16 C 66 D 116 A 166 2.62,3.38
17 A 67 D 117 C 167 5
18 A 68 D 118 C 168 35
19 C 69 A 119 A 169 4
R
20 D 70 B 120 B 170 7519
21 B 71 A 121 B 171 9.81014 Hz
22
23
24
D
A
D
72
73
74
D
B
A
122
123
124
A
A
C
se 172
173
174
3
4247
32.24
ly
25 C 75 B 125 C 175 1
26 B 76 A 126 A 176 390
27 ABC 77 B 127 A 177 120
a
28 AD 78 A 128 C 178 1033

at
29 ABCD 79 D 129 D 179 75

30 BCD 80 A 130 A 180 8349
31 ABC 81 B 131 C 181 (i)5,25,(ii)3.863
C
32 BC 82 D 132 B 182 9.81014 Hz

33 BD 83 C 133 C 183 D
34 ABCD 84 C 134 A 184 B
35 ABC 85 C 135 D 185 B
36 CD 86 B 136 D 186 B
37 BCD 87 C 137 B 187 A
38 ABCD 88 C 138 D 188 A
39 BC 89 D 139 B 189 C
40 AD 90 B 140 A 190 D
41 CD 91 D 141 A-(Q),B-(S),C-(P),D-(R) 191 A
42 AB 92 C 142 A-(QR),B-(PS),C-(PS),D-(QR) 192 C
43 ABC 93 C 143 D 193 B
44 BC 94 C 144 C 194 B
45 AD 95 B 145 A 195 D
46 BC 96 A 146 A 196 B
47 AD 97 B 147 A-(Q),B-(P),C-(S),D-(R) 197 B
A-(P,Q),B-(P,Q,R),C-(P,Q,R,S),D-
48 ABCD 98 C 148 198 A
(P,Q,R,S)
49 ABD 99 C 149 A 199 B
50 ACD 100 B 150 A-(p),B-(pq),C-(r),D-(s) 200 A

AnswerKey
201 C 251 BCD 301 B 351 D
202 A 252 AB 302 B 352 B
203 A 253 ABCD 303 D 353 B
204 D 254 AB 304 B 354 D
205 D 255 ACD 305 C 355 C
206 B 256 ABCD 306 C 356 B
207 D 257 AC 307 A 357 B
208 A 258 ABCD 308 B 358 A
209 B 259 BD 309 A 359 A
210 C 260 ABC 310 B 360 A
211 D 261 AC 311 A 361 C
212 C 262 ABC 312 B 362 B
213 A 263 AC 313 C 363 C
214 D 264 BCD 314 B 364 C
215 D 265 ABD 315 C 365 B
216 B 266 AC 316 B 366 A
217 B 267 ABCD 317 B 367 D
218 D 268 ABC 318 C 368 BD
219 C 269 AD 319 369 A
R
220 AB 270 AC 320 A 370 B
221 ABCD 271 AC 321 C 371 D
222
223
224
BC
BC
CD
272
273
274
AC
AC
ABC
322
323
324
A
A
B
se 372
373
374
C
A
A
ly
225 ABC 275 AB 325 A 375 D
(a)-(v),(b)-(vi),(c)-(iv),(d)-(ii),(e)-
226 BC 276 A 326 D 376
(vii),(f)-(iii),(g)-(i)
a
227 BCD 277 A 327 C 377 A

at
228 BCD 278 C 328 A 378 C

229 BC 279 D 329 B 379 A-(PQ),B-(R),C-(QT),D-(S),E-(U)
230 AD 280 330 C 380 A-(iv),B-(i),C-(ii),D-(iii)
C
231 BC 281 B 331 A 381

232 ABC 282 D 332 B 382 A-(ii),B-(i),C-(iv),D-(iii)
233 BC 283 A 333 D 383 A
234 AC 284 B 334 C 384 B
235 ABC 285 A 335 D 385 A-(ii),B-(iii),C-(v),D-(vii),E-(vii)
236 AD 286 B 336 D 386 B
237 ABC 287 D 337 D 387 A
238 ABC 288 B 338 A 388 A-(ii),B-(ii),C-(v),D-(i),E-(iii),F-(iv)
239 CD 289 C 339 C 389 A-(v),B-(vi),C-(vii,viii),D-(iv),E-(ii),F-
240 AC 290 D 340 C 390 A-(ii),B-(i),C-(iii),D-(iii),E-(ii)
241 ABC 291 C 341 A 391 A-(ii),B-(i),C-(i),D-(ii),E-(iii)
242 AC 292 A 342 C 392 A-(v),B-(iv),C-(i),D-(iii),E-(ii)
243 AB 293 A 343 A 393 A-(ii),B-(i),C-(iv),D-(iii)
244 ABCD 294 B 344 C 394 A-(v),B-(iv),C-(ii),D-(iii),E-(i)
245 ABC 295 D 345 B 395 A
246 BC 296 C 346 D 396 D
247 ABCD 297 C 347 C 397 A
248 ACD 298 C 348 A 398 C
249 AC 299 D 349 A 399 C
250 AC 300 B 350 B 400 18.12

AnswerKey
401 107 451 C 501 A 551 A-(QS),B-(R),C-(P),D-(QR)
402 685.3mL 452 B 502 C 552 495´10-4kJ/mol
403 15.50% 453 A 503 B 553 2
404 55 454 B 504 B 554 4
405 40 455 D 505 C 555 2
406 238 456 A 506 C 556 3.2
407 83.27 457 D 507 A 557 560
408 7957 458 C 508 B 558 5
409 265 459 C 509 B 559 72
410 86 460 A 510 B 560 7.6
411 (i)5,(ii)interstitial 461 AB 511 A 561 4.8
(a)V=5.95´103mL,
412 462 ABC 512 B 562 25
(b)0.2118dpspermL
413 66.13mm,0.6563 463 ABD 513 B 563 70
414 25 464 ABCD 514 B 564 31kJmol-1
415 1/5,3/4,150mm 465 BC 515 C 565 1532.7kJ
416 2.165 466 ABC 516 A 566 5.2kJ
417 m=1,n=1 467 ACD 517 B 567 0
418 5 468 BCD 518 A 568 4.48
419 14 469 ACD 519 A 569 25
R
420 3 470 CD 520 A 570 0.768
421 8560 471 ABC 521 C 571 C
422
423
50
14
472
473
B
BD
522
523
se B
C
572
573
B
C
424 561.8cm3 474 CD 524 C 574 A
ly
425 A 475 ACD 525 B 575 B
426 D 476 ABD 526 D 576 A
427 D 477 ACD 527 A 577 D
a
428 D 478 B 528 C 578 A

at
429 D 479 AB 529 B 579 B

430 A 480 ABCD 530 A 580 A
431 D 481 ABC 531 BD 581 B
C
432 D 482 ABC 532 B 582 C

433 A 483 ABCD 533 C 583 C
434 D 484 ABD 534 A 584 C
435 B 485 ABD 535 A 585 B
436 D 486 CD 536 A-(PR),B-(QS),C-(PRS),D-(PR) 586 B
437 B 487 CD 537 A-(c),B-(d),C-(a),D-(b) 587 D
438 D 488 CD 538 A-(QR),B-(QRS),C-(SD),D-(PS) 588 NOTAVAILABLE
439 C 489 ABC 539 A-(QR),B-(PQRS),C-(PS),D-(PQR) 589 A

440 B 490 ACD 540 A-(RS),B-(R),C-(P),D-(Q) 590 B
441 C 491 ABD 541 A-(PQR),B-(PR),C-(PQ),D-(QS) 591 C
442 B 492 BC 542 A-(Q),B-(R),C-(P),D-(S) 592 B
443 C 493 AD 543 A-(P),B-(Q),C-(R),D-(S) 593 A
444 D 494 ABC 544 A-(PQ),B-(PR),C-(PS),D-(P) 594 C
445 B 495 AB 545 A-(Q),B-(R),C-(P),D-(S) 595 C
446 B 496 B 546 A-(R),B-(P),C-(S),D-(Q) 596 D
447 D 497 B 547 A-(C),B-(A),C-(B),D-(D) 597 C
448 C 498 C 548 A 598 C
449 B 499 C 549 C 599 A
450 A 500 D 550 A-(b),B-(c),C-(f),D-(e) 600 B

AnswerKey
601 A 651 ACD 701 B 751 D
602 B 652 ABCD 702 D 752 C
603 A 653 ABCD 703 B 753 D
604 B 654 AD 704 D 754 A
605 C 655 AB 705 B 755 D
606 A 656 ABC 706 D 756 D
607 C 657 ABC 707 A 757 D
608 B 658 ABC 708 A 758
609 BCD 659 ABC 709 B 759 C
610 ACD 660 AB 710 A 760 B
611 AB 661 AC 711 B 761 A
612 ABD 662 AB 712 A 762 B
613 AB 663 C 713 A 763 B
614 BC 664 D 714 B 764 C
615 AB 665 B 715 B 765 A
616 ACD 666 C 716 A 766 A
617 BC 667 D 717 B 767 B
618 CD 668 C 718 A 768 D
619 BC 669 C 719 A 769 C
R
620 ABCD 670 B 720 C 770 A
621 ABCD 671 721 A 771 A
622
623
624
ABCD
BD
AD
672
673
674
C
A
722
723
724
se
A
C
B
772
773
774
B
C
D
ly
625 ABC 675 B 725 B 775 A-(P),B-(QR),C-(S),D-(RS)
626 C 676 A 726 D 776 A-(PQR),B-(QRS),C-(PQ),D-
627 AC 677 A 727 D 777 A-(P),B-(R),C-(Q),D-(PQS)
a
628 AB 678 C 728 C 778 A-(PR),B-(PQ),C-(PS),D-(QS)

at
629 ABC 679 A 729 C 779 A-(QRS),B-(Q),C-(P),D-(RS)

630 BC 680 A 730 B 780 A-(PR),B-(Q),C-(R),D-(PS)
631 681 B 731 C 781 A-(d),B-(e),C-(a),D-(b),E-(c),F-
C
632 682 D 732 A 782 A-(c),B-(a),C-(d),D-(b)

633 ABD 683 A 733 C 783 A-(P),B-(PQS),C-(PQRS),D-(PS)
634 AC 684 A 734 C 784 A-(PQS),B-(Q),C-(PR),D-(P)
635 BC 685 C 735 A 785 A
636 ACD 686 B 736 B 786 A-(S),B-(P),C-(Q),D-(R)
637 AB 687 D 737 C 787 A-(S),B-(Q),C-(R),D-(P)
638 ACD 688 B 738 D 788 A-(d),B-(c),C-(a),D-(b)
639 CD 689 B 739 C 789 A-(d),B-(b),C-(a),D-(g),E-(c),F-
640 ABC 690 A 740 C 790 A-(v),B-(ii),C-(i,iv),D-(iii),E-
641 ACD 691 C 741 B 791 A-(iii,iv,v),B-(i),C-(v),D-(iii),E-
642 ABC 692 C 742 D 792 A-(b),B-(c),C-(f),D-(e)
643 D 693 B 743 B 793 A-(QRS),B-(RS),C-(PQ),D-(PQ)
644 NOTAVAILABLE 694 D 744 D 794 A-(Q),B-(R),C-(S),D-(P)
645 BC 695 C 745 A 795 A
646 AB 696 B 746 B 796 D
647 ABC 697 A 747 C 797 A-(R),B-(PR),C-(RS),D-(Q)
648 BCD 698 A 748 D 798 A-(T),B-(R),C-(Q),D-(S),E-(P),F-
649 ABD 699 A 749 A 799 A-(R),B-(P),C-(Q)
650 ABCD 700 A 750 A 800 A-(Q),B-(R),C-(T),D-(S)

AnswerKey
801 A-(R),B-(P),C-(Q),D-(S) 851 C 901 B 951 D
A-(v),B-(vii),C-(i),D-
802 852 D 902 A-(S),B-(R),C-(Q),D-(P) 952 CD
(vi),E-(ii),F-(viii),G-
803 A-(PR),B-(PR),C-(Q),D- 853 D 903 A-(S),B-(R),C-(Q),D-(P) 953 ABCD
804 A-(pqr),B-(pqr),C-(p) 854 B 904 954 ACD
805 A-(s),B-(q),C-(p),D-(r) 855 D 905 A-(R),B-(Q),C-(Q),D-(P) 955 ABC
806 A-(s),B-(r),C-(q),D-(t),E- 856 A 906 A-(P),B-(Q),C-(R),D-(S) 956 ABC
807 A-(S),B-(Q),C-(R),D-(P) 857 D 907 A-(R),B-(P),C-(Q),D-(S) 957 BC
808 1 858 A 908 D 958 BD
809 6 859 B 909 B 959 ABC
810 28 860 A 910 D 960 ABC
811 2 861 A 911 C 961 ABC
812 6360 862 A 912 B 962 AB
813 9 863 B 913 C 963 ABC
814 5 864 CD 914 B 964 AB
815 36 865 AB 915 C 965 AB
816 0 866 C 916 A 966 CD
817 650 867 C 917 A 967 CD
818 5 868 D 918 A 968 AC
R
819 10 869 A 919 A 969 AD
820 2 870 A 920 D 970 ACD
821
822
823
0
15
3
871
872
873
BC
B
C
921
922
923
se C
B
D
971
972
973
B
B
B
ly
824 6 874 B 924 D 974 B
825 18 875 C 925 A 975 A
826 3 876 C 926 D 976 A
a
827 4 877 D 927 A 977 C

at
828 3 878 C 928 D 978 A

829 400 879 B 929 C 979 C
830 5 880 B 930 D 980 A
C
831 4 881 A 931 B 981 D

832 3 882 B 932 B 982 C
833 24 883 D 933 A 983 D
834 6 884 B 934 D 984 A
835 A 885 A 935 B 985 B
836 D 886 D 936 A 986 C
837 B 887 B 937 D 987 C
838 B 888 A 938 B 988 B
839 D 889 D 939 B 989 A-(R),B-(Q),C-(P),D-(S)
840 B 890 C 940 A 990 A-(R),B-(P),C-(S),D-(Q)
841 D 891 C 941 B 991 A-(R),B-(P),C-(S),D-(Q)
842 C 892 D 942 A 992 A-(R),B-(S),C-(P),D-(Q)
843 C 893 A 943 B 993 A-(R),B-(P),C-(Q),D-(S)
844 C 894 D 944 B 994 A-(Q),B-(S),C-(P),D-(Q)
845 B 895 A 945 C 995 A-(S),B-(P),C-(Q),D-(R)
846 A 896 C 946 D 996 A-(PQ),B-(Q),C-(S),D-(R)
847 A 897 D 947 C 997 A-(S),B-(R),C-(Q),D-(P)
848 A 898 C 948 D 998 A-(S),B-(Q),C-(P),D-(R)
849 A 899 C 949 B 999 A-(R),B-(P),C-(S),D-(Q)
850 C 900 A 950 B 1000 C

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CHEMISTRY

This study package is prepared by:

PART I: PHYSICAL CHEMISTRY

Gas equation PV = nRT is obeyed by :

6. In a gaseous mixture at 20°C the partial pressure of the components are, :

8. The wavelength of a spectral line for an electronic transition is inversely related to :

CatalyseR Eduventures (India) Pvt. Ltd. 1

(A) 7 (B) 3 (C) 2 (D) 5

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19. 20 gm of N2 at 300 K is compressed reversibly and adiabatically from 20 dm 3 to 10 dm 3. Change

20. Which of the following is path function as well as an extensive property

If the enthalpy change for the reaction

1 H (g) + 1 Cl (g)  HCl(g) ; H = ?

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32. Heisenberg uncertainty principle is not valid for

34. Which is true about an electron

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36. The incorrect order of decreasing oxidation number of S in compounds is :

37. According to Charles’s law :

38. Which of the following are correct statements?

(D) a is expressed in atm L2 mol –2

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44. Which is correct graph ( K.E. is kinetic energy of photo electron)

(C) (D) None of these

The oxidation number of Cr = +6 in

Which of the following have planar structure ?

48. Which have odd-order bond ?

50. Which has (have) zero value of dipole moment

(A) [Ni(CN)4] 2– (B) CHCl 3 (C) CO 2 (D)

51. The standard molar enthalpy of CO 2 is equal to

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53. Which of the following statements are correct ?

54. The factors that influence the heat of reaction are :

55. The condition for spontaneity in a chemical reaction is

SECTION III: COMPREHENSIONS

This equation is called eigen-value equation.

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Paragraph for Questions Nos. 59 to 60

momentum is given by ( /   1)1/ 2  . The various sub shells are distributed as s, p, d, f, …

59. When the value of l = 1, then the values of  are

60. The difference between orbital angular momentum of a 2s and a 3d electron is

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The radial motion of an electron in an atom is controlled by the centrifugal force  (   1) / r 3 as

involved in polar coordinate, it may be concluded that:

(C) is dependent on both  and  (D) is independent of  and 

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64. The correct solution(s) is (are) that of:

65. If solution “X” is wrong what conceptual mistake he has committed:

66. If solution “Y” is wrong what conceptual mistake he has committed:

67. Solution of “Z” is wrong because

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68. Which of the following statements are correct?

(C) Gas molecules are behaving ideally

Paragraph for Questions Nos. 71 to 73

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