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Question Paper – 1
1. Position report is required to be given when

a) Crossing an FIR b)Over a compulsory reporting point
c) if so required by ATC d) all are correct
Ans. d
2. Aerodrome data and facilities are given in

a) Aeradio b) AIP c) Notams d) AIRACs
Ans. b
3. An aircraft is following a track of 179º (M) on a VFR plan. The choice of flight levels
available to the pilot are:
a) 50,70,90,150,170,190,210,230,250,270,290
b) 55,75,95,155,175,195,215,235,255,275,295
c) 50,70,90,110,130,160,180,200,220,240,260,280
d) 55, 75, 95, 115, 135, 155, 175, 195, 215, 235, 255, 275
Ans. d
4. A horizontal red square panel with one yellow diagonal means:

a) Do not land for the time being
b) Landings Prohibited
c) Aircraft are to land Take off & Taxi on runways and taxi ways only
d) Special precaution while landing should be taken because of the bad state of the Maneuvering
area
Ans. d
5. Above flight level 290 the minimum vertical separation between aircraft on reciprocal
tracks in RVSM area is
a) 1000 feet up to F410 b) 2000 feet up to F410
c) 4000 feet up to F460 d) 5000 feet up to F460
Ans. a
6. Wake turbulence separation minima for Take off, if a light aircraft is to take off behind a heavy or a
medium aircraft is:
a) 2 minutes b) 3 minutes c) 5 minutes d) Non of the above
Ans. a
7. All flights above_________ flight levels are to be cleared IFR irrespective of weather Conditions
a) F 280 b) F 150 c) F 140 d) F 100
Ans. b
8. If there is a temporary change in the aeronautical services it is intimated through

a) AIP b) AIC c) NOTAM d) AIRAC
Ans. c
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9. The highest flight level that can be flown in India is
a) 460 b) 450 c) 440 d) 400
Ans. a
10. A report received from an aircraft giving a position and /or met report is called
a) Met report b) Position report c) Air report d) All of the above
Ans. c
11. During flight as a pilot you are subjected to unlawful interference .On SSR you should set
a) Mode A code 7500 b) Mode A code 7600 c) Mode A code 7700 d) Mode C code 7500
Ans. a
12. What information is included in the third section of an Air report?

a) Air Temperature, Icing, Turbulence b) Spot Wind, Icing, Cloud above
c) Spot Wind, Air Temperature, Icing, Turbulence d) ETA Destination
Ans. c
13. A fresh flight plan is to be filed if a scheduled controlled flight is delayed by more than
a) One hour b) 30 minutes c) 15 mins d) 5 mins
Ans. b
14. The minimum wake turbulence time separation for a heavy aircraft to land behind a
heavy aircraft is
a) 2 minutes b) 3 minutes c) 5 minutes d) not required
Ans. d
15. The air report contains following items:

a) Air temperature, Turbulence, Surface wind & aircraft Icing
b) Turbulence, upper winds & surface temperature
c) Air temperature, Turbulence, Upper winds & aircraft Icing & humidity
d) All are correct
Ans. c
16. At an aerodrome special VFR may be authorized when

a) Visibility falls below 5 km or cloud ceiling is less than 1500 feet
b) Visibility falls below 8 km or cloud ceiling is less than 1500 feet
c) Visibility falls below 8 km or cloud ceiling is less than 1500 feet
d) Visibility falls below 8 km or cloud ceiling is less than 1000 feet
Ans. a
17. Routes guides are required to be carried by :

a. All aircraft b. Pvt. Aircraft c. Scheduled aircraft d. Aerial aircraft
Ans. c
18. AIP India is published by

a) DGCA b) AAI c) Civil Aviation Ministry d) ICAO
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Ans. b
19. Sunrise time of an Airport in calculated for an altitude of the Sun

a) 6° below the horizon b) 0° at the horizon
c) 8° below the horizon d) 12° below the horizon
Ans. b
20. An Aircraft shall report “long final” when it is at _________ from the approach end of the rwy
a) 8NMs b) 4NMs c) 1NMs d) 2 NMs
Ans. a
21. ‘ATIS’ is a continuous broadcast of recorded information concerning:

a) ATS information b) ATS and Met information
c) Navigation Information d) Traffic Information
Ans. b
22. An aircraft is on a track of 030º (M) and reports crossing a point at 0412 Hrs at F370. Other
aircraft at F370 on a track of 100º(M) can cross the same point not earlier than:
a) 0422 hrs b) 0417 hrs if 40 kts faster c) 0427 hrs d) 0402 hrs
Ans. c
23. An ac at F390 crosses a point at 0210 hrs wishes to descent to F310. There is reciprocal traffic
estimating to cross same point at 0300hrs maintaining F 330. By what time the descending
aircraft should reach F310 if both aircraft maintain same speed?
a) 0215 hrs b) 0220 hrs c) 0225 hrs d) 0250 hrs
Ans. c
24. A prohibited area is an area over which:

a) Flight within 2 miles is prohibited. b) Flight of aircraft is totally prohibited.
c) Low flying is prohibited. d) Only instrument flying practice can be done.
Ans. b
25. An airport’s rotating beacon operated during daylight hours indicates

a) there are obstructions on the airport
b) that weather at the airport located in Class D airspace is below basic VFR weather minimums
c) the Air Traffic Control is not in operation
d) runway is blocked
Ans. b
26. The wind condition that requires maximum caution when avoiding wake turbulence on
landing is a
a) light, quartering headwind b) light, quartering tailwind
c) Strong headwind d) strong tailwind
Ans. b
27. The most effective method of scanning for other aircraft for collision avoidance
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during daylight hours is to use
a) regularly spaced concentration on the 3-,9-, and 12-o’clock positions
b) a series of short, regularly spaced eye movements to search each 10-degree sector
c) peripheral vision by scanning small sectors and utilizing off center viewing
d) a series of eye movements focused at horizon
Ans. b
28. Automatic Terminal Information Service (ATIS) is the continuous broadcast of recorded
information concerning
a) Pilots of radar-identified aircraft whose aircraft is in dangerous proximity to terrain
or to an obstruction
b) Non-essential information to reduce frequency congestion
c) Non-control information in selected high-activity terminal areas
d) To warn pilots about conflicting traffic
Ans. c
29. Prior to takeoff, the altimeter should be set to which altitude or altimeter setting?
a) The current local altimeter setting, if available, or the departure airport elevation
b) The corrected density altitude of the departure airport
c) The corrected pressure altitude for the departure airport
d) QFE
Ans. a
30. Flight must invariably be conducted in accordance with Instrument Flight Rules, even during
broad day light, when aircraft are flown.:
a) At or above F150. b) Within controlled airspace.
c) At or above F 200. d) In designated areas or designated routes.
Ans. a
31. What time is filled in item 13 of flight plan?

a) Expected Time of Departure b) Estimated off block time
c) Expected Approach Time d) Estimated Elapsed Time
Ans. b
32. The visibility reqd. when flying at (or) below 3000’ in a controlled airspace
a) 5 kms b) 8 kms c) 10 kms d) 3 kms
Ans. a
33. What speed is filled in item 15 of flight plan: a) IAS b) TAS c) RAS d) GS
Ans. b
34. The pilot has to inform the ATC if the ETA changes by
a) 5 mins b) 3 mins c) 10 mins d) 2 mins
Ans. b
35. Runaway direction is measured from:
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a) True North b) Compass North c) Magnetic North d) North Pole
Ans. c
36. If the marshaller has either arm placed level with shoulder and moved laterally across throat
indicates
a) Stop b) Cut Engines c) Continue Straight d) Turn Off
Ans. b
37. A pilot not having an instrument rating cannot fly :

a) At any time. b) During hours of night.
c) Without permission of aerodrome officer. d) Without permission from the DGCA.
Ans. b
38. If a climbing a/c is crossing the level of another a/c the separation required is
a) 15 NMs b) 15 Mins c) 20 NMs d) 5 Mins
Ans. b
39. What shape and colour is a landing direction indicator?

a) A white capital T; land along the stem towards the crosspiece
b) An orange or red windsock, land towards the mast
c) A white or orange capital T; land along the stem towards the crosspiece
d) An orange wedge shape in 3 dimensions, land towards the point of the wedge
Ans. c
40. How should a close part of a runway be marked?

a) With yellow and black marker boards b) With red and white marker boards
c) With a white cross on the surface d) With white chevrons on the surface
Ans. c
41. What is the minimum flight visibility for flight in VFR if an aircraft is flying at 5000 feet in
Class G airspace at a speed of 120 knots and in sight of the surface?
a) 8000 meters b) 5000 meters c) 1500 meters d) There is no minimum
Ans. b
42. What is the minimum horizontal distance which an aero plane must stay away from cloud in
Class D airspace at 2000 feet in order to fly under VFR?
a) 1500 meters b) 1800 meters
b) No minimum stated provided the aircraft has a flight visibility of 5000 meters
c) No minimum stated provided the aircraft is in sight of the surface.
Ans. a
43. What is correctly defined as “A situation wherein apprehension exists as to the safety of an
aircraft and its occupants?
a) The emergency phase b) The uncertainty phase c) The alert phase d) The distress phase
Ans. c
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44. An aircraft should be refueled:
a) Inside a hanger.
b) Inside a hanger or building under supervision after taking adequate precautions.
c) In the open.
d) Wherever adequate facility exists.
Ans. c
45. Position report shall be made after every _______, where no standard reporting points exist .
a) 15 Mins b) 20 Mins c) first report after 30 mins and subsequent after 60 mins d) 60 Mins
Ans. c
46. DME separation between A/C on same track, same level and in same direction is
a) 10 NM b) 20 NM c) 15 NM d) 5 NM
Ans. b
47. An aircraft on a Special VFR flight has been cleared for “straight in “approach. Because of
low ceiling and poor visibility, the pilot is concerned about the exact location of a radio mast
in the vicinity. Avoiding this obstruction is the responsibility
a) of the pilot. b) of the tower controller as the controller is aware of the obstruction .
c) of ATC as the pilot has been given Special VFR clearance .
d) Shared equally by the pilot and the controller.
Ans. a
48. The maneuvering area of an airport is that area

a) Normally referred to as the ramp or apron.
b) Which includes the apron, taxiways and runways?
c) Used when taxiing to and from the parking area.
d) Used for taxiing, taking off and landing.
Ans. d
49. VFR flight in class F airspace above 3000’ msl and below 10,000 ‘MSL.
a) Provided flight visibility is 1500 m. b) Provided flight visibility is 3000 m.
c) Provided flight visibility is 5000 m. d) Provided flight visibility is 8000 m.
Ans. c
50. What is the definition of MEA?

a) The lowest published altitude, which meets obstacle clearance requirements and assures
acceptable navigational signal coverage.
b) Lowest published altitude, which meets obstacle requirements assures acceptable
navigational signal coverage, two – way radio communications, and provides adequate
radar coverage.
c) An altitude, which meets obstacle clearance
d) An altitude, which ensures minimum 1000’ clearance from all obstacles
Ans. A
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Question Paper – 2
1. Prohibition of flights over Mathura refinery:
a) With in a radius of 1 NM. b) With in a radius of 10 NM
c) With in a radius of 20 NM d) with in a radius of 10 kms
Ans. (d)
2. Following failure of two way radio communications the pilot should select one of the
following on the transponder :
a) Mode A 7700 b) Mode A 7500 c) Mode C 2000 d) Mode A 7600
Ans. (d)
3. When two aircraft are approaching head on, the rules of the air require that
a) Both aircraft alter heading to starboard b) Both aircraft alter heading to port
c) The larger aircraft alters heading to starboard d) The smaller aircraft alters heading to port
Ans. (a)
4. An Instrument Rating Test is valid before renewal for:

a) 6 months b) 13 months c) 12 months d) 2 years
Ans. (c)
5. While flying at night another aircraft reports that you are on a relative bearing of 100 degrees
from him . You should see his:
a) Red navigation light b) White navigation light
c) Green & white navigation lights d) Green navigation light
Ans. (d)
6. A light aircraft taking off from an intermediate position on the runway after a heavy aircraft
requires a wake vortex separation of : a) 2 minutes b) 8 minutes c) 3nm d) 3 minutes
Ans. (d)
7. EAT is the time that an aircraft :

a) Is expected to join the field b) Is expected to leave the hold and commence its approach
c) Is expected to land
d) Is expected to leave the last en-route holding point before destination
Ans. (b)
8. Above 30000 ft the vertical separation between aircraft on reciprocal tracks will be:
a) 2000ft b) 1000ft
c) 1000ft or 2000ft depending on whether or not the aircraft are in RVSM airspace
d) 4000ft
Ans. (c)
9. An aircraft Captain should transmit special aircraft observations when he encounters:

a) Severe turbulence or icing
b) Moderete turbulence , hail or Cb clouds during supersonic or transonic flight
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c) Other conditions that the Captain considers may affect the safety of other aircraft
d) All of the above
Ans. (d)
10. Normal horizontal separation provided by radar units is:

a) 3nm b) 5nm c) 10nm d) 8nm
Ans. (b)
11. The possible symptoms of carbon monoxide poisoning are :

a) Anxiety, rapid breathing & dizziness
b) Lethargy, nausea, headache & complexion
c) Blueness of lips, impaired judgment and co-ordination
d) Excitability, tingling fingertips & loss of inhibition
Ans. (b)
12. If a pilot goes scuba diving to a depth of 30 feet for more than 10 mts , he / she should not fly within : a)
12 hours b) 36 hours c) 24 hours d) 48 hours
Ans. (c)
13.A continuous red beam directed at an aircraft from the ATC tower means :
a) Airfield unserviceable, land elsewhere b) Airfield closed, do not land
c) Do not land, give way to other aircraft and continue circling
d) Clear the landing area
Ans. (c)
14. Two aircraft of the same category are approaching an airport for the purpose of landing. The
right-of-way belongs to the aircraft.
a) at the higher altitude .
b) at the lower altitude ,but the pilot shall not take advantage of this rule to cut in front of or to to
overtake the other aircraft.
c) That is more maneuverable ,and that aircraft may ,with caution ,move in front of or overtake the
other aircraft .
Ans. (b)
15. What is the minimum flight visibility and proximity to cloud requirement s for VFR flight, at
6500 feet MSL, in Class D airspace?
a) 1.5 Km visibility; clear of clouds b) 10000 feet MSL, if above 10000 feet AGL.
c) 5 Km visibility; and 1000 feet below.
Ans. (c)
16. Air Traffic Advisory Service is provided in airspace classified as

a) Class E b) Class F c) Class G d) Class A
Ans. (b)
17. When landing behind a large jet aircraft ,at which point on the runway should you plan to land ?
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a) If any crosswind ,land on the windward side of the runaway and prior to the jet’s touchdown
point .
b) At least 1000 feet beyond the jet’s touchdown point .
c) Beyond the jet’s touchdown point .
Ans. (c)
18. At an altitude of 6500 feet MSL the current altimeter setting is 996 hPa. The pressure
altitude would be approx. a) 7500 feet. b) 6000 feet. c) 7000 feet. d) 8000 feet
Ans. (c)
19. Hazardous wake turbulence caused by aircraft in still air

a) dissipates immediately b) dissipates rapidly .
c) May persist for two minutes or more d) persists indefinitely.
Ans. (c)
20. Wake turbulence will be greatest when generated by an aeroplane which is

a) Heavy, landing configuration and slow speed
b) Heavy, clean configuration and slow speed.
c) Light, clean configuration and high speed.
d) Heavy, take-off configuration and slow speed.
Ans. (b)
21. While flying on a magnetic track of 140 degrees the aircraft on VFR plan will select the
following levels: a) 80 b) 95 c) 85 d) 70
Ans. (b)
22. Landing and housing charges are payable by private aircraft according to:
b) Seating capacity of the aircraft. b. Number of passengers on board the aircraft.
c. All –up weight of the aircraft. d. No charges; if free passengers are carried.
Ans. (a)
23. The marshalling signal – “arms extended overhead, palms facing inwards, arms swung from
The extended position inwards “means:
a) Stop b) Chokes inserted c) Brakes applied d) Cut Engines
Ans. (a)
24. Smoking on a private aircraft is permitted:

a. Provided the owner has no objection.
b. Provided permitted by the aerodrome officer.
c. Without restriction if no passengers are carried.
d. Only if the certificate of airworthiness of the aircraft permits.
Ans. (d)
25. An aircraft without registration markings can be flown only

a) If the sale deed is not yet completed b) For purpose of test flight only, prior to purchase.
c) If it is used for Govt. Work. d) If specially permitted in writing by the central govt.
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Ans. (d)
26. The member of operating crew shall not have taken alcoholic drinks:
a) 6 hrs before commencement if flight. b. 12 hrs before commencement of flight.
c. 24 hrs before commencement of flight. d. 36 hrs before commencement of flight.
Ans. (b)
27. Photography at an aerodrome can be done with prior permission in writing from :
a. Aerodrome officer b. DGCA c. Central Govt. d. Indian Air Force
Ans. (c)
28. At the correct height on the approach to runway with PAPIs pilot should see:
a) Two red lights and two white b) Four red lights
c) Four white lights d) Three white lights and one red
Ans. (a)
29. The maximum speed for an aircraft flying in class F or G airspace below F 100 is:
a) 250KTS IAS b) 250Kts TAS c) 280Kts IAS d) 150Kts IAS
Ans. (a)
30. While refueling is in progress, no naked light be brought within ____________ mts:
a) 35 b. 30 c. 100 d. 15
Ans. (d)
31. A pilot flying low due to thunder showers for safety reasons can be sued by:
a) State Govt. b)Municipal Corporation.
c) Owner of the property over which it is flying. d) Cannot be sued.
Ans. (d)
32. A person can bring to India human remains of a person who has died of plague:
a) If enclosed in a wooden box. If enclosed in a shell of zinc.
b) If enclosed in a hermetically sealed shell of zinc after permission id obtained from proper
authority.
c) Cannot bring them.
Ans. (a)
33. Class ‘D’ airspace in India

a) Includes controlled airspace in form of terminal control areas and ATS routes where IFR
traffic is provided Air Traffic Services
b) Includes controlled airspace inform of control zone , control areas , terminal control areas
where IFR flights receive Air Traffic control service and VFR flights receive traffic
information and traffic avoidance advice on request
c) Extends from a specified height above control zone and aerodrome traffic zone where
separation between IFR flights is assured
Ans. (b)
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34. Two aircraft of the different category are approaching an airport for the purpose of landing.
The right-of-way belongs to the aircraft
a) At the higher altitude
b) At the lower altitude, but the pilot shall not take advantage of this rule to cut in front of or
to overtake the other aircraft
c) That is more maneuverable , that the aircraft may with caution move in front of or
overtake the other aircraft
Ans. (b)
35. In the event of the forced landing at an uncontrolled aerodrome, aircraft

a) May take off after giving report to the district magistrate/police.
b) May take off if the forced landing was not due to any factor effecting the safe operation of the
aircraft.
c) Must not take off till permission is obtained from DGCA.
Ans. (a)
36. What wind condition prolongs the hazards of wake turbulence on a landing runway for the
longest period of time ?
a) Direct headwind b) Direct tailwind c) Light quartering tailwind
Ans. (c)
37. The altimeter indicates the aircraft altitude in relation to

a) sea level b) the standard datum plane c) the pressure level set in the barometric window .
Ans. (c)
38. The pressure altitude at a given location is indicated on the altimeter after the altimeter is set to
a) The field elevation b) 29.92” c) the current altimeter setting d) the QFE setting
Ans. (b)
39. During the two minutes after the passage of a heavy aeroplane in cruising flight, hazardous
wing tip vortices will
a) Dissipate completely b) dissipate rapidly c) dissipate slowly d) remain at cruising altitude
Ans. (c)
40. What effect would a light crosswind have on the wing tip vortices generated by a large
aeroplane that had just taken off ?
a) Could cause one vortex to remain over the runway for sometime
b) Would rapidly dissipate the strength of both vortices
c) Would rapidly clear the runway of all vortices
d) Would not affect the lateral movement of the vortices
Ans. (a)
41. LDA for runway 27 at an aerodrome is 1599mts .Pair of touchdown zone markings for this
runway will be: a) 3 b) 6 c) 4 d) 5
Ans. (c)
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42. An aerial work aircraft on a VFR plan to Jaipur departs at 1032 hrs UTC. Sunset time at Jaipur is
1318 UTC. The flying time available to him to reach jaipur is :
a) 2 hrs & 46 minutes. b) 2 hrs & 26 min c) 2 hrs & 16 min d) 3 hrs & 06
Ans. (a )
43. Number of threshold stripes on a runway of 25 m width shall be: a) 4 b) 6 c) 8 d) 12

Ans. (c)
44. Colour of intermediate holding position markings shall be:

a) White b) Red c) Green d) Yellow
Ans. (d)
45. The “Certificate of Airworthiness” of an aircraft shall be deemed to be suspended when an aircraft:
a) Is involved in an accident/incident.
b) Is modified or repaired without the consent of the Director General.
c) Is modified or repaired otherwise than in accordance with the provisions of the rules.
d) Is involved in a serious violation of the rules contained in the aircraft rules.
Ans. (a)
46. Minimum crew required on private aircraft is:

a) One pilot. b) Two pilots c) As specified in the certificate of the Airworthiness
d) The flight instructor along with private pilot.
Ans. (c)
47. A pvt. Aircraft from Chennai to Colombo is required to carry on board.

a) Journey log book. b Route Guide c. Operation Manual d. All of the above
Ans. (b)
48. Aircraft meets with an accident on runway, its wreckage can be removed:
a) For smooth flow of air traffic. b) For removing a dead body or injured person.
c) After taking photographs. d) Both (a) and (b) are correct
Ans. (a)
49. A person dies of cholera, his body can be brought to India if:
a) Packed in a wooden box. b) Cannot be brought.
c) Sealed in zinc and packed in a wooden box. Closed in a shell of zinc, joints sealed, shell
enclosed in a teak wooden box which is enclosed in zinc lined box, filled with saw dust
impregnated with carbolic powder.
d) Permitted by the DGCA.
Ans. (c)
50. FDTL for 2 crew international flight is ______ hrs and _____ landing.
a) 10 hrs and 3 landings b) Three hrs and 9 landings
c) 9 hrs and 3 landings d) 8 hrs and 3 landings.
Ans. (c)
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Question Paper - 3
1. In class A airspace
a) All flights are permitted. b) Only VFR flights are permitted.
c) Only IFR flights are permitted. d) SPL VFR flights are permitted.
Ans. c)
2. In class D air space

a) IFR & VFR flights are permitted & all flights are subject to Air Traffic Control
b) IFR flights are separated from other IFR flights & receive information in respect of VFR
flights
c) VFR flights receive traffic information about other flights
d) all are correct
Ans. d)
3. Route guides are required to be carried in

a) all aircraft b) all private aircraft
c) Aircraft involved in scheduled transport services d) all aircraft engaged in aerial work
Ans. c)
4. ADC clearance is required to be obtained

a) on a cross country flight b) for all aircraft operating within ADIZ
c) When returning to base on the same day
d) it is not required when returning to base on the same day
Ans. b)
5. Pilots log book is to be preserved for

a) 5 years from the date of starting the log book b) 5 years from the date of last entry
c) 3 yrs from the date of last entry d) 10 yrs from the date of last entry
Ans. b)
6. A double white cross displayed on a signal square indicate

a) area not fit for the use of aircraft b) gliding in progress
c) take permission before landing d) prohibited area
Ans. b)
7. Medical for a CPL holder is valid for

a) 2 years b) 1 year
c) 1 year if age is less than 40 years d) 2 years if the age is less than 40 years
Ans. c)
8. Letter ‘W’ in ATS Route designator indicates:

a) Domestic routes b) International routes c) Regional routes d) None of the above
Ans. a)
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b) crossing an FIR b) over a compulsory reporting point
c) if so required by ATC d) all are correct
Ans. d)

b) Aeradio b) AIP c) Notams d) AIRACs
Ans. b)
11. The highest point on the landing area is called:

a) Aerodrome elevation b) Runway elevation c) ARP d) Threshold elevation
Ans. a)
12. Anti-collision light is a light :

a) Red in colour affixed on top of the control tower
b) A red light on the port wing of the aircraft
c) A red light visible 30deg above and below the horizon of the aircraft which is visible in all
directions
d) The navigation lights of any aircraft are called anti-collision lights
Ans. c)
13. Operational Manual is:

a) Prepared by the manufacturer and authorized by operator
b) Prepared by the DGCA and authorized by operator
c) Prepared by the operator and authorized by manufacturer
d) Prepared by the operator and authorized by the DGCA
Ans. d)
14. An aircraft is commencing descend from its initial FL 290 over Palam Airport. The altimeter reads
12000 ft. The commander will report his vertical distance to the ATC in terms of:
a) 12000’ Altitude b) F 120 c) 12000’ a.g.l. d) 12000’ amsl
Ans. b)
15. An aircraft is following a track of 179º (M) on a VFR plan . The choice of flight levels available to
the pilot is:
e) 50,70,90,150,170,190,210,230,250,270,290
f) 55,75,95,155,175,195,215,235,255,275,295
g) 50,70,90,110,130,160,180,200,220,240,260,280
h) 55, 75, 95, 115, 135, 155, 175, 195, 215, 235, 255, 275
Ans. d)
e) Do not land for the time being b) Landings Prohibited
c) Aircraft are to land Take off & Taxi on runways and taxi ways only
d) Special precaution while landing should be taken because of the bad state of the
Maneuvering area
Ans. d)
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17. The visibility minima for those Airlines who have not filed their own Minima with the
DGCA for an airport for Non Precession approach is:
a) 1500’ b) 1500 meters c) 5 Nm d) 3.7 km
Ans. d)
18. Max flying hours for a flight crew in one year is: ______ hrs
a. 200 b. 900 c. 1200 d. 1000
Ans. d)
19. Aerodrome operation minima is given by

a) DGCA b) Operator c) Operator & is approved by DGCA d) India Met Department
Ans. c)
20. If the age of a CPL holder is more than 40 years the validity of medical is for_________
a) 1 yr b) 6 months c) 2 yrs d) 5 yrs
Ans. b)
a. If a passenger falls sick on board an a/c and he is suspected of any infectious disease then PIC’s
action is:
c) To land immediately.
d) To inform health officer of destination aerodrome at least two hrs before landing.
e) To inform DGCA.
f) To inform doctor on board.
Ans. b)
22. The wreckage of crashed aircraft on R/W/ can be removed to:

a) extricate dead animals & persons b) extricate animals & persons, dead or alive
c) Permit movement of other aircraft d) All of the above are correct
Ans. d)
23. An aircraft force lands at an uncontrolled aerodrome, it can take off again:
a) with the permission of DGCA
b) without the permission of controller of Aerodrome
c) with the permission of nearest aerodrome control tower
d) Matter is to be reported to DGCA as an incident
Ans. d)
24. Wake turbulence separation minima for Take off, if a light aircraft is to take off behind a heavy or
a medium aircraft is:
b) 2 minutes b) 3 minutes c) 5 minutes d) Non of the above
Ans. a)
25. All flights above_________ flight levels are to be cleared IFR irrespective of weather
Conditions: a) F 280 b) F 150 c) F 140 d) F 100
Ans. b)
16
a. Dropping of paper leaf lets require the permission of:
a. Aerodrome b) Local District Magistrate. c) Operator. d) DGCA
Ans. c)

b) AIP b) AIC c) NOTAM d) AIRAC
Ans. c)

b) 460 b) 450 c) 440 d) 400
Ans. a)
29. The duty time of the trainee pilot:

a) is calculated as per the FDTL
b) is not affected by the FDTL
c) is the time calculated from take off to landing
d) is from “chokes off” time to “chokes on” time
Ans. a)
30. A pilot can fly an aircraft which is not entered in the aircraft rating of his licence for endorsement
on his licence
a) With in 5 nm of an aerodrome b) With in Local Flying Area of the aerodrome
c) Any where d) Cannot fly
Ans. b)
31. A pilot can fly in 30 consecutive days

a) 100 hrs PIC & 50 hrs as Co pilot b) 100 hrs PIC & 30 hrs as Co pilot
c) 120 hrs PIC & 20 hrs as Co pilot d) 120 hrs PIC & 10 hrs as Co pilot
Ans. b)
32. When an aircraft is being refueled, the refueling must be stopped if a jet aircraft crosses with
in a distance of: a) 15 meters b) 30 meters c) 43 meters d) 45 meters
Ans. c)
33. At an aerodrome the aerobatics are to be carried out above 6000 feet
a) Beyond 4 nm of perimeter of aerodrome
b) Within 2 nm of nearest perimeter of aerodrome
c) Beyond 5 nm of nearest perimeter of aerodrome
d) Beyond perimeter of aerodrome
Ans. b)
34. The FDR has record of operation of preceding

a) 25 hours b) 20 hours c) 15 hours d) 10 hours
Ans. a)
17
35. The CVR has the capability of recording information
a) One hour or more b) At least 30 minutes
c) Atleast 15 mins d) There is no minimum limit
Ans. b)
36. The CVR is fitted in an aircraft to

a) Monitor the performance of the aircraft b) Help in accident investigation
c) Both are correct d) Non of the above
Ans. b)
37. The FDR is fitted in an aircraft to

a) Monitor the performance of the aircraft b) Help in accident investigation
c) Both are correct d) None of the above
Ans. c)
38. The most effective way to use eyes at night is

a) Focus only at dim lights at a distance b) Flutter eyes rapidly
c) Scan slowly to center off vision d) Focus only on bright lights
Ans. c)
39. A report received from an aircraft giving a position and /or met report is called
b) Met report b) Position report c) Air report d) All of the above
Ans. c)
40. During flight as a pilot you are subjected to unlawful interference .On SSR you should to set
b) Mode A code 7500 b) Mode A code 7600
c) Mode A code 7700 d) Mode C code 7500
Ans. a)
41. ADC is not required

a) Local flying area uptp 2000’ b) Within 5 nm of an aerodrome upto 1000’
c) Aerodrome Traffic zone upto 1000’ d) Below 5000’ AMSL anywhere
Ans. b)

b) Air Temperature, Icing, Turbulence b) Spot Wind, Icing, Cloud above
c) Spot Wind, Air Temperature, Icing, Turbulence d) ETA Destination
Ans. c)
43. A fresh flight plan is to be filled if a scheduled flight is delayed by more than
b) One hour b) 30 minutes c) 15 mins d) 5 mins
Ans. b)
44. The designators for world wide ATS routes are in which colour
a) White b) Red & Green
c) Red, Green, Blue & Amber d) Red, Green, Blue, Amber & White
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Ans. d)
45. The minimum wake turbulence time separation for a heavy aircraft to land behind a heavy
aircraft is: a) 2 minutes (b) 3 minutes (c) 5 minutes (d) not required
Ans. d)
46. The air report contains following items:

e) Air temperature, Turbulence, Surface wind & aircraft Icing
f) Turbulence, upper winds & surface temperature
g) Air temperature, Turbulence, Upper winds & aircraft Icing
h) All are correct
Ans. c)
47. An aircraft can fly over a danger area

a) If a NOTAM is issued that it is not active b) With the permission of ATC
c) Out side the stipulated time d) Cannot fly at all
Ans. c)

e) Visibility falls below 5 km or cloud ceiling is less than 1500 feet
f) Visibility falls below 5 km or cloud ceiling is less than 1500 feet
g) Visibility falls below 8 km or cloud ceiling is less than 1500 feet
h) Visibility falls below 8 km or cloud ceiling is less than 1000 feet
Ans. a)
49. A series of red and green projectiles fired at an interval of 10 sec means
a) aircraft is flying over danger area b) aircraft is flying over prohibited area
c) Aircraft is flying over restricted area d) All of the above are correct
Ans. d)
50. Mathura Refinery is a:

17. Danger Area b) Restricted area c) Prohibited area. d) Terminal area.
Ans. c)
19
Question Paper - 4
Q1. AIP India is published by:
a) DGCA b) AAI c) Civil Aviation Ministry d) ICAO
Ans. b)
Q2. AIP consists of:

a) 3 parts (GEN, ENR & AD) b) 4 parts (GEN, ENR, AD MET)
c) 6 parts (GEN, ENR, AD, MET, COMM, ATC) d) 2 parts (GEN, AD)
Ans. a)
Q3. Regular amendments to the AIP will be:

a) Twice a year in Jan and July month of each year
b) Every quarter of the year Jan, April, July and Oct month of each year
c) Once every year in the month of April of each year
d) On as required basis
Ans. c)
Q4. Without visual aid, a pilot often interprets centrifugal force as a sensation of:
(a) Rising or falling (b) turning (c) motion reversal
Ans. a)
5. A flight , which exceeds Mach number-1 , cannot fly over:

g) Populated areas b) Indian Air Space c) Europe d) High seas
Ans. b)
Q6. A passenger visited a yellow fever infected area on the previous six days, but is not in possession
of valid yellow fever certificate, then action taken by PIC of the flight is:
a) Send a radio message two hours before the arrival about the state of the health of the passenger
b) No action required
c) Inform Airlines office after landing
d) Inform health authorities of the place of departure
Ans. a)
Q7. Abrupt head movement during a prolonged constant rate turn in IMC or simulated
instrument condition can cause:
(a) Pilot disorientation (b) False horizon (c) Elevator illusion
Ans. a)
Q8. Which of the following statements is not correct for classification of Airspace in India?
a) Class D Airspace is applicable to TMA, control zones and control areas
b) Class E is applicable to Airspace in designated ATS route outside terminal and control areas.
c) Class F in applicable to airspace outside CTAs/TMAs/CTRs/ATZs
d) Class G Airspace is applicable to airspaces other than D,E and F
Ans. c)
20
Q9. An abrupt change from climb to straight and level flight can create the illusion of:
(a) Tumbling backwards (b) a nose up attitude (c) a descent with the wing level
Ans. a)
Q10. A rapid acceleration during takeoff can create the illusion of:
(a) Spinning in the opposite direction b) Being in a nose up attitude c) Diving into the ground
Ans. b)
Q11. An Aircraft shall report “long final” when it is at ____ from the approach end of the rwy
b) 8NMs b) 4NMs c) 1NMs d) 2 NMs
Ans. a)
Q12. A Cessna 152 aircraft force lands at a wheat field due to shortage of fuel. It will be reported
as: a) An accident b) An incident c) Not reportable d) An Airport
Ans. b)
Q13. A pilot should never cross a:

a) Stop bar which is switched off b) Stop bar which is lighted
c) A taxi holding position marking d) An intermediate holding position marking
Ans. b)
Q14. FDTL for training flights does not restrict:

a) Flight Time b) Flight Duty Time c) Number of landings d) all of the above
Ans. c)
Q15. For a flight at night in VMC, the approach will appear to be

a) Same as day b) Steeper c) Speed will be more d) Shallower.
Ans. b)
Q16. Decision Altitude is applicable for:

a) Non Precision Approaches b) PAPI Approaches
c) Precision Approaches d) All of the above
Ans. c)
Q17. Prisoners on Board an aircraft can be carried with the permission of

a) DGCA b) Controller of Aerodrome
c)Director General of Prisons d) Police Commissioner
Ans. a)
Q18. Flight time/flight duty time limitations shall be applicable to:

a) Pilots only b) Pilots and cabin crews only
c) P-i-C and Co-pilot d) all flight crew personnel
Ans. d)
Q19. Large accumulation of carbon mono-oxide in the blood results in:

a) Dizziness b) Fear c) Hot and Cold Sensations d) Disorientation
21
Ans. a)
Q20. Deviations from International Standards and recommended practices are published in:
a) AIRAC b) AICs c) AIP d) ICAO Annexures
Ans. c)
Q21. To find current watch hours of a station you should look into:
a) AIRAC b) AICs c) AIP d) Notams
Ans. c)
Q22. ‘ATIS’ is a continuous broadcast of recorded information concerning:

a) ATS information b) ATS and Met information
c) Navigation Information d) Traffic Information
Ans. b)
Q23. Flight Manual is to be carried by

a) All aircraft b) Scheduled aircraft only
c) If C of A states so d) All aircraft other than aerial work aircraft
Ans. c)
Q24. An aircraft is on a track of 030º (M) and reports crossing a point at 0412 Hrs at F370. Other
aircraft at F370 on a track of 100º(M) can cross the same point not earlier than:
a) 0422 hrs b) 0417 hrs if 40 kts faster c) 0427 hrs d) 0402 hrs
Ans. c)
Q25. An ac at F390 crosses a point at 0210 hrs wishes to descent to F310. There is reciprocal
traffic estimating to cross same point at 0300hrs maintaining F 330. By what time the
descending aircraft should reach F310 if both aircraft maintain same speed?
Ans. c)
Q26. OCA is used for determination of:

a) MDA b) DA c) Both MDA and DA d) None of the above
Ans. c)
Q27. The numbers 09 and 27 on a runway indicate that the runway is oriented approximately
a) 009º and 27º true b) 090º and 270º true
c) 090º and 270º magnetic d) 090º and 270º compass
Ans. c)
Q28. When approaching taxiway holding lines from the side with the continuous lines, the pilot
a) may continue taxiing
b) should not cross the lines without ATC clearance
c) should continue taxiing until all parts of the aircraft have crossed the lines
d) continue taxiing if runway is vacant
Ans. b)
22
Q29. The numbers 08 and 26 on the approach ends of the runway is oriented approximately
a) 008º and 26º true b) 080º and 260º true
c) 080º and 260º magnetic d) 080º and 260º compass
Ans. c)
Q30. What is the purpose of the runway/runway hold position sign?

a) Denotes entrance to runway from a taxiway
b) Denotes area protected for an aircraft approaching or departing a runway
c) Denotes intersecting runways
d) Denotes intersecting taxiways
Ans. c)
Q31. An airport’s rotating beacon operated during daylight hours indicates

e) there are obstructions on the airport
f) that weather at the airport located in Class D airspace is below basic VFR weather minimums
g) the Air Traffic Control is not in operation
h) runway is blocked
Ans. b)
Q32. Wingtip vortices are created only when an aircraft is

a) operating at high airspeeds b) heavily loaded c) Developing lift d) taxiing fast
Ans. c)
Q33. Wingtip vortices created by large aircraft tend to

a) sink below the aircraft generating turbulence
b) rise into the traffic pattern
c) rise into the takeoff or landing path of a crossing runway
d) rise towards the engines of the aircraft
Ans. a)
Q34. How does the wake turbulence vortex circulate around each wingtip?
a) Inward, upward, and around each tip b) Inward, upward and counterclockwise
c) Outward, upward, and around each tip d) Outward, upward and away from each tip
Ans. c)
Q35. When taking off or landing where heavy aircraft are operating, one should be particularly alert to
the hazards of wingtip vortices because this turbulence tends to
a) rise from crossing runway into the takeoff or landing path
b) rise into the traffic pattern area surrounding the airport.
c) Sink into the flight path of aircraft generating the turbulence
d) Stay on runway in strong cross wind conditions
Ans. c)
Q36. The greatest vortex strength occurs when the generating aircraft is
a) light, dirty and fast b) heavy, dirty and fast
23
c) Heavy, clean and slow d) light, clean and slow
Ans. c)
Q37. The wind condition that requires maximum caution when avoiding wake turbulence on landing is
a
b) light, quartering headwind b) light, quartering tailwind
c) strong headwind d) strong tailwind
Ans. b)
Q38. When departing behind a heavy aircraft, the pilot should avoid wake turbulence by
maneuvering the aircraft
a) below and downwind from the heavy aircraft
b) above and upwind from the heavy aircraft
c) below and upwind from the heavy aircraft
d) above and downwind from the heavy aircraft
Ans. b)
Q39. When landing behind a large aircraft, the pilot should avoid wake turbulence by staying
a) Above the large aircraft’s final approach path and landing beyond the large aircraft’s
touchdown point
b) Below the large aircraft’s final approach path and landing before the large aircraft’s
Touchdown point
c) Above the large aircraft’s final approach path and landing before the large aircraft’s
touchdown point
Ans. a)
Q40. When landing behind a large aircraft, which procedure should be followed for vortex
avoidance?
a) Stay above its final approach flight path all the way to touchdown
b) Stay below and to one side of its final approach flight path
c) Stay well below its final approach flight path
d) Make a normal approach and land
Ans. a)
Q41. During a night flight, you observe a steady red light and a flashing red light ahead and at
the same altitude. What is the general direction of movement of the other aircraft?
a) The other aircraft is crossing to the left b) The other aircraft is flying away from you
c) The other aircraft is approaching to the right d) The other aircraft is crossing head-on
Ans. a)
Q42. During a night flight, you observe steady white light and a flashing red light ahead and at
a) The other aircraft is flying away from you b) The other aircraft is crossing to the left
c) The other aircraft is crossing to the right d) The other aircraft is approaching head-on
Ans. a)
24
Q43. During a night flight, you observe steady red and green lights ahead and at the same
altitude. What is the general direction of movement of the other aircraft?
a) The other aircraft is crossing to the left b)The other aircraft is flying away from you
c) The other aircraft is approaching head-on d) The other aircraft is crossing to the right
Ans. c)
Q44. The most effective method of scanning for other aircraft for collision avoidance during daylight
hours is to use
e) regularly spaced concentration on the 3-,9-, and 12-o’clock positions
f) a series of short, regularly spaced eye movements to search each 10-degree sector
g) peripheral vision by scanning small sectors and utilizing off center viewing
h) a series of eye movements focused at horizon
Ans. b)
Q45. The most effective method of scanning for other aircraft for collision avoidance during nighttime
hours is to use
a) regularly spaced concentration on the 3-,9-, and 12-o’clock positions
b) a series of short, regularly spaced eye movements to search each 10-degree sector
c) peripheral vision by scanning small sectors and utilizing off center viewing
d) focusing at lighted objects for 30 sec.
Ans. c)
Q46. How can you determine if another aircraft is on a collision course with your aircraft?
a) The other aircraft will always appear to get larger and closer at a rapid rate
b) The nose of each aircraft is pointed at the same point in space
c) There will be no apparent relative motion between your aircraft and the other aircraft
d) The nose of other aircraft is pointed towards your aircraft
Ans. c)
Q47. Prior to starting each maneuver, pilots should

a) check altitude, airspeed, and heading
b) Visually scan the entire area for collision avoidance
b) announce their intentions to the nearest ATC
c) tighten seat belt
Ans. b)
Q48. Most midair collision accidents occur during

a) hazy days b) clear days c) cloudy nights d) dark nights
Ans. b)
Q49. Why is hypoxia particularly dangerous during flights with one pilot?
a) Night vision may be so impaired that pilot cannot see other aircraft.
b) Symptoms of hypoxia may be difficult to recognize before the pilots reactions are affected.
c) The pilots may not be able to control the aircraft even if using oxygen.
Ans. b)
25
Q50. The sensations which lead to spatial disorientation during instrument flight conditions:
(a) Are frequently encountered by beginning instrument pilot, but never by pilots with moderate
instrument experience.
(b) Occur, in most instances, during the initial period of transition from visual to instrument flight.
(c) Must be suppressed and complete reliance placed on the indications of the flight instruments.
Ans. c)
26
Question Paper - 5
1. Oxygen is to be carried for all crew members and passengers above a absolute pressure of:
a) 800 hPa b) 700 hPa c) 620 hPa d) 1000 hPa
Ans. c)

a) Pilots of radar-identified aircraft whose aircraft is in dangerous proximity to terrain or to
an obstruction
b) Non-essential information to reduce frequency congestion
c) Non-control information in selected high-activity terminal areas
d) To warn pilots about conflicting traffic
Ans. c)
3. If the control tower uses a light signal to direct a pilot to give way to other aircraft and continue
circling, the light will be
a) flashing red b) steady red c) alternating red and green d) steady white
Ans. b)
4. Which light signal from the control tower clears a pilot to taxi?
a) Flashing green b) Steady green c) Flashing white d) Steady Red
Ans. a)
5. An alternating red and green light signal directed from the control tower to an aircraft in flight
is a signal to
a) hold position b) exercise extreme caution
c) Not land; the airport is unsafe d) Return to Apron
Ans. b)
6. If the aircraft’s radio fails, what is the recommended procedure when landing at a controlled
airport?
a) Observe the traffic flow, enter the pattern, and look for a light signal from the tower
b) Enter a crosswind leg and rock the wings
c) Flash the landing lights and cycle the landing gear while circling the airport
d) Rock wings
Ans. a)
7. When activated, an emergency locator transmitter (ELT) transmits on

a) 118.0 and 118.8 MHz b) 121.5 and 243.0 MHz
c) 123.0 and 119.0 MHz d) 118.1 and 123.0 MHz
Ans. b)
e) The current local altimeter setting, if available, or the departure airport elevation
f) The corrected density altitude of the departure airport
27
g) The corrected pressure altitude for the departure airport
h) QFE
Ans. a)
9. If an altimeter setting is not available before flight, to which altitude should the pilot, adjust
the altimeter?
a) The elevation of the nearest airport corrected to mean sea level
b) The elevation of the departure area
c) Pressure altitude corrected for nonstandard temperature
d) QNE
Ans. b)
10. 620 hPa absolute pressures is equal to: 10,000’ b) 13,000’ c) 15,000’ d) 25,000’
Ans. b)
11. What is the specific fuel requirement for flight under IFR at night for a propeller driven
aircraft?
a) Enough to complete the flight at normal cruising speed with adverse wind conditions
b) Enough to fly to the first point of intented landing and to fly after that for 30 minutes at
normal cruising speed
c) Enough to fly to the first point of intented landing thence to alternate and to fly after that
for 45 minutes
d) On as required basis
Ans. c)
12. Taking simple medicine like ‘aspirin’ prior to a flight

a) Is safe b) May slightly effect co-ordination
c) May reduce blood circulation d) May seriously impair judgment
Ans. d)
13. What is lowest altitude permitted for acrobatic flight?

a) 1,000 feet AGL b) 1,500 feet AGL c) 2,000 feet AGL d) 6,000 feet AGL
Ans. c)
14. The incubation period of relapsing fever is______ .days: a. 6 b.7 c. 8 d. 10

Ans. c)
15. Incubation period of yellow fever is _______ days: a. 6 b.7 c. 8 d. 9

Ans. a)
16. Which statement best defines hypoxia?

a) A state of oxygen deficiency in the body
b) An abnormal increase in the volume of air
c) A condition of gas bubble formation around the joints or muscles
d) Illusions during daytime
Ans. a)
28
17. Rapid or extra deep breathing while using oxygen can cause a condition known as
a) hyperventilation b) aero sinusitis c) aerotitis d) hypoxia
Ans. a)
18. Which would most likely result in hyperventilation?

a) Emotional tension, anxiety, or fear b) The excessive consumption of alcohol
c) An extremely slow rate of breathing and insufficient oxygen d) Lack of sleep
Ans. a)
19. A pilot should be able to overcome the symptoms or avoid future occurrences of Hyperventilation
by
a) Closely monitoring the flight instruments to control the airplane
b) slowing the breathing rate, breathing into a bag, or talking aloud
c) increasing the breathing rate in order to increase lung ventilation
d) flying without looking at instruments
Ans. b)
20. Pilots are more subject to spatial disorientation if

a) they ignore the sensations of muscles and inner ear
b) body signals are used to interpret flight attitude
c) eyes are moved often in the process of cross-checking the flight instruments
d) adequate rest is not taken prior to flight
Ans. b)
21. If a pilot experiences spatial disorientation during flight in a restricted visibility condition, the best
way to overcome the effect is to
a) rely upon the aircraft instrument indications
b) concentrate on yaw, pitch and roll sensations
c) consciously slow the breathing rate until symptoms clear and then resume normal breathing rate
d) ignore instruments and go by visual indications
Ans. a)
22. A state of temporary confusion resulting from misleading information being sent to the brain
by various sensory organs is defined as
a) spatial disorientation b) hyperventilation c) hypoxia d) stress
Ans. a)
23. The danger of spatial disorientation during flight in poor visual conditions may be reduced by
a) shifting the eyes quickly between the exterior visual field and the instrument panel
b) having faith in the instruments rather than taking a chance on the sensory organs
c) leaning the body in the opposite direction of the motion of the aircraft
d) breathing into a bag
Ans. b)
24. Which technique should a pilot use to scan for traffic to the right and left during straight-and
–level flight?
29
a) Systematically focus on different segments of the sky for short intervals
b) Concentration on relative movement detected in the peripheral vision area
c) Continuous sweeping of the windshield from right to left
d) Scan through the corner of the eyes
Ans. a)
25. What effect does haze have on the ability to see traffic or terrain features during flight?
a) Haze causes the eyes to focus at infinity
b) The eyes tend to overwork in haze and do not detect relative movement easily
c) All traffic or terrain features appear to be farther away than their actual distance
d) Objects appear to be closer than their actual distance
Ans. c)
26. What preparation should a pilot make to adapt the eyes for night flying?
a) Do not stress eyes after sunset until ready for flight
b) Avoid red lights at least 30 minutes before the flight
c) Avoid bright white lights at least 30 minutes before the flight
d) Avoid any light atleast 30 min before the flight
Ans. c)
27. What is the most effective way to use the eyes during night flight?
a) Look only at far away, dim lights
b) Scan slowly to permit off center viewing
c) Concentrate directly on each object for a few seconds
d) Scan fast to avoid direct viewing
Ans. b)
28. The best method to use when looking for other traffic at night is to
a) Look to the side of the object and scan slowly b) Scan the visual field very rapidly
c) Look to the side of the object and scan rapidly d) Look for anti collision lights
Ans. a)
29. Large accumulations of carbon monoxide in the human body result in

a) tightness across the forehead b) loss of memory
c) an increased sense of well-being d) lack of oxygen in blood stream
Ans. d)
30. Susceptibility to carbon monoxide poisoning increases as

a) altitude increases b) altitude decreases c) air pressure increases d) above 10,000 ft
Ans. a)
31. What often leads to spatial disorientation or collision with ground/obstacles when flying under
Visual Flight Rules (VFR)?
a) Continual flight into instrument conditions b) Getting behind the aircraft
c) Duck-under syndrome d) Continual flight into good weather conditions
Ans. a)
30
32. What is the one common factor which affects most preventable accidents?
a) Structural failure b) Mechanical malfunction
c) Human error d) Special disorientation
Ans. c)
33. Hypoxia is a result of which of the following conditions

a) Insufficient oxygen reaching the brain b) Excessive carbon dioxide in the blood stream
c) Limited oxygen reaching the heart muscles d) Lack of hemoglobin in blood
Ans. a)
34. What causes hypoxia?

a) Excessive carbon dioxide in the atmosphere
b) An increase in the nitrogen contents in the atmosphere at high altitude
c) A decrease in the oxygen partial pressure
d) Excessive carbon mono-oxide in the atmosphere
Ans. c)
35. A loss of cabin pressure may result in hypoxia because as cabin altitude increases
a) The percentage of nitrogen in the air is increased
b) The percentage of oxygen in the air is decreased
c) Oxygen partial pressure is decreased
d) The percentage of CO2 in the air is increased
Ans. c)
36. What is the symptom of carbon mono oxide poisoning?

a) Rapid shallow breathing b) Pain & cramping of the hands & feet
c) Dizziness d) Laziness
Ans. c)
37. What is the effect of alcohol consumption on the function of body

a) Alcohol has adverse effect especially as the altitude increases
b) Small amounts of alcohol in the human system increases judgment & decision making ability
c) Alcohol has little effect if followed by equal quantities of black coffee
d) Alcohol has no effect if taken more than 6 hrs before flight
Ans. a)
38. What is the common symptom of hyperventilation?

a) Tingling of the hands & feet b) Increased vision keenness
c) Decreased breathing rate d) Euphoria
Ans. a)
39. What would most likely occur in hyperventilation?

a) A stressful situation causing anxiety
b) The excessive consumption of alcohol
b) An extremely slow rate of breathing & insufficient oxygen
31
c) Dizziness
Ans. d)
40. Scanning procedure for effective collision avoidance should constitute

a) Looking outside for 15 seconds, then inside for 5 seconds, then repeat
b) 1 minute inside scanning then one minute outside scanning then repeat
c) Looking out side every 30 seconds except in radar contact when outside scanning is
unnecessary
d) Continuously looking outside
Ans. a)
41. Small amounts of alcohol in the system:

a) May affect decision making abilities b) Will not affect judgment
c) Will not have effect at sea level d) Can be cured by meditation
Ans. a)
42. Which observed target aircraft would be of most concern with respect to collision avoidance
a) One which appears to be ahead and moving from left to right at high speed
b) One which appears to be ahead and moving from right to left at slow speed
c) One which appears to be ahead with no lateral & vertical displacement & is increasing in size
rapidly
d) Non of the above
Ans. c)
43. When using earth’s horizon as a reference to determine the relative position of other aircraft most
concern would be for aircraft
a) Above the horizon & increasing in size b) On the horizon with little relative movement
c) On the horizon & increasing in size d) On the horizon & decreasing in size
Ans. c)
44. When making an approach on narrower than usual runway without VASI assistance, the pilot
should be aware that the approach
a) Altitude may be higher than it appears b)
b) Approach altitude may be lower than it appears
c) May result in leveling off too high & landing hard
d) May result in an overshooting approach
Ans. b)
45. When making a landing over a darkened or featureless terrain, such as water or snow pilot should
be aware of the possibility of illusion. This approach may appear to be
a) High b) Low c) Shallow d) Normal
Ans. a)
46. Haze can give illusion that the aircraft is

a) Closer to the runway than it actually is
b) Farther from the runway than actually is
32
c) The same distance from the runway as there is no restriction to visibility
d) High on approach
Ans. b)
47. A sudden penetration of fog can give an illusion of

a) Pitching up b) Pitching down c) Leveling off d) Descending
Ans. a)
48. Rain on the wind screen can cause what illusion

a ) No illusion b) Lower than usual c) Higher than usual d) Normal approach
Ans. c)
49. No authorized person must be present within ______ mts of a/c while refueling is on
a. 15 b. 30 c. 50 d. 10
Ans. a)
50. The maximum duty time limit per day extension is

Ans. a)
33
Question Paper - 6
1. How can an instrument Pilot best overcome spatial disorientation?
a) Rely on kinesthetic sense
b) Use a very rapid
c) Read and interpret the flight instruments, and act accordingly.
Ans. c)
b) 5 kms b) 8 kms c) 10 kms d) 3 kms
Ans. a)
3. The lateral separation reqd. if an A/C is holding at a level

a) 10 NMs b) 10 mins c) 5 mins d) 20 Nms
Ans. c)
4. Threshold lights are

a) Red b) Green c) Yellow d) Alternate Red & Green
Ans. b)
5. The 2nd section of an air report contains

a) ETA b) Met Info c) ATS Info d) Position Info
Ans. b)
6. Crossing of an ATS route should be at angle of: a) 60º b) 90º c) 45º d) 30º
Ans. b)
7. Information about facilities on an aerodrome is found in

a) AICs b) NOTAMs c) AIRAC d) AIP
Ans. c)
8. Flight navigator shall be carried , if the flight is more than _______ NM and no Nav aid is
present with in ______Nm of route
a) 300 NM, 600 NM b) 600 NM, 60 NM c) 600 NM, 30 NM. d) 300 NM, 60 NM
Ans. b)
9. Control Zone is from

a) Surface of earth to a specified upper limit b) 5000’ to unlimited
c) Atleast 700’ d) None of the above
Ans. a)
10. If an a/c has R/T failure then it will acknowledge signals from the ATC during day by
a) Switching on/off Nav lights b) Rocking Wings
c) Flickering Anti-collision lights d) Flying low
Ans. b)
34
11. Anti-collision lights are required on aircraft above
a) 1500 kg b) 15000 kg c) 5700 kgs d) all ac rudder
Ans. c)
b) 5 mins b) 3 mins c) 10 mins d) 2 mins
Ans. b)
13. Night flying hours can be logged between __________ mins after sunset to ________ mins
before sunrise: a) 20 mins b) 45 mins c) 1 hrs d) 15 mins
Ans. a)
14. Runaway direction is measured from

b) True North b) Compass North c) Magnetic North d) North Pole
Ans. c)
Indicates: a) Stop b) Cut Engines c) Continue Straight d) Turn Off
Ans. b)
16. The percentage of Co-pilot flying to be counted towards the renewal of CPL as PIC is
______ %: a) 50 b) 80 c) 60 d) 100
Ans. a)
17. A Pilot is more subject to spatial disorientation?

a) Kinesthetic senses are ignored.
b) Eye are moved often in the process of cross-checking the flight instrument.
c) Body signal are used to interpret flight attitude.
Ans. c)
18. The Min. Separation above F 290 is: a) 2000’ b) 3000’ c) 4000’ d) 5000’
Ans. a)
Ans. b)
20. An aircraft accident has to be informed to the DGCA with in ____ hrs
a. 12 b. 24 c. 48 d. 60
Ans. b)
21. The alert phase starts when an A/C cleared to land; fails to land within _____ of estimated
time of landing: a) 3 mins b) 2 mins c) 5 mins d) 10 mins
Ans. c)
22. Which procedure is recommended to prevent or overcome spatial disorientation?
35
(a) Reduce head and eye movement to the extent possible.
(b) Rely on the kinesthetic senses.
(c) Rely on the indications of the flight instruments.
Ans. c)
23. Log books of flight crew personnel shall be preserved for not less than ___ year’s last entry.
a. 1 b. 3 c. 5 d. 2
Ans. c)
24. In which class of airspace does ATC provide separation for IFR traffic from all other IFR
traffic, but relies on VFR traffic to provide its own separation from all other traffic?
a) Class B b) Class C c) Class D d) Class E
Ans. c)
25. What action should be taken if hyperventilation is suspected?

a) Breathe at a slower rate by taking very deep breaths
b) Consciously breathe at a slower rate than normal
c) Consciously force yourself to taken deep breathe and breathe at a faster rate than normal
Ans. b)
26. No scheduled flight carrying passengers is permitted to fly with in ___ NM of International
Border: a.15 km b. 5 NM c. 10 NM d. 15 NM
Ans. d)

a) A white capital T; land along the stem towards the crosspiece
b) An orange or red windsock, land towards the mast
c) A white or orange capital T; land along the stem towards the crospiece
d) An orange wedge shape in 3 dimensions, land towards the point of the wedge
Ans. c)
28. How would you regonise an aiming point marking on a runway?

a) 2 thick yellow lines close to and parallel to runway centreline
b) 2 thick white lines close to and parallel to runway centreline
c) 2 pairs of yellow lines close to and parallel to runway centreline
d) 2 pairs of white lines close to and parallel to runway centreline
Ans. b)
29. On a normal aerodrome, what colour should apron safety lines be painted?
a) White b) Yellow
c) Any colour which contrasts with surface
d) Any colour which contrasts with the aircraft stand markings
Ans. d)
30. What colour are (i) taxiway edge lights and (ii) runway edge lights?
a) i) yellow ii) white
36
b) i)green ii) white
c) i) blue ii) white
d) i) green ii) yellow
Ans. c)
31. What lights will a pilot see from the PAPI system if he is slightly low on the instrument approach
glide slope? Inboard means closer to the runway.
a) 3 white lights inboard of 1 red light
b) 3 red lights inboard of 1 white light
c) 1 white light inboard of 1 red light
d) 1red lights inboard of 3 white lights
Ans. b)
32. How can a pilot determine from a distance that an aerodrome sign contains mandatory
instructions?
a) The writing will be red on a white background
b) The writing will be white on a red background
c) The sign will be outlined in yellow and black stripes
d) The sign will be yellow on a black background, or vice versa
Ans. b)

a) With yellow and black marker boards
b) With red and white marker boards
c) With a white cross on the surface
d) With white chevrons on the surface
Ans. c)
34. The pilot of an aircraft which has the right of way must do certain things to reduce the risk of
collision. Apart from monitoring the other aircraft’ actions, what else must he do?
a) Maintain heading, speed, and altitude b) Maintain heading and altitude only
c) Maintain altitude and speed only d) Maintain heading and speed only
Ans. d)
35. Which of the following occurrences to an aircraft in flight should be considered an aviation
accident?
a) An engine disintegrates but causes no further damage
b) A wingtip is broken off in a collision
c) One passenger is stabbed by another
d) A passenger suffers second degree burns from a loose gallery kettle
Ans. d)
36. Which of the following occurrences to an aircraft in flight should be considered a serious
incident?
a) An engine disintegrates and prevents flap retraction
b) A passenger is taken ill with an infectious disease
37
c) The pilot takes avoiding action to prevent a near collision
d) A crew member falls in turbulence and breaks his leg
Ans. c)
accident?
a) An extinguished engine fire damages the engine oil system
b) One pilot is incapacitated by food poisoning for 36 hours
c) An undercarriage leg requires replacement after a heavy landing
d) An aborted take-off bursts 6 tyres
Ans. c)
38. For an aircraft having seating capacity of 215 passengers, number of cabin attendants
required is_____. a. 6 b. 5 c. 4 d. 7
Ans. d)
b) 8000 meters b) 5000 meters c) 1500 meters d) There is no minimum
Ans. b)
40. If pilot sees the symbol ‘X’ during SAR operations, how can he tell the survivor that he
understands the message?
a) Fly low past the symbol and turn away sharply
b) Rock wings
c) Fly in circles around trhe symbol
d) Fly low past the symbol and climb steeply
Ans. b)
41. What is the minimum horizontal distance which an aeroplane must stay away from cloud in
d) 1500 meters b) 1800 meters
c) No minimum stated provided the aircraft has a flight visibility of 5000 meters
d) No minimum stated provided the aircraft is in sight of the surface.
Ans. a)
42. What is correctly defined as “A situation wherein apprension exits as to the safety of an
a) The emergency phase b) The uncertainty phase
c) The alert phase d) The distress phase
Ans. c)
43. What mode A transponder setting means an aircraft is suffering unlawful interference?
a) 7000 b) 7500 c) 7600 d) 7700
Ans. b)
44 If navigation lights fail the action of the pilot is
38
a) To continue to destination b) land at nearest aerodrome
c) Switch on obstruction lights d) land at alternate
Ans. b)
45. UTC means

a) Universal Time Check b) Coordinated Universal Time
c) United Time Check d) None of the above
Ans. b)
46. Incubation period for typhus is_________ days: a. 7 b. 5 c.10 d. 14

Ans. b)
47. An A/C descending through the transition layer will report its height in
a) Flight Levels b) AMSL c) Altitude d) AGL
Ans. c)
48. Publicity material can be dropped from an A/C if it has the permission of
a) DM/ Commissioner of Police b) DGCA c) Aerodrome officer d) ICAO
Ans. a)
49. Prohibition of flights over Mathura refinery is:

a) With in a radius of 1 NM b) With in a radius of 10 km
c) With in a radius of 20 km d) With in a radius of 10 Nms
Ans. d)
50. Anti collision lights are _________ lights

a) Steady Red b) Rotating Red c) Flashing Red d) Red & White
Ans. c)
39
Question Paper - 7
1. When two aircraft are converging at approximately the same altitude, which statement
applies?
a) Gliders shall give way to helicopters
b) Aeroplanes shall give way to helicopters
c) Helicopters shall give way to aeroplanes .
d) Gliders shall give way to balloons.
Ans. d)
2. When a clearance for an “immediate take-off” is accepted, the pilot shall

a) back-track on the runway to use the maximum available length for take-off .
b) Taxi to a full stop in position on the runway and take off without further clearance.
c) Taxi onto the runway and takeoff in one continuous movement.
d) Complete the pre-take-off check before taxiing onto the runway and taking off.
Ans. c)
3. The radiotelephone distress signal to indicate grave and /or imminent danger requiring
immediate assistance is
a) MAYDAY, MAYDAY, MAYDAY.
b) PANPAN, PANPAN, PANPAN
c) SECURITY, SECURITY, SECURITY.
d) EMERGENCY, EMERGENCY, EMERGENCY.
Ans. a)
4. Estimated elapsed time A to B 1hr 15minutes.

Estimated stopover time at B 30 minutes.
Estimated elapsed time B to C 1 hr 20 minutes
Using the above information, what time should be entered in the “Elapsed Time “ BOX OF
VFR flight plan ?
a) 3hrs 50minutes.
b) 3hrs 20minutes.
c) 3hrs 05minutes.
d) 2 hrs 35 minutes
Ans. c)
5. Minimum cross-country hours required for an Instrument Rating are:

Ans. c)
6. The route navigation charges are on the basis of:

a) AUW b) Length of aircraft c) No. of Nav Aids used d) No. of passengers
Ans. a)
7. Petroleum in bulk is petroleum in receptacle, which exceeds _______________lts

a. .1000 b. 900 c.1500 d. 500
40
Ans. b)
8. The demolition of buildings and trees act came into effect in the year:
a. 1934 b. 1937 c. 1994 d. 1954
Ans. c)
b) all flights are permitted. b) only VFR flights are permitted.
c) Only IFR flights are permitted. d) SPL VFR flights are permitted
Ans. c)

b) Domestic routes b) International routes c) Regional routes d) None of the above
Ans. a)
11. The air traffic service which prevents the collision between aircraft is called
a) Alerting service b) Flight information service
c) Air traffic control service d) Air Traffic Advisory Service
Ans. c)
12. Prohibited area around Malabar hill is _____ mile.

a) 1 NM b) 1 Mile c) 5 NMs d) 1 Km
Ans. b)
13. Incubation period of yellow fever is ______ days: a) 6 b) 7 c) 8 d) 10

Ans. a)
14. Separation between Medium A/C taking off behind heavy A/C (or) Light A/C taking off
behind Medium A/C is ______ min: a) 02mins b) 5mins c) 3mins d) 1 min
Ans. a)
15. Longitudinal separation between two A/C on same track is _____ min
a) 10 b) 15 c) 20 d) 5
Ans. b)
16. A/C incident should be notified with in _______ hrs.

a) 24 hrs b) 12 hrs c) 48 hrs d ) 36 hrs
Ans. c)
17. Indian Airspace comes under ________ class of airspace.

a)A&B b) D& E c) A,B,C& D d) D,E,F& G
Ans. d)
18. No unauthorized person must be present within ______ mtrs of A/C , while refueling is on .
a) 15 mts b) 30 mts c) 50 mts d) 10 mts
Ans. a)
41
19. An aircraft must fly ______ Nm away from International Border.
a) 10 NMs b) 15 NMs c) 20 NMs d) 25 NMs
Ans. b)
20. VOR Track separation is _______

a) 15º at 30 NMs b) 15º at 20 NMs c) 15º at 15 NMs d) 15º at 10 NMs
Ans. c)
21. The duty time of the trainee pilot:

e) is calculated as per the FDTL
f) is not affected by the FDTL
g) is the time calculated from take off to landing
d) is from “chokes off” time to “chokes on” time
Ans. a)
22. FL 145 can be used:

a) by eastbound aircraft on IFR plan b) by westbound aircraft on VFR plan
c) By eastbound aircraft on VFR plan d) non of the above
Ans. b)
23. In VMC the vertical distance from cloud base is ________

a) 1000’ b) 2000’ c) 500’ d) 1.5 kms
Ans. a)

b) 100 hrs PIC & 50 hrs as Co pilot b) 100 hrs PIC & 30 hrs as Co pilot
c) 120 hrs PIC & 20 hrs as Co pilot d) 120 hrs PIC & 10 hrs as Co pilot
Ans. b)
25. Fresh ADC is required in case the flight is delayed by _________ minutes.
Ans. c)
26. In India separation between IFR and IFR is provided in ______ class of Airspace.
a) B b) A & B c) D& E d) D, E,F & G
Ans. a)
27. TMA means

a) Terminal Maintenance Area b) The main Apron
c) Terminal Control Area d) None of the above
Ans. c)
28. Displaced threshold lights will be in _________ colour.

a) Red b) Blue c) Green d) Yellow
Ans. c)
42
29. Minimum obstacle clearance in mountainous terrain for an IFR light is
a) 1000’ in 5kms b) 2000’ in 8 kms c) 2000’ in 5kms d) 1500’
Ans. b)
30. ________Letter stands for non-scheduled flight in flight plan.

a) S b) N c) Z Z d) NS
Ans. b)
31. Flight navigator shall be carried, if the flight is more than ________ Nm and no Nav-aid is
present with in ________ Nm of route.
a) 600 Nm/ 30 Nm b) 300 Nm/30 Nms c) 600 Nm/60 Nm d) 300 Nm/ 60 Nm
Ans. a)
32. The _______ % of co-pilot flying is counted towards the renewal of CPL as PIC.
a) 50% b) 80% c) 60% d) 100%
Ans. a)
33 12 stripes of threshold markings indicate a rw width of

a) 30 m b) 45 m c) 60 m d) 24 m
Ans. b)
34. 4 pairs of touch down zone markings indicate landing distance available
a) 900m b) 1200 to 1500 m c) 1500 mto2399 m d) 2400 m or more
Ans. c)
35. The visibility minima for take off, if the aerodrome is not equipped with radio
nav aid is ______ km. a) 8 kms b) 10 kms c) 5 kms d) 3.7 kms
Ans. c)
36. An aircraft accident has to be informed to the DGCA with in

Ans. b)
37. A signal made by radio- telegraphy (or) by any other signaling method consisting, of the
group ‘XXX’ in Morse code indicates: a) Distress b) Urgency c) Radio failure d) Priority
Ans. b)
38. Taxiway Centre line lights shall be of the following colour

a) white b) red c)blue d) green
Ans. d)
39. An Air-miss incident report made by radio (or) telephone must be confirmed with in
_____ days. a) 2 b) 4 c) 7 d) 10
Ans. c)
43
40. A person holding ________ shall fly ‘Aerial work Aircraft’
a) PPL b) CPL/ATLP c) IR d) Multi Engine Rating
Ans. b)
41. ‘Flight by night ‘means a flight performed between the periods of

a) 20 mins after sunset to 20 mins before sunrise
b) 15 mins before sunrise to 15 mins after sunset
c) 45 mins before sunrise to 45 mins after sunset
d) 60 mins before sunrise
Ans. a)
42. ‘RPL’ shall be used for ___________ flights only.

a) VFR Flts b) Domestic flights c) IFR Flts d) International Flight
Ans. c)
43. ‘Rockets (or) shells throwing red lights, fired one at a time at short intervals from an aircraft
indicate ______: a) Urgency b) Priority c) Distress d) Over flying danger area
Ans. c)
44. Which response is most correct with respect to wake turbulence?

a) Wing tip vortices are carried by the ambient wind.
b) Wing tip vortices have a circular and downward motion.
c) Wake turbulence exists behind all aeroplanes and helicopters in flight.
d) Response (a), (b), (c) is correct.
Ans. d)
45. Wake turbulence is produced by

a) Heavy aeroplanes only, regardless of their speed.
b) turbo-jet powered aircraft only.
c) Fast moving aeroplanes only, regardless of their weight.
d) All fixed and rotary wing aircraft.
Ans. d)
46. At an aerodrome the aerobatics can be carried out above 2000’ feet
e) Within 4 nm of perimeter of aerodrome
f) Beyond 2 nm of perimeter of aerodrome
g) Within 5 nm of nearest perimeter of aerodrome
d) Beyond perimeter of aerodrome
Ans. b)
47. Runways and taxiways or portions thereof that are closed to aircraft are marked by
a) Red flags.
b) Horizontal red squares with yellow diagonals.
c) A white or yellow X.
d) White dumb-bells.
Ans. c)
44
48. Runway direction designator is: a) QDM b) QDR c) QTE d) QNH
Ans. a)
49. Runway threshold lights are

a) Unidirectional red lights b) Omni directional yellow lights
c) Unidirectional green lights d) Omni directional blue lights
Ans. c)
50. Anti collision light is read. for A/C whose AUW exceeds
a) 1500 Kg b) 5700 Kg c) 10,000 Kg d) 57,000 Kg
Ans. b)
45
Question Paper - 8
1. If a passenger falls sick on board an A/C and he is suspected of any infectious disease then
PIC’s action is
a) To land immediately
b) To inform health officer of destination aerodrome atleast two hrs before landing
c) To inform doctor on board
d) off load passenger
Ans. b)
2. Dropping of paper leaf lets require the permission of

a) Aerodrome officer b) Local District Magistrate c) Operator d) DGCA
Ans. b)
3. If you see an aircraft on relative bearing of 270º with its red light than PIC’s action is
a) Turn right b) Turn left c) Maintain heading and Speed d) Give way
Ans. c)
4. An aircraft is crossing at right angle from left to right then the light seen by you, as PIC is
a) Yellow b) Red c) Green d) White
Ans. c)
5. If an aircraft in circuit has R/T failure then the visual indication by pilot to acknowledge ATC
signals is: a) Rock ailerons b) Circle over aerodrome c) Rock wings d) land
Ans. c)
6. Runaway direction is measured from

Ans. c)
7. Survivors on land requiring assistance indicate it to A/C in air by

a) W b) X c) Y d) V
Ans. d)
8. Move extended arms down wards in a patting gesture, moving wands up and down from waist
to knees: (a) Stop (b) Land at helipad (c) Slow down (d) Cut engines
Ans. c)
9. Emergency VHF frequency is

a) 118.6 MHz b) 122.7 Mhz c) 121.5 MHz d) 127.0 MHz
Ans. c)
10. Either arm or hand level with shoulder, hand across throat, palm down ward indicates
a) Slow down b) Cut engine c) Start engine d) Stop
Ans. b)
46
11. Minimum transition altitude in India for an aerodrome is
a) 4000’ AMSL b) 4000’ AGL c) 3000 above ground level d) 3000’ AMSL
Ans. a)

b) If a NOTAM is issued that it is not active b) With the permission of ATC
c) Out side the stipulated time d) Cannot fly at all
Ans. c)
13. DME separation between A/C on same track, same level and in some direction is
a) 10 NM b) 20 NM c) 15 NM d) 5 NM
Ans. b)
14. While crossing ATS routes the crossing will be done at _____ angles to the route.
a) 70º b) 110º c) 90º d) 45º
Ans. c)
15. Lateral separation between two aircraft, one climbing and another holding is
Ans. d)
16. Separation between climbing A/C, which is on crossing track of another A/C is
a) 10 mins b) 15 mins c) 5 mins d) 3mins
Ans. b)
17. ATC will inform RCC when A/C does not land within _________ minutes of ETA.
Ans. a)
18. If apprehension exists as to the safety of A/C and its occupants then it is called as
a) Distress phase b) Uncertainty phase c) Alert phase d) None of the above
Ans. c)
19. Within controlled airspace below 3000’ feet, visibility reqd. for VFR is
a) 3000 mts b) 5000 mts c) 3700 mts d) 1500 mts
Ans. b)
20. Route Navigation charges are based on

a) Length of ac b) Number of passengers c) All up weight of ac d) nav-aids Enroute
Ans. c)
21. Operator should instal CVR capable of retaining information during atleast last ________ of
its operation: a) 30 mins b) 1 hr c) after 01 Jan 2003 2 hrs d) 3 hrs
Ans. c)
22. On X-country flight where reporting points are not available then reporting shall be made
47
after every ________ min in.
a) 15 mins b) 30 mins c) 45 mins d) first report after 30 mins and subsequent after 60 mins
Ans. d)
23. You are descending from F-200 to 12000 over Delhi. 13000’ will be reported as_______
a) Altitude b) F 130 c) AMSL d) AGL
Ans. b)
24. Information about aerodromes is contained in _________ document.

a) Annex 2 b) Annex 11 c) Annex 14 d) Doc 4444
Ans. c)
25. Jeppesen charts widely use projection

e) Mercator b) Lamberts c) Oblique Mercator d) Polar Stereographic
Ans. b)
26 Second section of ‘Air Report’ contains

a) ATC information b) Position reports c) met information d) route information
Ans. c)
27. 360º (M) is a:

a) East bound track in Semicircular system. b) West bound track in Semicircular system
c) North bound track in Semicircular system d) South bound track in Semicircular system
Ans. a)
28. Approach Control Service is provided with in: a) CTA b) CTR c) CTZ d) TMA
Ans. b)
29. For an operator who has not filed minima, visibility minima for take off, if the aerodrome is
equipped with VOR is _______ Km: a) 5 kms b) 3.7 kms c) 1.5 kms d) 3 kms
Ans. b)
30. Mathura Refinery is a _________ area.

a) Danger Area b) Restricted Area c) Prohibited Area d) Terminal Area
Ans. c)
31. FDTL for training flights does not restrict:

a) Flight Time b) Flight Duty Time c) Number of landings d) All of the above
Ans. c)
32. The wing tip vortices generated by a heavy aeroplane can cause a lighter aircraft
encountering them to
a) Go out of control b) Continue descent even when maximum power is applied.
c) Sustain structural damages d) Experience any of the above situations.
Ans. d)
48
33. Wake turbulence caused by a departing large aeroplane begins
a) Before rotation b) With rotation. c) After becoming airborne. d) With full power
application.
Ans. b)
34. Flight time/flight duty time limitations shall be applicable to:

b) P-i-c, Co-pilot, Flt Engg & Navigators only b) Pilots and cabin crews only
c) P-i-C and Co-pilot only d) all crew personnel
Ans. a)

a) Normally referred to as the ramp or apron.
b) Which includes the apron, taxiways and runways?
c) Used when taxiing to and from the parking area.
d) Used for taxiing ,taking off and landing .
Ans. d)
applies?
a) Gliders shall give way to helicopters. b) Aeroplanes shall give way to helicopters.
c) Helicopters shall give way to aeroplanes. d) Helicopters shall give way to gliders.
Ans. d)
37. Two aircraft are on approach to land, the following aircraft shall:
a) Climb. b) Descend. c) Alter heading to the right. d) Alter heading to the left.
Ans. a)
38. Where ATIS is available the information which should be included on first contact with
ATC is the
a) Phrase “With the numbers “ b) Phrase “ATIS received “
c) Phrase “With the information “. d) ATIS phonetic identifier.
Ans. d)
39. What is lowest altitude permitted for acrobatic flight?

a) 1,000 feet AGL b) 1,500 feet AGL c) 2,000 feet AGL d) 6,000 feet AGL
Ans. c)

Ans. a)

c) At least 700’ d) None of the above
Ans. a)
49
42. Two a/c flying in the vicinity of aerodrome under radar control will be separated by :
(a) 15 nm (b) 10 nm (c) 5 nm (d) 3 nm
Ans. c)

a) 1500 kg b) 15000 kg c) 5700 kgs d) all ac rudder
Ans. c)
44. An aircraft cruising VFR in level flight above F 290 on a track of 290 deg M shall be flown at
a) F295, F315, F335, F355 b) F320, F360, F400, F440
c) F310, F350, F390, F430 d) F300, F340, F380, F420
Ans. b)
45. An aircraft flying in accordance with Special VFR would be flying within
a) A Control Zone. b) An Aerodrome Traffic Zone.
c) A Terminal Control Area. d) An airway.
Ans. a)
46. A series of red flashes directed at an aircraft means respectively:

In flight on the ground
a) airport unsafe , do not land ; taxi clear of landing area in use
b) give way to other aircraft and Stop.
continue circling ;
c) do not land for time being ; return to starting point on airport .
d) you are in prohibited area , alter stop
course ;
Ans. a)
47. A steady green light directed at an aircraft means respectively

a) cleared to land ; cleared to taxi
b) return for landing ; cleared to taxi .
c) return for landing ; cleared for take off .
d) cleared to land ; cleared for take off .
Ans. d)
48. VFR flight in class F airspace above 3000’ msl and below 10,000 ‘MSL.
a) Provided flight visibility is 1500 m. b) Provided flight visibility is 3000 m.
c) Provided flight visibility is 5000 m. d) Provided flight visibility is 8000 m.
Ans. c)
49. A prohibited area means an area over which:

a) Flight within 2 miles is prohibited. b) Flight of aircraft is totally prohibited.
c) Low flying is prohibited. d) Only instrument flying practice can be done.
Ans. b)
50
a) Inside a hanger.
b) Inside a hanger or building under supervision after taking adequate precautions.
c) In the open.
d) Wherever adequate facility exists.
Ans. c)
51
Question Paper - 9
1. Night flying hours can be logged between __________ mins after sunset to ________ mins
before sunrise: a) 20 mins b) 45 mins c) 1 hrs d) 15 mins
Ans. a)
2. . What is defined as “ A unit established to provide flight information and alerting service” ?
a) Air Traffic Service Unit b) Aeronautical Service
c) Area Control Service d) Flight Information Centre
Ans. d)
3. . In which class of airspace does ATC provide separation for IFR traffic from all other IFR
a) Class B b) Class C c) Class D d) Class E
Ans. c)

a) May take off after giving report to the district magistrate/police.
b) May take off if the forced landing was not due to any factor effecting the safe operation of
the aircraft.
c) Must not take off till permission is obtained from DGCA
d) Must take off after clearance from nearly aerodrome officer
Ans. b)
5. An overtake aircraft whether climbing, descending or in horizontal flight, shall keep out of the
way of the other aircraft by:
a) Decreasing its speed. b) Increasing its speed.
c) By altering the heading to the right. d) By altering the heading to the left.
Ans. c)
6. To which of the following must the pilot of a helicopter give way if it is on a converging
course with him and there is a risk of collision?
a) A balloon only b) A glider or a balloon c) A glider, a balloon or an airship
d) A glider, a balloon, an airship or an aero plane towing a glider.
Ans. d)
7. Minimum crew required on private aircraft is:

a) One pilot. b) Two pilots, c) As specified in it’s certificate of the Airworthiness.
d) The flight instructor along with private pilot.
Ans. c)
8. Within a control zone, the air traffic control is provided by

a) Area control b) Aerodrome Control c) Approach Control d) Flight Information control
Ans. c)
9. The pilot of an aircraft that has the right of way must do certain things to reduce the risk of
52
collision. Apart from monitoring the other aircraft’ actions, what else must he do?
b) Maintain heading, speed, and altitude b) Maintain heading and altitude only
c) Maintain altitude and speed only d) Maintain heading and speed only
Ans. d)
10. Anit-collision light is required for a/c whose AUW exceeds:

a)1500 kg. b) 5700 kg c) 10000 kg. d)14,000 kg
Ans. b)
11. Max flying hours for a flight crew in one year is:
a) 200 hrs. b) 900 hrs c) 1200 hrs d) 1000 hrs.
Ans. d)
12. If you see an aircraft on relative bearing of 270 with its red light then PIC’s action is:
a) Turn right b) Turn left c) Maintain heading and speed d) Give way.
Ans. c)
13. If navigation lights fail at night the action of the pilot is

a) To continue to destination b) land at nearest aerodrome
c) Switch on obstruction lights d) land at alternate
Ans. b) .
14. While crossing ATS routes the crossing will be done at __ angles to the route:
a)70° b)110° c)90° d)45°
Ans. c)
15. If apprehension exists as to the safety of a/c and its occupants then it called as:
a)Distress phase b)Uncertainty phase c)Alert phase d)None of the above.
Ans. c)
16. An aircraft should not taxy behind a jet aircraft, less than:
a) 100’ b) 200’ c) 150’ d) 300’
Ans. b)
17. A flight, which exceeds Mach number-1, cannot fly over:

a)Populated areas b)Indian Air Space c)Europe d)High seas
Ans. b)
18. Incubation period of Chicken Pox is: a)14 days b)7 days. c)8 days d)9 days.
Ans. a)
19. Indian airspace comes under _______class of airspace:

a) A & B b) D & E c) A,B,C, & D d) D, E, F, & G
Ans. d)
20. Semi-circular rules starts from flight level: a) 140 b) 10 c) 150 d) 290
53
Ans. b)
21. Flight navigator shall be carried, if the flight is more than _______ NM and no Nav aid is
present with in ______Nm of route
a)300 NM, 600 NM b)600 NM, 60 NM c)600 NM, 30 NM. d)300 NM, 60 NM
Ans. c)
22 Taxiway Centre line light shall be of the following colour

a) White b) Red c) Blue d) Green
Ans. d)
23. Minimum vertical separation in mountainous area for aircraft flying IFR flights is
a) 1000’ with in 5 km radius of the aircraft b) 1500’ AGL
c) 2000’ within 8 Km of the estimate position of the a/c d) none of these
Ans. c)
24. No scheduled flight carrying passengers is permitted to fly with in ___ of International
Border: a) 15 km b) 5 NM c) 10 NM d) 15 NM
Ans. d)
Ans. c)
26. A passenger transport aircraft with 250 seats departs on a flight with a passenger load of 136.
The number of flight attendants required is: a) 5 b) 3 c) 6 d) 10
Ans. c)
27. When approaching an airfield within a TMA the altimeter setting to be used, having
passed through the transition altitude is:
a) Airfield QNH b) Airfield QFE c) Regional QNH d) Regional QFE
Ans. a)
28. The maximum permitted flight time for flight crew is:
a) 69 hours in the 27days prior to the flight
b) 100 hours in the 27days before the current flight
c) 1000 hours in the year up to the end of the month prior to the present flight
d) 1200 hours in the year upto end of the month prior to present flight
Ans. c)
29. A series of red flashes sent to an aircraft in flight means :

a) Aerodrome unsafe, do not land
b) Return to the airfield and land
c) Give way to another aircraft and remain in the circuit
d) Notwithstanding any other instructions do not land at the moment
Ans. a)
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30. Airfield elevation is the altitude of the:
a) Highest point on the airfield b) Highest point on the landing area
c) Highest point on the runway d) Lowest point on the maneuvering area
Ans. b)
31. If PIC of an a/c flying sees the red navigation flight of an a/c at a Relative bearing of 270º
then the action of pilot: a) Turn Right b) No action c) Turn left d) Give way
Ans. b)
32. A public transport aircraft shall not take-off unless the following minima for the departure
airfield are satisfactory :
a) Cloud base and visibility b) Cloud ceiling and RVR
c) Cloud base and RVR d) MDH and RVR
Ans. b)
33. With regard to flight time limitations, “flight time “means:

a) The total time from when an aircraft first moves under its own power for the purpose
of taking off until it comes to rest after the flight
b) The time between take-off and landing
c) The time between an aircraft starting to move and coming to a complete stop plus one and
a half hours
d) The time from crew report to 30 minutes after landing
Ans. a)
34. A black letter “C” on a yellow background indicates:

a) The location of ATC on an airfield b) The location where visiting pilots should report
c) The location of the control tower d) Rest-room facilities for visiting pilots
Ans. b)
35. The retinal size of an aircraft approaching on a collision course :

a) Remain the same as the aircraft approaches
b) Decreases at a uniform rate as the aircraft approaches
c) Increases at a very slow rate until shortly before impact
d) Increases at a uniform rate as the aircraft approaches
Ans. c)
36. After a general anaesthetic one should not fly for:

a) 72 hours b) 12 hours c) 24 hours d) 48 hours
Ans. d)
37. Class ‘G’ airspace in India

a) Is a controlled airspace where Air traffic advisory service is provided to both IFR &
VFR flights.
b) Is an uncontrolled airspace where only flight information service is provided to both IFR
& VFR flights
c) Is airspace of defined dimension where IFR flights are provided Air Traffic Advisory
55
service and VFR flight receive flight information service .
d) Includes controlled and uncontrolled airspaces
Ans. b)
38 . Air plane A is overtaking airplane B. Which airplane has the right-of-way?

a) Airplane A; pilot should after course to the right to pass.
b) Airplane B; the pilot should expect to be passed on the right.
c) Airplane B; the pilot expect to be passed on the left.
d) None of the above
Ans. b)
39. What is the minimum visibility requirement in India under special VFR operation in Class D
airspace below 10000 feet
a) Day- 2 Km b) Day- 3 Km
c) Day- 1.5 Km when so prescribed by appropriate ATS authority.
d) Day-1 km
Ans. c)
40. Wake turbulence is near maximum behind a jet transport just after takeoff because
a) The engines are at maximum thrust output at slow air speed
b) The rear and flap configuration increases the turbulence to maximum.
c) Of the high angle of attack and high gross weight
d) Lift is greater than the drag
Ans. a)

a) The lowest published altitude, which meets obstacle clearance requirements and assures
acceptable navigational signal coverage.
b) Lowest published altitude, which meets obstacle requirements assures acceptable
navigational signal coverage, two – way radio communications, and provides adequate
radar coverage .
c) An altitude, which meets obstacle clearance
d) An altitude which ensures minimum 1000’ clearance from all obstacles
Ans. a)
42. Avoiding wake turbulence is

a) The sole responsibility of the ATC .
b) The sole responsibility of the pilot, only when advised by ATC of the possibility of wake
turbulence .
c) A responsibility shared by both the pilot and ATC.
d) The sole responsibility of the pilot.
Ans. d)
43. Wake turbulence caused by a departing aeroplane is most severe immediately

a) before rotation b) following take-off c) above its flight path.
d) following full power application.
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Ans. b)
44. What colour navigation light would a pilot see on an aircraft which he is overtaking at night?
a) Red b) Yellow c) Green d) White
Ans. d)

Ans. c)
46. What does a flashing white light from ATC indicate to the pilot of a taxiing aircraft?
a) Clear the landing area immediately
b) Taxi to the holding point for the runway in use
c) Hold your position and await a flashing green light
d) Return to the starting point on the aerodrome
Ans. d)
47. If a marshaller holds his hand down and waves is right arm continually upwards and
backwards, what does he want the pilot to do?
a) Turn right while moving forward
b) Turn left while moving forward
c) Start the left engine
d) Start the right engine
Ans. a)
48. Indian Airspace comes under ________ class of airspace.

a)A&B b) D& E c) A,B,C& D d) D,E,F& G
Ans. d)
49. In India separation between IFR and IFR is provided in______class of Airspace.
a) ‘D’ b) A & B c) D& F d) D, E,F & G
Ans. a)
50. Anti collision light is reqd. for A/C whose AUW exceeds
a)1500 Kg b) 5700 Kg c) 10,000 Kg d) 57,000 Kg
Ans. b)
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Question Paper - 10
1. Approach Control Service is provided with in
a) CTA b) CTR c) CTZ d) TMA
Ans. (c)
2. An overtake aircraft whether climbing, descending or in horizontal flight, shall keep

out of the way of the other aircraft by:
a) Decreasing its speed.
b) Increasing its speed.
c) By altering the heading to the right.
d) By altering the heading to the left.
Ans. (b)

a) Area control.
b) Aerodrome Control.
c) Approach Control.
d) Flight Information control.
Ans. (a)
4. The west end of a runway oriented east and west is numbered

a) 09 b) 90 c) 27 d) 270
Ans. (a)
5. When two aircraft are converging at approximately the same altitude ,which statement applies ?
a) Gliders shall give way to helicopters.
b) Aeroplanes shall give way to power-driven heavier –than-air aircraft.
c) Gliders shall give way to aeroplanes.
d). Power-driven heavier –than-air aircraft shall give way to Gliders.
Ans. (d)
6. When converging at approximately the same altitude:

a) Balloons shall give way to hang gliders.
b) Aeroplanes towing gliders shall give way to balloons.
c) Balloons shall give way to gliders.
d) Balloons shall give way to airships.
Ans. (b )
7. ATIS is normally provided:

a) To replace the SMC. b) To relieve frequency congestion.
c) For the rapid updating of weather forecasts. d) Only when VFR conditions exist at airports.
Ans. (b)
8 to 12. If you see an aircraft light on a relative bearing given below, action by you will be
8) Red 060 deg Ans. (b)
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9) Green 290 deg Ans. (a)
10) White 340 deg Ans. (c)
11) Red and Green 000 deg Ans. (c)
12) Green & Red 030 deg Ans. (c)
a) No risk of collision b) Turn Port c) Turn Starboard d) Maintain heading & Speed
13. Max flying hours for a flight crew in one years is:
a) 200 hrs. b) 900 hrs c) 1200 hrs. d) 1000 hrs.
Ans. (d)
14. A Control Zone normally is controlled airspace extending upwards from

a) 2,200 feet above the surface of the earth.
b) 7,00 feet above the surface of the earth .
c) the surface of the earth to a specified upper limit
d) a specified height above the surface of the earth .
Ans. (c)
15. When on VFR flight within controlled airspace, a pilot must remain clear of clouds by at least
a) 5,00 feet vertically and 1.5 km horizontally .
b) 5,00 feet vertically and 2,000 feet horizontally .
c) 1,000 feet vertically and 1.5 km horizontally.
d) 1,000 feet vertically and 3 km horizontally.
Ans. (c)
16. A steady red light directed at an aircraft means

a) give way to other aircraft & continue stop
circling ;
b) give to other aircraft & continue taxi clear of landing area in use .
circling;
c) airport unsafe do not land ; taxi clear of landing area in use .
d) airport unsafe do not land; stop
Ans. (a)
17. A VFR flt takes off from Jaipur at 1040 hrs for Ahmedabad. Sunset time at Ahmedabad is1232hrs.
What is the maximum flying time available to the p-i-c to land at Ahmedabad?
a) 1 hr and 52 mins b) 1 hr and 22 mins c) 2 hrs 02 mins d) 2 hrs and 22 mins
Ans. (a)
18. Indian ATS Routes come under _______class of airspace:

a) A & B b) E c) A, B, C, & D d) D, E, F, & G
Ans. (c)
19. An aircraft not fitted with navigation lights cannot be flown:

a) At any time. b) During hours of night.
c) Without permission of aerodrome officer. d) Without permission from the DGCA.
59
Ans. (b)
20. Series of Red flashes from control tower when aircraft is in flight means:
a) Aerodrome is closed b) Aerodrome is unsafe, do not land
c) Give way to other aircraft and continue circling.
d) Disregard previous instruments; do not land for the time being.
Ans. (b)
21. Landing and housing charges are payable by private aircraft according to:
a) Seating capacity of the aircraft. b) Number of passengers on board the aircraft.
c) All –up weight of the aircraft. d) No charges are levels ; if free passengers are carried.
Ans. (c)
a) 6 hrs before commencement if flight b) 12 hrs before commencement of flight.
c) 24 hrs before commencement of flight. d) 36 hrs before commencement of flight.
Ans. (b)
23. While refueling is in progress, no naked light be brought within:

a) 35 mtrs b) 30 m. c) 100 mtrs d) 43 m
Ans. (b)
24. A person can bring unto India human remains of a person who may have died of plague:
a) If enclosed in a wooden box. b) If enclosed in a shell of zinc.
c) If enclosed in a hermetically sealed shell if zinc after permission id obtained from proper
authority.
d) Cannot bring them.
Ans. (d)
25. Flight plan must be filed;

a) For all flights b) For schedule flights only c) For training flights only
d) IFR flights proposed to be conducted in controlled airspace only:
Ans. (a)
26. The letter ‘C’ displayed vertically in black against a yellow background indicates the
location of the:
a) Control Tower b) Airline movement control.
c) Aircraft services briefing office. d) Air traffic services reporting office.
Ans. (d)
27. The maximum permitted flight time for flight crew is :

a) 69 hours in the 27days prior to the flight
b) 100 hours in the 27days before the current flight
c) 1000 hours in the year up to the end of the month prior to the present flight
d) 1200 hours in the year up to end of the month prior to present flight
Ans. (b)
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28. All the flights at night must be conducted in accordance with IFR.
a) When the aircraft is flown at or above F 150.
b) If weather condition do not permit VMC operation.
c) If aircraft is flown within a controlled airspace.
d) Irrespective of weather condition and flight level.
Ans. (d)
29. Horizontal separation of aircraft at same cruising level and in same track by time is:
a) 30 min. b) 20 min. c) 10 min. d) 15 min.
Ans. (d)
30. Letter ‘W’ in air routes designates:

a) Domestic Routes b) International Routes
c) Route in western routes d) Area navigation routes.
Ans. (a)
31. Runway direction designator is: a) QDM. b) QDR. c) QTE.

Ans. (a)
32. Colour specification of rotating aerodrome beacon

a) Alternate white and red b) Blue
c) Alternate white and green. d) Green.
Ans. (c)
33. If a passenger falls sick on board an a/c and he is suspected of any infectious disease then
PIC’s action is:
a) TO land immediately.
b) To inform health officer of destination aerodrome at least two hrs before landing.
c) To inform DGCA.
d) To inform doctor on board.
Ans. (b)
34. An Aircraft is crossing at right angle left to right then the light seen by you , as PIC is:
a) Yellow b) Red c) Green d) White.
Ans. (c)
35. Minimum transition altitude in India for an aerodrome is:

a) 4000’ AMSL. b) 4000’ AGL. c) 3000’ above ground level. d) 3000’ AMSL.
Ans. (a)
36. Lateral separation between two aircraft, one climbing and another holding is:
a) 10 mins. b) 15 mins c) 20 mins d) 5 mins.
Ans. (d)
37. In class ‘D’ airspace visibility required for VFR flight below 10000’ ft.
61
a) 8000 mts. b) 5000 mts c) 3700 mts d) 1500 mts.
Ans. (b)
38. On a X-country flight where reporting points are not available position report shall be made
every _____ min in IMC.
a) 60 mins. b) first report after 30 mins and subsequent after 60 mins c) 15 mins. d) 45 mins
Ans. (b)
39. Second section of “Air Report” contains:

a) ATC information. b) Position Report. c) Met information. d) Operational Information
Ans. (c)
40. Special Air Report is made by:

a) Aerodrome officer b) Meteorology officer at Airport
c) An Aircraft d) India Met Department
Ans. (c)
41. Runway end lights appear as:

a) Unidirectional green b) Omni directional red c) Unidirectional red d) Unidirectional amber
Ans. (c)
42. The incubation period of relapsing fever is______ .a) 6 b) 7 c) 8 d) 10

Ans. (c)
43. The pilot has to inform the ATC if the ETA changes by:
Ans. (c)
44. Separation between medium a/c taking off behind heavy a/c of (or) light a/c taking off behind
medium a/c is: a) 02 mins b) 5 min s c) 3 mins d) 1 mins
Ans. (a)
45. No unauthorized person must be within ______ mtr of a/c while refueling is going on
a) 15 mts b) 30 mts c) 50 m ts d) 10 mts
Ans. (a)
46. Fresh ADC is required in case the flight is delayed by:

Ans. (c)
47. The percentage of Co-pilot flying to be counted to wards the renewal of CPL as PIC is:
a) 50 % b) 80 % c) 60 % d) 100 %
Ans. (a)
48. With regard to flight time limitations, “flight time “means:

a) The total time from when an aircraft first moves under its own power for the purpose
62
of taking off until it comes to rest after the flight
b) The time between take-off and landing
c) The time between an aircraft starting to move and coming to a complete stop plus one
and a half hours
d) The time from crew report to 30 minutes after landing
Ans. (c)
49. In India night starts from

a) 20 mts after sunset b) 30 mts after sunset
c) 20 mts before sunset d) 30 mts before sunset
Ans. (a)
50. For an aircraft having seating capacity of 215 passengers, in number of cabin attendants
required is: a) 6 b) 5 c) 4 d) 7
Ans. (b)
63
Question Paper -11
1. Class ‘G’ airspace in India
a) Is a controlled airspace where Air traffic advisory service is provided to both IFR & VFR
flights.
a) Is an uncontrolled airspace where only flight information service is provided to both IFR
& VFR flights .
c) Is an airspace of defined dimension where IFR flights are provided Air Traffic Advisory
service and VFR flight receive flight information service.
d) Includes controlled and uncontrolled airspaces
Ans. b)
2. Air plane A is overtaking airplane B. which airplane has the right-of-way?

a) Airplane A; pilot should alter course to the right to pass.
b) Airplane B; the pilot should expect to be passed on the right.
c) Airplane B; the pilot expect to be passed on the left.
Ans. b)
3. “Controlled Airspace “means airspace of defined dimensions within which

a) Control Zone regulations are in force b) Security regulations are in force.
c) Special VFR flight only is permitted d) An ATC service is provided.
Ans. d)
4. A series of green flashes directed at an aircraft means respectively

In flight On the ground
a) Cleared to land ; Cleared to taxi
b) Return for landing ; Cleared for take off.
c) Return for landing ; Cleared to taxi
d) Cleared to land; Cleared for take-off
Ans. c)
5. A flashing white light directed at an aircraft on the maneuvering area of an airport means
a) Stop b) Return to starting point on the airport.
c) Cleared to taxi. d) Taxi clears of landing area in use.
Ans. b)
6. Blinking runway lights advises vehicles and pedestrians to

a) Return to the apron
b) Vacate the runways immediately.
c) be aware that an emergency is in progress ; continue with caution .
d) be aware that an emergency is in progress ; hold your position .
Ans. b)
7. The starboard navigation light of an aircraft is visible over an arc of:

a) 70 Degrees b) 140 degrees c) 110 degrees d) 220 degrees
64
Ans. c)
8. Under what circumstances should an aircraft giving way alter its course to the left?
a) At all times b) Only when overtaking in the air
c) Only when overtaking on the ground d) Never
Ans. c)
applies?
a) Gliders shall give way to helicopters.
b) Aero planes shall give way to power-driven heavier –than-air aircraft.
c) Gliders shall give way to aeroplanes.
d) Power-driven heavier –than-air aircraft shall give way to Gliders
Ans. d)

a) Provided the owner has no objection.
b) Provided permitted by the aerodrome officer.
c) Without restricted if no passengers are carried.
d) Only if the certificate of airworthiness of the aircraft permits
Ans. d)
11. An aircraft without registration markings can be flown only:

a) If the sale deed is not yet completed.
b) For purpose of test flight only, prior to purchase.
c) If it is used for Govt. Work.
d) If specially permitted in writing by the central govt.
Ans. d)
12. A Control Area normally is controlled airspace extending upwards from

a) 2,200 feet above the surface of the earth.
b) 7,00 feet above the surface of the earth.
c) The surface of the earth to a specified upper limit
d) A specified height above the surface of the earth, which should not be less than 200 mts
Ans. d)
13. Photography at an aerodrome can be done with prior permission in writing from:
a) Aerodrome office b) DGCA c) Central Govt. d) Defence Ministry
Ans. b)

a) Class E b) Class F c) Class G d) Class A
Ans. b)
15. When two power driven aircraft are in crossing course, the responsibility of avoiding collision, rests
with:
a) Heavier a/c b) Lighter a/c
65
c) The a/c which has the other a/c to its right. d) The a/c which has the other a/c to its left.
Ans. c)
16. The a/c approaching to land at an aerodrome changes its altimeter subscale setting to QNH setting
while crossing:
a) Transition altitude b) Transition level c) Sector safety altitude d) Route safety altitude
Ans. b)
17. An a/c flying low due to thunder storm for safety reasons can be sued by:
a) State Govt. b) Municipal Corporation
c) Owner of the property over which it is flying d) Cannot be sued.
Ans. d)
18. During the distress phase an a/c:

a) Switches on and off its landing lights b) Speaks MAY DAY on R/T
c) Speaks PAN on R/T. d) Selects SSR mode a code 7000.
Ans. b)
19. When flying outside a regular route, an aircraft should report its position to the appropriate ATS
unit.
a) first report after 30 mins and subsequent after 60 mins b) Every one hour.
c) On crossing every NDB or VOR Station. d) As and when convenient
Ans. a)
20. Min. width of runway centre line stripes for Cat I runways is:
a) 0.3mts b) 0.6mts c) 0.45mts d) 0.9mts
Ans. c)
21. Aircraft intending to fly in formation:

a) Cannot fly b) Can fly during daytime
c) Can fly with permission for DGCA d) Can fly with prior arrangement
Ans. a)
22. A horizontal white dumbbell displayed in signal area means:

a) Pilot to exercise caution due bad state of the maneuvering area.
b) Aircraft are required to land, take off and taxi on runway and taxiways only.
c) Aircraft are required to land/take off on runway only but may use grass area for taxing.
d) Aerodrome closed.
Ans. b)
23. An alternate aerodrome means:

a) An aerodrome specified in the flight plan t o which a flight may proceed when it
becomes in advisable to land at the aerodrome of intended landing.
b) Any aerodrome other than the aerodrome of intended landing which may be used by
an aircraft.
c) An aerodrome where an aircraft may be forced to land due to unavoidable
66
circumstances.
d) An aerodrome situated at the same location other than the aerodrome of intended
landing.
Ans. a)
24. Flight must invariably be conducted in accordance with Instrument Flight Rules, even during broad
day light, when aircraft are flown:
a) At or above F150 b) Within controlled airspace.
c) At or above F 200. d) In designated areas or designated routes.
Ans. a)
25. Flight must invariably be conducted in accordance with Instrument Flight Rules, even during broad
day light, when aircraft are flown:
a) In class ‘D’ airspace b) Within controlled airspace.
c) In class A airspace d) In designated areas or designated routes.
Ans. c)
a) Is involved in an accident/incident.
b) Is modified or repaired without the consent of the Director General.
c) Is modified or repaired otherwise than in accordance with the provisions of the rules.
d) In involved in a serious violation of the rules contained in the aircraft rules..
Ans. c)
.
27. While flying over high terrain or in mountainous regions, as IFR flight shall be flown at a level
which is at least.
a) 2000 ft above the highest obstacle located within 5 kms of the estimated position of the aircraft.
b) 1000 ft above the highest obstacle located within 8 kms of the estimated position of the aircraft.
c) 1000 ft above the highest obstacle located within 5 kms of the estimated position of the aircraft.
d) 2000 ft above the highest obstacle located within 8 kms of the estimated position of the aircraft.
Ans. d)
28. Without visual aid, a pilot often interprets centrifugal force as a sensation of:
(a) rising or falling (b) turning (c) motion reversal
Ans. (a)
29. A person died of cholera, his body can be brought to India if:
a) Packed in a wooden box.
b) Cannot be brought.
c) Sealed in zinc and packed in a wooden box. Closed in a shell of zinc, joints sealed, shell
d) Permitted by the DGCA.
Ans. c)
30. Flight Duty Time can be extended by______ hrs in a day:
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Ans. b)
31. A light aircraft taking off behind a heavy aircraft requires a spacing of:
a) 2 min. b) 3 min. c) 5 min d) 4 min
Ans. a)
32. FDTL for 2 crew international flight is ______ hrs and _____ landing.
a) 10 hrs and 3 landings. b) Three hrs and 9 landings.
c) 9 hrs and 3 landings. d) 8 hrs and 3 landings.
Ans. c)
33. Dropping of paper leaf lets require the permission of:

a) Aerodrome b) Local District Magistrate. c) Operator d) DGCA.
Ans. b)
34. Emergency µHF frequency is:

a) 121.5 MHz b) 256.0 MHz c) 243.0 MHz d) 127.0 MHz
Ans. (c)
35. DME separation between a/c on same track, same level and in same direction is:
a) 10 NM. b) 20 NM. c) 15 NM. d) 5 NM
Ans. (b)
36. Separation between climbing a/c , which is on crossing track of another a/c is:
a) 10mins b) 15mins c) 5mins d) 20mins.
Ans. (b)
37. Abrupt head movement during a prolonged constant rate in IMC or simulated instrument
conditions can cause:
(a) pilot disorientation (b) false horizon (c) elevator illusion
Ans. (a)
38. Information about rules of the air is contained in _________ICAO document.

a) Annex 2 b) Annex 11 c) Annex 14 d) Doc 4444.
Ans. (a)
39. A sloping cloud formation, an obscured horizon, and a dark scene spread with ground
lights and stars can create an illusion known as:
(a) Elevator illusions (b) autokinesis (c) false horizons
Ans. (c)
40. An abrupt change from climb to straight and level flight can create the illusion of:
(a) Tumbling backwards (b) a nose up attitude (c) a descent with the wing level
Ans. (a)
41. An a/c climbing through the transition layer will reports its height in:
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a) Flight Levels b) AMSL c) Altitudes d) AGL
Ans. a)
42. A rapid acceleration during takeoff can create the illusion of:
(a) spinning in the opposite direction
(b) being in a nose up attitude
(c) diving into the ground
Ans. (b)
43. Why is hypoxia particularly dangerous during flights with one pilot?
(a) Night vision may be so impaired that the pilot cannot see other aircraft.
(b) Symptoms of hypoxia may be difficult to recognize before the pilot’s reactions are
affected.
(c) The pilot may not be able to control the aircraft even if using oxygen.
Ans. (b)
44. Longitudinal separation between two a/c on same track is:

a) 10mins b) 15mins c) 05mins d) 20mins
Ans. b)
45. Separation above F410 is: a) 1000’ b) 3000’ c) 2000’ d) 4000’

Ans. c)
46. Rashtrapati Bhawan is a

a) Danger Area b) Restricted Area c) Prohibited Area d) Non of the above
Ans. c)
47. An aircraft accident has to be informed to the DGCA with in:

Ans. b)
48. The sensations which lead to spatial disorientation during instrument flight conditions:
(a) are frequently encountered by beginning instrument pilot, but never by pilots with
moderate instrument experience.
(b) occur, in most instances, during the initial period of transition from visual to
instrument flight.
(c) must be suppressed and complete reliance placed on the indications of the flight
instruments.
Ans. (c)
49. Log books of flight crew personnel shall be preserved for not less than ___ years after completion:
a) 1 yr b) 3 yr c) 5 yr d) 2 yr
Ans. c)
50. Incubation period for typhus is:
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a) 7 days b) 5 days c) 10 days d) 14 days
Ans. d)
70
Question Paper - 12
1. International flight flying time in one day is restricted to_____ for flight crew:
(a) 9 hrs 3 landing (b) 6 hrs 4 landing
(c) 8 hrs 4 landing (d) 8 hrs 3 landing .
Ans. a
2. Pilot to act as PIC of a public transport a/c should have flown on that route times:
(a) 1 (b) 2 (c) 3 (d) 4
Ans. a
3. A flight to be operated at altitudes at which the atmospheric pressure in personnel

compartments will be less than 700 hpa should not be commenced unless sufficient stored
breathing oxygen is carried to supply:
(a) all crew
(b) all crew and Passengers
(c) all crew members and passengers for any period that the atmospheric pressure in
compartments occupied by them will be less than 620 hPa.
(d) all crew when pressure is bellow 700 hPa.
Ans. c)
4. Runway threshold stripes are 8 on each side of central line of runway:

(a) 30 m (b) 45 m (c) 60 m (d) 23 m
Ans. c
5. RVR for a runway filed by an operator is 500m. Threshold RVR is reported

to be 800 m. It is:
(a) above filed minima (b) below filed minima
(c) with in minima if mid RVR is above 450m
(d) with in minima if both mid RVR and stop end RVR are above 500m.
Ans. a
6. For a VFR flight making approach at night, the approach will be

(a) faster than normal approach (b) steeper than normal
(c) shallower than normal (d) Non of the above
Ans. b
7. Draft amendments to aircraft rules 1937 will be published in:

(a) AIP (b) AIC (c) AIP Supplement (d) CARs
Ans. b
8. An aircraft on a reciprocal track will be separated by:

(a) 15 mins at the time of crossing levels
(b) 15 mins at the time climb is initiated
(c) 10 mins at the time levels are crossed
(d) 10 mins at the time the climb is initiated
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Ans. c
9. In IMC, on a route where reporting points are not given, the reporting will be done:
(a) Every half an hour (b) Every hour
(c) First report after 30mins and subsequent every 60mins
(d) On as required basis
Ans. a
10. A pilot involved in an incident whose flying has been stopped can start flying again with the
permission of :
(a) Operator (b) DGCA (c) Central govt. (d) ATC
Ans. b
11. HAT for Precision approaches Cat II is: (a) Nil (b) 50’ (c) 100’ (d) 200’
Ans. b
12 How can an instrument pilot best overcome spatial disorientation?

(a) Rely on kinesthetic sense
(b) Use a very rapid cross-check
(c) Read and interpret the flight instruments, and act accordingly.
Ans. (c)
h) 6 hrs before commencement if flight.
i) 12 hrs before commencement of flight.
j) 24 hrs before commencement of flight.
k) 36 hrs before commencement of flight.
Ans. b
14. Photography at an aerodrome can be done with prior permission in writing from :
a. Aerodrome officer b. DGCA c. Central Govt. d. Indian Air Force
Ans. b
15. How can an instrument pilot best overcome spatial disorientation?

(a) Use a very rapid cross-check.
(b) Properly interpret the flight instrument and act accordingly.
(c) Avoid banking in excess of 30º.
Ans. (b)
16. If PPL holder is 30 years old, his license can be renewed for a period of___________yrs
(a) One (b) 10 (c) Two (d) 4
Ans. b
17. While refueling is in progress, no naked light be brought within _______________mts :

a. 35 b. 30 c. 100 d. 15
Ans. b
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18. An a/c flying low due to thunder showers for safety reasons can be sued by:
(a) State Govt. (b) Municipal Corporation.
(c) Owner of the property over which it is flying. (d) Cannot be sued.
Ans. d
19. A pilot is more subject to spatial disorientation?

(a) Kinesthetic senses are ignored.
(b) Eye are moved often in the process of cross-checking the flight instruments.
(c) Body signal are used to interpret flight attitude.
Ans. (c)
20. A person can bring to India human remains of a person who has died of plague:
a. If enclosed in a wooden box.
b. If enclosed in a shell of zinc.
c. If enclosed in a hermetically sealed shell of zinc after permission id obtained from proper
authority.
d. Cannot bring them.
Ans. d

a. May take off after giving report to the district magistrate/police.
b. May take off if the forced landing was not due to any factor effecting the safe operation of the
aircraft.
c. Must not take off till permission is obtained from DGCA.
Ans. b
22. Aircraft intending to fly in formation:

a. Cannot fly.
b. Can fly during daytime.
c. Can fly with permission for DGCA.
d. Can fly with prior arrangement.
Ans. a
a. Is involved in an accident/incident.
b. Is modified or repaired without the consent of the Director General.
c. Is modified or repaired otherwise than in accordance with the provisions of the rules.
d. Is involved in a serious violation of the rules contained in the aircraft rules.
Ans. c
24. If navigation lights fail at night then:

a. Land as soon as possible without endangering the safety of the aircraft.
b. Fly to destination.
c. Return to departure aerodrome.
d. Continue flying.
Ans. a
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25. Aircraft meets with an accident on runway, its wreckage can be removed:
a. For smooth flow of air traffic.
b. For removing a dead body or injured person.
c. After taking photographs.
d. Both (a) and (b) are correct
Ans. d
26. A person dies of cholera, his body can be brought to India if:
a. Packed in a wooden box.
b. Cannot be brought.
c. Sealed in zinc and packed in a wooden box. Closed in a shell of zinc, joints sealed, shell
d. Permitted by the DGCA.
Ans. c
27. In case ICAO aircraft designator is not assigned, insert _________ in item 9 of flight plan:
a) NA b) TYP c) Plain Language designator d) ZZZZ
Ans. d
28. Inst. Chart procedures are given in: (a) AIC (b) NOTAMS (c) AIRAC (d) AIP
Ans. d
29. Inst. Charts carried in aircraft are contained in:

(a)Operation Manual (b) Aircraft Manual (c) Route guides (d) Operational Circulars
Ans. c
30. Danger areas are given in: (a) AIRAC (b) AIC (c) AIP (d) NOTAMs
Ans. c
31. To know the current watch hours at an aerodrome, pilot should refer to
(a) NOTAMs (b) AIP (c) AIC (d) CARs
Ans. b
32. Vertical separation applicable to non-RVSM aircraft operative in RVSM airspaces is

(a) 500’ (b) 1000’ (c) 2000’ (d) 4000’
Ans. c
33. Weather below minima implies that:

a. RVR/ Visibility and weather below minima specified by the operator
b. Weather below V M C
c. RVR / VIS and weather below minima specified by / ICAO
d. Cloud ceiling is below 1500’ above the aerodrome
Ans. a
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34. Two digits in black over yellow back ground hanging from the tower indicates
(a) Time in VTC (hrs) (b) runway in use
(c) Location of ATS reporting point (d) current visibility in kms.
Ans. b
35. Decision altitude is related to:

(a) Precision app (b) Non precision app (c) Circling app (d) both ‘a’& ’b’
Ans. a
36. Circling minimas are:

(a) Higher than precision app minimas (b) lower than precision app minimas
(c) Same as than precision app minimas (d) may be more or less than Precision app. Minimas
Ans. a
37. ARP is at the:

a) Geometric centre of an aerodrome b) Highest elevation at an aerodrome
c) Designated point at the aerodrome. d) None of the above
Ans. a
38. SIDS are published in: (a) AIRAC (b) NOTAMs (c) CARs (d) AIP
Ans. d
39. White flashes from tower to aircraft in flight means:

a. Return to this aerodrome and proceed apron
b. Land at this aerodrome and proceed to apron.
c. Land after green signal from Tower.
d. None of the alone
Ans. b
40. OCA is determined after taking into account margin for:

(a) Terrine clearance (b) Pilot error (c) Operational congregations
(d) Weather considerations.
Ans. a
41. RVR/DH for cat II ILS ops is:

(a) 550m/60 (b) 350m/30m (c) 550m/30m (d) 800m/60m
Ans. b
42. RVR/DH minima cat III A MLS is:

(a) 200m/Nil (b) 50m/nil (c) nil/nil (d) Non of the alone
Ans. a
43. Position reports to be given by an aircraft in VMC, if no route is being followed will be at an
interval of
(a) 30 mins (b) 60 mins
(c) First report after 30 mins and sub regent after 60 mins
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(d) on as required Basis
Ans. c
44. Oxygen is carried on board for crew members and passengers when atmospheric pressure
will be less than: (a) 620 hPa (b) 700 hPa (c) 376 hPa (d) 800 hPa
Ans. b
45. A twin engine p-i-c has decided to divert due to failure of one engine. It will be
(a) Uncertainty phase (b) Alert phase (c) Distress phase (d) Non of the above
Ans. b
46. An IFR flts will main train a minimum altitude of

a. 2000’ above highest obstacle with in 8 kms of aircraft position in mountainous areas
b. 1000’ above highest obstacle elsewhere
c. 1000’ above highest obstacle with in 600m of aircraft position in mountainous areas.
Ans. d
47. Prisoners can be carried on board with the permission of :

(a) Police commissioner (b) DGCA (c) DM (d) DIG prisons
Ans. b
48. Indian airspace is classified as: (a) A,B,C,D (b) B,C,D,E (c) C,D,E,F (d) D,E,F,G
Ans. d
49. Series of red flashes to an aircraft in flight indicate:

a. Aerodrome unsafe do not land
b. Give way to other ac and keep circling
c. Flying over danger area clear immediately
d. Wait for white signal to join circuit
Ans. a
50. VFR flts are not permitted:

(a) Above F 100 (b) Above FL150 (c) Above F 50 (d) above 3000 from terrain or water
Ans. b
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Question Paper - 13
1. Advance notification for establishment of a VOR at an airport shall be notified by means of
a) AIRAC b) AIP c) NOTAM d) AIC
Ans. a)
2. A pilot involved in an incident whose flying has been stopped can start flying again with the
permission of : (a) Operator (b) DGCA (c) Central govt. (d) ATC
Ans. (b)

(a) Breathe at a slower rate by taking very deep breaths.
(b) Consciously breathe at a slower rate than normal.
(c) Consciously force yourself to take deep breaths and breathe at a faster rate than normal.
Ans. (b)
4. Why is hypoxia particularly dangerous during flights with one pilot?

(a) Night vision may be so impaired that the pilot cannot see other aircraft.
(b) Symptoms of hypoxia may be difficult to recognize before the pilot’s reactions are
affected.
(c) The pilot may not be able to control the aircraft even if using oxygen.
Ans. (b)
(a) Are frequently encountered by beginning instrument pilot, but never by pilots with
(b) occur, in most instances, during the initial period of transition from visual to
instrument flight.
(c) Must be suppressed and complete reliance placed on the indications of the flight
instruments.
Ans. (c)
6. Where taxiway holding positions have not been established, aircraft waiting to enter an active
runway 1000m of length should normally hold.
a) Clear of the maneuvering area b) 30 m from the edge of the runway
c) 50 m from the edge of the runway d) 60 m from the edge of the runway
Ans. c)

(a) Rely on kinesthetic sense. (b) Use a very rapid cross-check.
(c) Read and interpret the flight instruments, and act accordingly.
Ans. (c)

(a) Use a very rapid cross-check.
(b) Properly interpret the flight instrument and act accordingly.
77
(c) Avoid banking in excess of 30º.
Ans. (b)
9. Two a/c flying in the vicinity of aerodrome under radar control will be separated by :
(a) 15 nm (b) 10 nm (c) 5 nm (d) 3 nm
Ans. c)
10. The amount of fuel carried on board any propeller driven aeroplane at the commencement of
a day VFR flight must be sufficient ,having regard to the meteorological conditions and
foreseeable delays that are expected in flight , to fly to the destination aerodrome
a) And then fly for a period of 45 minutes at normal cruising speed.
b) And then fly for a period of 30 minutes at normal cruising speed.
c) Then to a specified alternate and then for a period of 45 minutes at normal cruising speed.
d) Then to a specified alternate and then for a period of 30 minutes at normal cruising speed.
Ans. c)
11. Width of Taxy track centre line markings is: a) 6 cms b) 30 cms c) 10 cms d) 15 cms
Ans. d)
12. CTA extends from:

a) Ground level to a specified upper limit
b) At least 700’ from the surface of the earth to unlimited
c) At least 5000’ from the surface of the earth to a specified upper limit
Ans. b)
13. Speed limitations in class ‘A’ airspace are :

a) 250kts above 10,000’ AMSL b) 250 kts below 10,000’ AMSL
c) Not applicable d) Recommended in high density areas
Ans. c)
14. A pilot is more subject to spatial disorientation?

(a) Kinesthetic senses are ignored.
(b) Eye are moved often in the process of cross-checking the flight instruments.
(c) Body signal are used to interpret flight attitude.
Ans. (c)
15. RVSM is:

a) Applicable in India b) Not applicable in India
c) Applicable to VFR flts only d) Applicable to military aircraft only
Ans. a)
16. A Boeing 737 aircraft fails to arrive over DPN at 1135 UTC .His ETA DPN is 1105 UTC .It
will be a: a) Distress phase b) Alert phase c) Uncertainity phase d) ALERFA
Ans. c)
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17. Aircraft that has right –of-way shall:
a) Maintain heading and speed b) Turn right c) Turn left d) Take no action
Ans. a)

(a) Reduce head and eye movement to the extent possible.
(b) Rely on the kinesthetic senses.
Ans. (c)
19. In class ‘D’ airspace, a VFR Flt at F120 requires inflight visibility of:
a) 5kms b) 1.5kms c) 3kms d) 8kms
Ans. d)
20. On a magnetic track of 000º, an IFR flt can fly at:

a) F 95 b) F120 c) F 170 d) F180
Ans. c)
21. SIDs are used for:

a) IFR departures at busy aerodromes b) VFR flights only
c) For all aerodrome traffic d) For all arriving aircraft
Ans. a)
22. RVR for a runway filed by an operator is 500m. Threshold RVR is reported
to be 800m. It is:
(a) above filed minima
(a) below filed minima
(b) with in minima if mid RVR is above 450m
(c) with in minima if both mid RVR and stop end RVR are above 500m.
Ans. a)
23. Hypoxia can be controlled by:

(a) Using oxygen above 5000 AMSL during day time (b) Breathing in a bag.
(c) Using oxygen above 5000 AMSL during night time
(d) Opening windows & air vents
Ans. (c)
24. Decompression sickness causes:

(a) Lack of CO2 in blood. (b) Lack of O2 in blood.
(c) N2 babbles in tissues. (d) Over breathing
Ans. (c)
25. Flight plan shall be submitted atleast ______ mins before departure
a) 30mins b) 60mins c) 45mins d) 90mins
Ans. b)
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26. Annex dealing with operation of Aircraft is
a) Annex 2 b) Annex 6 c) Annex 11 d) Annex 14
Ans. b)
27. AIP contains information on:

a) Aerodromes b) Notams c) AIRACs d) AICs
Ans. a)
28. Angle of intersection of Rapid Exit Taxiways with runway should not be more than:
a) 30º b) 25º c) 45º d) 60º
Ans. c)
29. Length of runway centre line stripe + gap should not be less than
a) 60 m b) 75 m c) 30 m d) 50 m
Ans. d)
30. A major early symptom of Hypoxia is

a) An increased sense of well being b) A marked suppression of mental alertness
c) A sense of fear d) A sense of physical weakness
Ans. a)
a) 8000 metres b) 5000 metres c) 1500 metres d) There is no minimum
Ans. b)
32. What is the maximum speed for an aircraft to fly under VFR at 8000 feet in class G airspace
in India? a) 180 knots b) 250 knots c) 350 knots d) There is no limit
Ans. b)
33. In Cat II ILS approach, what is DH & RVR?

(a) 100’ and upto 1500’ (b) Below 200’ and 550m
(c) 200’ and upto 350m (d) 100’ & upto 350m
Ans. (d)
34. What is the minimum cruise altitude under IFR (over non-mountainous terrain) allowed by ICAO?
a) 1000 feet above the highest fixed object within 600 metres of its position
b) 1000 feet above the highest fixed object within 2000 metres of its position
c) 1000 feet above the highest fixed object within 8 km of its position
d) 1500 feet above the highest fixed object within 600 metres of its position
Ans. c)
a) 7000 b) 7500 c) 7600 d) 7700
Ans. b)
36. If a military aero plane flies alongside you and rocks its wings, what should you do?
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a) Follow it b) Call on 121.50 MHz
c) Select 7700 on your transponder d) All the above
Ans. d)
37. What does a steady red light from ATC indicate to the pilot of an aircraft in flight?
a) Go-around b) Do not land, divert
c) Land at this aerodrome after receiving a green light
d) Give way to other aircraft and continue circling
Ans. d)
38. What light signal indicates to the pilot of an aircraft in the air that he may land?
a) A steady green light b) A flashing green light
c) Both (a) and (b) d) Neither (a) nor (b)
Ans. a)
39. What signal should the pilot use to tell his ground handler that his brakes are on?
a) Show his open hand then close it b) Show his closed hand hen open it
c) Cross his hands in front of his face
d) Place his crossed hands in front of his face then uncross them
Ans. a)
40. What does a white dumbbell in the signal area mean?

a) Landing prohibited
b) Take-offs, landings and taxiing must be made on paved surface only
c) Take-offs and landings must be made on paved surfaces, taxiing may be on grass
d) Make all take-offs, landings and taxiing on runways & taxiways only.
Ans. d)
41. What ground signal indicates the runway in use to an aircraft in the air?
a) A white T in the signal area b) White numbers in the signal area
c) Either (a) or (b) d) Neither (a) or (b)
Ans. a)
42. In the signals area there is a red square with a yellow diagonal. What does this mean?
a) The traffic pattern is right hand
b) All turns after take-offs and landings must be to the right
c) Landing prohibited d) Take special care during approach and landing
Ans. d)
43. What is defined as “Any machine that can derive support in the atmosphere from the reaction
of the air other than the reactions of the air against the earth’s surface”?
a) An aircraft b) A flying machine c) An airship d) An aeroplane
Ans. a)
44. Which type of controlled airspace touches the ground?

a) A Terminal Control Area b) An Airway c) A Control Zone d) CTA
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Ans. c)
45. What Air Traffic Service gives a pilot information about possible conflicting traffic but no
advice as to the correct action to take to avoid it?
a) Flight Advisory Service b) Flight Information Service
c) Radar Advisory Service & Radar Information Service
d) Radar Control & Procedural Control
Ans. b)
46. In which Class of controlled airspace does ATC provide separation to IFR traffic from all
other traffic, no separation between VFR traffic, but VFR traffic must have clearance to enter
the airspace? a) Class B b) Class C c) Class D d) Class E
Ans. b)
47. ATC may provide an Approach Control Service. For what traffic is it primarily provided?
a) All aircraft arriving at the aerodrome only
b) All aircraft arriving or departing the aerodrome
c) Controlled traffic arriving at the aerodrome only
d) Controlled traffic arriving or departing the aerodrome only
Ans. d)
48. What is defined as “A service provided within advisory airspace to ensure separation, in so
far as is practical, between aircraft which are operating on IFR flights plans. “?
a) Air Traffic Control Service b) Air Traffic Advisory Service
c) Flight Information Service d) Air Traffic Alerting Service
Ans. b)
49. Cessna aircraft call sign VGA gives a call that he has a lot of smoke in the cockpit and is
going to land at a nearby field. It will be a:
a) Alert phase b) Uncertainty phase c) Distress phase d) Non of the above
Ans. c)
50. The aerobatics shall be carried out not below: a) 6000’ b) 2000’ c) 5000’ d) 1000’
Ans. b)
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Question Paper - 14
1. Met report contains
(a) Air temp, turbulence, spot wind (b) Air temp, clouds above, turbulence
(c) Air temp, cabin pressure, winds
Ans. (a)
a) 5 kms b) 8 kms c) 10 kms d) 3 kms
Ans. a)
3. Transition altitude at an aerodrome is above _____ Msl in India

a) 2000’ AMSL b) 3000’ AMSL c) 4000’ AMSL d) 5000’ AMSL
Ans. c)

(a) Reduce head and eye movement to the extent possible
(b) rely on the kinesthetic senses.
Ans. c)

(a) Breathe at a slower rate by taking very deep breaths.
(b) Consciously breathe at a slower rate than normal.
(c) Consciously force yourself to take deep breaths and breathe at a faster rate than normal.
Ans. b)
6. Change in frequency or location of navigational aids on short notice is notified through:

a) Notams b) AIRAC c) AIP d) AIC
Ans. a)
7. When body temp. is low, its called:

(a) Hyperventilation (b) Antokinensis (c) Hypothermia (d) Hypoxia
Ans. (c)
8. Runaway end lights appear as _____ lights: a) Green b) Blue c) White d) Red
Ans. d)
9. Taxytrack center line lights are

a) Red b) Green c) Yellow d) Alternate Red & Green
Ans. b)
10. IFR flight shall not be commenced if the weather at destination and alternate is
a) Above minima b) CAVOK c) below minima d) IMC prevails
Ans. c)
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11. ADC is exempted for A/C flying within ___of the aerodrome and below
a) 10 NMS, 5000’ b) 5 NMS, 1000’ C) 5 NMS, 4000’ d) 5 NMS, 3000’
Ans. b)
12. Runway centre line lights are: a) Blue b) White c) Red d) Amber
Ans. b)
13. Crossing of an ATS route should be at an angle of : a) 60º b) 90º c) 45º d) 30º
Ans. b)
Ans. c)

a) AICs b) NOTAMs c) AIRAC d) AIP
Ans. d)
16. Publicity material can be dropped from an A/C if it has the permission of
a) DM/ Commissioner of Police b) DGCA c) Aerodrome officer d) ICAO
Ans. a)
17. A flight which exceeds Mach number -1, cannot fly over
a) Populated Areas b) Indian Air Space c) Europe d) High Seas
Ans. b)
18. Petroleum in bulk is petroleum in receptable, which exceeds

a) 1000 lts b) 900 lts c) 1500 lts d) 500 lts
Ans. b)
19. The demolition of buildings and trees act was came into effect in year
a) 1934 b) 1937 c) 1994 d) 1954
Ans. c)
20. If a passenger falls sick then action by PIC is

a) Inform Operator b) Inform health officer of destination
c) Inform doctor on board d) Inform DGCA
Ans. b)
21. The incubation period of relapsing fever is _____ days: a) 6 b) 7 c) 8 d) 10

Ans. c)
22. The route navigation charges are on the basis of

a) AUW b) Length of aircraft c) No. of Nav Aids used d) No. of passengers
Ans. a)
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c) Atleast 700’ d) None of the above
Ans. a)
24. If an a/c has R/T failure then it will indicate to the ATC during day by
a) Switching on/off Nav lights b) Rocking Wings
c) Flickering Anti-collision lights d) Flying low
Ans. b)
25. If PIC of an a/c flying sees the red navigation flight of an a/c at a Relative bearing of 270
then the action of pilot a) Turn Right b) No action c) Turn left d) Give way
Ans. b)

a) 1500 kg b) 15000 kg c) 5700 kgs d) all ac
Ans. c)
c) 5 mins b) 3 mins c) 10 mins d) 2 mins
Ans. b)
28. Night flying hours can be logged between

a) 20 mins after Sunset to 20 mins before Sunrise b) 45 mins c) 1 hrs d) 15 mins
Ans. a)
29. Runway direction is measured from

Ans. c)
30. An A/C flying a track of 180° will fly at ____ level on a IFR plan..
a) F 260 b) F185 c) F90 d) F170
Ans. a)
31. If the marshaller has either arm placed level with chest and moved laterally indicates
a) Stop b) Cut Engines c) Continue Straight d) Turn Off
Ans. b)
32. Apron is an area on aerodrome where following activities take place:

(a) Loading /unloading of passengers, mail and cargo only.
(b) Parking of aircraft only.
(c) Both (a) and (b) are correct.
(d) loading/unloading of passengers, mail and cargo, fueling, parking or maintenance.
Ans. (d)
33. NDB separation is a) 15º at 15 NMs b) 30º at 15 NMs c) 45º at 15 NMs d) 15º at 30 NMs
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Ans. b)
34. Red pyrotechnic light to A/C in flight indicates

a) Not withstanding any previous instructions, do not land for the time being.
b) Proceed to alternate c) Keep circling d) Total refusal to land
Ans. a)
35. International flying time in one day is:

(c) 9 hrs 3 landing (d) 6 hrs 4 landing
Ans. (c)
36. Aerodrome beacon light colour is

a) Alternate white & green b) Green c) Red d) Alternate white & red
Ans. a)

Ans. c)
38. If an A/C flying at F290 is descending over Palam and its altimeter reads 12000 ft then the
pilot will report its height as a) Altitude b) Flight level c) On QFE
Ans. b)
39. For an IFR flt on a track of 180º (M) , FL to be selected is

a) F 230 b) F 240 c) F250 d) F 255
Ans. b)
Ans. b)
41. Pilot to act as PIC of a public transport a/c should have flown on that route:
(d) 1 (b) 2 (c) 3 (d) 4
Ans. (a)
42. The pilot has to inform the ATC if its TAS changes by
a) 3 % & 5 kts b) 5% & 10 kts c) 10% & 5 kts d) 3 kts
Ans. b)
43. The alert phase starts when an A/C fails to land within
Ans. c)
44. No smoking shall be permitted within _______mtrs .of A/C (or) fuelling equipment.
a) 15mtrs b) 10mts c) 30 mts d) 50 mts
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Ans. c)
45. Flight to be operated in pressurized a/c, flight is not to commence unless oxygen is carried to
supply:
(a) All crew (b) All crew Passengers
(c) All crew when pressure below 700 hPa.
(d) All crew passengers when below 800 hPa.
Ans. (c)
46 Runway threshold stripes are 8 on each side of central line of runway:

(a) 30 m (b) 45 m (c) 60 m (d) 23 m
Ans. (a)
47. RVR for a runway filed by an operator is 500m. Threshold RVR is reported to be 800m. It is:
(a) Above filed minima (b) Below filed minima
(c) With in minima if mid RVR is above 450m
(d) With in minima if both mid RVR and stop end RVR are above 500m.
Ans. (a)
48. For a VFR flight making approach at night, the approach will appear to be.
(a) Faster than normal approach (b) Steeper than normal
(c) Shallower than normal (d) Non of the above
Ans. (b)
49. Draft amendments to aircraft rules 1937 will be published in:

(a) AIP (b) AIC (c) AIP Supplement (d) CARs
Ans. (b)
50. When two aircraft are converging at approximately the same altitude
a) Both aircraft shall alter heading to the left.
b) The aircraft on the right shall avoid the other by descending.
c) The aircraft that has the other on its right shall give way.
d) The aircraft that has other on its left shall give way
Ans. c)
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Question Paper - 15
a) Rising or falling b) Turning c) Motion reversal
Ans. a)
2. What is the principle objective of a rescue and firefighting service?

a) To prevent the spread of fire to other aircraft and facilities
b) To minimize the damage caused by fire
c) To extinguish any fire with minimum delay
d) To save lives
Ans. c)
3. An aircraft on a reciprocal track will be separated by:

(e) 15 mins at the time of crossing levels b) 15 mins at the time climb is initiated
(c) 10 mins after the time levels are crossed
(d) 10 mins at the time the climb is initiated
Ans. (c)
4. If a pilot sees 2.5 meter symbol “X” on the ground, What does it mean?
a) A survivor requires medical assistance b) A survivor requires general assistance
c) Affirmative d) Negative
Ans. a)
5. Which symbol indicates that the survivors have left the scene of the crash?
a) Y b) V c)  d) N
Ans. c)
6. If pilot sees 2.5 meter symbol “V” on the ground, what does it mean?
a) A survivor requires medical assistance b) The survivors
c) A survivor requires general assistance d) Negative
Ans. c)
7. If you fly into Severe Turbulence which flight condition should you intend to maintain –
a) Constant Airspeed b) Level flt Altitude
c) Constant Altitude and Constant Speed d) Constant Ground speed
Ans. a)
8. Identify Runway lighting on center line lighting system:

a) Amber light from 3000’ to 1000 ft then Alternative Red and which light to the end.
b) Alternative Red and White light from 3000 ft to 1000 ft and then Red light to the end.
c) Alternative Red and White light from 3000’ to end of runway.
d) Red lights from 3000’ till end of runway.
Ans. b)
9. Identify Taxi way lights associated with center line lighting system:
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a) Alternative Blue and White light covering from the center line of the Taxiway.
b) Blue light covering from the center line of R/way to the center line of Taxiway.
c) Alternate green & Yellow light covering from center line of Runway to the center line
of Taxiway.
d) Yellow light covering from center line of Runway to the center line of Taxiway.
Ans. c)
10. For testing of Flt Recorder System:

a) Minimum of 1 hour recorded data must be erased to get a valid test.
b) Total of not more than 1 hour of recorded data may be erased.
c) Total one hour of the oldest recorded data at the time of testing may be erased.
d) Non of the above
Ans. c)
11. En-route Altitude will be determined for each stage of the route by taking 1000 ft of Terrain
clearance with in a width of: a) 5 Nms b) 10kms c) 15Nms d) 20 Nms
Ans. d)
12. Aerobatic can be done below Altitude 6000 ft at least at a distance of:
a) 2 NMs from the Aerodrome b) 4 NMs from the Aerodrome
c) 5 NMs from the Aerodrome d) 6 NMs from the Aerodrome
Ans. a)
13. Flt Duty Time in the event of being extended shall be limited to:
Ans. b)
(a) Spinning in the opposite direction (b) Being in a nose up attitude
(c) Diving into the ground
Ans. b)
15. A flt- plan is required to be submitted to the appropriate ATS unit for: -
a) All Inst Flts b) All Inst and Visual Flts
c) After 5 kms /5 Nms/ d) All controlled flts
Ans. b)
16. Flt Crew on Domestic Flt, the Flt time should not exceed more than ______ and No. of landing
restrictions is
a) 8 hrs and 4 landings b) 8 hrs and 6 landings
c) 9 hrs and 3 landings d) 6 hrs and 4 landings
Ans. b)
17. All A/c from one FIR to another FIR should contact ATS unit responsible for providing FIS
___________ mts prior to entry. a) 60 b) 20 c) 10 d) 30
Ans. c)
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(a) Are frequently encountered by beginning instrument pilot, but never by pilots with
(b) Occur, in most instances, during the initial period of transition from visual to
instrument flight.
(c) Must be suppressed and complete reliance placed on the indications of the flight
instruments.
Ans. c)
19. Abrupt head movement during a prolonged constant rate turns in 1MC or simulated inst.
conditions can cause:
a) Pilot Disorientation b) False Horizon
c) Illusion of rotation or movement in an entirely different axis
d) Drowsiness or haziness
Ans. a)
20. When instructed by ATC to hold short of Runway pilot should stop:
a) With nose gear on hold line b) So that no part of the A/c extends beyond hold line
c) So that the Flt Deck Area of A/c is even with the hold line
d) Wings are in line with hold line.
Ans. b)
21. Take off Alternate Aerodrome shall be located from the Aerodrome of departure not more than
a distance equal to the Flt of______ with one engine inoperative cruise speed.
a) 1 hr for 2 Eng A/c and 2 hrs or more for 3 Eng or more than 3 Eng A/c
b) 30 minutes for 2 Eng A/c and one hrs for more than 3 Eng A/c
c) 2 hrs for 2 Eng A/c and 3 hr for 3 or more Eng A/c
d) 2 hrs for 2 Eng A/c & 1 hr for 3 or more engine A/c
Ans. a)
22. Lowest Transition Level in India is: a) F 40 b) F 50 c) F 45 d) F 55

Ans. b)
23. Cosmic Radiations affect a pilot flying over a height above:

a) F 430 b) F 450 c) F 470 d) F 490
Ans. d)
24. A pilot has flown 120 hrs as p-i-c in last 29 consecutive days. He can fly _____ on 30th day:
a) 6 hrs as p-i-c b) 6 hrs as co-pilot c) 8 hrs as Supernumerary pilot d) None of the above
Ans. c)
25. State aircraft includes:

a) Air India Aircraft b) Military aircraft
c) All aircrafts registered in India d) aircraft operating in a state.
Ans. b)
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26. While force landing an aircraft in a field due to engine failure, one person is killed on
ground P-i-C can be prosecuted for
a) Murder b) culpable homicide c) negligence d) cannot be prosecuted
Ans. d)
27. Instrument time includes:

a) Instrument flight time only. b) Inst. Ground time only c) Both a& b
d) Instrument Ground time upto 50% only and full Inst. flt. time
Ans. c)
28. For landing minima considerations, following values out of the multiple RVR values are taken
into account.
a) RVR at the beginning of runway b) RVR at the middle of runway
c) RVR at the end of the runway d) Lowest value out of a), b) & c) above
Ans. a)
29. Flight Duty time is calculated based on:

a) Chokes off to Chokes on time.
b) From the time you report for duty till 30 mts after landing.
c) From the time you report for the duty till 15 minutes after switch off.
d) One hour before take off till 30 mins after landing
Ans. c)
30. Maximum age up to which a pilot can fly for remuneration is:
a) 55 yrs b) 60 yrs c) 65 yrs d) 70 yrs
Ans. c)
31. In IMC, on a route where reporting points are not given, the reporting will be done:
(a) Every half an hour (b) Every hour
(c) First report after 30mins and subsequent every 60mins
(d) On as required basis
Ans. (c)
32. A pilot involved in an incident whose flying has been stopped can start flying again
with the permission of : (a) operator (b) DGCA (c) Central govt. (d) ATC
Ans. (b)
33. Separation is affected between:

a) Special VFR flts & IFR flts b) Special VFR flts & VFR flts
c) Both of the above d) None of the above
Ans. a)
34. In case of an accident in the vicinity of aerodrome, rescue & fire services are alerted by:
a) Control Tower b) App. Cont. c) Area Control d) FIC
Ans. a)
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35. The following aircraft will be given priority to land:
a) An aircraft with VVIP on board b) An aircraft with critical shortage of fuel
c) A scheduled aircraft d) An aircraft experiencing in flight bad visibility
Ans. b)
36. PAPI lights are operated

a) During sunset to sunrise time
b) 20 mts after sunset to 20 mins before sunrise
c) In bad visibility conditions only when associated runway is in use
d) Irrespective of the visibility during day & night when associated runway is being used
Ans. d)
37. STAR is a:
(a) Designated IFR arrival route (b) Designated VFR arrival route
(c) Designated arrival route (d) All of the above
Ans. a)
38. HAT for Precision approaches Cat II is: (a) Nil (b) 50’ (c) 100’ (d) 200’
Ans. (b)
39. ICAO document dealing with Acts of Unlawful Interference is

Ans. d)
40. Significant differences between national regulations and ICAO procedures are published in
a) AIRAC b) AIP c) NOTAMs d) AICs
Ans. b)
41. Apron is an area on aerodrome where following activities take place:

(a) Loading /unloading of passengers, mail and cargo only.
(b) Parking of aircraft only.
(c) Both (a) and (b) are correct.
(d) loading/unloading of passengers, mail and cargo, fueling, parking or maintenance.
Ans. (d)
42. When body temp. is low, its called:

(a) Hyperventilation (b) Antokinensis (c) Hypothermia (d) Hypoxia
Ans. (c)
43. Incubation period of yellow fever is ______ days.

(a) 6 (b) 7 (c) 8 (d) 10
Ans. a)
44. All aircraft after take off are to turn __________ for a circuit pattern
(a) Right (b) into the wind (c) left (d) along the wind
Ans. c)
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45. Met report contains
(a) Air temp, turbulence, spot mind (b) Air temp, clouds above, turbulence
(c) Air temp, cabin pressure, minds
Ans. (a)
(a) 09 (b) 90 (c) 27 (d) 270
Ans. a)
47. Min. width of runway centre line stripes for Cat I runways is :
(a) 0.3mts (b) 0.6mts (c) 0.45mts (d) 0.9mts
Ans. c)
48. During an initial climb in uncontrolled airspace, the altimeter setting should be:
(a) The local QNH (b) The local QFE
(c) The Standard Pressure Setting (d) Any desired value
Ans. a)
49. A VFR flt cannot be operated:

(a) At F120 (b) At transonic speed
(c) 100 NMs from the seashore in uncontrolled airspace
(d) Across international borders
Ans. b)
50. Slaughtering of animals is not permitted with in _______ of ARP

(a) 10 kms (b) 10 NMs (c) 20 kms (d) 20 NMs
Ans. a)
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Question Paper - 16
Q1. In a precision approach, minimum height below which p-i-c cannot descend unless visual
reference to land is established
a) DA b) DH c) MDA d) MDH
Ans. (b)
Q2. In a non-precision approach, min height below which p-i-c may not descend is:
Ans. (d)
Q3. OCA is calculated for

a) Precision approaches b) Non-precision approaches
c) Both a & b d) None of the above
Ans. (c)
Q4. Green Light on an aircraft is visible if seen from the front

a) At an arc of 110º to the starboard side b) At an arc of 110º to the port side
c) At an arc of 140º to the starboard side d) At an arc of 140º to the port side
Ans. (b)
Q5. ILS glide slope angle normally is set at : a) 2.5 º b) 3.0 º c) 3.5 º d) 4.0 º
Ans. (b)
Q6. An instrument runway served by ILS & visual aids intended for operations with a DH not
lower than 60m and RVR not less than 550m is a
a) Cat I runway b) Cat II runway c) Cat III runway d) Non-precision approach runway
Ans. (a)
Q7. Airfield safety altitude:

a) Is highest sector safety altitude with in 25NMs
b) Is highest sector safety altitude with in 10NMs
c) Provides clearance from obstructions with in 50NMs of aerodrome
Ans. (a)
Q8. Enroute Jeppensen charts are based on ________________ projection

a) Lamberts b) Mercator c) Conical d) Polar
Ans. (a)
Q9. Fuel to be carried by a Turbo-jet aircraft when destination alternate is required is to fly to
destination aerodrome execute an approach and MA and thereafter:
a) To fly to alternate +45 mts at holding speed at 1500’
b) To fly to alternate +30mts at 1500’ make an approach and land
c) To fly to alternate via pre determined point + 45 mins at 1500’
d) To fly to alternate + fly for 60 mts at 1500’.
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Ans. (b)
Q10. ATPL medical fitness and license validity period is

a) one year and five years b) six month & five years
c) one year and two years d) six months & two years
Ans. (d)
Q11. Cabin crew requirement for an airplane with seating capacity of more than 50 passengers is :
a) One cabin crew for each unit of 50 passengers
b) Two cabin crew plus one cabin crew for each unit of 50 passengers units above 99
passengers
c) Non of the above d) both are correct
Ans. (b)
Q12. Vertical separation in RVSM airspace

a) is increased b) is decreased c) does not alter d) increases between F 290 & 410
Ans. (b)
Q13. On PAPI approach, if a pilot sees 3 lights white and green, the aircraft is
a) too high b) slightly high c) on correct approach d) slightly low
Ans. (b)
Q14. MDA is calculated for:

a) Precision approaches b) non-precision approach
c) Circling approaches d) both (b) & (c)
Ans. (d)
Q15. ETOPS stands for

a) Extra Time Operations b) Extended Turbojet Operations
c) Extend true engine operation d) Extended Range for Twin Engine Operations
Ans. (d)
Q16. An Air India aircraft is on an dry lease to I.F.A for military use. It will be known as a:
(a) Civil aircraft (b) Military aircraft
(c) International flight (d) Domestic flight
Ans. (b)
Q17. Registration of an aircraft is valid for:

(a) One year (b) Till cancelled by DGCA
(c) Till owner dies (d) Till it is destroyed in an accident
Ans. (d)
Q18. Flight manual contains:

(a) Fuel and oil to be carried on board (b) Certificate of air worthiness
(c) Route Navigation guidance (d) Information and instruction to save operations
Ans. (d)
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Q19. Succession of command is given by:
(a) The operator to pilots by a circular (b) DGCA (c) Central government (d) ICAO
Ans. (a)
Q20. Emergency check list is to be carried by:

(a) Scheduled flights (b) Non – scheduled operators
(c) All aircraft (d) If Co/A says so
Ans. (c)
Q21. A pilot doing a test flight can carried by:

(a) On payment (b) Without payment
(c) Cannot carried (d) Can carry if operator permits
Ans. (c)
Q22. If a CPL holder is hospitalized for ___________ day his medical becomes invalid:
(a) 7 days (b) 10 days (c) 15 days (d) 30 days
Ans. (c)
Q23. Hyperventilation is caused due to:

(a) Decreased breathing rate (b) Increased hearty beat
(c) Excessive carbon mono-oxide in the blood (d) Emotional tension or anxiety
Ans. (d)
Q24. OCA is Associated with:

(a) Precision Approaches (b) Circling approaches
(c) Ht. calculated to ensure terrain clearance (d) All of the above
Ans. (d)
Q25. Flt plan is to be filed in India in respect of:

(a) All flights other than scheduled flts (b) All flts other than local flts
(c) Only for scheduled flts (d) International flights only
Ans. (b)
Q26. Sun rise at Kalikut aerodrome is at 0550h. A VFR flight can take off from there at the
earliest at: (a) 0530 h (b) 0610 h (c) 0550 h (d) 0620 h
Ans. (c)
Q27. Hyper ventilation is caused due to lack of ___________ in blood system

(a) Oxygen (b) Carbon Dioxide (c) CO (d) None of the above
Ans. (b)
Q28. OCA circling approach is __________ the OCA precision approach:

(a) Lower than (b) Higher than (c) Equal to (d) None of the above
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Ans. (b)
Q29. If an aerodrome minima is not established for IFR/VFR operations the minima to be
applied will be laid down by:
(a) AAI (b) DGCA (c) Operator (d) ICAO
Ans. (b)
Q30. Enroute flt levels are on: (a) QNH (b) QNE (c) QFE (d) QFF
Ans. (b)
Q31. To overcome severe turbulence pilot should maintain

(a) Constant flt attitude (b) Constant airspeed
(c) Constant airspeed and attitude (d) None of the above
Ans. (b)
Q32. At Aerodromes where no ATZ is established, the vicinity of aerodrome for VFR flts shall
be:
(a) 5 NMs from ARP upto 1000’ agl (b) 25 NMs from ARP upto 5000’ agl
(c) 10 NMs from ARP upto 3000’ agl (d) 5 NMs from ARP upto 3000’ agl
Ans. (d)
Q33. Deviations from ICAO procedures are published in

(a) AIC (b) AIRAC (c) AIP (d) CARS
Ans. (c)
Q34. To get valid result, FDR data can be erased for testing purpose upto
(a) Last one hr of the recoding (b) Earliest one hr of the recording
(c) One hr of recording at random (d) Any of the above
Ans. (b)
Q35. Track separation is also known as separation

(a) Vertical (b) Lateral (c) Longitudinal (d) Composite
Ans. (b)
Q36. Abrupt head movements in IMC operations may cause:

(a) False horizon (b) Disorientation (c) Optical illusion (d) Hyperventilation
Ans. (b)
Q37. Flt. Engg. Is carried on board:

(a) If P-I-C desires so (b) If operator feels so
(c) If demanded by C of A (d) If there is a technical sang in aircraft
Ans. (c)
Q38. Flt plan is prepared by

(a) Taking any arbitrary points on route (b) Taking shortest distance to the destination
(c) Chosing routes as listed in AIP (d) Flying routes decided by the flight dispatcher
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Ans. (c)
Q39. For safety reasons, a person should remain away from a jet engine by at least:
(a) 100’ (b) 200’ (c) 300’ (d) 500’
Ans. (b)
Q40. ADC is required for

(a) Scheduled flight only (b) Non-scheduled flight only
(c) All flightr in ADIZs (d) Flights close to international border
Ans. (c)
Q41. Vertical separation in CVSM airspaces above FL 290 is:

(a) 1000’ (b) 2000’ (c) 4000’ (d) 5000’
Ans. (b)
Q42. Decision Altitude is related to:

(a) Precision Approaches (b) Non precision approaches
(c) Circling approaches (d) Both (a) & (b)
Ans. (a)
Q43. A worker working close to the runway is thrown off and seriously injured by a jet blast
from a departing aircraft it is an
(a) Notifiable Accident (b) Notifiable incident
(c) Occurrence (d) Information
Ans. (a)
Q44. Minimum visibility required to fly at 12000’ for a VFR flt is

(a) 5 kms (b) 8 kms (c) 10 kms (d) None of the above
Ans. (b)
Q45. ATC services are provided to IFR flts and traffic information to VFR flts as far as practical
provided in class airspace: (a) B (b) C (c) D (d) E
Ans. (d)
Q46. Cruising level available on a magnetic track of 300° are

(a) 115, 135, 155, 175 (b) 110, 130, 150, 160,
(c) 125, 145, 165, 185 (d) 125, 165, 185, 205
Ans. (c)
Q47. Route designator for domestic routes is:

(a) White (b) Amber (c) Blue (d) Red
Ans. (a)
Q48. Series of red and green projection fired at an interval of 10 sees means:
(a) Do not land for the time being (b) Exercise caution while landing
(c) Keep away from danger area (d) Keep circling
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Ans. (c)
Q49. Black bars on a white dumbbell means:

(a) Land, take off and taxi on runways only
(b) Land, take off on runways only but other maneoures need not be confined to runways
& taxiways only
(c) Exercise caution for all traffic
Ans. (b)
Q50. Navigation light are to be displayed by all aircraft in flight:

(a) From 30 mins after sunset till 30 mins before sunrise
(b) From sunset to sunrise (c) At all time (d) During dark night only.
Ans. (b)
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Question Paper - 17
1. Inst. Chart procedures are given in: (a) AIC (b) NOTAMS (c) AIRAC (d) AIP
Ans. (d)
2. Inst. Charts carried in aircraft are contained in:

(a)Operation Manual (b) Aircraft Manual (c) Route guides (d) Operational Circulars
Ans. (c)
3. Danger areas are given in: (a) AIRAC (b) AIC (c) AIP (d) NOTAMs
Ans. (c)
4. To know the current watch hours at an aerodrome, pilot should refer to

(a) NOTAMs (b) AIP (c) AIC (d) CARs
Ans. (b)
5. Vertical separation applicable to non-RVSM aircraft operating in RVSM airspaces is

(a) 500’ (b) 1000’ (c) 2000’ (d) 4000’
Ans. (c)
6. Weather below minima implies that:

(a) RVR/ Visibility and weather below minima specified by the operator
(b) Weather below V M C
(c) RVR / VIS and weather below minima specified by ICAO
(d) Cloud ceiling is below 1500’ above the aerodrome
Ans. (a)
7. Two digits in black over yellow black ground hanging from the tower indicates
(a) Time in UTC (hrs) (b) runway in use
(c) Location of ATS reporting point (d) current visibility in kms.
Ans. (b)
8. Decision altitude is related to:

(a) Precision app (b) Non precision app (c) Circling app (d) both ‘a’& ’b’
Ans. (a)
9. Circling minima’s are:

(a) Higher than precision app minimas (b) lower than precision app minimas
(c) Same as precision app minimas (d) may be more or less than precision app.minimas
Ans. (a)
10. ARP is at the:

(a) Geometric centre of an aerodrome (b) Highest elevation at an aerodrome
(c) Designated point at the aerodrome. (d) None of the alone
Ans. (a)
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11. SIDS are published in: (a) AIRAC (b) NOTAMs (c) CARs (d) AIP
Ans. (d)
12. White flashes from tower to aircraft in flight means:

(a) Return to this aerodrome and proceed to apron
(b) Land at this aerodrome and proceed to apron.
(c) Land after green signal from Tower.
(d) None of the alone
Ans. (b)
13. OCA is determined after taking into account margin for:

(a) Terrain clearance (b) Pilot error (c) Operational considerations
(d) Weather considerations.
Ans. (a)
14. RVR/DH for cat II ILS ops is

(a) 550m/60 (b) 350m/30m (c) 550m/30m (d) 800m/60m
Ans. (b)
15. RVR/DH minima cat III A MLS is:

(a) 200m/Nil (b) 50m/nil (c) nil/nil (d) Non of the alone
Ans. (a)
16. Position reports to be given by an aircraft, if no route is being followed will be at an interval
of:
(a) 30 mins (b) 60 mins (c) First report after 30 mins and subsequent reports after 60 mins
(d) on as required basis
Ans. (c)
17. Oxygen is carried on board for all crew members and passengers when at atmospheric
pressure will be less than: (a) 620 hPa (b) 700 hPa (c) 376 hPa (d) 800 hPa
Ans. (b)
18. A twin engine p-i-c has decided to divert due to failure of one engine. It will be
(a) Uncertainty phase (b) Alert phase (c) Distress phase (d) Non of the above
Ans. (b)
19. An IFR flt will maintain a minimum altitude of

(a) 2000’ above highest obstacle with in 8 kms of aircraft position in mountainous areas
(b) 1000’ above highest obstacle elsewhere
(c) 1000’ above highest obstacle with in 600m of aircraft position in mountainous areas.
(d) Both (a) and (b) are correct
Ans. (d)
20. Prisoners can be carried on board with the permission of

(a) Police commissioner (b) DGCA (c) DM (d) DIG prisons
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Ans. (b)
21. In Cat II, What is DH & RVR?

(a) 100’ and upto 1500’ (b) Below 200’ and 550m
(c) 200’ and upto 350m (d) 100’ & upto 350m
Ans. (d)
22. Series of red flashes to an aircraft in flight indicate:

a) Aerodrome unsafe do not land b) Give way to other ac and keep circling
c) Flying over danger area clear immediately d) Wait for white signal to join circuit
Ans. (a)
23. VFR flts are not permitted:

(a) Above F 100 (b) Above FL150 (c) Above F 50 (d) above 3000 from terrain or water
Ans. (b)
24. Personnel are required to maintain their log books for a period of --- years after the date of
last entry: a) 2 years b) 5 years c) 1 year d) 3 years
Ans. (b)
25. Movement area of an aerodrome constitutes the following

a) Area including runways / taxiways excluding apron
b) Area excluding taxiways but including runways and apron
c) Area including runways / taxiways / aprons
Ans. (c)
26. PIC of an aeroplane can fly for a maximum number of hours in a period of consecutive 30
Days: a) 125 hours b) 100 hours c) 80 percent of time as co-pilot d. none of the above
Ans. (a)
27. Validity of ATPL medical and licence is

a) 6 months and 5 years b) 5 months and 2 years
c) 6 months and 2 years d) 1 year and 2 years
Ans. (c)
28. Cabin crew required for a passenger plane with 83 seating capacity is
a) 8 b) 2 c) 3 d) 2 + 1 for 50 passengers carried more.
Ans. (b)
29. ICAO annex dealing with Acts of unlawful interference is

a) annex 7 b) annex 10 c). annex 17 d) annex 18
Ans. (c)
30. Personnel flying above altitude of ___ feet are required to maintain a separate log to calculate
hours of exposure to radiation: a) 40000 ft b) 41000 ft c) 45000 ft d) 49000 ft
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Ans. (d)
31. Navigation lights of an aeroplane cover the following sectors

a) Red on starboard, green on port 110 deg each
b) Green on starboard, red on port 110 deg each
c) Red on starboard, green on port 140 deg each
d) Green on starboard, red on port 140 deg each
Ans. (b)
32. Twin engine operations are governed by: a) STOP b) ETOPS c) RNP d) RNAV
Ans. (b)
33. Control area is

a) Controlled airspace extending upwards from a specified limit above the earth
b) Controlled airspace extending upwards from surface of the earth to a specified limit
c) Controlled airspace d) Both a and c above
Ans. (d)
34. When refueling operations are in progress, unauthorized persons are prohibited within
a) 15 mtrs b) 30 mtrs c) 43 mtrs d) 20 mtrs
Ans. (a)
35. Series of red flashes directed towards an aircraft in flight indicate

a) Return for landing b) Stop c) Aerodrome unsafe, do not land
d) Not withstanding any previous instructions, do not land for the time being
Ans. (c)
36. Decompression sickness causes:

(a) Lack of CO2 in blood (b) Lack of O2 in blood.
(c) N2 babbles in tissues (d) Over breathing
Ans. (c)
37. The crew of an aircraft should not consume alcoholic drink

a) Within 12 hours of flight time b) as in ‘a’ and during the flight
c) Within 24 hours of flight time d) none of the above
Ans. (b)
38. An aircraft incident and accident is to be reported within

a) incident 12 hrs, accident 24 hours b) incident 24 hrs, accident 48 hours
c) incident 24 hrs, accident 12 hours d) incident 48 hrs, accident 24 hours
Ans. (d)
39. Width of an airway is

a) 10 nm over land and 20 nm over sea b) 20 nm over land and 20 nm over sea
c) 20 nm over land and 40 nm over sea d) 20 nm over land and 10 nm over sea
Ans. (b)
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40. A series of red and green pyrotechnics fired towards and aircraft indicate
a) Aircraft is entering a danger area b) aircraft is entering a restricted area
c) Aircraft is entering a prohibited area d) all above are correct
Ans. (d)
41. As a PIC you find yourself over a prohibited area, you will
a) Signal urgency and land at the nearest aerodrome
b) Signal distress and land at nearest aerodrome
c) As ‘b’ and land at aerodrome outside the prohibited area
d) Signal urgency and proceed on your way
Ans. (c)
42. The repeated switching on and off of the landing lights indicate
a) urgency b) distress c) pan pan d) affirmative
Ans. (a)
43. A pressurized flight shall

a) Carry oxygen for all crew members
b) Carry oxygen for all crew members and passengers
c) Carry oxygen for all crew members and passengers, in the event of loss of pressurization,
pressure in the compartment would be less than 700 mb
d) Carry oxygen for all crew members and passengers, in the event of loss of pressurization,
pressure in the compartment would be less than 620 mb
Ans. (c)
44. General information of purely explanatory or advisory nature are promulgated through
a) CAR b) AIP c) AIC d) NOTAM
Ans. (c)
45. A flight plan shall be preserved by the operator for a period of

a) 6 months b) 1 year c) 2 years d) 3 years
Ans. (a)
46. Doc 4444 relates to

a) Flight level tables b) position reports c) emergency procedures d) all above
Ans. (d)
47. An aircraft transiting from one FIR to next FIR shall request transfer to ATC at least
a) 60 minutes b) 30 minutes c) 15 minutes d) 10 minutes
Ans. (d)
48. While ascending through the transition level and descending through, height of the aircraft
shall be reported
a) Ascending altitude, descending flight level b) ascending flight level, descending altitude
c) Ascending QFE, descending QNH d) ascending QNH, descending QNE
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Ans. (b)
49. The operating minima for an aerodrome are expressed in terms of

a) RVR b) RVR or visibility and MDA / H
c) RVR or visibility and if necessary cloud conditions d) All above
Ans. (d)
50. Corrections to charts relating to entry/exit requirements are given in

a) AIP b) AIC c) Chart NOTAMS d) CAR
Ans. (a)
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Question Paper - 18
1. Jeppessen charts use widely
a) Polar stereographic projection b) Lamberts conical conformal
c) Mercator d) Oblique Mercator
Ans. b
2. PIC of an aeroplane shall

a) Be responsible for safe conduct of navigation
b) Be responsible for safe conduct of flight at all times
c) Be responsible for safe conduct of flight and maintain order and discipline amongst all
onboard the flight
d) All above is correct
Ans. d
3. The minimum safest altitude that the aircraft can descend below the transition altitude within
25 NMs of an aerodrome area is given by
a) MORA b) MOEA c) MSA d) MOCA
Ans. c
4. In a non precision approach, the minimum height that the pilot can descend to is given by
Ans. d
5. Pilot in command of an aircraft on precision approach cannot execute a landing unless he has
the runway visual references in contact before he can descend below
a) MSA b) MDH c) DA d) MDA
Ans. c
6. An operator can designate as a PIC of an aeroplane only if

(a) He has made 6 take offs and landings on the aerodromes along the route within the last 3
months
(b) He has made 3 take offs and landings on the aerodromes along the route within the last 6
months
(c) He has made 6 take offs and landings on the aerodromes along the route within the last 6
months
(d) He has made 3 take offs and landings on the aerodromes along the route within the last 3
months
Ans. d
7. An operator can designate as a PIC of an aeroplane if

(a) He has flown as a copilot of an aeroplane along the route for minimum of last 3 months
(b) He has flown as a copilot of an aeroplane along the route for minimum of last 6 months
(c) He has flown as a copilot of an aeroplane along the route for minimum of last 9 months
(d) He has flown as a copilot of an aeroplane along the route for minimum of last 12 months
Ans. d
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8. A turbojet aircraft is required to carry minimum amount of fuel as
(a) Fuel from departure to destination, execute a missed approach, to a destination alternate,
fuel for take off taxi holding and landing, plus 30 minutes of reserve
(b) Fuel from departure to destination, execute a missed approach, to a destination alternate,
fuel for take off taxi holding and landing, plus 45 minutes of reserve
(c) Fuel from take off to an alternate via a predetermined point, sufficient fuel for taxi, take-
off, holding and landing, plus 45 minutes of reserve, total of which should not be less than 2
hours of flying time.
Ans. a
9. A white dumbbell with a black bar spaced perpendicularly indicates

a) All aircraft are required to land, takeoff and taxi on taxiways and runways only.
b) Are required to land and takeoff on runways only
c) A white dumbbell when displayed requires a/c to land and takeoff and taxi on taxiways and
runways only.
Ans. b
10. A/c on same level converging track has separation

a) 15min b) 10min c) 5min d) 20NM
Ans. a
11. Aeronautical information circulars provide information that:

(a) Timely knowledge of services, procedure or hazard which is essential to personnel
concerned with flight operations
(b) Does not qualify as a NOTAM or an inclusion in AIP, but relates to flight safety, air
navigation, administrative or legislative matters.
(c) Temporary changes to the information contained in the AIP which are published by
means of special pages.
Ans. b
12. To acquire a valid a test for flight data recorder, at least 1hr of the data should be deleted
a) A total of 1hr should be deleted to provide a valid test
b) The oldest recorded data at the time of testing may be erased
c) The oldest accumulated data at the time of testing should be erased.
d) Minimum 1hr of data recorded can be erased
Ans. c
13. An operator must maintain medical records of flight crew for radiation exposure above
a) 49,000ft b) 51,000ft c) 46,000ft d) 41,000ft
Ans. a
14. What is the time limit that a pilot should not fly when under the influence of alcohol?
a) 24hrs b) 12hrs c) 72hrs d) 18hrs
Ans. b
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15. Runway centre line lights are: a)Green b) Blue c) White d) Red
Ans. c
16. Annex 17 contains what information

a) a/c accident investigation b) safeguarding acts of unlawful interference
c) Search and rescue
Ans. b
17. What should be the flight visibility of an a/c flying at 3000’ in class G airspace
a) 1500m b) 5km c) 8km d) Clear of cloud and in sight of surface
Ans. b
18. Transponder code for distress is: a) 7700 b) 7600 c) 121.5 d) 7500
Ans. a
19. What type of flight is allowed in class A airspace

a) IFR only b) IFR and VFR c) IFR and special VFR d) VFR only
Ans. a
20. An a/c with seating capacity of 150, what is the number of flight attendants required to be
carried on the flight: 2 b) 3 c) 4 d) 5
Ans. c
21. In IMC aircraft changes from aerodrome control tower to approach control
a) Immediately after take off. b) before entering runway c) on finals
Ans. a
22. What lights would a pilot slightly above glide slope see on a PAPI.
a) 3 green and 1 white b) 3 red and 1 white c) 2red and 2 white d) 3 white and 1 red
Ans. d
23. Red and green flashes fired at an interval of 10 sacs indicate.

(a) Over prohibited area, restricted area or danger area.
(b) Do not land for the time being.
(c) Exercise caution while landing.
Ans. a
24. At runway and taxiway holding lines:

(a) White dashes lie towards nearest runway.
(b) Yellow continuous lines lie towards runway.
(c) While dashes lie towards nearest runway.
Ans. c
25. Identifier TDZL is _________:

(a) Green and white lights 75 mtr spacing
(b) White paired, flash lights at 150 mtr longitudinal
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(c) White paired variable lights with 30 mtr longitudinal spacing
Ans. c
26. You have diverted your flt to field alternate. In what time you have to intimate to your
original destination: (a) 30 min (b) 10 min (c) 20 min (d) 60 min
Ans. a
27. Position report should be given in…

(a) 30 min in IMC (b) 15 min in IMC
(c) 45 min in VMC (d) first report after 30 mins and subsequent after 60 mins
Ans. d
28. Abrupt head movement in a step turn may causes…

(a) Spatial disorientation (b) False horizon (c) Elevator illusion
Ans. a
29. Centrifugal force without visual aids can be interpreted by a pilot as:
(a) Motion reversal (b) Turning (c) Rising and falling
Ans. c
30. Destination and information sings are.

(a) Black letter in yellow background (b) Yellow letter in black background
(c) White in back
Ans. a
31. Cockpit lights are

(a) Red light as they help in reading contours on maps at night
(b) Bright lights
(c) Dim white light
Ans. c
32. Hyperventilation is:

(a) Excessive oxygen in blood stream (b) Lack of sleep (c) Insufficient CO2
Ans. c
33. Hypoxia
(a) Increases with altitude (b) Is normally experienced below 8000 feet
(c) Is due to over breathing
Ans. a
34. On x-country flt you divert to another aerodrome, you have to inform ATC if delayed by:
(a) 15 min (b) 60 min (c) 30 min
Ans. c
35. If you see a white and flashing red light, ac is

(a) A/c flying away from you (b) Right to left (c) Left to right
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Ans. a
36. A/c passing from left to right you will see
(a) Red light (b) Red and white light (c) Green light
Ans. c
37. Record to be maintained for months for radiation if flying above…

(a) 10,000’ (b) 49,000’ (c) 60,000’
Ans. b
38. One a/c is tracking 030 degree reporting over a point at 0412 hrs other on 100 degree cannot
pass this point before: (a) 0422 (b) 0427 (c) 0417
Ans. b
39. FDR and CVR are used for

(a) Investigation for accidents and incidents (b) Training (c) Collision avoidance
Ans. a
40. ADC is not required if flying in

(a) 5 nm and below 3000’ (b) 3 nm and below 1000’ (c) 5 nm and below 1000’ AGL
Ans. c
41. Aerobatics with in 2 nm of airport can not be done below…

(a) 2000’ (b) 6000’ (c) 3000’
Ans. b
42. Unlawful interference is given in annexure: (a) 2 (b) 10 (c) 17

Ans. c
43. Aircraft operation are given in annexure: (a) 3 (b) 6 (c) 11

Ans. b
44. SIDs are available in: (a) AIRACS (b) AIP (c) CARS
Ans. b
45. Incubation period for relapsing fever is: (a) 6 days (b) 7 days (c) 8 days
Ans. c
46. Visibility required for VFR flight below 3000’ or 1000’ terrain clearance is
(a) 5 km (b) 1.6 km (c) 8 km
Ans. a
47. Two a/c of same category converging…

(a) Both will turn to right (b) Aircraft on right will turn right
(c) Aircraft on the left will give way
Ans. c
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48. Sunrise time is 0550 hrs VFR flt can take off at
(a) 0520 hrs (b) 0535 hrs (c) 0510 hrs (d) 0550 hrs
Ans. d
49. Due to fog other a/c will appear to be

(a) Nearest than normal (b) Farther then normal (c) Will have no difference
Ans. b
50. Data can be removed from FDR.

(a) Not more then one hour accumulated for testing purpose.
(b) One hour of data last recorded for testing purpose.
(c) Two hour of recorded data for testing purpose.
Ans. a
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Question Paper - 19
1. In IMC a/c on aerodrome control to approach control will be transferred:
(a) Immediately after take off (b) Immediately before entering runway.
(c) After leaving ATZ (d) 5 NM from ARP
Ans. a)
2. No of runway threshold stripes for a runway width of 23 meters is

(a) 4 (b) 5 (c) 6 (d) 7
Ans. c)
3. Pair of landing stripes for a runway LDA of 1500 meters is:

(a) 2 (b) 3 (c) 4 (d) 5
Ans. c)
4. Filed minima 500m, RVR beginning 800m, RVR mid 300m.Aerodrome is:
(a) Below minima (b) At par with minima
(c) Above minima (d) Will depend on trend forecast.
Ans. c)
5. Flight manual is a manual associated with

(a) COA (b) ICAO Standards (c) DGCA CARs (d) AAI procedures
Ans. a)
6. No of cabin crew is required according to

(a) No. of passengers excluding crew members
(b) No. of persons on board including crew members
(c) No of seats (d) No. of services offered on board
Ans. c)
7. Track separation is:

(a) Longitudinal (b) vertical (c) composite (d) Lateral
Ans. d)
8. Geographical separation is:

(a) Longitudinal (b) vertical (c) composite (d) Lateral
Ans. d)
9. Alert phase is:

(a) Aircraft is about to force land in a river
(b) Aircraft is intercepted
(c) Apprehension exists as to the safety of the ship and its occupants.
(d) Aircraft has not reported at the time of his ETA over the destination
Ans. c)
10. Appropriate way to cross a route.
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a) Along the traffic flow at 45 degrees b) 90 degrees to the route
c) Against the flow of traffic keeping a sharp lookout d) At VFR levels
Ans. b)
11. Acrobatic flights can not be performed below 6000’ with in:
a) 2 NM from the nearest point of the perimeter of the aerodrome.
b) 2NM from the ARP of the aerodrome.
c) Over populated areas. d) Over restricted areas.
Ans. a)
12. Semi-circular system sectors are.

a) From 001º to 180º and 181º to 360º
b) From 000º to 089º, 090º to 179º, 180º to 269º and 270º to 359º
c) From 090º to 260º and 270º to 089º
d) From 000º 179º and 180º to 359º
Ans. d)
13. Aerodrome local flying area is to be considered, if ATZ is not notified:

a) With in 5 NM of ARP up to 3000 feet. b) With in 25 NM of ARP up to 10,000 feet.
c) with in 10 NM of ARP up to 5000 feet. d) with in 5 NM of ARP up to 1000 feet.
Ans. a)
14. Minimum vertical distance from clouds for a VFR flt is:
a. 5000’ b. 1500’ c. 1000’ d. 300’
Ans. c)
15. ICAO annex for ac operations is:

Ans. c)
16. ICAO Annex for safeguarding against unlawful interference is:

Ans. d)
17. White dumbbell with black horizontal bars indicates:

a) Aircraft are required to land, takeoff and taxi on runways and taxiways only
b) Aircraft are required to land and take off on runways only, but other manoeuvres
need not be confined to runways and taxiways.
c) Special precautions must be observed in approaching to land or in landing.
d) Land and take off on runways only if cleared by ATC.
Ans. b)
18. Red square with one yellow diagonal.

a) Landings are prohibited and that the prohibition is liable to be prolonged.
b) Special precautions must be observed in approaching to land or in landing.
c) Return to starting point on the aerodrome.
d) Exercise precaution while landing and approaching to land due to extensive bird
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activity.
Ans. b)
19. Minimum distance from jet blast: a. 100’ b. 200 m c.43 m d. 200 feet
Ans. d)
20. Sunrise time 0550 there is no night flying facilities, earliest departure can be at:
a. 0550 b. 0620 c. 0520 d. 0650
Ans. c)
21. Reporting time on routes not defined by reporting points is :

a) First half hour then every hour
b) First report after 30’, subsequent on as required basis
c) Every hour d) As per the desire of p-i-c.
Ans. a)
22. OCA
a) Is specified to facilitate safe holding heights
b) Used in establishing compliance with appropriate obstacle clearance criteria.
c) Meets obstructions clearance criteria for take offs
d) Is used to designate obstacle clearance along ATS routes
Ans. b)
23. Flight plan is required

a) For all flights except local flights. b) For local flights only
c) For IFR flts only d) For controlled flights only
Ans. a)
24. Deviation from standards is given in

a. AICs b. AIRACS c. Annex 4 d. AIP
Ans. d)
25. Amendment to aircraft rules 1937 is given in: a) AIP b) AIC c) AIRAC d) CARs
Ans. b)
26. Current watch hours of the station is given in

a. NOTAMs b. AIC c. AIP d. CARs
Ans. c)
27. Cat II ILS approach

a) Decision height not lower than 60 m (200 ft) and with either a visibility not less than
800m or a runway visual range not less than 550 m.
b) Decision height lower than 60 m (200 ft), but not lower than 30 m (100ft), and a
runway visual range not less than 350 m.
c) A decision height lower than 30 m (100 ft) or no decision height; and
d) Used in establishing compliance with appropriate obstacle clearance criteria.
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Ans. b)
28. Abrupt head movement during instrument flying causes

a) Pilot disorientation b) Giddiness c) Blurred vision d) Air sickness
Ans. a)
29. Oxygen supply is required for cabin pressure below 700 hPa:
a) All passengers and crew b) Only crew members.
c) All crew members and 5% of passengers d) Not required at all
Ans. a)
30. Succession of command is given:

a) In Operation manual b) by Operator c) by DGCA d) in COA
Ans. a)
31. Pilot’s license can be revived by: a) DGCA b) Operator c) AAI d) ICAO
Ans. a)
32. Instrument flying time means:

a) Flying simulator b) Flying in IMC c) Flying a/c with sole reference to instruments
Ans. c)
33. Outside controlled airspace above 3000’AMSL

a. Fly on 1013.2 b. QFE c. QNH d. QFF
Ans. a)
34. ATPL who is 28 years old, medical is valid for

a) 2 yrs b) 1 yr c) 6 months d) 3 months
Ans. c)
35. To counter turbulence:

a. Maintain altitude b. Maintain heading c. Maintain bank d. Maintain airspeed
Ans. d)
36. Flight plan is made:

a) By choosing routes from AIP b) By choosing the shortest route between two points
c) By dispatcher d) By choosing most economical route from aircraft manual.
Ans. a)
37. IFR flight in VMC, weather changes to IMC:

a) Fly VMC and land at nearest convenient aerodrome.
b) Fly according to flight plan
c) Change to VFR plan d) Inform ATC and take advice.
Ans. b)
38. Person is killed on runway while landing after being hit by the wing of an aircraft. It is
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an: a) Accident b) Incident
c) Accident only if it was due to pilots fault d) non of the above
Ans. a)
39. Certificate of registration is valid till

a) Cancelled by DGCA. b) A/c is destroyed in an accident.
c) Ownership is transferred d) owner dies
Ans. b)
40. Emergency and cockpit check list is to be carried by

a) All a/c b) Scheduled a/c c) None scheduled a/c d) Aerial work a/c only
Ans. a)
41. Straight out departure is: a. 10 degree b. 15 degree c. 30 degree d. 45 degrees

Ans. b)
42. Air report II section contains
a) Turbulence, air temp, clouds b) Air temp, icing, spot wind
c) Operational information d) Position report
Ans. b)
43. Flight engineer is to be carried if:

a) If required by COA b) If operator says so
c) In case engines are old d) If P-I-C desires so
Ans. a)
44. FDR
a) Min 1 hr of the oldest recording requires to be erased for testing
b) Max I hr can be erased
c) Last I hr can be erased
d) Maximum 1 hr of the oldest recording requires to be erased for testing
Ans. d)
45. Can fly PIC if he has flown that route without carrying passengers at least ___ times in
last 12 months: a. 1 b. 3 c. 4 d. 6
Ans. a)
46. A/c A at F390 reports at a point at 0210 wants to descend to F330, a/c B at F 360
estimates to reach the same reporting point at 0300. Before what time the first a/c should
reach F330? a. 0235 b. 0250 c. 0225 d. 0215
Ans. c)
47. An a/c can be inspected by

a. Aerodrome officer b. Custom’s officer c. DGCA authorized personnel
Ans. c)
48. An operator must keep a record of his flight crew when flown above ______ for at least
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12 months of the flight for cosmic radiation effects:
a. FL 490 b. FL 510 c. FL 150 d. FL 290
Ans. a)
49. An aircraft continues his approach on PAPI with all lights indicating white. He will
touchdown.
a) Short of touchdown point b) At touchdown point
c) Beyond touchdown point d) At threshold of the runway.
Ans. c)
50. International flying time in one day for flight Crew is:
(c) 9 hrs 3 landing (d) 6 hrs 4 landing.
Ans. c)
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Question Paper - 20
1. VT-AXC owned by a private citizen is on a flight to Sri Lanka from Chennai on sight seeing
tour. The aircraft’s required to carry________ among other things.
a. Journey log book b. C of A
c. Pilot’s License d. All above are correct
Ans. d
2. A certificate of registration is valid from the date of registration to.

a. 1 year
b. Till the aircraft is destroyed in an accident
c. Till it is cancelled by DGCA
d. When the owner dies
Ans. b
3. Altitude in transition layer is maintained by setting altimeter to.

a. QFE b. 1013.2 c. QNH d. QFF
Ans. c
4. No person acting as PIC or operating crew member shall have taken alcohol narcotics or
stimulates during the preceding.
a. 24 hours b. 8 hours c. 12 hours d. 4 hours
Ans. c
5. If aircraft has undertaken a flight on route not defined by designated significant points the pilot
is required to report aircraft position.
a. Every hour
b. Every 30 minutes
c. Every 45 minutes
d. First time just after half an hour after take off and thereafter every hour
Ans. d
6. Before arrival in India a health report is to be sent.

a. Before take off b. 7 days prior to arrival
c. 2 hours before arrival d. 5 hours before arrival
Ans. c
7. A white dumbbell with a black bar placed perpendicular to the shaft indicates that you should
use only.
a. Runways b. Runways and taxiways
c. Runways for landing & take off d. Grass runway is unserviceable
Ans. c
8. A horizontal yellow diagonal on a red square panel indicates.

a. Special precautions to be take when approaching to land.
b. Landing areas is unserviceable
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c. Check runway in use
d. Use only runway
Ans. a
9. When radio contact is lost, an IFR flight in VMC should.

a. Continue in VMC and land at nearest suitable aerodrome
b. Continue as per current flight plan
c. Divert to alternate airfield
d. Force land at nearest aerodrome
Ans. a
10. Minimum vertical distance from cloud for VFR flight within controlled space is.
a. 1000 ft b. 500 ft c. 1000 m d. 500 m
Ans. a
11. IFR flight within controlled airspace shall immediately report any deviations from flight plan
resulting in;
a. Variation of TAS by 5%
b. Change in ETA over reporting point by more then 3 minutes
c. Change in current flight plan in emergency
d. All above are correct
Ans. d
12. RVR minima filed at Delhi 550m, reported touch down RVR 800, weather conditions are;
a. Conditions for minima would have been met in case mid RVR was 450m or
above.
b. Below minima
c. Above minima
d. All above are correct
Ans. c
13. An aircraft ‘A’ on a track of 030M reported crossing point X at 0412 at FL370. another aircraft
‘B’ at FL 370 on a track of 100M can cross the same crossing point not earlier then;
a. 0427 b. 0420 c. 0422 d. 0412
Ans. a
14. A situation wherein apprehension exists as to the safety of an aircraft and its occupants is;
a. Uncertainty (INCERFA) b. Distress phase (DISTRESFA)
c. Alert phase (ALERFA)
Ans. c
15. The aerodrome at Calicut is not declared suitable for night operations. If the sunrise is at 0550
the earliest time by which an aircraft operation at the station can take place is;
a. 0605 b. 0535 c. 0550 d. 0520
Ans. d
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16. The responsibility for control of departing aircraft will be transferred from aerodrome control
to approach control when IMC is prevailing;
a. Immediately before the aircraft enters the runway in use for take off.
b. In the vicinity of the aerodrome
c. Reaching a DME distance of 15 nm
d. After the aircraft enters clouds
Ans. a
17. The flight crew consists of pilot and copilot on an international flight. The flight time should
not exceed more than ___ number of landings restricted to _____.
a. 8 hrs & 4 landings b. 9 hrs & 3 landings
c. 8 hrs & 3 landings d. 6 hrs & 4 landings
Ans. b
18. A flight to be operated with a pressurized aeroplane will not be commenced unless a sufficient
quantity of stored breathing oxygen is carried to supply;
a. All crew members
b. All crew members and passengers
c. All crew members and passengers, when the atmospheric pressure in any compartment
occupied by them is less then 700 mb
d. All crew members and passengers, when the atmospheric pressure in any compartment
occupied by lass then 800 mb.
Ans. c
19. For each flight of an aeroplane above ______ the operator shall maintain records, so that the
total cosmic radiation received by each crew member, over a period of 12 consecutive months
can be determined:
a. 41,000 ft b. 49,000 ft c. 40,000 ft d. 45,000 ft
Ans. b
20. All aircraft transiting from one FIR to another FIR should inform ATS units responsible for
providing FIS at least:
a. 60 minutes prior to entry b. 20 minutes prior to entry
c. 10 minutes before entry d. after crossing the FIR boundary
Ans. c
21. The take off alternate aerodrome shall be located from the aerodrome of departure, not more than
a distance equivalent to a flight time of:
a. One hour for a two engine aero plane and 2 hour for 3 or more engines aero plane.
b. 30 minutes for a two engine aero plane and 1 hour for 3 or more engines aero plane.
c. Two hour for a 2 engine aero plane and 3 hour for 3 or more engines aero plane.
d. Two hour for a two engine aero plane and 1 hour for 3 or more engines aero plane
Ans. a
22. Identify taxy turn off lights associated with the centre line lighting system.
a. Alternate blue and white lights curving from the centre line of the runway to
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the centre line of the taxiway
b. Green lights curving from the centre line of the runway to the centre line of the taxiway.
c. Blue lights curving from the centre line of the runway to the centre line of the taxiway
Ans. b
23. Identify runway remaining lighting on centre line lighting systems;

a. Amber lights from 3000 ft to 1000 ft, then alternate red and white lights to the end.
b. Alternate red and white from 3000 ft to 1000 ft, then red lights to the end.
c. Alternate red and white lights from 3000 ft to the end of the runway.
Ans. b
24. Identify touchdown zone lighting (TDZL):

a. Two rows of transverse light bars disposed symmetrically about the runway centre line.
b. Flashing centre line lights spaced at 50 ft intervals extending through the touch down
zone.
c. Alternate white and green centre line lights extending from 75 ft from the threshold
through the touch down zone.
Ans. a
25. When instructed by ATC to “hold short of a runway (ILS critical area etc.)” the pilot should
stop:
a. With the nose gear on the hold line.
b. So that no part of the aircraft extends beyond the hold line.
c. So that the flight deck area of the aircraft is even with the hold line.
Ans. b
26. Airport information signs, used to provide destination or information, have:

a. Yellow inscriptions on a black background.
b. White inscriptions on a black background.
c. Black inscriptions on a yellow background.
Ans. c
27. Information obtained from flight data and cockpit voice recorders will be used only for
determining:
a. Who was responsible for any accident or incident.
b. Evidence for use in civil penalty or court of enquiry.
c. Possible causes of accidents or incidents.
Ans. c
28. For the purpose of testing the flight recorder system:

a. A minimum of one hour of the oldest recorded data must be erased to get a valid test
.
b. A total of one hour of the oldest recorded data accumulated at the time of testing may be
erased.
c. A total of not more then one hour of recorded data may be erased.
d. All the above are wrong.
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Ans. b
29. If you fly into severe turbulence, which flight condition should you attempt to maintain:
a. Constant air speed (VA) b. Level flight attitude
c. Constant altitude and constant airspeed
Ans. a
30. One pilot will be designated as PIC of a public transport aircraft for each flight by:
a. The operator b. DGCA
c. Flying contract unit d. None of the above is correct
Ans. a
31. Enroute altitude will be determined for each stage of the route by taking 1000 ft terrain
clearance within:
a. 5 nm b. 10 km c. 15 nm d. 20 nm
Ans. d
32. Vicinity of the aerodrome for a VFR /IFR flight is:

a. 5 miles around up to 3000 ft AGL
b. 25 miles around
c. As in (1) and instrument holding and approach procedure paths
Ans. c
33. A flight plan is required to be submitted to the appropriate ATS unit for
a. IFR flights b. All controlled flights c. All flights other then local flights
d. Flights which go more then 5 km from airfield
Ans. c
34. Flight duty time if inevitably extended, will be limited to:

a. 3 hrs b. 8 hrs c. 6 hrs d. 4 hrs
Ans. d
35. The privileges of a license can be exercised by a pilot involved in an incident

after:
a. He is cleared by the medical authority
b. He is cleared by the DGCA
c. He is cleared by the ATS authority
d. He is cleared by the owner of the aircraft
Ans. b
36. For knowing the current watch hours of a station you should look onto:
a. AIC b. CAR c. AIP d. NOTAM
Ans. c
37. In a category D airspace, ATC will provide separation between:

a. IFR flights and provides information on VFR flights and traffic avoidance on
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request to IFR flights and traffic information to VFR flights
b. IFR flights and IFR flights
c. IFR flights and IFR/VFR flights and VFR/VFR flights
d.IFR flights and IFR & VFR flights
Ans. a
38. Track separation ensures:

a. Vertical separation between aircraft. b. Time separation between aircraft.
c. Lateral separation between aircraft. d. Longitudinal separation.
Ans. c
39. Aerobatics flight, if flying within 2 nm of the periphery of an aerodrome, will be carried out at
a height not less then:
a. 1000 ft b. 1000 ft above the highest obstruction within 2000ft
c. 2000 ft d. 6000 ft
Ans. d
40. No pilot shall fly for more then the number of hours specified below during any period of 30
consecutive days:
a. 120 hrs b. 125 hrs c. 130 hrs d. 140 hrs
Ans.. b
41. Cockpit check lists and emergency check lists are required to be carried in all Indian registered
aircraft when they are effecting:
a. Public transport. b. Aerial work. c. Any flight.
d. Both public transport and aerial work aircraft.
Ans. c
42. R/W directions are given in:

a. grid north b. true north c. magnetic north d. compass north
Ans. c
43. No domestic flight carrying passengers is permitted to fly with in _________

nautical miles of international border.
a. 15 km. b. 5 nm c. 10nm d. 15nm
Ans. d
44. Prisoners to be carried by permission of :

a. D.G.C.A b. Aerodrome controller
c. Operator d. Police commissioner
Ans. a
45. CO poisoning symptoms:

a. Tightening of forehead. b. Loss of muscular power.
c. Increased sense of well being.
Ans. b
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(a) Rising or falling (b) Turning (c) Motion reversal
Ans. a
47. Abrupt head movement during a prolonged constant rate in IMC or simulated
instrument conditions can cause:
(a) Pilot disorientation (b) false horizon (c) elevator illusion
Ans. a
48. A sloping cloud formation, an obscured horizon, and a dark scene spread with
ground lights and stars can create an illusion known as:
(a) Elevator illusions (b) auto kinesis (c) false horizons
Ans. c
49. An abrupt change from climb to straight and level flight can create the illusion of:
(a) Tumbling backwards (b) A nose up attitude
(c) A descent with the wing level
Ans. a
(a) Spinning in the opposite direction (b) Being in a nose up attitude
(c) Diving into the ground
Ans. b
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125
AIR REGULATIONS 001
CPL LEVEL
QUESTIONS BANK
1
AR-001
Question Paper No. 1
1. The holder of PPL cannot fly IFR unless

a. Specifically permitted by DGCA
b. Specifically permitted by control tower
c. He has instrument rating
d. He has R/T on board.
2. The starboard navigation light of an aircraft is visible over an arc of …………. degrees
a. 70
b. 140
c. 110
d. 220
3. A prohibited area means an area over which
a. Flight within 2 miles is prohibited.
b. Flight of aircraft is totally prohibited
c. Low flying a prohibited
d. Only instrument flying practice can be done
4. An aircraft not fitted with navigation lights cannot be flown;
a. At any time
b. During hours of night
c. Without permission of aerodrome officer
d. Without permission from the DGCA.
5. The holder of a private pilot’s license can fly any aircraft
a. Provided its all-up weight does not exceed 1500 kgs.
b. Provided its all up weight does not exceed 1500 kgs. And the pilot has completed at
least 40 hours of flying time.
c. Provided the owner has no objection.
d. Which is endorsed on his license.
6. For the issue of Private Pilot’s License, the total flight time required is
a. 100 hours out of which 40 hours will be solo.
b. 40 hours out of which 20 hours will be solo
c. 20 hours out of which 10 hours will be solo
2
d. 5 hours within preceding 12 months
7. An aircraft should be refueled;
a. Inside a hanger
b. Inside a hanger or building under supervision after taking adequate precautions
c. In the open
d. Wherever adequate facility exists
8. Landing and housing charges are pay able by private aircraft according to:
a. Seating capacity of the aircraft
b. Number of passengers on board the aircraft.
c. All-up weight of the aircraft.
d. No charges if free passengers are carried.
a. Provided the owner has no objective.
b. Provided permitted by the aerodrome officer.
c. Without restriction if no passengers are carried.
a. If the sale deed is not yet completed.
b. For purpose of test flight only prior to purchase
c. If it is used for Govt. Work.
d. If specially permitted in writing by the central govt.
11. Who ever will fully flies an aircraft in such a manner as to cause danger to any person or any
property shall be punishable with
a. Imprisonment for a term which may extend to six months or with fine which may
extend to one thousand rupees or with both.
b. Imprisonment upto three months and fine up to Rs. 1000/- or both
c. Imprisonment up to three months and fine upto Rs. 500/- or both
d. Imprisonment up to two years and fine upto Rs. 1000/- or both
12. The minimum age for issue of CPL is --------- yrs.
a. 17
b. 18
c. 19
d. 20
3
a. 6 hrs before commencement of flight.
b. 12 hrs before commencement of flight
c. 24 hrs before commencement of flight
d. 36 hrs before commencement of flight
14. photography at an aerodrome can be done with prior permission in writing from
a. Aerodrome office
b. DGCA
c. Central Govt.
d. Indian Air force
15. A PPL holder can fly an aircraft at night provided he has completed
a. 10 landings & 10 T/O, at night within preceding 6 months.
b. 5 landings & 5 T/O at nigh within preceding 6 months
c. 5 landings & 5 T/O at night within preceding 12 months.
d. 10 landings & T/O at night within preceding 12 months
16. If PPL holder is 30 years old, his license can be renewed for a period of ……… yrs.
a. One
b. 10
c. Two
d. 4
17. While refueling is in progress, on naked light be brought within ……….. mts.
a. 35
b. 30
c. 100
d. 15
18. An a/c flying low due to thunder showers for safety reasons can be sued by
a. State Govt.
b. Municipal Corporation
c. Owner of the property over which it is flying
d. Cannot be sued.
19. ICAO stands for
a. International Convention on Air Organisation.
b. International Civil Aviation Organisation
c. International Civil Airport Organisation
4
d. Indian Civil Aircraft Organisation
20. A person can bring upto India human remains of a person died of plague
a. If enclosed in a wooden box
b. If enclosed in a shell of zinc
c. If enclosed in a hermetically sealed shell of zinc after permission is obtained from
proper authority.
d. Cannot bring them
b. May take off if the forced landing was not due to any factor effecting the safe
operation of the aircraft.
c. Must not take off till permission is obtained from DGCA.
22. Aircraft intending to fly in formation
a. Cannot fly.
b. Can fly during daytime
c. Can fly with permission for DGCA
d. Can fly with prior arrangement.
23. The “Certificate of Airworthiness” of an aircraft shall be deemed to be suspended when an
aircraft:
a. Is involved in an accident/incident
c. Is modified or repaired otherwise than in accordance with the provisions of the
rules.
d. In involved in a serious violation of the rules contained in the aircraft rules.
24. Minimum crew required on private aircraft is
a. One pilot
b. Two pilots
c. As specified in if certificate of the Airworthiness.
d. The flight instructor along with private pilot.
25. If navigational lights fail at night then:
b. Fly to destination
d. Continue flying
5
26. Aircraft met with an accident on runway, its wreckage can be removed
a. For smooth flow of air traffic.
b. For removing a dead body or injured person
c. After taking photographs.
27. A person died of cholera, his body can be brought to India if;
a. Packed in a wooden box
b. Cannot be brought
c. Sealed in zinc and packed in a wooden box. Closed in a shell, joints sealed, shell
enclosed in a teak wooden box which is enclosed in zinc lined box, filled with saw
dust impregnated with carbolic powder.
d. Permitted by the DGCA.
28. FDTL for 2 crew international flights is ______ hrs and _______ landing.
a. 10 hrs and 3 landings.
b. Three hrs and 9 landings.
c. 9 hrs and 3 landings.
d. 8 hrs and 3 landings.
29. Max flying hours for a flight crew in one years is _______ hrs
a. 200
b. 900
c. 1200
d. 1000
30. If a passenger falls sick on board an a/c and he is suspected of any infectious disease then
PIC’s action is:
a. To land immediately.
b. To inform health officer of destination aerodrome at least two hrs before landing.
c. To inform DGCA.
d. To inform doctor on board.
a. Aerodrome
b. Local District Magistrate.
c. Operator.
d. DGCA
6
32. Mathura Refinery is a
a. Danger Area
b. Restricted area
c. Prohibited area
d. Terminal area.
33. A flight which exceeds Mach number-1, cannot fly over:
a. Populated areas
b. Indian Air Space
c. Europe
d. High seas
34. The incubation period of relapsing fever is ______ days
a. 6
b. 7
c. 8
d. 10
35. Incubation period of yellow fever is ______ days
a. 6
b. 7
c. 8
d. 9
36. No authorized person must be presented within ______ mts of a/c while refueling is on:
a. 15
b. 30
c. 50
d. 10
37. Flight navigator shall be carried, if the flight is more than ________ NM and no Nav aid is
present with in ______ Nm of route
a. 300 NM. 600 NM
b. 600 NM. 60 NM
c. 600 NM. 30 NM
d. 300 NM. 60 NM
38. The percentage of Co-pilot flying to be counted to wards the renewal of CPL as PIC’s is
____%
a. 50
7
b. 80
c. 60
d. 100
39. An aircraft accident has to be informed to the DGCA with in ________ hrs.
a. 12
b. 24
c. 48
d. 60
40. An Air miss incidence report made by radio (or) telephone must be confirmed with in
______ days
a. 2
b. 4
c. 7
d. 10
41. Log books of flight crew personnel shall be preserved for not less than _____ years after
completion.
a. 1
b. 3
c. 5
d. 2
42. No scheduled flight carrying passengers is permitted to fly with in _____ NM of International
Border.
a. 15 km
b. 5 NM
c. 10 NM
d. 15 NM
43. For an aircraft having seating capacity of 215 passengers number of cabin attendants required
is _______
a. 6
b. 5
c. 4
d. 7
8
44. Incubation period for typhus is _______ days
a. 7
b. 5
c. 10
d. 14
45. Penalty for flying over prohibited areas is:
a. Imprisonment for a term upto 6 months
b. Fine upto Rs. 1000
c. Imprisonment for a term up to 3 months, or with fine up to Rs. 1000 or both.
d. Imprisonment up to 2 months or fine up to Rs. 500 or will both.
46. Prohibition of flights over Mathura refinery
a. With in a radius of 1 NM
b. With in a radius of 10 km
c. With in a radius of 20 kn
d. With in a radius of 10 Nms
a. AUW
b. Length of aircraft
c. No. of Nav Aids used
d. No. of passengers
48. The aircraft rules 1937 can be amended by
a. DGCA
b. Govt of India
c. CAR
d. AIP
49. Petroleum in bulk is petroleum in receptable which exceeds ______ lts
a. 1000
b. 900
c. 1500
d. 500
50. The demolition of buildings and trees act was came into effect in the year
a. 1934
b. 1937
9
c. 1994
d. 1954
QUESTION PAPER -2
a. all flights are permitted.
b. only VFR flights are permitted.
c. only IFR flights are permitted.
d. SPL VFR flights are permitted.
2. In class D airspace
a. IFR & VFR flights are permitted & all flights are subject to Air Traffic Control
b. IFR flights are separated from other IFR flights & receive information in respect of
VFR flights
c. VFR flights receive traffic information about other flights
d. all are correct
a. all aircraft
b. all private aircraft
c. aircraft involved in scheduled transport services
d. all aircraft engaged in aerial work
a. on a cross country flight
b. for all aircraft operating within ADIZ
c. When returning to base on the same day
d. It is not required when returning to base on the same day
5. Pilots log book is to be preserved for
a. 5 years from the date of starting the log book
b. 5 years from the date of last entry
c. 3 yrs from the date of last entry
d. 10 yrs from the date of last entry
6. A double white cross displayed on a signal square indicate
a. area not fit for the use of aircraft
10
b. gliding in progress
c. take permission before landing
d. prohibited area
a. 2 years
b. 1 year
c. 1 year if age is less than 40 years
d. 2 years if the age is less than 40 years
a. Domestic routes
b. International routes
c. Regional routes
d. None of the above
a. crossing an FIR
b. over a compulsory reporting point
c. if so required by ATC
d. all are correct
a. Aeradio
b. AIP
c. Notams
d. AIRACs
11. The highest point on the landing area is called
a. Aerodrome elevation
b. Runway elevation
c. ARP – Aerodrome Reference Point
d. Threshold elevation
12. Anti-collision light is a light
a. Red in colour affixed on top of the control tower
b. A red light on the port wing of the aircraft
c. A red light visible 30 deg above and below the horizon of the aircraft which is
visible in all directions
d. The navigation lights of any aircraft are called anti-collision lights
11
13. Operational Manual is
a. Prepared by the manufacturer and authorized by operator
b. Prepared by the DGCA and authorized operator
c. Prepared by the operator and authorized by manufacturer
d. Prepared by the operator and authorized by the DGCA
14. An aircraft is commencing descend from its initial FL 290 over Palam Airport. The altimeter
reads 12000 it. The commander will reports his vertical distance to the ATC in terms of
a. 12000 Altitude
b. F 120
c. 12000 a.g.l.
d. 12000 amsl
15. An aircraft is following a track of 179o (M) on a VFR plan. The choice of flight levels
available to the pilot are
a. 50, 70, 90, 150, 170, 190, 210, 230, 250, 270, 290,
b. 55, 75, 95, 155, 175, 195, 215, 235, 255, 275, 295
c. 50, 70, 90, 110, 130, 160, 180, 200, 220, 240, 260, 280,
d. 55, 75, 95, 115, 135, 155, 175, 195, 215, 235, 255, 275
16. A horizontal red square panel with one yellow diagonal means
a. Do not land for the time being
b. Landing Prohibited
c. Aircraft are to land Take off & Taxi on runways and taxi ways only
d. Special precaution while landing should be taken because of the bad state of the
Maneuvering area.
17. The visibility minima for those Airlines who have not filed their own Minima with the DGCA
for an airport for Non Precession approach is:
a. 1500
b. 1500 meters
c. 5 Nm
d. 3.7 km.
18. Above F 290, the minimum vertical separation between IFR flt tracks in areas other than
RVSM area is
a. 500
b. 1000
c. 2000
12
d. 4000
19. Aerodrome operation minima is given by
a. DGCA
b. Operator
c. Operator & is approved by DGCA
d. India Met Department
20. If the age of a CPL holder is more than 40 years the validity of medical is for _______
a. 1 yr
b. 6 months
c. 2 yrs
d. 5 yrs.
21. Above flight level 290 the minimum vertical separation between aircraft on reciprocal tracks
in RVSM area is
a. 1000 feet upto F410
b. 2000 feet upto F410
c. 4000 feet upto F460
d. 5000 feet upto F460
22. The wreekage of crashed aircraft on R/W can be removed to
a. extricate dead animals & persons
b. extricated animals & persons, dead or alive
c. permit movement of other aircraft
d. All of the above are correct
23. An aircraft force lands at an uncontrolled aerodrome, it can take off again
a. with the permission of DGCA
b. without the permission of controller of Aerodrome
c. with the permission of nearest aerodrome control tower
d. Matter is to be reported to DGCA as an incident
24. Wake turbulence separation minima for Take off, if a light aircraft is to take off behind a
heavy or a medium aircraft is
a. 2 minutes
b. 3 minutes
c. 5 minutes
13
25. All flights above _______ flight level are to be cleared IFR irrespective of weather conditions
a. F 280
b. F 150
c. F 140
d. F 100
26. The air traffic service which prevents the collision between aircraft is called
a. Alerting service
b. Flight information service
c. Air traffic control service
d. Air traffic Advisory service
a. AIP
b. AIC
c. NOTAM
d. AIRAC
a. 460
b. 450
c. 440
d. 400
29. The duty time of the trainee pilot
a. is calculated as per the FDTL
b. is not affected by FDTL
c. is the time calculated from take off to landing
d. is from “ chokes off” time to “ chokes on” time
30. A pilot can fly an aircraft which is not entered in the aircraft rating of his licence for
endorsement on his licence
a. With in 5 nm of an aerodrome
b. With in Local Flying Area of the aerodrome
c. Any where
d. Cannot fly
a. 100 hrs PIC 50 hrs as Co pilot
b. 100 hrs PIC 30 hrs as Co pilot
14
c. 120 hrs PIC 20 hrs as Co pilot
d. 120 hrs PIC 10 hrs as Co pilot
32. When an aircraft is being refueled, the refueling must be stopped if a jet aircraft crosses with
in a distance of
a. 15 meters
b. 30 meters
c. 43 meters
d. 45 meters
33. At an aerodrome the aerobatics can be carried out above 6000 feet
a. Beyond 4 nm of perimeter of aerodrome
b. Beyond 2 nm of perimeter of aerodrome
c. Beyond 5 nm of nearest perimeter of aerodrome
d. Beyond perimeter of aerodrome
34. The FDR has record of operation of preceding
a. 25 hours
b. 20 hours.
c. 15 hours.
d. 10 hours.
a. One hour or more
b. At least 30 minutes
c. At least 15 mins
d. There is no minimum limit
a. Monitor the performance of the aircraft
b. help an accident investigation
c. Both are correct
d. Non of the above
b. Help an accident investigation
c. Both are correct
d. Non of the above
15
a. Focus only at dim lights at a distance
b. Flutter eyes rapidly
c. Scan slowly to center off vision
d. Focus only on bright lights.
39. A report received from an aircraft giving a position and / or met report is called
a. Met report
b. Position report
c. Air report
d. All of the above
40. During flight as a pilot you are subjected to unlawful interference, On SSR you should to set
a. mode a code 7500
b. mode A code 7600
c. mode A code 7700
d. mode C code 7500
a. Local flying area up to 2000
b. Within 5 nm of an aerodrome up to 1000
c. Aerodrome Traffic zone up to 1000
d. Below 5000’ AMSL anywhere
a. Air Temperature, Icing, Turbulence
b. Spot Wind, Icing, Cloud above
c. Spot Wind, Air Temperature, Icing, Turbulence
d. ETA Destination
43. A fresh flight plan is to be filled if a scheduled flight is delayed by more than
a. one hour
b. 30 minutes
c. 15 mins
d. 5 mins
44. The designators of world wide ATS routes are in which colour
a. White
b. Red & Green
c. Red, Green, Blue & Amber
16
d. Red, Green, Blue Amber & White
45. The minimum wake turbulence time separation for a heavy aircraft to land behind a heavy
aircraft is
a. 2 minutes.
b. 3 minutes
c. 5 minutes
d. not required.
46. The air report contains following items
a. Air temperature, Turbulence, Surface wind & aircraft Icing
b. Turbulence, upper winds & surface temperature
c. Air temperature, Turbulence, Upper winds & aircraft Icing
d. All are correct
a. If a NOTAM is issued that it is not active
b. With the permission of ATC
c. Out side the stipulated time
d. Cannot fly at all
a. Visibility falls below 5 km or cloud ceiling is less than 1500 feet
b. Visibility falls below 8 km or cloud ceiling is less than 1500 feet
c. Visibility falls below 8 km or cloud ceiling is less than 1500 feet
d. Visibility falls below 8 km or cloud ceiling is less than 1000 feet
49. A series of red and green projectiles fired at an interval of 10 sec means
a. aircraft is flying over danger area
b. aircraft is flying over prohibited area
c. aircraft is flying over restricted area
d. All of the above are correct
50. An aircraft is flying at 5000 feet in IMC It should fly according to
a. Semicircular system
b. Quadrantal system
c. IFR levels
d. QNH Setting
17
QUESTION PAPER - 3

a. DGCA
b. AAI
c. Civil Aviation Ministry
d. ICAO
2. AIP consists of
a. 3 parts (GEN, ENR & AD)
b. 4 parts (GEN, ENR, AD, MET)
c. 6 parts (GEN, ENR, AD, MET, CONN, ATC)
d. 2 parts (GEN, AD)
3. Regular amendments of the AIP will be
a. Twice a year in Jan and July month of each year
b. Every quarter of the year Jan, April, July, and Oct. month of each year.
c. Once every year in the month of April of each year.
d. On as required basis
4. In aircraft operating an international flight, over flying Indian territory is subjected to
a. Current Indian regulation to civil aviation
b. Regulation to civil aviation pertaining to the states of its registry
c. Regulation to civil aviation pertaining to the nation of the commander of the flight
d. ICAO Regulations
5. Which of the following regulation is not subjected to an Aircraft flying over Indian territory
a. The Aircraft Act: 1934, the Aircraft Rules: 1937, the Anti-Hijacking Act: 1982
b. The India Aircraft rules: 1920, the aircraft ( Public health) rules: 1954, the Tokyo
convention Act: 1975
c. Indian civil laws
d. Carriage of dangerous good rules 2003
6. A passenger visited a yellow fever infected area on the previous six days, but is not in
possession of valid yellow fever certificate, then action taken by PIC of the flight is:
a. Send a radio message two hours before the arrival about the state of the health of
the passenger
b. No action required
c. Inform Airlines office after landing
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d. Inform health authorities of the place of departure
a. 60 below the horizon
b. 00 at the horizon
c. 80 below the horizon
d. 120 below the horizon
8. Which of the following statements is not correct for classification of Airspace in India
a. Class D Airspace is applicable to TMA, control zones and control areas
b. Class E is applicable to Airspace in designated ATS route outside terminal and control
areas.
c. Class F in applicable to airspace outside CTAs/TMAs/CTRs/ATZs/ATS rute
d. Class G Airspace is applicable to airspace other than D,E and F
9. Which of following countries are not covered by Indian satellite Aided SAR programme
a. Malaysia, Maldives, Mauritius and Seychelles
b. Bhutan, Nepal, Bangladesh and Myanamar
c. Oman, Pakistan and U.A.E.
d. Srilanka, Nepal andThailand
10. Base leg is reported by the aircraft
a. On completion of the turn on to Base leg
b. On commencement of the turn on to Base leg
c. On abeam position, the upwind of the rwy
d. At the end of downward
11. An Aircraft shall report “long final” when it is at _________ from the approach end of the rwy
a. 8 NMs
b. 4 NMs
c. 10 NMs
d. 2 NMs
12. A Cessna 152 aircraft force lands at a wheat field due to shortage of fuel. It will be reported as
a. An accident
b. An incident
c. Not reportable
d. An Air Report
13. A pilot should never cross a
a. Stop bar which is switched off
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b. Stop bar which is lighted
c. A taxy holding position marking
d. An intermediate holding position marking
14. FDTL for training flights does not restrict
a. Flight Time
b. Flight Duty Time
c. Number of landings
d. All of the above
15. For a flight at night in VMC, the approach to land will be
a. Same as day
b. Descend will be steep
c. Speed will be more
d. Landing distance will be more
16. Decision Altitude is applicable for
a. Non Precision Approaches
b. PAPI Approaches
c. Precision Approaches
d. All of the above
17. Prisoners on Board an aircraft can be carried with the permission of
a. DGCA
b. Controller of Aerodrome
c. Director General of Prisons
d. Police Commissioner
18. Flight time/ flight duty time limitations shall be applicable to
a. Pilots only
b. Pilots and cabin crews only
c. P-i-C and Co-Pilot only
d. all flight crew personnel
19. Large accumulation of carbon mono-oxide in the blood results in:
a. Dizziness
b. Fear
c. Hot and Cold Sensations
d. Disorientation
20
20. Deviations from International Standards and recommended practices are published in
a. AIRAC
b. AICs
c. AIP
d. ICAO Annexures
21. To find current watch hours of a station you should look into
a. AIRAC
b. AICs
c. AIP
d. Notams
22. ‘ATIS’ is a continuous broadcast of recorded information concerning
a. ATS information
b. ATS and Met information
c. Navigation Information
d. Traffic Information
23. Flight Mannual is to be carried by
a. All aircraft
b. Scheduled aircraft only
c. If C of a states so
d. All aircraft other than aerial work aircraft
24. An aircraft is on a track of 0300 (M) and reports crossing a point at 0412 Hrs at F 370. Other
aircraft at F 370 on a track of 1000 (M) can cross the same point not earlier than
a. 0422 hrs
b. 0417 hrs if 40 kts faster
c. 0427 hrs
d. 0402 hrs
25. An ac at F 390 is estimating to cross a point at 0210 hrs wishes to descent to F 310. There is
reciprocal traffic estimating to cross same point at 0300 hrs maintaining F 330. By what time
the descending aircraft should reach F 310 if both aircraft maintain same speed?
a. 0215 hrs.
b. 0220 hrs.
c. 0225 hrs.
d. 0250 hrs.
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26. OCA is used for determination of
a. MDA
b. DA
c. Both MDA and DA
27. The numbers 09 and 27 on a runway indicate that the runway is oriented approximately
a. 0090 and 270 true
b. 0900 and 2700 true
c. 0900 and 2700 magnetic
d. 0900 and 2700 compass
28. When approaching taxiway holding lines from the side with the continuous lines the pilot
a. may continue taxiing
b. should not cross the lines without ATC clearance
c. should continue taxiing until all parts of the aircraft have crossed the lines
d. continue taxiing if runway is vacant
29. The numbers 08 and 26 on the approach ends of the runway is oriented approximately
b. 0800 and 2600 true
d. 0080 and 26o0 compass
30. What is the purpose of the runway/ runway hold position sign?
a. Denotes enterance to runway from a taxiway
b. Denotes and protected for an aircraft approaching or departing a runway
c. Denotes intersecting runways
d. Denotes intersecting taxiways
a. there are obstructions on the airport
b. that weather at the airport located in Class D airspace is belfow basic VFR
weather minimum
c. the Air traffic Control is not in operation
d. runway is blocked
32. Wingtip valves are created only when an aircraft is
a. opta high airspeeds
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b. heavily speed
c. develop lift
d. taxiing
33. Wing tip valves created by large aircraft tend to
a. sink below it aircraft generating turbulence
b. rise in traffic pattern
c. fireinfort takeoff or landing path of a crossing runway
d. risetow dy engines of the aircraft
34. How does the wake turbulence vortex circulate around each wingtip?
a. Inward, upward, and around each tip
b. Inward, upward and counterclockwise
c. Outward, upward and around each tip
d. Outward, upward and away from each tip
35. When taking off or landing where heavy aircraft are operating, one should be particularly alert
to the hazards of wingtip vortices because this turbulence tends to
a. rise from crossing runway into the takeoff or landing path
b. rise into the traffic pattern area surrounding the airport
c. Sink into the flightpath of aircraft generating the turbulence
d. Stay on runway in strong cross wind conditions
36. The greatest vortex strength occurs when the generating aircraft is
a. light dirty and fast
b. heavy dirty and fast
c. heavy clean and slow
d. light clean and slow
landing is a
a. light entry headwind
b. light entry tail wind
c. string head wind
d. string tail wind
38. When departing behind a heavy aircraft, the pilot should avoid wake turbulence by
a. below and downwind from the heavy aircraft
b. above and upwind from the heavy aircraft
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c. below are upwind from the heavy aircraft
d. above are downwind from the heavy aircraft
39. When land up behind a large aircraft, the pilot should avoid wake turbulence by staying
a. above the large aircraft’s final approach path and landing beyond the large
aircraft …….. down point
b. below the large aircraft’s final approach path and landing before the large aircraft’s
touchdown point
c. above there are aircraft’s final approach path and landing before the large aircrafts
touch down point.
40. ………. Behind a large aircraft, which procedure should be followed for
a. final approach flightpath all the way to touchdown
b. to one side of its final approach flightpath
c. its final approach flightpath
d. approach and land
41. During a night flight, you observe a steady red light and a flashing red light ahead and at the
same altitude. What is the general direction of movement of the other aircraft?
a. The other aircraft is crossing to the left
b. The other aircraft is flying away from you
c. The other aircraft is approaching to the right
d. The other aircraft is coming head on
42. During a night flight, you observe steady white light and a flashing red light ahead and at the
same altitude, What is the general direction of movement of the other aircraft
a. The other aircraft is flying away from you
b. The other ……. Is crossing to the left
c. The other …….. is crossing to the right
d. The other…….. is approaching headon
43. During ……….. you observe steady red and green lights ahead and at the same altitude
……… is the general direction of movement of the other aircraft?
a. The is crossing to the left
b. The is flying away from you
c. The is approaching head-on
d. The is crossing to the right
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44. The ………… method of scanning for other aircraft for collision avoidance during ………is
to use
a. ………… concentration on the 3-, 9- and 12-0’ clock positions
b. ………………. regularly spaced eye movements to search each 10- degree sector
c. ……………… scanning small sectors and utilizing offcenter viewing
d. ………………..objects for 30 secs.
45. The most effective method of scanning for other aircraft for collision avoidance during night
that hours is to use
a. concentration on the 3-, 9- and 12-0’ clock positions
b. regularly spaced eye movements to search each 10-degrees sector
c. scanning small sectors and utilizing officenter viewing
d. objects for 30 secs
46. How can you determine if another aircraft is on a collision course with your aircraft
a. The other aircraft will always appear to get larger and closer at a rapid rate
b. The rose of each aircraft is pointed at the same point in space
c. There will be no apparent relative motion between your aircraft and the other
aircraft
d. The ……… nose of other aircraft is pointed towards your aircraft
47. Pric… starting each maneuver, pilots should
a. check altitude, airspeed, and heading
b. visually scan the entire area for collision avoidance
c. announcae their intentions to the nearest ATC
d. tighean seat belt
48. Most midair collision accidents occur during
a. hazy day
b. clear day
c. cloudy nights
d. dark nights
49. After landing at a tower controlled airport, when should the pilot contract ground control?
a. When advised by the tower to do so
b. Prior to turning off the runway
c. After reaching a taxiway that leads directly to the parking area
d. On final approach
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50. If constructed by ground control to taxi to Runway 09, the pilot may proceed
a. Via taxiwess and across runways to, but not onto, Runway 09
b. to the next …………. Runway where further clearance is required
c. Via taxiways and across runways to Runway 09, where an immediate takeoff may be
in
d. via taxi to runways 09 up to line up point
Paper -4
1. Oxygen is to be carried for all crew members and passengers above a absolute pressure of
a. 800 hpa
b. 700 hpa
c. 620 hpa
d. 1000 hpa
a. pilots of radar-identified aircraft whose aircraft is in dangerous proximity to terrain or
to an obstruction
b. non-essential information to reduce frequency congestion
c. non-control information in selected high- activity terminal areas
d. to warn pilots about conflicting traffic
3. If the control tower uses a light signal to direct a pilot to give way to other aircraft and
continue circling, the light will be
a. flashing red
b. steady red
c. alternating red and green
d. steady white
a. Flashing green
b. Steady green
c. Flashing white
d. Steady Red
26
5. An alternating red and green light signal directed from the control tower to an aircraft in flight
is a signal to
a. hold position
b. extreme caution
c. not land the airport is unsafe
d. Return to Apron
6. If the aircraft’s radio fails, what is the recommended procedure when landing at a controlled
airport?
a. Observe the traffic flow, enter the pattern, and look for a light signal from the
tower
b. Enter a crosswind leg and rock the wings
c. Flash the landing lights and cycle the landing gear while circling the airport
d. Rock wings
a. 118.0 and 118.8 MHz
b. 121.5 and 243.0 MHz
c. 123.0 and 119.0 MHz
d. 118.1 and 123.0 MHz
a. The current local altimeter setting, if available, or the departure airport elevation
b. The corrected density altitude of the departure airport
c. The corrected pressure altitude for the departure airport
d. QFE
9. If an altimeter setting is not available before flight, to which altitude should the pilot adjust the
altimeter?
a. The elevation of the nearest airport corrected to mean sea level
b. The elevation of the departure area
c. Pressure altitude corrected for nonstandard temperature
d. QNE
10. 620 hpa absolute pressure is equal to
a. 10,000
b. 13,000
c. 15,000
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d. 25,000
aircraft?
a. Enough to complete the flight at normal cruising speed with adverse wind conditions
b. Enough to fly to the first point of intented landing and to fly after that for 30 minutes at
normal cruising speed.
c. Enough to fly to the first point of intented landing thence to alternate and to fly
after that for 45 minutes
12. Taking simple medicine like ‘aspirin’ prior to flight
a. is safe
b. may slightly effect co-ordination
c. may reduce blood circulation
d. may seriously impair judgement
13. What is lowest altitude permitted for aerobatic flight?
a. 1,000 feet AGL
b. 1,500 feet AGL
c. 2,000 feet AGL
d. 6,000 feet AGL
14. No person may operate an aircraft in flight when
a. flight visibility is less than 5 kms
b. over any congested area of a city, town, or settlement below 1000
c. less than 2,500 feet AGL
d. Less than 3,000 AGL
15. The responsibility for ensuring that an aircraft is maintained in an airworthy condition is
primarily that of the
a. pilot in command
b. owner or operator
c. mechanic who performs the work
d. Chief Engineer
a. A state of oxygen deficiency in the body
b. An abnormal increase in the volume of air
c. A condition of gas bubble formation around the joints or muscles
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d. Illusions during daytime
a. hyperventilation
b. aerosinusitis
c. aerotitis
d. hypoxia
a. Emotional tension, anxiety, or fear
b. The excessive consumption of alcohol
c. An extremely slow rate of breathing and insufficient oxygen
d. Lack of sleep
19. A pilot should be able to overcome the symptoms or avoid future occurrences of
hyperventilation by
a. closely monitoring the flight instruments to control the airplane
b. slowing the breathing rate, breathing into a bag, or talking aloud
c. increasing the breathing rate in order to increase lung ventilation
d. flying without looking at instruments
a. they ignore the sensations of muscles and inner ear
b. body signals are used to interpret flight attitude
c. eyes are moved often in the process of cross-checking the flight instruments
d. adequate rest is not taken prior to flight
21. If a pilot experiences spatial disorientation during flight in a restricted visibility condition, the
best way to overcome the effect is to
a. rely upon the aircraft instrument indications
b. concentrate on yaw, pitch and roll sensations
c. consciously slow the breathing rate until symptoms clear and then resume normal
breathing rate
d. ignore instruments and go by visual indications
22. A state of temporary confusion resulting from misleading information being sent to the brain
by various sensory organs is defined as
a. spatial disorientation
b. hyperventilation
c. hypoxia
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d. stress
23. The danger of spatial disorientation during flight in poor visual conditions may be reduced by
a. shifting the eyes quickly between the exterior visual field and the instrument panel
b. having faith in the instruments rather than taking a chance on the sensory organs
c. leaning the body in the opposite direction of the motion of the aircraft
d. breathing into a bag
24. Which technique should a pilot use to scan for traffic to the right and left during straight-and-
level flight?
a. Systematically focus on different segments of the sky for short intervals
b. Concentration on relative movement detected in the peripheral vision area
c. Continuous sweeping of the windshield from right to left
d. Scan through the corner of the eyes
a. Haze causes the eyes to focus at infinity
b. The eyes tend to overwork in haze and do not detect relative movement easily
c. All traffic or terrain features appear to be farther away than their actual distance
d. Objects appear to be closer than their actual distance
a. Do not stress eyes after sunset until ready for flight
b. Avoid red lights at least 30 minutes before the flight
c. Avoid bright white lights at least 30 minutes before the flight
d. Avoid any light atleast 30 mins before the flight.
27. What is the most effective way to use the eyes during night flight
a. Look only at far away, dim lights
b. Scan slowly to permit offcenter viewing
c. Concentrate directly on each object for a few seconds
d. Scan fast to avoid direct viewing
a. look to the side of the object and scan slowly
b. scan the visual field very rapidly
c. look to the side of the object and scan rapidly
d. look for anti collision lights
a. tightness across the forehead
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b. loss of muscular power
c. an increased sense of well-being
d. lack of oxygen in blood stream
a. altitude increases
b. altitude decreases
c. air pressure increases
d. above 10,000 ft.
31. What often leads to spatial disorientation or collision with ground/obstacles when flying under
Visual Flight Rules (VFR)
a. Continual flight into instrument conditions
b. Getting behind the aircraft
c. Duck-under syndrome
d. Continual flight into good weather conditions
a. Structural failure
b. Mechanical malfunction
c. Human error
d. Special disorientation
a. Insufficient oxygen reaching the brain
b. Excessive carbon dioxide in the blood stream
c. Limited oxygen reaching the heart muscles
d. Lack of Hemoglobin in blood
34. What causes hypoxia
a. Excessive carbon dioxide in the atmosphere
b. An increase in the nitrogen contents in the atmosphere at high altitude
c. A decrease in the oxygen partial pressure
d. Excessive carbon mono-oxide in the atmosphere
a. The percentage of nitrogen in the air is increased
b. The percentage of oxygen in the air is decreased
c. Oxygen partial pressure is decreased
d. The percentage of CO2
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36. What is the symptom of carbon mono oxide poisoning
a. Rapid shallow breathing
b. Pain & cramping of the hands & feet
c. Dizziness
d. Laziness

a. Alcohol has adverse effect especially as the altitude increases
b. Small amounts of alcohol in the human system increases judgment & decision making
ability
c. Alcohol has little effect if followed by equal quantities of black coffee
d. Alcohol has no effect if taken more than 6 hrs before flight
a. Tingling of the hands & feet
b. Increased vision keenness
c. Decreased breathing rate
d. Euphoria
39. What would most likely occur in hyperventilation
a. A stressful situation causing anxiety
c. An extremely slow rate of breathing & insufficient oxygen
d. Dizziness
a. Looking outside for 15 seconds, then inside for 5 seconds, then repeat
b. 1 minute inside scanning then one minute outside scanning then repeat
c. Looking out side every 30 seconds except in radar contact when outside scanning is
unnecessary
d. Continuously looking outside
41. Small amounts of alcohol in the system
a. may affect decision making abilities
b. will not affect judgment
c. will not have effect at sea level
d. can be cured by meditation
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42. Which observed target aircraft would be of most concern with respect to collision avoidance
a. One which appears to be ahead and moving from left to right at high speed
b. One which appears to be ahead and moving from right to left at slow speed
c. One which appears to be ahead with no lateral & vertical displacement & is
increasing in size rapidly
d. Non of the above
43. When using earth’s horizon as a reference to determine the relative position of other aircraft
most concern would be for aircraft
a. Above the horizon & increasing in size
b. On the horizon with little relative movement
c. on the horizon & increasing in size
d. On the horizon & decreasing in size
44. When making an approach on narrow than usual runway without VASI assistance, the pilot
should be aware that the approach
a. Altitude may be higher than it appears
b. Approach altitude may be lower than it appears
c. May result in leveling off too high & landing hard
d. May result in an overshooting approach
45. When making a landing over a darkened or featureless terrain, such as water or snow pilot
should be aware of the possibility of illusion. This approach may appear to be
a. High
b. Low
c. Shallow
d. Normal
a. Closer to the runway than it actually is
b. Farther from the runway than actually is
c. The same distance from the runway as there is no restriction to visibility
d. High on approach
a. Pitching up
b. Pitching down
c. Leveling off
d. Descending
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a. No illusion
b. Lower than usual
c. Higher than usual
d. Normal approach
49. The FDTL may be extended by

a. DGCA
b. Operator
c. PIC
d. Central Govt.
a. 4 hrs.
b. 2 hrs.
c. 6 hrs.
d. 8 hrs.
Paper – 5
1. The definition a “ reporting point” is “ specified geographical location …..”

a. at which the position of the aircraft must be reported?
b. in relation to which the position of the aircraft must be reported?
c. at which the position of the aircraft can be reported?
d. in relation to which the position of the aircraft can be reported?
2. The visibility reqd. when flying at ( or) below 3000 in a controlled airspace
a. 5 kms
b. 8 kms
c. 10 kms
d. 3 kms
a. 10 NMs
b. 10 mins
c. 5 mins
d. 20 Nms
34
a. Red
b. Green
c. Yellow
d. Alternate Red & Green
5. The 3rd section of an air report contains

a. ETA
b. Met Info
c. ATS Info
d. Position Info
6. Crossing of an ATS route should be at angle of
a. 600
b. 900
c. 450
d. 300
a. AICs
b. NOTAMs
c. AIRAC
d. AIP
a. 1000 lts
b. 900 lts
c. 1500 lts
d. 500 lts
a. Surface of earth to a specified upper limit
b. 5000 to unlimited
c. Atleast 700
10. If an a/c has R/T failure then it will acknowledge signals from the ATC during day
a. Switching on/off Nav lights
b. Rocking Wings
35
c. Flickering Anti-collision lights
d. Flying low
a. 1500 kg
b. 15000 kg.
c. 5700 kgs
d. all ac rudder
a. 5 mins
b. 3 mins
c. 10 mins
d. 2 mins
13. Night flying hours can be logged between _______ mins after sunset to ________ mins before
sunrise
a. 20 mins
b. 45 mins
c. 1 hrs
d. 15 mins
a. Truth North
b. Compass North
c. Magnetic North
d. North Pole
indicates
A Stop.
b. Cut Engines
c. Continue straight
d. Turn Off
16. If an IFR A/C is flying at 5000 outside controlled airspace then it will fly at ______
a. Altitude
b. RVSM levels
c. climb / cruise level
d. Above minimum flight altitude
36
17. Red pyrotechnical light to A/C in flight indicates
a. Not with standing any previous instruction, do not land for the time being
b. Proceed to alternate
c. Keep circling
d. Total refusal to land
18. The Min. Separation above F 290 is:

a. 2000’
b. 3000’
c. 4000’
d. 5000’
a. 15 NMs
b. 15 Mins
c. 20 NMs
d. 5 Mins
20. Operator has to preserve the contents of the flight data recorder for a period of _____ hrs.
a. 3 hrs.
b. 24 hrs
c. 25 hrs
d. 12 hrs
21. The alert phase starts when an A/C cleared to land fails to land within _______ of estimated
time of landing
a. 3 mins
b. 2 mins
c. 5 mins
d. 10 mins
22. No smoking shall be permitted within ______ mtrs of A/C (or) fueling equipment
a. 15 mtrs
b. 10 mts
c. 30 mts.
d. 50 mts.
37
23. What is defined as “A unit established to provide flight information and alerting service”?
a. Air Traffic Service Unit
b. Aeronautical Service
c. Area Control Service
d. Flight Information Centre
a. Class B
b. Class C
c. Class D
d. Class E
25. The aerodrome reference code is referred to in Annex 14 and other ICAO documents. What is
the purpose of the code?
a. To describe the rescue and firefighting facilities at the aerodrome
b. To describe the expected weather factor at the aerodrome
c. To describe the type of aircraft the aerodrome is intented to serve
d. To describe the length of the primary runway at the aerodrome
a. A balloon only
b. A glider or a ballon
c. A glider, a balloon or an airship
d. A glider, a balloon, an airship or an aeroplane towing a glider
a. A white capital T land along the stem towards the crosspiece
b. An orange or red windsock, land towards the mast
c. A white or orange capital T land along the stem towards the crospiece
d. An orange wedge shape in 3dimensions, land towards the point of the wedge
a. 2 Thick yellow lines close to and parallel to runway centerline.
b. 2 Thick white lines close to and parallel to runway centerline.
c. 2 pairs of yellow lines close to and parallel to runway centerline.
d. 2 pairs yellow lines close to and parallel to runway centerline.
38
a. White
b. Yellow
c. Any colour which contrasts with surface
d. Any Colour which contrasts with the aircraft stand markings
a. i) yellow ii) white
b. i) green ii) white
c. i) blue ii) white
d. i) green ii) yellow
31. What lights will a pilot see from the PAPI system if he is slightly low on the instrument
approach glideslope? Inboard means closer to the runway.
a. 3 white lights inboard of 1 red light
b. 3 red lights inboard of 1 white light
c. 1 white lights inboard of 1 red light
d. 1 red lights inboard of 3 white light
instructions?
a. The writing will be red on a white background
b. The writing will be white on a red background
c. The sign will be outlined in yellow and black stripes
d. The sign will be yellow on a black background, or vice versa
a. With yellow and black marker boards
b. with red and white marker boards
c. With a white cross on the surface
d. With white chevrons on the surface
collision. Apart from monitoring the other aircraft actions, what else must he do?
a. Maintain heading speed, and altitude
b. Maintain heading, and altitude only
c. Maintain altitude speed only
d. Maintain heading and speed only
39
accident?
a. An engine distingrees but causes no further damage
b. A wingtip is broken …. In a collision
c. One passenger is stability by another
d. A passenger suffers second degree burns from a loose gallery kettle
incident?
a. An engine disntegu …………. And prevents flap retraction
b. A passenger is take ……. With an infectious disease
c. The pilot takes av…………..to prevent a near collision
d. A crew member falls…………and breaks his leg
37. Which of the following currences to an aircraft in flight should be considered an aviation
accident?
a. An extinguished ………….damages the engine oil system
b. One pilot is incapa ……… by food poisoning for 36 hours
c. An undercarriage …….. replacement after a heavy landing
d. An aborted take off 6 years
38. ICAO annex 2 lists the …. Of the Air. Where do they apply?
a. Over the high sea……..
b. Everywhere unless they conflict with the laws of the state being over flown
c. Over the territory of signatory nations only
d. Everywhere
Class G airspeed at a speed fo 120 knots and in sight of the surface?
a. 8000 meters
b. 5000 meters
c. 1500 meters
d. There is no min…
a. Fly low past the symbol turn away sharply
b. Rock wings
c. Fly in circle arounded symbol
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d. Fly low past the climb steeply
41. What is the minimum horizontal distance which an aeroplane must stay away from cloud in
a. 1500 meters
b. 1800 meters
c. no minimum start…………vided the aircraft has a flight visibility of 5000 meters
d. no minimum s ………………vided the aircraft is in sight of the surface
42. What is correctly de …………..“A situation where in apprension exits as to the safety of an
a. The emergency phase
b. The uncertainty phase
c. The alert phase
d. The distress phase
43. What mode A transpmeans an aircraft is suffering unlawful interference?
a. 7000
b. 7500
c. 7600
d. 7700
44 If navigation lights ……….of the pilot is
a. To continue to destin….
b. land at nearest aerodrome
c. Switch on obstruction lights
d. land at alternate
45. UTC means
a. Universal Time Check
b. coordinated Universal Time
c. united Time Check
46. IFR flight shall not be ………………. If the weather at destination and alternate is
a. Above minima
b.
c. below minima
d. IMC prevails
41
47. An A/C descending …………. The transition layer will report its height in
a. Flight levels
b. AM
c.
d. AGL
48. Publicity material ……………from an A/C if it has the permission of
a. DM/Commissioner ….
b. DGCA
c. Aerodrome officer
d. ICAO
49. If PIC of an a/c fly ……………… red navigation flight of an a/c at a Relative bearing of 270 0
then the action of pilot
a. Turn Right
b. No. a
c. Turn left
d. Give way
50. Anti collision light …….. lights
a. Steady Red
b. Ro……
c. Flashing Red
d. Red & White
AIR REGULATION PAPER - 6
applies?
a. Gliders shall give way to helicopters
b. Aeroplanes shall give way to helicopters
c. Helicopters shall give way to aeroplanes
d. Gliders shall give way to balloons
a. back-track on the runway to use the maximum available length for take-off
b. taxi to a full stop in position on the runway and take off without further clearance
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c. taxi onto the runway and takeoff in one continuous movement.
d. complete the pre-take-off check before taxing onto the runway and taking off.
a. MAYDAY, MAYDAY, MAYDAY
b. PANPAN, PANPAN, PANPAN
c. SECURITY, SECURITY, SECURITY
d. EMERGENCY, EMERGENCY, EMERGENCY
4. Estimated elapsed time A to B 1 hr 15 minutes
Estimated stopover time at B 30 minutes
Using the above information, what time should be entered in the “ Elapsed Time” BOX OF
VFR flight plan?
a. 3 hrs 50 minutes
b. 3 hrs 20 minutes
c. 3 hrs 05 minutes
d. 2 hrs 35 minutes
Qus. No. 5 to 11 – If you see an aircraft light on a relative bearing given below, action by you will be
5- Red 250 deg a
6- Red 060 deg c
7- Green 290 deg d
8- White 340 deg c
9- Red and Green 000 deg c
10- Green & red 030 deg d
11- Green 340 deg d, c
a. No risk
b. Turn Port
c. Turn Starboard
d. Maintain heading
12. Prohibited area around Malabar hill is _______
a. 1 NM
b. 1 Mile
c. 5 NMs
d. 1 Km
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13. Incubation period of yellow fever is____ days
a. 6
b. 7
c. 8
d. 10
behind Medium A/C is ____ min
a. 02 mins
b. 5 mins
c. 3 mins
d. 1 min
15. Longitudinal separation between two A/C on same track is ________ mins
a. 10
b. 15
c. 20
d. 5
16. A/C incident should be notified with in ______ hrs
a. 24 hrs
b. 12 hrs
c. 48 hrs
d. 36 hrs
17. Indian Airspace comes under _______ class of airspace
a. A&B
b. D&E
c. A, B, C & D
d. D, E, F & G
18. No unauthorized person must be present within ______ mtrs of A/C, while refueling is on
a. 15 mts
b. 30 mts
c. 50 mts
d. 10 mts
19. An aircraft must fly ______ Nm away from International Border
a. !0 NMs
b. 15 NMs
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c. 20 NMs
d. 25 NMs
a. 150 at 30 NMs.
b. 150 at 20 NMs.
c. 150 at 15 NMs.
d. 150 at 10 NMs.
21. Separation above F 290 is _______ upto F 410 _____ areas
a. 1000’
b. 3000’
c. 2000’
d. 4000’
a. by eastbound aircraft on IFR plan
b. by westbound aircraft on VFR plan
c. by eastbound aircraft on VFR plan
23. In VMC the vertical distance from cloud base is
a. 1000’
b. 2000’
c. 500’
d. 1.5 kms
24. Position report shall be made after every ______ in IMC, where no standard reporting points
exist.
a. 15 Mins
b. 20 Mins
c. 30 Mins
d. 60 Mins
25. Fresh ADC is required in case the flight is delayed by ______ minutes.
a. 10 mins
b. 15 mins
c. 30 mins
d. 60 mins
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26. In India separation between 1FR and IFR are provided in ______ class of Airspace
a. D
b. A&B
c. D&F
d. D, E f & G
27. TMA means
a. Terminal Maintenance Area
b. The main Apron
c. Terminal Control Area
28. Displaced threshold lights will be in _____ colour

a. Red
b. Blue
c. Green
d. Yellow
a. 1000 in 5 Kms
b. 2000 in 8 Kms
c. 2000 in 5 kms
d. 1500
30. ______ Letter stands for non-scheduled flight in flight plan
a. S
b. N
c. ZZ
d. NS
31. Flight navigator shall be carried, if the flight is more than ______ NM and NAV-aid is present
with in ___ Nm of route
a. 600 Nm/30 Nm
b. 300 Nm/30 Nms
c. 600 Nm/60 Nm
d. 300 Nm/60 Nm
32. The _____ % of co-pilot flying is counted towards the renewal of CPL as PIC
a. 50%
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b. 80%
c. 60%
d. 100%
33. 12 stripes of threshold markings indicate a rw width of
a. 30 m
b. 45 m
c. 60 m
d. 24 m
34. 4 Pairs of touch down zone markings indicate landing distance available
a. 900 m
b. 1200 to 1500 m
c. 1500 m to 2399
d. 2400 m or more
35. The visibility minima for take off, it the aerodrome is not equipped with radio nav aid is
___km.
a. 8 kms.
b. 10 kms.
c. 5 kms.
d. 3.7 kms
a. 12 hrs
b. 24 hrs
c. 48 hrs
d. 60 hrs
37. A signal made by radio-telegraphy (or) by any other signaling method consisting of the group
‘XXX’ in Morse code indicates
a. Distress
b. urgency
c. Radio failure
d. Priority
a. White
b. Red
c. Blue
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d. Green
39. An Air-miss incident report made by radio ( or) telephone must be confirmed with in ___ days
a. 2
b. 4
c. 7
d. 10
40. A person holding ______ shall fly ‘ Aerial work Aircraft’
a. PPL
b. CPL/ATLP
c. IR
d. Multi Engine Rating
41. ‘Flight by night means a flight performed between the period of
a. to 20 mins before sunrise from 20 mins after sunset
b. 15 mins before sunrise to 15 mins after sunset
c. 45 mins before sunrise to 45 mins after sunset
d. 60 mins before sunrise
42. ‘RPL’ shall be used for _______ flights only.
a. VFR Flts
b. Domestice flights
c. IFR Flts
d. International Flight
43. ‘Rockets (or) shells throwing red lights, fired one at a time at short intervals from an aircraft
indicate _______
a. Urgency
b. Priority
c. Distress
d. Over flying danger area
a. Wing tip vortices are carried by the ambient wind.
b. Wing tip vortices have a circular and downward motion.
c. Wake turbulence exists behind all aeroplanes and helicopters in flight.
d. Response (a), (b), (c) are correct.
a. heavy aeroplanes only, regardless of their speed.
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b. Turbo-jet powered aircraft only.
c. Fast moving aeroplanes only, regardless of their weight.
d. all fixed and rotary wing aircraft.
46. A helicopter in forward flight produces hazardous vortices
a. Which rise above the helicopter.
b. Similar to wing tip vortices.
c. Which remains at the same level as the helicopter.
d. ahead of the helicopter
a. red flags
b. horizontal red squares with yellow diagonals
c. a white or yellow X
d. white dumb- bells.
48. Runway direction designator is
a. QDM
b. QDR
c. QTE
d. QNH
a. Unidirectional red lights
b. Omni directional yellow lights
c. Unidirectional green lights
d. Omni directional blue lights
a. 1500 Kg
b. 5700 Kg
c. 10,000 Kg
d. 57,000 Kg
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Regulation Paper – 7
1. If a passenger falls sick on board an A/C and he is suspected of any infectious disease then
PIC’s action is
a. To land immediately
b. To inform health officer of destination aerodrome atleast two hrs before landing
c. To inform doctor on board
d. off load passenger
a. Aerodrome officer
b. Local District Magistrate
c. Operator
d. DGCA
3. If you see an aircraft on relative bearing of 2700 with its red light than PIC’s action is
a. Turn right
b. Turn left
c. Maintain heading and Speed
d. Give way
4. An aircraft is crossing at right angle from left to right then the light seen by you, as PIC is
a. Yellow
b. Red
c. Green
d. White
5. If an aircraft in circuit has R/T failure then the visual indication by pilot is
a. Rock ailerons
b. Circle over aerodrome
c. Rock wings
d. land
a. True North
b. Compass North
c. Magnetic North
d. North Pole
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7. Survivors on land requiring assistance indicate it to A/C in air by
a. W
b. X
c. Y
d. V
8. Survivors on ground sighted by aircraft in air will indicate the same to them by
a. Flying low
b. Ciraling
c. Rocking wings
d. Steep trun
9. Emergency VHF frequency is
a. 118.6 MHz
b. 122.7 Mhz
c. 121.5 MHz
d. 127.0 MHz
10. Either arm or hand level with shoulder, hand across throat, palm down ward indicates
a. Slow down
b. Cut Engine
c. Start engine
d. Stop
a. 4000’ AMSL
b. 4000 AGI
c. 300- above ground level
d. 3000 AMSL
12. Semi-circular system of cruising level is upto
a. F 450
b. F 460
c. F 480
d. F 490
13. DME separation between A C on same track same level and in same direction is
a. 10 NM
b. 20 NM
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c. 15 NM
d. 5 NM
14. White crossing ATS routes the crossing will be done at ______ angles to the route
a. 700
b. 1100
c. 900
d. 450
a. 10 mins
b. 15 mins
c. 20 mins
d. 5 mins
16. Separation between climbing A/C, which is one crossing track of another A/C is
a. 10 mins
b. 15 mins
c. 5 mins
d. 20 mins
17. ATC will inform FIC/ACC when A/C does not land within ________ minutes of ETA
a. 30 Mins
b. 10 mins
c. 5 Mins
d. 20 mins
18. If apprehension exists as to the safety of A/C and its occupants then it is called as
a. Distress phase
b. Uncertainty phase
c. Alert phase
19. With in controlled airspace below 3000 feet visibility reqd for VFR is
a. 3000 mts
b. 5000 mts
c. 3700 mts.
d. 1500 mts
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20. Route Navigation charges are based on
a. Length of ac
b. Number of passengers
c. All up weight of ac
d. nav-aids enroute
21. Operator should maintain CVR records for
a. 30 mins
b. 1 hr
c. 2 hrs.
d. 3 hrs.
22. On X- country flight where reporting points are not available then reporting shall be made
after every _______ min in VMC
a. 15 mins
b. 30 mins
c. 45 mins
d. 60 mins
23. you are descending from F-200 to 12000 over Delhi 13000’ will be reported as ______
a. Altitude
b. F 130
c. AMSL
d. AGL
24. Information about aerodromes is contained in __________ document.
a. Annex 2
b. Annex 11
c. Annex 14
d. Doc 4444
25. Total numbers of RC centers in India are
a. 4
b. 5
c. 6
d. 7
26. Third section of ‘Air Report’ contains
a. ATC information
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b. Position reports
c. Met information
d. route information
27. 2700 comes in _______ quadrant.
a. second
b. third
c. first
d. fourth
28. Approach Control Service is provided with in
a. CTA
b. CTR
c. CTZ
d. TMA
29. The visibility minima for take off, if the aerodrome is equipped with VOR is ______ km
a. 5 Kms.
b. 3.7 Kms.
c. 1.5 Kms.
d. 3 Kms.
30. Mathura Refinery is a _______ area

a. Danger Area
b. Restricted Area
c. Prohibited Area
d. Terminal
31. An aircraft on a Special VFR flight has been cleared for “straight in” approach Because of low
ceiling and poor visibility, the pilot is concerned about the exact location of a radio mast in the
vicinity. Avoiding this obstruction is the responsibility
a. of the pilot
b. of the tower controller as the controller is aware of the obstruction.
c. of ATC as the pilot has been given Special VFR clearance
d. shared equally by the pilot and the controller
32. The wing tip vortices generated by a heavy aeroplane can cause a lighter aircraft encountering
them to
a. go out of control
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b. continue descent even when maximum power is applied
c. sustain structural damages
d. experience any of the above situations.
a. before rotation
b. with rotation
c. after becoming airborne
d. with full power application.
34. Which statement concerning vortices caused by helicopters is correct?
a. Helicopter vortices are generally weak and dissipatc rapidly
b. The size of the helicopter has little bearing on the intensity of the vortices
c. Helicopter vortices are less intense than the vortices of an aeroplane of the same
weight.
d. Wind does not influence the movement of vortices generated by a helicopter in
hovering flight.
a. normally referred to as the ramp or apron
b. which includes the apron taxiways and runways
c. used when taxiing to and from the parking area
d. used for taxiing taking off and landing.
applies?
d. Helicopters shall give way to gliders
37. Two aircraft are on approach to land, the following aircraft shall
a. climb
b. descend
c. alter heading to the right
d. alter heading to the left.
38. Where ATIS is available the information which should be included on first contact with ATC
is the
a. Phrase “With the numbers”
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b. Phase “ATIS received”
c. Phase “With the information”
d. ATIS phonic identifier.
39. A pilot receives the following ATC clearance “CLEARED TO LAND TURN RIGHT AT
THE FIRST INTERSECTION” The pilot should
a. land and attempt to turn off even though the speed is considered too high to safely
accomplish the turn.
b. Complete a touch and go if it is not possible to accomplish the turn.
c. land and turn off at the nearest intersection possible commensurate with safety
d. land and do a 1800 and taxi back to clear the runway at the required.
40. What should be including along with the call sign of the aircraft and time to indicate
cancellation of a distress message?
a. MAYDAY, MAYDAY, MAYDAY, ALL STATIONS, DISTRESS TRAFFIC
ENDED, OUT
b. MAYDAY, ALL STATIONS, ALL STATIONS, SILENCE, FINISHED, OUT
c. MAYDAY CANCELLED, MAYDAY CANCELLED, MAYCAYCANCELLED.
d. ALL STATIONS, ALL STATIONS, ALL STATIONS, EMERGENCY OVER.
41. When filling a VFR flight plan with an intermediate stop, the total elapsed time to be entered
is the total
a. elapsed time for all legs including the duration of the intermediate stop.
b. elapsed time for all legs, plus the intermediate stop, plus 45 minutes.
c. flight time for all legs.
d. elapsed time to the first landing plus intermediate stops.
42. An ATC clearance
a. is the same as an ATC instruction.
b. is in effect advice provided by ATC and does not require acceptance or
acknowledgement by the PIC.
c. requires compliance when accepted by PIC
d. must be complied with when received by the PIC
43. If all or part of an ATC clearance is unacceptable a pilot should
a. comply as best as possible under the circumstances
b. refuse the clearance without giving a reason for refusal.
c. acknowledge the clearance and read back only the acceptable parts
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d. refuse the clearance and inform ATC of the pilots intensions
44. An aircraft cruising VFR in level flight above F 290 on a track of 290 deg M shall be flown at
a. F 295, F 315, F 335, F 355.
b. F 320, F 360, F 400, F 440.
c. F 310, F 350, F 390, F 430.
d. F 300, F 340, F 380, F 420.
45. An aircraft flying in accordance with Special VFR would by flying within
a. a Control Zone
b. an Aerodrome Traffic Zone
c. a Terminal Control Area.
d. an airway.
46. A series of red flashes directed at an aircraft means respectively:
IN FLIGHT ON THE GROUND
a. airport unsafe, do not land taxi clear of landing area in use
b. give way to other aircraft and continue circling stop
c. do not land for time being return to starting point on airport
d. you are in prohibited area, alter course stop
47. A steady green light directed at an aircraft means respectively

a. cleared to land cleared to taxi
b. return for landing cleared to taxi
c. return for landing cleared for take off
d. cleared to land cleared for take off
48. VFR flight in class F airspace above 3000’ msl and below 10,000 MSL
a. Provided flight visibility is 1500 m.
b. Provided flight visibility is 3000 m.
c. Provided flight visibility is 5000 m.
d. Provided flight visibility is 8000 m.
49. A prohibited area means an area over which
a. Flight within 2 miles is prohibited
b. Flight of aircraft is totally prohibited.
c. Low flying is prohibited.
d. Only instrument flying practice can be done.
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a. Inside a hanger
b. Inside a hanger or building under supervision after taking adequate precautions.
c. In the open
d. Wherever adequate facility exists.
PAPER NO. 8
1. The minimum age for issue of CPL is:

a. 17 yrs.
b. 18 yrs.
c. 19 yrs.
d. 20 yrs.
2. If CPL holder is 40 years old, his license can be renewed for a period of
a. One yrs
b. 5 yrs
c. Two yrs.
d. 3 yrs.
3. ICAO stands for:
a. International Convention on Air Organisation.
b. International Civil Aviation Organisation.
c. International Civil Airport Organisation.
d. Indian Civil Aircraft Organisation.
b. May take off if the forced landing was not due to any factor effecting the safe
operation of the aircraft.
c. Must not take off till permission is obtained from DGCA
d. Must take off after clearance from nearly aerodrome officer
5. An overtake aircraft whether climbing, descending or in horizontal flight, shall keep out of the
way of the other aircraft by:
a. Decreasing its speed.
b. Increasing its speed.
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c. By altering the heading to the right
d. by alerting the heading to the left.
6. A special VFR flight may be authorized to operate locally within a control zone, provided the
aircraft is equipped with a functional radio receiver and the pilot has agreed to guard the
appropriate frequency, when the ground visibility is not less than:
a. 5 kms.
b. 3 kms.
c. 1.5 kms
d. 1.87 kms.
7. Minimum crew required on private aircraft is
a. One pilot
b. Two pilots
c. As specified in it’s certificate of the Airworthiness.
d. The flight instructor along with private pilot.
a. Area control
b. Aerodrome Control.
c. Approach Control.
d. Flight Information control.
9. Vertical separation between a/c on reciprocal hdg above F 290 is
a. 2000 ft.
b. 1000 ft.
c. 4000 ft.
d. 3000 ft.
10. Anti-collision light is required for a/c whose AUW exceeds
a. 1500 kg.
b. 5700 kg.
c. 10000 kg.
d. 14,000 kg.
11. Max flying hours for a flight crew in one years is
a. 200 hrs.
b. 900 hrs.
c. 1200 hrs.
d. 1000 hrs.
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12. If you see an aircraft on relative bearing of 270 with its red light then PIC’s action is
a. Turn right
b. Turn left
c. Maintain heading and speed.
d. Give way
13. Either arm or hand level with shoulder, had across throat, palm down ward indicates:
a. Slow down
b. Cut engines
c. Start engines
d. Stop.
14. While crossing ATS routes the crossing will be done at _ angles to the route
a. 700
b. 1100
c. 900
d. 450
15. If annrehension exists as to the safety of a/c and its occupants then it called as
a. Distress phase
b. uncertainty phase
c. Alert phase
d. None of the above.
16. An aircraft should not cross behind a jet aircraft, less than
a. 100’
b. 200’
c. 150’
d. 300’
17. A flight, which exceeds Mach number-1, cannot fly over
a. Populated areas
b. Indian Air Space
c. Europe
d. High seas
18. Incubation period of Chicken Pox is
a. 14 days
b. 7 days
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c. 8 days
d. 9 days
19. Indian airspace comes under _________ class of airspace
a. A&B
b. D&E
c. A, B, C, & D
d. D, E, F, & G
20. Semi-circular rules starts from flight level
a. 140.
b. 10.
c. 150.
d. 290.
21. Flight navigator shall be carried, if the flight is more than _______ NM and no Nav aid is
present with in _______ Nm of route
a. 300 NM, 600 NM.
b. 600 NM, 60 NM.
c. 600 NM, 30 NM.
d. 300 NM, 60 NM.
22. Taxiway Centre line light shall be of the following colour

a. White
b. Red
c. Blue
d. Green
23. Minimum vertical separation in mountainous area for aircraft flying IFR flights is
a. 1000’ with in 5 km radius of the aircraft
b. 1500’ AGL
c. 2000’ within 8 Km of the estimate position of the a/c
d. none of these
24. No scheduled flight carrying passengers is permitted to fly with in ___ NM of International
Border
a. 15 km
b. 5 NM
c. 10 NM
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d. 15 NM
25. Penalty for flying so as to cause danger is
a. Imprisonment for a term upto 6 months
b. Fine upto Rs. 1000
c. Imprisonment for a term upto 6 months, or with fine upto Rs. 1000 or both
d. Imprisonment upto 2 months or fine upto Rs. 500 or will both.
26. A passenger transport aircraft with 250 seats departs on a flight with a passenger load of 136.
The number of flight attendants required is
a. 5
b. 3
c. 6
d. 10
27. When approaching an airfield within a TMA ( Terminal Control Area) the altimeter setting to
be used, having passed through the transition altitude is
a. Airfield QNH
b. Airfield QFE
c. Regional QNH
d. Regional QFE
28. The maximum permitted flight time for flight crew is

a. 69 hours in the 27 days prior to the flight
b. 100 hours in the 27 days before the current flight
c. 1000 hours in the year up to the end of the month prior to the present flight
d. 1200 hours in the year upto end of the month prior to present flight
29. A series of red flashes sent to an aircraft in flight means
a. Aerodrome unsafe, do not land
b. Return to the airfield and land
c. Give way to another aircraft and remain in the circuit
d. Notwithstanding any other instructions do not land at the moment
30. Airfield elevation is the altitude of the
a. Highest point on the airfield
b. highest point on the landing area
c. highest point on the runway
d. Lowest point on the maneuvering area
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31. An aircraft may be cleared to land on a runway before the preceding aircraft has cleared,
provided
A. That it is daylight
b. That it is daylight and the preceding aircraft is clearly visible throughout the landing
period
c. It is in VMC
d. There is a reasonable assurance the runway will be clear by the time landing
threshold is crossed
32. A public transport aircraft shall not take-off unless the following minima for the departure
airfield are satisfactory
a. Cloud base and visibility
b. Cloud ceiling and RVR
c. Cloud base and RVR
d. MDH and RVR
33. With regard to flight time limitations, “ flight time’ means
a. The total time from when an aircraft first moves under its own power for the
purpose of taking off until it comes to rest after the flight
b. The time between take-off and landing
c. The time between an aircraft starting to move and coming to a complete stop plus one
and a half hours
d. The time from crew report to 30 minutes after landing
34. A black letter “C” on a yellow background indicates
a. The location of ATC on an airfield
b. The location where visiting pilots should report
c. The location of the control tower
d. Rest-room facilities for visiting pilots
35. The retinal size of an aircraft approaching on a collision course
a. Remain the same as the aircraft approaches
b. Decreases at a uniform rate as the aircraft approaches
c. Increases at a very slow rate until shortly before impact
d. Increases at a uniform rate as the aircraft approaches
36. After a general anaesthetic one should not fly for
a. 72 hours
b. 12 hours
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c. 24 hours
d. 48 hours
37. Class “G” airspace in India
a. Is a controlled airspace where Air traffic advisory service is provided to both IFR &
VFR flights
b. Is an uncontrolled airspace where only flight information service is provided to
both IFR & VFR flights.
c. Is an airspace of defined dimension where IFR flights are provided Air Traffic
Advisory service and VFR flight receive flight information service
d. Includes controlled and uncontrolled airspaces.
38. Air plane A is overtaking airplane B. Which airplane has the right-of-way?
a. Airplane A: pilot should after course to the right to pass
b. Airplane B: the pilot should expect to be passed on the right
c. Airplane B: the pilot expect to be passed on the left
39. What is the minimum visibility requirement in India under special VFR operation in Class D
airspace below 10000 feet
a. -Day- 2 Km
b. -Day- 3 Km
c. -Day- 1.5 Km when so prescribed by appropriate ATS authority
d. -Day- 1 Km
40. Wake turbulence is near maximum behind a jet transport just after takeoff because
a. the engines are at maximum thrust output at slow air speed
b. the rear and flap configuration increases the turbulence to maximum.
c. of the high angle of attack and high gross weight
d. Lift is greater than the drag
a. The lowest published altitude, which meets obstacle clearance requirements and
assures acceptable navigational signal coverage.
b. Lowest published altitude, which meets obstacle requirements assures acceptable
navigational signal coverage, two- way radio communications, and provides adequate
radar coverage.
c. An altitude, which meets obstacle clearance
d. An altitude which ensures minimum 1000’ clearance from all obstacles
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a. the sole responsibility of the ATC
b. the sole responsibility of the pilot, only when advised by ATC of the possibility of
wake turbulence.
c. a responsibility shared by both the pilot and ATC
d. the sole responsibility of the pilot
a. before rotation
b. following take-off
c. above its flight path.
d. following full power application.
44. What colour navigation light would a pilot see on an aircraft which he is overtaking at night
a. Red.
b. yellow.
c. Green.
d. White.
45. Under what circumstances should an aircraft giving way alter its course to the left?
a. At all times
b. Only when overtaking in the air
c. Only when overtaking on the ground
d. Never
46. What does a flashing white light from ATC indicate to the pilot of a taxiing aircraft?
a. Clear the landing area immediately
b. Taxi to the holding point for the runway in use.
c. Hold your position and await a flashing green light.
d. Return to the starting point on the aerodrome.
47. If a marshaller holds his hand down and waves is right arm continually upwards and
backwards, what does he want the pilot to do?
a. Turn right while moving forward
b. Turn left while moving forward
c. Start the left engine
d. Start the right engine
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collision, Apart from monitoring the other aircraft actions, what else must he do?
a. Maintain heading, speed and altitude.
b. Maintain heading, and altitude only.
c. Maintain altitude and speed only.
d. Maintain heading, and speed only.
49. Which of the following air traffic services require the pilot to obey ATC instructions if he is
receiving the service?
a. Radar Control & Radar Advisory Service
b. Radar Control only
c. Radar Advisory Service & Radar Information Service
d. Radar Control & Procedural Control
50. ICAO Annex 2 lists the Rules of the Air. Where do they apply?
a. Over the high seas only
b. Everywhere unless they conflict with the laws of State being over flown
d. Everywhere except in JAA States.
PAPER NO. 9
a. dissipate completely
b. Dissipate rapidly
c. Dissipate slowly
d. remain at cruising altitude.
a. before rotation
b. following take-off
c. above its flight path.
d. following full power application.
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aeroplane that had just taken off?
a. could one vortex to remain over the runway for some time
b. would rapidly dissipate the strength of both vortices
c. would rapidly clear the runway of all vortices
d. would not ……….. the lateral movement of the vortices.
a. 09
b. 90
c. 27
d. 270
applies?
a. Gliders shall give way to helicopters.
b. Aeroplanes shall give way to power-driven heavier- then aircraft
c. Gliders shall give way to aeroplanes.
d. Power- drives heavier thatn-air aircraft shall give way to Gliders.
6. When converging at approximately the same altitude
a. balloons shall give way to hang gliders.
b. aeroplanes … wing gliders shall give way to balloons.
c. balloons shall give way to gliders.
d. balloons shall give way to airships.
7. ATIS is normally provided
a. to replace ………
b. to relieve frequency congestion
c. for the ……… updating of weather forecasts.
d. only when ….. conditions exist at airports.
8. A pilot flying a heading of 2700 receives the following message from ATC, “Traffic 2’O
clock , t miles “ eastbound” This information indicates the traffic is
a. 600 to the left, altitude unknown.
b. 600 to the right, altitude unknown.
c. 900 to the right, at same altitude
d. 900 to the left, at same altitude .
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9. You advise ATC that you are on the downwind leg. If there is other traffic in the circuit ATC
will then
a. inform you of your number in the approach sequence or other appropriate
instructions
b. inform you the runway in use, wind and altimeter.
c. advise you of all other circuit traffic
d. clear you to land.
10. Estimated elapsed time A to B 2 hr 15 minutes.
Estimate elapsed time B to C 2 hr 20 minutes
using the above information, what time should be entered in the “ Elapsed Time” BOX
OF VFR flight plan?
a. 5 hrs 50 minutes.
b. 5 hrs 20 minutes.
c. 5 hrs 05 minutes
d. 4 hrs 35 minutes.
11. How is an intermediate stop indicated on the flight plan form for a VFR flight?
a. By including duration of the intermediate stop in “Elapsed Time” box as ATC
automatically checks time between points
b. Same as any VFR flight plan if the intermediate time does not exceed 30 minutes at
each point.
c. By representing the name of intermediate stop and its duration in the “Route”
column.
d. By simply indicating “ Intermediate Stop” in “ Other Information” column.
12. An ATC clearance is predicated on known traffic only. Therefore, when a pilot is proceeding
in accordance with a clearance or instruction.
a. ATC is relieved of the responsibility for traffic separation.
b. the responsibility for traffic separation is divided between ATC and the pilot.
c. the pilot is not relieved of the responsibility for traffic avoidance
d. the pilot is relieved of the responsibility for traffic avoidance.
13. When issued a clearance to land and hold of an intersecting runway, pilots
a. shall comply regardless of the circumstances
b. may taxi across the intersection after the departing or arriving aircraft has cleared their
path.
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C. Who inadvertently go through the intersection should immediately do a 180 deg turn
and backtrack to the hold position.
d. should immediately inform ATC if they are unable to comply
14. A Control Zone normally is controlled airspace extending upwards from
a. 2,200 feet above the surface of the earth
b. 7,00 feet above the surface of the earth.
c. the surface of the earth to a specified upper limit.
d. a specified height above the surface of the earth.
15. When on VFR flight within controlled airspace, a pilot must remain clear of clouds by at least
a. 5,00 feet vertically and 1.5 km horizontally.
b. 5,00 feet vertically and 2000 feet horizontally.
c. 1,000 feet vertically and 1.5 km horizontally.
d. 1,000 feet vertically and 3 km horizontally.
16. A steady red light directed at an aircraft means
a. Give way to other aircraft & continue stop
b. give to other aircraft & continue taxi clear of landing area in use.
c. airport unsafe do not land taxi clear landing area in use
d. airport unsafe do not land stop
17. A VFR flt takes off from Jaipur at 1040 hrs for Ahmedabad. Sunset time at Ahmedabad is
1232 hrs. What is the maximum flying time available to the p-i-c to land at Ahmedabad?
a. 1 hr and 52 mins
b. 1 hr and 22 mins
c. 2 hrs 02 mins
d. 2 hrs and 22 mins
18. The holder of a PPL cannot fly IFR unless.
a. Specifically permitted by DGCA
b. Specifically permitted by control tower.
c. He has instrument rating.
d. He has R/T on board.
19. An aircraft not fitted with navigation lights cannot be flown
a. At any time.
b. During hours of night
c. Without permission of aerodrome officer.
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d. without permission from the DGCA.
20. Series of Red flashes from control tower when aircraft is in flight means
a. Aerodrome is closed.
b. Aerodrome is unsafe, do not land
c. Give way to other aircraft and continue circling.
d. Disregard previous instruments, do not land for the time being.
21. Landing and housing charges are payable by private aircraft according to
a. Seating capacity of the aircraft
b. Number of passengers on board the aircraft.
c. All-up weight of the aircraft.
d. No charges are levels : if free passengers are carried.
22. The member of operating crew shall not have taken alcoholic drinks
a. 6 hrs before commencement if flight.
b. 12 hrs before commencement if flight.
C. 24 hrs before commencement if flight.
d. 36 hrs before commencement if flight.
23. While refueling is in progress, no naked light be brought within
A. 35 mtrs.
b. 30 m.
c. 100 mtrs.
d. 43 m.
24. A person can bring unto India human remains of a person who may have died of plague
a. If enclosed in a wooden box
b. If enclosed in a shell of zinc.
c. If enclosed in a hermetically sealed shell if zinc after permission id obtained from
proper authority.
d. Cannot bring them
25. Flight plan must be filed
a. For all flights
b. For schedule flights only.
c. For training flights only
d. IFR flights proposed to be conducted in controlled airspace only.
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26. The letter ‘C’ displayed vertically in black against a yellow background indicates the location
of the
a. Control Tower.
b. Airline movement control.
c. Aircraft services briefing office.
d. Air traffic services reporting office.
27. One of the objectives of Air Traffic Control Services is to
a. Provide weather and information to aircraft in need of such information.
b. Prevent collision on the maneuvering area between aircraft and obstruction on
that area.
c. Notify appropriate organization regarding aircraft in need of search and rescue.
d. Provide advice and information useful for the safe and efficient conduct of the aircraft.
28. All the flights at night must be conducted in accordance with IFR.
a. When the aircraft is flown at or above F 150
b. If weather condition do not permit VMC operation.
c. If aircraft is flown within a controlled airspace.
d. Irrespective of weather condition and flight level.
29. Horizontal separation of aircraft as same cruising level and in same track by time is
a. 30 min.
b. 20 min.
c. 10 min.
d. 15 min.
30. Letter ‘W’ in air routes designates.
a. Domestic Routes.
b. International Routes.
c. Route in western routes.
d. Area navigation routes.
a. QDM.
b. QDR.
c. QTE.
d. QFE.
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32. Colour specification of rotating aerodrome beacon
a. Alternate white and red.
b. Blue
c. Alternate white and green.
d. Green.
33. If a passenger fall sick on board an a/c and he is suspected of any infectious disease then PIC’s
action is
A. TO land immediately.
b. To inform health officer of destination aerodrome at least two hrs before landing.
c. To inform DGCA.
d. To inform doctor on board.
34. An Aircraft is crossing at right angle left to right then the light seen by you, as PIC is
a. Yellow.
b. Red.
c. Green.
d. White.
a. 4000’ AMSL.
b. 4000’ AGL.
c. 3000’ above ground level.
d. 3000’ AMSL.
a. 10 mins.
b. 15 mins.
c. 20 mins.
d. 5 mins.
37. In class ‘D’ airspace visibility required for VFR flight below 10000’ft.
a. 8000 mts.
b. 5000 mts.
c. 3700 mts.
d. 1500 mts.
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38. On a X-country flight where reporting points are not available position report shall be made
every ______ min in IMC.
a. 60 mins.
b. 30 mins.
c. 15 mins.
d. 45 mins.
39. Second section of “Air Report” contains
a. ATC information.
b. Position Report.
c. Met information.
d. Operational Information.
40. Special Air Report is made by
a. Aerodrome officer
b. Meterology officer at Airport
c. An Aircraft
41. Runway end lights appears as
a. Unidirectional green
b. Omni directional red
c. Unidirectional red.
d. Unidirectional amber
42. The incubation period of relapsing fever is ______
a. 6
b. 7
c. 8
d. 10.
a. 5 mins
b. 10 mins
c. 3 mins
d. 2 mins.
44. Separation between medium a/c taking off behind heavy a/c of (or) light a/c taking off behind
medium a/c is
a. 02 mins.
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b. 5 mins.
c. 3 mins.
d. 1 mins.
45. No unauthorized person must be within ________ mtr of a/c while refueling is going on
a. 15 mts.
b. 30 mts.
c. 50 mts.
d. 10 mts.
46. Fresh ADC is required in case the flight is delayed by
a. 10 mins
b. 15 mins.
c. 30 mins.
d. 60 mins.
47. The percentage of Co-pilot flying to be counted to wards the renewal of CPL as PIC is
a. 50%
b. 80%
c. 60%
d. 100%
48. An Air-miss report made by radio ( or) telephone must be confirmed with in
a. 2 days
b. 4 days
c. 7 days
d. 10 days
49. In India night starts from
a. 20 mts. After sunset
b. 30 mts. After sunset
c. 20 mts. before sunset
d. 30 mts. before sunset
50. For an aircraft having seating capacity of 215 passengers, in number of cabin attendants
required is
a. 6
b. 5
c. 4
d. 7.
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PAPER NO. 10
1. A pilot, after accepting a clearance and subsequently finding that all or part of the clearance
cannot be compiled with should
a. disregard the clearance.
b. comply with only the part that is suitable.
c. comply as best as possible under the circumstances to carry out the clearance and need
not say anything to ATC
d. comply as best as possible under the circumstances and advice ATC as soon as
possible.
2. After accepting a clearance and subsequently finding that it cannot complied with, a pilot
should
a. take any immediate action required and advice ATC as soon as possible
b. comply as best as possible under the circumstances and say nothing to ATC.
c. disregard the clearance.
d. comply with the suitable parts.
3. “Controlled Airspace” means as airspace of defined dimensions within which
a. Control Zone regulations are in force.
b. security regulations are in force.
c. Special VFR flight only is permitted.
d. an ATC service is provided.
4. A series of green flashes directed at an aircraft means respectively

a. Cleared to land cleared to taxi
b. return for landing cleared for take off
c. return for landing cleared to taxi
d. cleared to land cleared for take-off
5. A flashing white light directed at an aircraft on the maneuvering area of an airport means
a. stop
b. return to starting point on the airport
c. cleared to taxi
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d. taxi clear of landing area in use.
6. Blinking runway lights advises vehicles and pedestrians to
a. return to the apron
b. vacate the runways immediately
c. be aware that an emergency is in progress continue with caution.
d. be aware that an emergency is in progress hold your position
7. The starboard navigation light of an aircraft is visible over an arc of
a. 70 Degrees.
b. 140 Degrees.
c. 110 Degrees.
d. 220 Degrees.
8. The holder of a private pilot’s license can fly any aircraft.
a. Provided its all-up weight does not exceed 1500 kgs.
b. Provided its all-up weight does not exceed 1500 kgs. And the pilot has completed at
least 40 hours of flying time.
c. Provided the owner has no objections.
d. Which is endorsed on his license.
9. For the issue of Private Pilot’s License, the total flight time required is
a. 60 hours out of which 40 hours will be solo.
b. 40 hours out of which 20 hours will be solo.
c. 20 hours out of which 10 hours will be solo.
d. 5 hours within preceding 12 months.
10. Smoking on a private aircraft is permitted
a. Provided the owner has no objection.
b. Provided permitted by the aerodrome officer
c. Without restricted if no passengers are carried.
a. If the sale deed is not yet completed
b. For purpose of test flight only, prior to purchase
c. If it is used for Govt. Work.
d. If specially permitted in writing by the central govt
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12. Whoever will fully flies an aircraft in such a manner as to cause danger to any person or any
property shall be punishable with
a. Imprisonment for a term which may extend to six months or with fine which may
extend to one thousand rupees or with both.
b. Imprisonment upto three months and fine upto Rs.1000/- or both.
c. Imprisonment upto three months and fine upto Rs.500/- or both.
d. Imprisonment upto two years and fine upto Rs.1000/- or both.
13. Photography at an aerodrome can be done with prior permission in writing from
a. Aerodrome office.
b. DGCA.
c. Central Govt.
d. Defence Ministry
14. A PPL holder can fly an aircraft with passengers on board at night provided he has completed
a. 10 landing & 10 T/O, at night within preceding 6 months.
b. 5 landing & 5 T/O, at night within preceding 6 months.
c. 5 landing & 10 T/O, at night within preceding 12 months.
d. 10 landing & 10 T/O, at night within preceding 12months.
15. When two power driven aircraft are in crossing course, the responsibility of avoiding collision,
rests with
a. Heavier a/c
b. Lighter a/c
c. The a/c which has the other a/c to its right
d. The a/c which has the other a/c to its left.
16. The a/c approaching to land at an aerodrome changes its altimeter subscale setting to QNH
setting while crossing
a. Transition altitude
b. Transition level
c. Sector safety altitude.
d. Route safety altitude.
17. An a/c flying low due to thunder storm for safety reasons can be sued by
a. State Govt.
b. Municiple Corporation.
c. Owner of the property over which it is flying.
d. Cannot be sued.
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18. During the distress phase an a/c
a. Switches on and off its landing lights.
b. Speaks MAY DAY on R/T
c. Speaks PAN on R/T
d. Selects SSR mode a code 7000.
19. When flying in IMC outside a regular route, an aircraft should report its position to the
appropriate ATS unit.
a. Every 30 mts.
b. Every one hour.
c. On crossing every NDB or VOR Station.
d. As and when convenient
20. Min. width of runway centre line stripes for Cat 1 runways is
a. 0.3 mts.
b. 0.6 mts.
c. 0.45 mts.
d. 0.9 mts.
21. Aircraft intending to fly in formation
a. Cannot fly
b. Can fly during daytime
c. Can fly with permission for DGCA
d. Can fly with prior arrangement
22. A horizontal white dumbbell displayed in signal area means.
a. Pilot to exercise caution due bad state of the maneuvering area.
b. Aircraft are required to land, take off and taxi on runway and taxiways only.
c. Aircraft are required to land/ take off on runway only but may use grass area for
taxing.
d. Aerodrome closed.
23. An alternate aerodrome means
a. An aerodrome specified in the flight plan to which a flight may proceed when it
becomes in advisable to land at the aerodrome of intended landing.
b. Any aerodrome other than the aerodrome of intended landing which may be used by an
aircraft.
c. An aerodrome where an aircraft may be forced to land due to unavoidable
circumstances.
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d. An aerodrome situated at the same location other than the aerodrome of intended
landing.
broad day light, when aircraft are flown
a. At or above F150
b. Within controlled airspace.
c. At or above F 200
d. In designated areas or designated routes.
broad day light, when aircraft are flown
a. In class ‘C’ airspace.
b. Within controlled airspace.
c. In class A airspace
d. In designated areas or designated routes.
26. The “ Certificate of Airworthiness” of an aircraft shall be deemed to be suspended when an
aircraft
a. Is involved in an accident/incident.
c. Is modified or repaired otherwise than in accordance with the provisions of the
rules.
d. In involved in a serious violation of the rules contained in the aircraft rules.
27. While flying over high terrain or in mourtainous regions, as IFR flight shall be flown at a level
which is at least.
a. 2000 ft above the highest obstacle located within 5 kms or the estimated position of the
aircraft.
b. 1000 ft above the highest obstacle located within 8 kms or the estimated position of the
aircraft.
c. 1000 ft above the highest obstacle located within 5 kms or the estimated position of the
aircraft.
d. 2000 ft above the highest obstacle located within 8 kms or the estimated position
of the aircraft.
28. If navigational lights fail during day time then
b. Fly to destination.
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d. Continue flying.
29. A person died of cholera, his body can be brought to India if
a. Packed in a wooden box
b. Cannot be brought.
c. Sealed in zinc and packed in a wooden box. Closed in a shell of zinc, joints sealed
shell enclosed in a teak wooden box which is enclosed in zinc line box, filled with
saw dust impregnated with carbolic powder.
d. Permitted by the DGCA
30. Flight Duty Time can be extended by ______ hrs in a day
a. 3 hrs.
b. 4 hrs.
c. 5 hrs.
d. 6 hrs.
31. A light aircraft taking off behind a heavy aircraft requires a spacing of
a. 2 min
b. 3 min
c. 5 min
d. 4 min
32. FDTL for 2 crew international flight is _____ hrs and _______ landing.
a. 10 hrs and 3 landings.
b. Three hrs and 9 landings.
c. 9 hrs and 3 landings.
a. Aerodrome
b. local District magistrate
c. Operator
d. DGCA
34. Emergency …… frequency is
a. 121.5 MHz.
b. 256.0 MHz.
c. 243.0 MHz.
d. 127.0 MHz.
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35. DME separation between a/c on same track, same level and in same direction
A. 10 NM.
b. 20 NM.
c. 15 NM.
d. 5 NM.
36. Separation between climbing a/c, which is on crossing track of another a/c is
a. 10 mins.
b. 15 mins.
c. 5 mins.
d. 20 mins.
37. Route navigation charge are based on
a. Length of a/c
b. Number of passengers.
c. All up weight of a/c
d. Nav aids en-route
38. Information about rules of the air is contained in ______ ICAO document.
a. Annex 2
b. Annex 11
c. Annex 44
d. Doc 4444.
39. Semi circular rules starts from
a. F 200
b. F 150
c. F 290
d. F 10
40. Prime Minister’s house is a
a. Danger Area
b. Restricted area
c. Prohibited area
41. An a/c climbing through the transition layer will reports its height in
a. Flight Levels
b. AMSL
c. Altitudes.
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d. AGL
a. Switching on/off Nav lights.
b. Rocking wings.
d. Flying low
43. The responsibility that the radio equipment is operational before takes off lies with the
a. Flight Engineer
b. Co-pilot
c. Radio officer
d. Pilot-in-command
44. Longitudinal separation between two a/c on same track is
a. 10 mins.
b. 15 mins.
c. 05 mins
d. 20 mins.
45. Separation above F 410 is
a. 1000’
b. 3000’
c. 2000’
d. 4000’
46. Rashtrapati Bhawan is a
a. Danger Area
b. Restricted Area
c. Prohibited Area
d. Non of the above
a. 12 hrs.
b. 24 hrs.
c. 48 hrs.
d. 60 hrs.
48. ‘RPL’s shall be used for _______ flights only.
a. VFR Flights
b. Domestic Flights
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c. IFR flights
d. International Flights.
49. Log books of flight crew personnel shall be preserved for not less than _____ years after
completion.
a. 1 yr.
b. 3 yrs.
c. 5 yrs.
d. 2 yrs.
50. Incubation period for typhus is
a. 7 days
b. 5 days
c. 10 days
d. 14 days
PAPER NO. 11
1. Prohibition of flights over Mathura refinery

a. With in a radius of 1 NM.
b. With in a radius of 10 NM.
c. With in a radius of 20 NM.
d. is absolute
2. Following failure of two way radio communications the pilot should select one of the
following on the transponder
a. Mode A 7700
b. Mode A 7500
c. Mode C 2000
d. Mode A 7600
3. When two aircraft are approaching head on the rules of the air require that
a. Both aircraft alter heading to starboard
b. Both aircraft alter heading to port
c. The larger aircraft alters heading to starboard
d. The smaller aircraft alters heading to port.
4. An Instrument Rating Test is valid before renewal for
a. 6 months
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b. 13 months.
c. 12 months.
d. 2 years
5. While flying at night another aircraft reports that you are on a relative bearing of 100 degrees
from him. You should see his
a. Red navigation light
b. White navigation light
c. Green & white navigation lights
d. Green navigation light
6. A light aircraft taking off from an intermediate position on the runway after a heavy aircraft
requires a wake vortex separation of
a. 2 minutes
b. 8 minutes
c. 3 nm
d. 3 minutes.
7. EAT is the time that an aircraft
a. Is expected to join the field.
b. Is expected to leave the hold and commence its approach
c. Is expected to land
d. Is expected to leave the las en-route holding point before destination
8. Above 30000 ft the vertical separation between aircraft on reciprocal tracks will be
a. 2000 ft.
b. 1000 ft.
c. 1000 ft or 2000 ft depending on whether or not the aircraft are in RVSM airspace
d. 4000 ft.
9. An aircraft Captain should transmit special aircraft observations when he encounters
a. Severe turbulence or icing
b. Moderate turbulence, hail or Cb clouds during supersonic or transonic flight
c. Other conditions that the Captain considers may affect the safety of other aircraft
d. All of the above
10. Normal horizontal separation provided by radar units is
a. 3 nm
b. 5 nm
c. 10 nm
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d. 8 nm
11. The possible symptoms of carbon monoxide poisoning are
a. Anxiety, rapid breathing & dizziness
b. Lethargy, nausea, headache & complexion
c. Blueness of lips, impaired judgement and co-ordination
d. Excitability, tingling fingertips & loss of inhibition
12. If a pilot goes scuba diving to a depth of 30 feet for more than 10 mts, he/she should not fly
within
a. 12 hours
b. 36 hours
c. 24 hours
d. 48 hours
13. A continuous red beam directed at an aircraft from the ATC tower means
a. Airfield unserviceable, land elsewhere
b. Airfield closed, do not land
c. Do not land, give way to other aircraft and continue circling
d. Clear the landing area
14. Two aircraft of the same category are approaching an airport for the purpose of landing. The
right of way belongs to the aircraft.
a. at the higher altitude.
b. at the lower altitude, but the pilot shall not take advantage of this rule to cut in
front of or to overtake the other aircraft.
c. That is more maneuverable, and that aircraft may, with caution, move in front of or
overtake othe other aircraft
15. What is the minimum flight visibility and proximity to cloud requirements for VFR flight at
6500 feet MSL, in Class D airspace?
a. 1.5 Km visibility clear of clouds
b. 10000 feet MSL, if above 10000 feet AGL.
c. 5 Km visibility, and 1000 feet below
a. Class E
b. Class F
c. Class G
d. Class A
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17. When landing behind a large jet aircraft, at which point on the runway should you plan to
land?
a. If any crosswind, land on the windward side of the runway and prior to the jet’s
touchdown point.
b. At least 1000 feet beyond the jet’s touchdown point
c. Beyond the jet’s touchdown point.
18. At an altitude of 6500 feet MSL the current altimeter setting is 996 Hpa. The pressure altitude
would be approx.
a. 7500 feet.
b. 6000 feet.
c. 7000 feet.
d. 8000 feet.
a. dissipates immediately.
b. dissipates rapidly.
c. may persist for two minutes or more.
d. persists indefinitely.
a. heavy, landing configuration and slow speed.
b. heavy, clean configuration and slow speed.
c. light , clean configuration and slow speed.
d. heavy, take- off configuration and slow speed.
21. While flying on a magnetic track of 140 degrees the aircraft on VFR plan will select the
following levels.
a. 80
b. 95
c. 85
d. 70
22. During an initial climb in uncontrolled airspace, the altimeter setting should be
a. The local QNH
b. The local QFE
c. The Standard Pressure Setting
d. Any desired value
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23. The marshalling signal – “ arms extended overhead, palms facing inwads, arms swung from
the extended position inwards means
a. Stop
b. Chokes
c. Brakes applied
d. Cut Engines
24. An aircraft used for simulated instrument flying must have
a. A competent observer in the front seat
b. Dual controls.
c. Dual controls and a competent observer.
d. A safety pilot and dual controls
25. Which one of the following statements about aircraft ground movement is correct
a. A vehicle towing an aircraft has priority over taxiing aircraft
b. Flying machine give way to vehicles towing aircraft at all times
c. An aircraft overtaking another does so by passing on the right
d. A taxiing aircraft has priority over a vehicle towing an aircraft
26. Controlled airspace is
a. An area within a FIR only in which an ATC service is provided
b. An area within a FIR/UIR only in which an ATC service is provided

c. An area within a UIR only in which an ATC service is provided
d. An area with a lower limit which is above ground level.
27. In the airfield circuit the “finals” call is made when
a. On completion of the turn on to base leg
b. Abeam the upwind threshold of the runway
c. After completion of the turn on to final approach and not more than 4 nm from
the runway
d. When making a straight in approach at 6 nm range
28. At the correct height on the approach to runway with PAP Is pilot should see
a. Two red lights and two white
b. Four red lights
c. Four white lights
d. Three white lights and one red
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29. The maximum speed for an aircraft flying in class F or Gairspace below F 100 is
a. 250KTS IAS
b. 250Kts TAS
c. 280Kts IAS
d. 150Kts IAS
30. To indicate the existence of a fuel emergency to ATC a pilot should
a. Request “fuel priority”
b. Request “fuel emergency”
c. Request “fuel state low”
d. Declare a MAYDAY if an emergency or PAN if urgent
31. What are possible effects of hypoxia below 10000 feet?
a. None
b. Impaired mental agility only
c. Impaired mental agility below 5000 feet and night vision below 8000 feet
d. Impaired night vision below 5000 feet and mental agility below 8000 feet
32. After drinking residual alcohol can remain for upto 24 hrs in
a. The blood
b. The semi-circular canals
c. The Stomach
d. The intestines
33. Class ‘D’ airspace in India
a. Includes controlled airspace in form of terminal control area and ATS routes where
IFR traffic is provided Air Traffic Services.
b. Includes controlled airspace inform of control zone, control areas, terminal
control areas where IFR flights receive Air Traffic Control service and VFR
flights receive traffic information and traffic avoidance advice on request.
c. Extends from a specified height above control zone and aerodrome traffic zone where
separation between IFR flights is assured.
34. Two aircraft of the different category are approaching an airport for the purpose of landing.
The –of way belongs to the aircraft
a. At the higher altitude.
b. at the lower altitude, but the pilot shall not take advantage of this rule to cut in
front of or to overtake the other aircraft.
88
c. That is more maneuverable. That the aircraft may with caution move in front of or over
take aircraft.
35. VFR Flights shall be operated between
a. Sunrise to Sunset
b. 30 mts before Sunrise to 30 mts after Sunset
c. 20 mts before Sunrise to 20 mts after Sunset.
36. What wind condition prolongs the hazards of wake turbulence on a landing runway for the
longest period of time
a. Direct headwind
b. Direct tailwind
c. Light quartering tailwind
37. The altimeter indicates the aircraft altitude in relation to
a. Sea level
b. the standard datum
c. the pressure level set in the barometric window.
38. The pressure altitude at a given location is indicated on the altimeter after is set to
a. the field elevation
b. 29.92”
c. the current altimeter setting
d. the QFE setting
a. dissipate completely
b. dissipate rapidly
c. dissipate slowly
d. remain at cruising altitude
aeroplane that had just taken off
a. could cause one vortex to remain over the runway for sometime.
b. Would rapidly dissipate the strength of both vortices
c. would rapidly clear the runway of all vortices
d. would not affect the latest movement of the vortices.
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41. LDA for runway 27 at an aerodrome is 1599 mts. Pair of touchdown zone markings for this
runway will be
a. 3
b. 6
c. 4
d. 5
42. Colour of aircraft stand markings shall be
a. yellow
b. Red
c. Orange or white
d. White
43. Number of threshold stripes on a runway of 25 m width shall be
a. 4
b. 6
c. 8
d. 12
44. Colour of Intermediate holding position markings shall be
a. White
b. Red
c. Green
d. Yellow
45. Aircraft ‘A’ on F 95 crosses LLK VOR at 1105 UTC and tracks out on radial 100 deg Aircraft
‘B’ takes off From Lucknow at 1110UTC and tracks out on radial 110 deg and is climbing to
F95. The longitudinal separation required shall be
a. 5 mins if ‘A’ is 25 kts faster than B
b. 3 mins if ‘A’ is 35 kts faster than B
c. Longitudinal separation is not required
d. 20 minutes if A & B are on same speed.
46. Aircraft a Crosses DPN VOR at 1000 UTC and is on a radial 270 deg at o2NMS when aircraft
B reports established on radial 285 deg at 18 NMS. The aircraft are
a. Not separated
b. Longitudinally separated
c. Laterally separated
d. ‘B’ should turn right to avoid collision
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47. Ac ‘A’ maintaining F 250 and reports over DPN at 1100 UTC. ‘B’ wants to climb on same
track from F 210 to F 270 and estimates to reach F 270 at 1105 UTC His ETA DPN is 1106
UTC. Which of following statement is true
a. Longitudinal separation to be ensured when ‘B’ is passing through F 240, till ac
crosses F 260
b. 10 minutes separation to be ensured when ‘B’ is passing through F 240 till ac
crosses F 260
c. Lateral separation needs to be provided
d. Vertical separation is to be provided between aircraft till 1115 UTC
48. Ac ‘A’ reports 20 NMs inbound to LLK at F 150 Ac ‘B’ reports 38 NMS inbound to LLK at
same track & level ‘A’ is 15 kts faster than ‘B’. Which statement is true
a. A and B are essential traffic to each other
b. Longitudinal separation exists
c. Lateral separation exists
d. B will be advised to decrease speed by 3 kts.
49. Ac ‘A’ at F 200 is reciprocal to ‘B’ at F 190 ‘A’ can descend through ‘B’s level
a. After 5 mins of crossing each other.
b. After 5 NMS of estimated time of crossing
c. When both are in visual contact and confirm crossing each other
d. ‘A’ can descend remaining in VMC and maintaining own separation
50. An aircraft having an AUW of 14,500 kgs falls in following category
a. Heavy
b. Light
c. Medium
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PAPER NO. 12
1. Advance notification for establishment of a VOR at an airport shall be notified by means of

a. AIRAC
b. AIP
c. NOTAM
d. AIC
2. If cleared for take-off immediately following the very low approach and overshoot of large
aircraft, the pilot should
a. take off immediately otherwise the trailing vortices will descend into the flight path.
b. taxi to position on the runway and wait until it is considered safe to take-off.
c. decline take-off clearance and inform ATC of the reason for non-acceptance.
d. wait for 2 minutes after the large aircraft has passed then take-off.
a. the sole responsibility of the ATC
b. the sole responsibility of the pilot, only when advised by ATC of the possibility of
wake turbulence.
c. a responsibility shared by both the pilot and ATC
d. the sole responsibility of the pilot.
4. The pilot of a light aircraft on final approach close behind a heavier aircraft should plan the
approach to land
a. beyond the touchdown point of the other aircraft.
b. prior the touchdown point of the other aircraft.
c. at the touchdown point of the other aircraft.
d. to the right or left of the touchdown point of the other aircraft.
a. before rotation
b. with rotation
c. after becoming airborne
d. with full power application
6. Where taxiway holding positions have not been established, aircraft waiting to enter an active
runway 1000 m of length should normally hold.
a. clear of the maneuvering area.
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b. 30 m from the edge of the runway
c. 50 m from the edge of the runway
d. 60 m from the edge of the runway.
7. Which statement is true with regard to aircraft converging at approximately the same altitude
a. A jet airliner has the right of way over all other aircraft.
b. An aircraft towing objects has the right of way over all power driven heavier than
aircraft
c. An aeroplane has the right of way over all other aircraft which are converging from the
left.
d. Aeroplane towinggliders must give way to helicopters.
8. When two power driven heavier than airaircraft are converging at approximately the same
altitude.
a. the one on the left has the right of way
b. both shall alter heading to the left.
c. the one on the right has the right of way
d. the one on the right, shall give way by descending.
NOTE—QU. N0- 9 TO 16 NOT IN THESE COPY
17. Aircraft that has right of way shall

a. maintain heading and speed.
b. Turn right
c. Turn left
d. Take no action
18. A Boeing 737 aircraft in VMC is flying at F250. The PIC can
a. Cancel his IFR plan and request for a VFR plan
b. He can climb/ descend remaining in VMC and maintaining his own separation
c. He has to fly on a VFR plan only
d. He has to fly on an IFR plan only.
19. In class ‘D’ airspace, a VFR Flt at F 120 requires in flight visibility of
a. 5 kms.
b. 1.5 kms.
c. 3 kms.
d. 8 kms
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20. On a magnetic track of 000o an IFR flt can fly at
a. F 95
b. F 120
c. F 170
d. F 180
21. SIDs are used for
a. IFR departures at busy aerodromes
b. VFR flights only
c. For all aerodrome traffic
d. For all arriving aircraft
22. Ac ‘A’ is maintaining a TAS of 450 kts and Ac ‘B’ 400 kts. ‘B’ is following ‘A’ on the same
track and on same level. Min separation required is
a. 15 mins
b. 10 mins
c. 5 mins
d. 3 mins
23. ‘A’ is crossing track of ‘B’ at same level. There are two VORs one at 300 NMs E and second
at 350 NM W of the position of ac. Minimum separation required shall be
a. 20 NMs
b. 15 mins
c. 10 NMs
d. 10 mins
24. ‘A’ is 05 NMs inbound to LLK. ‘B’ is 05 NMs outbound from LLK on same track and
maintaining same TAS Separation required is
a. Longitudinal separation is existing at same level
b. Vertical separation is to be applied
c. Lateral separation exists at the same level
25. Flight plan shall be submitted at least __________ mins before departure
a. 30 mins
b. 60 mins
c. 45 mins
d. 90 mins
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26. Annex dealing with operation of Aircraft is
a. Annex 2
b. Annex 6
c. Annex 11
d. Annex 14
27. AIP contains information on
a. Aerodromes
b. Notarns
c. AIRACs
d. AICs
28. Angle of intersection of Rapid Exit Taxiways with runway should not be more than
a. 300
b. 250
c. 450
d. 600
29. Length of runway centre line stripe + gap should not be less than
a. 60 m
b. 75 m
c. 30 m
d. 50 m
30. A major early symptom of Hypoxia is
a. an increased sense of well being
b. a marked suppression of mental alertness
c. a sense of fear
d. a sense of physical weakness
a. 8000 metres.
b. 5000 metres.
c. 1500 metres.
d. There is no minimum
32. What is the maximum speed for an aircraft to fly under VFR at 8000 feet in class G airspace in
India?
a. 180 knots
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b. 250 knots
c. 350 knots
d. There is no limit
33. What is the minimum height outside congested areas at which ICAO standards permit normal
flight to take place under VFR?
a. 1000 feet above ground or objects, no minimum above water
b. 1000 feet above ground or water
c. 500 feet from any person, vessel, vehicle or structure, but no minimum height
d. 500 feet above ground or water
34. What is the minimum cruise altitude under IFR ( over non-mountainous terrain) allowed by
ICAO?
a. 1000 feet above the highest fixed object within 600 metres of its position
b. 1000 feet above the highest fixed object within 2000 metres of its position
c. 1000 feet above the highest fixed object within 8 km of its position
d. 1500 feet above the highest fixed object within 600 metres of its position
a. 7000
b. 7500
c. 7600
d. 7700
36. If a military aeroplane flies alongside you and rocks its wings, what should you do?
a. Follow it
b. Call on 121.50 MHz
c. Select 7700 on your transponder
d. All the above
37. What does a steady red light from ATC indicate to the pilot of an aircraft in flight?
a. Go-around
b. Do not land, divert
c. Land at this aerodrome after receiving a green light
d. Give way to other aircraft and continue circling
38. What light signal indicates to the pilot of an aircraft in the air that he may land?
a. A steady green light
b. A flashing green light
c. Both (a) and (b)
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d. Neither (a) nor (b)
39. What signal should the pilot use to tell his ground handler that his brakes are on?
a. Show his open hand then close it
b. Show his closed hand then open it
c. Cross his hands in front of his face
d. Place his crossed fhands in front of his face then uncross them
40. What does a white dumbbell in the signal area mean?
a. Landing prohibited
b. Take-offs, landings and taxiing must be made on paved surface only
c. Take-offs and landings must be made on paved surfaces, taxiing may be on grass
d. Make all take-offs, landings and taxiing on runways & taxiways only.
41. What ground signal indicates the runway in use to an aircraft in the air?
a. A White T in the signal area
b. White numbers in the signal area
c. Either (a) or (b)
d. Neither (a) or (b)
42. In the signals area there is a red square with a yellow diagonal. What does this mean?
a. The traffic pattern is right hand
b. All turns after take-offs and landings must be to the right
c. Landing prohibited
d. Take special care during approach and landing
43. What is defined as “Any machine that can derive support in the atmosphere from the reaction
of the air other than the reactions of the air against the earth’s surface”?
a. An aircraft
b. A flying machine
c. An airship
d. An aeroplane
44. Which type of controlled airspace touches the ground?
a. A terminal Control Area
b. An airway
c. A Control Zone
d. CTA
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45. What Air Traffic Service gives a pilot information about possible conflicting traffic but no
advice as to the correct action to take to avoid?
a. Flight Advisory Service
b. Flight Information Service
c. Radar Advisory Service & Radar Information Service
d. Radar Control & Procedural Control
46. In which Class of controlled airspace does ATC provide separation to IFR traffic from all
other traffic, no separation between VFR traffic, but VFR traffic must have clearance to enter
the airspace?
a. Class B
b. Class C
c. Class D
d. Class E
47. ATC may provide an Approach Control Service. For what traffic is it primarily provided?
a. All aircraft arriving at the aerodrome only
b. All aircraft arriving or departing the aerodrome
c. Controlled traffic arriving at the aerodrome only
d. Controlled traffic arriving or departing the aerodrome only
48. What is defined as “ A service provided within advisory airspace to ensure separation, in so
far as is practical, between aircraft which are operating on IFR flights plans.”?
a. Air Traffic Control Service
b. Air Traffic Advisory Service
c. Flight Information Service
d. Air Traffic Alerting Service
49. Cessna aircraft call sign VGA gives a call that he has a lot of smoke in the cockpit and is
going to land at a nearby field. It will be a
a. Alert phase
b. Uncertainty phase
c. Distress phase
d. Non of the above
50. The aerobatics shall be carried out not below
a. 6000’
b. 2000’
c. 5000’
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d. 1000’
AIR REGULATION PAPER NO. 13
1. Fuel required on board the propeller driven aircraft to an isolated aerodrome and there is no
suitable alternate available
a. Fly to dest + 45 mins
b. Fly to dest, + 45 mins + 15% flt time or Dest + 2 hrs, Whichever is less
c. As per operational Manual
d. Dest + 2 hrs.
a. 5 kms
b. 8 kms
c. 10 kms
d. 3 kms
3. Transition altitude at an aerodrome is above ________ Msl in India.
a. 2000’ AMSL
b. 3000’ AMSL
c. 4000’ AMSL
d. 5000’ AMSL
4. When approaching to land, all turns are to be made to
a. left
b. right
c. as per wind direction
d. as per Captain’s choice
5. The aircraft rules 1937 can be amended by
a. DGCA
b. Govt. of India
c. CAR
d. AIP
6. Change in frequency or location of navigational aids on short notice is notified through
a. Notams
b. AIRAC
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c. AIP
d. AIC
7. IFR flt shall be flown at a cruising level at or above
a. 3000’ from the ground
b. 3000’ from obstacles
c. 3000’ AMSL
d. 3000’ in controlled airspace
8. Runway end lights appear as ________ lights
a. Green
b. Blue
c. White
d. Red
9. Taxy track center line lights are
a. Red
b. Green
c. Yellow
10. IFR flight shall not be commenced if the weather at destination and alternate is
a. Above minima
b. CAVOK
c. below minima
d. IMC prevails
11. ADC is exempted for A/C flying within ______ of the aerodrome and below
a. 10 NMS, 5000’
b. 5 NMS, 1000’
c. 5 NMS, 4000’
d. 5 NMS, 3000’
12. Runway centre line lights are
a. Blue
b. White
c. Red
d. Amber
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13. Crossing of an ATS route should be at an angle of
a. 600
b. 900
c. 450
d. 300
a. Flight Levels
b. AMSL
c. Altitude
d. AGL
a. AICs
b. NOTAMs
c. AIRAC
d. AIP
16. Publicity material can be dropped from an A/c if it has the permission of
a. DM/ Commissioner of Police
b. DGCA
d. ICAO
17. A flight which exceeds Mach number -1 cannot fly over
a. Populated Areas
b. Indian Air Space
c. Europe
d. High Seas
a. 1000 lts
b. 900 lts
c. 1500 lts
d. 500 lts
19. The demolition of buildings and trees act was came into effect in year
a. 1934
b. 1937
c. 1994
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d. 1954
20. If a passenger falls sick then action by PIC is
a. Inform Operator
b. Inform health officer of destination
c. Inform doctor on board
d. Inform DGCA
21. The incubation period of relapsing fever is _______ days
a. 6
b. 7
c. 8
d. 10
a. AUW
b. Length of aircraft
c. No. of Nav Aids used
d. No. of passengers
a. Surface of earth specified upper limit
b. 5000’ to unlimited
c. Atleast 700’
a. Switching on/off Nav-lights
b. Rocking Wings
d. Flying low
25. If PIC of an a/c flying sees the red navigation flight of an a/c at a Relative bearing of 270
action of pilot
a. Turn Right
b. No action
c. Turn left
d. Give way
a. 1500 kg
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b. 15000 kg.
c. 5700 kg.
d. all ac
a. 5 mins
b. 3 mins
c. 10 mins
d. 2 mins
28. Night flying hours can be logged between
a. 20 mins after Sunset to 20 mins before Sunrise
b. 45 mins
c. 1 hr.
d. 15 mins
a. True North
b. Compass North
c. Magnetic North
d. North Pole
30. An A/C flying a track of 1800 will fly at _____ level on a IFR plan
a. F 260
b. F 185
c. F 90
d. F 170
31. If the marshaller has either arm placed level with chest and moved laterally indicates
a. Stop
b. Cut Engines
c. Continue Straight
d. Turn Off
32. If an IFR A/C is flying at 5000’ outside controlled airspace then it will fly at _______ levels
a. Semi Circular System
b. On QNH
c. On QNE
d. On quadrantal level
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33. NDB separation is
a. 150 at 15 NMs.
b. 300 at 15 NMs.
c. 450 at 15 NMs.
d. 150 at 30 NMs.
a. Not withstanding any previous instructions, do not land for the time being
c. keep circling
35. The responsibility that the radio equipment is operational before takes off lies with the
a. Flight Engineer
b. Co-pilot
c. Radio officer
d. Pilot in command
36. Aerodrome beacon light colour is
a. Alternate white & green
b. Green
c. Red
d. Alternate white & Red
37. Anti collision lights are _______ lights
a. Steady Red
b. Rotating Red
c. Flashing Red
d. Red & White
38. If an A/C flying at F 290 is descending and its altimeter reads 12000 ft then the pilot will
report its height as
a. Altitude
b. Flight level
c. On QNH
d. On QFE
39. For an IFR flt on a track of 1800 (M), FL to be selected is
a. F 230
b. F 240
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c. F 250
d. F 255
a. 15 NMs
b. 15 Mins
c. 20 NMs
d. 5 Mins
41. Operator has to preserve the contents of the flight data recorder for a period of ______ hrs
a. 3 hrs.
b. 24 hrs.
c. 25 hrs
d. 12 hrs.
42. The pilot has to inform the ATC if its TAS changes by
a. 3% & 5 kts
b. 5% & 10 kts
c. 10% & 5 kts
d. 3 kts
43. The alert phase starts when an A/C fails to land within
a. 3 mins
b. 2 mins
c. 5 mins
d. 10 mins
44. No smoking shall be permitted within ________ mtrs. Of A/C (or) fuelling equipment.
a. 15 mtrs
b. 10 mts
c. 30 mts
d. 50 mts.
45. The controller suggests a take-off from a runway intersection. The pilot must be aware that
a. the remaining runway length will not be stated by the controller.
b. it is the pilot’s responsibility to ensure that the remaining runway length is
sufficient for take-off
c. noise abatement procedures have been cancelled.
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a. dissipates immediately
b. dissipates rapidly
c. may persist for two minutes or more
d. persists indefinitely.
47. To avoid wake turbulence when taking off behind a large aircraft, the pilot should
a. remain in ground effect until past the rotation point of the large aircraft.
b. become airborne in the calm airspace between the vortices.
c. taxi until past the rotation point of the large aircraft, then take off and remain below its
climb path.
d. become airborne before the rotation point of the large aircraft and stay above its
departure path or request a turn to avoid the departure path.
a. heavy. Landing configuration and slow speed.
b. heavy, clean configuration and slow speed.
c. light, clean configuration and high speed.
d. heavy, take-off configuration and slow speed.
49. No person shall operate any vehicle on any part of an controlled airport used for the movement
of aircraft, except in accordance with permission from
a. the control tower of the airport
b. the airport security officer
c. The operator of the airport
d. A qualified flying instructor
50. When two aircraft are converging at approximately the same altitude
a. both aircraft shall alter heading to the left.
b. the aircraft on the right shall avoid the other by descending.
c. the aircraft that has the other on its right shall give way
d. the aircraft that has other on its left shall give way
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PAPER NO. 14
1. Which of the following is defined as “ The length of the take-off run available plus the length
of the stop way, if provided”
a. Take off distance available
b. Landing distance available
c. Landing run available
d. Accelerate stop distance available
2. What is the principle objective of a rescue and firefighting service?
a. To prevent the spread of fire to other aircraft and facilities
b. To minimize the damage caused by fire
c. To extinguish any fire with minimum delay
d. To save lives
3. Who is responsible for providing search and rescue facilities over land?
a. The State of Registry of the aircraft
b. The State from which the aircraft took off
c. The State in whose territory the crash occurred
d. ICAO
4. If a pilot sees the following 2.5 meter symbol on the ground what does it mean? “X”
a. A survivor requires medical assistance
b. A survivor requires general assistance
c. Affirmative
d. Negative
5. Which symbol indicates that the survivors have left the scene of the crash?
a. Y
b. V
c. ↓
d. N
6. If pilot sees the following 2.5 metre symbol on the ground, what does it mean? “V”
a. A surviver requires medical assistance
b. The survivors
c. A survivor requires general assistance
d. Negative
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7. If you fly into Severe Turbulence which flight condition should you intend to maintain
a. Constant Airspeed
b. Level flt Altitude
c. Constant Altitude and Constant Speed.
d. Constant Ground Speed.
8. Identify Runway Lighting on center line lighting system
a. Amber light from 3000’ to 1000 ft then Alternative Red and which light to the end.
b. Alternative Red and white light from 3000’ft to 100 fr and then Red light to the
end.
c. Alternative Red and white light from 3000’ ft to end of runway.
d. Red lights from 3000’ till end of runway.
9. Identify Taxi way lights associated with center line lighting system
a. Alternative Blue and White light covering from the center line of the Taxiway.
b. Blue light covering from the center line of R/Way to the center line of taxiway.
c. Alternate green & white light covering from center line of Runway to the center
line of taxiway.
D. Yellow light covering from center line of Runway to the center line of Taxiway.
10. For testing of Flt Recorder System
a. Minimum of 1 hour recorded data must be erased to get a valid test.
b. Total of more than 1 hour of recorded data may be erased.
c. Total one hour of the oldest recorded data at the time of testing may be erased.
d. None of the above.
11. En route Altitude will be determined for each stage of the route by taking 1000 ft of Terrain
clearance with in a width of
a. 5 Nms
b. 10 Kms
c. 15 Nms
d. 20 Nms
12. Aerobatic can be done below Altitude 6000 ft at least at a distance of
a. 2 NMs from the Aerodrome
b. 4 NMs from the Aerodrome
c. 5 NMs from the Aerodrome
d. 6 NMs from the Aerodrome
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13. Flt Duty Time in the event of being extended shall be limited to
a. 3 hrs.
b. 4 hrs.
c. 6 hrs.
d. 8 hrs.
14. How can Pilot flying in clouds overcome Special Disorientation
a. Use of Very rapid crosscheck of instruments
b. Avoid banking in excess of 300
c. Properly interpret Flt Instruments and act accordingly
d. Fly with reference to horizon
15. A flt-plan is required to be submitted to the appropriate ATX unit unit for
a. All Inst Flts
b. All Inst and Visual Flts
c. After 5 kms / 5 Nms
d. All controlled flts
16. Flt Crew on Domestic Flt. The Flt time should not exceed more than ______ and No. of
landing restrictions is
a. 8 hrs and 4 landings
b. 8 hrs and 6 landings
c. 9 hrs and 3 landings
17. All a/c from one FIR to another FIR should contact ATS unit responsible for providing FIS
______ mts prior to entry.
a. 60
b. 20
c. 10
d. 30.
18. Without visual Aid a pilot often interprets Centifugal Force as a sensation of
a. Fixing
b. Turing
c. Motion Reversal
d. Pushing towards seat
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19. Abrupt head movement during a prolonged constant rate turn in IMC or simulated inst.
conditions can cause.
a. Pilot Disorientation
b. False Horizon
c. Illusion of rotation or movement in an entirely different axis
d. Drowsiness or haziness
20. When instructed by ATC to hold short of Runway pilot should stop
a. with nose gear on hold line
b. so that no part of the A/C extends beyond hold line
c. so that the Flt Deck Area of A/c is even with the hold line
d. Wings are in line with hold line.
21. Take off Alternate Aerodrome shall be located from the Aerodrome of departure not more
than a distance equal to the Flt of ___ with one engine inoperative cruise speed.
a. 1 hr for 2 Eng A/c and 2 hrs or more for 3 Eng or more than 3 Eng A/c
b. 30 minutes for 2 Eng A/c and one hour for more than 3 Eng A/c
c. 2 hrs for 2 Eng A/c and 3 hr for 3 Eng A/c
d. 2 hrs for 2 Eng A/c and 1 hr for 3 or more engine A/c
22. Lowest Transition Level in India is
a. F 40
b. F 50
c. F 45
d. F 55
23. Cosmic Radiations affect a pilot flying over a height above
a. F 430
b. F 450
c. F 470
d. F 490
24. A pilot has flown 120 hrs as p-i-c inlast 29 cosecutive days. He can fly ______ on 30th day
a. 6 hrs. as p-i-c
b. 6 hrs as co-pilot
c. 8 hrs as Supernumerary pilot
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25. State aircraft includes
a. Air India Aircraft
b. Military aircraft
c. All aircraft registered in India
d. Aircraft operating in state.
26. While force landing an aircraft in a field due to engine failure, one person is killed on ground
P-in-C can be prosecuted for
a. murder
b. culpable homicide
c. negligenced
d. cannot be prosecuted
27. Instrument time includes
a. Instrument flight time only
b. Inst Ground time only
c. Both a & b
d. Insturment Ground time upto 50% only and full Inst. Flt time.
28. For landing minima considerations, following values out of the multiple RVR values are taken
into account.
a. RVR at the beginning of runway
b. RVR at the middle of runway
c. RVR at the end of the runway
d. Lowest value out of a, b, & c
29. Flight Duty time is calculated based on
a. Chokes off to Chokes on time.
b. From the time you report for duty till 30 mts after landing
c. From the time you report for the duty till 15 minutes after switch off.
d. One hour before take off till 30 mins after landing
30. Maximum age upto which a pilot can fly for remuneration is
a. 55 yrs.
b. 60 yrs.
c. 65 yrs.
d. 70 yrs.
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31. Ac ‘A’ reports 20 NMs inbound of LLK at F 150. Ac ‘B’ reports 38 NMs inbound of LLK on
same track & level. Which statement is true if A is 15 kts faster than ‘B’
a. ‘A’ & ‘B’ are essential local traffic to each other
b. Longitudinal Separation exists
c. Lateral separation exists.
d. ‘A’ will be advised to increase speed by 5 kts to achieve longitudinal separation.
32. Ac ‘A’ at F 100 is reciprocal to ‘B’ at F 90 in class ‘A’ airspace . ‘A’ can descend through
‘B’s level
a. After 5 mins of crossing each other
b. After 5 NMs of crossing each other
c. Immediately after estimated time of crossing
d. A can descend remaining in VMC & maintaining own separation
33. Separation is affected between
a. Special VFR flts & IFR flts
b. Special VFR flts & VFR flts
c. Both of the above
34. In case of an accident in the vicinity of aerodrome, rescue & fire services are alerted by
a. Control Tower
b. App. Cont
c. Area Control
d. FIC
35. The following aircraft will be given priority to land
a. An aircraft with VVIP on board
b. An aircraft with critical shortage of fuel
c. A scheduled aircraft
d. An aircraft experiencing in flight bad visibility
36. PAPI lights are operated
a. During sunset to sunrise time
b. 20 mts after sunset to 20 mins before sunrise
c. In bad visibility conditions only when associated runway is in use
d. Irrespective of the visibility during day & night when associated runway is being
used
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37. STAR is a
a. Designated IFR arrival route
b. Designated VFR arrival route
c. Designated arrival route
d. All of the above
38. A vehicle parked close to runway holding position is a ________ for taxiing aircraft
a. Aerodrome Traffic
b. Essential local traffic
c. Essential Traffic
d. Non of the above
39. ICAO document dealing with Acts of Unlawful Interference is
a. Annex 2
b. Annex 6
c. Annex 14
d. Annex 17
40. Significant differences between national regulations and ICAO procedures are published in
a. AIRAC
b. AIP
c. NOTAMs
d. AICs.
41. Letter ‘F’ in bearing strength of pavements indicates
a. Pavement type
b. Pavement subgrade
c. Evaluation Method
d. Tyre Pressure
42. If PIC of an a/c flying sees the green navigation light of an a/c at a Relative bearing of 270
then the action of Pilot
a. Turn Right
b. Maintain heading and speed
c. Turn left
d. Give way
43. Incubation period of Yellow fever is _____ days
a. 6
b. 7
113
c. 8
d. 10
44. All aircraft after take off are to turn ________ for a circuit pattern
a. Right
b. into the wind
c. left
d. along the wind
45. Indian airspace comes under ________ class of airspace
a. A&B
b. D&E
c. A,B,C, & D
d. D, E, F, & G
a. 09
b. 90
c. 27
d. 270
47. Min. width of runway centre line stripes for Cat I runways is
a. 0.3 mts.
b. 0.6 mts.
c. 0.45 mts.
d. 0.9 mts.
48. During an initial climb in uncontrolled airspace, the altimeter setting should be
a. The local QNH
b. The local QFE
c. The Standard Pressure Setting
d. Any desired value
49. A VFR flt cannot be operated

a. At F 120
b. At transonic speed
c. 100 NMs from the seashore in uncontrolled airspace
d. Across international borders
114
50. Slaughtering of animals is not permitted with in ______ of ARP
a. 10 kms
b. 10 NMs
c. 20 kms
d. 20 NMs.
115
NFTI REGS QUESTION BANK 2009
1. Runway centre line lights on a Cat II and Cat III lights are:
a) White from threshold to 600 m

b) White from threshold to 500 m
c) White from threshold to 900 m
d) White from threshold to 950 m
2. In 12 months a pilot cannot fly for more than:
a) 125 hrs
b) 1000 hrs
c) 1500 hrs
d) 1100 hrs
3. If pilot comes to know that there is a person infected with an infectious disease:
a) Go back to the departure aerodrome

b) Inform health officer of the airport 2 hrs before its arrival in India
c) Inform DGCA
d) Inform health officer of the departure airport
4. Maximum number of landings in 24 hrs on a domestic flight a pilot can make is:
a) 6
b) 9
c) 3
d) 4
5. Anti-collision lights are fitted on:
a) All aircraft
b) Aircraft having AUW more than 5700 kg
c) Not required
d) Commercial aircraft
6. Aircraft has to inform ATC if TAS varies by:
a) +10%
b) +5%
c) +20%
a) +15%
Air Regulation 1
7. While flying you observe a green light ahead of you:
a) Port light of another aircraft crossing your path

b) Another aircraft overtaking you
c) Starboard light of another aircraft crossing your path from left to right
d) Starboard light of another aircraft crossing your path from right to left
8. ICAO Annex I deal with:
a) Aeronautical charts
b) Aircraft accidents
c) Aeronautical Information Service
d) Personal Licensing
9. The rear navigation light of an aircraft should be visible through an arc of:
a) 110◦
b) 090◦
c) 180◦
d) 140◦
10. A parachute flare showing a red light means:
a) Aircraft in difficulty and requires immediate assistance

b) Aircraft is threatened by grave and imminent danger and requires immediate
Assistance
c) Aircraft is facing radio failure
d) Aircraft wants to relay urgency message
11. Cross country flight by night for the purpose of issue of CPL:
a) 150 NM and return to place of departure with one full stop landing
b) 120 NM and return to the place of departure without landing
c) 100 NM and return to the place of departure without landing
d) 300 NM with two full stop landings at different aerodromes
12. A pilot cannot take alcoholic drinks before:
a) 10 hrs of flight
b) 9 hrs of flight
c) 12 hrs of flight
d) 18 hrs of flight
Air Regulation 2
13. What is the straight departure?
a) 10◦ to the runway centre line

b) 20◦ to the runway centre line
c) 15◦ to the runway centre line
d) 30◦ to the runway centre line
14. No civil aircraft can fly within international boundary:
a) 15 NM
b) 10 M
c) 5 NM
d) 15 KM
15. Runway end lights are:
a) Red
b) White
c) Yellow
d) Blue
16. When descending through transition layer pilot will report as:
a) Flight level
b) Height
c) Altitude
d) All the three above
17. An aircraft is in FIR and before entering a controlled airspace it should inform:
a) 20 mts if in VFR and 20 mts on HF

b) 10 mts on VHF and 20 mts on HF
c) 10 mts if in VFR and 30 mts on HF
d) 15 mts on VHF and 20 mts on HF
18. There should be no unauthorized person while refueling within a distance of:
a) 10 m
b) 15 m
c) 30 m
d) 35 m
Air Regulation 3
19. Classification of airspace in India:
a) A.B.F.G.
b) C.D.E.F.
c) D.E.F.
d) D.E.F.G.
20. If a pilot is 61 yrs old and is in an airline and is having a valid medical and licence,
then he can fly an aircraft:
a) No
b) Yes
c) Yes but occasionally
d) With DGCA permission
21. What does the minima for CAT I (based on DH and RVR):
a) DH not lower than 60 M and RVR 550 M

b) DH lower than 60 M and RVR 550 M
c) DH not lower than 50 M and RVR 500 M
d) DH lower than 50 M and RVR 500 M
22. Series of white flashes by ATC, what does it mean for an aircraft:
a) Aerodrome unsafe to land

b) Give way to another aircraft continue circling
c) Return for landing
23. A series of white flashes towards an aircraft in flight from control tower:
a) Give way to another aircraft

b) Has no meaning
c) Land at this aerodrome and proceed to apron
d) Return to starting point
24. A steady white light directed towards an aircraft on the ground means:
a) Return to base
b) Nothing as per ICAO
c) Hold position to taxi at holding position
d) Give way to landing aircraft
Air Regulation 4
25. Best way to scan in VMC:
a) Sweep from right to left slowly

b) Stare at a point for some time
c) Concentrate in space at short interval
d) Sweep from left to right slowly
26. If a person dies of cholera then to bring his dead body:
a) Inform that office of aerodrome

b) Can’t bring the dead body
c) Can bring the dead body in a wooden box
d) It should be enclosed in a hard wooden box which should be enclosed in Zinc
Or Tin lined wooden packing case filled with saw dust, impregnated with
Carbolic
Powder at a 48 hrs notice
27. Aircraft observes green or red blasting, it indicates:
a) Over prohibited or danger area

b) Distress
c) Military installation
d) Urgency
28. In Class D airspace AIC will provide services:
a) IFR flights only

b) IFR and IFR flights are separated, VFR flight separated from VFR flight
c) IFR flights separated from IFR flights and IFR and VFR aircraft receive traffic
Information about other VFR flights
d) IFR flights separated from IFR flights and receive traffic information regarding other
VFR flights
29. What is Annex II?
a) Rules of the air

b) Personal Licensing
c) Aeronautical information services
d) Allotment of frequencies
30. A series of green flashes directed towards an aircraft in air means:
a) Cleared to taxi
b) Return for landing
c) Cleared to land
d) Means nothing
Air Regulation 5
31. When operating a flight at more than 100 NM seawards in VMC flight plan has to be:
a) VFR during day and IFR during night

b) VFR with DGCA permission
c) IFR only
d) Special IFR
32. An aircraft accident should be reported to DGCA:
a) Only if it is substantially damaged

b) Only if it is private aircraft
c) All accidents as per the term aircraft accident
d) Only when accident occurs at uncontrolled airports
33. A pilot must undergo a fresh medical examination in the event of his being
Incapacitated for more than:
a) 10 days or more
b) 15 days or more
c) 20 days or more
d) 30 days or more
34. A VFR flight shall not be conducted at an aerodrome when:
a) The ground visibility is less than 5 Km and ceiling is less than 2000 ft
b) The ground visibility is less than 1.5 Km and ceiling is less than 1500 ft
c) The ground visibility is less than 5 Km and ceiling is less than 1500 ft
d) The ground visibility is less than 3 Km and ceiling is less than 1000 ft
35. Minimum transition altitude in India:
a) 1000 ft
b) 3000 ft
c) 4000 ft
d) 5000 ft
36. AIP is published by:
a) DGCA
b) AAI
c) Individual airlines to their pilots
d) ICAO
Air Regulation 6
37. Track separation is:
a) Longitudinal separation
b) Lateral separation
c) Vertical separation
d) Visual separation
38. There was an accident at Patna, the report was sent to DGCA, after that where should
that report be forwarded:
a) AAI, New Delhi HQ

b) Air Safety Office, Kolkata
c) Air Safety Office, Delhi
d) Air Safety Office, Guwahati
39. What will happen if you inhale excess of CO:
a) Loss of muscle power

b) Ache in forehead
c) A great sense of well being
d) Anemic hypoxia
40. What is the weather minima in controlled airspace flying at or below 3000 ft:
a) 5 km
b) 8 km
c) 5 nm
d) 1.5 nm
41. Maximum log a pilot can do in 24 hrs:
a) 9 hrs
b) 3 hrs
c) 6 hrs
d) More than 6 hrs with DGCA permission
42. The separation between climbing and holding aircraft is:
a) 5 min
b) 15 min
c) 10 min
d) 12 min
Air Regulation 7
43. Emergency procedures and in flight procedures are in:
a) Operation manual
b) Route guide
c) AIP
d) AIC
44. You are entering from one FIR from another FIR, how much time before you should
Inform:
a) 20 mts
b) 15 mts
c) 10 mts
d) 30 mts
45. Aircraft switching on-off lights, what is the indication?
a) Aircraft in distress
b) Aircraft is about to force land and does not require immediate assistance
c) Do not come close to the aircraft
d) One engine is inoperative
46. The length of the markings of the runway centre line and space between them:
a) 30 m length and 20 m spacing

b) 30 m length and 30 m spacing
c) 10 m length and 20 m spacing
d) The length of the strip shall be at least equal to the length of the gap or 30 m,
whichever is greater
47. A flight engineer is carried on board of the aircraft:
a) If there is enough space in the cockpit

b) If the PIC wants him to be there
c) If society of engineers association allows him to be there
d) If the C of A of the aircraft requires an engineer on board the aircraft
48. When taking off behind a heavy aircraft, the light aircraft will:
a) Lift off after its lift off point and climb down wind to it
b) Climb cross wind to it
c) Lift off before its lift off point and climb down wind to it
Air Regulation 8
49. A situation where apprehension exists as to the safety of an aircraft and its occupants:
a) Incerfa
b) Alerfa
c) Destresfa
50. Runway centre lights are red onwards of the end of the runway:
a) 150 m
b) 250 m
c) 300 m
d) 350 m
51. If an aircraft faces severe turbulence, then it should report to ATC as:
a) Special air report

b) Special met report
c) Met report
d) Air bulletin
52. Aircraft is at 5000 ft and is in VMC and wants to change to IMC:
a) Pilot cannot do so
b) If he cannot see the runway
c) He can do so if weather becomes below minima during day
d) He can do so with prior permission from DGCA
53. Information regarding navigation aids is provided in which document:
a) DOC 4444
b) DOC 8192
c) Aeradio
d) AIP
54. An aircraft force lands at an uncontrolled aerodrome:
a) It must not take off till permission is obtained from the District Magistrate
b) It must not take off till permission is obtained from owner of aerodrome
c) It must not take off till permission is obtained from DGCA
d) It must not take off till inspected by qualified engineer
55. Maximum flight level for civil flights in India:
a) FL 150
b) FL 200
Air Regulation 9
c) FL 460
d) FL 400
56. Daily inspection for certificate of safety by a licensed engineer is required:
a) For all aircraft

b) For scheduled flight only
c) For all commercial flights only
d) For private aircraft only
57. An aircraft is deemed to be in distress if:
a) Pressurization has failed

b) Navigation lights have failed
c) R/T has failed
d) Threatened by grave and imminent danger and immediate assistance is required
58. An aircraft accident is to be reported to DGCA within:
a) Two days
b) As soon as possible
c) One hour
d) As soon as possible and within 24 hours
59. When approaching to land at an aerodrome, it is required to change the subscale

setting of the altimeter to prevailing QNH setting:
a) When passing transition altitude

b) When passing 500 ft above initial approach altitude
c) When passing transition level
d) When on final
60. All aircraft having a weight of more than 5700 kg and passenger capacity, should be
Fitted with ACAS-II from 1st January 2005:
a) 10 to 20 passengers
b) 10 to 25 passengers
c) 20 to 30 passengers
61. The repeated switching On and Off of landing lights of an aircraft means:
a) Urgency signal
b) Distress signal
c) Safety signal
Air Regulation 10
62. There is wreckage of aircraft on the runway:
a) It can be removed after taking photographs

b) Can be disturbed after extricating dead or alive
c) Cannot be disturbed without permission of DGCA
d) After the report has been made
63. C of A is valid for:
a) 1 year for aircraft less than 20 years and 6 months for older aircraft
b) 2 years for aircraft less than 20 years and 6 months for older aircraft
c) 2 years for aircraft less than 20 years and 1 month for older aircraft
d) 1 year for aircraft less than 20 years and 3 months for older aircraft
64. There are 3 pairs of stripes on both sides of the runway centreline, then length of
runway is:
a) More than 2400 m

b) More than 1500 m but less than 2100 m
c) More than 300 m but less than 1500 m
d) Runway width 23 m
65. Who decides the FDTL;
a) Flight operators
b) Chief pilot
c) DGCA
d) Flight Dispatcher
66. In order that you have understood the signal of the aircraft accident, what will the
pilot do during day:
a) Rock the wings

b) Low fly past at safe height
c) Switch on and off nav light
d) Switch on and off landing light repeatedly
67. There is a NOTAM of series G which has been changed to series D, what will the
Flight Dispatcher of an international flight do when he gets NOTAM:
a) He has nothing to do with the change in the series of NOTAM

b) He will attach this paper in the briefing folder
c) He will read the NOTAM and prepare a flight plan according to the present position
of the runway and brief the crew accordingly
Air Regulation 11
d) He will brief the aircrew about the change
68. In a propeller driven aircraft if alternate landing field is not available, fuel required is:
a) Dep + Dest + 45 mts

b) Dep + Dest + Alt + 45 mts
c) Dep + Dest + 45 mts + 15% or 2 hrs whichever is less
69. Two red balls hoisted on a mast near the signal area indicates:
a) Direction of take-off and landing is to be verified from control tower

b) Glider flying in progress
c) Training power flight in progress
d) Special precaution to be observed while landing
70. Two white crosses, one on each end of runway means:
a) Runway unfit for aircraft 56,000 kg or above

b) Aircraft to land on the marked position
c) Runway unfit for movement for all type of aircraft
d) Micro light flying in progress
71. On a track of 200◦ which is the first west bound flight level available above FL:
a) FL 295
b) FL 310
c) FL 330
d) FL 300
72. An aerodrome has a 09/27 runway, the prevailing surface wind is 220◦/10 kts,
which runway should be used:
a) Runway which is on your track

b) Runway 27
c) Runway 09
d) As convenient
73. Except when clearance is obtained from concerned ATS unit, a VFR flight shall not
be cleared for take-off or landing from aerodrome traffic zone:
a) When ground visibility is less than 1.5 km

b) When ceiling is less than 1500 ft (450 m) and when ground visibility is less than
1.5 km
c) When ceiling is less than 1500 ft (450 m) and when ground visibility is more than 1.5
km
d) When IFR flights are operating
Air Regulation 12
74. An IFR flight facing radio communication failure, the pilot should:
a) Proceed to destination under VFR by canceling IFR

b) Return to aerodrome of departure
c) Proceed according to filed flight plan
d) Proceed according to current flight plan
75. Hijacking code:
a) 7600
b) 7700
c) 7500
d) 2000
76. Hypoxia is caused by:
a) Excess of CO2
b) Lack of oxygen at greater height
c) Lack of CO2
d) Excess of oxygen
77. What is hyperventilation:
a) Excess of CO2
b) Lack of oxygen at greater height
c) Lack of CO2 in the body
d) Excess of oxygen
78. What is the RVR and DH in Cat II ILS:
a) DH lower than 60M but not lower than 30M RVR 300M
b) DH lower than 50M but not lower than 30M RVR 100M
c) DH lower than 50M but not lower than 20M RVR 100M
d) DH lower than 50M but not lower than 30M RVR 300M
79. Lights of a land aerodrome beacon:
a) Red/white
b) Yellow/white
c) Green/white
d) Amber/red
80. Minimum height at which acrobatics can be performed over an aerodrome:
a) 4000 ft above mean sea level
Air Regulation 13
b) Acrobatics are usually prohibited over an aerodrome
c) 6000 ft above ground level
d) 100 ft above circuit height
81. The lowest level available in India:
a) 4000 ft above MSL

b) FL 45
c) FL 50
d) FL 55
82. A flight plan is to be submitted prior to commencement of flight to the appropriate

ATS authority at least:
a) Two hours before the flight

b) Half an hour before the flight
c) One hour before the flight
d) One day before the flight
83. What is the thickness of transition layer:
a) 1000 ft
b) 500 ft
c) 1000 ft to 1499 ft
d) 1000 ft to 1500 ft
84. When pilot in command should report to ATS any change in estimate:
a) +5 mts
b) +4 mts
c) +3 mts
d) +2 mts
85. Aircraft approaching too low the VASI lights will show:
a) Wing-bar red and three fly-up lights white

b) Wing-bar red and all the fly-up and fly-down lights white
c) Wing-bar red and all the fly-up lights red
d) Wing-bar white and all the fly-up lights red
86. An aircraft A at FL 370 track 030 would cross a point X at 0412, another aircraft B
at FL 370 Tr 100 should not cross point X before:
a) 0422
b) 0427
c) 0442
d) 0425
Air Regulation 14
87. When reporting long final the aircraft is:
a) More than 10 NM from touch down

b) 8 NM or more from touch down
c) 4 Nm from touch down
d) On base leg
88. If the elevation of an aerodrome is 455 ft AMSL and ceiling of cloud reported 600 ft,
then base of the cloud would be:
a) 1055 ft
b) 455 ft
c) 45 ft
d) 600 ft
89. An aircraft should have ADC before entering Indian FIR:
a) 20 mts on HF
b) 20 mts on VHF
c) 10 mts
d) 5 mts
90. You are on a precision approach and the height given is 1000 ft above highest
obstacle in the vicinity of that navigational aid:
a) MSA
b) MORA
c) MEA
d) MOEA
91. No aircraft can fly within how much distance of international boundary:
a) 15 NM
b) 10 M
c) 5 NM
d) 15 KM
92. An aircraft use ILS if:
a) It can use ILS if Localizer is in operative

b) Cannot use ILS if either Localizer or Glide slope is inoperative
c) Can use ILS if Glide slope inoperative
Air Regulation 15
93. Daily inspection is valid for:
a) 2 days or 14 hours of flying whichever is less

b) 4 days or 12 hours of flying whichever is less
c) 1 day or 10 hours of flying whichever is less
d) 3 days or 12 hours of flying whichever is less
94. Light aircraft taking-off after heavy aircraft, then it should:
a) Take-off after heavy aircraft take-off point

b) Take-off much before heavy aircraft take-off point
c) Take-off before heavy aircraft’s rotation point and remain above climb path
95. Lowest height on transition altitude in India is:
a) 3000 ft
b) Always given by ATC
c) 4000 ft
d) 5500 ft
96. When flying on a designated route with no compulsory reporting point, you will
Report position:
a) 45 min
b) 35 min
c) 30 min
d) First 30 min then at every 1 hour
97. To check if the ELT switch activates:
a) Monitor signals on 121.5 MHz

b) Simply turn off the ELT switch
c) Ask ATC if he is receiving ELT signals
d) b) Simply turn on the ELT switch
98. If there is an accident, what letter will the passenger, ground staff, cabin crew denote
for assistance:
a) A
b) X
c) V
d) S
Air Regulation 16
READY RECKONER
1. Aircraft is passing through transition layer, QNH to be set on altimeter to get altitude.
2. Vertical separation between two aircraft on the reciprocal track in non RVSM
above FL 290 is 2000 ft.
3. Airport Authority of India (AAI) is responsible for Search and Rescue (SAR)
operation.
4. Pilot’s action on a VFR flight in case of radio failure is to remain in VMC and land
at a most suitable aerodrome.
5. Segment of airways are Great Circles.
6. ICAO recommends Lambert’s conical projection because it covers all worlds.
7. QTE means aircraft’s true bearing from the station.
8. Aircraft cruising at 14 000 ft finds static tube blocked due icing, decides to land, its
reading on landing will be 14 000 ft.
9. Anti collision light is fitted on all type and weight category of aircraft.
10. A prisoner can be carried on flight on written permission by DG, Dr of I or any

authorized person.
11. Members of operating crew should not take any kind of drug within 12 hours.
12. Animals, birds, reptiles can be carried by air with written permission from DGCA.
13. On domestic flights, smoking and consumption of alcohol is not permitted.
14. Fuelling vehicle, hydrant to be certified by Chief Inspector of Explosives.
15. Precautions to be carried out while fuelling:
 15 M away from any building

 No smoking sign
 No naked flame within 30 M
 Electrical switches off except cabin lights, parking steady lights
 Fuelling equipment and aircraft to be bonded and earthed
Air Regulation 17
 No unauthorized person within 15 M
16. Letter C displayed vertically in black against yellow background indicates place at
which report concerning air traffic services are made.
17. Lateral separation Minima from VOR, NDB, DR:
 VOR 15◦ 15 NM from the facility

 NDB 30◦ 15 NM from the facility
 DR 45◦ 15 NM from the facility
18. Weights of the aircraft for wake turbulence:
 H 136 000 kg or more

 M Less than 136 000 kg but more than 7000 kg
 L 7000 kg or less
18. Time based separation to avoid wake turbulence for arriving aircraft:
 M behind H – 2 minutes
 L behind M or H – 3 minutes
19. Time based separation to avoid wake turbulence for departing aircraft:
 L or M behind H – 3 minutes
20. Different designators used for domestic routes are H.J.V.W.
21. ATS routes are marked 1 to 999.
22. Different designators used for routes forming part of regional network are A.B.G.R.
23. Different designators used for routes forming part of Area navigation of regional
network are L.M.N.P.
24. Designators K.U.S. are used for routes:
 Low-level heli routes

 Upper air space
 Supersonic flights
25. Central government makes rules under Aircraft Act, 1934.
26. When no clear way or stop way provided and threshold not displaced, all four
distances are equal.
Air Regulation 18
27. Colour of runway, taxiway, aircraft stands markings are white/yellow.
28. Rockets or shell throwing red lights fired one at a time are light signals for distress.
29. Penalty for flying so as to cause danger is 6 months or fine of Rs 1000 or both.
30. Projectiles at 10 seconds interval showing red and green lights are signals used to
warn an aircraft about to enter prohibited or danger area.
31. A flight navigator has to be carried on board when a flight is of more than 600 NM
without landing and aircraft not equipped with navigation equipment for giving
continuous ground position.
32. If CPL has expired for more than 3 years, to renew the license the pilot has to appear
for all examinations and tests required for the issue of license (for a period exceeding
2 years but not exceeding 3 years, test of skill and air regulation).
33. Maximum number of hours a pilot can fly in 30 consecutive days is 125 hours.
34. Taxiway lights are blue in colour.
35. Log books to be carried on flight:
 An Aircraft log book

 An Engine log book for each engine installed in the aircraft
 A Propeller log book for every pitch propeller installed in the aircraft
 A Radio apparatus log book for aircraft fitted with radio apparatus
 Any other log book required by DGCA
(log books to be preserved for not less than 5 years after the date of last entry)
36. Between FL 140 and FL 150 there is Buffer space.
37. Aircraft Detention Act is given in Section 8 of Aircraft Rule, 1934.
38. An aircraft over India will comply with IFR irrespective of any Met conditions
Above FL150.
39. Incubation for small pox is 14 days.
40. When fully functional dual controls are fitted with a competent pilot on board,
Simulated instrument flight can be carried out.
41. An aircraft with an emergency gets preference to land over all other aircraft.
42. All controlled airspace in India is classified as D.
43. When pilot in command is holding IR rating and is in controlled zone, a VFR flight
Air Regulation 19
Can be cleared.
44. Acrobatic flight can be carried out by a licensed pilot with all persons properly
Secured and all manoeuvres to be completed by 2000 ft.
45. Slaughtering and flaying of animals is prohibited in area 10 km around Airport

Reference Point (ARP).
46. Visibility minima fro VFR flight is 8 km at or above 10 000 ft and 5 km below.
47. Validity of PPL license is 10 years and medical is 24 months.
48. ‘W’ prefix used for ATS routes means domestic routes.
49. Flight plan is valid fro 30 mts.
50. Minimum visibility when special VFR can be approved is 1.5 km.
51. Validity of CPL license is 5 years and medical is 12 months (after age of 40 years
validity of medical is 6 months)
52. Red flag displayed near control means NOTHING.
53. Semi-circular flight rules are applicable from FL 150 and above in India.
54. Minimum flight visibility required at or above 10 000 ft is 8 km.
55. Certificate of Air Worthiness is valid for 1 year or 6 months depending on age of
aircraft.
56. DATIS or ATIS is updated every 30 mts.
57. Colour of land aerodrome beacon is green/white.
58. An aircraft crossing your path from your left to right, green navigation light will be
seen.
59. ADC for a flight not required for a flight in India for flights up to 10 000 ft AGL and
5 nm from ARP.
60. Classification of airspace in India is D.E.F.G.
61. Aerodrome control tower is a unit established to provide air traffic services to
aerodrome traffic.
62. Terminal control area (TMA) is established at the confluence of two or more airways.
Air Regulation 20
63. NOTAM identifier R means NOTAM replaces a previous NOTAM.
64. Radar separation between two aircraft on ARSR is 10 nm.
65. All aircraft to maintain listening watch on appropriate frequency and 12.5 MHz.
66. Arriving aircraft at or below 10 000 ft within 15 km from VOR/NDB serving the
aerodrome should maintain 210 kt.
67. Aircraft crossing ATS route should inform appropriate ATS authority 10 mts on
VHF and 20 mts on HF.
68. Aircraft reporting long final will be 8 nm or more away from touch down.
69. Clearway is at the end of the runway.
70. Runway threshold markings of six pairs means runway length is 2400 m or more.
71. All aerodromes are licensed in two categories, public and private.
72. Instructions regarding quantity of fuel to be carried on board is given in Route Guide.
73. Minimum age for different licenses:
 SPL 16 years
 PPL 17 years
 CPL 18 years
 ALTP 21 years
74. For issue of CPL cross country flight test by day, flight has to be not less than 250 nm
with one full stop landing at other than departure day.
75. No person shall fly aircraft acrobatically within 2 nm from aerodrome perimeter and
less than 6000 ft.
76. C of A is not valid when an aircraft suffers major damage or defect, modified or
repaired not as per provisions.
77. Validity of daily inspection of aircraft is 4 days or 12 hours of flight whichever is less
78. White cross displayed at beginning or end of runway indicates that portion of runway
is unserviceable.
79. Visual meteorological conditions are expressed in Annex II or Schedule IV of

Aircraft Rule, 1934.
Air Regulation 21
80. If two aircraft approaching head on at same altitude then, both aircraft to turn right.
81. Dropping of separate sheets of paper containing printed matter requires the
permission of DM or Police Commissioner.
82. Carriage of mail by aircraft requires the written permission of Director General of
Posts and Telegraphs.
83. A pilot can operate R/T only when he/she holding a valid FRTO.
84. Aircraft intending to fly in formation can fly with permission from appropriate
ATS unit.
85. Urgency signal on R/T is PAN-PAN.
86. Distress signal on R/T is MAYDAY-MAYDAY.
87. For the purpose of IR, a pilot must have not less than 5 hours within 6 months and
total of 40 hours.
88. In Class D airspace ATC will provide separation between IFR flights and ATS to
VFR and IFR flights.
89. Annex VI deals with aircraft operations.
90. Deviations from Standard and Recommended Practices are found in AIP.
91. Approach Control controls arriving and departing flights.
92. An Indian Airlines aircraft is taken on dry lease by Indian Air Force, the category of
aircraft now becomes that of a military aircraft.
93. The succession of command is mentioned in Operations Manual.
94. Operational control is exercised by PIC.
95. Flight manual is associated with Certificate of Air Worthiness.
96. An unauthorized person killed by an aircraft while crossing the runway is an accident.
97. The number of cabin attendants to be carried on board depends on seating capacity.
98. Threshold is the beginning of that portion of runway usable for landing.
99. Threshold lights;
Air Regulation 22
 Omni directional from take-off side
 Unidirectional from approach side
100. Aircraft is cleared to land but does not land within 5 mins of estimated time of
landing, it is said to be in Alert Phase.
101. Inserfa means code to designate uncertainty phase.
102. Navigational charges are recoverable on the basis of All Up Weight.
103. Landing and Housing charges are recoverable on the basis of All Up Weight.
104. Parking charges are recoverable on the basis of All Up Weight.
105. Crew composition on a domestic flight (2 member crew)
 Flight Time 8 hours

 FTDL 11 hours
 Max. no of landings 3
106. Crew composition on an international flight (2 member crew)

 FTDL 12 hours
107. Crew composition on an international flight (3 member crew)

 FTDL 12 hours
108. ATC to be informed by PIC if TAS varies 10%.
109. Pilot will revise his estimate over next reporting point if it differs by 3 mins.
110. The responsibility of complying with the rules of air lies with PIC.
111. PIC can fly 125 hours in 30 consecutive days.
112. Co-pilot of an aircraft can fly 156 hours 15 minutes in 30 consecutive days. For the
restrictions of flying hours of co-pilot contained in aircraft Rules, 80% of his flying
hours will be counted as PIC for the purpose of this rule.
113. For renewal of co-pilot’s license, 50% of his flying hours will be counted as PIC.
Air Regulation 23
114. Aircraft on non-scheduled flight will give notice to DGCA 72 hours before ETA.
115. Validity of approval for a non-scheduled flight on a given route is 48 hours before
ETA and 2 weeks thereafter.
116. Position report on IMC outside the airbase is half hourly and VMC is hourly.
117. W means Domestic and R means International.
118. No smoking within 30 m when aircraft is being refueled.
119. Aerodrome equipped with two way communication and radio nav aids:
 Landing ceiling not below OCL

 Take-off visibility 90 m within radius of 8 km and/or RVR not less than 2.7 km.
120. Aerodrome not equipped with two way communication and radio nav aids:
 Landing in VMC
 Take-off visibility not less than 300 m above highest obstacle within radius of
5 km and/or RVR not less than 3.7 km.
121. The upper level of flight level available for civil aircraft is FL 460.
122. Flight plan to be filed 30 min before ETD.
123. Prohibited areas in India:
 Rashtrapati Bhavan
 Tower of Silence – Malabar Hills, Mumbai (Radius 1 mile)
 Mathura Refinery (Radius 10 km)
 Near Vadodara
 Near Cuttack, Orissa
124. Incubation period for quarantable diseases:
 Cholera 5 days
 Plague 6 days
 Yellow Fever 6 days
 Re-lapsing fever 8 days
 Small Pox 14 days
 Typhoid 14 days
125. Procedure of giving position report flying in an airways is:
 After take-off
Air Regulation 24
 After crossing reporting point
 Crossing FIR
126. Power to retain aircraft is under Section 8 of Aircraft Act, 1934.
127. ADC is required when going through ADIZ.

128. Validity of ADC is 30 min.
129. Operational control to be exercised by air operator.
130. Aerodrome Control Service is provided in Aerodrome Traffic Circuit.
131. Aerodrome Control provides Aerodrome Control Service.

132. Aerodrome Control Service is provided by Aerodrome Control Tower.
133. Functions of ATC:
 Provide ATC
 Give advise and information
 Search and Rescue
134. You will revise your flight plan if flight delayed by:
 30 min for controlled/scheduled flights

 1 hour for uncontrolled/non-scheduled flights
135. Yellow jeep on aerodrome is “Follow Me”.
136. Airspace where information and service is provided is Flight Information Region.
137. Emergency frequency is 121.5 MHz.
138. In India, Search and Rescue co-ordination is divided into 4 respective metros –
Delhi/Bombay/Calcutta/Madras
139. ADC for aircraft flying in vicinity of aerodrome 5 nm at or below 1000 ft is not
required.
140. If an aircraft sees a crashed aircraft with survivors, it will fly low over the site but
at a safe height.
141. Above FL 150, aircraft to follow semi-circular rules.
142. If an aircraft is to cross another aircraft, the time interval between the crossing
should be 15 min at the time of crossing.
Air Regulation 25
143. Pilot will add Section 3 to his airrep when he encounters severe turbulence and
severe icing.
144. Hands on the chest with palms going laterally down towards ground means “Slow
Down”.
145. Operational Control means exercise of authority over:
 Initiation of flight
 Continuation of flight
 Diversion of flight
 Termination of flight
146. Up to 14 000 ft, aircraft to follow quadrantal rules.
147. Met minima to be filed by Operator with DGCA. If not done so, met minima
prescribed by DGCA is applicable.
148. In India, no civil aircraft to fly at Mach no 1 or more.
149. Decision altitude is an altitude at which missed approach procedure will be

initiated if no visual contact is established.
150. No person shall bring dead body or human remains of a person who has died of
Yellow Fever, Anthrax, Glinders, Plague.
151. Consignee and air transport service to give advance information at least 48 hours
to airport health of landing airport if bringing in dead body or human remains of a
person who has died of disease other than mentioned above. (Application to Indian
Diplomatic Representative to be given).
152. Anti-hijacking Act is in accordance with Tokyo Convention.
153. The Carriage by Air Act, 1972 is in accordance with Warsaw Convention.
154. Runway end lights Red

Runway lights White
Taxiway lights Blue
Threshold lights Green
Approach lighting system White
Aerodrome beacon White and Green
155. Action by pilot who finds himself over prohibited area:
Air Regulation 26
 Give the distress signal and land the aircraft as soon as possible outside the
prohibited area at one of the nearest aerodrome in India WITHOUT
DESCENDING.
HOUSE TEST PAPER 1
PLEASE SOLVE THEM WITHOUT REFERRING TO THE ANSWERS
1. Pilot in command whether manipulating or not is responsible to comply with

Rules of Air. (True or False)
2. Aerodrome beacon:
a) Red/White flashes
b) Red/Green flashes
c) Green/ White flashes
3. Aircraft on IFR shall maintain clearance of at least 1000 ft within:
a) 8 km (5 miles) from the route

b) 5 km (3 miles) from the route
c) 1.5 km (1 mile) from the route
4. Aircraft flying on the route under IMC maintaining 5000 ft, visibility minima fro
VMC is:
a) 8 km (5 miles) from the route

b) 5 km (3 miles) from the route
c) 1.5 km (1 mile) from the route
5. Aircraft experiencing R/T failure in the circuit during daytime will indicate by:
a) Switching on/off navigation lights

b) Switching on/off landing lights
c) Rocking wings
d) Flying low over the runway and going straight
6. CAVOK means:
a) No clouds but poor visibility
Air Regulation 27
b) Clear of clouds and good visibility within 10 km or more, no patch of clouds below
5000 ft
c) Low clouds and poor visibility
d) Clear of clouds and good visibility within 5 km or more, no patch of clouds below
1000 ft
7. SIGMET is issued for:
a) Rain
b) Severe line squall
c) Drizzle
d) Clouds
8. Anti collision lights to be provided on:
a) All aircraft
b) Only private aircraft
c) Not required
d) Only commercial aircraft
9. Runway indications are indicated by:
a) QDR
b) QDM
c) QUJ
d) QTE
10. Aircraft in flight will file a flight plan at least ______ before estimated time of entry
into controlled airspace if in direct contact.
a) 10 min
b) 15 min
c) 20 min
d) 30 min
11. If apprehension exists about the safety of the aircraft and its occupants, is said to be:
a) Alert Phase
b) Distress Phase
c) Uncertainty Phase
d) Urgent Phase
12. Information about aeronautical facilities at the aerodrome are available in:
Air Regulation 28
a) AIC
b) AIP
c) NOTAM
d) AAI
13. Aircraft is heading 270, observes red light, what action will he take:
a) Turn S
b) Turn P
c) Continue on heading
d) Fly towards red light
14. Pilot sees another aircraft on a relative bearing of 280, to avoid collision,
what action will he take:
a) Turn S
b) Turn P
c) Maintain heading as it has right of way
d) Continue on heading
15. Pilot sees another aircraft and its red light on a relative bearing of 270,
what action will he take:
a) Turn S
b) Turn P
c) Maintain heading as it has right of way
d) Continue on heading
16. Vertical separation between enroute aircraft and aircraft holding in holding
pattern is:
a) 30 min
b) 20 min
c) 5 min
d) 10 min
17. Demolition of obstructions caused by buildings, trees, etc are contained in:
a) Aircraft Rules 1994

b) Aircraft Rules 1937
18. On domestic flights pilot will fly _______ during 12 months:
Air Regulation 29
a) 1200 hours
b) 1000 hours
c) 1500 hours
19. On international flights pilot will fly _______ during 12 months:

a) 1200 hours
b) 1000 hours
c) 1500 hours
20. The two semi-circular in the semi-circular rules are:
a) 175-350 and 351-174

b) 005-180 and 181-004
c) 000-179 and 180-359
21. Aircraft coming to India will give health report _______ before ETA.
a) 72 hours
b) 48 hours
c) 2 hours
d) 4 hours
22. Descending from FL 290, your altitude reaches 12 000 ft. You will report to
ATC while passing through:
a) FL 120
b) 12 000 ft AMSL
c) 12 000 ft above ground level
23. Aircraft encounters severe turbulence in flight, it will give:
a) Special weather report

b) Special air report
c) Give warning for other aircraft
24. Aerodrome control service is provided in:
a) Control Zone
b) Control Area
c) Aerodrome Traffic Circuit
25. Flight will comply IFR rules if flying:
a) FL 100
b) FL 150
Air Regulation 30
c) FL 200
26. Aircraft on VFR flight shall not take-off or land at an aerodrome in IFR when ceiling:
a) Is < 1500ft
b) Is < 2000ft
c) Is < 1000ft or 300 m
d) Is < 300ft
HOUSE TEST PAPER 2
1. Petroleum in bulk means:
a) Less than 900 litres

b) Same as 900 litres
c) Exceeds 900 litres
2. Runways markings are:
a) True
b) Magnetic
c) Compass
3. Flight on Magnetic Track 175(A) Variation 5◦W will fly:
a) Odd Thousand
b) Odd Thousand + 500
c) Even Thousand
d) Even Thousand + 500
4. Aircraft not fitted with navigational lights:
a) Can fly at night

b) Cannot fly at night
5. Aircraft flying overseas complies with:
a) DGCA rules
b) ICAO rules
c) FAA rules
6. Night flying is between:
Air Regulation 31
a) Sunset and sunrise
b) ½ hour after sunset to ½ hour before sunrise
c) ½ hour before sunset to ½ hour after sunrise
7. If radio fails in IFR flight:
a) Pilot should rock the wings and send visual signals

b) Pilot should switch on and off its nav and landing lights
c) Should try to commence approach as close as possible to its expected approach time
8. Control zone extends from:
a) Ground to certain specified level

b) Above certain altitude to an upper limit
c) Above certain altitude extending upwards
9. Control area extends from:
a) Ground to certain specified level

b) Above certain altitude to an upper limit
c) Above certain altitude extending upwards
10. Flight coming to India, passenger falls sick:
a) Report the matter to DGCA

b) Inform the Medical Officer of aerodrome before landing in India
c) Return back
11. While taking off behind a big Jet Wake, pilot should:
a) Fly upwind above the wake/jet path

b) Fly upwind below the wake/jet path
c) Fly downwind below the wake/jet path
12. To scan traffic visually at night, pilot should:
a) Move eyeballs slowly from left to right

b) Scan 10 degree sector at a time from left to right
13. Incident to be reported to DGCA within:
a) 72 hours
b) 12 hours
c) 48 hours
14. CVR is fitted to an aircraft to:
Air Regulation 32
a) Monitor the performance of aircraft

b) Help in accident investigation
c) Both
15. CVR has the capability of recording information for:
a) 1 hour
b) At least 30 min
c) 2 hours
16. Flight consists of pilot and co-pilot on an international flight, the flight time should
not exceed:
a) 8 hours and 3 landings

b) 9 hours and 3 landings
c) 8 hours and 4 landings
d) 6 hours and 4 landings
17. The minimum rest period for flight crew in a day will be:
a) 8 hours irrespective of flight time

b) Twice the flight time performed
c) 24 hours from the last time’
d) 16 hours
18. FTDL for a flight crew domestic air carrier will be:
a) 11 hours
b) 12 hours
c) 14 hours
d) 8 hours
19. Operator must preserve information in a FDR of last standing time:
a) 25 hours
b) 1 hour
c) 15 hours
d) 30 min
20. DME separation is:
a) 50 NM
b) 30 NM
c) 20 NM
d) 10 NM
Air Regulation 33
21. Leaflet dropping is approved by:
a) District Magistrate or Commissioner of Police

b) DGCA
c) Aerodrome Officer
22. Relapsing fever:
a) 8 days
b) 6 days
c) 5 days
d) 14 days
23. When flying instrument the time spent as instrument flying is:
a) Above FL 150
b) When flying through clouds
c) When visibility is less than previous conditions
d) Solely flying instrument without ground reference
24. Mathura Refineries:
a) 1 mile
b) 2 miles
c) 10 km
d) 20 km
25. How do you monitor the traffic:
a) Looking at an angle of 10◦ during intervals

b) Sweeping your eye from left to right
c) Looking at 3 o’clock, 6 o’clock, 9 o’clock and 12 o’clock position
26. How do you know that the other aircraft is on a head on collision to your aircraft:
a) There is no relative movement

b) The other aircraft appears larger and larger more rapidly
c) If your nose is on level with his nose
27. What happens to a pilot in haze:
a) There is strain in his eyes
Air Regulation 34
b) Objects that are around and the traffic does not appear at the actual distance that they
actually are
c) He gets blinded
28. The privileges of a license can be exercised by a pilot involved in an accident after:
a) He is cleared by the owner of the aircraft

b) He is cleared by the ATS authority
c) He is cleared by the DGCA
HOUSE TEST PAPER 3
STATE WHETHER TRUE OR FALSE
1. Cabin Attendant to be carried onboard if seating capacity 10 or more/ up to 49 – 01

Attendant/ 50 -99 02 Attendant thereafter for every 50 seats and plus one additional.
2. Anti collision light is green in colour.
3. Registration of an aircraft will lapse in the event of its sale – as soon as sale is over.
4. A red flag hoisted over tower means nothing.
5. Series of green flashes from Control Tower aircraft in circuit means continue circling.
6. Aerial Work aircraft is an aircraft used for industrial or commercial purposes or any
other remuneration but does not include an aircraft used for public transport.
7. Defense persons can carry weapons if permitted by Central Government/Military

Authority.
8. Aircraft leaving India for a place outside India must depart from a notified custom
aerodrome.
9. Signals for use in the event of interception are provided in ENR 1.12-3 para 8 of AIP.
10. An aircraft operating during the night in VMC shall fly in VFR flight plan.
11. An alternate aerodrome is an aerodrome as decided by ATC.
12. Maintenance of aircraft shall be by licensed person as per Rule 61 of the Aircraft
Rules, 1937 and CAR Section 2 – Air Worthiness, Series “L”.
13. Civil Aviation Requirements are notified by DGCA under Rule 133A of the Aircraft
Air Regulation 35
Rules, 1937.
14. Transition altitudes are decided by the operator.
15. Air Defense Clearance have validity of 30 min of the entire flight.
16. Rules pertaining to the detention of aircraft is 8C.
17. The nationality of an aircraft shall be the nationality of the State on the register of
which it is entered.
18. Flight crew member means a licensed crew member charged with duties essential
to operation of an aircraft during flight time.
19. A trainee pilot who is learning to fly may fly without licence any aircraft of an all up
weight not exceeding 1500 kgs, etc.
20. Every aircraft registered in India shall carry cockpit and emergency check lists.
21. Fuelling operations shall cease when a turbojet aircraft manouevres so as to bring
the rear jet outlets within 43 metres of the fuelling equipment or the aircraft.
22. The dropping of flower petals over a public gathering requires the written permission
of the District Magistrate or Police Commissioner.
23. The radio apparatus on board an aircraft shall be certified by an engineer having
Aircraft Radio Maintenance Engineer’s License.
24. An aircraft registered in India may not commence flight unless it has within
preceding 24 hours been inspected and certified as safe for flight.
25. Any officer of the Police Department above the rank of constable can demand of a
pilot his professional license for inspection.
26. A person holding a Student’s Pilot License shall not fly a private aircraft under any
circumstances.
27, The flying time of a pilot engaged as a co-pilot or supernumerary pilot will be
counted as 50% of the flight time.
28. 50% of solo flying time on a glider, subject to a maximum of 10 hours can be
counted for the issue of PPL.
29. The compliance of instrument Flight Rules during the period from sunset to sunrise
is compulsory for all flights unless exempted by ATC.
30. Passenger Service fees are paid by a passenger leaving India by an aircraft for a
Air Regulation 36
destination outside India.
31. The minimum crew to be carried aboard any aircraft will be indicated in its certificate
of airworthiness.
32. No person shall commence flying training unless he is 16 years of age.
33. A holder of PPL can act as a co-pilot of any aircraft which is entered in the aircraft
rating of his license provided that no flight is undertaken for hire or remuneration.
ANSWERS TO HOUSE TEST PAPER 1
1. True
2. c) Green/ White flashes
3. a) 8 km (5 miles) from the route
4. a) 8 km (5 miles) from the route
5. d) Flying low over the runway and going straight
6. b) Clear of clouds and good visibility within 10 km or more, no patch of clouds below
5000 ft
7. b) Severe line squall
8. a) All aircraft
9. b) QDM
10. a) 10 min
11. a) Alert Phase
12. b) AIP
13. b) Turn P
14. c) Maintain heading as it has right of way
15. c) Maintain heading as it has right of way
16. c) 5 min
17. a) Aircraft Rules 1994
18. b) 1000 hours
19. b) 1000 hours
20. c) 000-179 and 180-359
21. c) 2 hours
22. a) FL 120
23. b) Special air report
24. c) Aerodrome Traffic Circuit
25. b) FL 150
26. c) Is < 1000ft or 300 m
Air Regulation 37
1. c) Exceeds 900 litres

2. b) Magnetic
3. b) Odd Thousand + 500
4. b) Cannot fly at night
5. b) ICAO rules
6. b) ½ hour after sunset to ½ hour before sunrise
7. c) Should try to commence approach as close as possible to its expected approach
Time
8. a) Ground to certain specified level
9. c) Above certain altitude extending upwards
10. b) Inform the Medical Officer of aerodrome before landing in India
11. a) Fly upwind above the wake/jet path
12. b) Scan 10 degree sector at a time from left to right
13. c) 48 hours
14. b) Help in accident investigation
15. b) At least 30 min
16. b) 9 hours and 3 landings
17. b) Twice the flight time performed
18. a) 11 hours
19. a) 25 hours
20. d) 10 NM
21. a) District Magistrate or Commissioner of Police
22. a) 8 days
23. d) Solely flying instrument without ground reference
24. c) 10 km
25. b) Sweeping your eye from left to right
26. b) The other aircraft appears larger and larger more rapidly
27. b) Objects that are around and the traffic does not appear at the actual distance that
they actually are
28. c) He is cleared by the DGCA
Air Regulation 38
1. True
2. False - Red
3. True
4. True
5. False – Return for Landing
6. True
7. True
8. True
9. True
10. False – IFR flight plan
11. False – Indicated in the flight plan
12. True
13. True
14. False – Published in AIP
15. True
16. False – 8
17. True
18. True
19. True
20. True
21. True
22. True
23. True
24. True
25. True
26. True
27. True
28. True
29. True
30. True
31. True
32. True
33. True
Air Regulation 39
1. The definition a “ reporting point” is “ specified geographical location …..”
a. at which the position of the aircraft must be reported?
b. in relation to which the position of the aircraft must be reported?
c. at which the position of the aircraft can be reported?
d. in relation to which the position of the aircraft can be reported?
2. The visibility reqd. when flying at ( or) below 3000 in a controlled airspace
a. 5 kms
b. 8 kms
c. 10 kms
d. 3 kms
a. 10 NMs
b. 10 mins
c. 5 mins
d. 20 Nms
a. Red
b. Green
c. Yellow
5. The 3rd section of an air report contains

a. ETA
b. Met Info
c. ATS Info
d. Position Info
6. Crossing of an ATS route should be at angle of
a. 600
b. 900
c. 450
d. 300
a. AICs
b. NOTAMs
c. AIRAC
d. AIP
a. 1000 lts
b. 900 lts
c. 1500 lts
d. 500 lts
a. Surface of earth to a specified upper limit
b. 5000 to unlimited
c. Atleast 700
10. If an a/c has R/T failure then it will acknowledge signals from the ATC during day
a. Switching on/off Nav lights
b. Rocking Wings
d. Flying low
a. 1500 kg
b. 15000 kg.
c. 5700 kgs
d. all ac rudder
a. 5 mins
b. 3 mins
c. 10 mins
d. 2 mins
13. Night flying hours can be logged between _______ mins after sunset to ________ mins
before sunrise
a. 20 mins
b. 45 mins
c. 1 hrs
d. 15 mins
a. Truth North
b. Compass North
c. Magnetic North
d. North Pole
15. If the marshaller has either arm placed level with shoulder and moved laterally across
throat indicates
A Stop.
b. Cut Engines
c. Continue straight
d. Turn Off
16. If an IFR A/C is flying at 5000 outside controlled airspace then it will fly at ______
a. Altitude
b. RVSM levels
c. climb / cruise level
d. Above minimum flight altitude
a. Not with standing any previous instruction, do not land for the time being
c. Keep circling
18. The Min. Separation above F 290 is:

a. 2000’
b. 3000’
c. 4000’
d. 5000’
a. 15 NMs
b. 15 Mins
c. 20 NMs
d. 5 Mins
20. Operator has to preserve the contents of the flight data recorder for a period of _____ hrs.
a. 3 hrs.
b. 24 hrs
c. 25 hrs
d. 12 hrs
21. The alert phase starts when an A/C cleared to land fails to land within _______ of
estimated time of landing
a. 3 mins
b. 2 mins
c. 5 mins
d. 10 mins
22. No smoking shall be permitted within ______ mtrs of A/C (or) fueling equipment
a. 15 mtrs
b. 10 mts
c. 30 mts.
d. 50 mts.
23. What is defined as “A unit established to provide flight information and alerting
service”?
a. Air Traffic Service Unit
b. Aeronautical Service
c. Area Control Service
d. Flight Information Centre
a. Class B
b. Class C
c. Class D
d. Class E
25. The aerodrome reference code is referred to in Annex 14 and other ICAO documents.
What is the purpose of the code?
a. To describe the rescue and firefighting facilities at the aerodrome
b. To describe the expected weather factor at the aerodrome
c. To describe the type of aircraft the aerodrome is intented to serve
d. To describe the length of the primary runway at the aerodrome
a. A balloon only
b. A glider or a ballon
c. A glider, a balloon or an airship
d. A glider, a balloon, an airship or an aeroplane towing a glider
a. A white capital T land along the stem towards the crosspiece
b. An orange or red windsock, land towards the mast
c. A white or orange capital T land along the stem towards the crospiece
d. An orange wedge shape in 3dimensions, land towards the point of the wedge
a. 2 Thick yellow lines close to and parallel to runway centerline.
b. 2 Thick white lines close to and parallel to runway centerline.
c. 2 pairs of yellow lines close to and parallel to runway centerline.
d. 2 pairs yellow lines close to and parallel to runway centerline.
a. White
b. Yellow
c. Any colour which contrasts with surface
d. Any Colour which contrasts with the aircraft stand markings
a. i) yellow ii) white
b. i) green ii) white
c. i) blue ii) white
d. i) green ii) yellow
31. What lights will a pilot see from the PAPI system if he is slightly low on the instrument
approach glideslope? Inboard means closer to the runway.
a. 3 white lights inboard of 1 red light
b. 3 red lights inboard of 1 white light
c. 1 white lights inboard of 1 red light
d. 1 red lights inboard of 3 white light
instructions?
a. The writing will be red on a white background
b. The writing will be white on a red background
c. The sign will be outlined in yellow and black stripes
d. The sign will be yellow on a black background, or vice versa
a. With yellow and black marker boards
b. with red and white marker boards
c. With a white cross on the surface
d. With white chevrons on the surface
34. The pilot of an aircraft which has the right of way must do certain things to reduce the
risk of collision. Apart from monitoring the other aircraft actions, what else must he do?
a. Maintain heading speed, and altitude
b. Maintain heading, and altitude only
c. Maintain altitude speed only
d. Maintain heading and speed only
35. Which of the following occurrences to an aircraft in flight should be considered an
aviation accident?
a. An engine distingrees but causes no further damage
b. A wingtip is broken …. In a collision
c. One passenger is stability by another
d. A passenger suffers second degree burns from a loose gallery kettle
incident?
a. An engine disntegu …………. And prevents flap retraction
b. A passenger is take ……. With an infectious disease
c. The pilot takes av…………..to prevent a near collision
d. A crew member falls…………and breaks his leg
37. Which of the following currences to an aircraft in flight should be considered an aviation
accident?
a. An extinguished ………….damages the engine oil system
b. One pilot is incapa ……… by food poisoning for 36 hours
c. An undercarriage …….. replacement after a heavy landing
d. An aborted take off 6 years
38. ICAO annex 2 lists the …. Of the Air. Where do they apply?
a. Over the high sea……..
b. Everywhere unless they conflict with the laws of the state being over flown
d. Everywhere
39. What is the minimum flight visibility for flight in VFR if an aircraft is flying at 5000 feet
in Class G airspeed at a speed fo 120 knots and in sight of the surface?
a. 8000 meters
b. 5000 meters
c. 1500 meters
d. There is no min…
a. Fly low past the symbol turn away sharply
b. Rock wings
c. Fly in circle arounded symbol
d. Fly low past the climb steeply
41. What is the minimum horizontal distance which an aeroplane must stay away from cloud
in Class D airspace at 2000 feet in order to fly under VFR?
a. 1500 meters
b. 1800 meters
c. no minimum start…………vided the aircraft has a flight visibility of 5000 meters
d. no minimum s ………………vided the aircraft is in sight of the surface
42. What is correctly de …………..“A situation where in apprension exits as to the safety
of an aircraft and its occupants?
a. The emergency phase
b. The uncertainty phase
c. The alert phase
d. The distress phase
43. What mode A transpmeans an aircraft is suffering unlawful interference?
a. 7000
b. 7500
c. 7600
d. 7700
44 If navigation lights ……….of the pilot is
a. To continue to destin….
b. land at nearest aerodrome
c. Switch on obstruction lights
d. land at alternate
45. UTC means
a. Universal Time Check
b. coordinated Universal Time
c. united Time Check
46. IFR flight shall not be ………………. If the weather at destination and alternate is
a. Above minima
b.
c. below minima
d. IMC prevails
47. An A/C descending …………. The transition layer will report its height in
a. Flight levels
b. AM
c.
d. AGL
48. Publicity material ……………from an A/C if it has the permission of
a. DM/Commissioner ….
b. DGCA
d. ICAO
49. If PIC of an a/c fly ……………… red navigation flight of an a/c at a Relative bearing of
2700 then the action of pilot
a. Turn Right
b. No. a
c. Turn left
d. Give way
50. Anti collision light …….. lights
a. Steady Red
b. Ro……
c. Flashing Red
d. Red & White
applies?
d. Gliders shall give way to balloons
a. back-track on the runway to use the maximum available length for take-off
b. taxi to a full stop in position on the runway and take off without further clearance
c. taxi onto the runway and takeoff in one continuous movement.
d. complete the pre-take-off check before taxing onto the runway and taking off.
a. MAYDAY, MAYDAY, MAYDAY
b. PANPAN, PANPAN, PANPAN
c. SECURITY, SECURITY, SECURITY
d. EMERGENCY, EMERGENCY, EMERGENCY
54. Estimated elapsed time A to B 1 hr 15 minutes
Using the above information, what time should be entered in the “ Elapsed Time” BOX
OF VFR flight plan?
a. 3 hrs 50 minutes
b. 3 hrs 20 minutes
c. 3 hrs 05 minutes
d. 2 hrs 35 minutes
Qus. No. 55 to 61 – If you see an aircraft light on a relative bearing given below, action by you
will be
55- Red 250 deg a
56- Red 060 deg c
57- Green 290 deg d
58- White 340 deg c
59- Red and Green 000 deg c
60- Green & red 030 deg d
61- Green 340 deg d, c
a. No risk
b. Turn Port
c. Turn Starboard
d. Maintain heading
62. Prohibited area around Malabar hill is _______
a. 1 NM
b. 1 Mile
c. 5 NMs
d. 1 Km
63. Incubation period of yellow fever is____ days
a. 6
b. 7
c. 8
d. 10
behind Medium A/C is ____ min
a. 02 mins
b. 5 mins
c. 3 mins
d. 1 min
65. Longitudinal separation between two A/C on same track is ________ mins
a. 10
b. 15
c. 20
d. 5
66. A/C incident should be notified with in ______ hrs
a. 24 hrs
b. 12 hrs
c. 48 hrs
d. 36 hrs
67. Indian Airspace comes under _______ class of airspace
a. A&B
b. D&E
c. A, B, C & D
d. D, E, F & G
68. No unauthorized person must be present within ______ mtrs of A/C, while refueling is on
a. 15 mts
b. 30 mts
c. 50 mts
d. 10 mts
69. An aircraft must fly ______ Nm away from International Border
a. !0 NMs
b. 15 NMs
c. 20 NMs
d. 25 NMs
a. 150 at 30 NMs.
b. 150 at 20 NMs.
c. 150 at 15 NMs.
d. 150 at 10 NMs.
71. Separation above F 290 is _______ upto F 410 _____ areas
a. 1000’
b. 3000’
c. 2000’
d. 4000’
a. by eastbound aircraft on IFR plan
b. by westbound aircraft on VFR plan
c. by eastbound aircraft on VFR plan
73. In VMC the vertical distance from cloud base is
a. 1000’
b. 2000’
c. 500’
d. 1.5 kms
74. Position report shall be made after every ______ in IMC, where no standard reporting
points exist.
a. 15 Mins
b. 20 Mins
c. 30 Mins
d. 60 Mins
75. Fresh ADC is required in case the flight is delayed by ______ minutes.
a. 10 mins
b. 15 mins
c. 30 mins
d. 60 mins
76. In India separation between 1FR and IFR are provided in ______ class of Airspace
a. D
b. A&B
c. D&F
d. D, E f & G
77. TMA means
a. Terminal Maintenance Area
b. The main Apron
c. Terminal Control Area
78. Displaced threshold lights will be in _____ colour
a. Red
b. Blue
c. Green
d. Yellow
a. 1000 in 5 Kms
b. 2000 in 8 Kms
c. 2000 in 5 kms
d. 1500
80. ______ Letter stands for non-scheduled flight in flight plan
a. S
b. N
c. ZZ
d. NS
81. Flight navigator shall be carried, if the flight is more than ______ NM and NAV-aid is
present with in ___ Nm of route
a. 600 Nm/30 Nm
b. 300 Nm/30 Nms
c. 600 Nm/60 Nm
d. 300 Nm/60 Nm
82. The _____ % of co-pilot flying is counted towards the renewal of CPL as PIC
a. 50%
b. 80%
c. 60%
d. 100%
83. 12 stripes of threshold markings indicate a rw width of
a. 30 m
b. 45 m
c. 60 m
d. 24 m
84. 4 Pairs of touch down zone markings indicate landing distance available
a. 900 m
b. 1200 to 1500 m
c. 1500 m to 2399
d. 2400 m or more
85. The visibility minima for take off, it the aerodrome is not equipped with radio nav aid is
___km.
a. 8 kms.
b. 10 kms.
c. 5 kms.
d. 3.7 kms
a. 12 hrs
b. 24 hrs
c. 48 hrs
d. 60 hrs
87. A signal made by radio-telegraphy (or) by any other signaling method consisting of the
group ‘XXX’ in Morse code indicates
a. Distress
b. urgency
c. Radio failure
d. Priority
a. White
b. Red
c. Blue
d. Green
89. An Air-miss incident report made by radio ( or) telephone must be confirmed with in ___
days
a. 2
b. 4
c. 7
d. 10
90. A person holding ______ shall fly ‘ Aerial work Aircraft’
a. PPL
b. CPL/ATLP
c. IR
d. Multi Engine Rating
91. ‘Flight by night means a flight performed between the period of
a. to 20 mins before sunrise from 20 mins after sunset
b. 15 mins before sunrise to 15 mins after sunset
c. 45 mins before sunrise to 45 mins after sunset
d. 60 mins before sunrise
92. ‘RPL’ shall be used for _______ flights only.
a. VFR Flts
b. Domestice flights
c. IFR Flts
d. International Flight
93. ‘Rockets (or) shells throwing red lights, fired one at a time at short intervals from an
aircraft indicate _______
a. Urgency
b. Priority
c. Distress
d. Over flying danger area
a. Wing tip vortices are carried by the ambient wind.
b. Wing tip vortices have a circular and downward motion.
c. Wake turbulence exists behind all aeroplanes and helicopters in flight.
d. Response (a), (b), (c) are correct.
a. heavy aeroplanes only, regardless of their speed.
b. Turbo-jet powered aircraft only.
c. Fast moving aeroplanes only, regardless of their weight.
d. all fixed and rotary wing aircraft.
96. A helicopter in forward flight produces hazardous vortices
a. Which rise above the helicopter.
b. Similar to wing tip vortices.
c. Which remains at the same level as the helicopter.
d. ahead of the helicopter
a. red flags
b. horizontal red squares with yellow diagonals
c. a white or yellow X
d. white dumb- bells.
a. QDM
b. QDR
c. QTE
d. QNH
a. Unidirectional red lights
b. Omni directional yellow lights
c. Unidirectional green lights
d. Omni directional blue lights
a. 1500 Kg
b. 5700 Kg
c. 10,000 Kg
d. 57,000 Kg
QUESTION PAPER - 3

a. DGCA
b. AAI
c. Civil Aviation Ministry
d. ICAO
2. AIP consists of
a. 3 parts (GEN, ENR & AD)
b. 4 parts (GEN, ENR, AD, MET)
c. 6 parts (GEN, ENR, AD, MET, CONN, ATC)
d. 2 parts (GEN, AD)
3. Regular amendments of the AIP will be
a. Twice a year in Jan and July month of each year
b. Every quarter of the year Jan, April, July, and Oct. month of each year.
c. Once every year in the month of April of each year.
4. In aircraft operating an international flight, over flying Indian territory is subjected to
a. Current Indian regulation to civil aviation
b. Regulation to civil aviation pertaining to the states of its registry
c. Regulation to civil aviation pertaining to the nation of the commander of the flight
d. ICAO Regulations
5. Which of the following regulation is not subjected to an Aircraft flying over Indian
territory
a. The Aircraft Act: 1934, the Aircraft Rules: 1937, the Anti-Hijacking Act: 1982
b. The India Aircraft rules: 1920, the aircraft ( Public health) rules: 1954, the Tokyo
convention Act: 1975
c. Indian civil laws
d. Carriage of dangerous good rules 2003
6. A passenger visited a yellow fever infected area on the previous six days, but is not in
possession of valid yellow fever certificate, then action taken by PIC of the flight is:
a. Send a radio message two hours before the arrival about the state of the
health of the passenger
b. No action required
c. Inform Airlines office after landing
d. Inform health authorities of the place of departure
a. 60 below the horizon
b. 00 at the horizon
c. 80 below the horizon
d. 120 below the horizon
8. Which of the following statements is not correct for classification of Airspace in India
a. Class D Airspace is applicable to TMA, control zones and control areas
b. Class E is applicable to Airspace in designated ATS route outside terminal and
control areas.
c. Class F in applicable to airspace outside CTAs/TMAs/CTRs/ATZs/ATS rute
d. Class G Airspace is applicable to airspace other than D,E and F
9. Which of following countries are not covered by Indian satellite Aided SAR programme
a. Malaysia, Maldives, Mauritius and Seychelles
b. Bhutan, Nepal, Bangladesh and Myanamar
c. Oman, Pakistan and U.A.E.
d. Srilanka, Nepal andThailand
10. Base leg is reported by the aircraft
a. On completion of the turn on to Base leg
b. On commencement of the turn on to Base leg
c. On abeam position, the upwind of the rwy
d. At the end of downward
11. An Aircraft shall report “long final” when it is at _________ from the approach end of
the rwy
a. 8 NMs
b. 4 NMs
c. 10 NMs
d. 2 NMs
12. A Cessna 152 aircraft force lands at a wheat field due to shortage of fuel. It will be
reported as
a. An accident
b. An incident
c. Not reportable
d. An Air Report
13. A pilot should never cross a
a. Stop bar which is switched off
b. Stop bar which is lighted
c. A taxy holding position marking
d. An intermediate holding position marking
14. FDTL for training flights does not restrict
a. Flight Time
b. Flight Duty Time
c. Number of landings
d. All of the above
15. For a flight at night in VMC, the approach to land will be
a. Same as day
b. Descend will be steep
c. Speed will be more
d. Landing distance will be more
16. Decision Altitude is applicable for
a. Non Precision Approaches
b. PAPI Approaches
c. Precision Approaches
d. All of the above
17. Prisoners on Board an aircraft can be carried with the permission of
a. DGCA
b. Controller of Aerodrome
c. Director General of Prisons
d. Police Commissioner
18. Flight time/ flight duty time limitations shall be applicable to
a. Pilots only
b. Pilots and cabin crews only
c. P-i-C and Co-Pilot only
d. all flight crew personnel
19. Large accumulation of carbon mono-oxide in the blood results in:
a. Dizziness
b. Fear
c. Hot and Cold Sensations
d. Disorientation
20. Deviations from International Standards and recommended practices are published in
a. AIRAC
b. AICs
c. AIP
d. ICAO Annexures
21. To find current watch hours of a station you should look into
a. AIRAC
b. AICs
c. AIP
d. Notams
22. ‘ATIS’ is a continuous broadcast of recorded information concerning
a. ATS information
b. ATS and Met information
c. Navigation Information
d. Traffic Information
23. Flight Mannual is to be carried by
a. All aircraft
b. Scheduled aircraft only
c. If C of a states so
d. All aircraft other than aerial work aircraft
24. An aircraft is on a track of 0300 (M) and reports crossing a point at 0412 Hrs at F 370.
Other aircraft at F 370 on a track of 1000 (M) can cross the same point not earlier than
a. 0422 hrs
b. 0417 hrs if 40 kts faster
c. 0427 hrs
d. 0402 hrs
25. An ac at F 390 is estimating to cross a point at 0210 hrs wishes to descent to F 310. There
is reciprocal traffic estimating to cross same point at 0300 hrs maintaining F 330. By
what time the descending aircraft should reach F 310 if both aircraft maintain same
speed?
a. 0215 hrs.
b. 0220 hrs.
c. 0225 hrs.
d. 0250 hrs.
26. OCA is used for determination of

a. MDA
b. DA
c. Both MDA and DA
27. The numbers 09 and 27 on a runway indicate that the runway is oriented approximately
b. 0900 and 2700 true
d. 0900 and 2700 compass
28. When approaching taxiway holding lines from the side with the continuous lines the pilot
a. may continue taxiing
b. should not cross the lines without ATC clearance
c. should continue taxiing until all parts of the aircraft have crossed the lines
d. continue taxiing if runway is vacant
29. The numbers 08 and 26 on the approach ends of the runway is oriented approximately
b. 0800 and 2600 true
d. 0080 and 26o0 compass
30. What is the purpose of the runway/ runway hold position sign?
a. Denotes enterance to runway from a taxiway
b. Denotes and protected for an aircraft approaching or departing a runway
c. Denotes intersecting runways
d. Denotes intersecting taxiways
a. there are obstructions on the airport
b. that weather at the airport located in Class D airspace is belfow basic VFR
weather minimum
c. the Air traffic Control is not in operation
d. runway is blocked
32. Wingtip valves are created only when an aircraft is
a. opta high airspeeds
b. heavily speed
c. develop lift
d. taxiing
33. Wing tip valves created by large aircraft tend to
a. sink below it aircraft generating turbulence
b. rise in traffic pattern
c. fireinfort takeoff or landing path of a crossing runway
d. risetow dy engines of the aircraft
34. How does the wake turbulence vortex circulate around each wingtip?
a. Inward, upward, and around each tip
b. Inward, upward and counterclockwise
c. Outward, upward and around each tip
d. Outward, upward and away from each tip
35. When taking off or landing where heavy aircraft are operating, one should be particularly
alert to the hazards of wingtip vortices because this turbulence tends to
a. rise from crossing runway into the takeoff or landing path
b. rise into the traffic pattern area surrounding the airport
c. Sink into the flightpath of aircraft generating the turbulence
d. Stay on runway in strong cross wind conditions
36. The greatest vortex strength occurs when the generating aircraft is
a. light dirty and fast
b. heavy dirty and fast
c. heavy clean and slow
d. light clean and slow
landing is a
a. light entry headwind
b. light entry tail wind
c. string head wind
d. string tail wind
38. When departing behind a heavy aircraft, the pilot should avoid wake turbulence by
a. below and downwind from the heavy aircraft
b. above and upwind from the heavy aircraft
c. below are upwind from the heavy aircraft
d. above are downwind from the heavy aircraft
39. When land up behind a large aircraft, the pilot should avoid wake turbulence by staying
a. above the large aircraft’s final approach path and landing beyond the large
aircraft …….. down point
b. below the large aircraft’s final approach path and landing before the large
aircraft’s touchdown point
c. above there are aircraft’s final approach path and landing before the large aircrafts
touch down point.
40. ………. Behind a large aircraft, which procedure should be followed for
a. final approach flightpath all the way to touchdown
b. to one side of its final approach flightpath
c. its final approach flightpath
d. approach and land
41. During a night flight, you observe a steady red light and a flashing red light ahead and at
a. The other aircraft is crossing to the left
b. The other aircraft is flying away from you
c. The other aircraft is approaching to the right
d. The other aircraft is coming head on
42. During a night flight, you observe steady white light and a flashing red light ahead and at
the same altitude, What is the general direction of movement of the other aircraft
a. The other aircraft is flying away from you
b. The other ……. Is crossing to the left
c. The other …….. is crossing to the right
d. The other…….. is approaching headon
43. During ……….. you observe steady red and green lights ahead and at the same altitude
……… is the general direction of movement of the other aircraft?
a. The is crossing to the left
b. The is flying away from you
c. The is approaching head-on
d. The is crossing to the right
44. The ………… method of scanning for other aircraft for collision avoidance during
………is to use
a. ………… concentration on the 3-, 9- and 12-0’ clock positions
b. ………………. regularly spaced eye movements to search each 10- degree
sector
c. ……………… scanning small sectors and utilizing offcenter viewing
d. ………………..objects for 30 secs.
45. The most effective method of scanning for other aircraft for collision avoidance during
night that hours is to use
a. concentration on the 3-, 9- and 12-0’ clock positions
b. regularly spaced eye movements to search each 10-degrees sector
c. scanning small sectors and utilizing officenter viewing
d. objects for 30 secs
46. How can you determine if another aircraft is on a collision course with your aircraft
a. The other aircraft will always appear to get larger and closer at a rapid rate
b. The rose of each aircraft is pointed at the same point in space
c. There will be no apparent relative motion between your aircraft and the
other aircraft
d. The ……… nose of other aircraft is pointed towards your aircraft
47. Pric… starting each maneuver, pilots should
a. check altitude, airspeed, and heading
b. visually scan the entire area for collision avoidance
c. announcae their intentions to the nearest ATC
d. tighean seat belt
48. Most midair collision accidents occur during
a. hazy day
b. clear day
c. cloudy nights
d. dark nights
49. After landing at a tower controlled airport, when should the pilot contract ground control?
a. When advised by the tower to do so
b. Prior to turning off the runway
c. After reaching a taxiway that leads directly to the parking area
d. On final approach
50. If constructed by ground control to taxi to Runway 09, the pilot may proceed
a. Via taxiwess and across runways to, but not onto, Runway 09
b. to the next …………. Runway where further clearance is required
c. Via taxiways and across runways to Runway 09, where an immediate takeoff may
be in
d. via taxi to runways 09 up to line up point
51. Oxygen is to be carried for all crew members and passengers above a absolute pressure of
a. 800 hpa
b. 700 hpa
c. 620 hpa
d. 1000 hpa
a. pilots of radar-identified aircraft whose aircraft is in dangerous proximity to
terrain or to an obstruction
b. non-essential information to reduce frequency congestion
c. non-control information in selected high- activity terminal areas
d. to warn pilots about conflicting traffic
53. If the control tower uses a light signal to direct a pilot to give way to other aircraft and
continue circling, the light will be
a. flashing red
b. steady red
c. alternating red and green
d. steady white
a. Flashing green
b. Steady green
c. Flashing white
d. Steady Red
55. An alternating red and green light signal directed from the control tower to an aircraft in
flight is a signal to
a. hold position
b. extreme caution
c. not land the airport is unsafe
d. Return to Apron
56. If the aircraft’s radio fails, what is the recommended procedure when landing at a
controlled airport?
a. Observe the traffic flow, enter the pattern, and look for a light signal from
the tower
b. Enter a crosswind leg and rock the wings
c. Flash the landing lights and cycle the landing gear while circling the airport
d. Rock wings
a. 118.0 and 118.8 MHz
b. 121.5 and 243.0 MHz
c. 123.0 and 119.0 MHz
d. 118.1 and 123.0 MHz
a. The current local altimeter setting, if available, or the departure airport
elevation
b. The corrected density altitude of the departure airport
c. The corrected pressure altitude for the departure airport
d. QFE
59. If an altimeter setting is not available before flight, to which altitude should the pilot
adjust the altimeter?
a. The elevation of the nearest airport corrected to mean sea level
b. The elevation of the departure area
c. Pressure altitude corrected for nonstandard temperature
d. QNE
60. 620 hpa absolute pressure is equal to
a. 10,000
b. 13,000
c. 15,000
d. 25,000
aircraft?
a. Enough to complete the flight at normal cruising speed with adverse wind
conditions
b. Enough to fly to the first point of intented landing and to fly after that for 30
minutes at normal cruising speed.
c. Enough to fly to the first point of intented landing thence to alternate and to
fly after that for 45 minutes
62. Taking simple medicine like ‘aspirin’ prior to flight
a. is safe
b. may slightly effect co-ordination
c. may reduce blood circulation
d. may seriously impair judgement
63. What is lowest altitude permitted for aerobatic flight?
a. 1,000 feet AGL
b. 1,500 feet AGL
c. 2,000 feet AGL
d. 6,000 feet AGL
64. No person may operate an aircraft in flight when
a. flight visibility is less than 5 kms
b. over any congested area of a city, town, or settlement below 1000
c. less than 2,500 feet AGL
d. Less than 3,000 AGL
65. The responsibility for ensuring that an aircraft is maintained in an airworthy condition is
primarily that of the
a. pilot in command
b. owner or operator
c. mechanic who performs the work
d. Chief Engineer
a. A state of oxygen deficiency in the body
b. An abnormal increase in the volume of air
c. A condition of gas bubble formation around the joints or muscles
d. Illusions during daytime
a. hyperventilation
b. aerosinusitis
c. aerotitis
d. hypoxia
a. Emotional tension, anxiety, or fear
c. An extremely slow rate of breathing and insufficient oxygen
d. Lack of sleep
69. A pilot should be able to overcome the symptoms or avoid future occurrences of
hyperventilation by
a. closely monitoring the flight instruments to control the airplane
b. slowing the breathing rate, breathing into a bag, or talking aloud
c. increasing the breathing rate in order to increase lung ventilation
d. flying without looking at instruments
a. they ignore the sensations of muscles and inner ear
b. body signals are used to interpret flight attitude
c. eyes are moved often in the process of cross-checking the flight instruments
d. adequate rest is not taken prior to flight
71. If a pilot experiences spatial disorientation during flight in a restricted visibility
condition, the best way to overcome the effect is to
a. rely upon the aircraft instrument indications
b. concentrate on yaw, pitch and roll sensations
c. consciously slow the breathing rate until symptoms clear and then resume normal
breathing rate
d. ignore instruments and go by visual indications
72. A state of temporary confusion resulting from misleading information being sent to the
brain by various sensory organs is defined as
a. spatial disorientation
b. hyperventilation
c. hypoxia
d. stress
73. The danger of spatial disorientation during flight in poor visual conditions may be
reduced by
a. shifting the eyes quickly between the exterior visual field and the instrument
panel
b. having faith in the instruments rather than taking a chance on the sensory
organs
c. leaning the body in the opposite direction of the motion of the aircraft
d. breathing into a bag
74. Which technique should a pilot use to scan for traffic to the right and left during straight-
and-level flight?
a. Systematically focus on different segments of the sky for short intervals
b. Concentration on relative movement detected in the peripheral vision area
c. Continuous sweeping of the windshield from right to left
d. Scan through the corner of the eyes
a. Haze causes the eyes to focus at infinity
b. The eyes tend to overwork in haze and do not detect relative movement easily
c. All traffic or terrain features appear to be farther away than their actual
distance
d. Objects appear to be closer than their actual distance
a. Do not stress eyes after sunset until ready for flight
b. Avoid red lights at least 30 minutes before the flight
c. Avoid bright white lights at least 30 minutes before the flight
d. Avoid any light atleast 30 mins before the flight.
77. What is the most effective way to use the eyes during night flight
a. Look only at far away, dim lights
b. Scan slowly to permit offcenter viewing
c. Concentrate directly on each object for a few seconds
d. Scan fast to avoid direct viewing
a. look to the side of the object and scan slowly
b. scan the visual field very rapidly
c. look to the side of the object and scan rapidly
d. look for anti collision lights
a. tightness across the forehead
b. loss of muscular power
c. an increased sense of well-being
d. lack of oxygen in blood stream
a. altitude increases
b. altitude decreases
c. air pressure increases
d. above 10,000 ft.
81. What often leads to spatial disorientation or collision with ground/obstacles when flying
under Visual Flight Rules (VFR)
a. Continual flight into instrument conditions
b. Getting behind the aircraft
c. Duck-under syndrome
d. Continual flight into good weather conditions
a. Structural failure
b. Mechanical malfunction
c. Human error
d. Special disorientation
b. Excessive carbon dioxide in the blood stream
c. Limited oxygen reaching the heart muscles
d. Lack of Hemoglobin in blood
84. What causes hypoxia
b. An increase in the nitrogen contents in the atmosphere at high altitude
d. Excessive carbon mono-oxide in the atmosphere
d. The percentage of CO2
b. Pain & cramping of the hands & feet
c. Dizziness
d. Laziness
a. Alcohol has adverse effect especially as the altitude increases
b. Small amounts of alcohol in the human system increases judgment & decision
making ability
c. Alcohol has little effect if followed by equal quantities of black coffee
d. Alcohol has no effect if taken more than 6 hrs before flight
a. Tingling of the hands & feet
c. Decreased breathing rate
d. Euphoria
89. What would most likely occur in hyperventilation
d. Dizziness
c. Looking out side every 30 seconds except in radar contact when outside scanning
is unnecessary
d. Continuously looking outside
91. Small amounts of alcohol in the system
a. may affect decision making abilities
b. will not affect judgment
c. will not have effect at sea level
d. can be cured by meditation
92. Which observed target aircraft would be of most concern with respect to collision
avoidance
increasing in size rapidly
d. Non of the above
93. When using earth’s horizon as a reference to determine the relative position of other
aircraft most concern would be for aircraft
a. Above the horizon & increasing in size
c. on the horizon & increasing in size
d. On the horizon & decreasing in size
94. When making an approach on narrow than usual runway without VASI assistance, the
pilot should be aware that the approach
b. Approach altitude may be lower than it appears
d. May result in an overshooting approach
95. When making a landing over a darkened or featureless terrain, such as water or snow
pilot should be aware of the possibility of illusion. This approach may appear to be
a. High
b. Low
c. Shallow
d. Normal
d. High on approach
a. Pitching up
b. Pitching down
c. Leveling off
d. Descending
a. No illusion
b. Lower than usual
c. Higher than usual
d. Normal approach
99. The FDTL may be extended by
a. DGCA
b. Operator
c. PIC
d. Central Govt.
a. 4 hrs.
b. 2 hrs.
c. 6 hrs.
d. 8 hrs.
AIR REGULATION
Name:___________________________________________________________________ Date:26/12/2016
Q1. The VMC minima for an airspace classified as ""G"" above 10 000 feet MSL are :
a) 1500 m horizontally and 1 000 feet vertically from clouds, 8 km visibility.
b) 1500 m horizontally and 1 000 feet verticaly from clouds, 5 km visibility
c) 1 nautical mile horizontally and 1 000 feet vertically from clouds, 5 km visibility
d) 1 nautical mile horizontally and 1000 feet vertically from clouds, 8 km visibility
Q2. A controlled flight is requested to inform the appropriate ATC unit whenever the average True Air
Speed at cruising level varies or is expected to vary from that given in the flight plan by plus or minus:
a) 2%
b) 3%
c) 5%
d) 10%
Q3. An aircraft intercepted by another aircraft, if equipped with SSR transponder shall, unless otherwise
instructed by the appropriate ATS unit, select one of the following code on mode ""A""
a) 7700
b) 7500
c) 7600
d) 7000
Q4. An aircraft intercepted by another aircraft shall immediately attempt to establish radio
communication with the intercepting aircraft on the following frequencies:
a) 243 MHz - 125.5 MHz
b) 121.5 MHz - 125.5 MHz
c) 121.5 MHz - 282.8 MHz
d) 121.5 MHz - 243 MHz
Q5. An airline is planning a flight that will require a Technical landing in a neighbouring state. Which
freedom of the Air will be exercised ?
a) 2nd freedom
b) 1st freedom
c) 3rd freedom
d) 4th freedom
Q6. The objectives of ICAO was ratified by the :

a) Geneva convention 1936
b) Warzaw convention 1929
c) Geneva convention 1948
d) Chicago convention 1944
Q7. Which body of ICAO finalises the Standard and Recommended Practices (SARPS) for submission for
adoption ?
a) the Air Navigation Commission
b) the Assembly
c) the Council
d) the Regional Air Navigation meeting
Q8. The Warsaw convention and later amendments deals with:

a) limitation of the operator¹s responsibility vis-á-vis passenger and goods transported
b) the regulation of transportation of dangerous goods
c) operator¹s licence for international scheduled aviation
d) the security system at airports
1
Q9. ""Cabotage"" refers to:
a) domestic air services, by foreign carrier,
b) a national air carrier,
c) a flight above territorial waters,
d) crop spraying
Q10. The Rome Convention and later amendments deals with :

a) Damage caused by foreign aircraft to third parties on the surface
b) Regulation of transportation of dangerous goods
c) Damage caused by any aircraft to third parties on the surface
d) offences and certain other acts committed on board aircraft
Q11. Which of the following Annexes to the Chicago convention contains minimum specifications for a
crew licence to have international validity?
a) Annex 3
b) Annex 2
c) Annex 1
d) Annex 4
Q11. The age of an applicant for a commercial pilot licence shall not be less than :
a) 18 years of age
b) 21 years of age
c) 17 years of age
d) 16 years of age
Q12. A flashing red light from control tower during an approach to land means:
a) The airport is unsafe, do not land
b) The airport is temporarily closed, continue circling
c) Give way to other aircraft in emergency
d) Continue circling and wait for further instructions
Q13. A double white cross displayed horizontally in the signal area means:
a) The aerodrome is being used by gliders and that glider flights are being performed.
b) An area unit for the movement of aircraft.
c) Special precautions must be observed due to bad state of the taxiways.
d) Need special precautions while approaching for landing.
Q14. Except when a clearance is obtained from an ATC unit, a VFR flight can not enter or leave a control
zone when ceiling is less than :
a) 1500 feet or visibility is less than 5 km
b) 1000 feet or visibility is less than 5 km
c) 2000 feet or visibility is less than 5 km
d) 1000 feet or visibility is less than 8 km
Q15. The person who has final authority as to the disposition of an aircraft during flight time is:
a) The commander(PIC)
b) The ATC controller if the aircraft is flying in a controlled airspace
c) The aircraft owner
d) The airliner operator
Q16. The VMC minima for an airspace classified as ""B"" above 10 000 feet MSL are :
a) clear of clouds, 8 km visibility
b) 1 mile horizontaly and 1 000 feet verticaly from clouds, 5 km visibility
c) 2 000 metres horizontaly, 1 000 feet verticaly from clouds, 8 km visibility
d) 1 nautical mile horizontaly and 1 000 feet verticaly from clouds, 8 km visibility
2
Q17. Which of the following actions shall be taken in case of a controlled flight deviates from the track?
a) Adjust the heading of aircraft to regain track as soon as practicable
b) Inform the ATC unit immediately
c) If VMC, maintain this condition, waiting for the ATC instructions
d) Notify ATC of the new track immediately and comply with instructions
Q18. While on IFR flight, a pilot has an emergency which causes a deviation from an ATC clearance. What
action must be taken?
a) The appropriate ATC unit shall be notified of the action taken as soon as circumstances permit
b) Request an amended clearance or cancel the IFR flight plan
c) Submit a detailed report to ATC within 24 hours
d) Squawk 7700
Q19. An aircraft is flying under Instrument Flight Rules in an area where the visibility is unlimited and the
sky is clear (free of clouds), when it totally loses radiocommunications. The procedure to be followed is:
a) land on the closest appropriate aerodrome, then advise Air Traffic Services of landing
b) adopt a VFR flight level and continue flight onto destination
c) continue flight onto destination, complying with last received clearances then with filed flight plan.
d) descend to En-route Minimum Safe Altitude and join closest airfield open to IFR operations
Q20. A red flare addressed to a flying aircraft means :

a) Come back and land.
b) Not withstanding any previous instructions, do not land for the time being.
c) Give way to another aircraft and hold the circuit.
d) Dangerous airfield. Do not land.
Q21. Where State has not established minimum IFR altitudes, the minimum height of an aircraft above
the highest obstacle over high terrain, or in mountainous areas shall be for an IFR flight :
a) at least 2000 feet within 8 KM of the estimated position
b) at least 1000 feet within 5KM of the estimated position
c) at least 1000 feet within 8 KM of the estimated position
d) at least 2000 feet within 5KM of the estimated position
Q22. An aircraft shall display, if so equipped, an anti-collision light:

a) on the ground when the engines are running
b) outside the daylight-period in flight, but not on the ground when it is being towed,
c) while taxiing, but not when it is being towed,
d) outside the daylight-period at engine-start. During the daylight-period this is not applicable,
Q23. The white dumb-bell with black perpendicular bar indicates that :
a) taxiing need not be confined to the taxiways ,
b) gliderflying is performed outside the landing area,
c) landing, take-off and taxiing is allowed on runway and/or taxiway only,
d) this aerodrome is using parallel runways
Q24. Your aircraft is intercepted by a military aircraft The signals given by this aircraft conflict with ATC
instructions You should :
a) request ATC for other instructions.
b) follow ATC instructions.
c) follow the instructions of the intercepting aircraft.
d) select code A7500 on your transponder.
Q25. Whilst flying in an aerodrome's traffic circuit, an aircraft receives a series of green flashes from the
tower. The aircraft :
a) is cleared to land.
b) must come back to land and the landing clearance will be sent in due time.
c) must land immediately and clear the landing area.
3
d) must give way to another aircraft.
Q26. An aircraft which is being subjected to unlawful interference ('hijacked') and is forced to divert from
the cleared track or cruising level without being able to communicate with ATS shall try to:
a) Continue at an altitude that differs from the semicircular rule with 1000 feet when above FL 290 and 500
feet when lower than FL 290
b) Fly the emergency triangle
c) Declare an emergency
d) As soon as possible commence emergency descent in order minimize the difference between cabin
pressure and outside pressure
Q27. An ATS airspace where IFR and VFR flights are permitted, all flights are subject to air traffic control
service and IFR flights are separated from other IFR flights and from VFR flights VFR flights are separated
from IFR flights and receive traffic information in respect of other VFR flights, is classified as :
a) Airspace C b) Airspace D
c) Airspace E d) Airspace B
Q28.An ATS airspace where IFR and VFR flights are permitted, all flights are subject to air traffic control
service and are separated from each other is classified as
a) Airspace B b) Airspace C
c) Airspace D d) Airspace E
Q29. Area Control Centres issue clearances for the purpose of:
a) Providing advisory service
b) Achieving separation between IFR flights
c) Providing flight Information Service
d) Achieving separation between controlled flights
Q30. You receive an IFR enroute clearance stating: Clearence expires at 0920. What does it mean ?
a) If not airborne until 0920, a new clearence has to be issued
b) Do not take off before 0920
c) The take off clearence is expected at 0920
d) After 0920 return to the ramp and file a new flight plan
Q31. The longitudinal separation minima based on time between aircraft at same cruising level where
navigation aids permit frequent determination of position and speed, is:
a) 10 minutes. b) 5 minutes.
c) 15 minutes. d) 3 minutes.
navigation aids permit frequent determination of position and speed and the preceding aircraft is
maintaining a true airspeed of 20 kt or more faster than the succeeding aircraft, is:
Q33. When an aircraft will pass through the level of another aircraft on the same track, the following
minimum longitudinal separation shall be provided:
a) 5 minutes at the time the level is crossed.
b) 10 minutes at the time the level is crossed.
c) 15 minutes at the time the level is crossed.
d) 20 minutes at the time the level is crossed.
Q34. The longitudinal separation minima based on distance using DME, and each aircraft ""on track""
uses DME stations, is:
a) 5 NM.
b) 10 NM.
c) 20 NM.
4
d) 20 NM when the leading aircraft maintains a true airspeed of 20 kt or more faster than the succeding
aircraft.
Q35. An aircraft is maintaining FL 150 within airspace class C. Another aircraft below at FL 140 is receiving
a clearance to descend to FL 70. It is severe turbulence in the area. When is the earliest that a clearance
to descend to FL 140 or below can be expected ?
a) When the other aircraft has reported that it has descended through FL 130
b) When the other aircraft has reported that it has left FL 140
c) When the other aircraft has reported that it has reached FL 70
d) When the other aircraft has reported that it has left FL 120
Q 36. When are ATIS broadcasts updated ?

a) Upon receipt of any official weather, regardless of content change or reported values
b) Every 30 minutes if weather conditions are below those for VFR , otherwise hourly
c) Only when weather conditions change enough to require a change in the active runway or instrument
approach in use
d) Only when the ceiling and/or visibility changes by a reportable value
Q37. The ATIS broadcast message should, whenever practicable, not exceed
a) 30 seconds b) 1 minute
c) 2 minutes d) 3 minutes
Q38. ATIS broadcast

a) shall not be transmitted on the voice channel of an ILS
b) Shall be transmitted on the voice channel of an ILS, on a discrete VHF frequency or on the voice channel
of a VOR
c) Shall not be transmitted on the voice of a VOR
d) Shall only be transmitted on a discrete VHF frequency
Q39. Flight Information Service shall be provided to aircraft in order to avoid collision hazards when
operating in airspace classes :
a) C, D, E, F, and G
b) F and G only
c) A, B, C, D, E, F and G
d) F only
Q40. The Alerting Service is provided by:

a) The ATS unit responsible for the aircraft at that moment.
b) The ATC unit responsible for the aircraft at that moment, when it is provided with 121.5 MHz.
c) Only by ATC units.
d) The Area Control Centres.
Q41. The phases related to an aircraft in emergency or believed in emergency are:

a) uncertainty phase, distress phase, urgency phase.
b) uncertainty phase, urgency phase, distress phase.
c) uncertainty phase, alert phase, distress phase.
d) uncertainty phase, alert phase, distress phase and urgency phase.
Q42. A radio communications, ""Distress"" differs from ""Urgency"" because in the first case:
a) There is a serious and imminent danger requiring immediate assistance.
b) The aeroplane has suffered damages which impair its fitness to fly.
c) The aeroplane will not be able to reach a suitable aerodrome.
d) The aeroplane or a passenger's safety require the flight immediately interrupted.
Q43. Which of the following statements regarding Alerting service is correct?

a) Alerting Service and Flight Information Service are often provided by the same ATS unit
5
b) The Alert phase is established when no communication has been received from an aircraft within a
period of thirty minutes after the time a communication should have been received,
c) The distress phase is established when an aircraft is known or believed th be the subject of unlawful
interference
d) Aircraft in the vicinity of an aircraft known or believed to be the subject of unlawful interference, shall be
informed about this,
Q44. Alert phase is defined as follows:

a) A situation where an apprehension exists as to the safety of an aircraft and its occupants.
b) An emergency event in which an aircraft and its occupants are considered to be threatened by a danger.
c) A situation related to an aircraft and its occupants are considered to be in a state of emergency.
d) A situation related to an aircraft which reports that the fuel on board is exhausted.
Q45. When on a RNP 1 route is indicated A342 Z, means that all turns shall be made within the allowable
RNP tolerance of a tangential arc between the straight leg segments with a radius of :
a) 15 NM on the route between 30° and 90° at and below FL 190
b) 15 NM on the route between 30° and 90° at and above FL 200
c) 22.5 NM on the route between 30° and 90° at and above FL 250
d) 25 NM on the route between 30° and 90° at and below FL190
Q46. A flight plan shall be submitted prior to departure for a controlled flight at least:
a) 60 minutes prior to departure.
b) 10 minutes prior to departure.
Q48. A notice containing information concerning flight safety, air navigation, technical, administration or
legislative matters and originated at the AIS of a state is called:
a) NOTAM.
b) Aeronautical Information Publication (AIP).
c) Aeronautical Information Circular (AIC).
d) AIRAC.
Q49. The closure of a runway for a year, because of maintenance, will be published :
a) only in AIP
b) only in NOTAM
c) in NOTAM and AIP, inclusive Supplement.
d) NOTAM, AIP and MAL
Q50. In which section of AIP are contained information elements relating to refuelling facilities and
limitations on refuelling services?
a) A/D. b) FAL.
c) GEN. d) SAR.
~:Good Luck:~
~:CRM:~
6
AIR REGULATION
NAME: _________________________________________________________________ Date: 06/01/2017
Q1. The aircraft commander, when he has reasonable grounds to believe that a person has commited or
is about to commit, on board the aircraft, an offense against penal law
a) may deliver such person to the competent authorities
b) may request such person to disembark
c) may require the assistance of passengers to restrain such person
d) may not require or authorise the assistance of other crew members
Q2. The registration mark shall be letters, numbers or a combination of letters and numbers and shall be
that assigned by :
a) the state of registry only
b) the state of registry or common mark registering authority
c) the International Civil Aviation Organisation
d) the International Telecommunication Union
Q3. To be able to execute a public transport flight, the minimum and maximum age (with ATPL) is :
a) 17 and 59 years b) 16 and 60 years
c) 21 and 59 years d) 18 and 60 years
Q4. When letters are used for registration mark combinations shall not be used which might be confused
with urgent signals for example
a) DDD b) RCC
c) LLL d) PAN
Q5. communicate to the intercepted aircraft ""YOU MAY PROCEED"" ?

a) Executing a climbing turn of 90 degrees or more without crossing the line of flight of the intercepted
aircraft.
b) Rocking wings twice and crossing in front of the aircraft.
c) Circling the intercepted aircraft in a clock-wise pattern.
d) Rocking the wings and flashing the navigational lights.
Q6. Your transponder code assigned by ATC is 5320.In flight, in case of radio communications failure, you
will squawk code :
a) A 5300 Mode C b) A 7600 Mode C
c) A 7620 Mode C d) A 0020 Mode C
Q7. Pilots shall not operate the SSR special position indicator (IDENT) feature unless:
a) Requested by ATC. b) They operate within controlled airspace.
c) They operate a transponder with Mode C. d) They operate within non controlled airspace
Q8. Aerodrome traffic is:

a) All traffic in the aerodrome circuit.
b) All traffic on the manoeuvring area.
c) All traffic on the movement area and flying in the vicinity of an aerodrome.
d) All traffic on the manoeuvring area and flying in the vicinity of an aerodrome.
Q9. Flight Information Region (FIR) is an airspace within which the following services are provided:
a) Flight Information Service, Alerting Service and Advisory Service.
b) Flight Information Service and Alerting Service.
c) Flight Information Service only.
d) Flight Information Service and Advisory Service.
1
Q11. An ATS airspace where IFR and VFR flights are permitted and all flights are subject to air traffic
control service. IFR flights are separated from other IFR flights and receive traffic information in respect
of VFR flights. VFR flights receive traffic information in respect of all other flights, is classified as :
a) Airspace D b) Airspace B
c) Airspace E d) Airspace A
a) F and G only b) C, D, E, F, and G
c) A, B, C, D, E, F and G d) F only
Q13. A strayed aircraft is :

a) only that aircraft which reports that it is lost
b) only that aircraft which has deviated significantly its intended track
c) An aircraft which has deviated significantly from its intended track or which reports that it is lost
d) an aircraft in a given area but whose identity has not been established
Q14. A RNAV distance based separation minimum may be used at the time the level is crossed, provided
that each aircraft reports its distance to or from the same ""on track"" way-point. This minimum is:
a) 80 NM. b) 60 NM.
c) 50 NM. d) 20 NM.
Q15. The EAT has to be transmitted to the pilot as soon as possible, in case the expected delay is :
a) 20 minutes b) 15 minutes or more
c) 10 minutes d) 5 minutes or more.
Q16. For an IFR flight to an airport equipped with navaids, the estimated time of arrival is the estimated
time at which the aircraft:
a) will land. b) will arrive overhead the initial approach fix.
c) will stop on the parking area. d) will leave the initial approach fix to start the final
approach
Q17. A minimum radar separation shall be provided until aircraft are established inbound on the ILS
localizer course and/or MLS final approach track. This minimum is, when independent parallel
approaches are being conducted :
a) 3.0 NM b) 5.0 NM
c) 1.0 NM d) 2.0 NM
Q18. An aircraft is considered to be maintaining its assigned level as long as the SSR mode C derived level
information indicated that it is within:
a) +/- 250 ft of the assigned level. b) +/- 200 ft of the assigned level.
c) +/- 300 ft of the assigned level. d) +/- 500 ft of the assigned level.
Q19. In which section of AIP are contained information elements relating to prohibited, restricted and
dangerous areas?
a) ENR. b) MAP.
c) GEN. d) AGA.
Q20. A notice providing information on Rules of the Air, Air Traffic Services and Air Navigation
Procedures and distributed in advance of its effective date is:
2
a) An AIRAC. b) A NOTAM RAC.
c) An ATS NOTAM. d) An Advisory NOTAM.
Q21. The identification of each prohibited, restricted and danger area shall be composed by :
a) The nationality letters for location indicators assigned to the state or territory, followed the letters P.
R and D and figures
b) The letters P (Prohibited), R (Restricted) and D (Dangerous) for the area concerned and figures
c) The nationality letters for the location indicators assigned to the state, followed by P, R and D
d) The letters P(Prohibited), R(Restricted) and D(Dangerous) followed by figures
Q22. Operationally significant changes to the AIP shall be published in accordance with :
a) AIP supplements and shall be clearly identifiable
b) NOTAM procedures and identified by acronym NOTAM followed by a number
c) AIRAC procedures and identified by the acronym AIRAC
d) AIC procedures and identified by the acronym AIC followed by a number
Q23. Which of the following flights has the greatest priority to land ?
a) VIP (Head of state) aircraft
b) Military aircraft
c) Emergency aircraft
d) Hospital aircraft carrying a very sick person needing immediate medical attention
Q24. Which of the following Annexes to the Chicago convention contains international standards and
recommended practices for air traffic services (ATS)?
a) Annex 11 b) Annex 14
c) Annex 6 d) Annex 17
Q25. A controlled airspace extending upwards from the surface of the earth to a specified upper limit is:
a) Control area. b) Control zone.
c) Air traffic zone. d) Advisory airspace.
Q26. A controlled airspace extending upwards from a specified limit above the earth is:
a) Control area. b) Control zone.
c) Advisory airspace. d) Flight Information Region.
Q27. A lower limit of a Control Area shall be established at a height above the ground level or water of
not less than:
a) 200 metres. b) 300 metres.
c) 150 metres. d) 500 metres.
Q28. The pilot of a departing aircraft flying under IFR shall change the altimeter setting from QNH to
standard setting 1013.25 hPa when passing:
a) Transition altitude. b) Transition layer.
c) Transition level. d) The level specified by ATC.
Q29. The vertical position of an aircraft at or below the transition altitude will be reported:
a) according pilot's choice. b) as height.
c) as hlight level. d) as altitude.
Q30. Transition from altitude to flight level, and vice-versa is done:

a) only at transition altitude.
b) at transition level during climb and transition altitude during descent.
c) at transition altitude during climb and transition level during descent.
d) only at transition level.
Q31. A Control Zone shall extend laterally to at least:
3
a) 5 nautical miles from the centre of the aerodrome or aerodromes concerned in
the direction from which approaches may be made.
b) 10 miles from the centre of the aerodrome or aerodromes concerned in the direction from
which approaches may be made.
c) 15 miles from the centre of the aerodrome or aerodromes concerned in the direction from
d) 20 miles from the centre of the aerodrome or aerodromes concerned in the direction from
Q32. Required Navigation Performance (RNP) shall be prescribed

a) by states on the basis of regional air navigation agreements
b) by states but not on the basis of regional air agreements
c) by ICAO on the basis of regional air navigation agreements
d) by regional air navigation agreements
Q33. What is the speed limit (IAS) in airspace class E?

a) 250 kt only for VFR up to FL 195 b) 250 kt for IFR and VFR UP TO FL 100
c) 250 kt VFR and IFR, all levels d) 250 kt only for IFR up to FL 100
Q34. The VMC minima for a VFR flight inside an ATS airspace classified as B, is :
a) 8 km visibility when at or above 3050 m (10.000 ft) AMSL and clear of clouds
b) 8 km visibility when at or above 3050 m (10.000 ft) AMSL, and 1500 m horizontal and
300 m vertical from clouds
c) 5 NM visibility below 3050 m (10.000 ft) AMSL, clear of clouds
d) 5 NM visibility when below 3050 m (10.000 ft) AMSL, 1500 m horizontal and 300 m vertical from cloud
Q36. An ATS airspace where IFR and VFR are permitted IFR flights are subject to Air Traffic Control
Service and are separated from other IFR flights. All flights receive traffic information as far as is
practical, is classified as
a) Airspace E b) Airspace D
c) Airspace B d) Airspace A
Q37. What is the shortest distance in a sequence for landing between a 'Heavy' aircraft preceding a
'Light' aircraft
a) 3 NM b) 6 NM
c) 2 km d) 10 km
Q38. ATIS broadcast messages containing departure and arrival information should include cloud cover,
when the clouds are :
a) below 1 500 m (5.000 ft) or below the highest minimum sector altitude, whichever is the greater
b) below 900 m (3.000 ft) or below the highest minimum sector altitude, whichever is the greater
c) below 2 000 m (600 ft) or below the highest minimum sector altitude, whichever is the greater
d) cumulonimbus
Q39. When an aircraft is experiencing difficulties, triggering of the alert phase is the responsibility of:
a) control centres only. b) search and rescue coordination centres.
c) air traffic coordination centres. d) air traffic control and flight information centers.
Q40. Which letter is used in a flight plan to indicate that the flight commences in accordance with VFR
and subsequently changes to IFR?
a) Z b) I
4
c) V d) Y
Q41. A pilot receiving an IFR clearance from ATC should:

a) Read back should be unsolicited.
b) Read back those parts containing level assignments, vectors or any part requiring verification.
c) Read back the initial route clearance, level assignments and transponder codes.
d) Read back the entire clearance as required by regulation .
Q42. Track separation between aircraft using the same NDB shall be applied requiring the aircraft to fly:
a) At least 15° separated at a distance of 15 NM or more from the facility.
b) At least 30° separated at a distance of 15 NM or more from the facility.
c) At least 45° separated at a distance of 15 NM or more from the facility.
Q43. What are the controlled IFR separation methods applied by ATC?
a) Vertical, horizontal and composite separation. b) Vertical, horizontal and longitudinal
separation.
c) Time separation and track separation. d) Composite separation.
Q44. Above flight level FL 290 the vertical flight separation between aircraft on the same direction is:
a) 3000 feet. b) 2000 feet.
c) 4000 feet. d) 1500 feet.
Q45. One minute separation may be used between departing aircraft if they are to fly on tracks diverging
by at least:
a) 10° immediately after take-off. b) 15° immediately after take-off.
c) 30° immediately after take-off. d) 45° immediately after take-off.
Q46. What is the minimum vertical separation between aircraft flying IFR below flight level 290?
a) 1000 feet b) 500 feet
c) 1500 feet d) 2000 feet
Q47. Aircraft from Kolkata to delhi , what is the next FL available after FL290
a) FL 300 b) FL 310 c) FL 320 d) FL 330
Q48. Aircraft from Mumbai to nagpur , what is the next FL available after FL290 non RVSM
a) FL 300 b) FL 310 c) FL 320 d) FL 330
Q49. Aircraft from chennai to mumbai , what is the next FL available after FL290 in RVSM airspace
a) FL 300 b) FL 310 c) FL 320 d) FL 330
Q50. Aircraft from Delhi to kolkata, what is the next FL available after FL290 in non RVSM airspace
a) FL 300 b) FL 310 c) FL 320 d) FL 330
Q51. Complete the following: 5Marks
Annex 1
Annex 3
Annex 5
Annex 7
Annex 9
Annex 11
Annex 13
Annex 15
Annex 17
Annex 19
5
Light Aircraft in Fligh Aircraft on Ground

Steady Green
Steady Red
Series Of Green Flashes
Series Of Red Flashes
Series Of White Flashes
Red pyrotechnic
Light signal from Aerodrome control to

Meaning
Vehicular Traffic
~:CRM:~
_All The Best_
6
AIR REGULATION
Name:___________________________________________________________________ Date:26/12/2016
Q1. The VMC minima for an airspace classified as ""G"" above 10 000 feet MSL are :
a) 1500 m horizontally and 1 000 feet vertically from clouds, 8 km visibility.
b) 1500 m horizontally and 1 000 feet verticaly from clouds, 5 km visibility
c) 1 nautical mile horizontally and 1 000 feet vertically from clouds, 5 km visibility
d) 1 nautical mile horizontally and 1000 feet vertically from clouds, 8 km visibility
Q2. A controlled flight is requested to inform the appropriate ATC unit whenever the average True Air
Speed at cruising level varies or is expected to vary from that given in the flight plan by plus or minus:
a) 2%
b) 3%
c) 5%
d) 10%
Q3. An aircraft intercepted by another aircraft, if equipped with SSR transponder shall, unless otherwise
instructed by the appropriate ATS unit, select one of the following code on mode ""A""
a) 7700
b) 7500
c) 7600
d) 7000
Q4. An aircraft intercepted by another aircraft shall immediately attempt to establish radio
communication with the intercepting aircraft on the following frequencies:
a) 243 MHz - 125.5 MHz
b) 121.5 MHz - 125.5 MHz
c) 121.5 MHz - 282.8 MHz
d) 121.5 MHz - 243 MHz
Q5. An airline is planning a flight that will require a Technical landing in a neighbouring state. Which
freedom of the Air will be exercised ?
a) 2nd freedom
b) 1st freedom
c) 3rd freedom
d) 4th freedom
Q6. The objectives of ICAO was ratified by the :

a) Geneva convention 1936
b) Warzaw convention 1929
c) Geneva convention 1948
d) Chicago convention 1944
Q7. Which body of ICAO finalises the Standard and Recommended Practices (SARPS) for submission for
adoption ?
a) the Air Navigation Commission
b) the Assembly
c) the Council
d) the Regional Air Navigation meeting
Q8. The Warsaw convention and later amendments deals with:

a) limitation of the operator¹s responsibility vis-á-vis passenger and goods transported
b) the regulation of transportation of dangerous goods
c) operator¹s licence for international scheduled aviation
d) the security system at airports
1
Q9. ""Cabotage"" refers to:
a) domestic air services, by foreign carrier,
b) a national air carrier,
c) a flight above territorial waters,
d) crop spraying
Q10. The Rome Convention and later amendments deals with :

a) Damage caused by foreign aircraft to third parties on the surface
b) Regulation of transportation of dangerous goods
c) Damage caused by any aircraft to third parties on the surface
d) offences and certain other acts committed on board aircraft
Q11. Which of the following Annexes to the Chicago convention contains minimum specifications for a
crew licence to have international validity?
a) Annex 3
b) Annex 2
c) Annex 1
d) Annex 4
Q11. The age of an applicant for a commercial pilot licence shall not be less than :
a) 18 years of age
b) 21 years of age
c) 17 years of age
d) 16 years of age
Q12. A flashing red light from control tower during an approach to land means:
a) The airport is unsafe, do not land
b) The airport is temporarily closed, continue circling
c) Give way to other aircraft in emergency
d) Continue circling and wait for further instructions
Q13. A double white cross displayed horizontally in the signal area means:
a) The aerodrome is being used by gliders and that glider flights are being performed.
b) An area unit for the movement of aircraft.
c) Special precautions must be observed due to bad state of the taxiways.
d) Need special precautions while approaching for landing.
Q14. Except when a clearance is obtained from an ATC unit, a VFR flight can not enter or leave a control
zone when ceiling is less than :
a) 1500 feet or visibility is less than 5 km
b) 1000 feet or visibility is less than 5 km
c) 2000 feet or visibility is less than 5 km
d) 1000 feet or visibility is less than 8 km
Q15. The person who has final authority as to the disposition of an aircraft during flight time is:
a) The commander(PIC)
b) The ATC controller if the aircraft is flying in a controlled airspace
c) The aircraft owner
d) The airliner operator
Q16. The VMC minima for an airspace classified as ""B"" above 10 000 feet MSL are :
a) clear of clouds, 8 km visibility
b) 1 mile horizontaly and 1 000 feet verticaly from clouds, 5 km visibility
c) 2 000 metres horizontaly, 1 000 feet verticaly from clouds, 8 km visibility
d) 1 nautical mile horizontaly and 1 000 feet verticaly from clouds, 8 km visibility
2
Q17. Which of the following actions shall be taken in case of a controlled flight deviates from the track?
a) Adjust the heading of aircraft to regain track as soon as practicable
b) Inform the ATC unit immediately
c) If VMC, maintain this condition, waiting for the ATC instructions
d) Notify ATC of the new track immediately and comply with instructions
Q18. While on IFR flight, a pilot has an emergency which causes a deviation from an ATC clearance. What
action must be taken?
a) The appropriate ATC unit shall be notified of the action taken as soon as circumstances permit
b) Request an amended clearance or cancel the IFR flight plan
c) Submit a detailed report to ATC within 24 hours
d) Squawk 7700
Q19. An aircraft is flying under Instrument Flight Rules in an area where the visibility is unlimited and the
sky is clear (free of clouds), when it totally loses radiocommunications. The procedure to be followed is:
a) land on the closest appropriate aerodrome, then advise Air Traffic Services of landing
b) adopt a VFR flight level and continue flight onto destination
c) continue flight onto destination, complying with last received clearances then with filed flight plan.
d) descend to En-route Minimum Safe Altitude and join closest airfield open to IFR operations
Q20. A red flare addressed to a flying aircraft means :

a) Come back and land.
b) Not withstanding any previous instructions, do not land for the time being.
c) Give way to another aircraft and hold the circuit.
d) Dangerous airfield. Do not land.
Q21. Where State has not established minimum IFR altitudes, the minimum height of an aircraft above
the highest obstacle over high terrain, or in mountainous areas shall be for an IFR flight :
a) at least 2000 feet within 8 KM of the estimated position
b) at least 1000 feet within 5KM of the estimated position
c) at least 1000 feet within 8 KM of the estimated position
d) at least 2000 feet within 5KM of the estimated position
Q22. An aircraft shall display, if so equipped, an anti-collision light:

a) on the ground when the engines are running
b) outside the daylight-period in flight, but not on the ground when it is being towed,
c) while taxiing, but not when it is being towed,
d) outside the daylight-period at engine-start. During the daylight-period this is not applicable,
Q23. The white dumb-bell with black perpendicular bar indicates that :
a) taxiing need not be confined to the taxiways ,
b) gliderflying is performed outside the landing area,
c) landing, take-off and taxiing is allowed on runway and/or taxiway only,
d) this aerodrome is using parallel runways
Q24. Your aircraft is intercepted by a military aircraft The signals given by this aircraft conflict with ATC
instructions You should :
a) request ATC for other instructions.
b) follow ATC instructions.
c) follow the instructions of the intercepting aircraft.
d) select code A7500 on your transponder.
Q25. Whilst flying in an aerodrome's traffic circuit, an aircraft receives a series of green flashes from the
tower. The aircraft :
a) is cleared to land.
b) must come back to land and the landing clearance will be sent in due time.
c) must land immediately and clear the landing area.
3
d) must give way to another aircraft.
Q26. An aircraft which is being subjected to unlawful interference ('hijacked') and is forced to divert from
the cleared track or cruising level without being able to communicate with ATS shall try to:
a) Continue at an altitude that differs from the semicircular rule with 1000 feet when above FL 290 and 500
feet when lower than FL 290
b) Fly the emergency triangle
c) Declare an emergency
d) As soon as possible commence emergency descent in order minimize the difference between cabin
pressure and outside pressure
service and IFR flights are separated from other IFR flights and from VFR flights VFR flights are separated
from IFR flights and receive traffic information in respect of other VFR flights, is classified as :
a) Airspace C b) Airspace D
c) Airspace E d) Airspace B
Q28.An ATS airspace where IFR and VFR flights are permitted, all flights are subject to air traffic control
Q29. Area Control Centres issue clearances for the purpose of:
a) Providing advisory service
b) Achieving separation between IFR flights
c) Providing flight Information Service
d) Achieving separation between controlled flights
Q30. You receive an IFR enroute clearance stating: Clearence expires at 0920. What does it mean ?
a) If not airborne until 0920, a new clearence has to be issued
b) Do not take off before 0920
c) The take off clearence is expected at 0920
d) After 0920 return to the ramp and file a new flight plan
navigation aids permit frequent determination of position and speed, is:
Q33. When an aircraft will pass through the level of another aircraft on the same track, the following
minimum longitudinal separation shall be provided:
a) 5 minutes at the time the level is crossed.
b) 10 minutes at the time the level is crossed.
c) 15 minutes at the time the level is crossed.
d) 20 minutes at the time the level is crossed.
Q34. The longitudinal separation minima based on distance using DME, and each aircraft ""on track""
uses DME stations, is:
a) 5 NM.
b) 10 NM.
c) 20 NM.
4
d) 20 NM when the leading aircraft maintains a true airspeed of 20 kt or more faster than the succeding
aircraft.
Q35. An aircraft is maintaining FL 150 within airspace class C. Another aircraft below at FL 140 is receiving
a clearance to descend to FL 70. It is severe turbulence in the area. When is the earliest that a clearance
to descend to FL 140 or below can be expected ?
a) When the other aircraft has reported that it has descended through FL 130
b) When the other aircraft has reported that it has left FL 140
c) When the other aircraft has reported that it has reached FL 70
d) When the other aircraft has reported that it has left FL 120
Q 36. When are ATIS broadcasts updated ?

a) Upon receipt of any official weather, regardless of content change or reported values
b) Every 30 minutes if weather conditions are below those for VFR , otherwise hourly
c) Only when weather conditions change enough to require a change in the active runway or instrument
approach in use
d) Only when the ceiling and/or visibility changes by a reportable value
Q37. The ATIS broadcast message should, whenever practicable, not exceed
a) 30 seconds b) 1 minute
c) 2 minutes d) 3 minutes
Q38. ATIS broadcast

a) shall not be transmitted on the voice channel of an ILS
b) Shall be transmitted on the voice channel of an ILS, on a discrete VHF frequency or on the voice channel
of a VOR
c) Shall not be transmitted on the voice of a VOR
d) Shall only be transmitted on a discrete VHF frequency
a) C, D, E, F, and G
b) F and G only
c) A, B, C, D, E, F and G
d) F only
Q40. The Alerting Service is provided by:

a) The ATS unit responsible for the aircraft at that moment.
b) The ATC unit responsible for the aircraft at that moment, when it is provided with 121.5 MHz.
c) Only by ATC units.
d) The Area Control Centres.
Q41. The phases related to an aircraft in emergency or believed in emergency are:

a) uncertainty phase, distress phase, urgency phase.
b) uncertainty phase, urgency phase, distress phase.
c) uncertainty phase, alert phase, distress phase.
d) uncertainty phase, alert phase, distress phase and urgency phase.
Q42. A radio communications, ""Distress"" differs from ""Urgency"" because in the first case:
a) There is a serious and imminent danger requiring immediate assistance.
b) The aeroplane has suffered damages which impair its fitness to fly.
c) The aeroplane will not be able to reach a suitable aerodrome.
d) The aeroplane or a passenger's safety require the flight immediately interrupted.
Q43. Which of the following statements regarding Alerting service is correct?

a) Alerting Service and Flight Information Service are often provided by the same ATS unit
5
b) The Alert phase is established when no communication has been received from an aircraft within a
period of thirty minutes after the time a communication should have been received,
c) The distress phase is established when an aircraft is known or believed th be the subject of unlawful
interference
d) Aircraft in the vicinity of an aircraft known or believed to be the subject of unlawful interference, shall be
informed about this,
Q44. Alert phase is defined as follows:

a) A situation where an apprehension exists as to the safety of an aircraft and its occupants.
b) An emergency event in which an aircraft and its occupants are considered to be threatened by a danger.
c) A situation related to an aircraft and its occupants are considered to be in a state of emergency.
d) A situation related to an aircraft which reports that the fuel on board is exhausted.
Q45. When on a RNP 1 route is indicated A342 Z, means that all turns shall be made within the allowable
RNP tolerance of a tangential arc between the straight leg segments with a radius of :
a) 15 NM on the route between 30° and 90° at and below FL 190
b) 15 NM on the route between 30° and 90° at and above FL 200
c) 22.5 NM on the route between 30° and 90° at and above FL 250
d) 25 NM on the route between 30° and 90° at and below FL190
Q46. A flight plan shall be submitted prior to departure for a controlled flight at least:
a) 60 minutes prior to departure.
b) 10 minutes prior to departure.
Q48. A notice containing information concerning flight safety, air navigation, technical, administration or
legislative matters and originated at the AIS of a state is called:
a) NOTAM.
b) Aeronautical Information Publication (AIP).
c) Aeronautical Information Circular (AIC).
d) AIRAC.
Q49. The closure of a runway for a year, because of maintenance, will be published :
a) only in AIP
b) only in NOTAM
c) in NOTAM and AIP, inclusive Supplement.
d) NOTAM, AIP and MAL
Q50. In which section of AIP are contained information elements relating to refuelling facilities and
limitations on refuelling services?
a) A/D. b) FAL.
c) GEN. d) SAR.
~:Good Luck:~
~:CRM:~
6
AIR REGULATIONS
CPL LEVEL QUESTIONS
(Check Accuracy of Answers)
Air Regulations 1
1. When refuelling an aircraft

a. No unauthorised person with in ……………….15 m
b. No naked flame with in………………………………30m
c. No smoking with in……………………………………30m
2. A red flag on the ATC indicates……………………Flying in progress
3. To an aircraft a red flag on the ATC indicates…………………Nothing
4. At Bombay over Malabar hills flying is not permitted within a distance of

a. 2 nm
b. 5 Km
c. 1 nm
5. The air space over Mathura refinery is a

a Restricted area
b. Prohibited area
c. Danger area
6. The isolation period for yellow fever is ……………………………… 6 Days
7. At an aerodrome a red square with two yellow diagonals indicates……

Landing prohibited and prohibition is likely to be prolonged.
8. A series of green flashes directed -towards an aircraft on the ground indicates

…………………………………Clear to taxi
9. Officers belonging to Army/Navy/Air Force

a. Can carry arms on board a civil aircraft
b. Can not carry arms on board a civil aircraft
10. An extremely sick person

a. Can not be carried on board an aircraft
b. Can be carried on board an aircraft
c. Can be carried on board an aircraft, if Accompanied by an attendant
& certified by a registered medical practitioner
11. The certificate pf air worthiness is suspended

a. After an accident
b. After unauthorized modification have been done
c. Aircraft suffers a major defect
d. All of the above
12. The remains of a crashed aircraft can be tampered / removed to

a. Extricate persons/animals alive or dead
b. Clear the R/W to allow air traffic
c. Take it to place of safety
d. All the above
13. After a forced coming landing an aircraft can T/O for base for repair weather
purpose with put the permission of the DGCA……………… True/False
14. An aircrafrt coming landing from Bombay to Delhi lands at Jaipur due to
weather. It can T/O again without the permission of the DGCA……True/False
15. Aircraft flying on the the same track & level the longitudinal separation is
a. 30 mts
b. 15 mts
c. 05 mts
16. Aircraft flying on the the same track & level when frequent position fixing is
possible the longitudinal separation is
a. 30 mts
b. 15 mts
c. 05 mts
d. None of above
17. The reciprocal tracks on a semicircular system below F/L 290 have vertical
clearance of
a. 500 feet
b. 1000 feet
c. 2000 feet
18. In India the semicircular system starts from F/L

a. 150 ( But see new circular)
b. 170
c. 290
d. 160
19. The rules for public health were published in

a. 1954
a. 1934
b. 1939
c. 1947
20. Which aircraft may be on a collision course?

a. Arcraft on the right with red navigation light in sight
b. Arcraft on the left with red navigation light in sight
c Aircraft on the right with white navigation light in s
21. THr green navigation light is visible through

a. 110 deg from forward to the right
b. 110 deg from -forward to the left
c. 110 deg from tail to the right
d. 140 deg
22. A light aircraft departs behind a medium aircraft the time gap between the Two
is
a. 1 mt
b. 2 mts
c. 3 mts
d. 5 mts
23. Cabotage of traffic refers to

a. Operation of a commercial A/C of a contracting state to carry
passengers / cargo between two points within the territory of another
contracting state
b. Operation of a commercial A/C of a contracting to carry passengers/cargo
between two points outside the territory of another contracting state
c. Operation of a commercial A/C of a contracting to carry passengers / cargo
to the territory of another contracting state
d. Operation of a commercial A/C of a contracting to carry passengers/cargo
out from the another of another contracting state
24. Thresh hold is

a. Beginning of the runway
b. Beginning of that part of the runway usable for landing
c. A point where taxy ways meet
25. The displaced threshold is indicated by

a. White lines
b. Green lines
c. Red lines
d. Yellow lines
26. The displaced threshold is indicated by

a White lights
b. Green lights
c. Red lights
d. Yellow lights
27. The end of the R/W is indicated by

a White lights
b. Green lights
c. Red lights
d. Yellow lights
28. For the purpose of renewal of CPL

a. 50 % of co-pilot flying is counted as PIC
b. 50 % of instrument flying is counted as PIC
c. 80 % of co-pilot flying is counted as PIC
29. The ATC is no be intimated if the actual TAS is more then the planned TAS by
a. 5%
b. 7%
c. 10%
30. An aircraft can be detained, under which act

a. 8
b. 8a
c. 8b
d. 8c
31. Navigator is required to be carried on board if

a. For a distance of more than 600 nm no Nav aid is available on the route
b. For a distance of more than 600 nm no Navigation aid is available within
30 nm either side of the route
32. The lateral separation between aircraft using VOR is

a. 15 deg at a distance of 15 nm or less
b. 15 deg at a distance of 15 nm or more
c. 30 deg at a distance of 15 nm or more
d. 30 deg at a distance of 15 nm or less
33. The lateral separation between aircraft using NDB is

34. The lateral separation between aircraft using DR is

35. In class A airspace.

a. All flights are permitted
b. Only VFP flights are permitted
c. Only IFR flights are permitted
36. In class C airspace.

a. IFR & VFR flights are permitted & are subjects to Air Traffic Control
b. IFR flight are separated from other IFR flights & from the VFR flights & receives information
in respect of VFR flight
c. VFR flight are separated from other IFR flights & the IFR flights & receives information in
respect of VFR flight
d. All are correct
37. In class D air space.

a. IFR & VFR flights are permitted & all flight are subjects to Air Traffic Control
b. IFR flight are separated from other IFR flights & from the IFR flights & receives information
in respect of VFR flight
c. VFR flight receives traffic about other flight
d. All are correct
38. In class E airspace.

a. IFR & VFR flights are permitted
b. All flights receive traffic information
c. IFR flights are subject to Air Traffic Control & are separated from other – IFR flights
d. All are correct
39. In a class F air space

b. IFR flights receive air traffic advisory service
c. All flights receive flight information service on request
d. All are correct
40. In a class G air space

b. All flights receive flight information service on request
c. Both are correct
41. In class B air space

b. All flights are subject to Air Traffic Control & are separated from each other
c. All are correct
42. All flights are permitted in which airspace

a. Class B
b. Class C & D
c. Class E, F, G
d. All are correct
AIR REGULATIONS 2
1. An aircraft can fly within 10 nm of an airfield this area is called

a. Restricted area
b. Danger area
c. Prohibited area
d. Airfield area
2. Penalty for carrying explosive or arms & giving wrong statements

a. 2 years of imprisonment & fine
b. 2 years of imprisonment
c. 1 year imprisonment & fine
3. Mails can be carried in the aircraft with the permission of

a. DGCA
b. DDGCA
c. DR & T
d. DGP &T
4. Photography at an aerodrome can be allowed with the permission of

a. DGCA
b. DM
c. Commissioner of police
5. The C of A is deemed to be lapsed if

a. A modification is made without approval of DGCA
b. Aircraft is involved in an accident
c. Aircraft suffers a major damage
d. All are correct
6. Military personnel can carry arms a ammunition in an aircraft with the written permission of
a. DGCA
b. Central Govt
c. Army HQ
7. An aircraft has forced landed at an aerodrome. It can take of again

a. If the pilot is satisfied after an inspection that the aircraft is air worthy
b. With the permission of DGCA
c. With the permission of commissioner of police
d. Any of the above
8. On change of ownership the aircraft
a. Can fly immediately
b. Can not fly till registered in the name of new owner
c. Can not fly till permission is obtained from central Govt
d. Can not fly till permission is obtained from new owner
9. Landing & housing charges are charged as per the

a. AUW of the aircraft at the time of landing
b. Maximum AUW of the aircraft
c. Number of persons on board
d. Navigation facilities used

a. All aircraft
b. All private aircraft
c. Aircraft involved in scheduled transport services

a. On a cress country flight
b. For all aircraft operating within ADIZ
c. When returning to base on the same day
d. It is not recruited when returning to base on the same day
12. Dead body or remains of a person who has died of yellow fever can be brought to India with
the permission of
a. Health officer
b. Indian embassy abroad
c. Central Govt
d. Can not be brought
13. The crew of an aircraft should not consume any alcholic drinks.
a. With in 12 hours before the flight
b. As in ‘a’ & during flight
c. With in 24 hours before the flight
14. Mental patients cannot be carried in an aircraft except when

a. Certified by an RMP as fit to fly without causing harm to the passenger
b. Accompanied by an attendant
c. Both are the correct
15. Loose sheets of paper containing printed matter can be dropper from an aircraft
with the permission of
a. DM
b. Commissioner of police
c. Both are correct
16. In India the IFR & VFR flights
a Separated from each other
b. Not separated
c. Not separated but information is given to other aircraft
17. The minimum number of Stewards/air hostesses to be carried on board if the

passenger carrying capacity is 63
a. 1
b. 2
c. 3
18. Pilots logbook is to be preserved for

a. 5 years from the date of starting the log book
b. 5 years from the date of last entry
c. till the pilot retires
19. Two white crosses on a signal square indicate

a. Area not fit for the use of aircraft
b. Gliding in progress
c. Take permission before landing
20. Over hilly areas IFR flights require a vertical clearance of

a. 2000 feet with in 8 Km of the position of aircraft
b. 2000 feet with in 5 Km of the position of aircraft
c. 1000 feet with in 8 Km of the position of aircraft
d. 1000 feet with in 5 Km of the position of aircraft
21. Control of air traffic over an aerodrome below 3000 feet is by

a. Approach control
b. Aerodrome control
c. Control area
22. Aerobatics should not be performed below

a. 2000 feet
b. 5000 feet
c. 4000 feet
d. 6000 feet
23. R/T signal for emergency is

a. Security
b. Pan Pan
c. May day

a. 2 years
b. 1 year
c. 1 year if age is less than 40 years
d. 2 years if the age is less than 40 years
25. Over Bombay aerodrome

a. An aircraft can not fly VTR
b. An aircraft can fly VFR
c. An aircraft can not fly IFR
26. Information has been received that an aircraft is about
make a forced landing. It is
a. Alert phase
b. Uncertainty
c. Distress phase
27. Talking about the ATS routes in India ‘W’ means

a. Domestic routes
b. International routes
c. Any of the above
28. A new flight plan is required to be filed at an

a. Uncontrolled aerodrome if a flight is delayed by mere than 30 minutes
b. Controlled aerodrome if a flight is delayed by more than 30 minutes
c. Controlled aerodrome if a flight is delayed by less than 30 minute

a. Crossing an FIR
b. Over a compulsory reporting point
c. If so required by AT
30. Check rides are not counted when

a. Aircraft is phased out of service
b. When on a test flight
c. If so flying club training aircraft
d. All are counted

a. Aeradio
b. AIP
c. Notams
AIR REGULATION 3
1. The Runway direction is measured with respect to:
a. True north
b. Magnetic north
c. Compass north
d. Grid north
2. An aircraft in circuit encounters R/T failure, how will the pilot

acknowledge the light signals received by him.
a. The pilot will pitch the nose up and down.
b. The pilot will rock wings.
c. The pilot will switch on/off the landing lights.
3. Petroleum in bulk means:

a. Petroleum in receptacle of 900 Lit.
b. Petroleum receptacle of more than 90O Lit.
c. Petroleum in receptacle of less than 900 Lit.
4. Red Pyrotcchrrica light given to an aircraft in flight by The Control lower

means.
a. Keep circling and give way to another aircraft.
b. You can land here at this aerodrome.
c. Not withstanding previous instruction do not land for the time being.
d. It means nothing to an aircraft in air.
5. Incubation period for Relapsing Fever:

a. Eight days.
b. Six days.
c. Four days
6. If there is a patient on board suffering from any Quaraminable decease,

commander will send a health report to the health officer,
a. 48 Hrs prior to the arrival.
b. 4 Hrs prior to the arrival
c. 3 Hrs prior to the arrival.
d. 2 Hrs prior to the arrival
7. A person who has died of Yellow Fever needs to be brought to India.

a. The body cannot be brought to India.
b. The body can only be brought provided it is hermetically sealed.
c. Provided the body is preserved in a wooden box.
d. Provided the body is enclosed in a zinc box.
8. Either hand along with the palm downwards and placed level with the
chest and when moved laterally means:
a. Cut the engines.
b. Slow down.
c. Chocks away.
d. Means nothing.
9. The highest point on the landing area is called:

a. Aerodrome elevation
b. Apron elevation
c. Center circle of the runway.
10. Anti collision light is a light:

a. Green in colour affixed on to the runway.
b. A red light on the port wing of the aircraft.
c. A red light visible 30deg above and below the horizon of the aircraft
which is visible in all directions
d. The navigation lights of any aircraft are also called anti - collision lights.
11. The pilot of aircraft sees a Red navigation of the aircraft 2 at a Relative Brg
of 270.
a. There is no risk of collision and both the aircraft should continue.
b. Aircraft 2 should alter its course to wards left
c. The pilot of aircraft 1 should alter its course towards right to avoid
collision.
12. An aircraft "is crossing your course from your left on right angle. You will
be able to see its
a. Red light
b. White light
c. Green light
13. Operation Manual is:

a. Prepared by the manufacture and authorized by operator.
b. Prepared by DGCA and authorized by the operator.
c. Prepared by the operator and authorized by manufacturer.
d. Prepared by the operator and authorized by the DGCA.
14. Any prisoner can be carried abroad or onboard any aircraft only if:
a. The prisoner is accompanied by an armed guard
b. Permitted by the DGCA in writing
c. Permitted by the District Magistrate
d. Permitted by the Commissioner of police
15. Leaflets containing printed matter can only be dropped from any aircraft
in motion if
a. Permitted by the Dist Magistrate or The Commissioner of Police
b. Permitted by the DGCA
c. Permitted by the DDGCA
d. Permitted by the DR & I
16. An aircraft is commencing descend from its initial FL 290 over Palam
Airport. The altimeter reads 12000S. The commander will report his
vertical distance to the ATC hi terms of
a. 12000 Altitude
b. FL120
c. FL29Q
d. 29000 Altitude
17. An aircraft is fallowing 020 Tr. (M). The choice of FL available to the pilot
is
a. 50,70,90,150,170,190,210,230,250,770,290,370,410,450.
b. 55,75,95,155,175,195,215,235,255,275,295,
c. 50,70,90,110,130,160,180,200,220,240,260,280.
18. An aircraft is following 220Tr. (M) as per the quadrantal rule, the pilot
must choose FL between
a. 179 - 269
b. 269 - 359
c. 180 - 269
d. 090 - 180
19. An aircraft is flying 5000' AMSL outside control airspace. The commander
must fly at all times under
a. Aerodrome control.
b. FL 50
c. 5000
d. 5000' as Height.
20. For the FACILITIES the pilot should refer to:

a. A1C
b. NOTAM
c. AIP
d. NOT AM CODES
21. VOR gives separation of:

a. 15 Deg for l5Nm
b. 10 Deg for 5 Nm
c. 10 Nm from a VOR
d. It gives no separation.
22. A NOTAM which relates to some repair lasting for more than 2 Hrs would
come under:
a. A: Series
b. B: Series
c. C: Series
d. D: Series
a. All VFR are suspended and IFR have been declared compulsory
b. Landings Prohibited
c. Aircraft are to land Take off & Taxi on runways and taxi ways only.
d. Special precaution while landing should be taken because of the bad
state of the Maneuvering area.
24. Control zone-refers to:

a. A corridor within a controlled airspace where Radio-Navigation facilities
are available
b. A controlled airspace extending upwards from a specified height
above the surface of the earth
c. A controlled airspace extending upwards from the surface of the earth
25. Routes designated by the alphabet W relate to:

a. World wide routes
b. Domestic routes
c. Local routes.
d. International routes.
26. Rules regarding demolition of obstructions caused by tall buildings and

tress is laid in.
a. Aircraft rules 1937
b. Aircraft public health rule 1954
c. Aircraft rules 1994
d. Aircraft act 1994
27. Before the first flight of the day it is whose responsibility to check the
Serviceability of the RT apparatus
a. The commander
b. The co - pilot
C. radio officer
28. Rules related to carriage of dead bodies in an aircraft are laid down in:
b. Air corporation act 1953
c. Aircraft authority act 1971
d. Carriage by air act of 1972
29. Air hostesses are to be carried when the seating capacity is:
a. 20 seats
b. More than 10
c. More than 15
d. Carriage of air hostesses depends upon number of Passengers, not upon
number of scats.
30. The % age of Co - Pilot flying to be counted towards the renewal of CPL as
PIC is:
a. 80%
b. 30%
c. 50%
d. 100%
31. A fresh ADC is required if:

a. A fight is delayed for >than 30Min at any intermediate airport
b. A flight is delayed for > than 1 hour at any intermediate airport
c. Not required if the flight is delayed but conducted on the same day
32. The visibility minima for those Airlines who have not filed their own
Minima with the DGCA for an airport for Non Precession approach is.
a. 1500’
b. 1500 meters
c. 5 NM
d. 3.7 km
33. VFR flights outside a controlled airspace at a height above 5000' should not
be carried out if the visibility falls below:
a. 8 km
b. 8 NM
c. 5 km
d. 3 km
34. The IFR flight vertical separation minima over hilly terrain is:
a. 2000'above the highest obstacle within a radius of 5 km from the aircraft
b. 2000’ above the highest obstacle, within a radius of 5 Km from the
aircraft.
c. 1000’ above the highest obstacle within a radius of 5 Nm from the aircraft
d. 1000' above the highest obstacle within a Radius of 5 Nm from the
aircraft
35. While re - fueling any unauthorized person should not be near the site
within:
a. 30 meters
b. 15 feet
c. 30 feet
d. 15 meters
36. Anti collision lights must be installed if the AUW of ac is

a. Less than 5700 Kg
b. More than 5700 Kg
c. More than 2lOO0 kg
37. An aircraft can cross an ATS route with precautions such as

a. Cross the ATS route at 90 degrees & as in ‘b' below
b. Obtain permission minimum 10 minutes before crossing
c. Look out visually for any other traffic
d. All are correct
38. In a CTA the VFR ceiling is

a. 2500 feet
b. 1500 feet
c. 3000 feet
d. 1000 feet
39. When in an emergency

a. Squawk code 7700 on mode A
b. Squawk code 7700 on mode B
c. Squawk code 7700 on mode C
40. The responsibilities of ATC are

a.
b.
c.
d.
41. Special VFR flight can not be allowed if visibility is less than
a. 5 km
b. 5 NM
c. 1.5 km
e. 2 km
AIR REGS 4
1. A steady white light directed towards an aircraft in fight means
a. Land at this aerodrome & proceed to the apron
b. Landing prohibited
c. Return to the starting point
d. Nothing
2. On the ground a red square with two yellow diagonals means

a. Exercise caution while landing
b. Take, off is-prohibited
c. Landing prohibited
d. Landing prohibited 6 prohibitions is likely to be prolonged
3. Letter "C" in black against yellow background means

a. Accident reports to be made here
b. Reports concerning air traffic services to be made here
c. Flight plans to be collected from here
d. All the above are correct
4. Two digits in black colour against a yellow -back ground, displayed vertically
indicates
a. ODM
b. Direction for take off
c. Wind direction
d. QCP for landing
5. Displaced threshold is indicated by

a. White lights in a row
b. Rad light in a row
c. Green lights in a row
6. Distress signal is
a. Dropping of red parachute flares
b. Firing of white pyrotechnical lights in succession
c. Firing of green pyrotechnical lights in succession
7. Series of projectiles fired at an interval of 10 second, or 10 second on bursting

showing red & green stars or lights indicate.
a. Aircraft is in distress but no immediate assistance is required
b. Aircraft is in distress and immediate assistance is required
c. Aircraft is flying over or in the vicinity of s prohibited area
d. Aircraft is flying over or in the vicinity of s prohibited area, restricated area or
danger area
8. Weather minima in VMC below 3000 feet, in a controlled air space is

a. Visibility 8 Km
b. Visibility 5 Km
c. Visibility 1.5 Km
d. Visibility 300 meters
9. As regards Air services transit agreement India is

a. True
b. Flase
10. In the above question the privileges are
a.
b.
c.
d.
11. The aircraft registration & marking procedures are given in ICAO annexure.
a. 7
b. 1
c. 11
d. 18
12. The navigation lights on an aircraft are

a. Right - green 110 deg, left red 110 deg
b. Right - green 110 deg, left red 110 deg & rear light white 70 deg
c. Right - green 110 deg, left red 110 deg & rear light white 140 deg
13. Fue1 required for propeller driven aircraft is

a. Flight fuel + fuel for 45 minutes
b. Flight fuel + fuel to alternate + fuel for 45 minutes
c. Flight fuel + fuel to alternate + fuel for holding 'for 30 minutes + contingency fuel
14. Track (M) is 200 the flight level to fly in the quadrantal rule is
a. 160
b. 50
c. 75
d. 80
15. While transiting from quadrantal system to semicircular system, the aircraft
should
a. Climb by 500 feet
b. Descend by 500 feet
c. No change in flight level is require if RT contact is maintained
16. While transiting from semicircular system to quadrantal system, the aircraft
should
a. Climb by 500 feet
b. Descend by 500 feet
c. No change in flight level is require if RT contact is maintained
17. After being cleared to lend an aircraft fails to land within 5 minutes of the
estimated time of landing it is termed as
a. Distress phase
b. Alert phase
c. Increase
d. Search phase
18. NOTAM Class the services ‘A’ are issued when

a. Information is of permanent nature
b. Information is valid for more than 2 hrs
c. Information is valid for less than 2 hrs
19. An aircraft accident is to be reported.
a. Immediately
b. With in 24 hours
c. With in 48 hours
d. As early as possible
20. A fresh flight plan is required when

a. A flight is delayed for take off
b. A controlled flight is delayed by more than 30 minutes
c. A controlled flight is delayed by more than 60 minutes
d. An un controlled flight is delayed by more than 30 minutes
21. Tokyo Convention Act 1975 is applicable to

a. All aircraft registered in India
b. All aircraft registered in India £ Military aircraft & State aircraft
c. All aircraft whether registered in India or not, except Military aircraft &
State aircraft
d. All aircraft whether registered in India – or not
22. Aerodrome operation minima is give by the

a. DGCA
b. Operator
c. Operator & is approved by DGCA
23. For carriage of arms & ammunition on board- an aircraft

a. Permission from DGCA is required
b. Permission from Army HQ. is required
c. Permission from Central Govt. is required
d. Permission from operator is required
23. For flights of foreign military aircraft over India clearance is required from
a. Central - Govt
b. DGCA
c. Air Head quarters
25. The Aircraft Act 1934 is applicable to:

a. To citizen of India whenever they may be and
b.
c.
26. The aircraft registered in Category A belong to

a.
b.
c.
d.
27. Aerial work aircraft means.

a.
b
c.
d.
28. Petroleum in bulk means

a.
b
c.
d.
29. The minimum age for the issue of CPL is
a.
b.
c.
d.
30. Photography at an aerodrome can be permitted -by

a. DGCA & DDGCA
b. Director of regulation & inspection (DR&I)
c. Controller of aerodromes
d. All the correct
31. No member of the operation crew shall consume any alcoholic drink or
narcotic drug with in a period of……12 Hours before flight & ….. During
night.
32. Epileptic patients can be carried on board provided ……………….........

Certificate of fitness to travel by RMP, No alcohol 12 hours before
flight and if
33. While refueling an aircraft no naked flame is allowed within a distance

of................................................30 m
34. The largest polygon forming a danger zone around refueling aircraft
is……………………………………………………………………………………….
35. except in an emergency dropping of articles from an aircraft is

prohibited except …………………………………………………………………..
36. If the age of a CPL holder is more than 40 year the validity of medical
is for…………………………………………………………………………..……....
37. The certificate of air worth ness can be suspended or with drown
when a/c
38. Pilots personal log book is to be preserved for

…………………………………………………………………………………….……
39. The minimum height to be flown in hilly areas in IFR flight

is…………………………………………………………………………………….…
40. An aircraft flies away from base. The daily inspection is valid for
…………………………………………………………………………………………
41. Isolation period for yellow fever is……………. Days.
42. The thickness of transition layer is……………………………………………
43. The FVR is measured at a height of……………………………………………
44. The EDTL is applicable for

a. Scheduled flights only
b. Scheduled flights & training flights
c. All flight
45. A fresh flight plan is required for scheduled flights if the flight is
delayed by more than
a. 1 hour
b. 30 minutes
c. 2 hour
d. Always irrespective of the time delay
46. An aircraft wants to indicate the difficulties which compel it to land

without requiring assistance will do so by
a. Firing red pyrotechnical lights
b. Firing red & green pyrotechnical lights
c. Firing white pyrotechnical lights or by repeated switching on &
off of the landing light of navigation lights
47. Cabotage of traffic means………………………………………………………
48. Aircraft is heading North & sees green – navigation light of another
aircraft at a relative bearing of 045 the aircraft
a. Are on a collision course
b. Are not on a collision course
c. Could be on a collision course
49. Above flight level 290 the vertical clearance between aircraft on
reciprocal tracks is
a. 1000 ft
b. 2000 ft
c. 4000 ft
50. Lateral separation using VOR is

a. 15 deg at distance of more than 15 nm
b. 15 deg at distance of more than 15 nm
c. 10 deg at distance of more than.15 nm
51. The wreckage of a crashed aircraft on R/W can be removed

a. Extricate dead, animals & persons
b. Extricate animals & persons, dead or alive
c. To permit movement of. other aircraft
52. An aircraft lands at an uncontrolled aerodrome can take off again

a. With the permission of DGCA
b. Without any permission of DGCA
c. Only if there is to injury to any one
53. Wake turbulence separation minima for take Off, if a medium aircraft
is to take Off behind a heavy aircarft
a. 2 minutes.
b. 3 minutes.
c. 5 minutes.
54. Wake turbulence separation minim for Take Off, if a light aircraft is to
take off behind e heavy or medium aircraft
a. 2 minutes.
b. 3 minutes.
c. 5 minutes.
55. While taking off from same R/W or parallel R/W less than 760 meters
apart, a light or a medium aircraft taking off behind a heavy aircraft,
the separation minima is
a. 2 minutes
b. 3 minutes
c. 5 minutes
56. While taking off from same R/W or parallel R/W less than 760 meters
apart, a light or a medium aircraft taking off behind a medium
aircraft, the separation minima is
a. 2 minutes
b. 3 minutes
c. 5 minutes
57. The revised ETA is to be passed to the ATC it the actual TAS differs
from the planned TAS by a
a. 5%
b. 10%
c. 20%
58. Permission of carried on board the aircraft with written permission of

a. DGCA
b. Commissioner of police
c. Controller of prisons
d. DGCA, DDGCA, DR & I
59. In India all flights above which flight level are to be cleared IFR
irrespective of weather conditions
a. 280
b. 150
c. 140
60. The supersonic speed (mach no) is………………………………………..
61. Changes in the frequencies/location of Nav Aids are notified by

a. Notams
b. AIRAC system
c. AIP amendments
d. Aeradio amendments
62. Define displaced threshold.
63. On the same aircraft you are making another flight on the same day.
a. A fresh ADC clearance is required
b. A fresh ADC clearance is not
c. No ADC clearance is required
64. What does the following marshalling signal indicate.

a. Either arm & hand level with shoulder …………. Hand across throat & plan
downwards…………….
b. Arms repeatedly crosses above head …………
c. Arms down palm facing outward, swing arms outwards……………..
d. Arms down palm facing inward, swing arms inwards……………..
e. Arms down palm towards ground & moved up & down several times……………
f. Right arm raised at below with palm facing forward………………………………….
AIR REGS 5
1. A red flag on top of ATC building means
a. Do not land
b. Do not take off
c. Flying in progress
2. In an air route service letter ‘W’ means

a. Western sector area
b. Worldwide routes
c. Domestic routes
3. Non scheduled flights can be made in India with a notice of

a. 24 hrs
b. 36 hrs
c. 72 hrs
4. A person coming from Cholera infested area can enter India

a. Without any medical certificate of vaccination
b. With a certificate of vaccination
c. If accompanied with an attendant
5. Dead body of a person can be carried in an aircraft

a. If sealed in a wooden box
b. If hermetically sealed in a zinc box
c. Can not be carried at all
6. Lateral separation using a VOR is

a. 10 deg at 30 nm.
b. 15 deg at 30 nm
c. 15 deg at 15 nm
7. Area of Mathura refinery is a

a. Danger area
b. Prohibited area
c. Restricted area
8. The minimum distance an aircraft can fly from international border is

a. 15 nm
b. 10 nm
c. 20 nm
9. The control area which is in the vicinity of one or more aerodromes is called a
a. Control area
b. Control zone
c. Aerodromes control area
10. The air traffic service, which prevents the collision between aircraft, is called
a. Alerting service
b. Flight information service
c. Air traffic control service
11. Prior take - off the responsibility to check the serviceability of radio equipment lies with
the
a. Commander of aircraft
b. Radio operator
c. Co-pilot
12. The authority to detain an aircraft is given in document

a. Rule 8 of aircraft rules 1937
b. Section 8 of aircraft act 1934
c. DGCA circular no.8
13. Aerodrome broadcasting service is provided by

a. DGCA
b. Controller of Aerodromes
c. Airport Authority if India
14. If an aircraft makes a non precision approach the visibility minima applicable is
a. Given by the operator if filed by the operator with the DGCA
b. DGCA minima if no minima is filed by the with the DGCA
c. Both are correct
15. The visibility minima for Take Off if the aerodrome is not equipped with radio aids
a. 5km
b. 2.7 km.
c. 3.7 km.
16. The visibility minima for Take off if the aerodrome is not equipped with radio aid
a. 5 km.
b. 2.7 km
c. 3.7 km
17. The runway threshold lights are
a. Green
b. Blue
c. Amber
18. The threshold of runway is

a. The point where the aircraft lines up for Take off
b. That point on the beginning of runway used for landing
c. The beginning of the runway
19. A VFR flight can land at a controlled aerodrome if visibility is

a. 1.5 km or more
b. 3.7 km or more
c. 5 km or more
20. The starboard navigation light is

a. Green 110 deg from ahead to the left
b. Green 110 deg from ahead to the right
c. Green 110 deg from behind to the right
21. The displaced threshold lights are

a. Green
b. Blue
c. Amber
22. The duty time of the trainee pilot

a. Is calculated by the FDTL
b. Is not affected by FDTL
c. PDTL is applicable for scheduled flights only
23. A fresh flight plan is required if at a controlled aerodrome a scheduled flight is

delayed by
a. 2 hrs
b. 1 hrs
c. 30 mts
24. Longitudinal separation between aircraft flying at the same level & on the same
track is
a. 15 mts
b. 10 mts if navigational aids permit frequent determination of position & speed
c. Both are correct
25. Longitudinal separation between two aircraft flying at the same level using DME is
a. 20 nm
b. 10 nm if the preceding aircraft is flying at a TAS of 20 or more faster than the
aircraft behind
c. Both are correct
26. The vertical separation between aircraft on reciprocal tracks above flight level 290
is
a. 4000 feet
b. 2000 feet
c. 1000 feet
27. Seriously sick patients can be carried on board the aircraft

a. If accompanied with an attendant
b. If certified fit by a medical officer
c. Cannot be carried at all
28. A prisoner can be carried on board the aircraft with the permission of
a. DGCA
b. Central govt.
c. District magistrate
d. State govt.
29. Tokyo Convention Act 1975 is applicable to

a. All aircraft registered in India
b. All aircraft registered in India & Military aircraft & State aircraft
c. All aircraft whether registered in India or not except Military aircraft & state
aircraft
d. All aircraft whether registered in India or no':
30. Wake turbulence separation minima for landing, if a light or a medium aircraft
is to land behind a heavy aircraft
a. 2mts
b. 3 mts
c. 5 mts
31. A pilot can fly an aircraft which is .not entered in his license for endorsement in
the aircraft rating of his license
a. With in Indian territory
b. With in 5 nm of an aerodrome
c. Any where
32. If there is a temporary change in the aeronautical services it is intimated
through
a. Amendment to AIP
b. AIC
c. NOTAM
33. Changes in the aeronautical services, which are likely to last for more than 2 hrs,
are given in NOTAMS
a. Series A
b. Series -B
c. Series G
34. On board a civil aircraft the Air Force, Army, Navy personnel can
a. Not carry arms at all
b. Carry arms with the permission of DGCA
c. Carry arms with the permission of 'central Gov:
35. Aircraft incident must be reported with in

a. 24 hrs
b. 36 hrs
c. 43 hrs
36. An aircraft accident is to be reported with in

a. 24 hrs
b. 36 hrs
c. 43 hrs
37. If navigation lights fail at night then an aircraft should

a. Force land immediately
b. Use landing lights & continue to the destination
c. Report to the nearest aerodrome & land
38. If an aircraft force lands at an uncontrolled aerodrome it can take off again take
off again
a. After permission from DGCA
b. After permission from the central Govt.
c. If it is in a position to reach the destination
39. The ATC is to be notified if the average TAS changes by

a. 5%
b. 10 %
c. 20%
40. In India the controlled airspaces are designated as

a. Class D
b. Class B
c. Class C
41. In India the ATS routs are classified as

a. Class D airspace
b. Class F airspace
c. Class C airspace
42. At an aerodrome tower

a. Red & green beacon light indicates that it is & civil aerodrome
b. Red & white beacon light indicates that it is a civil aerodrome
c. White & green beacon light indicates that it is a civil aerodrome
a. 460
b. 450
c. 400
44. The width of 'an air way is

a. 20 nm
b 40 nm
c. 20 nm over land & 40 nm over sea
45. The international Air Transit agreement was signed India at in ………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………..
46. The Warsaw Convention was held for

…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
……………………………………………………………………………………
47. The operational control is exercised by the

a. The operator
b. DGCA
c. Air Traffic Control
48. The end of runway is indicated by

a. White lights
b. Blue lights
c. Red lights
49. The operational manual is prepared by

a. DGCA
b. Operator
c. Operator & is approved by the DGCA
50. The maximum number of landings by a pilot in one day

a. Is not restricted for training flying
b. But if training is conducted after a scheduled fight the maximum number of
landings is six
c. a scheduled flight maximum of four landings
d. All are correct
51. A pilot involved in an aircraft accident can start flying again

a. When ever detailed by the operator
b. When cleared by the DGCA for flying after a corrective flying training if
necessary
c. When ever he is medically fit
52. The operational control consists of………………………………………………………
53. A Cessna 152 & a Boeing 737 are on a converging course at same altitude. Which
aircraft has the right of way a
a. Light aircraft (Cessna 152)
b. Heavier aircraft (Booing 737)
c. Aircraft or the right
54. ATIS is a ………………………………………………………………………………………..

55. An altimeter is set to QNH before landing in order to
a. Have clearance between aircraft flying on the Circuit
b. Have clearance from the obstructions on the ground
c. Reduce the altimeter errors
56. While on a cross country ever hilly terrain the minimum clearance required is
a. 2000 feet above the highest obstacle with in 5 nm of position of the aircraft
b. 2000 feet above the highest obstacle with in 5 nm of the desire at rae
c. 1000 feet above the highest obstacle with in 5 nm. of position of the aircraft
57. The aircraft public healuh rules were published in which year
a. 1937
b. 1954
c. 1934
58. A flight navigator is require to be carried on board if …………………………………...

…………………………………………………………………………………………..…………
AIR REGS 6
1. A prisoner can be carried on board the aircraft if

a. Accompanied by an. attendant
b. Permitted by the DGCA in writing
c. Permitted by the District Magistrate
d. Permitted by the Commissioner of Police
2. The percentage of Co Pilot hours counted towards PIC the purpose of renewal of
CPL is
a. 80%
b. 50%
c. 30%
d. 100%
3. VFR flights at an aerodrome are not permitted if visibility is below

a. 5 Km
b. 8 km
c. 3 km
4. An aircraft, which has crashed on the R/W, can be removed

a. To expedite traffic coming from different directions
b. Only after the photographs have been taken
c. To extricate passengers
d. Can not be shifted at all
5. A series of green & red pyrotechnics fired at short intervals towards an aircraft indicate
that
a. The aircraft is entering a prohibited area
b. The aircraft is entering a danger area
c. The aircraft is entering a restricted area
d. All
6. The certificate of airworthiness is suspended if

a. Low flying is done
b. Un authorized modifications are done
c. Un authorized flying is done
7. Landing & housing charges are based on

a. All up weight of the aircraft
b. Passenger carrying capacity of aircraft
c. Actual landing weight of the aircraft
8. While on a cross country over hilly terrain, the minimum clearance required is
a. 2000 feet above the highest obstacle, within a radius of 5 nm of the
estimated position of the aircraft
b. 1000 feet above the highest obstacle with in a radius of 5 nm of the estimated
position of the aircraft
c. 2000 feet above the highest obstacle it in a radius of 5Km of the estimated
position of the aircraft
9. The aircraft public health rules were published in

a. 1937
b. 1954
c. 1934
d. 1947
10. If an aircraft comes from a place which is a yellow fever area & was disinfected it
is to be guarantied
a. If it stopped at a place where there was yellow fever
b. If there is patient suffering from yellow fever on board
c. Not to be guarantied
11. The incubation period to yellow fever is

a. 8 days
b. 6 days
c. 4 days
12. Operations manual is prepared by the

a. Manufacturer & authorized by operator
b. DGCA & authorized by operator
c. Operator & authorized by DGCA
13. Emergency check lists are prepared by the

a. Manufacturer & authorized by operator
b. Operator & authorized by DGCA
c. DGCA & authorized by manufacturer
14. The duty me of the trainee pilot

a. Is calculated as per the FDTL
b. Is not affected by the FDTL
c. FDTL is applicable for scheduled flights only
15. Longitudinal separation between aircraft flying at the same level & along the same
the along the same route is
a. 15 Mts
b. 10 Mts
c. Can not fly on reciprocal tracks
16. Displaced threshold lights are

a. Green
b. Amber
c. Blue
17. The vertical separation between aircraft of reciprocal tracks above flight level 290
is
a. 1000 feet
b. 2000 feet
c. 4000 feet
18. A prisoner can be carried on board the aircraft with the permission of
a. DGCA
b. Central Govt.
c. District Magistrate
d. Commissioner of police
19. Wake turbulence separation minima for landing if a light or a medium aircraft is
to land behind a heavy aircraft
a. 2 mts
b. 3 mts
c. 5 mts
20. A pilot can fly a aircraft which is not entered in the aircraft rating of his license for
endorsement on his license
a. With in 5 nm of a aerodrome
b. With in Local Flying Area of the aerodrome
c. Any where
21. On board a| civil aircraft the Army, Navy, Air Force personnel can
a. Not carry arms at all.
b. Carry arms with, the permission of DGCA.
c. Carry arms with the permission of Central Govt.
22. A aircraft incident is to be reported

a. As soon, as possible
b. With in 24 hrs
c. With in 48 hrs
23. lf navigation lights fail at night then the aircraft the aircraft
should
a. Force land immediately.
b. Use landing lights & continue to the destination
c. Report to the nearest aerodrome & land
24. If an aircraft force lands an un controlled aerodrome, it can take off again
a. After the permission of DGCA.
b. After the permission of central Govt.
c. If it is in a position to reach the destination.
25. ATC is to be notified if the average TAS is changed by

a. 5%
b. 1.0%
c. 20 %

a. 80 hrs PIC & 70 hrs as Co pilot
b. 80 hrs PIC & 50 hrs as Co pilot
c. 70 hrs PIC & 80 hrs as Co pilot
27. While refueling an aircraft smoking is not permitted with in

a. 15 meters
b. 30 meters
c. 20 meters
28. An aircraft can fly over danger area

a. Above flight level 29o.
b. If cleared by ATC
c. Unrestricted
29. Tokyo convention is valid for

a. All international flights.
b. All domestic flights.
c. All local flights
30. The authority to detain an aircraft is given in

a. Rule 8 of rules 1957.
b. Act 8 of aircraft act 1934.
c. Rule 8C Aircraft rules 1937.
d. Rule 8D of aircraft act 1934.
31. The Runway threshold lights are

a. Green
b. White
c. Amber
32. The threshold of the Runway is

a. The point where the aircraft lines up
b. That point in the beginning of the Runway used for landing
c. The beginning of the Runway
33. Over Malabar hills in Mumbai aircraft cannot fly within

a. 2 nm from the Tower of silence
b. I nm from the Tower of silence
c. 5 Km from the Tower of silence
34. Supersonic aircraft can fly over Indian territory

a. Above Mach 2.0
b. Unrestricted
c. Below Mach l
35. A flight plan is to be resubmitted if there is a delay of

a. l hour at a controlled aerodrome
b. 30 Minutes at an uncontrolled aerodrome
c. 30 minutes at a controlled aerodrome
36. Cabotage of traffic means carrying goods & passengers from one station to another
a. Station in the same country for commercial purpose
b. Station in another country or commercia1 purpose
c. Country for commercial purpose
37. In India in an air route service letter W indicates

a. Western sector area
b. Worldwide routes
c. Domestic routes
48. Lateral separation using a VOR is

a. 10 Degrees at 30 nm
b. 15 Degrees at 30 nm
c. 15 Degrees at 15 nm
39. Air space over Mathura refinery is

a. Danger area
b. Prohibited area
c. Restricted area
40. When crossing FIR the SSK should be selected to which channel
a. 2000
b. 7600
c. 7700
d. 750O
AIR REGS 7
1. When flying in the transition layer the altitude is reported as
a. On QFE.
b. On QNH.
c. As flight level.
d. As height above ground level.
2. The separation between two aircraft flying on the same track & above flight level
290 is
a. 2000'
b. 1000’
c. 4000'
3. The highest point on the ground in an airfield is

a. ARP.
b. Airfield elevation.
c. Aerodrome height.
d. Obstruction height.
4. Flying an aircraft in a manner to cause danger to a person or property is

punishable with
a. Imprisonment up to two months or fine or both.
b. Imprisonment up to six months or fine or both
c. Imprisonment up to two months or fine of Rs 1000/- or both
d. Imprisonment up to Six months or fine of Rs 1000/- or both
5. For f1ying a non scheduled aircraft of foreign registration in to India for non traffic
purposes the permission must be obtained from
a. ICAO
b. DGCA
c. Aerodrome officer of the airport of landing
d. An officer authorized by the central Govt.
6. During a night cross-country, on relative bearing of 270 you see the red light if an
aircraft
a. You turn right to avoid collision
b. Turn left to avoid the collision
c. There is no fear of collision
7. On a flight from Chennai to Delhi, due to engine vibrations, you land at Jhansi, an
un-used airfield. There are no injuries to any one & no damage to the aircraft.
This is
a. A reportable accident.
b. To be reported to the ATC.
c. To be reported to the DGCA within 48 hours.
d. Nothing is to be done.
8. In the above question the aircraft can take off again

a. When ever pilot desired.
b. After rectification of the engine snag.
c. With permission of the DGCA.
d. With the permission of the central Govt.
9. You are flying in Boeing 737 on a heading 075(M) on your right you see a glider on
a heading of 020(M), on a collision course. Your action is
a. Turn right
b. Turn left
c. Continue to fly straight
10. You are flying in Boeing 737 on a heading 020(M) on your left you see a glider on a
heading of 075 (M), on a collision course. Your action is
a. Turn right
b. Turn left
c. Continue to fly straight
11. In VFR the minimum separation from clouds to be maintained when flying over
populated area is
a. 1000'
b. 2000'
c. 3000'
d. 500'
12. In VFR the minimum separation from clouds to be maintained when flying in a
controlled airspace
a. 1000'
b. 2000'
c. 3000'
d. 500'
13. You are about to board your aircraft as PIC. Your license can be checked by
a. The District Magistrate
b. A customs officer
c. A police officer
14. The Rescue coordination centers in India are headed by

a. Local IAF commander
b. One of the local IAF/Army/Navy commanders
l5. When an aircraft is being refueled, the refueling must be stooped if a jet aircraft
crosses with in a distance of
a. 15 meters.
b. 30 meters.
c. 43 meters.
d. 45 meters.
16. Loose sheets of paper cn be dropped from an aircraft with the permission of
a. Controller of aerodromes
b. DGCA
c. DM or the police commissioner of that area
d. Local Army commander
17. Anti collision lights ere mandatory for

a. Aircraft AUW > 5700 kg
b. Aircraft AUW > 1500 Kg
c. Any aircraft carrying passengers
d. All aircraft
l8. Instrument flight time is
a. All flight time in IFR
b. All flying time when the flying is done only with reference to instruments
c. Only when flying in clouds
19. At an aerodrome the aerobatics can be carried out above 6000 feet
a. Beyond 4 nm of nearest perimeter of aerodrome
b. Beyond 2 nm of nearest perimeter of aerodrome
c. Within 2 nm of nearest perimeter of aerodrome
d. Within 4 nm of nearest perimeter of aerodrome
20. Flying in Danger area is

a. Prohibited
b. Permitted above a certain flight level
c. Allowed if permitted by ATC
d. Allowed if permitted by DGCA
21. The traffic separation between two aircraft using same NDB is
a. 15 deg at a distance of 15 nm or more
d. 30 deg at a distance of 3Cnm or more
22. Flying in an aircraft, below 3000 feet AMSL in a controlled airspace, the minimum
horizontal separation from clouds is
a. 300 meters.
b. 500 meters.
c. 1500 meters.
d. 1500 feet.
23. 0n an IFR flight plan in VKC you have an R/T failure. The action is
a. Continue strictly as per the flight plan
b. Continue to destination in VMC
c. Proceed to alternate in VMC
d. Land at the nearest suitable aerodrome
24. You will report an air miss when

a. You see an aircraft at same flight level
b. You see an aircraft at close proximity with no risk of collision
c. You see an aircraft at close proximity and you think there was a risk of collision
25. All records associated with defects & their rectification are required to be preserved
for a period of
a. One year
b. Two years
c. Till the aircraft is phased out of service
26. C of A will cease to be valid if

a. Aircraft is engaged in unauthorized operations
b. Aircraft suffers from a major damage or defect
c. There is a change of ownership
d. All are correct
27. All defects observed during flight are to be reported
a. Soon after the flight
b. After the last flight of the day in case of training aircraft making a series of flights in a
single day, unless a serious defect occurs
c. Both are correct
28. Fire extinguishers are carried in an aircraft cabin

a. To extinguish cabin fire
b. To extinguish electrical fire
c. Because it is required under the regulations
29. The FDR has a record of operation of preceding

a. 25 hours
b. 5 hours
c. 30 mts
d. Flight
30. FDR is mandatory for

a. All aircraft
b. Aircraft with AUW exceeding 21000 Kg
c. Aircraft with AUW exceeding 5700 Kg
31. The colour of the FDR is

a. Black
b. Bright yellow
c. Bright orange
d. Either ‘b' or 'c'

a. One hour or more.
b. At least 30 minutes.
c. Preceding flight.

b. Help in accident investigation
c. Both are correct

b. Help in accident investigation
c. Both are correct
Air Regs 8
1. A unit set up to provide air traffic control for aerodrome traffic is

a. Aerodrome control service
b. Aerodrome control tower
c. Area control service

a. Focus only at dim lights at a distance
b. Flutter eyes rapidly
c. Scan slowly to center off vision
d. Focus only on bright lights
3. When approaching to land n a fiat darkened or fiat snow covered surface, the approach
might appear to be
a. High
b. Steep
c. Shallow
d. Low
4. Transition altitude is ................................................
5. Transition level is .......................................................
6. Flight level is defined as
7. Way point is defined as
8. Procedure turn is defined as
9. The minimum vertical clearance below flight level 290 is

a. 1000 feet
b. 2000 feet
c. 500 feet
d. 3000 feet
10. A report received from an aircraft giving its regular position and/or met report
a. Met report
b. Position report
c. Air report
11. A steady red light projected to an aircraft flight means
12. A steady green light projected to an aircraft on the ground means……………………
13. A cross with a single conspicuous colour, preferably white on the maneuvering area
means….........
14. A portion of the airport reserved for loading, off loading of cargo, passengers, parking of
aircraft & for small maintenance except for taxiing is called
a. Apron
b. Movement area
c. Maneuvering area
d. Taxi way
15. The fuelling of an aircraft should be stopped if a jet aircraft Taxies past within
a. 40 meters
b. 30 meters
c. 15 meters
d. 43 meters
16. During flight as a pilot you are subjected to unlawful interference in discharging your
duties. On SSR you should endeavor to set
a. 7500 mode A
b. 7600 mode A
c. 7500 mode c
d. 7700 mode C
17. On an IFR flight plan but in VMC you have communication failure you should
a. Maintain VMC & land at the most convenient aerodrome
b. Maintain VMC & land at the nearest aerodrome
c. Proceed according to flight plan
18. The airspace set up as a corridor where navigation aids are available is called
a. Airway
b. Controlled airspace
c. Radar airspace
19. Area of operation where no ADC is required

a. Local flying area
b. Within 5 nm of an aerodrome
c. Control zone
d. Control area
20. What information is to be included in the third section of an Air report

a. Air Temperature, Icing, Turbulence
b. Spot Wind, Icing, Cloud above
c. Spot Wind, Air Temperature, Icing, Turbulence
21. Navigation charges are based upon

a. Airspeed
b. Flying time over India £
c. Distance flown
d. AUW
22. Destruction of buildings & trees on approach path is mentioned in

b. Aircraft rules 1954
c. Aircraft rules 1976
d. Aircraft rules 1996
23. Lateral separation to be maintained when crossing a holding point

a. 15 nm from the Nav aid
b. 5 minutes
c. 5 nm from the Nav aid
24. On an international flight the maximum number of hours flown and the number of
landings in a day are
a. 9/3
b. 8/4
c. c} 6/3
25. The transition altitude is laid down by

a. The ATC
b. The Pilot
c. The State
26. Above what height the flight levels are to be used in India
a. 4000 feet
b. 3000 feet
C. 5500 feet
d. 6500 feet
27. Anti -collision lights are required to be fitted in an aircraft

a. When carrying passengers
b. When flying IFR
c. When flying IMC
d. With AUW more than 5700 Kg.
28. The maximum number of hours that can be flown by a pilot in one year are
a. 1000
b. 1500
c. 1200
d. 900
29. The maximum number of hours that can be flown by a pilot in consecutive 30 days
are
a. 100
b. 125
c. 80
d. 120
30. The maximum number of hours that can be flown by a pilot in consecutive 7 days
are
a. 30
b. 50
c. 40
d. 25
31. The flight duty time limitations are laid down in

a. Aircraft manual
b. Aircraft Rules 1937
c. AIC
d. As in ‘a' & the maximum duty time for domestic operations is limited to 11 hours
32. Minimum rest period after domestic flight duty is

a. Twice the duty time performed
b. Twice the flight time performed
c. As in ‘b' but not less than 8 hours
Air Regulation 9
1. VMC out side controlled air space at 5000 feet the visibility is
a. 8 km
b. 5 Km
c. 5 nm
d. 1.5 km
2. A risk of collision exists if you see a red navigation light of another aircraft
a. On the port side
b. On the starboard side
c. Both poet & starboard side
3. Minimum vertical separation between aircraft above FL. 290 is

a. 2000 feet
b. 4000 feet
c. 1000 feet
d. Decided by the ATC
4. A fresh flight plan is to be filed if a scheduled flight is delayed by more than

a. One hour
b. 30 minutes
c. Always, irrespective of the time delay
5. A temporary change concerning operational matter is notified in

a. AIP
b. Notams
c. AIC
6. The air designator for world wide ATS routes are in which colour
a. White
b. Red & Green
c. Red, Green, Blue 5 Amber
d. Red, Green, Blue, Amber £ White
7. The air designator for domestic ATS routes are in which colour
a. White
b. Red & Green
c. Red, Green, Blue s Amber
d. Red, Green, Blue, Amber & white
8. A phange operational status of an aeronautic facility, which for more than two hours is
issued under which series of
a. Series A
b. Series B
c. Series C
d. Series D
9. VFR in a control zone is terminated if visibility falls below

a. 8 Km.
b. 5 Km
c. 1.5 Km
d. 3 km.
10. For FDTL the flying time of training flights is
a. Counted
b. Not counted
c. Partially counted
d. Counted only if combined with a scheduled flight
11. FDTL limitations for the flight crew on domestic flights is

a. 8 hrs
b. 9 hrs
c. 10 hrs
d. 11 hrs
12. The minimum time separation for a light aircraft to land behind a heavy aircraft is
a. 2 minutes
b. 3 minutes
c. 5 minutes
13. The ATC is to be notified if during a flight the TAS changes by more than
a. 5%
b. 10 %
c. 20 %
14. Aircraft flying on the same track should have a minimum separation of
a. 15 minutes
b. 10 minutes
c. 5 minutes
d. 20 minutes
15. Which type of airspace exist in India

a. Class A
b. Class D & F
c. Class B, C, D ,S ,F
16. In a controlled airspace the VFR flights will be terminated if the cloud ceiling falls
below
a. 1000 feet
b. 1500 feet
c. 5000 feet
d. 1500 meters
17. The certificate of airworthiness lapses when

a. An aircraft suffers a major damage
b. If un authorized flying is done
c. If un authorized people are carried on board
d. All are correct
18. The air report contains which of the following

a. Air temperature, Turbulence, Surface wind & aircraft Icing
b. Turbulence, upper winds & surface temperature
c. Air temperature, Turbulence, Upper winds & aircraft Icing
d. All are correct
19. The met minima is provided by the

a. Operator
b. Manufacturer
d. DGCA
20. For class I Met office the minimum notice required for a route forecast is
a. 3 hrs
c. 12 hrs
c. 18 to 24 hrs
d. 12 to 24 hrs
21. For class - III Met office the minimum notice required for a route forecast for domestic
flights is
a. 3 hrs
b. 12 hrs
c. 18 to 24 hrs
d. 12 to 24 hrs
22. The Tokyo convention Act 1975 apply to

a. All aircraft
b. The whole of India
c. Any where in the world
23. The aircraft rules 1937 apply to

a. The whole of India
b. Ali aircraft registered in India, where ever these are flying & all persons on board these
aircraft
c. All aircraft when flying over India & all persons on board such aircraft
d. All are correct
24. The act rules dealing with public health is

a. Public health rules 1954
b. Aircraft (Public Health) Rules 1954
c. Aircraft (Public Health) Rules 1937
d. Aircraft (Public Health) Rules 1945
25. An incidence report is to be given to DGCA within

a. 48 hrs
b. 24 hrs
c. Immediately after landing
d. As soon as possible
26. ATC provides which of the following

a. Advisory service
b. Control of air traffic
c. Search & rescue
d. All are correct
27. The minimum enroute altitude when flying over hilly terrain is
a. 1000 feet
b. 2000 feet
c. 500 feet
28. The controlled airspace in the confluence of ATS routes is called

a. Approach control
b. Area control
c. Control area
29. The area of 10 km around Mathura refinery is termed as

a. Danger area
b. Prohibited area
c. Protected area
d. Restricted are
a. If a NOTAM is issued that it is not active
b. With the permission of ATC
c. Out side the stipulated time
d. Cannot fly all
31. Around Malabar hill the flying is prohibited within

a. ½ nm from the tower of silence
b. l nm from the tower of silence
c. 5 nm from the tower of silence
d. 2 nm from the tower of silence
32. Minimum visibility aerodrome equipped with radio aids

a. 2.7 km
b. 3.7 km
c. 5 km
d. 1.5 km
33. Minimum visibility aerodrome not equipped with radio aids

a. 2.7 km
b. 3.7 km
c. 5 km
d. 1.5 km.
34. For the purpose of having additional aircraft in the aircraft rating of the license. The
training flying should be carried
a. With in 5 nm of the aerodrome
b. With in the local flying area of the aerodrome
c. Any where in India
d. All are, correct
35. Aircraft have to follow IFR from which altitude

a. Any altitude
b. At & above flight level 150
c. Above flight level 280
AIR REGS - 10
1. The punishment for carriage of unauthorised arras & ammunition, in the aircraft is
a. Maximum 3 months imprisonment or fine of Rs 1000/ or both
b. Maximum 6 months imprisonment or fine of Rs 1000/ or both.
c. Maximum 2 months imprisonment or fine of Rs 500/ or both
d. Maximum 2 years imprisonment + fine.
2. In an aircraft prisoners can be carried with the permission of

a. The DG prisons or state Govt.
b. DGCA/Deputy DGCA/DR & I
c. Central Govt.
3. The refueling operation should be stopped if a jet aircraft starts to run up its engines
within a distance of
a. 43 meters
b. 141 meters
c. 15 meters
4. The maximum number of hours a pilot can fly in 30 days is

a. 125 hrs as PIC
b. 125 hrs PIC or Co-pilot
c. 156 hrs 15 minutes
5. At an aerodrome special VFR may be authorised when

a. Visibility falls below 5 Km or cloud ceiling is less than 1500 feet
b. Visibility falls below 8 Km or cloud ceiling is less than 1500 feet
c. Visibility falls below 5' Km or cloud ceiling is less than 1000 feet
6. Over an aerodrome aerobatic flights are permitted above height of

a. 5000 feet
b. 6000 feet
c. 2000 feet
7. On international flights the health report is required to be given by a pilot minimum

a. 2 hours before ETA
b. 2 hours before entering India
c. 3 hours before ETA
8. The aircraft public health rules were passed in

a. 1937
b. 1950
c. 1954
9. The dead body of a person who has died due to Cholera can be brought in to India with
the permission of
a. Indian foreign mission abroad
b. DGCA
c. Central Govt.
10. Define threshold ……………………
11. A red flag on top of ATC building indicates to a pilot that

a. Aerobatics in progress
b. Local flying in progress j
c. Aerodrome closed for operation
d. Nothing
12. Airspace over Mathura refinery is a
a. Restricted area
b. Danger area
c. Prohibited area
13. At Bombay over Malabar hills flying is not permitted within

a. One mile of the tower of silence
b. Two miles of the tower of silence
c. One mile of the Malabar hill top
14. At an aerodrome a red square with a yellow diagonal means

a. Landing prohibited
b. Exercise caution when approaching to land & when landing
c. Caution more than one direction being used for all Take
d. Offs & Landings
15. An extremely sick person

a. Can not be carried on board £n sircr^ft
b. Can be carried on board & an aircraft, if accompanied, by & an attendant
c. Can be carried on board an aircraft, if authorized, by a doctor
16. The minimum longitudinal separation between aircraft flying on the same track & flight
level
a. 15 minutes
b. 15 nm
c. 10 nm
17. Reciprocal traffic above flight level 290 will have a minimum separation of
a. 2000 feet
b. 1000 feet
c. 4000 feet
18. The green Navigation light is visible through an are of angle of

a. 110 deg
b. 140 deg
c. 90 deg
19. The light aircraft departing behind a medium aircraft the minimum time difference is
a. 2 mts
b. 3 mts
c. 5 mts
20. For the purpose of renewal of a CPL, the number of Co pilot hours counted as PTC is
a. All flying as co pilot:
b. 50 % of Co pilot hours
c. 80 % of Co pilot hours
21. ATC is to be intimated if TAS changes by more than
a. 5%
b. 10%
c. 7%
22. An aircraft can be detained under

a. Aircraft act 1933
b. Aircraft act rules 1937
c. Aircraft act rules 1934
23. A Navigator is required to be carried or board if the distance between two Navigation aids
is more than
a. 600 nm
b. 800 nm
c. 500 nm
24. Lateral separation between two aircraft at the same altitude & using the same VOR is
a. 15 degrees at a distance of 15 nm or more
b. 30 degrees at a distance of 15 nm or more
c. 15 degrees at a distance of 25 nm or more
25. An aircraft has forced landed. It can take off again

a. After repairs are carried out
b. With the permission of DGCA
c. With the permission of operator
26. For aircraft flying over India enroute navigation charges are based on
a. The duration & length of flight
b. The Duration of stay
c. Maximum AUW of the aircraft
27. ADC is required when operating with in ADIZ

a. For all flights
b. For all flights operating at a distance of more than 5 nm from the aerodrome
c. For all Military aircraft
28. Over a hilly terrain IFR flights require a vertical clearance of

a. 2000 feet above highest obstacle within a radius of 8 nm
b. 2000 feet above highest obstacle within a radius of 5 nm
c. 1000 feet above highest obstacle within a radius of 5 nm
29. In India colour coding ‘W’ on an ATS route means

a. Domestic route
b. International route
c. A route requiring a special flight clearance
30. At an uncontrolled aerodrome a fresh flight plan is required if a flight is delayed by more
than
a. One hour
b. 30 juts
c. 2 hours
31. When an aircraft is flying away from the base the Daily inspection is valid for
…………………………………………………
32. Anti collision light is required to be fitted on
a. All aircraft
b. All aircraft in IFR flight
c. Aircraft weight exceeding 5700 Kg.
33. The responsibility to check the serviceability of RT apparatus is of

a. PIC
b. Radio operator
c. Co pilot
34. For the pilots in respect of whom the weather minima has not been filed by the operator
the minima applicable is
a. Aerodrome minima for VFR
b. DGCA minima
c. ICAO minima
35. When refueling is going on, no un authorised person should be within a distance of
a. 15 meters
b. 30 meters
c. 15 feet
36. Met minima for VFR flights above 3000 feet AMSL is
a. Visibility 8 Km, Distance from clouds 1. 5 Km Horizontally & 300 m Vertically
b. Visibility 8 nm. Distance from clouds 1.5 Km Horizontally & 300 M Vertically
c. Visibility 5 Km, Distance from clouds 1.5 Km Horizontally & 300 M Vertically
37. For civil aerodromes the colour of the rotating beacon is

a. White
b. White & Green
c. White & Blue
38. To cross an ATS route Permission is to be obtained minimum

a. 10 minutes before crossing
b. 15 minutes before crossing
c. 30 minutes before crossing
39. For domestic flights minimum distance from the international border is
a. 5 nm
b. 10 nm
c. 15 nm
40. Aircraft incident is to be reported with in

a. 24 hours
b. 48 hours
c. As soon as practicable
41. A pilot involved in an accident can fly again

a. After a medical examination
b. When asked by the operator to fly
c. When cleared by the DGCA
42. VFR Flying below 3000 feet AMSL in a controlled aerodrome the visibility is
a. 1.5 Km
b. 5000 meters
c. 8000 meters
43. The aerodrome operating minima is given bya.

a. Operator & approved by DGCA
b. DGCA
C. AAI
44. A series of projectiles fired At an interval of 10 sec means

A. Distress
B. Urgency
C. Indication of danger
45. A fresh flight plan is required if a scheduled flight at controlled aerodrome is delayed by
more than
a. 30 minutes
b. One hour
c. 45 minutes
46. The isolation period for Yellow fever is

a. 6 days
b. 5 days
c. 8 days
47. Series of green flashes directed towards an aircraft means

a. Clear to Take Off
b. Clear for landing
c. Clear to Taxi
48. The wreckage of a crashed aircraft can be tempered with or shifted to

a. Extricate persons or animals whether alive or dead
b. Bring it to a place of safety
c. Prevent inconvenience/obstruction to public
d. All are correct
49. The maximum flying a pilot can do in one year is

a. 1000 hrs
b. 1500 hrs
c. 1200 hrs
50. The validity period of a CPL is

a. 5 Years
b. 10 Years
c. 2 Years
51. The validity of medical for a CPL is

a. 2 years
b. 1 year
c. 5 years
AIR REGS 11
1. When flying over a crash site a pilot will acknowledge the signs from the survivors by
a. Rocking wings
b. Low pass over the crash site
c. Reporting to ATC
2. The sign from a crash site indicating that 'assistance required' is

a. X
b. S
c. V
d. C
3. Aerodrome control service is provided in

a. Circuit
b. Control zone
c. Control area
d. All the above
4. An IFR flight on a route not defined by specific reporting points, the position report is to
be made every
a. 30 minutes
b. One hour
c. 45 minutes
d. Only when requested by ATC
5. The number of search & rescue areas in India are

a. Six
b. Four
c. Five
6. At any aerodrome in India the transition altitude is not less than

a. 3000 feet
b. 4000 feet
c. 5000 feet
7. Minimum lateral separation between aircraft climbing through the of another aircraft
holding over a navigation aid is ?
a 5 nm
b. 5 minutes
c. 15 nm
8. On Take Off the aircraft is transferred from aerodrome control to approach control
a. Once the aircraft is in clouds
b. When 15 nm from the aerodrome
c. In the vicinity of the aerodrome 3
d. When lined up for Take - off

a. In the vicinity of an aerodrome
b. At a distance less than 10 nm from the aerodrome and altitude less than 100 feet
c. When flying within 5 nm from the aerodrome
d. In the vicinity of an aerodrome as long as the aircraft can to contacted on VHF
10. Minimum DME separation aircraft flying on the same track & same direction is
a. 10 nm
b. 20 nm
c. 10 minutes
11. In the semicircular system the track separation is

a. 000 - 175 & 180 - 356
b. 000 - 179 & 180 - 359
c. 001 - 180 & 181 - 360
d. 000 - 179 & 181 - 359
12. When on a cross country a delay of ETA more than…………..is to be reported to ATC
a. 5 minutes
b. 10 minutes
c. 15 minutes
13. An aircraft can cross ATS route with precautions such as

a. At an angle of 60 degrees
b. At an angle of 90 degrees
c. At an altitude not more than 1000 feet from the cruising altitude
14. The facilities provided by ATC in aerodrome control are

a. Control
b. Traffic
c. Search & rescue
d. All the above are correct
15. An aircraft is flying at 5000 feet in IMC. It should fly- according to

a. Semicircular system
b. Quadrantal system
c. Return back to base
16. An aircraft is flying on magnetic course (Tr) 180. In a quadrantal system it would be flying
a. Odd thousand feet
b. Even thousand feet
c. Odd thousand + 500 feet
d. Even thousand + 500 feet
17. The facilities available at an airfield will be mentioned in

a. AIP
b. AIKAC
c. ATC
d. NOTAMS
18. An aircraft at supersonic speed can fly over India

a. With permission of Central Govt.
b. With the permission of DGCA.
c. Can not fly
19. The route Navigation charges are based on

a. AUW of the aircraft
b. Availability of navigation facilities on the route
c. The duration the navigation facilities were actually used
d. Number of passengers on boards the aircraft
20. An aircraft is descending over Delhi aerodrome from Flight level 290. The altimeter reads
12000 feet. The pilot will report vertical distance as
a. 12000 feet
b. Flight level 120
c. Flight level 290
d. 29000 feet
21. Rules regarding demolition of obstructions caused by tall buildings, trees etc are laid
down in
a. Aircraft rules 193T
b. Aircraft rules 1934
c. Aircraft act 1934
d. Aircraft: public health rules 1954
22. Before a flight who is responsible to check the proper working the radio apparatus
a. PIC
b. Co Pilot
c. Radio officer
23. Night flying corresponds to flying between

a. Half hr before sunset to halt hr after sunrise.
b. Half hr after sunset to half hr after sunrise
c. Half hr after sunset to half hr before sunrise
d. Half hr before sunset to hall hr alter sunrise
24. The colour of the aerodrome beacon is

a. White & Red
b. Blue & green
c. White & green
25. VMC exists at an aerodrome when visibility is more than

a. 8 Km
b. 5 Km
c. 3 Km
26. UTC means

a. Coordinated universal time
b. Universal coordinated time
c. Universal time coordinated
27. In the quadrantal system the lowest flight level to be flown is

a. 30
b. 40
c. 50
28. The runway direction is measured with respect to

a. True North
b. Magnetic North
29. While in a circuit an aircraft experiences RT failure, the pilot should acknowledge RT
signals by
a. Pitching the nose UP/Down
b. Rocking wings
c. Switching ON/OFF landing lights
30. Petroleum in bulk means Petroleum contained in receptacles

a. Of 900 liters capacity
b. Exceeding 900 liters capacity
c. Less than 900 liters capacity
31. A red pyrotechnical light fired from control tower in front of an aircraft means
a. Keep circling & give way to other aircraft
b. Not with standing, with the previous instructions, do not land for the time being c}
c. Nothing
32. The incubation period for relapsing fever is

a. 6 days
b. 6 days
c. 4 days
33. It a passenger on board the aircraft, is suffering from an PIC is to inform health
officer…………hours before landing
a. 2
b. 3
c. 4
34. The body of a person died of yellow fever can be brought to India if
a. The body is hermetically sealed
b. The body is sealed in a zinc box
c. Can not be brought to India
35. Anti collision light is mandatory to be fitted on aircraft AUW it-

a. 1500 kg
b. 5700 kg
c. 6000 kg
36. Permitted leaflets can be dropped from an aircraft with the permission
a. Central Govt
b. DGCA
c. District magistrate or the commissioner of police
37. Either arm & hand level with shoulder, hand across throat palm downwards - means
a. Cut engines
b. Turn to the direction in which hand across throat palm
c. Slow down & stop
38. Unidirectional green lights are arranged at

a. The beginning of the runway
b. The displaced threshold
c. The end of the runway
39. From the beginning of the runway to the displaced threshold the runway edge lights
are
a. White
b. Red
c. Green
d. Yellow
40. During flight a red light seen on a Relative bearing of 270 means
a. A risk of collision with another aircraft
b. No risk of collision with another aircraft
c. An aerodrome beacon indicating unsafe conditions
41. An aircraft accident is to be reported to DGCA within

a. 24 hours
b. 48 hours
c. As soon as possible
42. On board a civil aircraft the defense personnel can carry arms with the permission of
a. DGCA
b. Army HQ
c. Commanding officer
d. Central Govt.
43. During night flying it navigation light fail, the pilot should
a. Send a MAY day signal
b. Land at the alternate aerodrome
c. Land as soon as possible
44. When flying within transition layer the altitude is reported on

a. QFE
b. QNH
c. QNE
d. Not reported at all
45. Minimum Longitudinal separation in terms of time, when passing through the level of
another aircraft cr. the same track, from the time the level is crossed is
a. 5 minutes
b. 10 minutes
c. 15 minutes
d. 20 minutes
46. The FDR should be capable of recording he conversation for at least preceding
a. 25 Hrs
b. 5 Hrs
c. 25 Minutes
d. 30 minutes
47. The FDTL for international flight in terms of flying hours & number of landings is
a. 9/3
b. 8/4
c. 6/3
d. 9/4
48. The maximum number of hours a pilot can fly as PIC in one tear
a. 1000
b. 1500
c. 125
49. Instrument flying time means

a. Flying time during night
b. The time during which the pilot is flying solely with reference to instruments
with out any external visual reference
c. The time during which the pilot is flying with reference to instruments with external
visual reference
50. A Control zone is

a. An airspace with in which air traffic is controlled
b. A controlled airspace extending upwards from the surface of the earth to a `
specific upper limit above the earth
c. A controlled air space extending upwards from a specified upper limit above the
earth
51. Hypoxia is a result of which of the following conditions.

b. Excessive carbon dioxide in the "blood stream
c. Limited oxygen reaching the heart muscles.
52. What causes hypoxia?

b. An increase in the nitrogen contents in the atmosphere at right altitudes
53. A loss of cabin pressure may result in hypoxia because as cabin altitude increas

b. Pain & cramping of the hands
c. Dizziness
55. What is the effect alcohol consumption on the function of body

a. Alcohol has adverse effect especially as the altitude
b. Small amounts of alcohol in the human system increase judgment & decision making
ability
c. Alcohol has little effect it followed by equal quantities of black coffee

a. Tingling of the hands & feet.
c. Decreases breathing rate
57. What would most likely to occur in hyper ventilation

c. Looking out side every 30 seconds except in radar contact outside scanning is
unnecessary
59. What is the most effective way to use eyes during night flying?
a. Look only at far away dim lights
b. Scan slowly to permit off center viewing
c. Concentrate directly on each object: for few seconds
60. Which observed target aircraft would be of most concern with respect to collision
avoidance
increasing in size
61. When using earth's horizon as a reference to determine the relative position of other
aircraft most concern would be for aircraft
a. Above the horizon £ increasing in size
c. On the horizon & increasing in size
62. When making an approach on narrower than usual runway without VASI assistance,
the pilot should be aware that the approach
b. Approach attitude may be lower than it appears
63. When making an approach for landing over a darkened or featureless terrain, such as
water or snow pilot should be aware of the possibility of illusion. This approach may
appear to be
a. High
b. Low
c. Shallow


a. Pitching up
b. Pitching down
c. Leveling off

a. No illusion
b. Lower than actual
c. Higher than actual
67. On a runway there are three pairs of threshold marking. The length of the
runway is.
a. 1200 to 1500 meters
b. 1200 to 2100 meters
c. More than 2100 meters
68. On a runway there are three pairs of threshold marking. The length of the
runway is.
a. 60 meters
b. 30 meters
c. 45 meters
d. 23 meters
69. The length of R/W center line markings is & the length between the markings
is.
a. 30 meters & 20 meters
b. 30 meters & 30 meters
c. 20 meters £ 20 meters
d. 20 meters & 30 meter
70. The ADC

a. Not required for uncontrolled flights
b. Is required for controlled & uncontrolled flights & is valid till 30 minutes
after controlled flights.
c. Is required only for controlled flights.
d. Is required for controlled & uncontrolled flights & is valid till 30 minutes before
& after the planned T/O time
71. The FDTL may be extended by.

a. DGCA
b. Operator
c. PIC
d. Central Govt.

a. 4 Hrs
b. 2 Hrs
c. 6 Hrs
d. 8 Hrs
73. The amendments to aircraft rules is done through

a. NOTAMS
b. CAR
c. AIC
d. AIRAC
74. Above which flight level only the IFR flights area permitted.
a. 150
b. 290
c. 100
d. 200

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Question Paper – 1

1. Position report is required to be given when

2. Aerodrome data and facilities are given in

4. A horizontal red square panel with one yellow diagonal means:

8. If there is a temporary change in the aeronautical services it is intimated through

12. What information is included in the third section of an Air report?

15. The air report contains following items:

16. At an aerodrome special VFR may be authorized when

17. Routes guides are required to be carried by :

18. AIP India is published by

19. Sunrise time of an Airport in calculated for an altitude of the Sun

21. ‘ATIS’ is a continuous broadcast of recorded information concerning:

24. A prohibited area is an area over which:

25. An airport’s rotating beacon operated during daylight hours indicates

31. What time is filled in item 13 of flight plan?

35. Runaway direction is measured from:

37. A pilot not having an instrument rating cannot fly :

39. What shape and colour is a landing direction indicator?

40. How should a close part of a runway be marked?

48. The maneuvering area of an airport is that area

50. What is the definition of MEA?

4. An Instrument Rating Test is valid before renewal for:

7. EAT is the time that an aircraft :

9. An aircraft Captain should transmit special aircraft observations when he encounters:

10. Normal horizontal separation provided by radar units is:

11. The possible symptoms of carbon monoxide poisoning are :

16. Air Traffic Advisory Service is provided in airspace classified as

19. Hazardous wake turbulence caused by aircraft in still air

20. Wake turbulence will be greatest when generated by an aeroplane which is

24. Smoking on a private aircraft is permitted:

25. An aircraft without registration markings can be flown only

33. Class ‘D’ airspace in India

35. In the event of the forced landing at an uncontrolled aerodrome, aircraft

37. The altimeter indicates the aircraft altitude in relation to

43. Number of threshold stripes on a runway of 25 m width shall be: a) 4 b) 6 c) 8 d) 12

44. Colour of intermediate holding position markings shall be:

46. Minimum crew required on private aircraft is:

47. A pvt. Aircraft from Chennai to Colombo is required to carry on board.

2. In class D air space

3. Route guides are required to be carried in

4. ADC clearance is required to be obtained

5. Pilots log book is to be preserved for

6. A double white cross displayed on a signal square indicate

7. Medical for a CPL holder is valid for

8. Letter ‘W’ in ATS Route designator indicates:

9. Position report is required to be given when

10. Aerodrome data and facilities are given in

11. The highest point on the landing area is called:

12. Anti-collision light is a light :

13. Operational Manual is:

19. Aerodrome operation minima is given by

22. The wreckage of crashed aircraft on R/W/ can be removed to:

27. If there is a temporary change in the aeronautical services it is intimated through

28. The highest flight level that can be flown in India is

29. The duty time of the trainee pilot:

31. A pilot can fly in 30 consecutive days

34. The FDR has record of operation of preceding

36. The CVR is fitted in an aircraft to

37. The FDR is fitted in an aircraft to

38. The most effective way to use eyes at night is