Airport Waste Data PDF
Airport Waste Data PDF
Airport Waste Data PDF
for
Pre-Feasibility Report
Expansion of Civil Enclave at Gwalior Airport
EXPANSION OF CIVIL ENCLAVE AT
Airports Authority of India
GWALIOR AIRPORT
ANN
of secondary data from available resources. We are not responsible for the origin and
authenticity of the information, drawings or design details provided by the Client.
at
Maharajpur, Gwalior, Madhya Pradesh-474020.
Type of Project Expansion Project
Category as per EIA notification Activity 7(a) , Airports
2006 and its amendments: Category A
Total Plot Area (After Expansion) 172.60 Acres
Total Handling Capacity (Total Passenger Capacity: 1.11 Million Passengers per year
after Expansion) (MPPA)
Total Cost of Project Rs. 446.12 Crores
PROJECT PROPONENT
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TABLE OF CONTENTS
Chapter 1. INTRODUCTION ...............................................................................................9
1.1. Preamble ........................................................................................................................9
1.2. Brief About Project & Project Proponent ...................................................................9
1.3. Need for and Importance of the Project...................................................................16
1.4. Development Strategy of the Project .......................................................................19
1.5. Legislation, Policy and Guidelines of Airport ..........................................................20
Chapter 2. PROJECT DESCRIPTION ............................................................................24
2.1. Introduction...................................................................................................................24
2.2. Type of Project.............................................................................................................24
2.3. Project Location, Surrounding and Connectivity ....................................................24
2.4. Rehabilitation & Resettlement (R&R) .......................................................................29
2.5. Project Schedule and Cost ........................................................................................29
2.6. Land use Utilization.....................................................................................................29
2.7. Size and Magnitude of Project ..................................................................................29
2.8. Utility Requirements ....................................................................................................36
2.9. Parking Facility ............................................................................................................48
2.10. Fire-fighting System ....................................................................................................48
2.11. Green Belt Area ...........................................................................................................52
Chapter 3. DESCRIPTION OF ENVIRONMENT ...........................................................56
3.1. General .........................................................................................................................56
3.2. Baseline Study Area ...................................................................................................56
3.3. Baseline Study Period and Data Collection ............................................................56
3.4. Description of Site and Surroundings ......................................................................59
3.5. Components of Methodology of Baseline Survey ..................................................61
3.6. Physical Environment .................................................................................................63
3.7. Land-use – Land cover classification .......................................................................67
3.8. Soil Quality ...................................................................................................................74
3.8.1. General Characteristics of the Soil in the District ...................................................74
3.9. Water Environment .....................................................................................................77
3.10. Air Environment ...........................................................................................................88
3.10.1. Climate and Meteorology ...........................................................................................88
3.11. Ambient Air Quality .....................................................................................................90
3.12. Ambient Noise Quality ................................................................................................96
3.13. Socio-Economic Environment ...................................................................................98
Chapter 4. ANTICIPATED ENVIRONMENTAL IMPACT
IDENTIFICATION AND ASSESSMENT ............................................................................111
4.1. Approach ....................................................................................................................111
4.2. Project Impact Area ..................................................................................................111
4.3. Identification of Project Activities and Associated Impact...................................111
4.4. Impact Due to Pre-construction Activities (Location Impacts) ...........................114
4.5. Impacts Due to Construction Activities ..................................................................114
4.6. Impact during Operation Phase ..............................................................................128
4.7. Conclusion ..................................................................................................................144
Chapter 5. ANALYSIS OF ALTERNATIVES ................................................................145
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List of Tables
Table 1.1 : Details of Proposed Development of Airport.......................................... 10
Table 1.2 : Technical Details of Airport ....................................................................... 11
Table 1.3 : Details of Authorized Signatory................................................................ 16
Table 1.4 : Indian Traffic Forecast Comparative Statement (AAI) ......................... 17
Table 1.5 : Air Traffic Forecast- All Indian Airports taken together ........................ 17
Table 1.6 : Air Traffic Trends, Gwalior Airport ........................................................... 18
Table 1.7 : Domestic Traffic Forecast, Gwalior Airport ............................................ 18
Table 1.8 : Summary of Environmental Legislation, policy and guidelines as
applicable on proposed project ............................................................................. 21
Table 2.1 : Environment Setting and Other Sensitive area around Project Site .. 26
Table 2.2 : Connectivity of Project Site ....................................................................... 29
Table 2.3 : Technical Details of Project ...................................................................... 29
Table 2.4 : Water requirement During Operation Phase ......................................... 38
Table 2.5 : Inlet and Outlet Characteristics of Wastewater ..................................... 40
Table 2.6 : Solid Waste management during construction phase .......................... 46
Table 2.7 : Calculation of Solid Waste Generation ................................................... 47
Table 2.8 : Waste Management Plan.......................................................................... 47
Table 2.9 : Indicative list of Species to be planted.................................................... 52
Table 3.1 : Salient Environmental Features of Proposed Project .......................... 59
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List of Figures
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List of Abbreviations
Acronym Description
AAQ Ambient Air Quality
AMSL Above Mean Sea Level
APFC Panels Automatic Power Factor Control
APP./APPROX. Approximately
ASI Archaeological Survey of India
BIS Bureau of Indian Standards
CFO Chief Forest Officer
CGWA Central ground Water Authority
CGWB Central ground Water Board
CPCB Central pollution Control Board
dB Decibels
DEM Digital Elevation Model
DG Diesel Generator
DGCA Directorate General of Civil Aviation
DM District Magistrate
DoCA Department of Civil Aviation
DPR Detailed Project Report
EHS Environment Health & Safety
EIA Environment Impact Assessment
EMP Environment Management Plan
ENE East North East
ESE East South East
FAA Federal Aviation Administration
GHG Green House Gas
GoI Government of India
GRM Grievance Redressal Mechanism
GW Groundwater
Ha Hectares
HFL Highest Flood Level
IMD Indian Meteorological department
INR Indian Rupees
KLD Kiloliters Per day
Km Kilometers
kV Kilo Volts
LULC Land Use Land Cover
Max Maximum
mbgl Meter Below Ground Level
Mg/l Miligrams/liters
Min Minimum
Mm Millimeter
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Chapter 1. INTRODUCTION
1.1. Preamble
Gwalior Airport (Rajmata Vijayaraje Scindhia Terminal), Gwalior is a civil enclave airport at
the Maharajpur Air Force Station. It is one of the six airports in Madhya Pradesh. The airport
has been handed over to Airports Authority of India. Before that, Gwalior Airport was a civil
aerodrome under Civil Aviation Department. The airport uses runway of Indian Air Force for
its operations.
UDAN-RCS, UDAN (Ude Desh ka Aam Naagrik) is a regional airport development and
"Regional Connectivity Scheme" (RCS) of Government of India, with the objective of
"letting the common citizen of the country fly", aimed at making air travel affordable and
widespread, to boost inclusive national economic development, job growth and air transport
infrastructure development of all regions and states of India. The UDAN Scheme is a key
component of the National Civil Aviation Policy (NCAP) which was released by the Ministry
of Civil Aviation (India) on 15 June 2016. UDAN scheme will add to this number by
expediting the development and operationalization of India's potential-target of nearly 425
unserved, underserved, and mostly underdeveloped regional airports with regular scheduled
flights.
Under UDAN 4.1(Ude Desh ka Aam Nagarik) scheme under Regional Air Connectivity
Scheme of National Civil Aviation Policy 2016, increasing tourist footfall and compliance for
PM Modi’s Flagship Smart Cities Mission, Airports Authority of India has proposed
“Expansion of Civil Enclave at Gwalior Airport”. The total handling capacity of the airport
after expansion will be 1.11 million Passengers per year (MPPA).
The proposed expansion is planned with minimum impact on the environmental components
in a negative way. As well it will prove beneficial to overall socio-economy of the area as
there is no international airport located in the vicinity of the area. The terminal building and
related developments have been planned in such a way so as to reduce energy
consumption, water consumption etc. The project will also comply all conditions to achieve
GRIHA-4-star rating.
Airports Authority of India (AAI) has proposed “Expansion of Civil Enclave at Gwalior
Airport” that would involve construction of “New Domestic Arrival and Departure Building,
Ancillary Buildings, Car side development and other associated works. The existing terminal
building will be non-operational after development of proposed terminal building. The total
handling capacity of the airport after expansion will be 1.11 million passengers per year
(MPPA). The total plot area of airport will be 172.60 Acres. Under proposed expansion,
additional 143.20 Acres of land has been transferred from ICAR (Indian Council of
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Agricultural Research) to Airports Authority of India (AAI) for the proposed terminal building,
apron, link taxiway and auxiliary facilities. AAI will use major infrastructural facilities and
utilities of Indian Air Force {Runway, ATC Tower, Navigation system, Fire Fighting Services,
etc.,} for operation of airport. The proposed expansion plans to cater two kinds of aircrafts
i.e., Type-A321 & ATR-72 aircrafts with maximum 13 no. of per day aircraft movement.
SALIENT FEATURES OF PROPOSED TERMINAL BUILDING AND ASSOCIATED
WORKS
• The terminal building will be state of the art centrally air-conditioned one and half
level terminal building with mezzanine with all modern facilities and amenities
catering to 1400 PHP (Departure-700; Arrival-700). The building will be provided with
aesthetically appealing and soothing interior decoration matching the traditional
architecture. Space planning would ensure that no dead space/area is created in the
building.
• Tactile Pathway by using SS studs and strips will be provided.
• The existing aprons (4 no.) are for Q-400/ATR aircrafts. The proposed expansion has
been planned to capture Airbus A-321 aircrafts. 9 no. of bays in the new apron have
been planned under proposed expansion.
• Additional Taxiway (Dimension: 650m x 23 m) will be developed from proposed
terminal building to existing runway.
• Security Hold Area with 4 no. of aerobridges and bus lounge area with adequate
seating arrangements, isolated smoking area, child-care rooms and washrooms etc.,
will be developed.
• Retail Area Creation of Retail Islands/ Shops, area for vehicle display without
affecting the passenger movement will be developed.
• Parking Area will be developed for 700 no. of cars.
• Water Treatment and Solid Waste treatment facilities will be developed in the utility
section of terminal building.
• Approach Road (1800 m x 20 m) will be widened with Airport Road for better
connectivity and accessibility.
Details of Project have been provided in Table 1.1 & Table 1.2, respectively.
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Nature of Project
The proposed project is expansion of existing airport which falls under activity 7(a),
‘Category A’ as per EIA notification 2006 and its subsequent amendments.
Location of Project
Gwalior Airport is located at Maharaj Pur, Gwalior, Madhya Pradesh-474020. The
airport is well connected to National Highway-44 (3.71 km, N) & National Highway-
719 (5.60 km, NE). The airport road connects to crossway between NH-44 & NH-
719. The co-ordinates from center of proposed terminal building are Latitude:
26°16'52.35"N; Longitude: 78°12'57.98"E.
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3) SECURITY: The continuing security environment has brought into focus the need for
strengthening security of vital installations. With this in view, a number of steps were
taken including deployment of CISF for airport security, CCTV surveillance system at
sensitive airports, latest and state-of-the-art X-ray baggage inspection systems,
premier security & surveillance systems. Smart Cards for access control to vital
installations at airports are also being considered to supplement the efforts of
security personnel at sensitive airports.
4) AERODROME FACILITIES: In Airports Authority of India, the basic approach to
planning of airport facilities has been adopted to create capacity ahead of demand in
our efforts. Towards implementation of this strategy, a few projects for extension and
strengthening of runway, taxi track and aprons at different airports has been taken
up.
5) HRD TRAINING: A large pool of trained and highly skilled manpower is one of the
major assets of Airports Authority of India. Development and Technological
enhancements and consequent refinement of operating standards and procedures,
new standards of safety and security and improvements in management techniques
call for continuing training to update the knowledge and skill of officers and staff.
6) IT IMPLEMENTATION: Information Technology holds the key to operational and
managerial efficiency, transparency, and employee productivity. AAI initiated a
program to indoctrinate IT culture among its employees and this is most powerful tool
to enhance efficiency in the organization.
The main function of AAI is as follows:
• Design, Development, Operation and Maintenance of international and
domestic airports and civil enclaves.
• Control and Management of the Indian airspace (excluding special user
airspace) extending beyond the territorial limits of the country, as accepted
by ICAO.
• Provision of Communication, Navigational and Surveillance aids.
• Expansion and strengthening of operational areas, viz. Runways, Aprons,
Taxiways etc. and provision of ground-based landing and movement control
aids for aircrafts & vehicular traffic in operational area.
• Design, Development, Operation and Maintenance of passenger terminals.
• Development and Management of cargo terminals at international and
domestic airports.
• Provision of passenger facilities and information systems in the passenger
terminals.
MISSION AND VISION OF AAI
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The details of Authorized signatory for the proposal have been provided in Table 1.3 below:
Table 1.3 : Details of Authorized Signatory
Project Proponent : Airports Authority of India
Registered : Rajmata Vijay Raje Scindia Air Terminal, Maharajpur, Gwalior-
Address 474020, Madhya Pradesh
Authorized : Mr. Ajay Srivastava
Signatory
Designation : Airport Director
Email ID : apdgwalior@aai.aero
Contact No. : +91-751-2473880, 2470713
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make many airports not only viable but capable of generating surpluses for further expansion
and development.
It is now increasingly recognized that aviation, far from being a mere mode of transportation
for an elite group, is crucial for sustainable development of trade and tourism. In this context,
it is vital that airport infrastructure grows in anticipation of the escalating needs of the air
transport industry. As this is a capital-intensive sector, there is an obvious need for
perspective planning with a vision for the next twenty years and to muster the combined
resources of the public and private sectors, both domestic and foreign.
TRAFFIC FORECAST AND FUTURE TRENDS
Air Traffic Statistics and Traffic forecasts are the most comprehensive tool to analyze the
future traffic demand. The air traffic forecast gives the probable picture of the growth
scenario and allow the top management to monitor the status of air traffic management and
to anticipate and plan future development needs such as airport planning,
expansion/renovation etc. Table 1.4 below represents expected traffic forecast studies
analyzed by AAI in future:
Table 1.4 : Indian Traffic Forecast Comparative Statement (AAI)
Category Passengers Freight Aircraft Period
Movements
International 6.0% to 7.0% 5.0% to 8.0% 5.0% to 6.0% 2014-2023
Domestic 5.0% to 10.0% 5.0% to 8.5% 4.0% to 8.0%
Total 5.3% to 9.2% 5.0% to 8.2% 4.2% to 7.6%
(Source: https://www.aai.aero/en/content/airport-policy)
The traffic forecast for all Indian Airports taken together with the base year 2012-13
is given below in Table 1.5:
Table 1.5 : Air Traffic Forecast- All Indian Airports taken together
Year Aircraft Movement Passengers Freight
(in ‘000) (in Millions) (in ‘000 MT.)
Int’l Dom Total Int’l Dom Total Int’l Dom Total
2012- 313.91 1164.90 1478.81 43.03 116.37 159.40 1406.33 784.22 2190.55
13
(Base
Year)
2021- 505.79 1928.19 2433.99 75.48 217.45 292.93 2441.9 1387.09 3838.99
22
2022- 536.14 2082.45 2618.59 80.76 239.19 319.96 2637.26 1504.99 4142.25
23
Growth 6.0% 8.0% 7.6% 7.0% 10.0% 9.2% 8.0% 8.5% 8.2%
Rate
(%)
(Source: https://www.aai.aero/en/content/airport-policy)
International passenger traffic has been projected to grow at rate of 7% and
domestic passenger traffic has been expected to grow at the rate of 10%.
NEED OF THE PROJECT
Gwalior Airport currently handles 0.133 million passengers per year (2019-2020) i.e.,
200 PHP with total number of aircraft movements of approximately 3002 no. The
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existing terminal has total handling capacity of 200 PHP. The following details
represent the traffic trends and air traffic forecast for Gwalior Airport.
TRAFFIC TRENDS OBSERVED AT GWALIOR AIRPORT
Table 1.6 : Air Traffic Trends, Gwalior Airport
Year Aircraft Movements (In Nos) Passengers (In Nos)
2010-11 374 5628
2011-12 1304 41761
2012-13 1160 51299
2013-14 304 6785
2014-15 302 7273
2015-16 274 8586
2016-17 381 16425
2017-18 661 25248
2018-19 818 25353
2019-20 3002 133635
2020-21 1431 68756
% CHANGE LAST YEAR -52.3% -48.5%
CAGR LAST 5 YEARS 39.2% 51.6%
CAGR LAST 10 YEARS 14.4% 28.4%
DOMESTIC TRAFFIC FORECAST AT GWALIOR AIRPORT
Keeping in consideration with the expanding influx of tourists at Gwalior, domestic
traffic forecast at Gwalior Airport has been estimated. Details of domestic traffic
forecast has been provided below:
Table 1.7 : Domestic Traffic Forecast, Gwalior Airport
AIRCRAFT MOVEMENTS (in
YEAR PAX (in Nos.)
Nos.)
2019-20 (Base Year) 3002 133635
2020-21 (Estimated) 1389 68756
GROWTH RATE 75.00% 80.00%
2021-22 2431 123761
GROWTH RATE 20.00% 25.00%
2022-23 2917 154701
2023-24 3500 193376
GROWTH RATE 15.00% 20.00%
2024-25 4025 232052
2025-26 4629 278462
2026-27 5323 334154
GROWTH RATE 12.00% 18.00%
2027-28 5962 394302
2028-29 6678 465276
2029-30 7479 549026
GROWTH RATE 10.00% 15.00%
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The proposed planning complies with the standards and recommended practices
notified by Director General of Civil Aviation (DGCA) and recommendation given by
International Civil Aviation Organization (ICAO). Planning is being made with
consideration of following parameters
✓ Projected air traffic demand (passengers, cargo, mail, GA and aircraft)
✓ Airside facilities requirements
✓ Meteorological data – wind (direction/speed), temperature, rainfall and visibility
conditions
✓ Geotechnical investigation
✓ Surrounding of the area
✓ Service levels and Benchmarks as prescribed by MoCA/DGCA and other regulatory
agencies in respect of Passenger capacity,
✓ Performance Characteristics of the type of aircraft to be operated at the airport
✓ Airside facilities like area for Ground Support Equipment, remote parking bays,
✓ Aircraft refuelling facilities
✓ Safety services like firefighting facilities and medical services.
✓ ATC Tower, CNS and Met facilities and electronic landing aids
✓ Airfield Ground Lighting facilities and visual aids for navigation and landing.
✓ City side projected demands for non-aeronautical and aero-related facilities.
✓ Area for sovereign functions and security services, and
✓ Area for support services like electric power substation, water treatment plant,
sewage treatment plant etc.
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As per EIA notification, 2006 any new, expansion or modification project falling in the
schedule I of the notification are require obtaining prior environment clearance. All
Airports are classified as Category A and activity 7 (a) of Schedule I.
Airports Authority of India (AAI) has proposed to expand the existing airport which
attracts applicability of EIA Notification, 2006 and environment clearance would be
required to obtained for proposed expansion from MoEF&CC. Other acts, rules and
guidelines applicable for the airport projects as per Legislation of Government of
India are listed in Table 1.8 below:
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2.1. Introduction
The proposed project involves “Expansion of Civil Enclave at Gwalior Airport”. The
existing airport is operational as per Consent to Operate granted from Madhya Pradesh
Pollution Control Board vide Consent No. AWH-94216 valid upto 08.12.2022. The existing
airport currently caters for 200 no. of passengers per day.
The components under proposed expansion involve construction of “New Domestic Arrival
and Departure Building, Ancillary Buildings, Car side development and other associated
works”. The existing terminal building will be non-operational after development of proposed
terminal building. The total handling capacity of the airport after expansion will be 1.11
million passengers per year (MPPA). The total plot area of airport will be 172.60 Acres.
Under proposed expansion, additional 143.20 Acres of land has been transferred from ICAR
(Indian Council of Agricultural Research) to Airports Authority of India (AAI) for the proposed
terminal building, apron, link taxiway and auxiliary facilities. AAI will use major infrastructural
facilities and utilities of Indian Air Force {Runway, ATC Tower, Navigation system, Fire
Fighting Services, etc.,} for operation of airport.
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Land Use
Land use of existing project is airport under the possession of AAI while runway is
under the possession of Indian Air Force. The proposed construction of terminal
building, apron, link taxiway and ancillary buildings will be developed over additional
area of 143.20 Acres that has been transferred from Indian Council of Agricultural
Research (ICAR) to Airports Authority of India. However, land use of the proposed
land has been demarcated under Transportation use as per Gwalior Master
Plan,2021.
2.3.2. Environment Setting around the Project Site
The project site is surrounded by residential areas, agricultural areas and
cantonment area owned by IAF. The airport is in Taluka-Gird in Gwalior district. The
nearest railway station is Gwalior Railway Station located 6.27 km, S from the
airport. There are no environmental sensitive or protected areas in 10 km radius of
project. Nearest surface water body from the project is Sukh River located 0.80 km in
West direction of project site.
There are approximately 583 no. of trees located at the site that will be uprooted
only after taking permission from concerned authority. Request Letter for permission
to District Magistrate, Gwalior & District Forest Officer, Gwalior of removal of trees
has submitted by AAI vide Letter No. BHAVIPRA/GWALIOR/LAND/20211074-1075
dated 24.01.2022. (Acknowledgement of the request letter has been attached as
Anenxure-3).
Environment setting and other sensitive area around the project site are given in
Figure 2.2 and Table 2.1.
Table 2.1 : Environment Setting and Other Sensitive area around Project Site
S. Environmental Within 500 m- Within 2-5 km Within 5-10 km area
No. Features 2 km area area around around Project Site
around Project Site
Project Site
1. Ecological Environment
A Presence of None None None
Wildlife Sanctuary/
National
Park/Biosphere
Reserves
B Reserved None Mawai • Baragaon
/Protected Forests Reserved Reserved Forest
Forest (3.55 (9.06 km, SE)
km, NE) • Thar Reserved
Forest (9.23 km,
SW)
C Wetland of state None None None
and national
interest
D Mangroves None None None
E Critically Polluted None
Area
2. Physical Environment
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Temples Temples
• Parchin • Sun Temple (5.44
Shiv Mandir km, S)
(3.85 km, E) • Shri Dwarkadhish
Temple (7.75 km, S)
P Archaeological Gwalior Fort (7.68 km. SW)
Monuments
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Figure 2.2 : Topographical Map Showing Project Site and Surrounding Within 10 Km Radius
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Connectivity
Project site is well connected with road and railway. Details of the connectivity of the
site are given below in Table 2.2.
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Figure 2.4 : Site Photographs of Proposed Site for Proposed Terminal Building and associated building
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A. CIVIL WORKS
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• Security Hold area with Aerobridges and bus lounge area with adequate seating
arrangements, isolated smoking area, childcare room, and washrooms etc. will be
developed.
• Security check/passenger frisking area in security hold with adequate space for
locating required number of DFMDs, X-ray machines, frisking platforms, Inspection
Tables for manual checking of hand baggage and adequate space / room for security
staff, etc. will be done.
• Retail Area Creation of Retail Islands/ Shops, area for vehicle display without
affecting the passenger movement will be developed.
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for UPS such as Equipment Room, UPS & Battery Room, CCTV Monitoring Room,
Fire Control Room, Workshop/Maintenance Room will be provided.
B. ELECTRICAL WORKS
• Energy efficient Internal and external electrification for Terminal Building Complex,
associated buildings, Car Park, and roads i/c boom barriers etc., will be provided.
Lighting shall be of LED based.
• Provision of main power supply, Substation Equipment, Standby DG Sets/UPS for
Secondary Power supply and associated ancillary buildings, including service
connection will be given.
• Energy efficient HVAC System with provision of vertical air-conditioning concept &
BMS i/c VRF/Split AC system as required will be provided.
• Automatic Fire detection, alarm and protection system, firefighting hydrant, Sprinkler
system, with Fire Control Room/panel and linking the same with Fire Station will be
provided.
• Provision of automatic sliding doors at exit & entry points of Terminal Building will be
given.
• Provision of adequate number of LED Signage of world class standard, inside and
outside the terminal building, car park area & City side approach road and air side
area for guidance of passengers and visitors as per latest concept by signage
consultant will be given.
• Provision of grid connected renewable energy generation system will be given.
• Provision of pumps, compressors and associated electrical system for water supply,
STP, water treatment systems will be given.
• Provision of Air-curtains, Water cooler, hand driers, RO/ Water Purifiers, Geysers etc.
• Public address system and car calling system will be given.
• Provision of In-line BHS in Departure Area and inclined Carousels at Arrival Area
with associated equipment i/c control rooms, equipment/panel rooms etc. as required
will be given.
• Provision of four Passenger Boarding Bridges (PBB) or as required as per design
attached to fixed finger rotunda for the specified parking stands will be given.
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• Provision of Escalators and Elevators for passengers as well as utility services will be
given.
C. AIRPORT SYSTEMS
• Surveillance Close circuit TV system (SCCTV) and provision of adequate number of
close circuit TV monitors, in the Security Control Room, Terminal Manager Room,
APD Office etc., will be provided.
• Provision of Flight Information Display System (FIDS) with adequate number of
Display Devices in departure, arrival and security hold area for passenger facilitation
will be given.
• Provision of adequate number of X-ray machines including in-line machines,
provision of required number of ETDs, DFMDs and HHMDs, as per BCAS norms will
be given.
• Provision of adequate no. of VHF FM Sets (Walkie-Talkie, Base Stations and Mobile
Stations) will be given.
D. IT SYSTEMS
• SITC of Active networking component such as Switches/Routers/Firewall, etc. and
associated equipment as per the solution will be provided.
• SITC of Passive cabling works such as Laying of OFC and CAT6A UTP Cable and
its accessories for all data and voice requirement will be provided.
• SITC of IPPBX will be installed.
• Set up of Server Room and associated works will be installed.
E. COMMERCIAL WORKS
• Provision of CUTE/CUPPS and CUSS & BRS Systems will be given.
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generated when the lavatory tanks of the airplanes are emptied via hose and
pumped into a lavatory service vehicle, which can be either a self-powered truck or a
lavatory cart pulled by a tug. After the aircraft’s lavatory tanks are emptied, they are
refilled with a mixture of water and a disinfecting concentrate, commonly called “blue
juice.” The lavatory waste removed from the aircraft will be transported in truck to the
STP for treatment. Details of water management and water balance during the
operation phase are given below in Table 2.4 and Figure 2.5 respectively.
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The inlet and outlet characteristics of Inlet and outlet of STP is given below in Table 2.5
and Block Diagram of Proposed STP is given in Figure 2.6. Dual Plumbing Plan of
proposed expansion has been provided as Figure 2.7:
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Solid waste management plan during construction phase is given in Table 2.6 below:
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Total 111012
4. Excavated Soil 15 cm topsoil will be stripped off and will be stored in
covered condition. Topsoil will be used for landscaping
within the project site. All the excavated soil will be
reused within the site for filling and leveling and
construction of roads.
During operation phase, the primary source of waste at airport are from aircrafts,
airport, airlines, retail outlets, restaurants, restrooms, flights catering centers, air
cargo terminals, GSE maintenance facilities, landscaping, etc. Each of these creates
various types of waste including municipal solid waste (MSW), construction and
demolition waste (C&D), green waste, deplane waste (waste from aircrafts)1, lavatory
waste, hazardous and industrial waste, e-waste, spill cleanup and remediation
waste, biomedical waste, etc. Airport Council International’s (ACI) policy and
recommended practices Handbook will be followed for waste management at airport
which promotes to avoid, to reduce, to reuse, to recycle and finally to dispose the
waste. Estimations and type of solid waste generation is given in Table 2.7.
Organic Waste will be sent to proposed Organic Waste Convertor within the airport
premises and the compost generated will be reused within the airport as manure for
green area. Recyclable waste will be sent to approved recyclers.
1
Deplaned Waste is a specific type of MSW that is removed from passenger aircraft. These materials include bottles and cans, newspaper
and mixed paper, plastic cups and service ware, food waste, food soiled paper, and paper towels.
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• Three color dustbins will be provided in the common area for collection of
compostable waste (green), recyclable waste (blue) and inert waste (black)
• Deplane waste will be collected in HDPE bags and sent to the in-house solid
waste management area for treatment/disposal
• Training will be provided to the workers.
• No use of plastic will be promoted
• Waste audit at airport will be done
• Waste management and reduction plan will be made
• Standard Signage will be provided
• Separate room for waste storage, segregation and organic waste converter
will be provided.
• STP sludge will be used as manure in landscaping
• Waste oil, lubricant from machineries, equipment, maintenance yard, DG set
shall be stored in HDPE containers and stored in isolated paved areas.
❖ Disposal of Waste
• Compostable waste will be treated in organic waste converter. Generated
manure from treatment will be used as manure in landscaping.
• Recyclable & plastic waste will be sold off to the authorized vendors
• Inert waste disposed through the local agency
• Used oil from machineries will be sold to approved Vendor as per Hazardous
& Other Waste (Management & Transboundary Movement) Rules, 2016.
• E-waste will be stored in separate room and sold to authorized recycler as per
E-waste (Management) Rules, 2016
• Battery waste will be handled as per Battery Waste Management Rules, 2016
• There will be very less quantity of C&D waste generation during operation
phase, which will be managed as per the C&D waste management rules,
2016
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passenger terminals, cargo terminal, air traffic control setup and ancillary buildings.
Fire and emergency services are expected to cope with an emergency occurring at
the aerodrome or in its vicinity.
High-standard quality of technology and equipment protection has been planned to be
provided at Gwalior Airport for rescue and firefighting services in the design of the proposed
expansion. Currently, the existing airport uses firefighting facilities from Indian Air Force.
Under proposed expansion, firefighting services and amenities have been planned.
Fire Fighting Plan and Fire Tender Movement Plan has been provided as Figure
2.10 and Figure 2.11 respectively.
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List of the species to be planted are given below in Table 2.9 and tentative
landscape plan is given in Figure 2.12.
The following points were scrutinized during the design and implementation of
landscaping of airport and related project:
✓ Not to use trees and other landscaping plants for the street side of airport that
produce fruits or seeds attractive to birds.
✓ Avoid creation of areas of dense cover for roosting, especially by starlings (Myna)
and blackbirds.
✓ Thinning the canopy of trees, or selectively removing trees to increase their spacing,
to help eliminate bird roosts that form in trees on airports and
✓ To deploy trees of low vertical growth rate
✓ Preference to dwarf varieties
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situation
Adapted in drought
14. Salvadoraoleoides Mithija Tree
situation
Adapted in drought
15. Salvadorapersica Kharijal Tree
situation
Shrub
Decreasing salinity and
16. Prosopisjuliflora GandoBaval &
Fodder
Tree
Shrub
17. Acacia Catechu Khair & Shade and timber
Tree
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As per the survey carried out, it is required to cut 583 no. of existing trees.
Compensatory plantation shall also be carried out for each tree cut in ratio of 1:10 or
as per the NOC issued by the Forest Department.
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3.1. General
The baseline environmental status forms the basis for evaluation of anticipated
impacts due proposed development on the existing conditions. This can be broadly
grouped into physical, biological, social and economic environment. Physical
environment includes air, meteorology, noise, water, soil, land, biological
environment includes aquatic and terrestrial flora & fauna while social environment
includes demographic details, civic infrastructure, public services, surrounding
monuments, commercial facilities, employment levels, sources and levels of income,
economic base of the area, land values, land ownership, etc. Baseline conditions at
around the project are described in following sections.
Baseline monitoring was carried for 1st December 2021 to 28th February 2022
(winter Season). Map showing location of baseline monitoring stations is given in
Figure 3.2. Standard methods and procedures have been strictly adhered to in the
course of this study. QA/QC procedures were strictly followed which covers all
aspects of the study, and includes sample collection, handling, laboratory analyses,
data coding, statistical analyses, presentation and communication of results. Primary
and `secondary data has been collected for 10 Km radius of the project site.
Advanced Environmental Testing and Research Lab Private Limited at 63/1, Kailash
Vihar, Near ITO, City Center, Side-2, Gwalior, Madhya Pradesh along with EQMS
Team carried out sampling and testing.
Baseline study includes collection of primary and secondary data. Primary data on
ambient air quality, soil quality and noise level were collected from site during the
baseline study period. Secondary data is collected from various departments like
Indian Meteorological Department (IMD), Central Ground Water Board, Geological
Survey of India, State Ground Water Department, State Pollution Control Board,
Census of India and Local Forest Department, Non -Governmental Agencies etc.
The major environmental disciplines studied in this report include Soil quality, Land
Use, Meteorology, Surface and Ground Water Quality, Air Quality, Noise, Ecology
and Demography, Socio-Economy and Geological features & Geo-hydrological
Status.
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The field observations and the results of the baseline study have been used-
• To assess the positive and negative impacts due to the proposed project.
• To suggest appropriate mitigation measures for negating the adverse environmental
impacts, if any; and
• To suggest post-project monitoring requirements and suitable mechanism for it.
3.5.2.2 Primary Data Collection: Monitoring Plan and Quality Assurance Procedures
QA/QC procedures were strictly followed which covers all aspects of the study, and
includes sample collection, handling, laboratory analyses, data coding, statistical analyses,
presentation, and communication of results. The baseline environmental data generation
has been collected for the study period. The Summary of monitoring plan with parameter
and frequency is summarized in Table 3.2:
locations
Soil
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Project site is surrounded by agricultural fields & villages.Land is flat land and the elevation
varies from 189 m amsl to 195 m amsl, lower at South side and higher at west side of
project boundary.
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3.6.2. Geomorphology:
In the Gwalior district, 8 groups of geomorphic units have been classified on the
basis of differential erosion and deposition of rock material.
3.6.3. Hydrogeology:
The district is covered with recent Alluvium of quaternary age deposited over the rocks
of Vindhyan system, Gwalior system and Bundelkhand granites.
1. Bundelkhand Granites:
The Bundelkhand granite is the oldest rock in the area and form a basement and
occurs in the Northern part of the Dabra block of the Gwalior district. Groundwater
occurs in unconfined to semi-confined conditions in weathered and fractured granites.
Groundwater is tapped mostly from Dug wells and yield ranges from 1 to 2.5 lps. The
transmissivity in the granite area of shallow aquifers varies between 10m2 /day to
150m2 /day.
2. Gwalior Series:
The rocks belonging to the Gwalior series are exposed near Gwalior and are divided
into Par and Morar Series. The Par series consists of thin-bedded sandstone with
some shale beds. The Morar series consists of Ferruginous Shales with banded
Jasper. The groundwater occurs under unconfined to semi-confined conditions in the
weathered and fractured rocks. The groundwater is tapped mostly through dug wells or
shallow tube wells and yield ranges from 1 to 3 lps.
3. Vindhyans:
These comprise sandstone, shale, and flagstone belonging to Kaimur and the lower
Rewa series in the district. The groundwater occurs mostly under unconfined to semi-
confined conditions and tapped through dug wells with yields ranging from 1 to 3 lps.
4. Alluvium:
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The alluvium forms the main aquifer system in the area and its thickness varies from
13-40m. The groundwater occurs under unconfined to semi-confined in shallow
aquifers and confined in deeper aquifers. The dug wells and shallow tube wells tap
mainly the Kankar horizons inter bedded with silt and clays. The yield of dug wells and
shallow tube wells ranges between 4 to 16 lps. A high yielding well of 43 lps was
constructed at Gadwa Ki Gote by CGWB in Gwalior district and has carried
groundwater exploration to a maximum depth of 305 m.
Depth of Groundwater Level
Ground Water Levels form a very important parameter of the groundwater system.
CGWB has 19 National Hydrograph stations and 5 Piezometers in the district.
Post-monsoon (2012):
The post-monsoon depth to water level ranges between 1.45 to 29.00 (Fig.4). During
post monsoon, the central part of the district has DTW between 10-20 m and in the
northern and southern part; DTW varies between 5-10 m with some patches having
DTW more than 20 m and in southern part of the district having DTW ranging between
4 to 6.
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Source: BIS
Seismic Zone Map of India
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formatting and correcting of the data, digital enhancement to facilitate better visual
interpretation, or even automated classification of targets and features entirely by
computer. In order to process remote sensing imagery digitally, the data must be
recorded and available in a digital form suitable for storage on a computer tape or disk.
Obviously, the other requirement for digital image processing is a computer system,
sometimes referred to as an image analysis system, with the appropriate hardware and
software to software to process the data. Several commercially available software
systems have been developed specifically for remote sensing image processing and
analysis.
Methodology
Most of the common image processing functions available in image analysis systems
can be categorized into the following four categories:
1. Pre-processing functions involve those operations that are normally required prior
to the main data analysis and extraction of information, and are generally grouped as
radiometric or geometric corrections. Radiometric corrections include correcting the
data for sensor irregularities and unwanted sensor or atmospheric noise, and
converting the data so they accurately represent the reflected or emitted radiation
measured by the sensor. Geometric corrections include correcting for geometric
distortions due to sensor-Earth geometry variations, and conversion of the data to real
world coordinates (e.g. latitude and longitude) on the Earth's surface.
4. Image classification and analysis operations are used to digitally identify and
classify pixels in the data. Classifications usually performed on multichannel data sets
(A) and this process assigns each pixel in animate to a particular class ortheme (B)
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based on statistical characteristics of the pixel brightness values. There are a variety of
approaches taken to perform digital classification. We will briefly describe the two
generic approaches which are used most often, namely supervised and unsupervised
classification. The intent of the classification process is to categorize all pixels in digital
image into one of several land cover classes, or "themes". This categorized data may
then be used to produce thematic maps of the land cover present in an image.
Normally, multispectral data are used to perform the classification and, indeed, the
spectral pattern present within the data for each pixel is used as the numerical basis for
categorization (Lille sand and Kiefer, 1994). The objective of image classification is to
identify and portray, as a unique gray level (or colour), the features occurring in an
image in terms of the object or type of land cover these features actually represent on
the ground. Image classification is perhaps the most important part of digital image
analysis. It is very nice to have a "pretty picture" or an image, showing magnitude of
colours illustrating various features of the underlying terrain, but it is quite useless
unless to know what the colours mean. (PCI, 1997). Two main classification methods
are Supervised Classification and Unsupervised Classification.
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1997; Lille sand and Kiefer, 1994) Unsupervised classification is becoming increasingly
popular in agencies involved in long term GIS database maintenance. The reason is
that there are now systems that use clustering procedures that are extremely fast and
require little in the nature of operational parameters. Thus it is becoming possible to
train GIS analysis with only general familiarity with remote sensing to undertake
classifications that meet typical map accuracy standards. With suitable ground truth
accuracy assessment procedures, this tool can provide a remarkably rapid means of
producing quality land cover data on a continuing basis
3.7.1. Ground truth study
Land use analysis was carried out using remote Sensing Data. Interpretation approach
based on systematic digital imaging was used for delineating the land use classes. The
demarcation of boundaries falling under different land use/land cover units is done
using different colours assigned to different land use/land cover units of satellite
imagery.
Land use of project site is industrial. Most of the land within the 10 km area of the
project Site is Agricultural land. As per the land use based on satellite image, about
60% of the land is under Agricultural Land. 9% of land is under vegetation, 20% of the
land is under settlement, 11% land is under open scrub land, 0.001 % Water body and
rest of the land is under other uses.
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9%
11%
20%
60%
0%
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For general characterization of soil a few random samples from the study area to the depth
of about 15-cm may sufficient. Deeper soil samples may be needed only for the study of
soil profile.
The soil of Gwalior district can broadly be divided into four groups: -
1. Well drained clayey soil on moderate slopes.
2. Deep well drained firm soil on gently sloping.
3. Very shallow, well drained loamy soil on gentle slopes.
4. Moderately deep to deep, well drained to mod drained fine soils on very gentle slopes.
3.8.1.4 Interpretation
Soil Texture: As per the grain size distribution the percentage of Sand in all sampled soil
was found varied from 42% to 48%, Silt varied from 15% to 18% and Clay from 35% to
42% during the study season.
Soil Reaction: Soil pH is an important soil property, which affects the availability of several
plant nutrients. It is a measure of acidity and alkalinity and reflects the status of base
saturation. The soil pH ranges from 7.17 to 7.31, thereby indicating the soils are neutral in
nature.
Organic Carbon: The effect of soil organic matter on soil properties is well recognized.
Soil organic matter plays a vital role in supplying plant nutrients, cation exchange capacity,
improving soil aggregation and hence water retention and soil biological activity. The
organic carbon content of soil varied from 1.12 to 1.46%, thereby implying that soils are
with low to high organic content in the study area.
Macronutrients: Nutrients like nitrogen (N), phosphorus (P) and potassium (K) are
considered as primary nutrients and sulphur (S) as secondary nutrient. These nutrients
help in proper growth, development and yield differentiation of plants and are generally
required by plants in large quantity.
Available Nitrogen:
Nitrogen is an integral component of many compounds including chlorophyll and enzyme
essential for plant growth. It is an essential constituent for amino acids which is building
blocks for plant tissue, cell nuclei and protoplasm. It encourages aboveground vegetative
growth and deep green color to leaves. Deficiencies of nitrogen decreases rate and extent
of protein synthesis and result into stunted growth and develop Chlorosis. Available
nitrogen content in the surface soils ranges between 39.8 & 61.4 kg/ha thereby indicates
that sampled soils in the study area are low in available nitrogen content.
Available Phosphorus:
Phosphorus is important component of adenosine di-phosphate (ADP) and adenosine tri-
phosphate (ATP), which involves in energy transformation in plant. It is essential
component of deoxyribonucleic acid (DNA), the seat of genetic inheritance in plant and
animal. Phosphorous take part in important functions like photosynthesis, nitrogen fixation,
crop maturation, root development, strengthening straw in cereal crops etc. The availability
of phosphorous is restricted under acidic and alkaline soil reaction mainly due to P-fixation.
In acidic condition it gets fixed with aluminum and iron and in alkaline condition with
calcium. Available phosphorus content ranges between 11.3 & 30.1 kg/ha thereby is
indicating that soils are Medium to High in available phosphorus content.
Available Potassium:
Potassium is an activator of various enzymes responsible for plant processes like energy
metabolism, starch synthesis, nitrate reduction and sugar degradation. It is extremely
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mobile in plant and help to regulate opening and closing of stomata in the leaves and
uptake of water by root cells. It is important in grain formation and tuber development and
encourages crop resistance for certain fungal and bacterial diseases. Available potassium
content in these soils ranges between 8.6 & 18 kg/ha thereby is indicating that the soils are
Low in potassium content.
For assessment of baseline data of water quality status, general reconnaissance survey of
River upstream and downstream of proposed study area will be done. “Protocol for Water
Quality Monitoring” notified by Govt of India in conjunction with CPCB Guidelines for Water
Quality Monitoring, ,2007-08, shall be followed.
3.9.1. Reconnaissance Survey
The objectives of water quality monitoring programme are identification of state and trends
in water quality, both in terms of concentrations and effect. It is pertinent to make a
reconnaissance survey of the river during the planning stage, noting all sources of wastes,
all entering tributaries that might contribute a potential pollutant, and all uses and
abstractions of the water. This action will also include a survey of background information
such as geography, topography, climate and weather, hydrology, hydrogeology, land use,
urbanization, industrialization and agriculture, including farming in the riverbed. The
information required has been collected through primary surveys and secondary sources.
Surface water sources and groundwater sources covering 10 km radial distance were
identified for examining for physico-chemical and bacteriological parameters.
3.9.2. Selection Criteria for Water Sampling Location
The selection of sites for water sampling shall be done considering the location of different
project components, junction of streams and river course, spots of high-water velocity and
some of the stagnated pools along with the areas having human interference. Sampling
stations should be located upstream and downstream of significant pollution outfalls like
city sewage drains and industrial effluent outfalls. Drinking water intake points, bathing
ghats, irrigation canal off-take points should be considered for monitoring. Additional
downstream stations are necessary to assess the extent of the influence of an outfall and
locate the point of recovery. Stations on both sides downstream are useful to make an
estimate of the extent of the mixing zone. In case of groundwater sampling only tube wells,
dug-well and hand pumps which are in use should be selected.
The sampling site selection is generally linked with water quality monitoring objectives. For
example, if the monitoring is carried out for judging suitability of water for drinking water
source, then the monitoring site should be closer to the intake point whereas for outdoor
bathing it should be near bathing ghats. The usual purpose of a monitoring exercise is to
determine the degree of man induced pollution, and the damage that is caused to aquatic
life. The reference station serves to assess the situation with respect to background water
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quality and biological aspects, which may vary locally and regionally. Four surface water
samples were Selected in the study area and five ground water samples have also been
collected. Detail of the location of ground water collection is given in Table 3.6.
box together with ice or cold packs. Samples collected for chemical oxygen demand (COD)
should be preserved below pH 2 by addition of concentrated sulphuric acid. Samples which
are to be analyzed for the presence of heavy metals, should be acidified to below pH 2 with
concentrated nitric acid.
Samples should be transported to concerned laboratory as soon as possible, preferably
within 48 hours. Analysis of bacteriological samples should be started and analyzed within
24 hours of collection. If samples are being brought to the laboratory, they should be
transported in less than 24 hours
3.9.4.2 Parameters considered for Analysis
In general list of parameters to be considered for analysis and frequency of sampling is
provided in the “Protocol for Water Quality Monitoring” notified by Govt of India should be
followed. In case the specific water quality parameter to be analyzed have been prescribed
in the ToR, they should be analyzed. In current proposal general list of parameters is
considered for analysis.
3.9.5. Water Quality Analysis
The limnological parameters are recorded mainly following the standard methods
described by Welch (1948), CSIR (1974). Mackereth et.al. (1978) and APHA, AWWA,
WPCF (1995) as following:
Parameters Instrumentation
1. Ambient temperature : Digital thermometer (stainless steel
Sensor probe)
2. Transparency : Seehidise method (Weleh 1948)
3. Water velocity : EMCON digi current meter
4. Turbidity : Nephelometer
5. Total Dissolved Solids : Titration method
6. pH : Digi pH meter (HANNA)
7. Alkalinity, Acidity, Chlorides,
8. Silicates, DO, Free CO2, Zn,
Si, Fe and Nutrients
(Phosphorus, Sulphates) : Aquamerck / Aquaquant kits
9. Total Ca and Mg Hardness – EDTA : Titrametric methods (Natrajan and
Jhingran 1988)
10. Inorganic phosphates : Colorimetric Methods
11. BOD : Titration
12. E-Coli and Total Coliform : Macconkey broth
Alkalinity
7 DO mg/l 6 5 4 4 -
8 BOD (27o C mg/l 2 3 3 - -
for 3 days)
9 COD mg/l - - - - -
10 Total mg/l 500 - 1500 - 2100
Dissolved
Solid
11 Total mg/l - - - - -
Suspended
Solids
12 Total mg/l 300 - - - -
Hardness (
CaCO3)
13 Calcium (as mg/l 200 - - - -
Ca)
14 Magnesium mg/l 100 - - - -
(as Mg)
15 Fluorides mg/l 1.5 1.5 1.5 - -
(F)
16 Chlorides mg/l 250 - 600 - 600
(as Cl)
17 Chromium mg/l 0.05 1 0.05 - -
(Cr+)
18 Cadmium mg/l 0.01 - 0.01 - -
(Cd)
19 Iron (as Fe) mg/l 0.3 - 50 - -
20 Zinc (Zn) mg/l 15 - 15 - -
21 Copper mg/l 1.5 - 1.5 - -
as(Cu)
22 Arsenic mg/l 0.05 0.2 0.2 - -
(As)
23 Lead (Pb) mg/l 0.1 - 0.1 - -
24 Selenium mg/l 0.01 - 0.05 - -
(Se)
25 Nitrates (as mg/l 20 - 50 - -
NO3)
26 Sulphate mg/l 400 - 400 - -
(as SO4)
27 Phenolic mg/l 0.002 0.005 0.005 - -
Compounds
28 Pesticides mg/l Absent - Absent - -
29 Oil & mg/l - - 0.1 0.1 -
Grease
30 Total Coli MPN/100m 50 500 5000 - -
form l
As per IS: 2296-1982, the tolerance limits of parameters are specified as per
classified use of water depending on various uses of water. The following
classifications have been adopted in India.
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Table 3.9 : Receiving Sea Water Standards for SW-II Category (Commercial
Fishing, Contact Recreation, Bathing Water)
S. No. Parameter Criteria Rationale/ Remarks
1 pH range 6.5 – 8.5 Range does not skin or eye irritation and
is also
Conducive for propagation of aquatic lives
2 Dissolved solids 4.0 mg/l Not less than 3.5 mg/ l at any time for
protection of aquatic lives
3 Colour and Odor No noticeable Specially caused by chemical compound
color ,odor and like creosols Phenols, Naphtha , Benzene ,
floating matters Pyridine, Toluene etc. causing visible
coloration of water and tainting of and odor
in fish flesh
4 Floating matters Nothing None in concentration that would impair
obnoxious or usages specially assigned to the class.
detrimental for
use purpose
5 Fecal Coliform 100 per 100 ml The average value not exceeding 200/100
ml in 20% of the sample in the year and in
3 consecutive samples in the monsoon
months
6 Biochemical 3 mg/l Restricted for bathing (aesthetic quality of
Oxygen Demand water) Also prescribed by IS:2296-1974
(BOD 5 days at
20 ˚C)
7 Turbidity 30 NTU Measured at 0.9 depth
(Nephelo-
Turbidity Unit)
Source: Water quality standards for coastal waters marine Outfalls (EPA Rule 1986).
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Electrical Conductivity APHA 2510 B : 2017 mS/cm 1013 1037 1052 278
Oil & Grease IS:3025 (Part-39) mg/l 1.6 1.4 2.8 1.2
COD IS:3025 (PART-58) mg/l 490 510 410 60
BOD (5 Days at 20°C) IS:3025 (Part-44) mg/l 58.8 61.2 49.2 7.2
Dissolved Oxygen IS:3025 (Part-38) mg/l 11.9 12.4 12.8 6.3
Total Alkalinity as CaCo3 IS:3025,1986(Part-23) mg/l 210 302 280 28
Anionic Detergents (as MBAS) IS:13428 mg/l BDL - - -
Potassium as K IS:3025 (Part-45) mg/l 14.2 - 9.56 2.34
Sodium as Na IS:3025 (Part-45) mg/l 28.2 - 12.7 12.8
Total Coliform IS:1622 - 1400 - - -
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Table 3.11 shows the physico-chemical characteristics of surface water samples collected
from upstream and downstream, during winter season and compared with the surface
water quality standard (ISI-IS: 2296-1982) reference values.
The pH values of all analyzed samples ranged between 6.61 – 7.28 and are within the
class A limit (6.5-8.5). The TDS levels were observed to be 138 and 620 and are with in the
class A except the location SW-2 & SW-2 they are fall in Class C. Total hardness range
were observed to be 34 and 326 i.e with in the Class A except the location SW-2. The
dissolved oxygen values ranged between 6.3 to 12.8 mg/l and were within the class D limit
of 4 mg/l or more. The chlorides level in surface water samples were observed 14.96 mg/l-
174.9 mg/l. which is with the class A limit of 250 mg/l. The sulphates level ranged from 8.56
to 122.68 mg/l and were below the class A limit of 400 mg/l. The Total Coliform level were
observed 1500 i.e within the limit specified for Class C water i.e., 5000 MPN/100.
Comparing the values of pH, DO, Total Coliform and hardness with ‘Drinking water source
after conventional treatment and disinfection’ published by Central Pollution Control Board;
the analyzed surface waters is classified as “Below C”.
Pro Deen
S. U Khure Senthar Gwali
Parameter Desirabl Permissi ject Dayal
No nit ri i or
e Limit ble Limit Site Nagar
1 pH (at 25°C) 5 15 - 6.71 6.69 6.75 6.77 6.8
Magnesium as Mg No mg 34.0
24.3 20.8 11.19 14.58
6 0.3 Relaxation /l 2
Total Dissolved mg 646 590 554 912 330
7 Solids 250 1000 /l
Total Suspended mg 12 13 12 10 8
8 Solids 1 1.5 /l
Sulphate as SO4
mg 98.4
72.96 118.8 120.96 6.46
9 500 2000 /l 6
Fluoride as F
mg BDL BDL BDL BDL BDL
10 75 200 /l
Nitrate as NO3
mg 2.67 1.6 2.79 5.46 0.1
11 30 100 /l
Iron as Fe
mg 0.04 DL-0 .02 DL-0.02 DL-0 DL-0
12 0.05 1.5 /l 1 mg/L) mg/L .02mg/L .02mg/L
Total Chromium mg BDL
DL-0 .03 DL-0 DL-0 DL-0 .03
13 as Cr 0.1 0.3 /l mg/L) .03mg/L .03mg/L mg/L
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Table 3.12 shows the physico - chemical characteristics of ground water samples collected
from the selected location during winter season (December 2021to February 2022), as
compared with the standard (IS 10500: 2012).
The analysis results indicate that the pH ranged between 6.69 to 6.8, which are well within
the specified standard of 6.5 to 8.5 limit. Total hardness was recorded to range from 188 to
372 mg/l, which is within the permissible limit 600 mg/l at all location. The Total Dissolved
Solids (TDS) concentration recorded ranged between 330 to 912 mg/l and was within the
permissible limits (2000 mg/l) at all location. Chlorides was recorded to range from 71.97 to
189.9 mg/l, which is within the permissible limit 1000 mg/l at all location. Sulphates at all
the locations were within the permissible limits (400 mg/l) as it ranged between 6.46 –
120.96 mg/l.
Bacteriological studies reveal that no coliform bacterial are present in the samples. The
heavy metal contents were observed to be in below detectable limits.
All physical and general parameters were observed within the permissible limit as per
IS10500:2012 (Second Revision).
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Table 3.13 : Long Term Meteorological Data of Gwalior (30 years average)
Temperat Cloud Win
Relative Predomin
ure Calm Amounts d Rai
Humidity ant Wind Rainf
Period (all Spe ny
Month (oC) Daily (%) Direction all
cloud) ed Day
(mm)
Ma 08: 17: 08: 17: 08: 17: Km/ s
Min 8.3 17.3
x 30 30 30 30 30 30 hr
Januar 28. NW, N,N
2.4 79 51 81 50 1.7 1.9 2.6 10.4 1.1
y 2 N W
Februa 32. NW, N,N
5 66 37 72 30 1.7 2 3.3 12.6 0.9
ry 3 N W
38. NW, NW,
March 9.9 49 26 57 24 1.7 2.3 4.1 6.3 0.9
2 N N
43. 15. NW, NW,
April 34 19 55 19 1.5 2.3 4.6 7.6 0.7
3 3 W W
45. W,N NW,
May 21 36 21 35 15 1.3 2.2 5.9 15.2 1.5
3 W W
23. W,N NW,
June 45 49 37 28 17 2.9 3.9 6.4 76 4.2
1 W W
40. 23. W,S W,S
July 74 64 29 28 5.5 6 5.9 221.6 11
2 2 W W
36. W,N W,S 11.
August 23 80 72 29 33 5.5 5.9 4.9 218.7
8 W W 3
Septem 37. 20. W,N NW,
75 63 46 41 3.5 4 4.2 161.1 6.4
ber 3 4 W W
37. 13. N,S NW,
Octobe 64 51 80 76 1 1.4 2.3 35.9 1.6
3 8 W N
r
Novem 33. NW, NW,
7.6 68 54 90 91 1 1.3 1.7 9.2 0.4
ber 9 N N
Decem 29. NW, NW,
4.2 76 56 88 81 1.3 1.6 1.9 5.3 0.6
ber 3 N N
Relative Humidity–Relative Humidity at 8:30 hr varies from 34% (April) to 80% ( August)
while at 17:30 hr it ranges from 19% (April) to 72% in (August).
Rainfall–Total annual mean rainfall was observed to be 780mm. Around 91.44% of total
rainfall occur in the months of June to October.
Wind Speed–Mean wind speed was observed from 1.7 kmph (Oct) to 6.4 kmph (June).
Wind Direction–The wind pattern of the region shows that the predominant wind direction
is NW for most of the months.
Predominant Wind
(from) East
Direction
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Air pollution can cause significant effects on the environment and subsequently on human,
animals, vegetation, and materials. In most cases, air pollution aggravates pre-existing
diseases or degrades health status, making people easily susceptible to other infections
and development of chronic respiratory and cardiovascular diseases. Further,
environmental impacts from air pollution can include acidic deposition and reduction in
visibility.
The objective of the study is to analyze the existing ambient air quality within the study
area and compare it with the NAAQ standards specified by CPCB to know about the
pollution status of air in and around the project area. To quantify the impact of the
construction & operational activities on the ambient air quality at the site and its
surrounding area, it is necessary to evaluate the existing ambient air quality in those areas.
3.11.1. Causes Attributing to Air Pollution in and Around Project Area
The existing causes of air pollution in and around project area are due vehicular
movement, dust arising from unpaved roads and domestic fuel burning.
3.11.2. Sampling Method
The ambient air quality monitoring for pollutants was done by following Guidelines for
Manual Sampling and Analyses (Volume-1) issued by CPCB in May,2011. Sampling
methodology is as mentioned in Table 3.15. The ambient air quality monitoring during
December 21 to February 2022 was conducted, on 24-hourly twice a week basis for PM10,
PM2.5, SO2, NOx,NH3, CO, for a month, by the EIA consultant through NABL accredited
Laboratory.
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Table 3.16 : Air Pollutants, Their Sources and Their Effects on Humans
Carbon Monoxide Incomplete fuel combustion • Reduces the oxygen carrying capacity of
(CO) (as in motor vehicles) blood,
• Causes headaches, nausea, and
dizziness
Ammonia (NH3) • Agriculture (animal • Nasal and eye irritation; respiratory tract
husbandry & fertilizer irritation; and increased respiratory depth.
application) • Add to the level of PM2.5 [conversion to
• Volatilization from land NH4+ aerosol) which has longer
and oceans atmospheric residence times (days) than
• Industrial processes the gaseous (hours] especially affecting
(including fugitive human health
emissions)
• Vehicular emission
3.11.3. Rationale for Selecting Monitoring Station
The baseline status of the ambient air quality has been established through a scientifically
designed ambient air quality monitoring network and was based on the following
considerations:
• Meteorological conditions;
• Topography of the study area;
• Representatives of regional background air quality;
• Representatives of likely impact areas within the study area; and
• Location of residential areas representing different activities.
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Seven sampling stations located within 10.0 km of the site was considered to provide the
surrounding baseline air quality. For the selection of the monitoring locations, long-term
meteorological trends were taken into consideration to obtain the predominant wind
direction during the sampling period. The monitoring station were selected keeping in view
the sites like High density Residential area near industrial zone in upwind of the site and
downwind of the site to understand the impact of the proposed project in the downwind
direction compared to upwind polluting load from the industrial and other sources.
The ambient air quality monitoring locations are detailed in Table 3.17.
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3.11.3.3 Interpretation
The monitoring results of ambient air quality were compared with the National Ambient Air
Quality Standards (NAAQS) prescribed by MoEF; GoI Notification dated 16.11.2009.
The maximum concentration of PM10, PM2.5, SO2, NOX , CO & NH3 was 97 µg/m3, 45
µg/m3,11.2 µg/m3, 18.9 µg/m3, 0.54 mg/m³ & <0.20 µg/m3 respectively.
Particulate Matter (PM10): The PM10 values ranges from 50 µg/m3 to 97 µg/m3 in the
study area. The Maximum PM10 values i.e., 97 µg/m3 were observed to be at Gwalior
(AAQ-6, 8.07 KM, SSW) and minimum i.e., 50 µg/m3 was observed to be at Khureri
(AAQ-5, 4.72 Km, ESE) under residential area. The results show the values within the
NAAQS limit at all the Location. The highest pollution levels are observed in the Gwalior
(AAQ-6).
Particulate Matter (PM2.5): The PM2.5 values ranges from 22 µg/m3 to 45 µg/m3 in the
study area. The maximum PM2.5 values i.e. 45 µg/m3 were observed to be at Senthari
(AAQ-3, 1.28Km,NW) and minimum i.e 22 µg/m3 was observed at Khureri (AAQ-5, 4.72
Km, ESE) under residential area. The results show the values Within the NAAQS limit at all
the locations. The highest pollution levels are observed in the Senthari (AAQ-3).
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Sulphur Dioxide (SO2): The SO2 values ranges from 5 µg/m3 to 11.2 µg/m3 in the study
area. The maximum SO2 values i.e., 11.2 µg/m3 were observed to be at Gwalior (AAQ-6,
8.07 KM, SSW) and the minimum SO2 values were observed to be at Baraua (AAQ-7,
8.63 KM, W). The results show the values were within the NAAQS permissible limit (80
µg/m3).
Oxides of Nitrogen (NOx): The NOx values range from 10.2 µg/m3-18.9 µg/m3 in the
study area. The maximum NOx values i.e., 18.9 µg/m3 were observed to be at Gwalior
(AAQ-6, 8.07 KM, SSW) and minimum values i.e. 10.2 µg/m3 were observed to be at
Khureri (AAQ-5, 4.72 Km, ESE). The results show the values were within the NAAQS
permissible limit (80 µg/m3).
CO: The CO values ranges from 0.25 mg/m³-0.54 mg/m³ in the study area. The maximum
CO values i.e. 0.54 mg/m³were observed to be at Senthari (AAQ-3) and minimum values
i.e. 0.25 mg/m³ was observed to be at Project site (AAQ-1) . The results show the values
were within the NAAQS permissible limit (4 mg/m³).
The NH3 values was <0.20 µg/m3 observed in the study area.
The existing causes of ambient noise in and around project area are due to construction
activities and vehicular movement. Noise pollution is expected at project site during both
construction and operation phase. The noise pollution sources during construction phase
will be construction equipment’s and vehicles and in operation phase vehicular movement
due to airport operational.
3.12.2. Methodology
The noise monitoring shall be done following CPCB protocol of Noise Monitoring, July
2015, which inter alia include the following cardinal principles:
• The Noise measurements shall be made with a Type 1 integrating sound level meter.
The station should be located at the ambient level i.e. away from the direct source,
away from any vibration and any obstruction.
• Microphone must be placed 1.2 -1.5m above the ground level.
• The instrument should be isolated from strong vibration and shock.
• The monitoring should be carried out minimum 75% of the prescribed Day time
(06.00 am to 22.00 pm) and Night time (22.00 pm to 06.00 am).
• During ambient noise monitoring sound comes from more than one direction, it is
important to choose a microphone and mounting which gives the best possible omni
directional characteristics.
• Noise measurements should not be made in fog and rain.
• A wind shield will be used at all times to prevent interference of reflecting noise.
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Noise after a certain level can have a very disturbing effect on the people and animals
exposed to it. Hence, it is important to assess the present noise quality of the area to
predict the potential impact of future noise levels due to the proposed project.
3.12.3. Selection Criteria for Noise Monitoring Location
An assessment of baseline noise quality was undertaken to:
(a) Establish the status of exposure of the major sensitive receptors, and
(b) To identify the noise pollution levels in and around the site.
The baseline study for noise levels in the study area has been carried out by selecting a
noise monitoring station based on the following criteria
Based on the above, noise monitoring was carried out at eight monitoring location. Details
of the Monitoring location and map showing the location in the study area is as shown in
Table 3.21.
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3.12.3.3 Interpretation
The noise level at most location was observed to with in the ambient CPCB noise limit. The
major source of the noise in the study area is vehicular movement.
Table 3.23 : Rural and Urban Population Distribution in the Study Area
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Total Femal
Male e Total
Total Sched Sched Total Femal
Total Femal uled uled Male e
No of No of Total Male e Castes Castes Sched Sched
Household Househ Popula Popula Popula Popula Popula uled uled
s olds tion tion tion tion tion Tribes Tribes
Badagaon 463 2676 1486 1190 136 147 2 1
Singharpura 161 725 387 338 39 37 103 88
Sunarpura
Khalsa 90 360 195 165 38 25 0 0
Bhadroli 353 2063 1116 947 437 357 0 0
Vikrampur 159 906 487 419 29 26 1 4
Akbarpur 85 603 315 288 0 0 0 0
Jugrupur 49 313 174 139 0 0 0 0
Kuwrpur 106 594 335 259 8 8 0 0
Khureri 338 2020 1064 956 440 409 8 4
Jlalpur 328 1915 1021 894 279 248 0 0
Kheriya
Modi 146 889 469 420 152 157 2 3
Cakrampur 192 953 550 403 197 157 0 0
Madanpur 46 290 154 136 5 4 0 0
Sonapura 45 185 104 81 0 0 0 0
Suro 166 916 509 407 85 80 0 1
Behata 283 1653 889 764 237 218 0 0
Maithana 117 653 354 299 74 58 0 0
Jamahar 407 2459 1290 1169 145 134 0 1
Senthri 303 1534 820 714 271 217 15 16
Roodhpura 294 1738 934 804 263 252 114 102
Susera 536 2987 1617 1370 352 316 4 5
Rairu 327 1732 959 773 225 188 26 16
Gangapur 137 844 469 375 242 202 8 6
Puranichavn
i 1701 10219 5441 4778 1455 1254 19 25
Jiraina 113 576 338 238 96 73 0 0
Chak
Keshopur 396 1911 1028 883 10 9 0 0
Jahangirpur 175 952 515 437 101 94 0 0
Birampura 143 682 375 307 124 109 0 0
Kheriya
Mirdha 131 680 345 335 124 120 0 0
Chandupura 116 542 296 246 105 87 0 0
Dangguthin
a 179 1007 550 457 231 189 1 0
Baretha 251 1395 741 654 6 6 44 28
Laxmangarh 100 553 314 239 3 4 0 0
Gwalior (M 106927
Corp.) 202066 6 569003 500273 98823 86561 7735 6631
Mau 283 1557 839 718 138 120 47 37
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Sex Ratio
The ‘Sex Ratio’ is a numeric relationship between females and males of an area and bears
paramount importance in the present day scenario where the un-ethnic pre-determination
of sex and killing of female foetus during pregnancy is practiced by unscrupulous medical
practitioners against the rule of the law of the country. It is evident that by contrast the
practice of female foeticide is not prevalent in the study area. The ‘Sex Ratio’ was
observed as 877 females per 1000 males in the study area.
The village wise male-female population distribution for the study area is depicted and
shown by graphical representation in Figure 3.8
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1200000
1000000
800000
600000
400000
200000
0
Total Population Total Male Total Female
Population Population
200000
150000
100000
50000
0
Total SC Population Total SC Male Total SC Female
Population Population
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18000
16000
14000
12000
10000
8000
6000
4000
2000
0
Total ST Population Total ST Male Total ST Female
Population Population
900000
800000
700000
600000
500000
400000
300000
200000
100000
0
Total Total Male Total Total Total Male Total
Literate Literate Female Illiterate Illiterate Female
Population Population Literate Population Population Illiterate
Population Population
28%
69%
3%
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20%
48%
13%
19%
4%
11% 6%
79%
Composition of Non-workers
Details about total Non-workers of the study area with Graphical representation are
compiled in Table 3.25 and shown by Figure 3.15 as follows;
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900000
800000
700000
600000
500000
400000
300000
200000
100000
0
Total Non Workers Male Non Workers Female Non
Workers
only few villages (19 villages)of the study area are served with River/Canal water as
drinking water in the study area. As per the census records of 2011, only about 9 revenue
villages are being served with Tank/Pond/Lake in the study area. In the majority of the
villages, hand pumps are commonly observed in the study area. Good potable water
facilities are available in the study area.
Communication, Road, Transport and Banking Facilities
Apart from Post &Telegraph (P & T) services, transport is the main communication linkage
in the study area. Out of 54 villages/towns of the study area, only 1 revenue village, is
served with Post Office facilities in the study area, remaining villages are depending upon
these villages and towns of the study area.
The study area has good road network, passes from the area. National Highway 44 is
located at about 3.78km,N to the proposed project site. Site is well connected with NH-44
and has well developed internal road within the existing site as well.
About all villages are served with Pucca road facility in the study area. In the study area 2
commercial banks with no ATM facility are available. No Cooperative banks are available in
rural part. Most of these facilities are available in Gwalior town.
Power Supply
It is revealed from the compiled information on amenities availability as per the census
record of 2011; only villages are electrified for all purpose in the study area. Villagewise
‘Basic infrastructure and amenities’ availability data for the entire study area is compiled
and presented in Table 3.26 as follows;
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Sonapur GWALI
a 0 0 0 0 0 0 0 0 0 2 2 1 1 2 2 2 2 2 2 1 2 1 1 1 2 2 OR 16
GWALI
Susera 5 3 0 0 0 0 0 0 0 1 2 1 1 1 1 2 2 2 2 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 OR 18
GWALI
Rairu 2 1 0 0 0 0 0 0 0 1 2 1 1 2 2 2 2 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 OR 15
Roodhp GWALI
ura 3 1 0 0 0 0 0 0 0 2 2 1 1 1 2 2 2 2 2 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 OR 15
Gangap GWALI
ur 2 1 0 0 0 0 0 0 0 2 2 1 1 2 2 2 2 2 2 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 OR 16
Puranich GWALI
avni 3 2 1 1 0 1 0 0 1 2 2 1 1 2 2 2 1 1 2 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 OR 12
GWALI
Jiraina 1 0 0 0 0 0 0 0 0 2 2 1 2 1 2 2 2 2 2 1 1 1 1 1 2 2 OR 18
GWALI
Jamahar 2 1 1 0 0 0 0 0 0 2 2 1 1 1 2 2 1 2 2 1 1 1 1 1 2 2 OR 15
GWALI
Senthri 1 1 0 0 0 0 0 0 0 2 2 1 1 1 2 2 1 2 2 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 OR 14
Kheriya GWALI
Mirdha 3 2 0 0 0 0 0 0 0 2 2 1 1 1 1 2 2 2 2 2 1 1 1 1 1 1 OR 15
GWALI
Suro 1 1 0 0 0 0 0 0 0 2 2 1 1 1 2 2 2 2 2 1 1 1 1 1 2 2 OR 18
GWALI
Behata 1 1 0 0 0 0 0 0 0 2 2 1 1 1 2 2 2 2 2 1 2 1 1 1 1 1 OR 25
Maithan GWALI
a 1 0 0 0 0 0 0 0 0 2 2 1 1 2 2 2 2 2 2 1 1 1 1 2 1 2 OR 14
Chak
Keshopu GWALI
r 2 1 0 0 0 0 0 0 0 2 2 1 2 1 2 2 2 2 2 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 OR 26
Jahangir GWALI
pur 1 1 0 0 0 0 0 0 0 2 2 1 1 1 2 2 2 2 2 1 1 1 1 1 2 2 OR 9
Birampu GWALI
ra 1 1 0 0 0 0 0 0 0 2 2 1 1 2 2 2 2 2 2 1 1 1 1 1 2 2 OR 15
Maharaj GWALI
pura 1 1 0 0 0 0 0 0 0 2 2 1 1 2 2 2 2 2 2 1 1 1 1 1 2 2 OR 16
Baraua GWALI
Nurabad 2 2 1 0 0 0 1 0 0 1 1 1 1 2 2 2 2 2 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 OR 18
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GWALI
Mau 1 1 0 0 0 0 0 0 0 2 2 1 1 1 2 2 2 2 2 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 OR 15
Laxman GWALI
garh 1 0 0 0 0 0 0 0 0 2 1 1 1 2 2 2 2 1 2 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 OR 18
GWALI
Baretha 3 1 0 0 0 0 1 0 0 2 1 1 1 1 2 2 2 1 2 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 OR 18
Chandu GWALI
pura 2 1 0 0 0 0 0 0 0 2 2 1 1 1 2 2 2 2 2 2 1 1 1 1 1 1 OR 15
Danggut GWALI
hina 1 1 0 0 0 0 0 0 0 2 1 1 1 2 2 2 2 1 2 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 OR 20
Kankatp BAMO
ura 1 0 0 0 0 0 0 0 0 2 2 1 1 2 2 2 2 2 2 2 1 1 1 1 1 1 R 7
BAMO
Pinawali 1 0 0 0 0 0 0 0 0 2 2 1 1 2 2 2 2 2 2 2 1 1 2 2 2 2 R 10
BAMO
Daulsa 1 0 0 0 0 0 0 0 0 2 2 1 1 2 2 2 2 2 2 1 1 1 2 2 2 2 R 10
BAMO
Urhana 1 0 0 0 0 0 0 0 0 2 2 1 1 2 1 2 2 2 2 1 1 1 1 1 2 2 R 13
Kheriya BAMO
Chuneti 1 1 0 0 0 0 0 0 0 2 2 1 1 2 2 2 1 2 2 2 1 1 2 2 2 2 R
Malkhan BAMO
pura 1 1 0 0 0 0 0 0 0 2 2 1 1 2 1 2 2 2 2 1 1 1 1 1 2 2 R 13
BAMO
Kharika 1 1 0 0 0 0 0 0 0 2 2 1 1 2 2 2 1 2 2 1 1 1 2 2 2 2 R
BAMO
Tikari 1 1 0 0 0 0 0 0 0 2 2 1 1 2 2 2 2 2 2 2 1 1 2 2 2 2 R
Kargawa BAMO
n 0 0 0 0 0 0 0 0 0 2 2 1 1 2 2 2 2 2 2 2 1 1 2 2 2 2 R
BAMO
Bhakhari 1 0 0 0 0 0 0 0 0 2 2 1 1 2 2 2 2 2 2 1 2 1 2 2 2 2 R 10
BAMO
Karaula 2 0 0 0 0 0 0 0 0 2 2 1 1 2 1 2 2 2 2 2 1 1 1 1 1 1 R 8
Bhatpur GWALI
a Dang 1 0 0 0 0 0 0 0 0 2 2 1 1 2 2 2 2 2 1 2 1 1 2 2 2 2 OR 18
Baksipur GWALI
a 1 0 0 0 0 0 0 0 0 2 2 1 2 2 2 2 2 2 2 1 1 1 2 2 2 2 OR 20
Badwari 1 0 0 0 0 0 0 0 0 2 2 1 1 2 1 2 2 2 2 1 1 1 1 2 2 2 BAMO
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R
BAMO
Bastpur 1 1 0 0 0 0 0 0 0 2 2 1 2 2 1 2 2 2 2 1 1 1 1 2 2 2 R
BAMO
Mawai 0 0 0 0 0 0 0 0 0 2 2 1 2 2 1 2 2 2 2 1 1 1 2 2 2 2 R
Piparsev GWALI
a 3 1 1 0 0 0 0 0 0 2 2 1 2 2 2 1 2 2 1 1 1 1 1 1 2 2 OR 16
7 3 Status for Availability and Non-Availability is shown as A (1) & NA (2) respectively
Total 2 7 5 1 0 1 4 0 1
Abbreviations:
Educational Facilities:P-Primary School, M-Middle School, SS-Higher Secondary Schools, SSS-Senior Secondary School
Medical Facilities:CHC-Community Health Centre, PHC-Primary Health Centre, PHSC-Primary Health Sub-Centre, MCWC-Maternity and Child Welfare Centre, H-Hospital, Al. H-
Allopathic Hospital, D-Dispensary, FWC-Family Welfare Centre
Drinking Water Facilities:T-Tap Water, W-Well Water, HP-Hand Pump, TW-Tube Well Water, R-River Water, Tk-Tank Water, O-Other Drinking Water Facility
Communication and Transport Facilities: PO-Post Office, SPO-Sub-Post Office, PTO- Post & Telegraph Office, Tel. - Telephone Connection, Mob.-Mobile Phone Coverage, BS-Bus
Services, RS-Railways Services
Approach to Village:PR-Pucca Roads, KR-Kuchha Road, FP-Foot Path
Power Supply:ED-Power Supply for Domestic use, E Ag.-Power Supply for Agricultural use, EC-Power supply for Commercial use, EA-Electricity for All Purpose
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4.1. Approach
Anticipated environmental impact identification and assessment is the most important
activity of any EIA study. It helps in identifying the likely change in environment quality of
surrounding area post implementation of a project. Impact analysis is carried out for all
stages of project viz, design construction and operation stage. Impact analysis is carried
out for all three broad aspects of environment namely physical, biological and socio-
economic aspects. Many scientific techniques and methodologies are available to predict
qualitative and quantitative environmental impacts due to the project.
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14 Dismantling of temporary √ √ √ √ √ √
infrastructure like casting yards,
stores & workshop set up
during construction phase
15 Finishing √ √ √
During Operation Phase
1 Operation of Airport √ √ √ √ √ √ √ √
2 Operation of Aircrafts, vehicular √ √ √ √ √ √ √ √
movement and GSE
3 Operation of other utility √ √ √ √ √ √ √
machinery
4 Passenger handling and cargo √ √ √ √ √ √
handling
5 Waste Handling √ √ √ √ √ √ √
6 Washing and cleaning √ √ √
7 Spillage of Oil, lubricant and √ √ √ √ √
maintenance of machineries
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Mitigation Measures
• Permission shall be taken from concern department prior undertaking tree cutting
• All conditions mentioned in permission letter shall be followed
• Tree felling shall be reduced to extent possible by retaining the existing trees as
greenbelt.
• Compensatory afforestation shall be undertaken as per 1:10 ratio as directed by
Forest Department
• Only native species with less water & maintenance requirement shall be
considered for Compensatory afforestation.
• Survival rate of minimum 70% shall be maintained for Compensatory
afforestation. Compensatory afforestation shall be monitored, and survival rate
report shall be prepared annually.
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utilities of Indian Air Force {Runway, ATC Tower, Navigation system, Fire Fighting
Services, etc.,} for operation of airport. Additional area of 143.20 Acres for proposed
development has been handed over by ICAR to AAI. Land use of the proposed land has
been demarcated under Transportation use as per Gwalior Master Plan,2021.
After development of airport, land use of total 446.12 acres land will remain same i.e.,
Transportation. Thus, no major impact is envisaged due to the project.
Land is undulating land and the elevation varies from 181 m amsl to 199 m amsl,
Levelling of site must be required to maintain the drainage pattern in the site. No major
impact on topography is anticipated due to development of proposed project. However,
few measures to be taken to prevent impact on drainage due to development are given
below.
Mitigation Measures
• Excavated earth will be used for filling and leveling of site to maintain the ground
level wherever required
• Temporary Drainage shall be provided at the construction site, casting/storage
yards, labour camps site as per the natural drainage pattern of the area. These
drains shall be provided with the silt trap and oil & grease traps.
• No drain/stream shall be closed during project construction in any case.
Soil Environment
Soil will be excavated in different parts of project area to different depth, due to which
topsoil may get impacted. Excavation may also lead to soil erosion, loss of soil layer,
destabilizes landscapes and decrease in fertility of soil. Movement of construction
vehicles and equipment will lead to compaction of soil. Spillage of construction materials
like paint, grease, used oil and fuel like HSD may contaminate the soil. Due to improper
disposal of solid waste & liquid waste includes the leaching from biodegradable waste
and effect on flora from spillage of waste on soil. Also, soil if disposed in improper on
unscientific manner may impact the soil quality, air quality and water quality of the area
significantly. Mitigation measures are required to be taken to prevent the soil pollution
which are given below:
Mitigation Measures
• The topsoil shall be stripped from excavation areas (approx. 15 cm as per IRC
guidelines) and stockpiled in covered condition for later reuse in landscaping in
covered sheds.
• No excavation works or tree cutting, or vegetation removal works shall be
undertaken during rainy season.
• Remaining soil shall be stored separately from top soil and shall be used for
filling the site, construction of roads, medians and pavements. As there is large
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variation in the elevation at location of project site, thus most of the soil shall be
used for leveling and filling purpose
• Site shall be cleaned on daily basis. Debris and loose raw material shall be
stored on the paved surfaces in covered condition
• HSD shall be stored on paved surface and drains will be provided around such
surfaces so as to drain out the spillage and prevent mixing from soil.
• Fuel, used oil, paints and loose construction material shall be stored on paved
surface in covered condition only to prevent its spillage. Entry to this area shall
be restricted and only authorized and trained person shall be allowed. Proper
drainage shall be provided around the fuel/used oil/paint storage area so as any
spillage can be collected. These drains shall be provided with oil & grease trap
also to prevent mixing of oil with the site run-off.
• Used oil shall be collected and stored in leak proof container and sent to the
authorized recycler.
• All works shall be taken under supervision of environment expert to prevent
spillage of any of the above-mentioned material and take immediate clean-up
operation in case of spillage
• Dustbins will be provided at the site and labour camp area for collection of the
waste.
• Municipal waste will be segregated into compostable and recyclable waste.
Compostable waste will be sent to Municipal Waste Disposal Site and recyclable
waste will be sold to authorized vendor. Twin bins will be provided in the labour
camp and other area of airport.
• Wastewater from site shall be discharged to septic tanks with soak pits.
• Construction debris shall be collected and segregated into reusable, recyclable
and reject fraction. Reusable material shall be stored at the site in covered
condition, recyclable material shall be sold to the vendors and reject shall be
disposed off as per the guidelines of C& D Waste Management & Handling
Rules, 2016
• Temporary roads shall be provided for movement of the vehicles within the
project site. Vehicle shall move on the routes designated. Parking space shall be
provided within the project site for trucks and cars. So, as there is no soil
compaction due to vehicular movement and parking in all the areas within the
site.
Water Environment
Water Resources & Waste Management
Water will be required for domestic purpose of construction workers and staff and
for carrying out construction activities, curing of structures, material mixing etc.
200 labour will be employed daily, which will be work in three shifts. Labour
camps will be provided within the site. Approx. 10 KLD water will be used for
domestic purposes for construction workers while 5 KLD will be used for
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Mitigation Measures
• No ground water will be extracted until permission from the applicable authorities.
• Workers will be educated to use water wisely and do not leave the taps open
without use. Written notice will be displayed near the water taps for saving water
& closing the taps.
• Wastewater generated from labour will be disposed through Septic tanks with
soak pits.
• Water supply and sanitation facilities will be made available at labour camp and
other areas at site.
• Using curing agents for carrying out curing. If water is used for curing then low
flow sprinklers will be used for curing purpose, curing shall be carried out during
early morning & evening to minimize evaporation, concrete structures shall be
covered with gunny bags after curing is done to conserve the moisture
• Run-off from curing shall be collected through drains into sedimentation tank and
should be re-used for curing or washing of vehicle/machinery or for wheel
washing
• Measures will be taken to save water.
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Groundwater Quality
Ground water will not be used for construction. Source of water for construction will be
approved private water tanker supplier. Excavation will be done during the site
preparation, which can cause de-watering and lead to decrease in Ground water table
and contamination to ground water. Ground water quality of the area may get impacted
due to improper sewerage management and disposal which will be generated from
labour camp site and construction site. Further ground water may also get impacted due
to percolation of contaminants falling on the soil like fuel/oil/used oil/paints etc. Following
measures should be taken to prevent ground water pollution.
Mitigation Measures:
• Toilets shall be provided at the construction site and labour camp site.
• Waste material, lose construction material fuel, paints, emulsions and such raw
material shall be stored in paved area only in covered condition
• Oil spill kits shall be provided at the project site for cleaning the spills, if any
• Measures shall be taken to prevent their spillage and mechanism for immediate
clean-up shall be developed in case of spillage
• Proper waste management system shall be followed at site for municipal waste,
hazardous waste and e-waste management
• Proper drainage will be provided for collection of wastewaters from construction
site, to avoid stagnation of water
• Ground water resources are proposed to be augmented by artificially recharging
ground water aquifers through collected rainwater from site.
Air Environment
Air quality will get impacted in the area during construction phase due to various
project activities including vegetation removal, site preparation, demolition of
structures, excavation and filling, Transportation and storage of raw materials &
debris, movement of construction vehicle, Operation of construction machinery &
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It is anticipated that material will be purchased from the vendors with an average
distance of approx. 100 km then the distance to be travelled by per truck in each
trip is 200 km. Emission load estimations are made for construction phase of the
project per day and are given below in Table 4.3.
Table 4.3 : Quantification of Pollution load due to movement of Trucks (per Day)
Parameter Nos. of Emission Pollution Average Emissions Emissions
trucks Factor Load Distance generated generated
(g/Km) * (g/Km) per to be per day During
day Travelled (kg/day) Construction
(km) in Phase
round trip (Tonnes)
CO 17 6.0 102 200 20.4 9.30
NOx 9.30 158.1 31.62 14.42
PM 1.24 21.08 4.216 1.92
SO2 0.15 2.55 0.51 0.23
HC 0.37 6.29 1.258 0.57
*Source of emission factors: ARAI, Pune and Study by TERI
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As per the baseline data assessment, it is found that all the parameters
monitored, i.e., PM10, PM2.5, SO2, NO2 and CO are well within the permissible
limit. Thus, the impact of increased emission will impact most the particulate
matter concentration in the area. Thus, measures shall be taken to overall reduce
the emissions due to the project to minimize impact on air quality. Suggestive
mitigation measures are given below.
Mitigation Measures
• Transportation of raw material and debris shall be done in vehicles covered with
tarpaulin cover and all the vehicles will have PUC certificate.
• Raw materials/debris/excavated muck shall be properly stacked and stored under
covered conditions at designated areas/storage yards. Debris/muck will be regularly
removed from the site for regular storage/disposal
• Locally available raw material will be preferably used.
• Existing connection of electricity will be taken for operation of machinery/equipment
and lighting at site and usage of DG sets (1 x 250 KVA) shall be minimal.
• Low Sulphur diesel only shall be used as fuel in DG sets. DG sets will be provided
with the stack height as per CPCB norms. DG sets shall be used only in case of
power failure
• Water sprinkling will be carried out at casting & storage yards, construction site,
loading & unloading area, approach road, haulage road, raw material storage area
and muck disposal sites. Flow rate of water sprinklers will be maintained to minimize
the run-off and for effective results
• Adequate parking area shall be provided for vehicle for loading & unloading so as to
prevent parking on the road and causing traffic jams and congestion
• Storage of raw materials like cement, sand, soil, etc. shall be done in covered sheds
or should be covered by tarpaulin cover.
• Vehicles and equipment shall be regularly checked for fitness/serviced and
maintained
• Green belt development will be started at the site during construction phase only
• Construction workers shall be provided with mask
• Vehicles entering the site shall be checked for PUC certificates
• Barricading the site shall be done for suppression of dust generation
• Covering the scaffolding shall be done to minimize dust generation
• Wheel washing arrangement shall be provided at entry/exit points
• Temporary road will be constructed and sprinkled with water for dust suppression
• Separate storage area with barricading for C&D waste management will be provided.
• C&D waste will be handled as per the Construction and Demolition (C&D) Waste
Management Rules, 2016.
Noise Environment
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Source of noise during the construction phase of project will be from construction
activities such as Demolition of existing structures, cutting of trees and vegetation,
excavation, foundation; operation of construction machinery such as vegetation removal
machinery, bulldozer, dumpers, back hoes, loaders, JCBs, concrete mixers, etc. Also,
there will be noise generation from movement of vehicles carrying material, loading &
unloading activities, operation of DG set, etc. However, magnitude of the impact will
depend upon the type and nature of the machinery, time schedule of operations,
construction method and management practices followed during activities. Noise
generation along with vibration may cause mental & physiological effects like
annoyance, headache, auditory impact, and increase in heartbeat of elderly people on
construction labours & nearby people. Though the effect of noise would be insignificant
during daytime, the residential area located at south-west boundary of the project site
which may get disturbed during the night-time. Noise levels generated during various
stages of construction and due to construction machinery and operational activities at
existing site are given below in Table 4.4.
Table 4.4 : Noise Level during various construction phase activities and from
construction machinery
Construction Phase and Equipment for Noise Level in dB(A)
Different Activities
Construction Stage
Demolition 99.3
Ground clearance 85
Excavation 90
Foundation 80
Pile driving 100
Erection 90
Finishing 90
Construction Machinery
Bulldozer 80
Front end loader 85
Dump Truck 94
Crane with ball 88
Scraper 89
Grader 85
Roller 74
Crane 83
Welding generator 82
Concrete mixer 85
Concrete pump 82
Concrete vibrator 76
Air compressor 81
Pneumatic rods 85
Paver 89
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Truck 88
Tamper 79
Backhoe 80
Generator 81
It is evident from the above table that operation of construction machinery & equipment
will generate high noise levels due to which it may affect the health of construction
labour and nearby residents if the adequate mitigation measures are not taken. Highest
noise level during construction phase may reach up to 100 dB (A). The following control
measures will be adopted to keep the ambient noise levels below permissible limits:
Mitigation Measures
• Provision and maintenance of thick tree belts (Non-fruit bearing trees) to screen
noise.
• Avenue plantation within the project area to dampen the noise.
• Proper maintenance of noise generating transport vehicles.
• Regular noise level monitoring shall be carried out for taking corrective action
• Regular maintenance of heavy earth vehicles may be adopted to reduce noise
levels.
• All the construction machinery and equipment used shall be provided with adequate
noise mufflers and noise suppression equipment. Proper lubrication and
maintenance of the machinery & equipment and vehicle will be carried out to
minimize the noise generation due to abrasion
• All noisy activities should be carried out during daytime only (9:00 AM to 10:00 PM).
No noisy works shall be undertaken during nighttime
• Casting yards, batching plants etc. will be located away from residential and
sensitive areas
• Self-compacting concrete will be used in place of consolidating the concrete by
means of vibrators or hand consolidation due to which there will be minimal or
negligible noise and vibration generation
• Temporary noise shields shall be provided all around the heavy noise making
activities.
• Noise level from loading & unloading of material will be reduced by usage of various
types of cranes & placing material on sand or sandy bag beds.
• Noise monitoring shall be carried out to ensure the effectiveness of mitigation
measures and develop a mechanism to record and respond to complaints on noise.
• Adequate parking space will be provided at the project site to minimize the honking
requirement due to congestion and jams and restricting the speed limits.
• Job rotations will be practiced for workers, working in noisy environment.
• Protection devices (earplugs or earmuffs) shall be provided to those workers who
cannot be isolated from the source of noise and reducing the exposure time of
workers to the higher noise levels by rotation.
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• OSHAS guidelines shall be followed for maintaining noise exposure levels of the
construction workers. As per occupation standards, workers’ exposure to 90 dB(A)
noise level should not be more than 8 hours. OSHAS guidelines shall be followed for
exposure to specific noise levels for workers and are listed in Table 4.5.
Mitigation Measures
• Tree will be cut/transplant only after getting approval from the forest department.
• Compensatory plantation shall be done in ratio of 1:10 with consultation of forest
department and DFO.
• Construction sites, casting yards, storage yards etc. shall be regularly sprinkled
with water for dust suppression
• Barricading will be done all around the project boundary to reduce noise and
dust.
• The EMC personnel would be trained to be sensitive to this rare issue
• Extra height barricading shall be done towards residential area.
• No debris/construction waste shall be disposed-off in any water body in the area
or any other vegetated land
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• Workers and staff at the site shall be clearly instructed about not harming any
animal or bird or removing vegetation or cutting any tree for any purpose from the
site and nearby area
• Entire activity area shall be barricaded so as to prevent trespassing of any animal
• No toxic or poisonous substance shall be stored in open which can be
consumed/spilled by any fauna
• Greenbelt will be developed along the city side
• All project activities shall be undertaken with appropriate noise mitigation
measures to avoid disturbance to human as well as faunal population in the
region.
• Activities generating high noise shall be restricted to daytime and will be
mitigated to minimize the noise level outside the site boundary.
Socio-Economic
Project development involves transportation of material and construction
activities. Construction activities have their impacts on surroundings like
unpleasant view, increased traffic, increased noise, emissions, waste generation
& piling of waste etc. All these have impacts on the society. However,
construction phase will generate employment options for skilled and unskilled
labour. Following measures should be taken to minimize the negative impacts on
society.
Mitigation Measures
• Mitigation measures proposed for pollution control shall be adequately followed
• Hygienic conditions shall be maintained at site by provision of dust bins at site for
collection of waste, regular cleaning of site, provision of toilets at site, regular
disposal of construction spoils, avoiding stockpiling of construction material at
site etc.
• Barricading the site shall be done to obstruct the unpleasant view.
• Water ponding shall be avoided at the site as it encourages breeding of
mosquitoes.
• Clean drinking water facility shall be provided for construction labour.
• Toilets and bathing facility shall be provided at the site to prevent open
defecation and unhygienic conditions at site.
• Proper drainage and wastewater collection shall be provided at the site.
• Adequate disposal of sewage generated from toilets and bathrooms shall be
provided.
• Dustbins shall be provided at site for collection of waste and workers shall be
made aware for using the dustbins.
Construction activities involve various risks for construction labour like slip, fall,
fire, collapse of structure etc. Accidents at construction site can be fatal not only
for workers but for the residents of nearby areas. Following measures should be
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Mitigation Measure:
• Dustbins shall be provided at site for collection of municipal waste. Municipal
waste will be segregated into compostable and recyclable waste. Compostable
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waste will be disposed off to Municipal Waste Disposal Site and recyclable waste
will be given to approved vendor.
• Construction debris is bulky and heavy and re-utilization and recycling is an
important strategy for management of such waste. As concrete and masonry
constitute the majority of waste generated, recycling of this waste by conversion
to aggregate can offer benefits of reduced landfill space and reduced extraction
of raw material for new construction activity.
• Construction sites are sources of many toxic substances, such as paints,
solvents, wood preservatives, pesticides, adhesives and sealants. Hazardous
waste generated during construction phase shall be stored-in sealed containers,
labeled, and disposed of as required by the Hazardous Wastes (Management)
• Construction waste will be segregated into inert, recyclable/reusable and
discarded material. Majorly waste will be used within the site for site leveling and
construction of roads. Recyclable material will be sold to authorize dealers. Re-
usable material will be stored under covered conditions at site and reject will be
disposed off at the designated locations by local body. C&D waste management
rules 2016 will be followed.
• Hazardous waste like used oil from DG sets and machinery shall be stored in
sealed containers and shall be disposed off through authorized agencies only
• Waste storage shall be done on paved surface and covered area only
• Waste carrying vehicles shall not be overloaded and shall be always covered
• Construction and Demolition Waste will be reused for backfilling to major extend
and rest will be sent to C&D Waste site. Hierarchy showing Disposal of C&D
waste is given in Figure 4.1.
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Soil Environment
Soil erosion may happen, if open areas are left without paving or plantation.
Thus, it is required to either pave or green the open areas. Soil may get
contaminated, if sewage is disposed of on the soil, littering of municipal waste, e-
waste and spillage of HSD, oil and fuel. Thus, best management practices shall
be adopted to avoid the contamination of soil. Mitigation measures are listed
below:
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Mitigation Measures
• Proper municipal solid waste collection, management, treatment and disposal
system shall be followed for management of solid waste. Municipal waste shall
be segregated at source into compostable waste, recyclable waste and inert
waste by provision of three colour bins. A separate storage room for municipal
waste shall be provided at site with storage capacity of 2-3 days. Compostable
waste shall be treated within the site in organic waste convertor, recyclable waste
shall be sold to the vendors and the inert fraction shall be disposed through the
local agencies in area on daily basis.
• Solid waste collection and disposal area will be paved area to avoid
contamination of soil through leachate.
• A room shall be provided at site for storage of e-waste and e-waste shall be sold
off on regular basis to authorized vendors only.
• Fuel, Waste oil from Aircrafts, machineries, DG sets and aircraft maintenance
area shall be stored in HDPE containers and stored in isolated paved areas.
These paved surfaces will be provided with the drains and oil interceptors
installed in the drains. It shall be sold to authorized vendors on regular basis.
• Water less cleaning will be done wherever spill occurs to avoid runoff of water
• No left-over construction debris or material should be stored at site
• Sewerage generated shall be collected from whole airport through separate line
and treated in proposed STP and no sewerage shall be disposed off on the land.
• No area shall be left excavated or open after any repair & maintenance works
• Hazardous waste, if any should be stored, managed, transported and disposed
as per Hazardous & Other Waste Rules, 2016
• Authorization shall be obtained from SPCB for generation of hazardous waste.
Water Environment
Water Resources & Waste Management
The total water requirement of airport will be 845 KLD. Out of total, 357 KLD
freshwater will be met by Nagar Nigam Supply. Freshwater will be used for
domestic usage and HVAC Cooling make up in the airport premises. Total
wastewater generation will be 514 KLD that will be treated in proposed Sewage
Treatment Plant of capacity 600 KLD. Approx. 488 KLD treated water will be
generated from STP treatment that will be reused in the airport for flushing,
HVAC Cooling, gardening and miscellaneous purposes. Fresh water will be met
through Municipal Supply. Thus, it is required to adopt measures for water
conservation to minimize the water requirement.
The wastewater can deteriorate the surface water quality of nearby water body
by increase in the no. of pathogens, BOD, COD, TSS, etc if not disposed off
properly. Thus, wastewater of 530 KLD will be treated in proposed Sewage
Treatment Plant of capacity 600 KLD. Approx. 504 KLD treated water will be
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generated from STP treatment that will be reused in the airport for flushing,
HVAC Cooling, and gardening purposes. It will be a
Mitigation Measures
• Dual plumbing system shall be provided so as STP treated water can be re used
for flushing, HVAC Cooling, and gardening purposes.
• Dip irrigation system will be adopted
• Dry cleaning will be adopted in the airport.
• Lavatory waste from Aircraft will be treated in in-house STP.
• Adoption of water conservation measures like usage of low flow taps, provision of
dual flushing cisterns, tap aerators, sensor-based taps in commercial area, ultra
low flow urinals in commercial area, low faucet taps, auto control valves and
pressure reducing devices
• Adoption of automatic alarm system for controlling overflow of tanks
• Provision of flow meters to account for the water usage and keeping regular
check on the water usage pattern as it helps in identifying major water leaks/loss.
• Provision of proper leak detection and repair system
• Pipelines and tanks shall be cleaned and maintained properly on regular basis
• Provision of storm water collection from roof area, paved and unpaved area,
storage and recharging pit at the site for recharging ground water.
• Runoff from fuel storage, maintenance area and taxiway area will be channelized
to storm water line through oil interceptors.
• Separate storage area will be provided for solid waste management to avoid
mixing of leachate with runoff or wastewater.
• Water audit will be done to conserve water
• Regular cleaning of rainwater harvesting pit through agency will be done.
• Piezometer will be installed with rainwater harvesting pit for assess ground water.
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Mitigation Measures:
• STP is proposed to be constructed at site to treat the sewage..
• An agency shall be hired for operation and maintenance of STP.
• No treated or untreated sewage will be disposed off in any water body or land.
• Oil spill kits shall be provided at the project site for cleaning the spills, if any
• Measures shall be taken to prevent their spillage and mechanism for immediate
clean-up shall be developed in case of spillage.
• Proper waste management system shall be followed at site for municipal waste,
hazardous waste and e-waste management
• Regular monitoring for performance of STP shall be done. Standards given by
MoEF&CC will be complied.
• Runoff from fuel storage, maintenance area, taxi way area will be channelized to
storm water line through oil interceptors
• Usage of only bio-fertilizers/bio-pesticides in green area so as to minimize the
contamination of run-off with any chemical
• Site shall be kept clean and proper system for waste management shall be
adopted to mitigate exposure of run-off with waste
• All the open areas at site shall be paved or green to minimize sedimentation of
run-off.
• Rainwater harvesting pit will be provided with Oil & grease tap.
Air Environment
There are different sources of air pollution during operation phase of airport which
directly and indirectly affects the atmosphere. Air emissions include dust, SO2, NOx, CO,
HC, VOC, PM10& PM2.5 and other Pollutants. VOCs may generate from fueling which
may degrade the ambient air quality and also cause eyes irritation, acute respiratory
disorders and may also affect the immune system of the people living nearby and also of
the workers. Increased level of air pollution in certain states of India may result in
operational constrains and reduced international travels and tourism; it may also lead to
low visibility situations around the airport. The different source of Air Pollution in an
Airport is given below in Table 4.7
Table 4.7 : Source of Air Pollution in an Airport
Source Category Specific Source
Aircraft and APU Ground (reflecting taxi-idle, delay)
Ground to 3,000 ft (reflecting takeoff, climb out, and
approach)
Above 3,000 ft
Aircraft engine tests
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For Aircraft emission, the FAA indicated on a mass basis, emissions are “composed of
about 70% CO2, a little less than 30% H20, and less than 1% each of NOx, CO, SOx,
VOC, PM and other trace components including Hazardous Air Pollutants”. Most of the
emissions are emitted during cruise “Cruise” (above 3,000 ft [914.4m]) including about
90% of the CO2 emitted and 70% of the CO emitted (FAA, 2005, p.1.). Globally, between
18% to 44% of aircraft emissions are emitted in the stratosphere (Gettelman &
Baughcum 1999). In addition to this, Airport emits green house gases (GHGs) like
Carbon dioxide (CO2), Methane (CH4), Nitrous oxide (N20), Sulfur hexafluoride (SF6),
Hydroflurocarbons (HFC) and Perflurocarbons (PFC). These GHGs generally represent
the most notable GHGs bases on a combination of the quantity of pollutant emitted and
potential for exerting climate change effects. For aviation, emission of HFC and PFC are
less significant because these compounds are generally emitted from industrial
activities. They can be emitted from airport activities associated with use of refrigeration
and fire extinguishers only.
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In addition to the direct emissions, consideration can often be given to the other
following pollutants that have the potential to exert climate change effects: water vapor
(H2O), particulate matter (PM), sulfur oxides (SOx), oxides of nitrogen (NOx), carbon
monoxide (CO), and nonmethane volatile organic compounds (NMVOC). These
pollutants can produce some direct effects, but their main contributions are as
precursors for indirect effects.
The direct effects that H2O exert tend to be dominated by the normal, natural hydrologic
cycle (rainfall, evaporation, etc.). However, water vapor still may have an important
effect, especially for direct emissions into the stratosphere as occur for some aircraft
flights. Similarly, the effects produced by PM species (i.e., black carbon or soot and
sulfate aerosols) can be important. SOx adds to this effect since it can react in the
atmosphere and form sulfate aerosols. NOx can also produce nitrate aerosols.
Different activities & Methods are considered to quantify the emission due to the airport.
Few are given below
2
Guidebook on Preparing Airport Greenhouse Gas Emissions Inventories (2009) - http://nap.edu/14225
3
United States Environmental Protection Agency (USEPA). Climate Leaders Greenhouse Gas Inventory Protocol–
Design Principals.Washington, D.C. May 2005.
4
Energy Information Administration (EIA). Voluntary Reporting of Greenhouse Gases Program, Fuel and Energy
Source Codes and Emission Coefficients. http://www.eia.doe.gov/oiaf/1605/coefficients.html. Washington, D.C. 2008.
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The above emissions from aircraft is in atmosphere during its overall journey i.e., arrival
to Destination including LTO cycle (Ground to 3,000 ft (reflecting takeoff, climbout, and
approach) and Cruise (above 3,000 ft). Figure Showing LTO Cycle and Cruise is given in
Figure 4.8.
5
Good Practice Guidance and Uncertainty Management in National Greenhouse Gas Inventories - https://www.ipcc-
nggip.iges.or.jp/public/gp/bgp/2_5_Aircraft.pdf- Page 95
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Environmental Impacts and their most relevant heights above ground level (AGL)
is given in Figure 4.9.
Figure 4.3 : Environmental Impacts and their most relevant heights AGL
Mitigation Measures
I. Airline Initiatives6:
Fuel cost of any airline is the largest constituent of their operational cost and any
saving in fuel cost leads to decrease in the total operational cost with an addition
benefit of reduction in carbon emissions as well. With this objective, airlines have
started adopting following measures that help them in reducing their fuel
consumptions leading to reduction in carbon emissions too:
6
ICAO-Working Paper- Assembly -39th Session
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Noise Levels
During operation of an airport, movement of aircraft and vehicle are the main line source
of noise pollution and impact in the broad area. The impact of other source of noise
pollution like DG sets, motors, GSE, etc is limited to the premises only. Noise from
aircraft depends upon type of aircraft, daily air traffic, meteorology of the area, technique
of takeoff and landing, LTO cycle, etc. Aircraft noise near airports poses major health
and environmental risk raising public concerns. Noise may cause speech interference,
annoyance, hearing impairment, increase in heartbeat/ blood pressure of the human.
Noise due to Aircraft Traffic
In Noise Propagation Model, the sound pressure level generated by noise sources
decreases with increasing distance from the source due to wave divergence. An
additional decrease in sound pressure level from the source is expected due to
atmospheric effect or its interaction with object in the transmission path. For
hemispherical sound wave propagation through homogenous loss free medium, noise
levels at various locations can be calculated due to different sources using the inverse
square law.
Simulation of noise levels from the aircrafts has been considered as a stationary
point source at the following major positions:
• Take Off
• Taxiing Along the Runway (at the central point)
• Landing on the Run-way
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Mitigation Measure:
• Green belt and green area will be developed along the terminal building, road
side and parking area.
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Socio Economic
The development of the proposed airport will induce economic and social
benefits to the people in the project influence zone. Economic development not
only in the direct influence area, but also for the surroundings and would
generate employment opportunities. The employment opportunities will grow
steadily resulting in more demand of skilled, educated and un-skilled people
thereby increasing the standard of education in nearby villages. The commercial
development such as budget hotels, office space, retail outlets, food-courts,
multiplexes and market zone shall lift the socio-economic status of the area. The
aviation industry itself is a source of considerable economic activity, creating jobs
that directly serve passengers at airlines, airports and air navigation services
providers. These include check-in, baggage handling, onsite retail, cargo and
catering facilities. These could be a push for people in the project influence area
to scale up their primary education enrolment for women and children, to cater to
the requirement of new works and employment opportunities that will be created
by the airport as well as its allied services like the hotel industry, transport,
tourism, etc.
Impacts due to land acquisition, which could have directly affected people
holding private land and having structures on such, land is not envisioned for this
proposed project. The parcel of land has been limited to government held lands
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and will only result in the transfer of land from one government department to
another and not acquisition. There are no affected families or person for the
proposed project. Thus, the project is anticipated to have positive impacts on the
socio-economic environment
However, due to operation & maintenance there may be various risks for the staff,
passengers and other nearby people. The risks associated are accidents accident of
people, collapse of structures, fall/slip while working, electrical shocks, electrical fire, fire
in DG sets & fuel tanks, health impact due to air & noise pollution etc. Various safety
measures are proposed to be followed which should be taken to prevent the accidents
and near miss.
Mitigation Measures
• All the staff shall be given training for carrying out the work assigned keeping the
safety as priority.
• All staff shall be provided with personal protective equipment like ear
plugs/mufflers, masks, gloves, etc as required.
• Periodic inspection of PPE should be done to ensure that they are in proper
condition by keeping the records
• All OSHAS guideline will be followed at the airport
• Medical Tests shall be undertaken for workers working in highly noisy area.
• Health check-ups shall be undertaken for workers every year
• Proper signage about the stations, entry, exit, fire exit, directions, safety
messages, conservation of energy & water, non-spitting, non-littering, restricted
entry etc. should be provided at all the place to make the passenger and staff
about the risks involved and required safety measures to be taken
• Walking on the runway will be restricted
• Proper guards/safety provision shall be made. Entry beyond the certain points
should be restricted for the passengers
• Entry to the control rooms, firefighting rooms, DG area and other similar areas
shall be restricted for passengers and entry of such areas will be guarded
• Certified First aid trainer shall be present at all the airport all the time
• Mock drills should be conducted to train staff for handling emergency situations
• Emergency preparedness & response plan prepared for the project shall be
followed.
• Dos and Don’ts during the natural calamity and accidents should be displayed at
stations and in metro for passengers and staff so as they know what is to be
done during and after emergency.
• Trainings shall be conducted for drivers on regular basis to train them about the
safety procedures and strictly following the rules
• Regular monitoring, servicing & maintenance of all the signaling, transmission
and communication system to minimize the chances of accidents
• Fire-fighting equipment shall be provided at all the locations
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Municipal Waste
Total solid waste generation from the airport will be 3532 kg/day. Out of total,
1758 kg/day of biodegradable waste will be treated in Organic Waste Convertor
for reuse as manure. 16 kg/day of STP Sludge will be used directly for manure in
green area. 1758 kg/day of recyclable waste will be given to authorized recyclers.
Solid Waste Management Rules, 2016 will be followed.
Mitigation Measure:
• Proper municipal solid waste collection, management, treatment and disposal
system shall be followed for management of solid waste. Municipal waste shall
be segregated at source into compostable waste, recyclable waste and inert
waste by provision of three colour bins. A waste storage room for municipal
waste shall be provided at site with storage capacity of 2-3 days. Compostable
waste shall be treated within the site in organic waste convertor, recyclable waste
shall be sold to the vendors and the inert fraction shall be disposed through the
local agencies in area on daily basis.
• Deplane waste will be collected in HDPE bags and sent to the in-house solid
waste management area for treatment/disposal
• Airport Council International’s (ACI) policy and recommended practices
Handbook will be followed for waste management at airport which promotes to
avoid, to reduce, re reuse, to recycle and finally to dispose the waste.
• A separate room shall be provided at site for storage of e-waste and e-waste
shall be sold off on regular basis to authorized vendors only
• Training will be provided to the workers
• No use of plastic will be promoted
• Waste audit at airport will be done
• Waste management and reduction plan will be made
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Hazardous waste
Hazardous waste may generate during the ground vehicle maintenance, aircraft
cleaning, fueling operations, aircraft maintenance and repair work, and engine test cell
operations.
Mitigation Measure:
• No hazardous substance or waste will be handled in cargo.
• Waste oil, lubricant from machineries, equipment, maintenance yard, DG set
shall be stored in HDPE containers and stored in isolated paved areas. It shall be
sold to authorized vendors on regular basis.
• Fuel shall be stored in isolated location on paved areas to prevent contamination
of soil due to spillage. Drains shall be provided around Fuel storage yards and
drains will be fitted with oil interceptors.
• Dyked enclosure will be the component of storage of hazardous material.
• Separate vehicle maintenance area will be demarcated to prevent water or soil
contamination
• Minimum use of hazardous cleaning agent will be done
• Dry cleaning will be undertaken during spillage of oil or other hazardous waste
• Standard Signage will be provided
• Hazardous & Other Waste (Management & Transboundary Movement) Rules,
2016 will be followed
• Compliance to SWM, E-waste, BMW, C&D Waste, battery waste, rules shall be
adhered.
4.7. Conclusion
From above analysis, it is found that the impacts anticipated vary from high to
low significance and magnitude. Major anticipated impact of the project are due
to increased noise levels, polluted air quality and tree cutting. However, major
impact during operation phase is increased noise level and air pollution. The
project also has various positive impacts like reduction in carbon emissions
through use of aircraft instead of road, improved overall air quality of the area by
reducing vehicle movement, better transportation system and improved economy
of the state. It is believed that the anticipated negative impacts can be
normalized by taking the proposed mitigation measures.
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Energy Conservation
Project development will increase the energy demand. Estimated power requirement of
the project is 4439 kVA. Thus, it is required to conserve the energy by adopting best
management practices and utilizing the energy efficient material and equipment. Energy
conservation program will be implemented through measures taken both on energy
demand and supply. Energy conservation is integral part of our project planning. Energy
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saving will help saving the energy as well as the cost for the power usage. The
conservation efforts would consist of the following:
• Natural Ventilation: The project team will design the building following all the
necessary provisions of NBC 2016 including the design guidelines for Natural
Ventilation.
• Minimum equipment efficiencies: The project will meet all the minimum
equipment efficiency norms under ECBC for Unitary AC Systems, Electric
Heaters, Ceiling Fans etc.
• Controls: The project will give all the necessary controls required for heating and
cooling equipment’s.
• Building HVAC design and systems: The project will be providing cooling in the
building through Central air-conditioning system. As the building is in construction
phase, hence for now conditioned area is on basis of assumption & integrative
discussion with the architect about the conditioned area. To meet the ECBC
requirement, the project building will install Chiller with minimum COP of 6.2.
• Piping and ductwork: The piping systems will have insulation meeting the ECBC-
2017 criteria.
• Condensers: Condensers shall be located such that the heat sink is free of
interference from heat discharge by devices located in adjoining spaces, and do
not interfere with other such systems installed nearby.
• Automatic Controls: Astronomical time switch which will be provided for exterior
lighting.
• Exterior lighting control: Astronomical time switch will be provided for automatic
control of exterior lighting.
• Transformer: Minimum BEE 3-star rated transformers will be installed to maintain
the power losses as per table 8.1 at 50% and 100% loading of ECBC-2017.
• Motors (type, efficiency): The motors better than IE-2, IS 12615 rated motors
shall be installed.
• Check metering and monitoring: The project will install smart meters that can
display kVA, kWh, PF, current, voltage, THD.
• Power factor correction: Automatic Power Factor Corrector (APFC) will be
integrated with the transformer to maintain the power factor close to unity.
• Power Distribution System: Project will install cables of adequate size to maintain
the internal power distribution losses at max 1%.
The total energy consumption of the baseline case is 3679800 kWh whereas the total
energy consumption of the proposed case is 2676300 kWh. Which leads to a total
savings of around 27.3% for the project building.
Water Conservation
Water consumption in airport terminals is affected by landscape irrigation demand;
demand from commercial/retail facilities, restrooms, and kitchen spaces; as well as
cooling towers and maintenance uses. Decreasing the demand for large volumes of
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water can decrease overall maintenance costs and life-cycle costs, as well as reduce
costs through lower water usage and lower sewage treatment. Following measures are
considered to conserve the water.
• Fresh Water demand of the project has been tried to minimize by adopting dual
plumbing alternative in place of conventional single piping system. Dual plumbing
system in place of conventional plumbing system enables usage of STP treated
for various uses and minimizes the fresh water demand.
• Specifying low- Flow fixtures for restroom lavatories, toilets, and urinals can
significantly reduce the amount of water used on site, without large up-front costs
and a relatively short payback period.
• Installing signage to explain how the flush valves work in each stall helps ensure
the toilets will be used correctly and water efficiency will be maximized.
• Low-flow urinals and fuzzy logic urinals are big contributors to water savings in
men’s rooms. Fuzzy logic flushing systems conserve water by measuring the
length and frequency of use, and flush an appropriate amount. Dry urinals or
waterless urinals also contribute to water and sewage savings in men’s rooms.
These urinals eliminate the use of water for flushing except for maintenance.
Specialized sealant liquids and innovative urinal traps are used to prevent odor
• In the project scheme, proposal of rain water harvesting is considered instead of
discharging storm water into the storm water drains of city. It is proposed rain
water will be collected from the site and will be recharged into ground through 6
nos. of pits.
Construction material
It is generally anticipated that building & construction projects do not have high
emissions and discharges involved. However, emissions and discharges are involved
but indirectly. Production of construction raw material is one of the majorly polluting
sector e.g. cement plant, brick kilns, steel plants, batching plants etc. Some of the
construction materials are energy intensive and their manufacturing involves large
amount of energy consumption. Along with the energy requirement, emissions and raw
material requirement for production of construction raw material, additional cost is
associated which is transportation of construction material. Transportation of material to
longer distance will add to cost, fuel requirement, emission and time.
Thus, analysis has been made to opt for less energy intensive raw material. Locally
available raw material, i.e. sandstone shall be used for construction purpose to the
extent possible. Additionally, option for usage of fly-ash bricks and fly-ash mix cement is
also considered. Additionally, best practices shall be adopted like avoiding stock piling of
material at site, storage of raw material under covered sheds and careful usage of raw
material. These alternatives to some extent will reduce the requirement of raw material
and energy footprints of the building.
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6.1. Objective
Monitoring program has the underlying objective to ensure that the intended
environmental mitigations are realized and these results in desired benefits to the target
population causing minimal deterioration to the environmental parameters. Such
program targets proper implementation of the EMP. The broad objectives are:
• Air Quality & DG Stack monitoring with respect to Particulate Matters (PM10,
PM2.5), NOx, SO2, CO and HC.
• Water Quality for parameters defined in IS 10500: 2012.
• Noise levels as per CPCB Guidelines and at selected locations.
• Soil Quality
• Survival rates of trees planted and Green area development
• Workspace Monitoring
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Ambient air quality parameters recommended for monitoring the project are
Particulate Matters (PM10& PM2.5), Nitrogen Dioxide (NO2), Sulphur Dioxide
(SO2), Carbon Monoxide (CO) and Hydrocarbon (HC). These are to be
monitored, right from the commencement of construction activity at selected
locations on site, excavation works, residential areas near the project site etc.
Data is generated once in a season excluding monsoon at the monitoring
locations in accordance with the National Ambient Air Quality Standards
formulated 2009. Any Deviation from the standards shall be examined and action
will be taken to control.
Also, emission from DG sets stack shall be monitored as per MoEF&CC and
CPCB guideline. Regular maintenance of DG set shall be done to control the
emission from DG sets.
Continuous online Air quality Monitoring system shall be installed at the airside to
monitor changes in air quality due to the project operation.
Inlet & Outlet of STP (pH, BOD, COD, TSS, FC, etc.) shall be examined to maintain
Standards given by MoEF&CC. Any Increase in parameter will be recorded and
corrective action shall be taken. Online SCADA system will be installed to check the
efficiency of the STP.
Workplace Monitoring
The monitoring will be done in work zone area to monitor airborne pollutant as per
OHSAS guidelines. OHSAS norms shall be followed at the airport to control the
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pollutant at work site and maintain the threshold limit given by OHSAS. Indoor air
quality will be monitored at site as per GRIHA norms.
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7.2. Approach
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Gwalior Airport will deal with two materials, which are generally hazardous in
nature by virtue of their intrinsic chemical properties (highly inflammable). Fire,
explosion, toxic release or combinations of these are the hazards associated with
projects/ plants using hazardous chemicals. More comprehensive, systematic
and sophisticated methods of Safety Engineering, such as, Hazard Analysis
and Quantitative Risk Assessment have now been developed to improve upon
the integrity, reliability and safety of such projects.
Together, these three broad tools attempt to minimize the chances of accidents
occurring. Yet, there always exists, no matter how remote, probability of
occurrence of a major accident. If the accident involves highly hazardous
chemicals in sufficiently large quantities, the consequences may be serious to the
plant, to surrounding areas and the populations residing therein. It may happen
usually as the result of a malfunction of the normal operating procedures. It may
also be precipitated by the intervention of an outside force such as a cyclone,
flood, earthquake or deliberate acts of arson or sabotage. This chapter deals with
the risks associated with the Plant, its mitigation, and the Disaster Management
Plan.
Several hazards may endanger the Airport, health and safety of workers and may
cause danger to the surrounding environment. The following hazards are to be
identified, assessed and suitable preventive/mitigating plans taken prior to rolling
out project works initiation. Details of Hazards are given in Table 7.1:
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risk zone
Lightening Electrical energy from lightning will flow out in all
directions of lowest electrical impedance to equalize
the electrical potential. Lightning poses a serious
threat to the safety of people working outdoors:
• Refuelling
• Catering
• Other aircraft services
• Baggage handling
• Aircraft marshalling, towering etc.
• Passenger boarding/deplaning (passenger
stairs)
• Airport workers maintaining airports grounds
Wildlife Strike • Mawai Reserved Forest (3.55 km, NE);
• Baragaon Reserved Forest (9.06 km, SE);
• Thar Reserved Forest (9.23 km, SW)
Man Leakage of Though no ATF will be stored at the airport for
Made flammable refuelling of aircraft. However during refuelling or
material through/pipe leakage ATF spillage can be there/fire
can result in hazardous situation. Thus, Chances of
explosion are there.
Crashing of This can occur due to technical fault.
aircraft
Bomb Threat Terrorism Risk
Air raids
Sabotage
Hijacking
Fire & This can be occur due to the electric spark, leakage
explosion in fuelling area, fire in fuel storage area, fire in
aircraft, fire in GSE etc.
Electricity Fatalities can arise due to electric shocks, burns and
when contacted with overhead or underground
power cables.
Mechanical The Mechanical fault can cause the risk & hazard
which include the Aircraft, GSE, elevator, DG sets
Chemical Spillage of oil and other chemicals.
7.4. Preventions
As per Hazard identified, few measures will be adopted to reduce the risk at the
first place. Details are given below:
7.4.1. Flood
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• Sukh River (0.80 km W), Morar River (4.27 km,SE) and Sonrekha River
(5.16 km W) flows around the airport. Due to heavy rain flooding of the
project site is not ruled out.
• Drainage & Sewerage System will be provided all over the project site
• Rainwater harvesting will be designed for peak rainfall
• Cleaning of Storm water line and rainwater harvesting will be done prior
to the monsoon season
• Sewage line will be connected through outside sewerage system for
disposal of excess sewage.
7.4.2. Earthquake
• Structure will be design as per NBC 2016.
• All norms for safety of structure will be followed
• All the raw material will be chosen as per standard norms laid by NBC
2016.
7.4.3. Lightning
• Lightning detectors will be used at airport for recording, analyzing and
predicting of thunderstorms. Figure showing procedure for safety
during lightning is given in Figure 7.1
• Use of an automated warning and alerting system
• Ensure that the building is well grounded and every conductive path is
bonded to the ground system.
• Lightning arrestor will be installed at every building.
• Fuel servicing operations shall be suspended where there are lightning
flashes in the immediate vicinity of the airport.
• A written procedure shall be established for fuelling operations.
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7
Wildlife Hazard Management at Airports second Edition, July 2005 approved by FAA (Prepared by Ledward C. Clearly and Richard
A. Dolbeer)- page 115
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Figure 7.2 : List of the relative hazard of various species group based on the
reported strikes
Airports are responsible for bird control and should provide adequate wildlife
control measures. If large birds or flocks of birds are reported or observed near
the runway, the flight crew should consider:
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• Delaying the takeoff or landing when fuel permits. Advise the tower and wait
for airport action before continuing.
• Take off or land on another runway that is free of bird activity, if available.
To prevent or reduce the consequences of a bird strike, the flight crew should:
• Discuss bird strikes during takeoff and approach briefings when operating at
airports with known or suspected bird activity.
• Be extremely vigilant if birds are reported on final approach. If birds are
expected on final approach, plan additional landing distance to account for the
possibility of no thrust reverser use if a bird strike occurs.
• Pilots should not rely on onboard weather radar, landing lights, airplane
markings, time of day, or visibility to prevent bird strikes.
• Flight operations may need to be modified in the presence of known or
anticipated bird activity.
• Delay takeoff or landing in the presence of bird activity.
• Below 10,000 feet, keep speed below 250 knots if operationally possible.
• Below 2,000 feet, climb at the maximum rate to reduce the flight time
exposure to a strike hazard.
• Descend with idle power and avoid extended low-altitude level flight,
particularly over water courses, nature reserves, or other areas of known or
expected bird activity.
• When landing is assured, consider landing through birds versus a missed
approach to avoid birds. This reduces the energy of the collision, the potential
for increased damage associated with engines at a high power level, and the
potential for multiple engine ingestions at low airplane energy states and low
altitude.
• Avoid or minimize manoeuvring at low altitude to avoid birds.
Four basic control strategies are available to solve wildlife problems on airports:
• Aircraft flight schedule modification: Pilot could be advised not to depart
during a 20-minuted period at sunrise or sunset during winter when large flocks
of blackbirds cross an airport going to and from an off-airport roosting site. Air
traffic controllers on occasion might need to temporarily close a runway with
unusually high bird activity or a large mammal (e.g., deer) incursion until wildlife
control personnel can disperse the animals.
• Habitat Modification and exclusion: Habitat modification means changing the
environment to make it less attractive or inaccessible to the problem wildlife. All
wildlife requires food, cover, and water to survive. Any action that reduces,
eliminates, or excludes one or more of these elements will result in a proportional
reduction in the wildlife population at the airport. Habitat modifications to make
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Habitat modifications to minimize food cover, and water and physical barriers to exclude
wildlife are the foundations of wildlife hazard management programs for airports. In
addition, an integrated array of repellent techniques is necessary to disrupt normal
behaviour and to stress hazardous wildlife that attempt to use the airport. These
repellent techniques must be used judiciously and backed by real threats to minimize
habituation. To this end, lethal control of selected individuals of common species is
sometimes necessary to reinforce repellent actions. Furthermore, the management of a
wildlife hazard situation on an airport might require removal of a particular animal or
group of animals or require that a local population of a problem species be reduced by
lethal means until a long-term, nonlethal solution is implemented. Finally, the most
critical factor for the success of a wildlife hazard management program is to have
motivated and trained professionals who are knowledgeable about the wildlife species
attempting to use the airport environment and the techniques used to manage the
problems these species create.
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The Contingency plan to deal with Bomb Threat in Civil Aviation at proposed
Gwalior Civil Airport/Enclave is developed to ensure that the Aviation Security
measures and responsibilities are clearly defined and understood by all the users
of Gwalior Airport. The Contingency Plan to bomb threat in Civil Aviation at
Gwalior Airport clarify and detailed all measures that are required to be
implemented at Gwalior Airport to meet requirements of the National Civil Aviation
Security Program.
The Contingency Plan to deal bomb threat in Civil Aviation at Gwalior Airport is
primarily to address specific Aviation Security legislation, administered by BCAS,
Govt. of India.
Provision has also been made for procuring adequate quantity of security
equipment namely, hand-held metal detector, door frame metal detector, x-ray
baggage scanning machines etc.
The security at the airport shall be provided by highly trained manpower by CISF.
Access to all the vital facilities and installations shall be guarded and controlled by
CISF as per BCAS directives from time to time.
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The rupture of fuel tanks in an aircraft crash and the consequent spillage of highly
volatile fuels, and other flammable liquids used by aircraft, present a high degree
of probability of ignition, if these liquids come into contact with hot metal parts of
the aircraft or because of sparks caused by the movement of wreckage or
disturbance of the electrical circuit. Fires may also occur through the discharge of
accumulated electrostatic charges at the time of ground contact or during fuelling
operations. An outstanding characteristic of aircraft fires is their tendency to reach
lethal intensity within a very short time. For this reason, the provision of adequate
and special means of dealing promptly with an aircraft accident or incident
occurring at, or in the immediate vicinity of, an airport assumes primary
importance because it is within this area that there are maximum opportunities of
saving lives.
Building fire protection systems have been categorized into Active measures and
Passive measures. Active measures involve the detection and alarm that informs
the occurrence of a fire and triggers sort of counteraction towards fire
extinguishment and; control of smoke spread.
Passive fire protection measures are proactive approach taken at building design
stage. Passive measures are concerned with building structure integrity,
compartmentation etc. The priority of Structural Fire Protection is to carry out
search & rescue operation without the building collapsing and prevent
disproportionate damage to property. During the detailed design process, due
care will be taken to provide an effective and safe design from a fire safety point.
Consideration need to be given to both Active and Passive Fire Protection.
All buildings would be designed such that occupant could escape to the place of
ultimate safety this should be in the open air where dispersal, away from the
building, can be achieved when fire occurs and to ensure that adequate escape
routes are also provided. Automatic fire detection and alarm system would be
installed in all areas used by public as per norms of national fire protection
association. All the areas shall be served by hydrant system/wet riser for fire
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Fire exits plans will be conspicuously posted on each floor showing clearly the
routes to appropriate exits. Emergency lighting for exit signage in English and
Hindi, and adequate egress illumination in the event of a power outage, shall be
incorporated in the design.
First aid firefighting appliances would also be provided at all Terminal Building,
Security Hold Area with 4 no. of aerobridges and bus lounge area, Parking Area
Electrical Substations, and Aircraft Hanger etc.
Other measures:
• Safety officers will be appointed
• Routine Drill will be done
• All fire safety equipment will be installed in the complex as per norms
o Fire Hydrant
o Fire Extinguishers
o Sprinkler
o Fire Sensor
o Alarm System
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Airport will be using ATF (provided by adjoining IAF facilities) and Diesel in bulk. Both
the petroleum products are hazardous as per MSIHC Rules. The risk is through liquid
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and gaseous materials which are volatile material. The inflammable/toxic vapours due to
spillage of such material can travel to some and cause damage.
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give tolerable intensities of various objects and desirable escape time for thermal
radiation.
Thermal hazards could be from fires or explosion. Fire releases energy slowly while
explosion release energy very rapidly (typically in micro seconds). Explosion is rapid
expansion of gases resulting in rapidly moving shock wave. Explosion can be confined
(within a vessel or building) or unconfined (due to release of flammable gases).
BLEVE (boiling liquid expanding vapour explosion) occurs if a vessel containing a liquid
at a temperature above its atmospheric boiling point ruptures. The subsequent BLEVE is
the explosive vaporisation of large fraction of its vapour contents; possibly followed by
combustion or explosion of the vaporised cloud if it is combustible range.
Thermal hazards have been considered for various scenarios including: Fire in fuel
storage tank/ Aircraft refuelling zone.
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Damage due to Explosion: Both ATF and Diesel are not explosive as such however in
vulnerable conditions (like high thermal radiation due to fire in nearby area an ATF/Diesel
pool can evaporate fast and can cause BLEVE.
As a safety measure HISSAR AIRPORT is storing ATF in underground tanks in
isolated place with all safety measures as per Petroleum Rules. Damage estimates
based on overpressure are given in Table 7.9 below:
ATF is a highly flammable liquid. The fuel has a low vapour pressure at ambient
temperature, which makes the liquid less volatile. Hence, it evaporates slowly in
case of fuel leakage and remains in the atmosphere posing threat of fire. Also,
the fuel has a flash point lower than the ambient temperature of Gwalior in
summers (~45.5 0C). This means that the fuel will give off flammable vapour at a
concentration sufficient to cause ignition. However, significant heat source is,
required to ignite the fuel and therefore proper safety management has to be
implemented. Since at Gwalior the ATF storage is not there, the chances of
such occurrence are little.
ATF is classified for supply purpose as harmful as a result of the aspiration hazard and
irritation to the skin. Toxicity following a single exposure to high levels (orally, dermally
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Storage Hazards
Typical storage hazards are applicable for this type of tank farm systems.
Sources of ignition can include lightning, open flame, electrical spark, static
discharge, chemical reaction, or any heat source that can raise or ignite the fuel-
air vapor mixture. Since at Gwalior the ATF storage is underground there are
very less chances of such occurrence. The release of ATF could occur from
transfer stations (gantry areas), storage to refueller systems, valve glands or
pipelines leakages due to several reasons. The most typical emergency relating
to fuel handling is a fuel overflow or spill. Such events can be very minor in
nature involving just a few liters of product, or they can be a catastrophic event
involving hundreds of litres of fuel.
Combustion Hazards
The combustion products of aviation fuel include carbon dioxide, nitrogen oxides
and sulphur oxides. Incomplete combustion will generate thick black smoke and
potentially hazardous gases including carbon monoxide. However, smoke from
such fires is buoyant and does not tend to seriously impact people on the
ground in the open air.
Health Hazard
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Skin: ATF is slightly irritating to the skin, and has a defatting action on the skin.
Chronic Health Hazards: Prolonged and repeated contact with ATF can be
detrimental to health. The main hazards arise from skin contact and in the
inhalation of mists. Skin contact over long periods can lead to defatting of the
skin, drying, cracking and possibly dermatitis. Excessive and prolonged
inhalation of mists may cause chronic inflammatory reaction of the lungs and a
form of pulmonary fibrosis.
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An accidental release of Diesel and ATF from tanks or piping during unloading
and refueling of aircraft would result in formation of fixed or spreading pool of
released qualities. In case of immediate ignition, a pool fire will result. Delayed
ignition may result in explosion or flash fire, if quantity of explosive mass is
sufficient and some confinement is present.
Pool Fire
A leak or spill of sufficient quantities of petroleum product will result in an
accumulation of petroleum product on the ground. If ignited, the resulting fire is
known as spreading or fixed pool fire. In case any object comes in contact with
the flame above the pool, it will be severely damaged or destroyed and personnel
exposed to flame will suffer extensive burn injuries. Objects and personnel
outside the actual flame volume may also be affected or injured by radiant heat.
The extent of damage or injury depends on the heat flux and duration of fire and
exposure. If a large area of the body receives second- and third-degree burns, it
can result in fatalities.
The extent of injury to people depends on the heat flux and duration of exposure.
The extent of damage to personnel and property depends on the size of the pool
and the duration of fire.
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impacts. Each incident will have impact on the surrounding environment which in
extreme case may cross plant boundary. The impact zones for various scenarios are
given in Table 7.11
[A]
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[B]
Figure 7.4 : Gwalior Airport (Outline only) Location
Figure 7.5 : ATF Heavy Spillage while Filling Underground Tanks- Fire and Thermal
Hazard
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Figure 7.6 : ATF Heavy Spillage while Transporting ATF to Aircraft- Fire and
Thermal Hazard
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➢ Equipment other than that performing aircraft servicing functions will not be
positioned within 15 m of aircraft during fuel servicing operations
➢ The accessibility to the aircraft by fire vehicles will be established during aircraft
fuel servicing.
➢ Handheld intrinsically safe communication devices used within 3 m from the fuel
vent will be intrinsically safe
➢ For open hose discharge capacity of the aircraft refuelling system, at least one
listed wheeled extinguisher having a rating of not less than 80-B.
➢ Presence of at least 2 x 9kg ABC dry powder fire extinguishers at both sides of
the refuelling browser / dispenser
➢ Spark plugs & other exposed terminal connections will be insulated.
➢ All vehicles, other than those performing fuel servicing, will not to be driven or
parked under aircraft wings.
➢ Electric tools, drills or similar tools likely to produce sparks or arcs will not be
used
➢ Hot works within 50 / 75 metres of refuelling operations will be ceased (for 50m,
a MOM approved Safety Officer shall be present)
➢ The ground service activities do not impede the egress should there be an
emergency.
➢ One aerobridge or mobile step or integral stairs will be positioned with the aircraft
door fully opened for evacuation of passengers.
➢ A Clear area for emergency evacuation of the aircraft will be maintained at the
rear (or front) aircraft exit door.
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All measures suggested by AAI under Corporate Safety Management System Manual
(AAI-SAF-001 dated 20.05.2013) shall be followed.
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7.4.8. Electricity
• Safety norms as per Indian Electricity rules 1956 and ECBC shall be
followed
• Earthling system will be provided
• All the wires will be selected as per norms
• Design shall be done as per all Indian Code
• Sand bags will be provided near to the electric control panel
• Precaution banners will be displayed wherever required
• Regular maintenance will be done to check any loop hole.
• Routine Drill will be done
• Sign of Danger at all hazard place will be displayed
• PPE will be provided to the workers
7.4.9. Mechanical
• All mechanical equipment will be services in routine
• Sign of Danger at all hazard place will be displayed
• All safeguards will be provided at appropriate places
• Periodic change of all damaged equipment will be done
• Logbook will be prepared.
7.4.10. Chemical
• Isolated place will be provided for stooge of chemical
• Full surveillance will be done on chemical storage area
• Fire system will be provided at chemical storage area
• MSDS will be displayed
• Separate storage of Fuel will be done.
• License will be taken from concern department
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This DMP should be designed based on the range, scales and effects of "Major
Generic Hazards" described in the Risk Assessment and prediction of various
hazardous scenarios. The DMP addresses the range of thermal and mechanical
impacts of these major hazards so that potential harm to people onsite and off-
site, proposed project and environment can be reduced to a practicable
minimum. The scenarios of loss of containment are credible worst cases to which
this DMP is linked.
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Fires on the Ground: Fire on the ground can be aircraft related and non-aircraft
related. Fire involving aircraft can be at any location on the taxiway or apron area
where the aircraft is parked. Non-aircraft related fire involves mainly the terminal
buildings, ATF and HSD storage, etc.
During a major disaster such as severe fire outbreak at terminal building, the
various emergency operations will be established immediately to mitigate the
disaster. The emergency operations and coordination centers at proposed Airport
will comprise Crisis Management Centre (CMC), Emergency Coordination Centre
(ECC has its own functions and roles to perform during the crisis:
• Formulate strategic plans and policies, as well as engage in high level decision
making for the mitigation of crisis.
• Control coordinate and support operations during an Incident.
• Oversee the work and progress of protracted firefighting and rescue, and salvage
operations.
• Liaise with the airline concerned, local authorities, ministries, and governmental
departments for support.
• Arrange and provide welfare to the staff involved in the mitigation of crisis.
• Regulate the release of information to the public on the facts of the aircraft
disaster.
• Issue press releases and organize press conferences.
• Ensure that the post-accident operations are completed expeditiously so that the
proposed airport can resume normal operations in the shortest possible time.
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Support incident site firefighting and rescue operations through liaison and
coordination with the external organizations/agencies/ services. Facilitate
mobilization of external resources to the crash site, such as issuing emergency
passes and arranging with Apron Control for "Follow-me" vehicles. Arrange and
facilitate visits by the VVIPs to the site (if any).
The FRRC serves as a secure area, away from the attentions of the media, for
the friends and relatives of those involved in an accident. The documentation
process within the FRRC helps to confirm who was on the site/aircraft and
facilitates the reunion. On receiving the "Fire" message, Terminal Manager will
set up the FRRC. The staff shall man the FRRC, and the police shall take charge
of the security of the area. At the FRRC, the airline staff shall
• Attempt to verify the identity of the visitors on entry;
• Conduct documentation and briefing;
• Update with the latest information including passenger manifest, that has been
officially cleared;
• Provide care and comfort including refreshments;
• Arrange for doctors and/or CARE officers through ECC on a need basis
Assembly Area (AA): Assembly area is an area set up near the incident site to
temporarily receive the uninjured casualties until the arrangements to transport
them to the Hospital is made. Two Assembly Areas (AA) will be near Grass
Lawns in front of terminal building
Media Management: Terminal Manager – Chairman and his team shall take the
lead to handle all press matters. They are single point media interaction. They
will be responsible for developing the overall information management plan, with
emphasis on strategies to manage the information flow. They will also be
responsible for the preparation of press releases and the organization of press
conferences.
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All press personnel will first be directed to Airport Operator's Media Centre. At the
Media Centre, press briefing, communications and transportation service for
taking the press personnel to and from the accident site, when permissible, will
be arranged/provided.
Emergency Procedures:
Fires on the Ground (Aircraft Related Fires Occurring In Aircraft Movement
Areas)
An Aircraft can catch fire while it is taxiing in the movement area or parked. Such
a scenario can arise from a defect or malicious act, and may develop into a major
disaster. When the aircraft on the ground on fire is sighted, Airport Fire Service
through the crash alarm communication system will be informed and provide
details of the aircraft fire, for example:
• Location of aircraft;
• Nature of fire (e.g. undercarriage fire, engine fire);
• Number of POB; and
• Presence of dangerous goods, if known.
The Air Traffic Controller shall give clearance to the responding fire vehicles to
enter the runway/taxiway as soon as possible. If the fire is large and has caused
extensive damage to the aircraft and external resources are required to aid in the
mitigation process, the Air Traffic Controller shall declare "Aircraft on Fire". The
standard text and format used for the "Aircraft on Fire" message shall be as
follows:
Aircraft on Fire
• Aircraft Operator;
• Aircraft Type & *Flight Number; Location of Aircraft;
• Nature of Fire (e.g. undercarriage fire, engine fire);
• Number of Persons on Board (POB);
• Any Dangerous Goods on Board.
• The use of the phrase "Aircraft on Fire" is to give distinction and therefore avoid
confusion between aircraft crash and aircraft on the ground on fire
Fires on the Ground (Fires involving at Proposed Airport Project Site, i.e., Non-
Aircraft Related Fires)
Fire may occur at any of the part of Greenfield International Airport. If out of
control, such a fire may cripple the key proposed airport facilities and disrupt the
normal operations. During a fire occurrence, however small it may appear to be,
any person discovering it shall:
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Raise the fire alarm via the nearest manual call point. If no manual call point is
readily available, raise the alarm by other available means. Inform the Fire
Service immediately of the exact location of the fire via the following telephone
numbers. Operate a suitable fire extinguisher where readily available, or any
water hose reel within range. [*Note: Attempt to put out the fire using a fire
extinguisher shall only be carried out if the fire is small (i.e., at incipient stage)
and does not pose any danger to the operator. Also take note that water shall not
be used on fire involving liquid such as HSD, as well as on energized electrical
equipment unless such equipment has been de-energized.) On receipt of a
structural fire call, the Fire Operator shall request the caller to provide the
following details
• Location of Fire
• Type of Fire
• Name of Caller
• Telephone number of Caller
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• To test, efficacy, timing, and content of the plan and implementing procedures;
• To ensure, that the emergency organization personnel are familiar with their
duties and responsibilities by demonstration;
• Provide hands-on experience with the procedures to be implemented during
emergency; and Maintain emergency preparedness.
The frequency of the drills would vary depending on the severity of the hazard.
However, drills would be conducted once in a year. Scenarios may be developed
in such a manner as to accomplish more than one event objective. Drills and
exercises will be conducted as realistically as is reasonably practicable.
Planning for drills and exercises would include:
• The basic objectives;
• The dates, times and places;
• The participating organizations;
• The events to be simulated;
• An approximate schedule of events;
• Arrangements for qualified observers; and
• An appropriate critique of drills/exercises with participants
Evaluation of drills and exercises would be carried out which would include
comments from the participants and observers. Discrepancies noted by the drill
observers during the drill shall be pointed out during the drill. The individual
responsible for conducting the drill or exercise would prepare a written evaluation
of the drill or exercise. The evaluation would include assessments and
recommendations on:
• Areas that require immediate correction;
• Areas where additional training is needed;
• Suggested modifications to the plan or procedures; and
• Deficiencies in equipment, training, and facilities
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Some important points /guidelines for EMP are given below for reference only.
7.6.1. Scope
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Emergency plans are likely to be separate for on-site and off-site, but they must
be consistent with each other, i.e. they must be related to the same assessed
emergency conditions. The on-site plan is called Disaster Management Plan
(DMP) and the off-site plan is called Emergency Preparedness Plan (EPP).
7.6.2. Objectives
Elimination of hazard will require prompt action by operators and emergency staff
using, for example, fire-fighting equipment and water sprays. Minimizing the
effect will include rescue, first aid, evacuation, rehabilitation and giving
information promptly to people living nearby.
Emergency planning is just one aspect of safety and cannot be considered in
isolation. In particular, it is not a substitute for maintaining good standards within
the project. Before starting to prepare the plan, project management will ensure
that the necessary standards and safety precautions are administered.
Emergency plans are likely to be separate for on-site and off-site, but they must
be consistent with each other, i.e. they must be related to the same assessed
emergency conditions. The on-site plan is called Disaster Management Plan
(DMP) and the off-site plan is called Emergency Preparedness Plan (EPP).
The project will set out the way in which designed people at the site for the
incident can initiate supplementary action both insides or outside the works at an
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appropriate time. An essential element of the plan must be the provision for
attempting to make safe the affected unit, for example by shutting it down. On a
project site, the plan will contain the full sequence of key personnel to be called
in from other sections or from off-site.
Emergency is the one which may or may not cause material damage or injury but
likely to have an impact on the project. Such an emergency may be controlled
using resources and resources available in the surrounding establishments.
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7.6.7. Policy
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An airport shall have a formally adopted safety policy and / or safety objective in
place, endorsed by the Accountable Executive (Chief Executive Officer, Chief
Operating Officer or Chairman of the Board) to confirm senior management
commitment to safety. This policy shall be clearly state its objective, identify
accountabilities, provide a timeframe and a detailed plan (processes). It shall
also define a strategy to implement the organization’s workplace health and
safety policy, which may be a stand-alone or part of a comprehensive safety
policy. The safety policy will incorporate measures to assess and control
(eliminate or reduce as low as reasonably possible) the hazards associated with
airport operations.
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9.1. Introduction
The Environmental Management Plan (EMP) is the synthesis of all proposed mitigating
and monitoring actions, set to a time frame with specific responsibility assigned and
follow-up actions defined. The EMP is a plan of action for avoidance, mitigation and
management of the negative impacts of the project. Environmental enhancement is also
an important component of EMP.
During the construction and operation phase of proposed project, anticipated impacts
have been identified, assessed and evaluated. To mitigate such adverse environmental
impacts, environmental management plan has been suggested in the following
subsections. Environmental Management Plan (EMP) also includes environmental
monitoring plan and training plan for implementation of environmental management plan.
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Thus, DoCA shall have EMP cell to monitor the implementation of the EMP during the
construction stage and to implement the proposed EMP during operation phase. EMP
cell shall be chaired by the person airport Director. Other suggested members of EMP
cell are Environmental Engineer/Officer, Safety Officer, Technical Assistant
(environment background) and other assistants (miscellaneous works).
During construction stage, EMP cell of DoCA will work in coordination with the contractor
to ensure implementation of the EMP and safety procedure. In operation stage EMP cell
will ensure the implementation of the EMP.
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Through the grievance redressal mechanism, community is free to lodge their concerns
and submit their suggestions. The grievance mechanism will be scaled to the risks and
adverse impacts of the project. It will be address concerns promptly, using an
understandable and transparent process that is culturally appropriate and readily
accessible to all segments of the affected communities, and at no cost and without
retribution. The client will inform the affected communities about the mechanism.
Grievance redressal system will include provision of a box at construction site, casting
yard & workshop site, storage yard site & site office site, labeled as grievance redressal
box. Grievances can be dropped by aggrieved into this box. Also, a registered for
grievance redressal shall be maintained at entry gate of all above mentioned areas
where aggrieved can register its complaint along with his details like name, contact
number and can take the reference complaint number. Grievance redressal box or
register will be reviewed every week and first response to the grievance to the aggrieved
should be given within 7 days of grievance submitted by the receiver. Grievance
redressal cell should consider the following points for functioning
• The decision on the grievance would be communicated to the aggrieved person
within a timeframe (1 week).
• There shall be a nodal officer designated by concessionaire, implementing
agency & proponent for each site/work area
• All grievances shall be documented and indexed for future reference. The
proceeding and actions against each of the grievance shall be documented and
should also carry this index number for easy traceability. The grievance received
shall be communicated to all the concerned SHE personnel of concessionaire,
implementing agency & proponent
• If required, the aggrieved community member can also be made a part of the
Redressal process, so he is able to place his point of view.
• The Grievance Redressal committee (incharge & nodal officers) of
concessionaire, implementing agency & proponent should meet at regular
interval and discuss on the grievance and take necessary action.
9.7. Reporting
As per the MoEF&CC guideline, Environment monitoring report and compliance
of conditions mentioned in the environment clearance will be submitted to the RO-
MoEF&CC, SPCB and SEIAA. Compliances will be submitted in month of June
and December for the period of April to September and October to March
respectively. Third party laboratory (approved MoEF&CC & NABL laboratory)
shall be appointed for carrying out the monitoring. Also, self-environmental audit,
Health and safety audit shall be conducted annually.
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Budget for environmental management both during construction and operation phase is
given below in Table 10.3 below.
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220
ENCLOSURES
1
ENCLOSURE 1: LAND DOCUMENTS
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M. Selvendran, 1. A.S.
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Dear Sir,
2. ' The. necessary - details with respect to required land have already been completed
jointh, With Revenue officials. Now,. vide letterdated 17 September,. 2021, Tehsildar, Murar-
- Tehsil4Walior has communicated and requested AM to complete the formalities along with
providing acquisition cost:of Rs. 64.91 croreS and R. 46.3e'lakhs pet annum in order'to start
; 'the acquisition proceedingslAnnexure W.. It has been further desired by Revenue officials
that timeline for•coMpletion of project and financialresource may also be provided to them..
. 3. In this *regard, it is to su6mit that as. per National Civil Aviation. Policy, 2016, the
respective State has to handover the land to MI .on•free of cost basis and fred from all
encumbrances for any airport infrastructure and development activities tarried tCy AM for
Public purposes. This practice iS• being followed by other states; and the Govt of. Madhya
Pradesh (GoMP),. earlier had provided land to MI on free of cost basis at Bhopal, Indore,
Jabalpur and Khajurpho airports also.. Hence, the instant request of AAI for Gwalior airport is
. • also to be treated at par With earlier airport projects in Madhya Pradesh.
4. • In view ofthe above,, it• is requested that GoMP may like to give suitable instructions
to concerned Revenue officials at Gwalior to provideland on free of cost basis to AM so that.
. the devtelopment Works be taken. up'at the.earliest. •
With regards, •
Yours sincerely,
. Pathak ) •
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• Go.vernment-pf-Madhya-Rradesh--:
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7
ENCLOSURE 2: CONSENT TO OPERATE
8
Consent Order M.P. Pollution Control Board - Gwalior
Pandit Deendayal Nagar,Housing Board Colony,
Gwalior 474 020
Gwalior
Tele : 0751-2472020
NO: /MPPCB/GWR
To,
The Occupier,
M/s. Airports Authority Of India,
Sur. 223/2, 333, 343, 334/1, 334/2, 335, 336, 344/1, RVST Airport Gwalior,
City : Maharajpura, Dist : Gwalior, Tal : Gird, SIDC : I/A Maharajpura,
Latitude : 26.2850 Longitude : 78.2172
Subject: Grant of Consent to Operate under section 25 of the Water (Prevention & Control of Pollution) Act,1974 under section 21
of the Air (Prevention & Control of Pollution) Act,1981 and Authorization under Hazardous and other Waste (Management
& Transboundary movement) Rules, 2016
Ref: Your Consent to Operate Application Receipt No. 1102853 Dt. 09/12/2021 and last communication received on
Dt.06/12/2021
With reference to your above application for consent to operate has been considered under the aforesaid Acts and existing rules therein.
The M. P. Pollution Control Board has agreed to grant consent up to 08/12/2022 & authorisation up to 08/12/2026, subject to the
fulfillment of the terms & conditions, enclosed with this letter and-
NETRAPAL SINGH
(Organic Authentication on AADHAR from UIDAI Server) Regional Officer
TPAV # FVHKWQGJL3
9
This Certificate generated from xgn.mp.nic.in are valid and does not require physical signatures, the certificate can be validated online from xgn.mp.nic.in using "TPAV" Number. Page: 1 / 7
Consent Order M.P. Pollution Control Board - Gwalior
Pandit Deendayal Nagar,Housing Board Colony,
Gwalior 474 020
Gwalior
Tele : 0751-2472020
For other parameters general standards of discharge as notified under EP Act 1986 shall be applicable.
3. Sewage Treatment :- The applicant shall provide comprehensive sewage treatment system as per the proposal submitted
to the Board and maintain the same properly to achieve following standards-
pH Between 5.5 – 9.0
Suspended Solids Not exceed 100 mg/l.
Sr Water Code (Qty in klpd - Kilo Ltr per Day) WC : 198.000 WWG : Water Source Remark
100.000
1 Domestic Purpose 198.000 100.000 Borewell
4. The effluent shall be treated up to prescribed Standards and reuse in the process, for cooling and for green belt
devolvement/gardening within premises. Hence zero discharge condition shall be practiced. In no case treated effluent shall
be discharged outside of industry/unit premises.
5. Any change in production capacity, process, raw material used etc. and for any enhancement of the above prior
permission of the Board shall be obtained. All authorized discharges shall be consistent with terms and conditions of this
consent. Facility expansions, production increases or process modifications which result new or increased discharges of
pollutants must be reported by submission of a fresh consent application for prior permission of the Board
6. Compilation of Monitoring data-
i. Samples and measurements taken to meet the monitoring requirements specified above shall be representative of the
volume and nature of monitored discharge.
ii. Following promulgation of guidelines establishing test procedures for the analysis of pollutants, all sampling and
analytical methods used to meet the monitoring requirements specified above shall conform to such guidelines unless
otherwise specified sampling and analytical methods shall conform to the latest edition of the Indian Standard specifications
and where it is not specified the guidelines as per standard methods for the examination of Water and Waste latest edition of
the American Public Health Association, New York U.S.A. shall be used.
iii. The applicant shall take samples and measurement to meet the monthly requirements specified above and report online
through XGN the same to the Board.
7. Recording of Monitoring Activities & Results-
i. The applicant shall make and maintain online records of all information resulting from monitoring activities by this
Consent.
ii. The applicant shall record for each measurement of samples taken pursuant to the requirements of this Consent as
follows:
(i) The date, exact place and time of sampling
(ii) The dates on which analysis were performed
(iii)Who performed the analysis?
(iv)The analytical techniques or methods used and
(v)The result of all required analysis
10
iii. If the applicant monitors any Pollutant moreConsent
frequently as is by this Consent he shell include the results of such
No:AWH-94216
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Consent Order M.P. Pollution Control Board - Gwalior
Pandit Deendayal Nagar,Housing Board Colony,
Gwalior 474 020
Gwalior
Tele : 0751-2472020
monitoring in the calculation and reporting of values required in the discharge monitoring reports which may be prescribed
by the Board. Such increased frequency shall be indicated on the Discharge Monitoring Report Form.
iv. The applicant shall retain for a minimum of 3 years all records of monitoring activities including all records of
Calibration and maintenance of instrumentation and original strip chart regarding continuous monitoring instrumentation.
The period of retention shall be extended during the course of any unresolved litigation regarding the discharge of
pollutants by the applicant or when requested by Central or State Board or the court.
8. Reporting of Monitoring Results:-
Monitoring Information required by this Consent shall be summarized and reported by submitting a Discharge Monitoring
report on line to the Board.
9. Limitation of discharge of oil Hazardous Substance in harmful quantities:-
The applicant shall not discharge oil or other hazardous substances in quantities defined as harmful in relevant regulations
into natural water course. Nothing in this Consent shall be deemed to preclude the institution of any legal action nor relive
the applicant from any responsibilities, liabilities, or penalties to which the applicant is or may be subject to clauses.
10. Limitation of visible floating solids and foam:
During the period beginning date of issuance the applicant shall not discharge floating solids or visible foam.
11. Disposal of Collected Solid waste/sludge-
All hazardous waste/sludge shall be disposed of as per the Authorization issued under Hazardous & other waste (M&TM)
Rules 2016. And/other Solids Sludges, dirt, silt or other pollutant separated from or resulting from treatment shall be
disposed of in such a manner as to prevent any pollutant from such materials from entering any such water Any live fish,
Shall fish or other animal collected or trapped as a result of intake water screening or treatment may be returned to eaters
body habitat.
12. Provision for Electric Power Failure-
The applicant shall assure to the consent issuing authority that the applicant has installed or provided for an alternative
electric power source sufficient to operate all facilities utilized by the applicant to maintain compliance with the terms and
conditions of the Consent.
13. Prohibition of By pass system of treatment facilities-
The diversion or by-pass of any discharge from facilities utilized by the applicant to maintain compliance with the terms
and conditions of this Consent in prohibited except :
i. where unavoidable to prevent loss of life or severe property damage, or
ii. Where excessive storm drainage or run off would damage any facilities necessary for compliance with the terms and
conditions of this Consent. The applicant shall immediately notify the consent issuing authorities in writing of each such
diversion or by-pass in accordance with the procedure specified above for reporting non-compliance.
14. Industry/Institute/mine management shall submit the information online through XGN in reference to compliance of
consent conditions.
11
Consent No:AWH-94216
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Consent Order M.P. Pollution Control Board - Gwalior
Pandit Deendayal Nagar,Housing Board Colony,
Gwalior 474 020
Gwalior
Tele : 0751-2472020
12
Consent No:AWH-94216
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Consent Order M.P. Pollution Control Board - Gwalior
Pandit Deendayal Nagar,Housing Board Colony,
Gwalior 474 020
Gwalior
Tele : 0751-2472020
13
Consent No:AWH-94216
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Consent Order M.P. Pollution Control Board - Gwalior
Pandit Deendayal Nagar,Housing Board Colony,
Gwalior 474 020
Gwalior
Tele : 0751-2472020
B. Specific conditions:
1. The industry shall display the information on hazardous waste generated on notice board of size 6’ x 4’ (in Hindi &
English) outside the unit main gate along with quantity and nature of hazardous chemicals being handled in the plant,
including wastewater, air emission and hazardous wastes.
2. The authorisation or its renewal shall be produced for inspection at the request of an officer authorised by the State
Pollution Control Board.
2. Any unauthorized change in production capacity, process, raw materials, personnel, equipments etc. as mentioned in
the application by the person authorized shall constitute a breach of this authorisation.
3. The unit shall maintain the records of hazardous waste as per the Form-3 of rule 6(5) and shall online submit the
annual return in Form-4 as per rule 6(5) 20(2) to this office on or before 30th June every year and preferably before
30th April.
4. The information regarding quantity of hazardous wastes generated and its analysis report should be sent to the Board
online at least annualy.
5. Hazardous Waste Storage Site & Danger signboard shall be provided with all safety devices at the storage site.
6. The authorized person shall inform the name and address of the contact person / occupier responsible for hazardous
waste management.
7. In case of importing Hazardous Waste, occupier shall apply to the M.P. Pollution Control Board, 180 days in
advance in Form-6, for permission to import of the waste as per Rule 13(i) of Hazardous and other Waste (Management
and Transboundary Movement) Rule 2016 as amended up to date.
8. In the event of any accident due to handling of hazardous wastes, the authorized person must inform immediately to
the Regional Office & Head office of the board on fax/telephone/email-it_mppcb@rediffmail.com about the incident
and detail report should be sent in Form No.5 as per Rule-10 of Hazardous and other Waste (Management and
Transboundary Movement) Rule 2016 as amended upto date.
GENERAL CONDITIONS:
1. The non hazardous solid waste arresting in the industry/unit/unit premises sweeping, etc. be disposed off scientifically so as
not to cause any nuisance/pollution. The applicant shall take necessary permission from civic authorities for disposal to dumping
site. If required.
Non Hazardous Solid wastes:-
Type of waste Quantity Disposal
Scrap/ Plastic packing material wood, card board, gunny begs etc Sale to authorized party/As Per CPCB.
MoEF Guide lines / Others.
2. The applicant shall allow the staff of Madhya Pradesh Pollution Control Board and/or their authorized representative,
upon the representation of credentials:
a. To inspect raw material stock, manufacturing processes, reactors, premises etc to perform the functions of the
Board.
b. To enter upon the applicant’s premises where an effluent source is located or in which any records are required to
be kept under the terms and conditions of this Consent.
c. To have access at reasonable times to any records required to be kept under the terms and conditions of this
Consent.
d. To inspect at reasonable times any monitoring equipment or monitoring method required in this Consent: or,
e. To sample at reasonable times any discharge or pollutants.
3. This consent / authorisation is transferable in nature, in case of any change in ownership / management, the new owner / 14
Consent No:AWH-94216
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Consent Order M.P. Pollution Control Board - Gwalior
Pandit Deendayal Nagar,Housing Board Colony,
Gwalior 474 020
Gwalior
Tele : 0751-2472020
partner / directors / proprietor shall immediately apply for the consent with new requisite information.
4. The issuance of this Consent does not convey any property rights in either real or personal property or any exclusive
privileges, nor does it authorise any invasion of personal rights, nor any infringement of Central, State or local laws or
regulations.
5. This consent is granted in respect of Water pollution control Act 1974 or Air Pollution Control act, 1981 or Authorization
under the provisions of Hazardous and other Waste (Management & Transboundary movement) Rules 2016 only and does
not relate to any other Department/Agencies. License required from other Department/Agencies have to be obtained by the
unit separately and have to comply separately as per there Act / Rules.
6. Balance consent/authorisation fee, if any shall be recoverable by the Board even at a later date.
7. The applicant shall submit such information, forms and fees as required by the board not letter than 180 day prior to the
date of expiration of this consent/authorisation
8. The industry/unit shall establish a separate environmental cell, headed by senior officer of the unit for reporting the
environmental compliances. The industry/ Unit shall submit environmental statement for the previous year ending 31st
March on or before 30th September every year to the Board.
9. Knowingly making any false statement for obtaining consent or compliance of consent conditions shall result in the
imposition of criminal penalties as provided under the section 42(g) of the Water Act or section 38 (g) of the Air Act.
10. After notice and opportunity for the hearing, this consent may be modified, suspended or revoked by the Board in whole
or in part during its term for cause including, but not limited to, the following :
(a) Violation of any terms and conditions of this Consent.
(b) Obtaining this Consent by misrepresentation of failure to disclose fully all relevant facts.
(c) A change in any condition that requires temporary or permanent reduction or elimination of the authorized discharge.
11. On violation of any of the above-mentioned conditions the consent granted will automatically be taken as canceled and
necessary action will be initiated against the industry.
Additional condition:-
Consent/authorization as required under the Water (Prevention & Control of Pollution) Act,1974 , The Air (Prevention &
Control of Pollution) Act,1981 and the Authorization under Hazardous Waste (Management handling & Transboundary
movement) Amended Rule, 2016 is granted to your industry subject to fulfillment of all the conditions mentioned above. For
renewal purpose you shall have to make an application to this Board through XGN at least Six months before the date of
expiry of this consent/authorisation. The applicant without valid consent (for operation) of the Board shall not bring in to use
any outlet for the discharge of effluent and gaseous emission.
NETRAPAL SINGH
(Organic Authentication on AADHAR from UIDAI Server) Regional Officer
TPAV # FVHKWQGJL3
15
Consent No:AWH-94216
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ENCLOSURE 3: GWALIOR MASTER PLAN
16
78°1'30"E 78°3'0"E 78°4'30"E 78°6'0"E 78°7'30"E 78°9'0"E 78°10'30"E 78°12'0"E 78°13'30"E 78°15'0"E 78°16'30"E 78°18'0"E 78°19'30"E 78°21'0"E
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26°10'30"N
! ! Odhpur Bandholi
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!
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! ! !
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! !
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! ! ! !
! !
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! ! ! ! ! ! ! ! ! ! !
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!
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!
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!
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!
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!
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!
!
!!!!!!!!!!!!
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MUNICIPAL
! !
! !
Forest Ramaua
!
! !
Kedarpur Talab
!
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!
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!
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!
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!
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!
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!
! College Barua ! ! ! ! ! ! !
!
±
! ! !
Forest
! ! ! !
!
!
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!
!
!
! ! ! !
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! ! !
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!
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!
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! !
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!
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! ! ! ! !
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an
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!
!
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!
arer
26°3'0"N
78°3'0"E 78°4'30"E 78°6'0"E 78°7'30"E 78°9'0"E 78°10'30"E 78°12'0"E 78°13'30"E 78°15'0"E 78°16'30"E 78°18'0"E 78°19'30"E 78°21'0"E 78°22'30"E
17
ENCLOSURE 4: WATER PERMISSION
(CONSTRUCTION PHASE & OPERATION
PHASE)
18
Tnferrz, fastA7:03.222
p4i.LZ./TIi/T/Hu-1/1A/2022
474020
of
fava Expansion Plan of Civil Enclave, Gwalior: An application
of Nagar
request to provide the water supply from sources
Nivam to Civil Enclave Gwalior for the construction purpose
of Apron
required for New Terminal Building & Consctruction
Airfract.
and Taxiway for Parking of 09 Nos, AB-321, Type of
3HTY5T THT AAI/Civil Enclave-Gwalior/Water Supply-
Nigam/NTB/2022/299-301 Date
Construction/Nagar
11.02.2022
afe, f 7:03209
HilL/14/A/HiT-1/1.A./2022 ******
19
20
ENCLOSURE 5: ELECTRICITY BILL OF EXISTING
AIRPORT
21
Madhya Pradesh Madhya Kshetra Vidyut Vitaran Co. Ltd., Bhopal
' '
Bijli Nagar Colony, Nishtha Parisar, Govindpura, Bhopal – 462023 || GST Number 23AADCM6799G2Z4
htbilling.bhopal@mp.gov.in Website:portal.mpcz.in
Bill ID. : H1107022000-202112-1
Date Of Issue : 28-DEC-2021 Last Dates Of Payment 1. By Online 12-JAN-2022
Bill month : December-2021
Loc Code 2424900
THE AERODROME OFFICER AIRPORT AUTHORITY Cons. Code H1107022000 Old Cons. Code 2425000504033
CIVIL ENCLAVE,NATIONAL AIRPORT AUTHORITY, PAN : AAACA6412D S/C No : 11
MAHARAJPURA GWALIOR, 474020 Total SD Held : Rs. 602900.00
Mob. No. 9425700340 Connection Date : 25/08/1992
Email Id apdgwalior@aai.aero Supply Voltage : 33 KV
Purpose : FOR NON-INDUSTRIAL PURPOSE
Cont. Demand 225 KVA [TempCd 0] [Standby CD 0] * Tariff HV-3.2.B Non-Industrial on 33KV
Feeder Name: 0 Fixed Charges
95410.00
Meter No. X0371827 MF 3.000000 0.000000 203 * 470
* AMR Reading I II Energy Charges
264936.75
Max Demand Recorded 57.76000 0.00000 36543 * 7.25
Transformer Loss 0.00000 0.00000 FCA Charges
Total Max Demand 173.28000 0.00000 -2558.01
36543 * -0.07
Adjustment 0.00000 0.00000 PF Incentive
Net Max Demand 173.00000 0.00000 -7871.36
262378.74 * 3
Billing Demand 203.00000 0.00000 Electricity Duty
Energy Units (KWH) Reading 39357.00
36543 * 15%
On 23-DEC-2021 435283.00000 0.00000 TOD Rebate
On 23-NOV-2021 423102.00000 0.00000 -12454.43
8673 * 7.1800 * 0.20
DIFFERENCE With MF 36543.00000 0.00000 Rebate On Online Payment -1000.00
Transformer Loss 0.00000 0.00000 Rebate@1Rs. on Incremental Units 16023.00 -16023.00
Adjustment 0.00000 0.00000 Round Off Adj 0.05
Total Units 36543.00000 0.00000
Net Units Supplied 36543.00000 0.00000 ------------------------------------------------------------------------------- ----------------
Peak Period : 5591.00000 0.00000 CURRENT MONTH BILL 359797.00
Off Peak Period : 8673.00000 0.00000 Arrears Inc. Cumm. Surch. 0.00
KWH EXPORT : 0.00000 SD Int. on 602900 @ 4.25% -2106.00
KWH EXPORT Adj : 0.00000 TDS on 2106 @ 10.00% 211.00
Current CF Units : 0.00000 NET BILL PAYABLE 357902.00
Previous CF Units : 0.00000 Rs. THREE LAKH FIFTY SEVEN THOUSAND NINE
Demand in excess of CD. 0 0 HUNDRED AND TWO ONLY
KVAH Units Reading NET BILL PAYABLE AFTER DUE DATE 362376.00
On 23-DEC-2021 447555.00000 0.00000
On 23-NOV-2021 435054.00000 0.00000
DIFFERENCE With MF 37503.00000 0.00000
Transformer Loss 0.00000 0.00000
Adjustment 0.00000 0.00000 Accounts Officer (HT E-Billing Cell)
Total Units 37503.00000 0.00000 M.P.M.K.V.V.Co. Ltd., Bhopal
Net KVAH Units Supplied 37503.00000 0.00000
Scheduled Outage Hours : --- **This bill is system generated hence does not require a signature, also no hard
Avg PowerFactor 0.97 Avg Load Factor 23.000 copy of bill, will be sent by the Company.
Avg PowerFactor for Incentive/Surcharge 0.9744
Progressive KWH Consumption Upto Current
463746.000
Month
Progressive Current Month Bill Total(Rs.) 4033619.00
Month Year CD Consumption
December-2015 125 20520.00
Previous Month Bill Amount 346597.00
Last Month Payment Details: Total Amt. 346597
Date Mode Receipt No. Amt (Rs.)
09-DEC-2021 NEFT 194139040315 346597
TDS194Q Details: Total Amt. 0.00
Date Amt (Rs.)
Previous Reading Details
MTH Type Date MF KWH Reading
NOV-21 AMR 23-NOV-2021 3.000000 423102.00
OCT-21 AMR 23-OCT-2021 3.000000 411588.50
SPE-21 AMR 23-SEP-2021 3.000000 392245.50
AUG-21 AMR 23-AUG-2021 3.000000 371645.00
JUL-21 AMR 23-JUL-2021 3.000000 350594.50
JUN-21 AMR 23-JUN-2021 3.000000 326062.00
1. The payment of the Bill through RTGS/NEFT is to be made in favour of AO MPCZ HT REVENUE COLLECTION A/C, Bhopal in SBI Commercial Branch, Account
no. 38620669533, IFS Code SBIN0001920. The payment confirmation to be submitted immediately mentioning with your Consumer code and name of connection through
E-mail htbilling.mpcz@gmail.com for timely punching against the current bill. Cheque payments are not acceptable.
2. The HT Bill Payment confirmation to be submitted immediately on the company's portal (website) https://portal.mpcz.in. For this submission you have to open the
company's portal with URL https://portal.mpcz.in then goes to HT SERVICES then PAYMENT AND TDS U/S 194Q. Please do the separate entry of each transaction.
3. You have to compulsorily submit the Undertaking-cum-declaration for TDS u/s 194Q of Income Tax Act, 1961 in prescribed format if you are deducting the TDS u/s
194Q from HT Bill and you have to also submit the detail of payment and TDS (deducted from HT Bill) as mentioned in above point no. 2.
4. An incentive of prompt payment 0.25% of bill amount (Excluding arrears, Security deposit, Meter rent and Govt. levies viz Electricity duty and cess) shall be given as per
applicable tariff.
5. SBI online payment facility started through SBI Collect for HT consumer through company portal https://portal.mpcz.in or Upay App (Available on Google Play Store).
6. Any clarification required, please contact on 0755-2601167 or mail to htbilling.mpcz@gmail.com.
7. The bill is payable within the due date, even if consumer feels that there is any discrepancy and/ or clarification is called for, the Consumer is requested to pay in full
provisionally or under protest subject to subsequent adjustment.
8. The MPMKVVCL has filed Income Tax Returns u/s 139(1) of Income Tax Act, 1961 for AY 19-20 and AY 20-21 on 25/10/2019 and 27/01/2021 respectively.
22
ENCLOSURE 6: ACKNOWLEDGEMENT OF
REQUEST FOR PERMISSION OF TREE
CUTTING
23
24
ENCLOSURE 7: ECBC COMPLIANCE REPORT
25
ENERGY CONSERVATION BUILDING
ENERGY CODE
CONSERVATION BUILDING CODECOMPLIANCE
COMPLIANCE
Towards Compliance of
SUBMITTED ON:
MARCH 04, 2022
Page 0
26
ENERGY CONSERVATION BUILDING CODE COMPLIANCE
DISCLAIMER
By accessing this report, you acknowledge and agree to the Terms and conditions below, and otherwise contained on or referenced in
this report. If you do not agree to this Agreement, you are not authorized to access this report.
1) This analysis is not intended to predict the absolute energy consumption of the proposed facility but rather it is intended to
estimate order of magnitude savings for alternative systems and building options based on refined assumptions, building
performance metrics and energy modeling expertise. Change in weather conditions, operational characteristics, end-user,
miscellaneous electrical loads, controls alterations and other unpredictable metrics prevent the model from accurately
predicting the actual annual energy consumption of any facility.
Page 1
27
ENERGY CONSERVATION BUILDING CODE COMPLIANCE
Contents
DISCLAIMER...................................................................................................................................................................................................... 1
1 EXECUTIVE SUMMARY ........................................................................................................................................................................... 5
2 WHOLE BUILDING PERFORMANCE: ENERGY MODELLING AND SIMULATION ..................................................................... 6
2.1 SUMMARY ......................................................................................................................................................................................... 6
2.2 DESCRIPTION ENERGY MODELLING SOFTWARE ................................................................................................................ 6
2.3 BUILDING MODEL DESCRIPTION.............................................................................................................................................. 6
2.3.1 Model details................................................................................................................................................................................ 6
2.4 WEATHER FILE ................................................................................................................................................................................. 7
3 SUMMARY OF ECBC COMPLIANCE ..................................................................................................................................................... 8
3.1 MANDATORY PROVISIONS UNDER ECBC .............................................................................................................................. 8
3.1.1 U-Factors and Solar Heat Gain Coefficient ................................................................................................................................ 8
3.1.2 Air Leakage .................................................................................................................................................................................. 8
3.1.3 Building Envelope Sealing .......................................................................................................................................................... 8
4 ENERGY MODEL PARAMETERS- ACTUAL CASE .............................................................................................................................. 9
4.1 BUILDING OPAQUE ENVELOPE- ACTUAL CASE .................................................................................................................... 9
4.1.1 Window wall ratio ......................................................................................................................................................................10
4.1.2 Glazing Recommendation- Actual Case ...................................................................................................................................10
4.2 COMFORT SYSTEMS AND CONTROLS- ACTUAL CASE ......................................................................................................11
4.2.1 Mandatory ECBC requirements ................................................................................................................................................11
4.2.2 Hot Water Generator ..................................................................................................................................................................11
4.2.3 Building HVAC design and systems- Actual Case ..................................................................................................................11
4.2.4 Piping and ductwork- Actual Case ...........................................................................................................................................11
Page 2
28
ENERGY CONSERVATION BUILDING CODE COMPLIANCE
4.2.5 Condensers..................................................................................................................................................................................12
4.3 LIGHTING .........................................................................................................................................................................................12
4.3.1 Mandatory requirement .............................................................................................................................................................12
4.4 ELECTRICAL.....................................................................................................................................................................................12
4.4.1 Transformer ................................................................................................................................................................................12
4.4.2 Motors (type, efficiency) ............................................................................................................................................................12
4.4.3 Check metering and monitoring ...............................................................................................................................................12
4.4.4 Power factor correction ..............................................................................................................................................................12
4.4.5 Power distribution system .........................................................................................................................................................13
4.4.6 Equipment: ..................................................................................................................................................................................13
5 ENERGY MODEL PARAMETERS- BASELINE CASE ...........................................................................................................................13
5.1 BUILDING OPAQUE ENVELOPE- BASELINE CASE ................................................................................................................13
5.2 LIGHTING- BASELINE CASE........................................................................................................................................................14
6 ENERGY CONSUMPTION ANALYSIS: .................................................................................................................................................14
6.1 PROPOSED CASE: ...........................................................................................................................................................................14
6.2 BASELINE CASE: .............................................................................................................................................................................15
6.3 SAVINGS CALCULATIONS: .........................................................................................................................................................16
Page 3
29
ENERGY CONSERVATION BUILDING CODE COMPLIANCE
Page 4
30
ENERGY CONSERVATION BUILDING CODE COMPLIANCE
1 EXECUTIVE SUMMARY
Passenger Terminal, is an upcoming building at Gwalior. Madhya Pradesh. The building has (Ground Floor & Mezzanine). The
total built up area of the project is around 215970.4 ft2 or 20066 m2
The project is now at Construction stage and the project is implementing all the measures which makes the building to comply with
ECBC. The project is going for ECBC compliance through Whole Building Simulation Approach. The project will use LED lights and
at least 6.2 Chiller systems in the conditioned area.
Page 5
31
ENERGY CONSERVATION BUILDING CODE COMPLIANCE
Page 6
32
ENERGY CONSERVATION BUILDING CODE COMPLIANCE
Page 7
33
ENERGY CONSERVATION BUILDING CODE COMPLIANCE
Page 8
34
ENERGY CONSERVATION BUILDING CODE COMPLIANCE
Page 9
35
ENERGY CONSERVATION BUILDING CODE COMPLIANCE
Page 10
36
ENERGY CONSERVATION BUILDING CODE COMPLIANCE
4.2.1.3 Controls
The project will give all the necessary controls required for heating and cooling equipment’s.
An electric hot water generator has been considered in both the proposed as well as baseline case.
Page 11
37
ENERGY CONSERVATION BUILDING CODE COMPLIANCE
4.2.5 Condensers
Condensers shall be located such that the heat sink is free of interference from heat discharge by devices located in adjoining spaces,
and do not interfere with other such systems installed nearby.
4.3 LIGHTING
4.3.1 Mandatory requirement
Page 12
38
ENERGY CONSERVATION BUILDING CODE COMPLIANCE
4.4.6 Equipment:
Equipment details are not provided thereby it has been assumed as 0.25 W/ft2. It has been kept as same in both the proposed as well
as baseline case. The running schedules for the proposed as well as baseline is also same in both the cases.
Page 13
39
ENERGY CONSERVATION BUILDING CODE COMPLIANCE
Page 14
40
ENERGY CONSERVATION BUILDING CODE COMPLIANCE
Page 15
41
ENERGY CONSERVATION BUILDING CODE COMPLIANCE
The total energy consumption of the baseline case is 3679800 kWh whereas the total energy consumption of the proposed case is
2676300 kWh. Which leads to a total savings of around 27.3% for the project building.
Page 16
42
Envelope Summary
Energy Conservation Building Code 2017 Compliance Forms
Project Info Project Address:
Date: March 04, 2022 (Design
Stage)
2
Project Built-up Area (m ): 20066
Applicant Name & Address: Airport Authority on India (AAI) and RITES
Hospitality Business
EPI Ratio
Building Envelope
Total Vertical
% Window to Wall
Fenestration Area / Gross Exterior Wall Area x100 =
Ratio (WWR)
(rough opening)
Vertical Fenestration
Area Calculation
77142.45 / 128699.80 x100 = 59.9 %
43
Cool Roof Vertical Fenestration
Wall Assembly
Overhang / Sidefins / Box Frame
No
Projection (yes or no)
Material R Value Assembly U Factor
Aluminum Sheet+
If yes, enter Projection Factor for each
Rockwool insulation 4.75 0.22 No
orientation and effective SHGC
+ Aluminium Sheet
Aluminum Sheet+
Rockwool insulation 4.75 0.22 Maximum SHGC (or SC) 0.35
+ Aluminium Sheet
44
Envelope Checklist
Energy Conservation Building Code 2017 Compliance Forms
Project Address: New Greenfield Airport at Civil Enclave Gwalior, Madhya Pradesh Date: March 04, 2022 (Design Stage)
The following information is necessary to check a building permit application for compliance with the envelope requirements in the Energy
Conservation Building Code.
Applicability
Code Building Department
Component Information Required Compliance
Section Notes
Yes
No
As per accordance
4.2.2 Opaque U-factors Specify reference standard
with ISO-6946.
Daylighting
4.2.3.1 Combined Method Yes
Simulation Method
Manual Daylighting
4.2.3.2 Compliance Compliance Yes
Method
Building envelope
4.2.4 Indicate sealing, caulking, gasketing, and weatherstripping Yes
sealing
Opaque External Specify implemeted U factor with external wall section and
4.3.2 N/A
Wall U factor calculation
(1) Indicate U-factors on fenestration schedule. Indicate if
values are rated or default. If values are default, then
specify frame type, glazing layers, gapwidth, low-e.
(2) Indicate SHGC or SC on fenestration schedule. Indicate
Vertical if values are rated or default.
4.3.3 N/A
fenestration (3) Indicate VLT of fenestration schedule. Indicate if values
are rated or default.
(4) Indicate if overhangs or side fins or box-frame
projection are used for compliance purposes. If so, provide
projection factor calculation and equivalent SHGC
Fenestration U Specify if applicable, specify unconditioned space
4.3.3.1 N/A
factor exemption percentage, and specify incorporated specifications
45
Comfort System & Controls Summary
Energy Conservation Building Code 2017 Compliance Forms
Project Info Project Address: New Greenfield Airport at Civil Enclave Gwalior, Madhya Date: March 04, 2022 (Design
Pradesh Stage)
New Greenfield Airport at Civil Enclave Gwalior, Madhya Pradesh For Buildinng Department Use:
2
Project Built-up Area (m ): 20066
Applicant Name & Address: Airport Authority on India (AAI) and RITES
Project Description
Briefly describe comfort system Natural ventilation, mechanical Ventilation, Low energy comfort system, heating and cooling mechanical equipment.
type and features. percentage area distribution for the installed system, and related information
Project is in Design Stage (Conceptual). The project is going with water cooled screw chiller with high
COP 6.2. The high COP systems impact on reduce the energy Consumption.
Compliance Option
System Efficiency Prescriptive Method Whole Building Performance Method
Equipment Schedules The following information is required to be incorporated with the mechanical equipment schedules on the
plans. For projects without plans, fill in the required information below.
46
Comfort System & Controls Checklist
Energy Conservation Building Code 2017 Compliance Forms
Project Address: New Greenfield Airport at Civil Enclave Gwalior, Madhya Pradesh Date: March 04, 2022 (Design Stage)
The following information is necessary to check a building permit application for compliance with the comfort system and controls requirements
in the Energy Conservation Building Code.
Applicability
Code Location on Building Department
Component Information Required
Yes
No
Natural Ventilation Indicate all habitable spaces are ventilated with outdoor air
5.2.1.1 Design in accordance with § 5.2.1 and guidelines specified in NBC. As Per NBC-2016
Requirements Provide data sheet of ceiling fans indicating BEE star rating.
Mechanical
Ventilation Air Provide technical data sheet of mechanical system for fresh Not Applicable in
5.2.1.2
Quantity Design air supply and CO sensors Design Stage
Requirements
Demand Control Provide schedule and specification of mechaical ventilation Not Applicable in
5.2.1.3
Ventilation system with economizer or outside air modulator Design Stage
Minimum Space
Conditioning Refer Summary of
5.2.2 Provide equipment schedule with type, capacity, efficiency
Equipment Section 5
Efficiencies
5.2.3 Controls
Indicate thermostat with night setback, 3 different day
types per week, and 2-hour manual override, capable of
5.2.3.1 Timeclock Yes
retaining programming and time setting during loss of
power for a period of at least 10 hours
Temperature Indicate temperature control with 3°C deadband minimum
5.2.3.2 Yes
Controls if the system provides both heating and cooling.
Indicate thermostats are interlocked to prevent
simultaneous heating and cooling, where separate heating Yes
and cooling systems are there
Indicate separate thermostat control for space types
Yes
mentioned in § 5.2.3.2.(c)
47
Additional controls
5.2.5 for SuperECBC
Building
Variable Air Volume Indicate Fans in VAV systems shall have controls or devices
5.2.5.1 Yes
Fan Control to limit fan motor demand as per § 5.2.5.1
5.2.6.1 Piping insulation Indicate type, thickness and R-value of insulation R-0.4
Ductwork and
5.2.6.2 Indicate type, thickness and R-value of insulation R-1.4/R-0.6
Plenum insulation
Provide air system balancing and hydronic system balancing Not Applicable in
5.2.7 System Balancing
report Design Stage
Not Applicable in
5.2.8 Condensers Indicate location of condenser
Design Stage
Heating Equipment Indicate service water heating equipment shall meet the
5.2.9.2 N/A
Efficiency performance and efficiency as per § 5.2.9.2
Supplementary
Indicate supplementary heating system is designed in
5.2.9.3 Water Heating N/A
consideration with § 5.2.9.3
System
5.2.9.4 Piping Insulation Indicate type, thickness and R-value of insulation N/A
48
Variable Flow
5.3.4 N/A
Hydronic Systems
49
Lighting & Controls Summary
Energy Conservation Building Code 2017 Compliance Forms
Project Info
Date: March 04, 2022 (Design Stage)
Project Address: New Greenfield Airport at Civil Enclave Gwalior
For Buildinng Department Use:
2
Project Built-up Area (m ): 20066
Applicant Name & Address: Airport Authority on India (AAI) and RITES
50
Lighting & Controls Checklist
Energy Conservation Building Code 2017 Compliance Forms
Project Address: New Greenfield Airport at Civil Enclave Gwalior, Madhya Pradesh Date: March 04, 2022
The following information is necessary to check a building permit application for compliance with the Lighting & Lighting Controls requirements
in the Energy Conservation Building Code 2017.
Applicability
Code Building Department
Component Information Required Compliance
Section Notes
Yes
No
Centralized
Controls_ECBC+ Provide centralized control system schedule with type and
6.2.1.4 Yes
and SuperECBC features, indicate locations
Buildings
6.2.1.5 Ext. lighting control Indicate photosensor or astronomical time switch Yes
6.2.3 Exit signs Indicate wattage per face of Exit signs <4 W/face
Building Area Provide lighting schedule with wattage of lamp and ballast
6.3.2 NA
Method and number of fixtures. Document all exceptions.
Space Function Provide lighting schedule with wattage of lamp and ballast
6.3.3 NA
Method and number of fixtures. Document all exceptions.
Exterior Lighting Provide lighting schedule with wattage of lamp and ballast
6.3.5 NA
Power and number of fixtures. Document all exceptions.
51
Electrical & Renewable Energy Systems: Summary & Checklist
Energy Conservation Building Code 2017 Compliance Forms
Project Info Date: March 04, 2022
(Design Stage)
Project Address: New Greenfield Airport at Civil Enclave Gwalior, Madhya Pradesh
For Buildinng Department
Use:
Applicant Name & Address: Airport Authority on India (AAI) and RITES
Project Address: New Greenfield Airport at Civil Enclave Gwalior, Madhya Pradesh Date
The following information is necessary to check a building permit application for compliance with the Electrical and Renewable Energy Systems
requirements in the Energy Conservation Building Code 2017.
Applicability
Building Department
Code Section Component Information Required Compliance
Yes
No
Notes
7.2.1 Transformers
Maximum Allowable
7.2.1.1 Power Transformer Compliance Yes
Losses
Energy Efficient Provide equipment schedule and certificate Min IE3 Motors will be
7.2.2
Motors with motor capacity, efficiency provided
Diesel Generator
7.2.3 Compliance Yes
(DG) Sets
Uninterruptible
7.2.7 Compliance Yes
Power Supply (UPS)
Renewable Energy
7.2.8
Systems
Renewable Energy
7.2.8.1 Generating Zone Space Provided? Yes
(REGZ)
Main Electrical
7.2.8.2 Space provided? Yes
Service Panel
Demarcation on Not Applicable at Design
7.2.8.3 Commissioning Documents
Documents Stage
52
Annexure – 1: Schedules of operation
53
54
ENCLOSURE 8: TRAFFIC STUDY AND
MANAGEMENT PLAN
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Traffic Study
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Table of Contents
Catalog
1. INTRODUCTION ................................................................................................................................ 3
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1. INTRODUCTION
1.1 PROJECT BACKGROUND
Gwalior is one of the major cities in Madhya Pradesh. It is situated on the Delhi-Agra-Bombay
route and developed all around the foothills of Gwalior Fort. The presence of Gwalior Fort makes
it an Important tourist city of India. It is the fourth largest city in the state spreading over an area
of about 289 square kilometers. The city serves as the administrative headquarters of Gwalior
District and Gwalior Division. The city economy is dependant on trade and commerce.
Additionally the city is base of Indian Air force and Indian Arms cantonment.
While Gwalior Municipal Corporation limit covers area of 289 sq.km, the planning area of Gwalior
spreads over 826.53 sq.km. Gwalior Planning area is overlooked by Gwalior Development
Authority (GDA).The city is divided into four regions : Laskhar East, Laskhar West, Gwalior City
and Morar.
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This data gives an insight into the traffic flow within Gwalior limits and helps to better
understand the busy network during different time of the day. Within the proximity of the
airport, the traffic is mostly in the 10-30km/hr speed range indicating the lack of road
management systems.
The National Highway 92 is being renovated as it has been really necessary for the increasing
traffic on this road and due to the presence various prestigious institutes of Gwalior on this road
like Indian Institute of Hotel management, Gwalior, Air Force Station, Gwalior and Malanpur
Industrial Area.
The road previously due to less maintenance had many accidents but to resolve this problem
the road will be made Four-Lane Highway from Gwalior to Malanpur and then Two- Lane
further on.
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Fig 3.1: Important traffic generation points along major connecting routes
National Highway 92 (NH 92) is a National Highway in India. NH 92 links Bhongaon on NH-24 in
Uttar Pradesh with Gwalior in Madhya Pradesh. The highway is 171 km (106 mi) long, of which
75 km (47 mi) is in Uttar Pradesh and 96 km (60 mi) is in Madhya Pradesh.The highway stats
from Gola Ka mandir circle in gwalior and ends in Bhaogaon in UP. In Gwalior it is better known
as Airport Road as the Gwalior Airport is situated on this road. It is now been developed as a
Four - Lane Highway from Gola Ka Mandir in Gwalior to Malanpur Industrial Area in Bhind
District because of the heavy traffic in this area. It is usually used as a link from Gwalior to
Malanpur, Bhind and Etawah. Malanpur is an industrial area that is linked by this road with
Gwalior.
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Node Gole Ka mandir MITS College, JB ma Major Bus and Bhind Rd.,- NH44 7200m 16 Min
1 nga Ram Factory,Ind Tempo Stop, Fr
ra Prasta Marriage G uit seller and F
arden,Rimss Hospital ast food Joints.
.
Node Pinto Park Petrol Pump, Vegeta Commercial Ac Bhind Rd. - Airport 14 Min
2 ble Market, Axis Ban tivity Square
k Etc. Dominos,Com
mercial Complex, Ma
5600m
rriage Garden (Abhin
andan & Gulmohar),
Fishery Department
Campus
Node Deen Dayal naga Petrol Pump, Ebnize Commercial Ac Bhind Rd. - Airport 8 Min
3 r er School,Post Office tivity in front a Square
,Adityaz Hotel, CAM nd residential c
T Campus,Private Ba olony at back si 3600m
nks. de, Marriage G
ardens on the
Main Road.
Node Airport Square Amity University, Pot Institutional Bu Airport Square 5 Min
4 ato Research Institut ilding on the M
e and Campus, Air fo ain road and re 2100m
rce Campus, Shramo sidential coloni
dya Vidhyala. es backside.
Node Chambal Gate Prestige Institute, IH Institutional Ce Bhind Rd. - Airport 9 Min
5 M college, IRA World nter Square
School, Rishisvar Ho
4590m
spital.
Node NH-44 Prayaga Goyal PUC Interstate NH44- Bhind Rd., 14 Min
6 Centre transit. 8700m
Airport Square
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NODE ANALYSIS
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The three important characteristics for traffic operational analyses are flow, speed and density. It is
hypothesized that if freeway traffic is allowed to behave without any restrictions, it displays four phases in the
flow- density curve.
Zone-1 is the un-congested zone when there is no influence of the increasing density on the speeds of the
vehicles. The level of service remains high enough to ensure that the speed does not drop with the
introduction of newer vehicles onto the freeway.
Zone-2 starts at the point of critical density. In phase 2, the freeway cannot sustain the speed with injection
of newer vehicles into the traffic stream. The density increases while speed falls, maintaining the flow
Zone-3 is when we observe decreased speed and decreased flows. Very low speeds Cause the flow to drop at
an active bottleneck or a downstream bottleneck may be constraining the flow.
Zone-4 starts with fewer cars entering the traffic stream and the output flow increasing at the same time; we
are led to this phase of recovery. During this phase, the density of traffic starts decreasing and speed starts
increasing at a faster pace leading to increasing flow. This is the period when the traffic flow is recovering and
trying to reach the initial speeds.
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TERMINAL
BUILDING
ZONE 3
D
C
F
E
ZONE 2
ZONE 2 ZONE 2
G
B
ZONE 1
H ZONE 4
A
It can be observed that during the uncongested period, Zone I(From A-B), cars move at free flow speed and
even when density increases, the flow remains uncongested. As we move ahead to Zone 2(From B-C), speed
drops but flow does not due to slight increase in density. Again, as we move ahead to Zone 3(From C-D-E),
flow and speed reduces but due to increase in number of lanes, no bottleneck formation takes place. In Zone
4(From G-H) speeds recover and hysteresis takes place via Zone 2(From E-F) which acts as a junction for
parking for proceeding to Zone 4(From G-H).
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ENCLOSURE 9: EXISTING AIRPORT EMERGENCY
PLAN
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GWALIOR AIRPORT EMERGENCY PROCEDURE
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GWALIOR AIRPORT EMERGENCY PROCEDURE
Prepared by:
Recommended
by:
Approved by:
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AMENDMENTS
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GWALIOR AIRPORT EMERGENCY PROCEDURE
FOREWORD
AIRPORT DIRECTOR
AIRPORTS AUTHORITY OF INDIA
GWALIOR AIRPORT
CIVIL ENCLAVE
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CONTENTS
4. AIRCRAFT OPERATORS 86
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GWALIOR AIRPORT EMERGENCY PROCEDURE
CHAPTER – 1
INTRODUCTION (GENERAL)
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CHAPTER – 02
AGENCIES INVOLVED
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Only fire fighting and rescue personnel wearing approved protective fire
fighting clothing and equipment should be allowed in close proximity to
an Aircraft accident site. Such clothing should be worn within a
distance of approximately 100m from any point on the Aircraft or any
fuel spillage.
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GWALIOR AIRPORT EMERGENCY PROCEDURE
3. The plan should provide for the control of crowds that always collect
at an accident site and also for the preservation of the entire area,
undisturbed whenever practical, for investigation, for investigation
purposes. (See Appendix I )
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GWALIOR AIRPORT EMERGENCY PROCEDURE
disabled vehicles. Staging theses vehicles can prevent traffic jams and
confusion at the accident scene.
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5. MEDICAL SERVICES
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GWALIOR AIRPORT EMERGENCY PROCEDURE
rapid response, the plan can include arrangements for land, sea and
airborne transportation of medical services to the scene and
subsequent transportation of persons requiring immediate medical care.
Prearrangements are necessary for the availability of doctors and other
medical personnel for all Airport emergencies. The plan should list a
sufficient number of doctors to offset any absence at the time an
emergency occurs.
6. HOSPITALS
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2. The distance from the Airport and the ability to receive helicopter.
The alert of an Aircraft accident should be made to a single
medical facility, which then alerts all other facilities according to a
local medical communications network.
7. AIRCRAFT OPERATORS
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GWALIOR AIRPORT EMERGENCY PROCEDURE
8. GOVERNMENT AUTHORITIES
9. AIRPORT TENANTS
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GWALIOR AIRPORT EMERGENCY PROCEDURE
4. The Senior most officer of the MT Section available shall act as the
Transportation Officer., As a means to easily identify and distinguish
the transportation officer in charge, a lime-green hard hat and lime-
green vest or other apparel should be worn, with
“TRANSPORTATION OFFICER” in reflective lettering displayed back
and front.
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13. MILITARY
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15. CLERGY
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CHAPTER – 3
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The Secondary alarm will include the internal agencies of IAF as per
the list available with BOCC which are required to be informed.
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The In charge (OPS) will assist the Airport Director who will be the
coordinator among the agencies working at the line of the crash
and rescue operations.
Ensure that every agency concerned has been informed and is
available at the site of crash.Render all possible assistance to
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GWALIOR AIRPORT EMERGENCY PROCEDURE
Command Post
Forward command post for the emergency response will be
established close to the incident site for ease of coordination or as
desired by APD or his representative
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GWALIOR AIRPORT EMERGENCY PROCEDURE
Arrange transport for the crew for medical examination (if required).
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Ensure that any property removed from the accident site should be
handed over to CISF/Police/Airlines operator with proper
documentation so that the face value of the material as evidence is
not destroyed.
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a) Control Room
1. Inform CASO.
2. Inform constable at the gate to make arrangements to open
Cargo Gate (Rendezvous point) and permit the medical and
emergency vehicles and teams to proceed to the scene upon
production of proper identification cards and after proper
security check in coordination with the transport officer.
3. Inform to Cordon-off the accident site and collecting area /
triage area in coordination with Indian IAF.
4. Advise to Guide the outside Fire vehicle, Ambulance, doctors
etc to the crash site with one security guard on the vehicle.
5. Local fire vehicle to report and out side Ambulances will
report to AAI apron controller for further coordination with IAF
to reach crash site and the Triage area.
6. Send security personal to the site to control the unauthorized
entry of outside personnel in to crash site in coordination with
local police.
7. Assist Fire service to collect the belongings of passengers
until taken over by Terminal.
8. In the Terminal Bldg (Departure gate), provide strict access
control.
b) CASO
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GWALIOR AIRPORT EMERGENCY PROCEDURE
They should also allow the work of Airport Rescue and Fire
Fighting services unhindered and unobstructed. The security
personnel arriving at the site of crash shall ensure that
unauthorized staff / persons are kept away from entering into
cordoned area and not allowed to interfere with the wreckage /
parts of the aircraft or move around in the area which may
obliterate the ground marks left by the aircraft which may be
one of considerable values as piece of evidence to the
investigator. The parts of the wreckage aircraft shall not be
disturbed or interfered with except for the purpose of providing
succor to the inured, removal of dead bodies, extinguishing of
fire and saving the wrecked parts.
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GWALIOR AIRPORT EMERGENCY PROCEDURE
He shall assist the State Police for carrying out their duties on
the crash site.
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Rigging equipments
Torch lights or emergency lights
First aid facilities
Inspection table for doctors
Photographers
Lighting facilities
Drinking water facilities
Protection from rain/sun etc.
1. The Airport Director will go to the accident site and when required,
set up an easily identifiable mobile command post. The mobile
command post should adequately staffed by Senior Representatives
capable of making decisions involving
Airport Operations;
Security Operations;
Medical Operations;
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GWALIOR AIRPORT EMERGENCY PROCEDURE
Aircraft Operations.
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GWALIOR AIRPORT EMERGENCY PROCEDURE
a) Medical Service
Send one doctor to the First Aid Room to for medical check-up
of the casualties.
Category Red /
If the passenger is in critical conditions and
Priority-I require prompt and immediate
medical aid, immediate care, he will
be declared as passenger in the category-I
and a red band tied to the upper arm.
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a) briefing;
b) communications; and
c) transportation service to and from accident site, when permissible
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CHAPTER - 4
All accidents other than on Base Accident. Air Traffic Control Tower, IAF,
GWALIOR Airport, will work as an alerting post and will convey by the
most expidious means available , information to the RCC(FIC) regarding
any Aircraft which is reported to be in distress or danger and known to
ATC IAF GWALIOR , The rescue coordination center for GWALIOR is
based in (O.C.C) located at Delhi ( Tel. No___________________) which
is the charge of G.M.ATS, Northern Region , who is directly responsible
to the chairman, Airports Authority of India.
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3. The senior Airport Fire office will report to the senior Fire officer of
the Fire department having jurisdiction over the area and will
request instructions.
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6. ACTION BY HOSPITALS
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CHAPTER - 5
PHASES OF EMERGENCY
2. Alert Phase:
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3. Distress Phase:
4. TYPE OF EMERGENCIES
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In this emergency, only ATC and Aerodrome Fire Service (AFS) have
to take action.
Runway-in-use _______
Registration _______
ETA _______
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5. WEATHER STANDBY
Registration ---------
ETA --------
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Registration ____
ETA ____
Fuel on board (if known) ____
Nature of emergency ____
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The AFS will immediately turn out a full attendance, which will
normally be stationed at the pre-determined standby points (Fire
Station approach roads & VOR). Any subsequent action is the
responsibility of the in-charge of the AFS and the appliances will not
return to the fire station until he has satisfied himself that they are no
longer required. The ATC Officer will declare the incident closed only
after agreement with the in-charge, AFS.
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GWALIOR AIRPORT EMERGENCY PROCEDURE
Dispatch a senior traffic official to the site to liaise with the in-
charge of the Ambulance service or Incident Officer according to
the degree of accident.
Provide transport and shelter for persons who are not injured or
do not require ambulance facilities.
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CHAPTER - 6
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4. Care Principles
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major hemorrhages;
severe smoke inhalation;
asphyxiating thoracic and cervico-maxillo-facial injures:
cranial traumata with coma and rapidly progressive shock;
compound fractures;
extensive burns (more than 30 per cent);
crush injuries;
any type of shock; and
Spinal cord injuries.
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CHAPTER - 7
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CHAPTER - 8
CARE OF FATALITIES
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CHAPTER - 9
Note: The vehicle log book should be sealed after relevant entries are
made these entries should be made immediately on return from the
operations.
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Document of Aircraft
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CHAPTER - 10
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APPENDIX - I
ACCIDENT INVESTIGATIONS
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7. For further details see ICAO Doc 9137, Airport Services Manual,
Part I – Rescue and Fire Fighting, and Doc 6920, Manual of Aircraft
Accident Investigation, Part III.
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APPENDIX – 2
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APPENDIX – 3
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APPENDIX – 4
AIRCRAFT OPERATORS
GENERAL
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a receptionist(s);
registrars; and
a welfare co-ordinator for the survivors.
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EMERGENCY KITS
The kit should also contain adhesive type name tags to identify
passengers who have been processed and those for whom
arrangements have been made.
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APPENDIX-5
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APPENDIX-6
STATE ADMINISTRATION
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APPENDIX-7
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APPENDIX-8
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APPENDIX-9
Name/Designation/Organisation Email
Secretary,MoCA Sec.moca@nic.in
Member(Planning),AAI sraheja@aai.aero
ED (CNS-OM) edcom@aai.aero
ED(OPS) edopsaai@aai.aero
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ENCLOSURE 10: BOMB THREAT CONTINGENCY
PLAN
177
RAJMATA VIJAYARAJE SCINDIA
TERMINAL, CIVIL ENCLAVE GWALIOR
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FOREWORD
The Contingency plan to deal with Bomb Threat in Civil Aviation at Gwalior Civil
Enclave is developed to ensure that the Aviation Security measures and
responsibilities are clearly defined and understood by all the users of Gwalior
Airport. The Contingency Plan to bomb threat in Civil Aviation at Gwalior Airport
clarify and detailed all measures that are required to be implemented at Gwalior
Airport to meet requirements of the National Civil Aviation Security Program.
The Contingency Plan to deal bomb threat in Civil Aviation at Gwalior Airport is
primarily to address specific Aviation Security legislation, administered by BCAS,
Govt. of India.
Ajay Srivastava
Airport Director
Gwalior Airport
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Index
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CHAPTER-1
1.1 STANDARDS
Following are the relevant standards in ANNEX 17 to the convention on International Civil Aviation:
1.1.1.1 Each contracting state shall ensure, when reliable information exists that an aircraft may be
subjected to an act of unlawful interference, that the aircraft is searched for concealed
weapons, explosive or other dangerous devices, articles or substances. Prior notification of
the search shall be provided to the operator concerned.
1.1.1.2 Each contracting state shall ensure that arrangements are made to investigate, render safe
and / or dispose of, if necessary, suspected dangerous devices or other potential hazards at
airport.
1.1.1.3 Each contracting state shall ensure that contingency plans are developed and resources are
made available to safeguard civil aviation against act of unlawful interference. The
contingency plans shall be tested on a regular basis.
1.1.1.4 Each contracting state shall ensure that authorized and suitably trained personnel are readily
available for deployment at its airport serving civil aviation to assist in dealing with suspected,
or actual, case of unlawful interference with civil aviation.
1.2 CONVENTIONS
1.2.1. Various international conventions have mandated the following acts to be criminalized with
severe penalties:
a) Destruction of, or serious damage to the facilities of, an airport serving International Civil
aviation or aircraft is not in service located thereon, or disruption of the services of airport, if
such an act endangers or is likely to endanger safety at that airport;
c) Destruction or damage to air navigation facilities or interference with their operation, if such
an act is likely to endanger safety of an aircraft in flight; and
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1.3.1 As per Doc.9873, 6.1.3.1, measures to responds to acts of unlawful interference should also
be defined in an NCASP. Specific responsibilities and/or duties should be allocated to
government department, law enforcement agencies, national armed forces, air traffic service
providers, aircraft operators, airport management and tenants, and should include preparing
contingency plans, issuing staff instructions, installing communication system, and
undertaking training in how to respond to an act of unlawful interference.
Sec. 36. Detention of Aircraft – The commissioner or any other person authorized in this behalf
by Central Government may, for reasons to be recorded in writing, detain an aircraft in his
opinion-
a) The aircraft has onboard unauthorized arms, explosive or other sabotage devices which
are likely to cause danger to the security of that aircraft; or
b) The aircraft has onboarded a person who has gained entry in unauthorized manner or is
likely to cause unlawful interference with civil aviation operations; or
c) The detention is necessary to secure compliance with any of the provisions of these rules.
1.5 LAWS
1.5.1 Punishment for criminal use of explosives is also laid down in sec. 286, 307 of IPC an and
provisions of Indian Explosives Act.
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CHAPTER--2
OPTIONS
2.2 CATEGORISATION
A threat should be considered specific when detailed information is available on any of the
following: -
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The above are indicative. The Bomb threat Assessment Committee (BTAC) needs to take final
call depending on the inputs available, ground situation etc. In case there is a deviation from
above guidelines, reasons must be recorded in writing.
2.4 There are four actions open to the coordinator. Which one is chosen depends upon the
assessment of the threat which the situation presents. The choices are: -
I. To do noting
II. To search, and then to evacuate a suspicious object is found.
III. To evacuate all persons except search teams and essential staff, and then carry out a search
and evacuate fully if a suspicious object is discovered.
IV. To evacuate all staff immediately then re-occupy using trained searcher.
Option 1: Do nothing
This option may appear attractive if the threat appears to be a hoax, but it should not be
adopted unless the coordinator is absolutely sure that it is malicious call or prank. If there is
slightest doubt, the coordinator must turn to one of the other options.
This choice means that people will be in terminal building for a longer period should there
be a bomb present. However, if a bomb is found, they can then be evacuated away from
danger. If nothing is found and there are no other significant factors, the coordinator may
consider this option appropriate if assessing the threat level as low.
When the threat level is considered to be moderate but there is no reason to believe that an
explosion may be imminent, or if the suspect device is small (e.g. a letter bomb) and parts of
terminal building may be some considerable distance from the device, the coordinator might
consider evacuating part of the terminal building alone or retaining only essential staff and
search teams within the terminal building.
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If a call received which the coordinator considers to indicate the existence of high risk, there
will be a case for evacuating as quickly as possible without conducting a search, especially
there is a possibility of imminent explosion.
When the time of explosion has been disclosed in a threat call, the coordinator must ensure
that any searches are finished and staff are cleared at least 20 minutes before the deadline,
irrespective of whether any devices has been found or not.
Similar options should be exercised after assessment when the target is aircraft or cargo.
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CHAPTER--3
MEASURES TO BE ADOPTED
3.1.1. Every airport will have a Bomb threat Assessment Committee (BTAC) empowered to evaluate
every bomb threat call and take appropriate actions as laid down and as deemed necessary
without reference to any higher outside agency. BTAC categorizes as the received calls as
Specific / Non-Specific.
3.1.2. BTAC shall consist of the following officials with respective status as mentioned against each:
Note 1: Para 3.1.2. above lists officials within agency who are authorizes to represent their
respective agency as member / alternate member/s of BTAC. Considering that under
circumstances of a bomb threat the safety of lives / property is directly linked to the prompt
and appropriate decision of the BTAC, it shall be the responsibility of senior most official
within each agency to attend the BTAC whenever possible. However, also considering that
senior most official within each agency may not be present at the airport round the clock
due to nature of official duty / routine work performed, next senior most official within such
agency authorized as alternate members remains an exception rather than a rule. In case
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any, the overall responsibility under situation of a Bomb Threat will always rest with the
senior most official designated to act as coordinator / member of BTAC.
Note 2: Presence of Airline Security Manager / Station Manager in BTAC should not be
restrict to their aircraft only. Their presence during Bomb Threat to terminal building is also
essential so as to fully involve them in the resultant subsequent action as decided by BTAC
during Bomb threat situations. For example, Station Manager / Security Manager must be
fully involved in BTAC along with their trained security/ other staff in large numbers who can
be fully and effectively utilized for speedy evacuation of their passengers, aircraft and
subsequent search.
Note 3: Defense Airfields: At the Airports which are controlled by Indian Air Force (IAF),
Security officer of IAF should be incorporated in BTAC. Liaison with duty officer ATC, Station
Security Officer and other Air Force authorities shall be carried out before earmarking a
location for explosives disposal area and isolation bay/area.
Note 4: In a case of Bomb Threat in the air, the BTAC at the likely landing airport needs to
be activated simultaneously.
Note 5: In case of Nuclear, Biological and Chemical threats the NDMA (National Disaster
Management Authority) / NDRF (National Disaster Response Force) need to be informed
immediately.
3.2.1. On receipt of bomb threat call which can either to be an aircraft, terminal building or any
vital installation, BTAC should be assemble immediately at a designated “Control Room”.
The basic requirements for a Control Room are as follows.
a. It should have dedicated telephone lines with STD / ISD/ caller ID facilities.
b. It should be located in such a way that there is no interference from passengers / curious
staff not involved in the threat resolution process.
c. All bomb threats, received by telephone, in writing or via other means of communication
should be considered serious and real, until determined otherwise.
d. It should have facilities like laptops with speaker system and other audio-visual aids like
projector, TV with live feeds and Fax machine.
g. In case where terminal buildings like cargo terminals are at a distance, separate control
room should be designated in that particular area.
3.2.2. Alternate Assembly point for BTAC (Airport Director Office) should be designated with all
the required facilities in case the control room is inaccessible or cannot be used for any
reason. At least 20% of the assemblies should mandatorily at alternate assembly point so
that this room is in operational and serviceable condition.
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3.3.1. Bomb threats via telephones may be received by airports, aircraft operators and cargo
agents either directly from people issuing threats or from intermediaries, e.g., the media
or press agencies. In either case, recipients should try to obtain as much information as
possible about the threat in order to facilitate assessment of it dentification of the person
of giving call.
3.3.2. To facilitate the collection of information, aircraft operators and airport should install call
recording and caller ID facilities on appropriate exchanges and/or telephones. When a
bomb threat has been recorded, the recording should be retained as evidence. These
details should be provided to BTAC as per the format given in Appendix ‘A’. The details of
telephone no/s should be part of Bomb Warning Assessment Form (BWAF) as per the
format given in Appendix ‘B’.
OF BOMB THREAT
a) Listen carefully and make a note of actual word used by the caller.
b) Either take action to trace the call or alert a colleague.
c) Take such action as may be necessary to record the call, where this is not done
automatically.
d) Prolong the call to obtain as much as information as possible.
e) As the caller the following questions:
(i) WHERE is /are the bomb/s? - Asked first so that an evacuation can be planned.
(ii) WHEN it will go off? - So that a time factor is known for the evacuation.
(iii) WHAT does it look like? - To help in recognition of the device during a search.
(iv) WHO are you? - To see if the caller is from a credible group.
(v) WHY are you doing this? - To build a better picture of incident and keep the caller on line
to assist in tracing the call.
Note 1: The questions should be posed as open-ended questions rather than as leading ones. For
example, ask, “Where exactly is the bomb?” rather than, “Is the bomb in the hold of the aircraft?”
Note 2: The order in which questions are asked is important as the caller may hang up before all
the questions can be asked.
f) If possible test, test the credibility of the caller by making up a non-existent flight number,
flight time or location and asking the caller whether that is the one to which he is referring.
h) Inform a supervisor who should inform the nominated bomb threat assessor, the police or
other security agencies.
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a) Ask for, and make written note of, the precise time at which the threat was issued and the exact
work used by the caller.
b) Ask whether the intermediary obtained answers to any of the questions detailed above and
about the origin of the call and the caller’s identity.
3.4.3. The recipient of a written bomb threat should preserve the message and deliver it to the
supervisor with precise information about its discovery. Message discovered in the flight should
be referred to the pilot in command (PIC) immediately.
3.4.4. Supervisors should interview the recipient of any call or message in order to complete Bomb
Threat Report Form as per ANNEXURE ‘A’ and relay it without delay to the nominated
coordinator.
When a bomb threat call is received, the receiver of such call or his immediate supervisor will
immediately convey the exact words of threat call along with other aspect as noted in Bomb
threat Report Form to the Coordinator. It would be the immense help if the receiver of the
threat call presents himself/herself to avoid communication gap and correctly gives brief on the
exact word of the call to the BTAC. If this is not possible for any reason such as distance/ nature
of duty handled etc., the person receiving the threat call must remain available on a given
telephone until the call is properly evaluated and decision on follow up action is arrived at by
the BTAC. Concerned agency will mandatorily register an FIR / initiate prosecution in all types
of Bomb threat calls. Diarizing at the local police station is mandatory.
3.5.1. As soon as information of bomb threat is received, coordinator of BTAC will be informed.
Immediate action will be taken to inform ATC, BTAC control room and all the member of BTAC.
In addition, the following will be alerted:
a) Medical Officer
b) Fire Station
c) Apron Control
3.5.2. BTAC will convene without delay. Assembly and assessment by BTAC should not be delayed
or account of any member not being present. A log book will be started at BTAC immediately.
The receiver of the threat information should remain present to assist BTAC.
3.5.3. All persons concerned with investigating and resolving the bomb threat shall continue on
their job until further instructions, even if shift time is over.
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3.5.4. Process of boarding the concerned aircraft shall be stopped immediately and if boarding
had commenced, passengers on board are to be disembark immediately.
3.5.5. Simultaneous action is to be taken to deploy airline security staff and ASG/ APSU personnel
at the check-in counter/s for detaining and examining passengers arriving late. If the threat
is received on phone, caller should be sought to identified and apprehended quickly and
investigated thoroughly.
3.5.6. When an Aircraft is taxiing to take off point or awaiting take off at departing station and
receive Bomb Threat Call.
a) Since BTAC cannot assemble and evaluate the threat call under such a situation, the
affected aircraft will invariably be diverted / directed to Isolation Bay. Thereafter, sufficient
stepladders, buses, manpower and other essential equipment will be rushed to the
Isolation Bay.
b) Measures should be taken for quick and orderly disembarkation of passengers/ crew with
their hand baggage and for taking passengers to a safe distance (100 M) away from the
aircraft in first instance. (Coaches will not be brought to the aircraft stepladder but will be
parked 100 M away from the aircraft.)
c) Disembarked passengers shall be brought back to Terminal building in coaches under airline
escort for further action. Thereafter action is to be taken as per decision of BTAC.
3.5.7. When aircraft lands back at departing station on a Bomb Threat call
3.5.8. When scheduled aircraft arriving or diverting aircraft lands under Bomb Threat
a. Normally BTAC under such circumstances will be assembled at the station of departure.
Therefore, when BTAC decision from departing aircraft is not received or received to treat
the call as “Specific”, affected aircraft on landing will be directed to isolation bay by ATC.
However, when BTAC decision from departing station is received to treat the call as “Non-
Specific”, affected aircraft on landing will be directed to remote bay by ATC.
b. Measures should be taken for quick and orderly disembarkation of passengers / crew with
hand baggage and passengers taken to safe distance (100 M) away from the aircraft.
(Coaches will not be brought to the aircraft stepladder but will be parked 100 M away from
the aircraft.)
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3.6.1 The coordinator, who as directed by BCAS should be basic AVSEC qualified should assess the
threat by working methodically through the Bomb Warning Assessment Form (BWAF) given
in Appendix ‘B’ which is designed to lead the BTAC to a logical assessment of the threat as
GREEN, AMBER, RED as described below with the action required.
a) GREEN – A warning, which may not identify a target or a specific group of targets, or which
otherwise lacks credibility. (Present countermeasures negate threat. No extra precautions
necessary).
b) AMBER – A warning that can be related to one or more targets but where there is doubt
about its credibility or about the effectiveness of existing countermeasures. (This may
involve danger and may require augmentation of countermeasures).
c) RED – A specific warning where the threat is of a nature which permits identification of a
specific target, or where the caller has positively identified himself or the organization
involved and is judged credible (Likely to involve danger to people, property or commercial
activities and therefore merits countermeasures. Take all necessary countermeasures).
Note: - Category RED warnings against aircraft in flight should be notified immediately to the pilot-in -
command of the aircraft and the destination or diversion airport.
3.6.2 Although the procedure is largely dependent on the provision of “Yes” or “No” answers to a
series of questions, the coordinator must also take account of other factors that may bear
upon the credibility of the threat including, but not limited to, the following:
a) The recent history of warnings and incidents for the airport and the aircraft operators.
i. Industrial disputes concerning the aircraft operator of the flight concerned or airport.
ii. Disputes with neighboring communities or environmental protest groups concerned with, for
examples, airport expansion or development.
iii. Similar incidents have been recently reported in the media which may have prompted a hoax
call.
iv. High-profile persons who may attract a threat at the airport or are passengers on the flight.
c). Any reported incidents such as overbooked passengers, a passenger refused boarding or
disputes at check-in or the gate involving friends or relatives.
d) Anything particular or unique about the cargo being carried on the flight.
e) Additional security measures that have been taken and the local police of security authority’s
opinion of the warning.
3.6.3. Bomb Warning Assessment Form (BWAF) (Appendix B) is a guideline to the committee for
systematic and scientific evaluation of the Bomb threat call. The committee will proceed in
the following manner:
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3.6.4. Part ‘A’ of the BWAF would be filled with the help of receiver/ Bomb Threat Report Form.
The coordinator will initiate this process immediately to avoid delay in analysis of evaluation.
The recorded Bomb Threat Call (if available) should be played back before committee
members. All the column in Part ‘A’ of a BWAF must be filled to assist the committee in
reaching Positive Target Identification (PTI) as given in Part ‘B’.
3.6.5. Part ‘B’ comprises Boxes 1A, IB, 2,3,4 and 5. The procedure of analysis depends upon the
provision of Yes or No answers to questions given in the Boxes.
Box 1A and 1B: - These Boxes contain question which help identify the aircraft (1A) or the
airport facility (1B) under threat.
Box 2: - These Boxes contain question which identify the specific area from which threat
emanates or what is called Positive Target Identification (PTI).
Note: - The question Box 1A ,1B and 2 are designed to cover all conceivable situation of Bomb
Threat. The questions are mutually exclusive and emphasis has been given to the fact that
unless and until a caller has exclusive and specific information, he would be giving a hoax
call. A single tick in Box 1A or1B and Box 2 would make the threat “Specific”.
The BTAC will assess the Bomb Threat by filling up the Boxes at 1A, 1B, 2 and 3 in
that order. Once a single tick in Box 1A or1B is made out, it will identify the aircraft or facility
as threatened. The BTAC would then fill box 2 (Positive Target Identification) which will
determine the Bomb Threat call to be specific, if even one question is ticked as ‘YES’ in this
column. This would result in the Bomb Threat being declared as “Specific” and specific action
of Bomb Threat drill being followed in the full, will be adopted.
No tick or positive answer in Box would not result in the call being ignored at this
stage. The BTAC would continue assessment by filling Box 3 which identifies the background
data. Box 3 has been so designed that answer to these questions would result in
accentuating or mitigating the Bomb Threat. If the threat seems to have been accentuated
on account of filling Box 3, the BTAC will ask the Security (ASG/APSU and Airlines Security)
to increase confidence in security measures by fulfilling the checklist as given in Box-
4(Conditions in Box4 are in the fact the essence of security measures as laid down by BCAS)
and quick review will determine the adequacy or otherwise of the security measures. If the
measures are not adequate, confidence building would be done by augmenting them to
desired level as provided by BCAS.
When filling up of Box 3 results in mitigating the threat which has been non-specific so far,
the existing security measures and action as per Box 5 may be taken. These are the measures
which are taken as precaution and are preventive steps in case of receipt of a supposed
threat.
Note1: - There may be a situation where the threat assessment would result in a tick in Box
1A but due to lack of Positive Target Identification there may not be any tick in Box 2. Since
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a tick in Box 1Awould mean identification of aircraft, steps in Box 4 in augmenting the
security measures would be taken and the threat would be classified as “non-specific”. It is
also experienced that despite a tick in Box 1A, no specific aircraft may be available because
it is yet to be assigned later by the airlines for that flight destination.
Note2: - It is visualized that there may be situations where the commander of the aircraft
may insist that the Bomb Threat dill procedure must be followed because the Threat is
received is such that it will be dangerous to clear the aircraft without following the complete
Bomb Threat dill. The Commander-in-chief of the aircraft being the final authority
responsible for everything in the aircraft, the BTAC must accede to the request of the
commander. Also, there may be the differences of the opinion amongst the member of the
BTAC regarding the Bomb call being classified as Specific or Non-Specific. In such cases of
disputes amongst the Committee Members, it will b advisable to treat the call as Specific
and follow the Bomb Threat Drill procedure completely. The opinion of the dissenting
member must be recorded.
3.6.8. The BTAC will go ahead with its evaluation of the Bomb Threat call expeditiously. At the end
of BWAF, the summary of actions to be taken in each type of situation is given. Thus, in case
of a threat being declared as Specific, specific action of following the Bomb Threat drill by
moving the aircraft to isolated parking bay and started the aircraft search will be taken up.
In case of the PTI being negative but the threat being accentuated (Box 3) the Committee
will decide whether the confidence building measures (Box 4) are to be taken or even aircraft
search is also to be conducted by removing the aircraft to isolated parking bay. It is important
to remember that removal of the aircraft to isolated parking bay and its search are not the
only and essential steps. The review of each step by all agencies from security point of view
conforming to the procedures established and accepted must be taken up. Thus, the
increased level of threat should be met with additional security measures. It is expected that
the decision of the Committee would be taken quickly keeping in view of the urgency of the
situation. All the departments/agencies would take pre-decided action in coordinated
fashion. It is imperative that the BTAC shall be attended as far as possible at senior decision-
making level.
Written Bomb Threats are discovered on board aircraft in flight are likely to be spurious, but
each such threat should be considered on its merits in order to assess the risks involved.
Where Pilot-in-command authorized to assess the threats, aircraft operators should provide
them guidance to enable them assess the risks and decide upon a course of action. They
should consider the following:
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explosion. It is likely that a person issuing such a threat will seek to ensure that it gets
through and that there is time to react it. Where no clear reason for the threat can be
deduced, the threat is less likely to be genuine.
c) Whether there is any person on board (e.g. a political figure or other well-known person)
who might attract a threat.
d) Whether there are passengers on board who might be responsible for a threat (e.g. a
potentially disruptive passenger, deportee or inadmissible, young people or rowdy
passengers).
e) Whether the aircraft’s operator Operations Centre can be contacted by radio to establish
whether this is an isolated incident or one of a series of similar events affecting the
aircraft operator.
f) If the pilot-in-command s not satisfied that the incident is a hoax, he should seek
information through the aircraft’s Operation Centre about the current threat to aircraft
operator’s interests at the airport of departure, with a view to establishing whether there
are credible motives for attacking te aircraft or disrupting the flight and the quality of
security measures at the airport of departure. Aircraft operator should therefore develop
procedure for making such information available to the pilot-in-command with the least
possible delay.
g) If a bomb threat is associated with an aircraft in flight, and once the threat has been
assessed as positive, the aircraft operator should contact the PIC, directly or through the
air traffic services unit, to provide information about the threat and device and about
how to respond.
h) On receipt of the information, the PIC should direct a discreet search of the aircraft to be
conducted by crew members, as this is possible in flight, and in such a manner as to not
cause passengers to panic.
i) If a bomb threat assessment indicates that it is unlikely that there is a bomb on board the
aircraft, but the aircraft operator or PIC wishes to be prudent, before committing, for
example, to an extended flight across a body of water, the aircraft should be diverted to
an airfield at which it can land safely. Once it has landed, consideration should be given
to taking the actions described above for threats against an aircraft on the ground.
j) If the PIC has reasonable grounds for believing that there is a bomb on board the aircraft,
consideration should be given to the potential effects of an explosion on board to persons
on the ground, particularly in densely populated areas. Action should be taken as
described in the following guidelines:
i. an aircraft emergency should be declared to the air traffic services unit stating the
nature of the emergency and the aircraft should be diverted to the nearest civil or
military airfield at which it can land safely. The route to the nominated nearest suitable
airfield should avoid densely populated areas;
ii. if the aircraft is required to make an approach to land over a densely populated area,
it should be permitted to land at that airfield in accordance with current emergency
procedures. Time in the air should not be prolonged in order to divert to another
airfield;
iii. If an immediate landing cannot be made, consideration should be given to seeking
expert advice by radio communication with the air traffic services unit or other ground
station which should, in tum, provide a landline link with State EOD (Explosives
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m) If an immediate landing cannot be made, the pilot-in-command should take expert advice
from explosives disposal experts as described above and consider moving the item,
especially if its position poses a real threat to the aircraft. Reference to the aircraft flying
manuals should be made to identify the least risk bomb location. If this is a door, a stable
platform of hard, blast-attenuating materials, such as cabin baggage, on which the object
can be placed, should be built to the centre of the door.
n) It is unlikely that an explosive device placed on an aircraft will be fitted with an anti-
handling triggering mechanism. Nevertheless, if the device is to be moved, the following
actions should be taken: -
i. The suspect object should not be opened.
ii. A check should be made to ensure that it is free to move - i.e. that there is, for
example, no thread joining it to the aircraft structure which may indicate an anti-
handling triggering mechanism.
iii. It should be moved gently and kept at the same height in which it was found.
iv. It should be placed, in the same height, in the prepared least risk bomb location and
packed around as described above and suitably restrained against movement during
flight or during deceleration or landing.
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Note 1: Any procedure which involves disconnecting or cutting of electrical circuits in the
suspect items should not be attempted.
Note 2: As a general rule, a suspect package or article should not be jettisoned from an
aircraft in flight, particularly through a dorso-lateral door, emergency exit or hatch. Tests
have shown that such a course of action will subject the object to severe buffeting by the
airflow. This could cause an explosion in close proximity to the fuselage, or engine(s) of the
aircraft, resulting in a loss of control and possible consequential destruction of the aircraft.
o) If no suspicious item is found and an immediate landing cannot be made, the pilot-in-
command should consider the following: -
i. Although a bomb threat may have been received and assessed as RED, the aircraft
should be flown as normally as possible, striking a balance between the need for a
rapid landing and the risk arising from undue haste.
ii. An emergency should be declared and the aircraft should be diverted to the
nearest suitable airfield. The choice of airfield should take into account landing
performance requirements, approach aids, emergency facilities and the proximity
of approach paths to densely populated areas.
iii. The ATS unit should be fully briefed on flight intentions so that the appropriate
ground measures can be initiated at the airfield of intended landing.
iv. The cabin crew should be briefed to be prepared for a possible emergency landing
and prepare for the possible use of crew oxygen/smoke mask.
v. If operationally possible, the cabin differential pressure should be reduced to zero
by descending the aircraft to the cabin altitude. Cabin altitude should not be
missed and should be maintained until the top of descent. When the minimum
safe altitude and range considerations permit, aircraft may be descended to below
3000 m (10000 ft).
vi. All efforts should be taken to minimize aircraft manoeuvres and to avoid
turbulence.
vii. Careful consideration should be given lo the choice between flying fast to
minimize airborne time and flying slowly to minimize air loads and damage in the
event of fuselage rupture. In most cases, the turbulent air penetration speed will
be a reasonable compromise.
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should be advised of the need to remove passengers from the vicinity of the
aircraft to at least 100m in an upwind direction as quickly as possible after landing.
x. If an aircraft lands following receipt of a bomb threat that has been assessed as
AMBER or RED, provision should be made to disembark passengers and crew with
a minimum of delay, with their cabin baggage when circumstances permit. The
necessary emergency services should be provided to preserve life and prevent
injury, and the aircraft should be parked where it will not hazard people or
premises in the event of an explosion. The actions for a bomb threat against an
aircraft on the ground should then be implemented.
a. All agencies concerned shall search their own area and report.
3.8.2. Search of passengers Terminal, Cargo Terminal or other installation under Non-specific
Bomb Threat without Evacuation
When the BTAC classifies a bomb threat as non-specific requiring no evacuation, the
coordinator will quickly reiterate the BTAC decision to its members (who are also heads of
agencies/departments) and their search responsibility The BTAC decision and search
responsibility will also be communicated to all concerned agencies, officials of which are not
members of BTAC The search is conducted in the prescribed manner in which all agencies
will be responsible to conduct search in their own areas and give final confirmation to the
Coordinator.
a) Airlines Security and Airlines agencies will carry out search of aircraft under Non-Specific
Bomb Threat. Coordinator, Air carrier and ASG will ensure action as prescribed for their
individual agencies in box 5 of Bomb Warning Assessment Form (BWAF). Thereafter
airline will organize clearance certificate as given in Appendix 'C' and obtain signatures
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of all officials agencies involved in the search. After ensuring that all officials/agencies
have signed the clearance certificate, the coordinator will himself sign the certificate.
b) The coordinator will then convey the clearance to ATC on telephone/RT for release of
aircraft. BDDS, fire tender and ambulance must stand by near the aircraft until clearance
is conveyed to ATC by the coordinator.
a) For searches to be effective they should be conducted systematically by staff familiar with
the area concerned. The main reason for this the outside personnel will be unlikely to
know the layout of the aircraft or terminal building and the various places in which a
device could be concealed and therefore will not be able to spot anything that is out of
place or unfamiliar. Search plans should be prepared in advance and staff trained to use
them. A search coordinator must be assigned to provide control of the search process
and, if necessary, take the decision to evacuate.
b) Searchers should be briefed not to touch suspicious objects but to notify the search
coordinator, mark the location with a prominent object (without touching the device),
and withdraw from the immediate area to await further instructions. When a suspect
device is discovered, the possibility of secondary devices should not be discounted.
c) Hand-held communications are useful for coordination of the search and are often the
only way of ensuring appropriate and speedy lifesaving procedures for search and
evacuation. However, once a suspect device has been located, those using hand-held
communications should immediately move away and ensure that they and anyone else
in the area move outside the cordon as quickly as possible. Radios should no be used to
transmit within 25 m of a suspect device.
d) Before starting the search, strict access control must be implemented in the area being
searched. This is necessary to ensure that devices are not introduced into the area once
it has been cleared.
e) Effective and systematic searches take time. If the warning received indicates a possible
detonation time for the device which will prevent a thorough search being conducted,
the best and safest option is to evacuate all personnel to a safe area and wait for the
arrival of BDDS.
f) The search may be conducted by at least two security agencies, where applicable. (e.g.,
Airlines, ASG/APSU)
g) In order to expedite search of large open areas, sniffer dog may be used.
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a) Sending a message to search teams over a public address system. It should be coded
to avoid unnecessary disruption and alarm to the public.
b) Using personal radios, pagers, and/or mobile phones,
c) Using a telephone “cascade” system: the coordinator rings, for example, three
members, who in turn ring a further three members each and so on until all the teams
have been alerted.
3.9.1.1
a) Aircraft should be shifted to isolation bay immediately (when not already at Isolation
Bay).
b) Airlines security guard should be deployed at ladder point to frisk/ check belongings
of all authorized persons entering isolation bay /affected aircraft.
c) Arrangements should made to offload passenger/crew hold baggage, unaccompanied
baggage, mail, courier / cargo, company store etc. from aircraft and lay all such
baggage/stores category wise on ground at a safe distance of 100 M from the affected
aircraft in an orderly manner for easy inspection by sniffer dogs, explosive vapour
detector, anti-sabotage check team and subsequent identification by individual
passengers. All such baggage/ stores should be guarded by airline security from the
time it is laid until reloading on the aircraft search/check/identification.
d) Arrangement should be made to offload all catering/bonded stores if already loaded
on aircraft and in catering vehicle. Catering vehicle, alternatively, can be put in
isolation bay and parked at safe distance of 100 meters away from aircraft search for
anti-sabotage check system.
e) Arrangement should be made to offload first aid kits, medical boxes and subject them
to check / search by anti-sabotage check team. Presence of airline doctor will not be
insisted upon by the airline for opening such kits / boxes. Airline doctor/ his
representatives or anti-sabotage check team will reseal opened boxes for the duration
onward and return journey of the flight to base.
f) Refueling of the aircraft will be prevented until BTAC coordinator confirms
completion of anti-sabotage check of aircraft.
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a) The large number and types of aircrafts in service makes it impossible to provide in this
manual recommended aircraft inspection procedures that will be adequate in all cases.
Aircraft operators should develop and aircraft search procedure checklist for each type of
aircraft in service and include this checklist as part of the flight crew security kit. Use of
such a checklist will be particularly helpful at locations where the only persons familiar with
the aircraft are flight deck and cabin crew members.
b) The designated isolated parking position will likely prove to be the best location at the
airport at which an aircraft subjected to a specific threat can be searched, but contingency
plans should recognize that it may not always be possible to reach this position. All
searches under Specific Bomb Threat will be carried oy by BDDS and assistance will be
provided by airline engineers and DGCA.
c) Aircraft searches should be carried out in good lighting conditions; this may require the use
of auxiliary power units or the attachment of ground power lines to the aircraft. It will be
necessary to impose and maintain control of the access to the aircraft before starting the
search, which should be carried out with the minimum number of persons on board
d) To avoid duplication of effort, the search of an aircraft should be conducted systematically
by staff familiar with the particular aircraft, provided with a checklist and assigned to
specific areas of the aircraft. Attention should be given to those areas to which passengers
have had access, such as main cabins, galley areas and toilets, but the search should also
include flight deck exterior of the aircraft and cargo holds. To ensure this, those involved
in search should invariably be in possession of BCAS approved aircraft search list so that all
possible hiding places of explosives devices are thoroughly checked (BCAS approved
aircraft checklist is at Appendix ‘D’).
e) If a suspect explosives device is found either within or in the immediate vicinity of an
aircraft, the initial action should be to withdraw all personnel to a safe distance and await
the arrival of BDDS. Any further decision to move the aircraft away from the device or the
device away from the aircraft should take into account the main priority which is
preservation of life. Moving the aircraft will involve putting at risk additional personnel,
such as the ground engineer, marshalling staff and aircraft tug drivers, whereas leaving the
aircraft in situ and evacuating all personnel to a safe location may result only in damage to
the aircraft and terminals or facilities, should the suspect device explode.
f) All entrance doors, hatches, inlet and exhaust ducts, services and access doors, etc. must
be opened to allow the necessary access to all areas to be inspected. However, a check
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must be made to ensure that all doors and covers which were opened for inspection
purposes are closed on conclusion of the search.
g) Airport security will cordon the aircraft from a safe distance of 100 mtrs and allow only
essential movement of persons / vehicle within the cordoned area.
h) Airlines will ensure that passengers, checked / unaccompanied/ rush tag baggage, catering,
bonded stores, first aid/medical boxes, company stores, mail, cargo, bags, etc. are
completely off loaded from the aircraft and removed to a distance of 100 M away before
aircraft search commences.
i) Coordinator / aircraft operator will ensure that only minimum required persons enter the
aircraft for search and those involved in search are dispersed from each other.
j) Airline security will frisk all those entering the aircraft for uploading/ search and maintain
a record of such persons both entering and exiting.
k) Airline/ flight engineers will ensure that all aircraft doors are kept open (with red ribbon
placed across as a caution to those on board involved in the search).
l) BDDS will conduct the search with the help of explosives sniffer dogs/ explosive detectors
to ensure highest standard of detection during specific threats.
m) Airworthiness officer (DGCA) along with the airline ground/flight engineers will open all
the panels and inspect them (including cockpit) for any suspected article.
n) Airline will not undertake refueling of aircraft until its check is completed by anti-sabotage
check team.
o) BDDS will take appropriate action for identification /removal/ disposal of suspected
aircraft reported during search.
If the target of a bomb threat assessed as ‘specific’ is the airport installations, facilities and
buildings or navigation aids or in the immediate vicinity of the airport, decision is to be taken
regarding evacuation.
3.9.2.1 Evacuation
a) The purpose of evacuation is to move people from an area where they might be at
risk to a place of safety. This may be achieved by: -
i. Internal movement to a safe area.
ii. Partial evacuation (where large buildings are involved and only a suspect letter
bomb or small device has been found).
iii. Full evacuation.
b) In all cases where a bomb threat is received, the coordinator should immediately
inform the ASG/APSU and advise them of what action is being taken.
a) The decision to evacuate must normally be taken by the coordinator but ASG/APSU
may be ready to advise on request.
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b) In exceptional circumstances, where, for examples, the ASG /APSU have received
specific information, they may themselves order an evacuation if necessary,
overruling the decision of the coordinator.
c) On the other hand, it may be necessary for the ASG/APSU in some circumstances to
insist that the terminal building not be evacuated. They might, for example, have
reason to believe that there may be an explosive device outside the terminal building
and evacuation will place people at greater risk.
The coordinator should have up-to-date drawings of evacuation routes. This is especially
necessary when there are a number of exits from the terminal building. The purpose is
twofold.
a) To evacuate as quickly and efficiently as possible using all available exits. A public address
system can help in directing staff to particular exits. When no other form of
communication is available, the fire alarm can be used providing that it can be sounded
in a way which distinguishes it from a fire warning, that staff have been trained to
recognize the signal, and that the fire alarm is not part of an automatic system connected
to the local fire service. Use of the fire alarm is a poor alternative to a public address
system and should only be employed temporarily pending the installation of something
better.
b) To provide alternative routes for evacuation so that people can leave the terminal
building without being placed in danger by passing close to the suspect explosive device.
For example, if there are four evacuation routes but one of the routes runs closer to a
suspect explosive device than the others, the coordinator can decide at once to evacuate
using the other three routes only.
a) To ensure the safe evacuation of the public, the coordinator should consider using
members of the staff as "Evacuation Marshals" to ensure that the public can leave quickly
and without panic by the pre-selected routes Evacuation marshals need to be selected in
advance and trained in their role
b) The evacuation plan should also show two designated assembly areas in opposite
directions where people should congregate after evacuation. Sometimes fire assembly
points can be utilized for this purpose, as long as they are located at a minimum 400 m
from the terminal building. ln some circumstances, assembly areas may need to be up to
1000 m away from the building. BDDS advice should be sought as to whether this is
necessary.
c) Ideally, all employees and members of the public should be asked to take personal
belongings and baggage which is still in their possession with them, since this will help to
avoid unnecessary suspicion over articles of property left behind after evacuation.
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However, this will be difficult to implement unless a public address system or other
suitable means of communication is readily available and used properly.
d) Personnel and passengers who have been evacuated may have to remain outside for a
long time before the terminal building is declared safe, so it is best if shelter can be
provided under cover. It may be possible to seek accommodation by arrangement in
alternative buildings. This provides the opportunity to shelter from weather, maintain
good communication and cater to individual needs.
e) If possible, car parks should not be designated as assembly areas since they may contain
secondary explosives devices hidden within vehicles.
f) Safe assembly areas should be included in the search plans and checked whenever search
procedures are initiated or an immediate evacuation is ordered. These details should be
included in the BTCP as per the format given in Appendix 'E' and also marked on the
sketch of the airport which will be attached as Appendix 'F'.
g) When an evacuation is initiated, doors and windows should, whenever possible, be left
unlocked, especially in the vicinity of a suspect explosives device. Lights should be left on,
but plant and machinery should be shut down where practicable. Procedures should be
established lo ensure that concessionaire kitchen facilities are left in a safe condition. It
is recommended that utilities such as gas and water (unless this affects the building
firefighting sprinkler system) not required to facilitate the search of an area in a building
be turned off in order to minimize damage in the event of an explosion.
h) A method must be devised to check that everyone has left the terminal building after the
evacuation and that all personnel, staff and visitors are accounted for. Nobody should be
allowed to re-enter until the terminal building is declared safe.
a) Once an evacuation has been completed, the coordinator will have to decide when the
building / facilities can be reoccupied. When a suspect explosive device has been found,
the decision to reoccupy will require close coordination with the APSU / BDDS until the
device is declared safe.
b) It should be remembered that there may be another suspicious object somewhere in the
terminal building undiscovered because the search was terminated and the terminal
building evacuated due to the discovery of the first suspect object. The Coordinator
should, therefore, have the rest of the terminal building searched before considering
reoccupation.
c) Where the time has been given for an explosion, but no explosion occurs, the coordinator
must ensure that at least one hour is allowed to lapse after that time before search
procedures are initiated or recommended.
3.9.2.5. Guidance for searching terminal buildings, Cargo terminal and other installation
buildings under a Specific Bomb Threat after evacuation
i. Search plans
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a) The first step in preparing a search plan is to divide the terminal building into sectors.
The building may already be segregated into various zones and therefore it may be
convenient to make these the sectors. Each sector must be of manageable size for the
number of searchers nominated to it. Remember that effective and systematic
searching takes time.
b) The sector may be one large room, such as a check-in area, concourse or baggage
reclaim area, or perhaps a number of small aircraft operator operations offices in an
office suite. It is most important that cloakrooms, stairs, corridors and elevators be
included in the search plans as well as car parks and other areas outside the building.
Search teams should be formed from staff nominated to search those areas with which
they are most familiar. The numbers required will depend upon the size of the search
task. Reserves should be appointed in case of absence. Staff should be trained and
rehearsed.
a) Those areas that will be used as evacuation assembly areas, together with those areas
where the greatest number of the public or staff are likely to be vulnerable, should be
searched first. Consider also, as a priority, those public areas to which the perpetrator
may have had easy access such as restrooms, elevators, stairways and hallways. The
CCTV records of these areas should be minutely examined for any suspicious activity
preceding the threat.
b) Those areas to which access is normally controlled may be searched last. Do not
overlook car parks, the outside area of the terminal building and the perimeter.
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v. How to search
a) The conduct of searches will depend on local circumstances and local knowledge. The
overriding principle is that they should be conducted in a systematic and thorough
manner so that no part is left unchecked. The searchers need to practice in order to
get a feel for the logical progression through their area (whether it be in a terminal
building, baggage reclaim area or administrative or operations office suite) and the
length of time it will take.
b) With this in mind the method outlined in this example is of a room search in a sector.
It should be adapted to reflect the peculiarities of the actual area being searched.
c) A search should begin at the entrance to the room. Each searcher or team should first
stand still and look around the room. He should note the contents of the room and
make a quick assessment of those areas that will need special attention. He should
look for any unusual lights (including small light sources known as light emitting diodes
which are often used in the arming circuits of Explosive Devices). He should also listen
carefully for any unusual noises, particularly ticking or whirring sounds. If nothing
unusual is seen, the search should begin.
d) If anything, unusual is seen, the searcher or team should alert the coordinator who
will decide whether to evacuate the building.
e) The search should be conducted methodically, moving in one direction around the
area to be searched. It should be carried out in three sweeps.
f) The first sweep is to work around the edges of the room, taking in the walls from top
to bottom and the floor area immediately beneath the wall. Look inside fireplaces,
behind curtains and window blinds, behind and beside furniture around the edges of
the room. The dustbins and garbage bins must be invariably checked. The sweep
should finish at the doorway where il began.
g) The second sweep should lake in the furniture and the floor. Furniture should not be
removed but drawers should be opened and searched and gaps in and under furniture
should be explored. If the floor covering shows signs of recent disturbance, it should
be lifted.
h) The third sweep should cover the ceiling if it is of a kind in which objects might be
concealed. Start at one comer and systematically search the whole surface.
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i) After the search has been completed, and if nothing has been found, the coordinator
should be informed immediately so that the sector can be marked "CLEAR' on the
search plans and barricaded with tapes.
j) Searching should continue until the whole area has been cleared. Do not forget that
secondary devices are possible.
a) All CISF controlled airports will have dedicated BDDS and Dog Squad of CISF. The BDDS of CISF
(ASG) should be well equipped with necessary manpower and equipment at Appendix ‘G’. For
other BDDS, efforts should be made with State Police/local hubs of NSG to ensure that they are
fully equipped to deal with any type of threat.
b) There are four generic steps that should be taken by anyone finding a suspicious item during a
search to ensure the safety of personnel and minimum disruption to operations. By training
staff to follow these four steps in conjunction with local contingency plans, a safe conclusion to
the incident with the minimum loss of life can be achieved in most circumstances. The four steps
and the order in which they should be executed are:
i. CONFIRM
ii. CLEAR
iii. CORDON
iv. CONTROL
i. CONFIRM
a) Confirm that the item found should actually be reopened as a suspect explosives device. Check
for labels or tags giving possible information of the owner. Do not attempt to move the item
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in order to gain better access to it since the device may be equipped with an anti-handling
device which may cause it to detonate.
b) Eliminate the possibility that the suspect item is private property left unattended by anyone
in the immediate area, e.g. crew baggage. Do not take too long in carrying out this action since
the device may be on a timer or able to be detonated by remote control
c) Note its exact location; make brief notes of its appearance and mark its position (if necessary)
with a distinct item to assist police or explosives disposal staff in identifying the item on their
arrival.
d) Assess the validity and likelihood of the suspect item being in that particular location. Ask the
following questions: -
i. Is the suspect item placed in a position to kill personnel or destroy resources?
ii. Is the target valuable, vital, attractive or under threat from possible attack?
Once satisfied that the suspect item could be an explosives device, carry out the next three
steps and take necessary actions as defined in local contingency plans.
ii. CLEAR
a) Evacuate all persons, including any search teams, from the immediate area of the suspect
device. A minimum initial distance of 100 m should be achieved but the actual circumstances,
i.e. the presence of large areas of glass, the presence of inflammable or explosive substances
in the vicinity of the suspect explosive device, the possibility of building collapse or local
contingency plans, may dictate a larger distance.
b) Ensure that the relevant duty personnel such as the Coordinator of BTAC are notified about
the suspect device according to contingency plan.
iii. CORDON
a) Establish a cordon to prevent anyone gaining access to the area. Size will depend on the site
of the incident, the size of the suspect explosives device and the protection of cordon
personnel. A good baseline is to ensure that cordon personnel are out of line of sight of the
device. Two cordons, 'outer' and 'inner' are desirable' A forward control point should also be
established to control access to the inner cordon.
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THREAT OBJECT
NATIONAL
COMMAND
CONTROL CENTRE (CCR)
Inner cordon
FCP
Communication
OUTER CORDON
INCIDENT
CONTROL
CENTRE
RV
Point
Staging area
EOC
A gate shall be designated for entry and exit of emergency responder. Entry and exit shall be
against listed personnel and photo id and not against AEP.
b) Establish one cordon entry point and ensure that nobody approaches the device unless
authorized by the Incident Commander. It is not unusual for senior management and other
persons to insist that they view the device to give a second opinion. They should be politely
denied access until BDDS have arrived and agree that it is safe to do so.
c) The police / security staff may deploy a further outer cordon on access routes to ensure
safe evacuation and the speedy arrival of emergency services.
iv. CONTROL
a) Inform the BDDS about the suspect device. The persons who discovered the device should
remain to assist police and explosives disposal agencies.
b) Establish an incident control point to act as the central control for the incident until
specialized staff arrive on the scene and take command.
c) Nominate a rendezvous point outside the cordon for all other agencies that will be arriving
at the incident.
d) Emergency services such as fire and ambulance crews should stand by at the rendezvous
point outside the cordon to deal with the results of an explosion or fire.
e) In the event of an explosion, first aid to injured personnel should be rendered immediately,
followed by established damage control procedures.
f) After the effects of the explosion are under control, the search should be continued in case
there are secondary explosive devices.
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3.11.1 Confirmed Threat bag dealt within the inline system till the arrival of BDDS.
If any bag is found with Positive trace of explosives and other circumstances indicate
presence of an Improvised Explosive Device (IED) in the bag, the following shall be the
required actions and responsibilities thereof:
a) Action: Use of Emergency stop function and Evacuation of area in the immediate
vicinity.
b) Operator will immediately stop conveyer using emergency stop switch.
c) Operator will evacuate the area in the immediate vicinity and shall carry the test results
of ETD (Explosives Trace Detector) and inform the supervisor accordingly.
d) Supervisor will inform BDDS, CISF and Duty Terminal Manager, Head of Security,
Managers HBS and concerned Airlines.
e) General area will be evacuated and cordoned off by CISF/ASG
f) Shifting and Placing of Confirmed Threat bag into TCV will be immediately carried out
with help of ROV.
g) BDDS will handle the entire process as per the render safe procedures.
3.11.2 Confirmed Threat bag dealt with at X-ray machine at screening point till the arrival of
BDDS:
a) Operator should remain cool and calm and should not panic.
i) BDDS will handle the entire process to neutralize the suspected baggage by RSP.
3.11.3 Procedure to deal with Bomb Threat during Screening of items in concessionaire shops in
SHA.
a) Only cleared items by X-BIS machine will proceed to the DFS storage area.
b) While screening through X-BIS, the operator will also conduct random checks of liquids
through Liquid Explosives Detector.
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c) While screening or Physical check if operator finds obvious explosives, operator will take
action of alerting BDDS, ASG and airport operator.
d) BDDS will contain the threat item and move it to explosive disposal area for RSP.
a. There should be separate facilities (including a landline), to deal with the public who will be
making enquiries concerning persons involved in the incident. A Telephone and information
Centre (TIC) will need to be set up, which need not necessarily be at the incident site, with a
dedicated telephone number, and trained staff, to cope with the high volume of calls from
public, relatives and friends of persons involved. Incoming overseas calls in different languages
should be expected. All information provided by the TIC to the public, relatives and friends
should be closely coordinated with the media officer of the airport operator.
b. Relatives and friends of persons involved in the incident may provide useful information for the
resolution of the incident, such as names, ages, nationalities, physiognomies, health conditions,
etc. Authorities should develop a predetermined and systematic collection system involving
detailed forms for collecting information on passengers and on the persons calling, so that
proper intelligence analysis can be made. Such analysis should not be made by the telephone
and information centre, which should concentrate on the collection of information, including
maintenance of an accurate list of all persons involved in the incident. All information provided
by the telephone and information centre to relatives, friends and the public should be closely
coordinated with the Coordinator and the media officer.
c. There may be relatives and friends present at the airports of departure or destination. Any
relatives and friends present at the airport of the incident should be isolated from the rest of
the public in a rest and debriefing centre.
d. Rest and debriefing centres should be separated from telephone and information centres and
the EOC (Emergency Operation Centre), and ideally isolated from airport public areas. The main
functions of staff at a rest and debriefing centre should be to assist relatives and friends, remove
the pressure of dealing with persons under stress from the entities directly involved in
resolution of the incident, and collect additional information on the persons involved in or any
victims of the incident.
e. Reporting forms used at a rest and debriefing centre should have the same format as those
used at a telephone and information centre, but should clearly indicate that the source of
information was physically present. All such forms should be forwarded to the telephone and
information centre before being sent to the Coordinator. The Coordinator may decide to
conduct further interviews of relatives and friends for confirmation and intelligence purposes.
In the event of injuries or casualties, the information collected on relatives and friends by staff
of telephone and information and rest and debriefing centres may be useful for police
authorities.
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f. Functioning of both types of centres should be mock exercised on a regular basis, at least once
a year, to maintain the high level of expertise of its staff, as well as the speed and adequacy
of processing.
3.13. MEDIA
a. The Airport Director / C.O.O. (Chief Operating Officer) will brief the media, if necessary.
b. During a security incident at an airport, press and media should be dealt with fairly but firmly
to ensure that they do not publish information which might pre-empt action planned or being
taken by security forces.
c. Information about the incident should be controlled at all times so that police and aircraft radio
communications are not intercepted and rebroadcast as news items over public networks.
Camera teams should be prevented from infiltrating the incident area and filming operations,
as this may dangerously heighten tension among perpetrators, while premature disclosure of
information regarding operations can frustrate tactical plans.
d. Press and media should be treated with consideration and given information and assistance as
possible and as available without compromising the safety of any passenger involved and police
and security forces dealing with the incident. If press and media are denied information, they
may become frustrated and be unlikely to cooperate with police requests, but may instead
pursue information by other means and, intentionally or not, reduce the possibility of a peaceful
resolution.
e. An initial agreement with press and media should be made for regular press briefings to be
held in a dedicated press room, for example, every hour or second hour, so that only official
and safe information is communicated by the media officer selected. ln addition, any press
releases should be approved by the highest coordinating authority before being disseminated.
f. The Appropriate Authority and other entities involved in the management of an act of unlawful
interference should exercise restraint in providing information on the act, which may be
disseminated to and by press and media during or after the occurrence. ln particular, publicity
should be minimized about the actual methods and planning used by the perpetrators and the
security measures applied to prevent acts of unlawful interference.
3.I4. REPORTING
3.14.1. Within 24 hrs of occurrence of any bomb threat call, a detailed report is to be forwarded
to BCAS HQ for correct and timely analysis in the format prescribed in Appendix - 'H'. It
should cover all details such as time of call, assembly of BTAC, declaration of call status,
copy of BWAF and any shortcoming observed during conduct of BTAC.
3.14.2 Through investigation of blast incident, one can assimilate and analyse the data to check
future incidents and develop counter measures in an effective manner.
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The post blast incident report should be compiled in the format attached at Appendix 'I'
and forwarded to BCAS HQ by the coordinator / in-charge BDDS within 24 hrs of
occurrence of incident.
3.15.2 After each occurrence or threat, a review and analysis of the same should be conducted as
soon as possible by the BTRC. All agencies involved should report on their role, problems
and success encountered and relationship with others involved, effectiveness of
communication and observations and amendment or revision of the Bomb Threat
Contingency Plan.
3.15.3.1 The above committee will meet at least in once in three months and review the
following:
a) Bomb Threat Contingency Plan as approved and ensure that it is understood/ followed in
letter and spirit by all concerned agencies / individuals.
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b) Bomb threat calls received in the previous quarter and take effective measures to
overcome shortcomings, so as to improve upon them on future occasions. Bomb threat
call data will be collected as per Appendices 'J' and 'K'.
d) installation and working of call recording facility on all telephones by airlines/ agencies/
departments and their functioning.
g) Progress of Bomb Threat Evacuation Drill which is mandatory to be conducted once a year
for each terminal building/ cargo terminal
i) Prompt dispatch of the minutes of the BTRC meetings to Commissioner of Security (CA),
BCAS, Jan path Bhawan, Jan path, New Delhi 110001 and to all members of BTRC.
3.15.3.2 The BTAC may suggest, with regular inputs from various agencies for amendments, if any,
in the BTCP.
3.15.4. ANALYSIS
3.15.4.1. A monthly report on numbers of Bomb Threat Calls received will be forwarded to BCAS
HQ for compilation and analysis centrally as per Appendix 'J''.
3.15.4.2. The result of review and analysis should be made available to all participants along with
recommendations. The same should also be submitted to the Commissioner of Security
Civil Aviation, Bureau of Civil Aviation Security.
A full-scale mock exercise of bomb drill will be organized once a year at each terminal
building / cargo terminal. Aircraft search drill should be practised frequently.
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CHAPTER – 4
RESOURCES
4.1. Following resources will be utilized:
4.1.1 Committee as per BCAS O.M no. -7(16)2006/Div-I (Airport Infra) dated 29/01/2014 Should
be consulted at design stage so that all technical and operational requirements to deal with
the contingency are met. Evaluation, exit, isolation, cordoning, and threat investigation /
containment plans should be laid out at the design stage itself.
While entities involved in bomb threat resolution and mitigation will vary from airport to airport,
the contact details of the following should be readily available to the coordinator and all
concerned:
i. Appropriate Authority
ii. RDCOS, BCAS
iii. I/C BDDS
iv. CASO, I/C APSU, Shift G.O.
v. Local Police
vi. NSG authorities, Where applicable
vii. IB authorities
viii. Authorities of the airport operation
ix. Authorities of the aircraft operator
x. ATC
xi. Fire Services
xii. Nearby medical service units and hospital
xiii. Military Liaison Unit
S.No Officials Agency Status Contact No.
(a) Shri Ajay Srivastava Airport Operator Coordinator 0751-2473880 (O)
Airport Director 9425700340 (M)
(b) Representative of Local State Police Member 0751-2445200, (O)
Police (S.P.) Resi- 0751-2445300
(d) Sh. Arvind Singh CASO & A.C. ASG/CISF Member 0751-2470606 (O)
(C.I.S.F.) 9685551610 (M)
(e) Sh. Faraz Ahmad Siddiqui Station Manager, Member 9654066690 (O)
Spice Jet
(f) Sh. Rohit Indigo Member 8178247767 (O)
9910549102 (M)
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b. Care should be taken to ensure that there are no services such as gas pipelines, refuelling hydrant
pipes, other fuel lines or electric power cables beneath the aircraft parking area surface. If
possible, a second isolated parking spot may be designated in case the primary isolated parking
position is unavailable or in case of multiple crises.
c. Consideration should also be given to the prevailing wind direction and aircraft landing and take-
off routing at the airport, so as to minimize disruption to airport operations and the surrounding
locality in the event of an aircraft fire or release of dangerous substances from an aircraft.
d. Airport emergency procedures should designate one or more points to which affected aircraft
might be directed. However, plans must be flexible enough not to rely on such an aircraft being
able to park at a designated point and must allow for the aircraft to change its position. The
following should be taken into account in selecting designated points:
i. The availability of covered approaches to facilitate action by the security forces; for example,
adjacent buildings, natural features such as undulations in the terrain and the presence of
trees.
ii. The need for Airport Security to have quick and easy access to the scene to deal with the
situation.
iii. The possible danger to other aircraft or people in the vicinity, and hazards such as fuel tanks.
iv. The need for isolation from the press and public.
v. The continuance, as far as possible, of normal air traffic in and out of the airport during the
incident.
a. Each airport should set a site for an isolated explosives disposal area, where explosives expert
may disable the suspected article/item and also cooling off of suspected baggage is carried
out.
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c. Ideally, bunker of the size of 15 mts x 5 mtrs may be constructed 100 mtrs. away from the
services e.g. gas pipe line, hydrant, tube pipes, fuel lines or electronic power cables beneath the
surface etc. The bunker should be located rectangular in shape. The exit corridor should be at
the extremity of the rectangle at right angle to the length. The walls of the bunker should be at
least 3 mtrs. in height made of earth piled or timber lining, sunk 3 mtrs into the ground. The
ceiling should consist of timber lining, which is not secured to the walls. The design will permit
the upward escape of the shock wave and debris in the event of an explosion. The shelter should
be covered by earth to a minimum thickness of 1 mtr.
The shelter exit should be protected by an earth bank 1.8 mtrs height on which a secured anti-
blast shield will collect debris and deflect it downward back into the bunker area. The design
should be capable of withstanding an explosion of 5 kg charge of plastic explosive and access
should be designed in such a way that an ROV can easily enter inside the Explosives Disposal
Area. Adequate fire proof lighting arrangements should be made inside the Explosives Disposal
Area.
BDDS equipment is mandated vide AVSEC Circular no. 14/2010 and reproduced in Appendix
'G'. This form will be sent by I/C BDDS to CASO, Airport Director and concerned RDCOS, BCAS
on a monthly basis and will be reviewed in BTRC.
b. Sufficient cordoning tape should be available at all times with the shift G.O of APSU ASG and
for shift I/c of airport operator at the terminal.
c. Floodlight, communications and access points shall be arranged throughout the airport and
terminal building by the airport operator.
d. Up-to-date maps of the airport and its environs and the types of aircraft in use by the aircraft
operator will be part of the airport Bomb Threat Contingency Plan (BTCP). A scale model of
the airport will be available at the BTAC assembly points.
4.1.7. COMMUNICATION
4.1.7.1. Means of communication, unless already in position, are likely to be a major problem.
Contingency arrangements for advising telephone authorities should be made in advance.
Links should be required between the forward control point and personnel deployed within
the inner cordon, as well as with the EOC. Radio is probably the only system that gives the
required degree of flexibility, but it should be remembered that radio transmissions may
be overheard by perpetrators, press and other, unless encryption or secure transmission
methods are used.
4.1.7.2. The following means of communication should be installed and ready for use during an
incident:
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a. secure landlines from the forward control point to the EOC, negotiators and the air traffic
control tower;
c. Secure links to the Central Committee Control Room, airport authorities, aircraft
operators, the air traffic control tower, police authority headquarters, and emergency
services.
4.1.7.3. Hard-wired telephones should be used as far as practicable. However, cellular telephones
may be used during an emergency as an alternative to radio or landline communications,
as long as they have been appropriately configured for such use. Cellular telephone service
providers should be requested to arrange for immobilization of all non-essential cellular
telephones within the area of the incident.
4.2. TRAINING
4.2.1. BCAS will organize training for all members of Bomb Threat Assessment Committee (BTAC)
in Bomb Warning Assessment. Each organization like airport operator, airline operator,
DGCA, State Police and ASG etc. will ensure that their senior officers who are likely to be
the members of Bomb Threat Assessment Committee undergo required training.
a. All employees working at the airport will be given training in identification of Explosives
Devices and Bomb Threat Procedure under arrangement of BCAS. The
organization/agencies will ensure that their employees are detailed for such training within
six months of their deployment at the airport. Regular refresher courses will also be
conducted.
b. All agencies at the Airport should take serious note of any Bomb Threat Call and
meticulously follow the instructions given in the Bomb Threat Drill. It should be the
responsibility of the officer in charge of the concerned agencies to ensure that all the
concerned officials remain fully aware of the Bomb Threat drill procedure.
d. The training on different aspects of recognition of lEDs and Bomb Threat Contingency Plan
will be organized at airports by BCAS for basic AVSEC qualified airline security staff, SI and
above of ASG/APSU and ATCOS / APMs (from security and operations) of Airport Operators
and this training programmes should cover following topics:
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Following modules should be part of security awareness training for all staff:
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CHAPTER-5
RESPONSIBILITIES
5.1. At the Airport level, the bomb threat contingency plan should be a coordinated programme
between national authorities and agencies, the airport and surrounding community. Airport
contingency plan should clearly define the coordinated response or participation of all
existing agencies, both on and off the airport, which could be of assistance in responding to
an emergency, and should designate specific duties to be undertaken by each responding
agency. Examples of such agencies are:
a) Government authorities;
c) Airport authority;
d) Aircraft operators;
f) Military;
Duties / responsibilities of indicated agencies are given below. However, each airport should add
or delete agencies as required.
i. He will monitor all cases of bomb threat as’ Specific’ on a real time basis and pass necessary
instructions, wherever necessary.
ii. He will submit report to ICAO as per Appendix ‘O’ in the case all actual |IED incidents.
Preliminary report is to be submitted as soon as possible within 30 days and final report is
to be submitted within 60 days. As per ICAO guidelines, preliminary report is to be
submitted to appropriate states and ICAO and final; report is to be submitted to:
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iii. Following the review and analysis, the Appropriate Authority or his representative
should contact or arrange for an overall critique of the occurrence, which should be
attended by all airport and aircraft operator security officers, members of securities
committees and others who may have an official interest. The purpose of this critique
should be to share the experience to those who were not directly involved, so that they
may benefit from it and be better prepared to respond to future occurrences in which
they may be involved.
i. Proceed to attend BTAC control room, act as an observer and assist BTAC.
ii. Keep Appropriate Authority, ACOS(OPS) and BCAS HQ Control Room informed of all
developments by the fastest possible means when the threat is assessed as ‘Specific’
iii. Submit written preliminary and final report to Appropriate Authority
The search of an aircraft should be done in the presence of an officer from DGCA to:
a) Ensure that the inspected aircraft is fully air-worthy before it is declared safe.
b) Assist Explosives Expert/ Aircraft Engineer in opening all panels etc. as required by the
approved inspection schedule. These will be opened with assistance of airline staff.
c) Guide the Explosives Expert/ airport Security Personnel, Airline security personnel in
identifying the most probable location where an explosive can be concealed in the aircraft.
d) Submit a report to the Commissioner of Security (CA) / BCAS in case the anti-sabotage checks
are not carried out by Airline Engineers within 24 hrs. of occurrence of incident.
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xvii. Facilitate rapid entry and exit of emergency vehicles and of persons and agencies needed
at the airport to assist in resolving the threat. Such agencies need to be placed initially in
a pre-designated area before operation.
xviii. Shift GO will be present with the Coordinator while preparing inventory of item/s found
in the unclaimed/unidentified article after it has been rendered safe either in site or at
explosive disposal area by BDDS.
5.8 BDDS
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ii. Keep in constant touch with the coordinator to know how the classification of call i.e.
Specific/ Non-Specific.
iii. Screen immigration documents of flight under threat with extreme care in order to detect
wanted/suspicious passengers, who may be involve in bomb threat in question and
handover such passengers to ASG/APSU for further investigation.
5.10 Customs
i. Rush to the affected aircraft with sufficient staff, when applicable. Make arrangements
to open, check and search bonded stores in the presence of airline security, airport
security, BDDS and reseal the same.
ii. Take possession of contraband / objectionable items from the custom point of view found
during search of aircraft/baggage etc. or when suspected article is opened by BDDS at
site/explosive disposal area.
iii. Organize and ensure screening of 100% hold/hand baggage, mail and courier etc. of
arrived flight under threat and report detection of explosive device/prohibited items, if
any, to coordinator immediately.
a) Immediately direct all BTAC members to proceed to the designated location. Apron
Manager will be informed when an unclaimed/unidentified article is found on the
airside, which is likely to pose danger to the safety security of the aircrafts on apron.
b) Thereafter the Co-Ordinator will inform the following agencies with directions to
report to a location near but at specified distance from unclaimed/unidentified
article immediately: -
No. Agency Remark
(a) BDDS Control Room Shift I/C
(b) Airport Security (ASG-CISF) Asst. Comdt. Of
respective terminal
building or Access control
as applicable.
(c) Duty officer of the Airport Police Station. As applicable.
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c) Quickly inspect the articles visually to establish the identity of the owner from the
marking, name tags, baggage tag, and oral enquiry from the persons around or
through a reference to Airport Operator/ Airline lost and found section and exit
records with APSU. Therefore, an announcement on public address system must be
made to trace the owner.
d) While the unclaimed/suspected bag is being placed in the explosive disposal area for
cooling off, necessary certificate will be signed by all agency as per format given in
Appendix ‘N’. All required agency will also sign necessary certificates as per Appendix
‘N1’ after render safe procedure.
e) Where the owner is not raced in spite of efforts in sub para (C) above, arrange
evacuation of all persons to a safe distance of 100 M on all sides of the
unclaimed/suspected article. In achieving this task, assistance of Airport Security,
Airport Operator Housekeeping Staff, airline staff and duty officers/ staff from
concerned police station will be coordinated by him. Further, to ensure quick and
orderly evacuations, ensure all entry, exit and emergency gates open. I/C (BDDS) will
monitor the evacuation.
f) When the unidentified/unclaimed article is shifted for cooling off by BDDS and the
same is not claimed by its owner within 24 hours, coordinate fort its opening by BDDS
after ETD and X-RAY in the presence of representatives of Airport security, Airline
Security, Customs etc., (Customs will be involved in case of unclaimed/ unidentified
was initially reported in International Arrival hall or on airside of International
Airport. Airline Security will be involved in case of unclaimed/unidentified articles
have the airline markings by way of particular airline baggage tag etc.)
g) Establish media briefing Centre.
h) Establish help desk/center for dealing with enquiries.
i) Coordinator will have overall responsibilities for all decisions BTAC and resolution of
the threat.
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a. As soon as the call is received, the same will be conveyed to the Coordinator of the BTAC.
b. The Coordinator will immediately inform the ATC and BDDS control room of ASG/Local
Police/ nearest bomb detection and disposal unit first and then all members of BTAC.
c. Start a log book regarding arrival of members of BTAC.
d. Inform the air carrier to stop the process of boarding. If boarding has already started,
passengers to be immediately disembarked and brought back to SHA terminal for pre-
embarkation procedures.
e. It may be noted that on receipt of any type of bomb threat call, priority must be accorded
to disembarking of passengers.
f. Collect the information from the receiver of the bomb threat call for analyzing. If available
at the Airport, the receiver of the call be asked to remain present to assist BTAC.
g. Coordinator should also request all concerned to be on the job even if it is time of relief
from duty, in order to maintain continuity.
h. In addition, Coordinator will also inform the following:
i. Medical Officer.
ii. Fire Station
iii. Apron Control
iv. RDCOS(BCAS) of concerned Region
v. BCAS HQ Control Room
vi. COE of concerned Region
i. Coordinator will ensure that all agencies responsible to handle the bomb threat carry out
their assigned duties satisfactorily and assist them to sort out problems, if any.
j. Assess the bomb threat through BWAF.
k. Detail a representative of Airport Operator to be present with the BDDS team at the time
of opening the suspected article (in situ or at explosive disposal area and thereafter to
prepare a complete inventory of articles found in suspected baggage. The inventory will
be signed by representatives of Airport Security, Police, BDDS, Airport Operator, Customs
and |Airline Security (Customs and Airline Security when required only).
l. Take charge of contents of unidentified/unclaimed article after opening by BDDS at
explosives disposal area/ cooling off pit when it does not contain any suspected explosive
article and when the same is not claimed by an airline/ its owner.
m. Arrange for fire tender and ambulance with doctor when the unidentified/unclaimed
article is to be opened by BDDS at the explosives disposal area after cooling off.
vi. Develop and get approved airport specific BTCP and make available relevant portion of
the approved BTCP to concerned entities.
vii. The Coordinator has overall responsibility for all action regarding a bomb threat and
coordination with and reporting to concerned national agencies.
viii. Ensure fire tender and ambulance with doctor is present at safe distance from the
beginning and till the end of the operation by BDDS. If BDDS decides to move the article
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to the explosive s disposal area for cooling off, he must ensure that the fire tender and
ambulance with doctor also follows BDDS to the Explosives Disposal Area.
i. Establish and maintain training programs to enable crew members to act in the most
appropriate manner to minimize the consequences of a bomb threat.
ii. Where passengers have fully /partially boarded, measures should be taken to quickly
disembark such passengers/ crew in orderly manner with hand baggage. These hand
baggage along with pax should be checked and security cleared by BDDS/ASG/APSU team
at least 100mtrs away from any aircraft and brought under escort to arrival hall. These
passengers and their hand baggage will be continuously escorted until their repeat PESC
is completed. Dedicated channels will be given for their check-in, immigration check
where applicable and PESC.
iii. Crew and ground staff on board/in cargo hold at the time of receipt of bomb threat to
look for and report any unidentified article before they themselves finally disembark due
to bomb threat. (The crew and ground staff should be cautioned not to touch, open or
attempt to remove any unclaimed article/device but report to the coordinator).
iv. Airline Engineers /staff should keep aircraft ready to tow position for removal to Isolation
Bay/ Area in case BTAC declares the threat call as specific.
v. Refer passenger joining the check-in queue after receipt of bomb threat call to Airport
Security for inquiry/investigation.
vi. Mobilize sufficient staff even if it is recess / relief time to ensure their availability to
empty aircraft holds and to lay out all unloaded baggage/stores for their anti-sabotage
check as required under specific/ non-specific threat.
vii. Actively participate in the evaluation of threat by BTAC and in deciding follow up actions.
viii. Move to the aircraft under threat and get the tasks performed from the staff as decided
in the BTAC and in a coordination manner with other agencies.
ix. As soon as call / information regarding bomb threat is received by the air carrier, the
Security / Station manager will take immediate appropriate action given as under
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iv. Identify passenger's joining the check in queue after receipt of bomb threat call and refer
such passengers to Airport Security for inquiry/investigation.
v. Mobilize sufficient staff even if it is recess / relief time to ensure their availability to empty
aircraft holds and to lay out all unloaded baggage/stores for their anti-sabotage check as
required under specific/ non-specific threat.
vi. Actively participate in the evaluation of threat by BTAC and in deciding follow up actions.
vii. Move to the aircraft under threat and get the tasks performed from the staff as decided in
the BTAC and in a coordination manner with other agencies.
b) When an Aircraft is taxiing to take off point or awaiting take off at departing station
and receives a Bomb Threat call
i. Since BTAC cannot assemble and evaluate the threat call under such a situation, the
affected aircraft will invariably be diverted/ directed to the Isolation Bay. Therefore, rush
to the Isolation Bay with sufficient stepladders, buses, manpower and other essential GS
equipment.
ii. Ensure quick and orderly disembarkation of passengers / crew with their band baggage and
take passengers to safe distance (100 M) away from the aircraft in the first instance.
(Coaches will not be brought to the aircraft stepladder but will be parked I 00 M away from
the aircraft).
iii. Organize bringing back of disembarked passengers in coaches under airline escort for
further action. Thereafter ensure action as decided by BTAC.
d) When scheduled aircraft arriving or diverted aircraft lands under Bomb Threat
i. Normally BTAC under such circumstances will be assembled at the station of departure.
Therefore, when BTAC decision from departed station is not received or received to treat
the call as "Specific", affected aircraft on landing will be directed straight to isolation bay
by ATC. However, when BTAC decision from departed station is received to treat the call
as 'Non Specific', affected aircraft on landing will be directed straight to remote bay by ATC.
Therefore, depending upon the situation mentioned above, the Airline shall rush either to
isolation bay or to remote bay sufficient manpower, step ladders, coaches and other
essential GS equipment by keeping in constant touch with the Coordinator.
ii. Ensure quick and orderly disembarkation of passengers / crew with hand baggage and take
passengers to safe distance (100 M) away from the aircraft. (Coaches will not be brought
to the aircraft step ladder bur will be parked 100 M from the aircraft).
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i. Shift aircraft to isolation bay immediately (when not already at Isolation Bay).
ii. Deploy airlines security guards at ladder point to frisk / check belongings of all authorized
persons entering isolation bay / affected Aircraft.
iii. Offload passenger/crew hold baggage, unaccompanied baggage, mail, courier / cargo,
company store etc. from aircraft. Lay all such baggage stores category wise on ground at a
safe distance of 100 M from the affected aircraft in an orderly manner for easy inspection
by sniffer dogs, explosives vapour detector, anti-sabotage check team and subsequent
identification by individual passengers. Guard all such baggage/stores by airline security
from the time it is laid out and until reloaded on the aircraft after
search/check/identification.
iv. Off load all catering / bonded stores if already loaded on aircraft in catering vehicle or
arrange to get the catering vehicle to isolation bay and park at a safe distance of l0O meters
away from aircraft for search by anti-sabotage check team.
v. Off load first aid kits, medical boxes and offer them for check / search by the anti-sabotage
check team. Presence of airline doctor will not be insisted on by the airline for opening of
such kits / boxes. Airline doctor / his representative or anti-sabotage check team will reseal
opened boxes for the duration of onwards and return journey of the flight to base.
vi. Prevent refueling of aircraft until BTAC coordinator confirms completion of anti-sabotage
check of aircraft.
vii. Ensure only minimum essential movement of persons / vehicles of airline / other agencies
within 100 M distance from aircraft.
viii. Detail and ensure that a senior airline official from Security, Flight Crew, Engineering,
Catering, Cargo, Traffic etc., with sufficient staff are available to assist anti-sabotage check
/ search team comprising BDDS, Airworthiness officer, Airport Security, Airline Security,
and Engineering etc.
ix. Ensure issue of fresh boarding passes and hand baggage tags to passengers who were
disembarked from aircraft under threat and brought back from security hold to departure
hall.
x. Organise re-screening of passengers and their 100%, hand baggage check by airport
security and hold crew/passengers in security hold until clearance is received from the
coordinator from isolation bay.
xi. Deploy sufficient staff to cross check baggage tag numbers on hold baggage, with
counterfoils held with crew/ passengers and ensure proper and uniform marking of
identified hold baggage.
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xii. Upon receiving clearance from coordinator at isolation bay, arrange to escort crew in
airline coaches to isolation bay. Ensure that crew alights from bus at a safe distance of 100
M and after identification of hold baggage proceeds towards aircraft for secondary ladder
point frisking /100% hand baggage check by airline security before boarding the aircraft.
xiv. Upon receiving clearance for passenger boarding from crew, arrange to escort passengers
in airline coaches (one coach at a time) to isolation bay. Ensure that passengers alight at
a safe distance of 100 M and not more than l0 passengers at a time should proceed with
their baggage coupons/boarding pass to identify their hold baggage without carrying their
hand baggage.
xv. Upon identification of hold baggage, ensure that crew / passengers proceed to aircraft
under airline escort and not loiter on airside/ ladder point. 100 % physical hand baggage
check should be done by airline.
xvi. Ensure that only identified hold baggage is reloaded in baggage containers for loading into
the aircraft.
xvii. Ensure that hold baggage containers are not released for loading in cargo hold until
passengers / baggage reconciliation is done and head count of passengers in aircraft
matches with those checked in and number of boarding card stubs collected at the ladder
point.
xviii. Make efforts to track the passenger of hold baggage which remain unidentified from
details of passenger on baggage tag and though announcement inside aircraft.
(Note: Under no circumstance will unidentified baggage be taken inside the aircraft for
identification by the passenger or baggage loaded on aircraft with verbal reconciliation
arrived on board between the passengers and airline staff).
xx. Detail a security officer to accompany BDDS when unidentified baggage is decided to be
moved to explosives disposal area.
xxii. Cargo, mail, courier, catering, bond stores, medical / first aid boxes, company stores etc,
which is searched/checked/cleared by anti-sabotage check team only will be loaded in the
aircraft. If any of the above mentioned stores which cannot be searched / checked /
cleared as per laid down search procedure, due to its size, volume, paucity of time with
airline etc, or where its genuinity is doubtful /suspect, the same will not be loaded on the
aircraft. Such stores will be further subjected to 24 hr cooling off under airline
arrangement and shall be subjected to a thorough screening/physical check.
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xxiv. Arrange to get clearance certificate and get the same signed off by airline engineer, airline
security, ASG, airworthiness (DGCA), BDDS, coordinator and hand over one copy of the
same to coordinator for giving RT/telephone clearance to ATC. Thereafter, hand over one
copy each to ATC, BDDS and other agencies for their record. (Clearance certificate
proforma is enclosed as Appendix 'C' to this BTCP).
f) It should be ensured by the Air Carrier, Airport Security and Airport Operator Authority
that Aircraft leaves only under condition of total security of aircraft and human life.
A. disembark all passengers and crew with all their cabin baggage by steps or jetties; escape
slides should only be used io extreme emergencies:
B. move the aircraft to a remote location such as the isolated aircraft parking position;
a) In the event of a bomb threat in flight, responsibility for decisions taken rests with the
pilot-in-command. The pilot-in-command should, however, request, whenever possible,
assistance from an EOD expert, either present on board the aircraft or located on the
ground, via air traffic control means of communication.
b) In dealing with a bomb threat directed against an aircraft in flight, some or all of the
following actions should be taken:
i. Specific air traffic control instructions should be published. Other alternatives, involving
words not common to normal air traffic services terminology, may also be useful.
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ii. Air traffic controllers should be prepared to recognize plain language or covert messages
that indicate the occurrence or impending occurrence of a bomb threat. Controllers
should immediately notify their supervisor on receiving information that indicates the
bomb threat and supervisors should immediately notify the following:
iii. Air traffic controllers should also comply with the following when controlling an aircraft
that is under bomb threat:
a) be discreet in communications with the pilot, and responsive to the pilot’s requests;
b) Monitor the aircraft flight path and use normal procedures following leads by the pilot
in communication.
iv. In an emergency, it may be necessary, in the interest of safety, for an aircraft to enter an
airport traffic circuit and land without proper authorization. Controller should render all
possible assistance.
b) Clear affected runways and taxiways after denying clearance to an aircraft under threat
and direct the aircraft to taxi or be towed to the isolated parking position. At the same
time, rescue, firefighting and security services should be alerted in accordance with the
airport emergency plan; and
c) Clear the aircraft to land if the aircraft is airborne, in accordance with established
emergency procedures at the request of the pilot-in-command. ln such circumstances, the
decision on the action to be taken should be that of the pilot-in_ command. If the decision
made is to continue the flight, then, for the duration of that flight, the aircraft should be
treated as suspect and appropriate separation arranged with contiguous air traffic
services units to ensure that other aircrafts are not endangered.
f) For pushed back aircraft when engine has started but taxiing has not yet commenced, ask
the Commander to bring back the aircraft to the same parking stand on its own power
and disembark passengers/crew with their hand baggage.
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g) For aircraft, which has commenced taxiing, ask the Commander to continue taxiing to the
Isolation Bay / predefined location.
h) When the aircraft under bomb threat / call has departed before receipt of bomb threat
call message, inform commander of aircraft regarding the bomb threat to the aircraft.
BTAC decision would be passed on to him as soon as it is arrived at. Further, ask
Commander to either wait for BTAC decision, or return for landing or divert to nearest
airport. He may also continue to his scheduled destination without waiting for BTAC
decision under circumstances explained earlier.
I. Arrange the follow me vehicle for BDDS and BTAC in case requirement exists to move to
Isolation Bay/parking area.
II. Ensure lighting arrangements at Isolation Bay for operations during night time.
III. Arrange for "Follow Me" vehicle with the keys of the explosives disposal area to guide
BDDS with TCV with unidentified/ unclaimed article for cooling off by the shortest
possible route which poses least risk in case of an explosion enroute.
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Appendix ‘A’
Name Organization
Where are you now?
Origin of call
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Caller’s identity
Voice characteristics
Speech
Background Noise
Accent
Manner
Command of language
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Appendix ‘B’
PART “A”
WARNING DETAILS
Date Time Initially call received by Call Received at Was the call
Name Design/Dept Tele Location Recorded Traced If
Traced
No.
Yes No Yes/No
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BOX 1A BOX 1B
BOX 2
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BOX 3
(GREEN)
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BOX 4
COMMENTS
NON-SPECIFIC CALL
BY CO-ORDINATOR
COMMENTS
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BY ASG/APSU COMMENTS
Each aircraft operator and airport should develop contingency plans to be implemented when bomb
threats issued against it are assessed as AMBER or RED Actions are detailed in Chapter 3.
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Appendix 'C'
CLEARANCE CERTTFICATE
1. Certified that anti-sabotage check following a Bomb Threat was carried out in respect
of: -
(a) Aircraft No.__________ Flight No._____________ from (route)___________
to__________________ from (time) _________hrs to_________________ hrs.
on(date)_____________
2. It is also certified that during the search of the Aircraft / Airport Facility mentioned
above no explosive /explosives device / suspicious article / extraneous object was
found.
3. The anti-sabotage checks ,as above were carried out by the agencies mentioned in
sub para (a) to (e) and in the presence of coordinator from AIRPORT OPERATOR
mentioned in sub para (f) below :-
Note: 1 Strike out whichever is not applicable from para I (a) and (b) above.
Note: 2 Officials mentioned at Para 3 (d) and (e) above need not sign this
certificate when the call is 'nonspecific' and when they have not
participated in the search operation.
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Appendix 'D'
AIRCRAFT INTERIOR
FORWARD ENTRANCE
FORWARD COMPARTMENT
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FORWARD TOILETS
MAIN CABTN
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• Passenger berths
• Oxygen cabinet
• Cargo tie-down stowage
• Literature containers
• First-aid kit, only if unsealed
• Passenger oxygen service units - drop them down and inspect
• Oxygen and Co2 cylinder stowage drawers, forward sides of Nos. 1 and 3 galleys and
aft toilets
• Over wing emergency exit release covers
• Aft entry door cabin attendant's seat
• Drinking fountain, cup dispenser, cup disposal compartment and drain valve access
at floor
• Portable emergency exit lights - remove light and inspect
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AFT TOILETS
AIRCRAFT EXTERIOR
Fuselage (the areas behind/in the following doors and openings should be checked):
• Radom
• Ground pneumatic connector panel
• Cabin compressor air-inlets
• Cabin compressor access panels
• Doppler navigation antenna door
• Cabin compressor air-outlets
• Heat exchanger control access panels
• Heat exchanger outlet guide vanes
• Radio rack air-outlet
• Beacon-holder (beacon removed)
• Security locker and contents
• Flashlights (check batteries)
• Seals of first-aid kits for proper condition
• Seals of life raft panels for proper condition
• Accessory compartment door
• Auxiliary tank fuel sump doors
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ACCESSORY COMPARTMENT
• Entire compartment as well as all installations
CARGO COMPARTMENTS
• Forward cargo compartment, especially area underneath hinge snap-panel of cargo
door
• Waste water tank compartment
• Flight-kit boxes
• Acft cargo compartment (especially area of cargo door hinge joints)
• Zone immediately behind aft cargo compartment
WINGS
• Trailing edge flap sections
• Snap-covers to fuel X-feed tube
• Snap-covers to fire-extinguisher bottles
• Pressure refueling adapters
• Inspection snap-covers
• Fuel vent openings
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Appendix ’E'
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Appendix ‘G’
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Note:
1. All the BDDS equipment will be installed at Hyper Sensitive and other remaining Airports
Search and Detection Equipment and Bomb Suit be procured
2. The availability of Local resources i.e BDDS units of other authorities, nearby to airport,
may be also taken into consideration for resolving any bomb threat.
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Appendix ‘H’
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15. Was there any lingual or other :___________________________
Characteristic which the receiver of the
call noticed? If so, give details.
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Signature:
I/C BDDS
Date_____________
To: -
Commissioner of Security (CA)
Bureau of Civil Aviation Security
'A' Wing, I-lll Floor, Janpath Bhawan
Janpath. New Delhi-110001
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Appendix ‘I’
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Appendix ‘J’
S. Date & Time Flight No. Brief of Bomb Whether call declared Any arrest made
No Threat call as Specific or Non- and details if so
Specific
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Appendix ‘K’
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Appendix ‘L’
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Appendix ‘M’
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Appendix ‘N’
CERTIFICATE
______________________________________________________________________
______________________________________________________________________
______________________________________________________________________
______________________________________________________________________
______________________________________________________________________
______________________________________________________________________
______________________________________________________________________
IN THE PRESENCE OF
Signature
Name
Designation
Organisation AIRPORT Airport Security Airline Security
OPERATOR (ASG/APSU) (Wherever
applicable)
Signature
Name
Designation
Organisation BDDS Police Station Customs
(Wherever
applicable)
Note l: Representative of ASG / APSU mentioned above has been shown the article
described above and advised to provide guard at Explosives Disposal Area until it is
opened and disposed off by BDDS.
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Appendix ‘N1’
CERTIFICATE
The above article was rendered safe by BDDS in the same location / Explosives Disposal
Area at__________________ hrs on_______________, inspected in the presence of
officials mentioned at the end of this Certificate and was found to contain the following
items:
Safe Items
_______________________ __________________________
_______________________ __________________________
_______________________ ___________________________
_______________________ __________________________
_______________________ __________________________
The above items found in the article were finally handed over to the following officials for
investigation / further disposal in the presence of officials mentioned at the end of this
certificate:-
Signature
Name
Designation
Organisation AIRPORT Airport Security Airline Security
OPERATOR (ASG/APSU) (Wherever
applicable)
Signature
Name
Designation
Organisation BDDS Police Station Customs
(Wherever
applicable)
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Appendix ‘Q’
In accordance with statement made in Para 2.1, BTAC for Gwalior Airport shall consist of the
following officials with their representative status within the committee and contact nos. as
mentioned against each name:
S. Officials Agency Status Contact No.
No.
(a) Sh. Ajay Srivastava Airport Operator Coordinator 0751-2473880 (O)
9425700340 (M)
(b) Representative of Local Police State Police Member 0751-2445200, (O)
(S.P) Resi.- 0751-2445300
(c) Sh. Arvind Kumar CASO, & A.C ASG/CISF Member 0751-2470606 (O)
(C.I.S.F) 9685551610(M)
Watch Supervisor Officer (ATC) IAF Member 0751-2470771 (O)
(d) Harshit Anand Asstt. Director I/B Member 0751-2232844(O)
9827901801 (M)
(e) Ajay Parashar BDDS Member 6260310495 (M)
(f) Faraj Ahmad Siddiqui Station Manager Member 07869844478(M)
Spice Jet
(g) Rohit Singh Station Manager Member 9910549102(M)
Indigo
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Appendix ‘R’
Note: BDDS Team and Dog Squad Comes under Local Police Authority, Gwalior
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Appendix ‘S’
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Appendix ‘T’
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ENCLOSURE 11: DISASTER MANAGEMENT PLAN
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Disaster Management Plan Airports Authority of India, Gwalior Airport
Prepared by:
Sarad Sachar (AM, OPERATIONS)
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INDEX
1 Introduction 4
2 Document Preparation & Publication 5
3 Amendments 6
4 Scope of Airport Disaster Management Plan 7
5 Organization Chart & Specification of Gwalior Airport 8
6 Plan Objectives 12
'---"
7 Action Plan 13
8 Roles & Responsibilities 23
Intervention levels for various actions of Rescue & Relief
9 34
teams
10 First Responder's Response 35
11 Infrastructure to be developed/upgraded 37
12 Alert System & Reporting 38
13 Co-ordination of Emergency Response 39
Preparedness Level -
14 42
Training/Drills/Exercises/Documentation
15 Incident Command 45
16 Logistics and Support 47
17 Evacuation Plan 49
18 Media
· Management 50
19 Term Planning 51
List of Contingency Plans and SOPs available at Gwalior
20 54
Airport
21 List of equipment available with AAI/F&ES , Gwalior/ESC 55
22 Search & Rescue Grid Maps of Gwalior Airport 57
23 Contact Details 58
24 Glossary 61
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Chapter - 1
INTRODUCTION
The disaster would imply, "an occurrence arising with little or no warning with cause of
threatens, serious disruption of life and perhaps cause death injury to large number of
people and required therefore a mobilization of efforts in excess of that normally
provided by the statutory emergency service". This means that additional efforts would
be needed to meet disasters which may directly or indirectly affect the aircraft operation.
The disasters which may occur at Gwalior Airport are broadly categorized under three
headings.
The Gwalior Airport would be affected in the disaster like Earthquake, Cyclones, Floods,
Chemical, Biological Nuclear, Radiological, Aircraft crash, Epidemics, etc.
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Disaster Management Plan Airports Authority of India, Gwalior Airport
Chapter - 2
This Disaster Management Plan for the Gwalior Airport has been prepared by
encompassing the guidelines of MP DMA, Madhya Pradesh Distt. Gwalior vis-a-vis the facilities
available at the airport and by incorporating the disaster management infrastructure being
provided by the SDRF, Gwalior.
This plan has been prepared according to the guidelines issued by the Fire Directorate \
on behalf of The Chairman, AAI, New Delhi, also with the reference of Fire Order No.14 (AAI) &
guidelines of the Disaster Management Authorities.
Airport Director, Gwalior Airport, AAI will ensure that the policies and procedures as approved by
MPDMA, Madhya Pradesh are incorporated in this plan.
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Disaster Management Plan Airports Authority of India, Gwalior Airport
Chapter - 3
AMENDMENTS
Airport Director, Gwalior Airport, AAI is responsible for incorporating amendments to the
Airport Disaster Management Plan once in two year or as and when required. This
includes inserting new chapters or chapter amendments in a timely manner and complying
with any instructions on amendment advice. The user of this plan will be responsible for
verifying the currency of documentation in the plan. Holders of hard- copies of plan are
responsible for ensuring that the plan is kept up to date.
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Disaster Management Plan Airports Authority of India, Gwalior Airport
Chapter - 4
. The National Disaster Management Act, 2005 further requires all the state governments.
to establish SDMAs/State Executive Committees (SECs) , and also create Disaster
Management Authorities (OMA) to create an infrastructure for the disaster mitigation.
The Disaster Management Act, 2005 also mandates every Ministry/Department of Govt.
of India to prepare a Disaster Management Plan as per the NOMA guidelines. The
purpose of a DMP is to spell out the procedures for coordinating the response of different
agencies and services, both on and off the airport, to cope with various aircraft related
and non-aircraft related emergencies anticipated at the airport. There are 15
guideline docs.I On various topics which needs to be studied and their significant points -,
are to be incorporated in the Disaster Management Plan for the respective airport to the
maximum
_ extent possible.
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Disaster Management Plan Airports Authority of India, Gwalior Airport
Chapter -5
ATM/Operational MET
In-charge
SDRF
In-charge CISF
Fire NDRF
Media/Information
In-charge HR Centre
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Disaster Management Plan Airports Authority of India, Gwalior Airport
'--../
THE GEOGRAPHICAL C O O R D I N A T
ES
AERODROME ELEVATION
Latitude
Longitude
626 ft
------- 26.285571
78.216962
- --
RUNWAY ORIENTATION 06R -24L, 6L-24R
1/ Terminal buildings:
Domestic Terminal Area: - 1800 sq meter -
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Disaster Management Plan Airports Authority of India, Gwalior Airport
TECHNICAL INFORMATION:
( APRON:
APRONS DIMENSION: 122mX85m
ISOLATION PARKING STANDS AREA: SPECIFIED space designated by IAF
320
Following hazards are available at the Airport:
1. Refuler – BPCL INSIDE IAF AREA
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Disaster Management Plan Airports Authority of India, Gwalior Airport
Chapter - 6
PLAN OBJECTIVE
Objective:-
Tasks:
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Disaster Management Plan Airports Authority of India, Gwalior Airport
-,
Chapter - 7
f
ACTION PLAN
t
buildings/ structure
Departmental action plan (SOP ) Operations ln -Charge (With
IAF)
Routine drills/training, inspection/ Fire Service ( IAF)
testing of all rescue and fire fighting
equipment’s
All periodical exercise Air traffic management
3. Preparedness
(IAF) / Terminal
Management
/Fire services (IAF)
'---" Runway inspection SATCO, IAF, Gwalior
Maintaining Alert crew all the time SATCO IAF, Fire &
for quick response. Terminal I/C
Firefighting / rescue/medical Fire services in
assistance. coordination with SATCO
IAF, Gwalior
Speedy and safe evacuation SATCO, ASO IAF & Fire
4. Response
Providing transport Facilities Airlines/ MT section / IAF ,
Responding agencies
Assist other responding agencies IAF , AIRPORT
DIRECTOR
Inform to Commissioner of Relief Airport Director
(COR) and other related aQencies
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Disaster Management Plan Airports Authority of India, Gwalior Airport
14
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Disaster Management Plan Airports Authority of India, Gwalior Airport
16
326
Disaster Management Plan Airports Authority of India, Gwalior Airport
17 327
Disaster Management Plan Airports Authority of India, Gwalior Airport
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Disaster Management Plan Airports Authority of India, Gwalior Airport
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Disaster Management Plan Airports Authority of India, Gwalior Airport
Identify and isolate the affected area · Operational I/C & CISF
Campaign for Biological safety tips. Operational I/C
Inform to Commissioner of relief (COR), Airport Director
SDRF, Gwalior and related agencies
immediately.
2. Mitigation Inspect the airport premises APO/Terminal
immediately when suspected, with Management
specialized agencies.
Prohibit eating, drinking and smoking in COO IAF/APD
the incident area
Lectures and trainings on Biological Airport Director
Disaster handling
Use of Monitoring instruments and COO IAF/APD
safety equipment.
3. Preparedness Study Contingency Plans Airport Director
Maintain alert crew ATC/Terminal
Management/ Fire
Service
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Disaster Management Plan Airports Authority of India, Gwalior Airport
19 331
Disaster Management Plan Airports Authority of India, Gwalior Airport
AEP
Maintaining Alert crew all the time for ATC & Fire BY IAF
4. Response quick response.
Firefighting / rescue/medical Fire services in
assistance. coordination with ATC/
Special rescue team
Establish ed Airport Operations Co- Airport Director
ordination Center (AOCC)
Speedy and . safe evacuation Fire services / City Fire
5. Relief Brigade/other responding
agencies/ Operation
Providing transport F a c i l i t i e s Airlines/ Technical
section/ Responding
agencies
Maintain Law and Order CISF & State Police
Assist other responding agencies Terminal I/C
Inform to Commissioner of Relief Airport Director
6. Rehabilitation (COR)/DDM O (c o l l e c t o r /ORO)
/LocalAuthorities
Security of Accident site CISF
7. Recovery Developing policies and practices to Airport Director
avoid similar situations in future
RADIOLOGICAUNUCLEAR DISASTER
Advance d notification to the airport, if Consigner
DG in cargo.
Permission of Central Govt. Airlines, Cargo
Prevention
1. Storage and Handling according to the Airlines, Cargo
prescribed national rules, guidelines
DGCA regulation, ICAO Annex 18 and
doc 9284.
Protection of environment and property Airport Director, & Fire •
IAF
-
Campaign for Radiological and Nuclear Airport Director
safe ty tips.
Identify and isolate the affected area Terminal Management/
CISF/ Fire
Prohibiting eating, drinking and smoking COO IAF/ CISF/APD
2. inthe incident area
Mitigation
·Inform to Commissioner of relief (COR), Airport Director
SDRF, Gwalior and related agencies
immediately.
Inspect the airport premises Airport Director/Terminal
immediately when suspected, with Management/
specialized agencies. Specialized team.
Air traffic management /
3. Preparedness All periodical exercise as per fire order Terminal Management
/Fire services
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Disaster Management Plan Airports Authority of India, Gwalior Airport
t'
Maintaining Alert crew all the time for ATC & Fire
quick response.
Firefighting / rescue/medical Fire services in
assistance. coordination with ATC/
Special rescue team
Established Airport Operations Airport Director
Co-ordination Center (AOCC)
Speedy and safe evacuation Fire services/ City Fire
Brigade/other responding
4. Response agencies/ Operation
Providing transport Facilities Airlines/ Technical
section/ Responding
agencies
Maintain Law and Order CISF & State Police
Assist other responding agencies Terminal 1/C
Inform to Commissioner of relief Airport Director
(COR)/OOMO (collector/ORO) /Local
Authorities
Security of Accident site IAF /CISF
Rescue operation Fire services /City fire
brigade/ responding
Special rescue team
Relocation of passengers/causality to Airlines/ Terminal
temporary shelter/triage area/hospital management/ emergency
5. Relief as per safety procedure medical services/ Special·
rescue team/COR/Fire
Services
Providing Water, food , bed etc , HR/ Airlines
hygiene related facility
Providing transport Facilities Airlines/ Technical
section/ Responding
agencies
6. Rehabilitation Identification of suitable project Airport Director
and Project dealing and approval Eng. Civil
Reconstruction
Rebuilding infrastructure Eng. Civil
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Disaster Management Plan Airports Authority of India, Gwalior Airport
EPIDEMICS
Prevention n of deterministic Airport Director
healtheffects in individual.
Prevent poor sanitary conditions which Airport Director
Prevent ion may contaminate food and water.
1. Protect the environment/buildings from Airport Director
breeding conditions for the insect
vector.
Maintain Good House-keeping. HR Dept.
Structuring the health services at airport Airport Director
Medical inspection for arriving Medical team
passengers.
.Check up and diagnose the victims. Medical team
Identify and isolate the affected area Terminal Management/
2. Mitigation
CISF
Prohibit eating, drinking and smoking. COO/APO
Use Personal protective equipment Airlines, Fire Service &
(PPE) while handling passengers/ NDRF
person/visitors
Campaign for Epidemic safety tips. Airport Director
Inspect the airport premises Airport Director /Terminal
immediately when suspected, with Management
3. Prepare redness specialized agencies.
Use of Monitoring instruments and APO/COO/Responding
safety equipments. agencies
Improv ing the sanitary condition Airport Director/ Eng.
wherever observed. Civil
4. Response Follow disposal procedure of waste, Eng. Civil
disinfecting the water source.
Assist other responding agencies Terminal I/C
Relocate the passengers to a safe and Airlines/ Terminal
hygienic area. management/ Medical
5. Relief team
Arrange for hygienic HR/ Airlines
Water/food/sanitation facilities
6. Rehabilitation Reduction of psychological impact Airport Director
and
Reconstruction
7. Recovery Developing policies and practices to Airport Director
avoid similar situations in future
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Disaster Management Plan Airports Authority of India, Gwalior Airport
(/l_
Chapter - 8
- AIRPORT DIRECTOR
- In-charge (Terminal)
- In-charge Airport Security (CISF)
- Met duty officer
- Inform Civil/ Govt. Hospital & Panel Hospital·
- Inform listed doctors to reach the crash site as per the procedure
- Inform City Police (hot line)
- If required by Airport Safety services call City Fire brigade on hotline or any
other assistance required.
-Take NOTAM action, if required in coordination with APO.
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Disaster Management Plan Airports Authority of India, Gwalior Airport
- When fire or disastrous situation under control, Operational, In-charge will proceed
to site with two-way communication with ATC.
- Become on-scene Commander & coordinate airlines for transfer of casualties to
hospitals in case of crash within AAI jurisdiction. For other disaster AAI shall assist
responding agencies on their arrival.
- Coordinate site operations with all responding· agencies, Police, Fire Ambulances,
Hospitalization, record of head-counts wreckage, cordoning coordination with ATC,
public help counter. For disaster beyond the control of AAI, shall assist responding
agencies.
- Resumption of ATC operations and guarding of wreckage, investigations etc as per
the procedure.
4 - Keep Airport Director informed about the gravity of situation and effect on operations.
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Disaster Management Plan Airports Authority of India, Gwalior Airport
.The primary function of the Fire Services is rescue & fire fighting in any disasters. It
is important to upgrade their functions to include appropriate response to disasters,
mobile decontamination, search and rescue and evacuation. If the situation is worst and
beyond the capability of AFS, the specialized rescue team may b_e called and AFS
will assist them.
These functionaries will be tested at vulnerable locations by conducting mock-drills.
Different capacity development measures will be undertaken based upon the lessons
learnt from these mock-drills.
1. Level of Protection provided at airports for Airport Rescue and Fire Fighting
(ARFF) purposes according to the designated category of the airport as per
the ICAO standard to be maintained in coordination with ATC with respect to
the severity of the disaster.
2. Compliance of ICAO, DGCA & AAI Fire Orders.
3. Fire prevention and protection of ATC Tower, Terminal Building, Technical
Building, Cargo and other Airport infrastructures.
4. The Airport Fire Service conducts various emergency exercises Full Scale
Emergency Exercise, Partial Exercise, Building evacuation Drill, Mock Drill etc
in coordination with ATC.
5. Fire investigation and analysis.
6. Mutual aid firefighting & Rescue operations with other fire safety assistance
services like State/City Fire Brigade & other responding agencies in case of
any Disasters within or outside the Airport premises.
7. Ambulance services provide to the aircraft passengers.
The crew present in the Watch Tower will continue to assists the
Fire Control room and ATC
He will also constantly watch the aircraft movement in the operational area, vehicle
movement in the area and any consequences of natural disaster.
Fire Control Room is the heart of RFFS of airport and is manned by a person who is
very well in coordination with ATC on R/T or walkie-Talkie. All messages from ATC are
passed to Fire Control Room on Hot line or Walkie-Talkie or phone.
In case of crash message received either from watchtower or from ATC or from any
other source, he will -
- Record immediately the details
- Inform shift in-charge /Duty Officer Fire
- Inform HOD (Fire)
- Make announcement on PA system
CRASH! CRASH! CRASH!
GRID Position -location
- Within the airport/or outside the airport or specific location in case of other
disaster.
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Disaster Management Plan Airports Authority of India, Gwalior Airport
Meanwhile Fire control room will inform to all non-duty AFS staff for alerting.
Action by Shift-In-charge:
- He will be in command of the RFFS of airport as well as of the city fire brigade
services if the fire occurred inside the airport or within response area for Aircraft
crash. For other disaster AFS shall assist the responding agencies. He will be on-
scene-commander and will continue coordinating with other agencies on the crash
site.
- After completion of Fire Fighting & rescue operation at the site, crew will come back
to the Fire Station with the permission of operation In-charge.
- arrange for salvage operation and remain standby for giving/receiving assistance
(when airport or city or both are affected in disaster)
- arrange standby crew and equipment for additional task, if any (when airport or
city or both are affected in disaster)
- In-Charge (Fire) will carry out roll call, assess the status of Fire crew/vehicles and
replenish requirement & declare category available & inform ATC.
- Shift in-charge will fill up the required report forms & submit to ATC In-charge at the
earliest.
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Disaster Management Plan Airports Authority of India, Gwalior Airport
• Press/Media Briefing:
Prepare a press brief & meet the· media & press as deemed fit. Airport Director is
the official spokes persons of AAI or authorized representative.
As all access control etc. within the airport is the responsibility of Airport Security (CISF)
even then the city police will be informed and they shall arrive at the crash site.
The duties of Police if disaster occurred inside the airport:
- Assists the airport security & fire brigade at crash site.
- Maintain law and order
- Traffic Control to & from the airport in order to facilitate the carriage of injured to
hospitals.
- Prepare a list of passengers as per their requirement.
- Take care of any VIP passenger, if on board and his security etc as demand fit.
Allow customs & immigration activities under their control.
- Help the airport management/Airlines to handle the situation.
- Police authorities may dispose of the dead bodies of passengers in accordance with
their procedures and in consultation with Airlines/Owner of the aircraft concerned.
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Disaster Management Plan Airports Authority of India, Gwalior Airport
(i) In the event of death of the crew members pilots and co-pilots, necessary
photograph must be subjected to detailed postmortem examination immediately to
ascertain the precise cause of death including the presence and extent of alcohol and
carbon mono-oxide etc. in the system. The blood, urine and the viscera of the dead
should be properly preserved by the doctor carrying out the post-mortem examination
for future detailed chemical analysis.
(ii) The post-mortem examination shall include among those mentioned (i) above other
aspects such as physical incapacitation, if any, prior to the accident and precise cause
of death etc.
(iii) Prior to subjecting the body of the crew members to post mortem examination, its
identity must be fully and properly established to the extent possible, full body
photographed and its clothes and belongings recorded and preserved carefully in
accordance with the police procedures.
Dead Passengers
All passengers on board the aircraft who received fatal injury would be subjected to
post-mortem examination indicating the nature and extent of injury as well as cause of
death with special reference to carbon mono-oxide.
However, this requirement may be waived off by Inspector of Accident/Investigator- in-
Charge or (Civil) Aviation Department. Hqrs. (Director of Air Safety) if the nature of
accident so warrants.
(i) Crew: No bodies of the dead crews members specially or the pilot and the co-pilot
are to be released even after the post-mortem examination has been completed, by the
Police authorities or any other authority. The inspector of Accident/the Investigator In-
Charge/the Civil Aviation Department Head-quarters (Directors of Air Safety) is the only
authorized officer(s) to issue instructions for the release of dead bodies of crew.
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Disaster Management Plan Airports Authority of India, Gwalior Airport
(ii) Passengers: - After the requirements have been complied with, the police
authorities may dispose the dead bodies of passengers in accordance with their
procedures and in consultation with Airlines /Owner of the aircraft concerned.
The police personnel shall regulate the flow of vehicular traffic both inside and outside
the operational area. A parking lot can be established away from the crash site. ·
Reach at the disaster site of the airport soonest possible and co-ordinate/Assist with
Airport Fire Services for further action.
- In case of fire start firefighting with suitable media and also take care of
surrounding environment.
- Search and identify the risk and nullify the sources.
- To search and evacuate the affected population from the site of the disaster by
using their available special equipment etc.
Role and Responsibility of Airlines Operator:
- Provide all the manifests. to AAI & Public information counter and send his
representative to the Terminal Manager office, Terminal.
- Collect & produce all the details of POB, male & f e m a l e s , V I P ’ s I n d i a n s ,
foreigners & nationalities.
Arrange transport and coaches for dead, survivors & injured for hospitals.
- Arrange attendants for the hospitals where passengers are hospitalized their
admission & whereabouts', liaisons etc & other requirements.
- Liaise with hospitals for medical of involved bodies & survivors.
- Immediately send representatives to the crash site, Fire Station Control Room
and Casualty Centre.
- In case radioactive material/ammunition/explosives etc. are carried on board as
cargo, it shall be immediately informed to ATC & Fire Brigade and act according
to the procedure.
- Dispatch Technical /Engineering staff to the crash site or aircraft related disaster
site to assist rescue of Victims and cutting the Electrical Connections against Fire
Hazard.
- Arrange to establish Public Relations Cell in Terminal Building for the
convenience of the next of kins/relative of the affected passengers.
- Deploy special category of staff at various locations to look after the survivors of
the crashed aircraft including the catering requirements.
- Immediately dispatch copies of flight/Passenger Manifest through Airport·
Manager AAI to Control Tower.
- Notify the Airport Manager, AAI at Public Relation Cell in Terminal Building with a
request to arrange necessary announcements on PA system/display.
- Concerned airline representative must be available at the Fire Station or disaster
site to maintain proper accountability of the casualties and their disposal.
- On receipt of this information the same should be relayed by the coordinator to
the following agencies:
D Tower, AAI
D Airport Manager AAI
D Director of Air Safety, DGCA
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Disaster Management Plan Airports Authority of India, Gwalior Airport
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Disaster Management Plan Airports Authority of India, Gwalior Airport
Quick Reaction Medical Teams (QRMTs) consist of Radiological Safety Officer (RSOs),
medical doctors, nurses and paramedical staff would be equipped with monitoring
instruments/equipment, Personal protective Equipment (PPEs), decontaminat ion agents, other
materials, critical care vans with resuscitation and life support system.
District health authority will constitute Quick Reaction Medical Teams (QRMT) for
- Facilitate and, coordinate with, local Government bodies to ensure that the pre and
post disaster management activities in the district Gwalior including Gwalior Airport
are _
carried out.
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Disaster Management Plan Airports Authority of India, Gwalior Airport
1) Provide Aid the MPDMA, Madhya Pradesh state relief commissioner, collectors
and local authorities in Gwalior Airport Disaster Management activities.
2) Carry out r e l i e f a n d r e h a b i l i t a t i o n activities at G w a l i o r A i r p o r t u n d e r
t h e supervision of the commissioner and the collector.
3) Co-ordinate preparation and the implementation of Gwalior OM plan with
other depart ments, local authorities, communities, and stake holders.
CEO of SOMA, Gwalior shall perform a nodal role across different phases of
disaster management like:
- Coordinate and monitor activities relating to prevention and mitigation of
disasters, including capacity-building.
32 344
Disaster Management Plan Airports Authority of India, Gwalior Airport
u1
- Delegate his powers and functions to officers and employees of the Authority
33
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Disaster Management Plan Airports Authority of India, Gwalior Airport
Chapter - 9
concept has been developed to define different levels of disasters at Airport inorder to
facilitate the responses and assistances to States and Districts·.
LO level denotes normal times which will be utilized for close monitoring,
documentation, prevention and preparatory activities at Gwalior Airport. Training on
search and rescue, rehearsals, evaluation and inventory updation for response activities
will be carried out during this time.
L1 level specifies disaster that can be managed at the Gwalior Airport, District level,
however, the State will remain in readiness to provide rescue and relief assistance, if
needed.
L2 level disaster situations are those, which require rescue and relief assistance and
active participation of the District and State, mobilization of its resources for
management of disasters.
L3 level disaster situation is in case of large-scale disaster where the State and District
authorities have been overwhelmed and require assistance from the Central
Government for reinstating the State and District machinery as well as for rescue, relief,
other response and recovery measures.
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Disaster Management Plan Airports Authority of India, Gwalior Airport
Chapter -10
This Airport Disaster plan specifies the jobs of all the functionaries who have
assigned roles during the disasters. Actions shall be balanced and commensurate with
the level of severity and shall not create unnecessary anxiety and panic among the
people.
Broadly,
First-aiders (Fire Fighting & Rescue Services) will perform the actions involving
mobilizing and operating the incident command, overseeing victims’ triage,
... ,,
CISF will cordon the site, managing and controlling the perimeter,
,
ATC & Terminal Management will provide notification & ac tiv at ion of the special f
teams, provide traffic and access control.
AAI will hand over the scene to SDRF, Gwalior and other specialized agencies which
will be sent by COR and on their arrival, AAI will continue to play the supporting role.
Whereas the airport emergency services are capable of providing greater response in
case of other disasters, in case of Biological, Nuclear & radiological emergencies, only
the essential activities mentioned below are carried out in the proximity of the incident
site prior to the arrival, or consultation with the qualified d professionals:
I. Alert the staff, passengers and general public (if so required) by sounding the
emergency siren and making an emergency announcement.
II. Inform the local police, City Fire Station, SDRF Gwalior, MPDMA Madhya
Pradesh, ERC and medical authorities as per the pre-coordinated Airport
Disaster Management Plan
Ill. Identify and isolate the affected area. In case of an explosion, seal off the inner
zone of 400 m radius from the blast site as 'No Entry Area' except for
emergency measures. For a suspected ROD incident, an initial inner-
cordoned area (safety parameter) of 400 m is recommended. This will be
extended based on actual radiological monitoring, beyond the initial area, to a
place where the actual dose rate is 100 MicroGy/hr at 1 m from the ground.
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Disaster Management Plan Airports Authority of India, Gwalior Airport
VI. The area downwind direction of the fire, especially if smoke and ash are involved,
will be cleared of people, even if they are residents.
VII. Perform life-saving rescue and emergency first aid for serious injured. If
radioactive contamination is suspected, the rescue will be carried out by taking
extreme safety of rescuer. If situation out of control then wait for the specialized
team which will be equipped with Chemical Biological Radiological and Nuclear
(CBRN) equipment
VIII. While responding to any fire, fire personnel will be cautioned that radioactive ................. ,
material may be present.
IX. Keep to an absolute minimum, any contact with radioactive material and
suspected contamination material. Clothing and tools used at the scene will be
disposed off as radioactive material with the help of special Chemical Biological
Radio logical and Nuclear (CBRN) team and do not attempt to move or clean up
any material involved.
XI. Identify assembly points for persons trapped in affected areas. Evacuate the
persons to the assembly points.
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Disaster Management Plan Airports Authority of India, Gwalior Airport
Chapter - 11
INFRASTRUCTURE TO BE DEVELOPED/UPGRADED
Infrastructure pertaining to communication network, transport and sheltering
common to all disaster response mechanism must be ensured available all the time or
readily available when required.
I. Standardized and reliable rescue & PPE in number sufficient to meet the
requirements of all first responders.
11. Portable, simple to operate, and rugged field detection equipment which has high
sensitivity and specificity. AAl's first responders which in all probability will reach
at the site before other agencies like Police, NDRF etc. should have some simple
portable monitoring instruments which will warn them as they approach the
radiation source [say a blast of Radiological Dispersal Device (ROD)].
Ill Coordinate District Authority/ State Authority for HAZMAT vehicle for the
collection, detection and speedy field characterization during any disaster.
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Disaster Management Plan Airports Authority of India, Gwalior Airport
Chapter - 12
The Emergency Response Plan (ERP) will have an adequate mechanism for proper
planning and coordination with different responders, emergency functionaries and
logisticians. It is important to have an inbuilt alert system that will activate the definitive
specialized response. For this purpose, a well-rehearsed and standardized alert system
will be evolved. Communication and Networking act as a key for an effective response
to any disaster.
The information network will also include effective communication network to quickly
analyze and identify contaminants at the incident site.
Disaster Agencies
Cyclones IMO
-
Radiological/ Nuclear Specialized CBRN team ( in NDRF)
Aircraft crash/ Airport Fire ATC, Fire & Emergency Services, another
agency
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Disaster Management Plan Airports Authority of India, Gwalior Airport
Chapter - 13
Sr Organization/
No. Agencies/ Key Function/Responsibility
Services
Aircraft rescue and fire-fighting operation
• Pre-accident/ Post-accident fire protect ion
• Support for triage activities
1 IAF - Airport • Evacuate injured passengers to hospitals
Fire Service • Support for structural fire-fighting and
evacuation
•Support for mitigation of Disasters like earthquake, accidents/
incidents, cyclone etc.
Support to Disaster management team.
Provide standby Fire vehicle as and when required.
Activate key officials and ground
handling agent concerned
• Muster airline's and ground handling
2 Airside. agent's resources
Management/ • Provide and direct ground service
Operation supports
• Provide inputs to air traffic control in
regard to runway and taxiway closure
• Coordinate aircraft recovery and
salvage operation
Activate key officials and other external agency/services such as
hospitals, panel doctors, ambulance services, bureau of civil aviation
security, immigration and customs
• Activate the Emergency Response
Air Terminal and Interaction Centre (ERIC) Group
3
Management • Setup the Emergency Co-ordination Centre (ECC) , Survivors
Reception Centre ( SRC), Friends and Relative Reception Centre
(FRRC) and Reunion Area (RA)
• Passengers facilitation and business recovery at terminal
buildings
• Support terminal building evacuation
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Disaster Management Plan Airports Authority of India, Gwalior Airport
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Disaster Management Plan Airports Authority of India, Gwalior Airport
The state Fire & Emer gency Services are crucial immediate
responders during any disaster. They are the first responders
(during the Golden Hour after a disaster) and hence play a vital
role in saving lives and property immediately after a disaster.
State Fire &
12 The state Government has therefore paid apt attention in
Emergency
Services equipping and strengthening the capacities of the Fire Services in
responding to various disasters. The State Government SDRF,
Gwalior has provided Fire & Emergency Equipment to Municipal
Corporations, Municipalities and the Emergency Response
centers to respond immediately after a disaster.
Continuous training is also being provided to the fire staff in using
and maintaining the equipment. Several officers of the rank of
Chief Fire officer are also sent to training organized by NIDM and
other institute of the central Government from time to time.
• COR has a primary responsibility of coordinating an effective
emergency response and relief on the occurrence of a disaster.
• Prepare, review and update State level emergency plans and
guidelines and ensure that the district level plans are prepared,
revised and updated.
• Develop an appropriate relief implementation strategy for the
13 COR State in consultation with the Authority, considering the unique
circumstances of each district and deficiency in institutional
'---"
capacity and resources of the State.
• Provide directions to the Collector and the local authority having
jurisdiction over the affected area to provide emergency relief in
accordance with disaster management plans to minimize the
effects of disaster.
It is the apex body for Disaster Management is headed by the
14 Prime Minister and has the responsibility for laying down policies,
NOMA plans and guidelines for OM and co-coordinating their
enforcement and implementation for ensuring timely and effective
response to disasters.
15 Airport The AOCC can act as the focal point to address the airport related
Operations needs and requirements of all the OM agencies Involved in relief
Coordination operations
Committee.
(AOCC).
41 353
Disaster Management Plan Airports Authority of India, Gwalior Airport
Chapter - 14
Preparedness level
Training:
Regular training would be provided to all personnel who have a role in planning and
operational response to an emergency.
*To familiarize personnel with the contents and manner of implementation of the plan
and its procedures;
*To train personnel in the performance of the specific duties assigned to them in the
plan and in the applicable implementation procedures;
*To keep personnel informed of any changes in the plan and the Implementing
procedures;
*Train new personnel who may have moved within the facility Organization;
*Test the validity, effectiveness, timing and content of the plan once in two year or
as and when required and
.*Update and modify the plan on the basis of experience acquired through Exercises ,. ,_
and drills.
• To test, efficacy, timing, and content of the plan and implementing Procedures
• To ensure, that the emergency organization personnel are familiar with their dutiesand
responsibilities by demonstration;
42
354
Disaster Management Plan Airports Authority of India, Gwalior Airport
The frequency of the drills would vary depending on the severity of the hazard. However,
drills would be conducted once .in a two year (Month of November). Scenarios may be
developed in such a manner as to accomplish more than one event objective. Drills and
exercises will be conducted as realistically as is reasonably practicable. Planning for
drills and exercises would include:
• Basic objectives;
• Dates, times and places; Participating organizations;
• Events to be simulated;
• Approximate schedule of events;
• Arrangements for qualified observers; and
• An appropriate critique of drills/exercises with participants.
. Evaluation of drills and exercises would be carried out which include comments from
the participants and observers. Discrepancies noted by the drill observers during the
drill shall be pointed out.
The individual responsible for conducting the drill or exercise would prepare a written
evaluation of the drill or exercise. The evaluation would include assessments and
recommendations on:
Documentation
- Incident, Accident returns shall be documented and sent to RHQ and CHQ.
- MoU between Gwalior Airport and State/City Fire Brigade to be documented and
updated as and when required.
- Lessons learnt from any disaster event in other states and countries.
44 356
Disaster Management Plan Airports Authority of India, Gwalior Airport
Chapter -15
INCIDENT COMMAND
Incident Command System:
• The Incident command system and its procedures are designed in such a way
that information can be promptly assessed and relayed to concerned parties.
• Immediate dissemination of information contributes to quick response and
effective decision-making during emergency.
• Being the main co-ordination and control point for all disaster specific efforts
the Incident command system is the place of decision-making, under unified
command.
The MCP will be deployed to the accident site by the Airport Fire Service, IAF and be
·positioned at a distance of not less than 90m upwind from the aircraft.
The MCP will be headed by ATC In-charge and In-charge Airport Fire Service will
be the alternate Head. When it is beyond th _e office hours, Shift-In-Charge Fire shall
proceed to manage the MCP for the first hours until Head (Airside operations) or
Chief Airport Fire Service arrives. Functions of the Mobile Command Post include:
45
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Disaster Management Plan Airports Authority of India, Gwalior
Airport
- Establish communication
- Establish contact with other responding agencies which report at the crash site.
- Establish a staging area for all ground services equipment such as Tow tractors,
passenger steps, and coaches reporting to the crash site;
- Secure and provide any assistance required by the doctors at the Triage Area;
- Liaise with the airline concerned to transport the uninjured and casualties; and
Maintain and update a record of casualty evacuation status including: Number of
casualties evacuated from the aircraft; and Number of casualties evacuated to the
Emergency Medical Centre, hospitals, and Survivors Reception Centre.
46 358
Disaster Management Plan Airports Authority of India, Gwalior Airport
Chapter -16
Logistic Supports
A catastrophic event may severely hinder the ability of the local government to
respond because many of the local government's staff members may also be
adversely affected and its facilities may no longer be available; communications may
be severely disrupted; the number of people needing assistance may be very large;
debris, high water, blocked roads, etc. may impede movement; equipment loss and
other factors may impair functional capabilities. However, the logistical support of
resources is an extremely critical factor in the successful management of disaster
response and recovery efforts.
Organization and A s s i g n m e nt o f ·Responsibilities: The p r o v i s i o n o f effective
·logistics support can be very complex and especially challenging in a catastrophic
event, so volunteer staffing should be identified, trained and exercised/employed in
advance of a catastrophic disaster. At a minimum, the EOC Logistics Section staffing
should include a:
3. Services and Support Branch Chief: All Concerned section of Airport head
A truly catastrophic event is not disaster business as usual. For example, personnel
who are normally identified to perform the Logistics Section staffing may be too busy
. doing other things during a catastrophic event to effectively cover logistics and resource
management functions as well. To perform this function appropriately, Management
Section may need to organize into two or more units /sub units:
2. At Gwalior Airport, Medical inspection room is available with IAF. In case of disaster,
outside medical team will report to rendezvous point and subsequently escorted by
fire staff to Ml room. First aid room In-charge shall assist them for all medical
activities.
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Disaster Management Plan Airports Authority of India, Gwalior Airport
3. If disaster occurred at Gwalior Airport, supply of food, shelter etc. will be done by
Airlines/ Terminal management/ HR / Finance section. Local volunteer agencies
can also be the part of it.
5. Support includes facilities and space for logistics staging areas, points of
distribution, warehousing, base camps·, etc. will be decided by APO at the time of
forming committee.
6. Logistics will develop the traffic plan and coordinate the prioritizing, planning,
ordering, sourcing, and acquisition for transportation resources and services;
developing time-phasing plans and movement coordination and tracking; may
terminal transfer operations at staging sites; overnight storage· for vehicles, maps
and directions for responding personnel, emergency towing and repairs,
designating fuel, oil, and water depots, and coordinating with law enforcement to
help ensure deliveries at the right places and times. At Gwalior Airport, CNS In-
charge will look after the above activities .in coordination with APO, Terminal
manager and other support team.
7. Operations conducts evacuation operations, but logistics may help with providing
transportation assets for special needs citizens and those without transportation,
helping provide for mass movement needs such as vans, buses, aircraft, trucks,
etc., and emergency route refueling and temporary repairs for those with vehicles;
helping coordinate voluntary entities provide first aid and mass care support such
as in transit temporary sheltering, rest area management, food and water, human
services, transport and security; as well as
facilities i d e n t i f i c a t i o n a n d management f o r d e s t i n a t i o n m a s s c a r e sites f o r ._
citizens displaced by ordered evacuation, or by self-evacuation due to
emergency/disaster events. Gwalior Airport will assist to all support agencies for
all above activities. Formed committee / concernedcare section of Airport will take
of these.
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Disaster Management Plan Airports Authority of India, Gwalior Airport
Chapter-17
EVACUATION PLAN
Prompt evacuation of casualties may be required to be carried out from the incident
site, and of people living or working in the vicinity of the site who are likely to get
exposed or come under severe threat of contamination, during a chemical attack.
The evacuation plans will be prepared and categorized in two broad groups:
b. If there is a bomb threat at airport partial or full evacuation shall be done as per
Bomb Threat Contingency Plan available at Gwalior Airport.
The evacuation planning will include information of the defined route, the availability of
NBC filter-fitted ambulances (in case of CBRN Disasters) with specialized paramedical
staff, 24 Hrs. available at IAF and specialized facilities available with
earmarked hospitals, keeping in view the prevalent and forecasted meteorological
conditions and level of contamination.
Some components of the civil aviation authorities need to be upgraded and equipped
. with modern facilities for the management of enhanced need of evacuating a large
number of casualties.
The support zone, casualty collection center and ambulance parking area will be
provided with collective protection. Prompt removal of victims from the hot zone shall be
ensured. Casualties from the hot zone of the incident site will be transported to the
designated earmarked health care facility after providing BLS, necessary triage and
decontamination procedures.
49
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Disaster Management Plan Airports Authority of India, Gwalior Airport
Chapter -18
MEDIA MANAGEMENT
OM plan will have an appropriate mechanism for effective communication with the
public through media management.
Airport Director shall prepare a press brief & meet the media & press as deemed fit.
Airport Director is the official spokes persons of AAI and authorized representative.
50 362
Disaster Management Plan Airports Authority of India, Gwalior Airport
Chapter - 19
Term Planning
All identified activities under the action plan for disaster management are implemented
under the following three types of Term Planning as listed below:
- Runway inspection
- Serviceability of Aircraft
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363
Disaster Management Plan Airports Authority of India, Gwalior Airport
- Testing various elements of the emergency plan through table-top exercises and
mock-drills
- Equipping first responders with all material logistics and backup support.
52
364
Disaster Management Plan Airports Authority of India, Gwalior Airport
Z.1
- Development of simulation models for testing the efficacy of plans for continuous
improvement at training Centre.
53
365
Disaster Management Plan Airports Authority of India, Gwalior Airport
Chapter -20·
54
366
Disaster Management Plan Airports Authority of India, Gwalior
Airport
Chapter- 21
31 Coffin bags �- -1
55
367
Disaster Management Plan Airports Authority of India, Gwalior
Airport
---
1. Life Jacket r 135 ' 1
2 Life
3 Motor Boat Engine 04
4 Rubber Boat with Accessories 04
5 Floating Pump 02
6 Deep Diving Kit 02
7 Floating Rope 10
8 Light Recharge Flood 10
9 Puncher Kit 05
10 Food Pump 05
11 Snake Catcher 02
12 Electronic Blower Pump 02
13 D.C Blower Pumps 01
14 Dragon Torch 04
15 Search Light Farmer 06
16 Rope 90 Meter 80KL
17 Rope 1 inch Thick 60KL
18 Aluminum Ladder 40 Feet 01
19 Ahuja Megaphone ( lnfotik set) 02
20 Ahuja Megafone Solder 01
21 Cables Recharge LED 02
22 Tool Box with Access orie s 02
23 Hammer 03 Pi ec e se t 01
24 Hammer Dri ll Machine wit h se t 02
25 Sabbel 02
26 Gaiti 10
27
28
Fafddha
Tasia Iron
--- 10
17
29 Tasia Plastic 10
30 Khurpi 18
31 Kulhadi Big 04
32 Kulhadi Small 05
33 Hasiya 10
34 Motor Boat Engine Trolley 04
35 Bilai (Kanta) 02
36 Land Tubelite {Solar Plate) L7007 01
37 Land Emergency Solar Torch 03
38 Solar Table Torch L5 58 · 03
39 Air Foot Pum ps 02
40 Chappu Fiber · 02 Set
41 Chappu Wood 02 Set
42 RPS 01
43 R PS Wood Blade 02
44 RPS Metal Blade 06
45 Electronic Drill M ach in e 02
56
368
Disaster Management Plan Airports Authority of India, Gwalior Airport
57
369
Disaster Management Plan Airports Authority of India, Gwalior Airport
Chapter – 22
SEARCH AND RESCUE GRID
MAP Gwalior AIRPORT
58
370
Disaster Management Plan Airports Authority of India, Gwalior Airport
Chapter - 23
CONTACT DETAILS
Important Telephone Numbers Gwalior District
Annexure – I
Annexure – II
2. Sh. Sandeep Rai Rathore, IPS, IG NDRF & CD 011-26160252 (O), 9540610101(M)
4. Sh. Randeep Kumar Rana DIG (N &W Zone) 011-26166559 (O), 9999513134(M)
58
371
Disaster Management Plan Airports Authority of India, Gwalior Airport
Annexure – III
4. GM (Aero)/NR 25655220
9. Rescue,Coordination 25656457 -
Centre,Delhi
Annexure – IV
58
372
Disaster Management Plan Airports Authority of India, Gwalior Airport
Annexure – V
58
373
Disaster Management Plan Airports Authority of India, Gwalior Airport
Chapter - 24
Glossary
Disaster: An occurrence arising with little or no warning with cause, of threatens, serious
disruption of life and perhaps causes death injury to large number of people and
required therefore a mobilization of efforts in excess cif that normally provided by the
statutory emergency service.
Manmade Disaster: A disastrous event caused directly and principally by one or more
identifiable deliberate or negligent human actions. Also called human-made disaster.
Hybrid Disaster: The combination of both natural and manmade e.g. Floods,
Epidemics, etc.
61
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Disaster Management Plan Airports Authority of India, Gwalior Airport
Rehabilitation: Restoration of an entity to its normal or near-normal functional capabilities after the
occurrence of a disabling· event.
Recovery: Process of returning an organization, society, or system to a state ofnormality after the
occurrence of a disastrous event.
Stochastic effect: Injurious effect of a substance occurring by chance (generally without a threshold level
of dose), whose probability is proportional to the dose but whose severity is independent of it.
Response area: An area till that reaction to an event, occurrence, or situation, aimed at its containment or
control.
· Staging area: An area reserved for inventory that is ready for final assembly or transport.
Assembly area: A pre-designated area where occupants of an affected building get assembled in an event
of evacuation.
Triage: A system, frequently used at medical facilities, wherein people seeking care are ranked according
to the severity of their injuries or sicknesses.
Epidemics:
1. Disease that spreads rapidly and affects an inordinately large number of peoplewithin a very short
period.
2. Unexpected and sudden increase in the number of people affected by a particular
disease within a geographical region.
61
375
Disaster Management Plan Airports Authority of India, Gwalior Airport
Abbreviations
AAI Airports Authority of India
ACC Area Control Center
AEP Airport Emergency Plan
AFS Airport Fire Service
AOCC Airport Operations Co-ordination Center
APO Airport Director
ATC Air Traffic Control
ATM Air Traffic Management
ATS Air Traffic Services
BCAS Bureau of Civil Aviation Security
BLS Basic Life Support
CAR Civil Aviation Requirement
CBRN Chemical Biological Radiological and Nuclear
CAD Civil Aviation Department
CEO Chief Executive Officer
CFT Crash Fire Tender
CHO Central Head Quarter
CISF Central Industrial Security Force
CNS Communication Navigation System
COR Commissioner of Relief
cw Chemical Weapon
DDMO District Disaster Management Officer
DG Dangerous Goods
DGCA Director General of Civil Aviation
OMA Disaster Management Authority
ECC Emergency Co-ordination centre
EiC Emergency Information Counter
i
62
377
Disaster Management Plan Airports Authority of India, Gwalior Airport
63
378
Disaster Management Plan Airports Authority of India, Gwalior Airport
64 379
Disaster Management Plan Airports Authority of India, Gwalior Airport
65
380
Disaster Management Plan Airports Authority of India, Gwalior Airport
-
'---'
.-,
66
381
ENCLOSURE 12: LAYOUT PLAN
382
PROPOSED OPERATIONAL
BOUNDARY
RS RS RS RS RS 120.0
3.6008
L.V
D
CCR ROOM SHED REQUIRED OVER DG SETS
CLEAR HEIGHT : 7MTR L.V
PASSAGE
3M WIDE
DG
OPEN TO SKY
WORKSHOP WORKSTATION
STORE
ROOM
CUTOUT FOR
PLUMBING EQUIPMENT
STP RS
CONDENSER
CHILLER
RS
4.5M WIDE ROAD
STAIR REQ.TO ACCESS THE
UGT & STP PLANT ROOM
SEC.
L.V
L.V
L.V
SEC. SEC.
ENRTY
ENTRY
L.V
L.V
L.V
L.V
275.5
L.V
DWC PIPE
FOR ELV SERVICE
L.V
EXISTING ROEXIST
AD ING ROAD TOWA
RDS VILLAGE
L.V
SEC.
L.V
L.V
SEC.
L.V
195.0
L.V
L.V
L.V
L.V
L.V
L.V
L.V
L.V
L.V
L.V
L.V
L.V
L.V
COMMERCIAL/
CITY SIDE DEVELOPMENT
L.V
L.V
L.V
L.V
L.V
L.V
L.V
EXIT
DWC PIPE
FOR ELV SERVICE
L.V
L.V
L.V
L.V
L.V
L.V
L.V
L.V
L.V
HT CABLE
L.V
L.V
L.V
L.V
L.V
L.V
L.V
L.V
L.V
L.V
L.V
L.V
L.V
L.V
L.V
DWC PIPE
FOR ELV SERVICE HUME PIPE FOR
HT CABLE
N
DIMENSIONS TO BE VERIFIED BY CONTRACTOR ON SITE CATEGORY PROJECT NO
PRIOR TO ANY WORKS.
CIVIL ENCLAVE, GWALIOR AIRPORT, CREATIVE GROUP LLP ARCHITECTURE CG-213
3. ALL INTERNAL WALLS ARE 200mm THICK AAC BLOCK
WALLS UNLESS OTHERWISE MENTIONED.
AIRPORT AUTHORITY OF INDIA ARCHITECTS, URBAN PLANNERS & INTERIOR DESIGNERS FAMILY
EIA SCALE
NTS DATE
08.03.2022
DRAWN
DS
CHECKED
T EL:(011)29561478 F AX:(011)41765386
383
ENCLOSURE 13: TRAFFIC CIRCULATION PLAN
384
N
CHECKED
GSS
REVISION
NORTH
N
DRAWN
DS
385
10.02.2022
TERMINAL BUILDING AT
AR.MP.SD.002.R2
GWALIOR AIRPORT
120.0
DATE
CG-213
SHEET NUMBER
PROJECT NO
NTS
PROJECT
SCALE
SCHEMATIC DRAWING
TRAFFIC CIRCULATION
AY
AT
R 72
-500
-500
R 72
AT
NW
ARCHITECTURE
AT
R 72
-500
-500
R 72
AT
AT
RU
R 72
-500
PRO AXI
-500
EX
R 72
AT
EIA
IS
AT
R 72
-500
AP TING
-500
CATEGORY
R 72
POS
AT
T
RO
FAMILY
TITLE
N
PER
E
IME
D
TER
ROA
D
117.5
STAMP & SIGN :
AD
RO
ER
ET
RIM
PE
CFM56-5B
A32
1-20
0
CFM56-5B
F AX:(011)41765386
CREATIVE GROUP LLP
98.0
CFM56-5B
A32
1-20
0
0
1-20
A32
CFM56-5B
PROPOSED
ROAD
ETER
APRON PERIM
CFM56-5B
A32
T EL:(011)29561478
0
1-20
A32
CFM56-5B
132.0
11.5 40.5 40.5 58.0 40.5 40.5
PROPOSED
CONSULTANTS :
APRON
5.0
GSE A321
A321
A321
A321
A321
A321
A321
A321
A321
A321
A321
A321
PH I
NEO NEO NEO NEO NEO NEO
NEO NEO NEO NEO NEO NEO
270.0
44.5
LEAP-1A LEAP-1A LEAP-1A LEAP-1A LEAP-1A LEAP-1A LEAP-1A LEAP-1A LEAP-1A LEAP-1A LEAP-1A LEAP-1A
Bridge1
Bridge1
Bridge1
Bridge1
L0.0 deg / U1.0%
LOADER'S
3.5 M WIDE ROAD FOR LOADERS TRUCK MOVEMENT
PARKING BAY
UTILITY - 2 (NOS) BOOM BARRIER WITH ANPR
STONE JALI SCREEN
LENGTH : 25M HEIGHT 4M
ROOF
LINE
PMC:
- 2NOS TYRE KILLER
SOLAR PANEL BUILDING - 2 SET OF HYDRAULIC BOLLARDS
- 2 SET OF UVSS
7.5m WIDE ROAD
10.5m WIDE ROAD
4 ACRE SEC.
20200 SQM 10.5m WIDE ROAD
18.5m WIDE BUS LANE
8M WIDE BUS LANE
- 2 (NOS) BOOM 10.5m WIDE ROAD - 2 (NOS) BOOM 10.5m WIDE ROAD
BARRIER WITH ANPR BARRIER WITH ANPR
SEC. SEC.
ENRTY
ENTRY
SCOPE
WALL
75 STAFF AND
PREMIUM
PARKING
10.5m WIDE EXIT ROAD
TAXI PICKUP
CLIENT :
EXISTING ROAD
BLOCK
EXISTING ROAD
TOWARDS VILLAGE
SEC.
MADHYA PRADESH
10.5M WIDE EXIT ROAD
FUTURE PROPOSED
TITLE :
COMMERCIAL/
CITY SIDE DEVELOPMENT
SCHEMATIC
PACKAGE
SCOPE BOUNDARY AREA 28 ACRE
SNO ITEM SYMBOL
1. PERIPHERAL - BOUNDARY
2. EXISTING BOUNDARY
EXIT
5. SCOPE - BOUNDARY (AREA 28 ACRES)
COMMENTS
PQC ROAD
REVISION TABLE :
6.
7. BITUMEN ROAD
EXISTING ROAD
8.
NO REV
GRANITE - COMBINATION OF
01. R1
02. R2
SNOWHITE , BLACK GALAXY (90%
9. POLISHED, 10 % FLAMED)
COMBINATION OF GWALIOR SANDSTONE
10. (90%)AND POLISHED GRANITE (10%) ENTRY GATE
NOTES :
4. SECURITY BOOTH SEC.
ENCLOSURE 14: DUAL PLUMBING PLAN
386
℄
ROOF LINE
TERMINAL
BUILDING - T1
SILT TRAP
SILT TRAP
RIDGE LINE
SILT TRAP
LENGTH : 25M HEIGHT 4M
- 2 (NOS) BOOM BARRIER WITH ANPR
LINE SILT TRAP
PICK UP
SILT TRAP
10.5m WIDE ROAD
4.5M WIDE ROAD
STAIR REQ.TO ACCESS THE SEC.
UGT & STP PLANT ROOM
SILT TRAP
SILT TRAP
GREEN
CHHATRI
(STONE)
AREA
SILT TRAP
FOUNTAIN FOUNTAIN
FLAG POST
STONE AND GFRC (PERGOLAS)
SHADED WALKWAY
SILT TRAP
SILT TRAP
- 2 (NOS) BOOM 10.5m WIDE ROAD - 2 (NOS) BOOM 10.5m WIDE ROAD
BARRIER WITH ANPR BARRIER WITH ANPR SILT TRAP
SEC. SEC.
ENRTY
ENTRY
SCOPE
455 CAR PARKING 170 TAXI PARKING
BOUNDARY
TAXI PICKUP
WALL
75 STAFF AND
PREMIUM
PARKING
SILT TRAP
SILT TRAP
SILT TRAP
AMENITIES
EXISTING ROAD
BLOCK
EXISTING ROAD
TOWARDS VILLAG
E
SEC.
SEC.
NOTE :
SILT TRAP
T EL:(011)29561478 F AX:(011)41765386
ENCLOSURE 15: FIRE FIGHTING PLAN
388
PH I
0
78
78
78
78
℄
ROOF LINE
TERMINAL
BUILDING - T1
RIDGE LINE
PICK UP
10.5m WIDE ROAD
4 ACRE STAIR REQ.TO ACCESS THE
UGT & STP PLANT ROOM
4.5M WIDE ROAD
SEC.
GREEN
CHHATRI
(STONE)
FLAG POST
FOUNTAIN
AREA
SEC. SEC.
ENRTY
ENTRY
SCOPE
455 CAR PARKING 170 TAXI PARKING
BOUNDARY
TAXI PICKUP
WALL
75 STAFF AND
PREMIUM
PARKING
BLOCK
EXISTING ROAD
TOWARDS VILLAG
E
SEC.
SEC.
FUTURE PROPOSED
EXISTING
BOUNDARY
EXISTING
ROAD
EXIT
EXISTING ROAD
ENTRY GATE
NOTE :
DRAWING ARE TENTATIVE FOR
REFERENCE PURPOSE ONLY
NOTES : REVISION TABLE : TITLE : CLIENT : PMC: CONSULTANTS : STAMP & SIGN : TITLE
PROJECT
NORTH
NO REV COMMENTS DRAWN SITE PLAN TERMINAL BUILDING AT N
1. DO NOT SCALE FROM DRAWINGS. ALL DISCREPANCIES
TO BE REPORTED TO ARCHITECT IMMEDIATELY. ALL
DIMENSIONS TO BE VERIFIED BY CONTRACTOR ON SITE
PTB & ALLIED WORKS FOR NEW CATEGORY
GWALIOR AIRPORT
PROJECT NO
FIRE TENDER LAYOUT
PRIOR TO ANY WORKS.
2. ALL INTERNAL WALLS ARE 200mm THICK AAC BLOCK GREENFEILD AIRPORT AT CIVIL ENCLAVE, CREATIVE GROUP LLP 389
WALLS UNLESS OTHERWISE MENTIONED. AIRPORT AUTHORITY OF INDIA ARCHITECTS, URBAN PLANNERS & INTERIOR DESIGNERS FAMILY
FIRE FIGHTING DRAWING SCALE
A1@1/1200
DATE
22.02.2022
DRAWN CHECKED
TINKU VIPIN
3. ANY DISCREPANCY IN DIMENSION IN THE STRUCTURAL THE INFRASTRUCTURE PEOPLE S-21 ,HARGOBIND ENCLAVE , CHATTARPUR
DRG. SHALL BE CLARIFIED FROM ARCHITECTURAL DRG.
GWALIOR, MADHYA PRADESH RAJIV GANDHI BHAVAN, SAFDARJUNG AIRPORT
NEW DELHI 110003
NEW DELHI - 110074
TENDER DRAWING
SHEET NUMBER
FF.TB.102.SS
REVISION
T EL:(011)29561478 F AX:(011)41765386
℄
ROOF LINE
TERMINAL
BUILDING - T1
RIDGE LINE
PICK UP
10.5m WIDE ROAD
4.5M WIDE ROAD
STAIR REQ.TO ACCESS THE SEC.
UGT & STP PLANT ROOM
GREEN
CHHATRI
(STONE)
FLAG POST
FOUNTAIN
AREA
- 2 (NOS) BOOM 10.5m WIDE ROAD - 2 (NOS) BOOM 10.5m WIDE ROAD
BARRIER WITH ANPR BARRIER WITH ANPR
SEC. SEC.
ENRTY
ENTRY
SCOPE
455 CAR PARKING 170 TAXI PARKING
BOUNDARY
TAXI PICKUP
WALL
75 STAFF AND
PREMIUM
PARKING NOTE :
DRAWING ARE TENTATIVE FOR
REFERENCE PURPOSE ONLY
EXISTING ROAD
BLOCK
EXISTING ROAD
TOWARDS VILLAG
E
SEC.
T EL:(011)29561478 F AX:(011)41765386
ENCLOSURE 16: STORM WATER MANAGEMENT
PLAN
391
ROOF LINE
TERMINAL
BUILDING - T1
SILT TRAP
SILT TRAP
RIDGE LINE
SILT TRAP
LENGTH : 25M HEIGHT 4M
- 2 (NOS) BOOM BARRIER WITH ANPR
LINE SILT TRAP
PICK UP
SILT TRAP
10.5m WIDE ROAD
4.5M WIDE ROAD
STAIR REQ.TO ACCESS THE SEC.
UGT & STP PLANT ROOM
SILT TRAP
SILT TRAP
GREEN
CHHATRI
(STONE)
AREA
SILT TRAP
FOUNTAIN FOUNTAIN
FLAG POST
STONE AND GFRC (PERGOLAS)
SHADED WALKWAY
SILT TRAP
SILT TRAP
- 2 (NOS) BOOM 10.5m WIDE ROAD - 2 (NOS) BOOM 10.5m WIDE ROAD
BARRIER WITH ANPR BARRIER WITH ANPR SILT TRAP
SEC. SEC.
ENRTY
ENTRY
SCOPE
455 CAR PARKING 170 TAXI PARKING
BOUNDARY
TAXI PICKUP
WALL
75 STAFF AND
PREMIUM
PARKING
SILT TRAP
SILT TRAP
SILT TRAP
AMENITIES
EXISTING ROAD
BLOCK
EXISTING ROAD
TOWARDS VILLAG
E
NOTE :
DRAWING ARE TENTATIVE FOR
SEC.
REFERENCE PURPOSE ONLY
SEC.
SILT TRAP
NOTES : REVISION TABLE : TITLE : CLIENT : PMC: CONSULTANTS : STAMP & SIGN : TITLE
PROJECT
NORTH
NO REV COMMENTS DRAWN SITE PLAN TERMINAL BUILDING AT N
1. DO NOT SCALE FROM DRAWINGS. ALL DISCREPANCIES
TO BE REPORTED TO ARCHITECT IMMEDIATELY. ALL
DIMENSIONS TO BE VERIFIED BY CONTRACTOR ON SITE
PTB & ALLIED WORKS FOR NEW CATEGORY
GWALIOR AIRPORT
PROJECT NO
STORM WATER LAYOUT
PRIOR TO ANY WORKS.
2. ALL INTERNAL WALLS ARE 200mm THICK AAC BLOCK GREENFEILD AIRPORT AT CIVIL ENCLAVE, CREATIVE GROUP LLP 392
WALLS UNLESS OTHERWISE MENTIONED. AIRPORT AUTHORITY OF INDIA ARCHITECTS, URBAN PLANNERS & INTERIOR DESIGNERS FAMILY
PLUMBING DRAWING SCALE
A1@1/500
DATE
22.02.2022
DRAWN CHECKED
TINKU VIPIN
3. ANY DISCREPANCY IN DIMENSION IN THE STRUCTURAL THE INFRASTRUCTURE PEOPLE S-21 ,HARGOBIND ENCLAVE , CHATTARPUR
DRG. SHALL BE CLARIFIED FROM ARCHITECTURAL DRG.
GWALIOR, MADHYA PRADESH RAJIV GANDHI BHAVAN, SAFDARJUNG AIRPORT
NEW DELHI 110003
NEW DELHI - 110074
TENDER DRAWING
SHEET NUMBER
PL.TB.102.SS
REVISION
T EL:(011)29561478 F AX:(011)41765386
ENCLOSURE 17: LANDSCAPE PLAN
N
CHECKED
GSS
REVISION
NORTH
N
DRAWN
10.02.2022 DS
TERMINAL BUILDING AT
AR.MP.SD.002.R2
GWALIOR AIRPORT
120.0
DATE
CG-213
SHEET NUMBER
PROJECT NO
NTS
PROJECT
SCALE
SCHEMATIC DRAWING
AY
AT
R 72
-500
MASTER PLAN
-500
R 72
AT
NW
ARCHITECTURE
AT
R 72
-500
MASTER PLAN
-500
R 72
AT
AT
RU
R 72
-500
PRO AXI
-500
EX
R 72
AT
IS
AT
R 72
-500
AP TING
-500
CATEGORY
R 72
POS
AT
T
RO
FAMILY
TITLE
N
PER
E
IME
D
TER
ROA
D
117.5
CFM56-5B
A32
1-20
0
CFM56-5B
F AX:(011)41765386
CREATIVE GROUP LLP
98.0
CFM56-5B
A32
1-20
0
0
1-20
A32
CFM56-5B
PROPOSED
ROAD
ETER
APRON PERIM
CFM56-5B
A32
T EL:(011)29561478
0
1-20
A32
CFM56-5B
132.0
PROPOSED
CONSULTANTS :
APRON
5.0
GSE A321
A321
A321
A321
A321
A321
A321
A321
A321
A321
A321
A321
PH I
NEO NEO NEO NEO NEO NEO
NEO NEO NEO NEO NEO NEO
270.0
44.5
LEAP-1A LEAP-1A LEAP-1A LEAP-1A LEAP-1A LEAP-1A LEAP-1A LEAP-1A LEAP-1A LEAP-1A LEAP-1A LEAP-1A
Bridge1
Bridge1
Bridge1
Bridge1
L0.0 deg / U1.0%
780
780
780
40.5 31.0 9.5 58.0
21.5
℄
30.0
74.0 74.0
TERMINAL
BUILDING - T1
RIDGE LINE
PROPOSED OPERATIONAL
BOUNDARY
LOADER'S
3.5 M WIDE ROAD FOR LOADERS TRUCK MOVEMENT
PARKING BAY
PMC:
- 2NOS TYRE KILLER
CHHATRI
(STONE)
FOUNTAIN FOUNTAIN
FLAG POST
STONE AND GFRC (PERGOLAS)
SHADED WALKWAY
10.5m WIDE ROAD
- 2 (NOS) BOOM 10.5m WIDE ROAD - 2 (NOS) BOOM 10.5m WIDE ROAD
BARRIER WITH ANPR BARRIER WITH ANPR
SEC. SEC.
ENRTY
ENTRY
SCOPE
WALL
75 STAFF AND
PREMIUM
PARKING
10.5m WIDE EXIT ROAD
TAXI PICKUP
CLIENT :
EXISTING ROEXISTIN
BLOCK
SEC.
195.0
10.5M WIDE EXIT ROAD
FUTURE PROPOSED
580.0
MADHYA PRADESH
10.5M WIDE EXIT ROAD
FUTURE PROPOSED
TITLE :
COMMERCIAL/
CITY SIDE DEVELOPMENT
10.5M WIDE EXIT ROAD
FUTURE PROPOSED
SCHEMATIC
PACKAGE
2. EXISTING BOUNDARY
CHANGES AS PER AAI COMMENTS
CHANGES AS PER AAI COMMENTS
PQC ROAD
REVISION TABLE :
6.
7. BITUMEN ROAD
EXISTING ROAD
8.
NO REV
GRANITE - COMBINATION OF
01. R1
02. R2
LEGEND
SNO ITEM SYMBOL
PRIOR TO ANY WORKS.
1. TYRE KILLER
2. BOOM BARRIER
3. HYDRAULIC BOLLARD
NOTES :