12/06/2019 TYMRG1

Code-A1

Regd. Office : Aakash Tower, 8, Pusa Road, New Delhi-110005; Ph.: 011-47623456

MM : 720 Term Exam for NEET (2019-2021) Time : 3 Hrs.

Test - 1 (Objective)
Topics Covered :
Physics : Physical World, Units and Measurements, Motion in a Straight line: Introduction, Position, Path
length and displacement, average velocity and average speed, Differential calculus, Applications of differential
calculus, Instantaneous velocity and speed, Acceleration
Chemistry : Some Basic Concepts of Chemistry, Structure of Atom: Sub-atomic particles : Discovery of electron,
Charge to mass ratio of electron, Charge on electron, Discovery of proton and neutron. Thomson model of
atom, Rutherford’s nuclear model of atom, Atomic and Mass number, Isobars and isotopes., Particle
nature of electromagnetic radiation : Planck’s quantum theory, Photoelectric effect, Dual behaviour of
electromagnetic radiation.
Botany : Cell : The Unit of Life, Cell Cyle and Cell Division, The living world (upto systematics)
Zoology : Structural organisation in Animals–Animal Tissues, Biomolecules. (upto Induced fit theory)

Instructions :
(i) Use Blue/Black ballpoint pen only to darken the appropriate circle.
(ii) Mark should be dark and should completely fill the circle.
(iii) Dark only one circle for each entry.
(iv) Dark the circle in the space provided only.
(v) Rough work must not be done on the Answer sheet and do not use white-fluid or any other rubbing material on
Answer sheet.
(vi) Each question carries 4 marks. For every wrong response 1 mark shall be deducted from total score.

PHYSICS
Choose the correct answer :
1. Mediating particle for strong nuclear force is 4. Which of the following are domains in physics?
(1) Photons (2) π – meson (1) Macroscopic (2) Unification
(3) Boson (4) Graviton (3) Microscopic (4) Both (1) and (3)
2. The ratio of relative strength of electromagnetic force 5. Which of the following forces may be attractive as
to the weak nuclear force is well as repulsive?
(1) 1:10–2 (2) 1:10–11 (1) Gravitational force (2) Electromagnetic force
(3) 1:10–26 (4) 1:10–16 (3) Strong nuclear force (4) Both (2) and (3)
3. Aeroplane technology is based on which of the 6. Which of the following forces does not obey inverse
following scientific principle? square law?
(1) Bernoulli’s principle in fluid dynamics (1) Strong nuclear force
(2) Nuclear fission (2) Gravitational force
(3) Photoelectric effect (3) Electromagnetic force
(4) Faraday's law of electromagnetic induction (4) None of these
(1)
Term Exam Test-1 (TYMRG1_Code-A1) Two Year Medical (2019-2021)
7. The electric transformer was discovered by 18. The percentage error in the measurement of radius
(1) Graham Bell (2) S.N. Bose of sphere is 2%. Then the maximum percentage
error in the measurement of surface area of sphere
(3) William Stanley (4) James Watt
will be
8. Main thrusts in physics are
(1) 2% (2) 4%
(1) Unification (2) Reduction
(3) 1% (4) 3%
(3) Experiment (4) Both (1) and (2)
19. The number of significant figures in pure number 1000
9. Choose the correct statement. is
(1) Gravitational force is conservative
(1) One (2) Three
(2) Electrostatic force is non-conservative
(3) Four (4) Infinite
(3) Nuclear force is conservative
20. The value of (102)1/2 according to binomial theorem is
(4) Weak nuclear force is conservative
(1) 10.1 (2) 10
10. Choose the dimensionless quantity.
(3) 10.2 (4) 10.02
(1) Plane angle
(2) Speed 21. If in a vernier callipers 5 VSD coincides with
4 MSD, then least count of vernier calliper is (given
(3) Thermodynamic temperature 1 MSD = 1 mm)
(4) Amount of substance
(1) 0.1 mm (2) 0.4 mm
11. Choose the correct pair among the following.
(3) 0.3 mm (4) 0.2 mm
(1) Peta ↔ 1015 (2) Hecto ↔ 106
(3) Deca ↔ 103 (4) Mega ↔ 108 ab 2
22. A physical quantity y is given by y = and the
12. The S.I. unit of volumetric mass density of substance c
is percentage errors in the measurement of a, b and c
is 2%, 1% and 1% respectively. The percentage
kg kg
(1) 2 (2) error in y will be
m m3
(3) kg m3 (4) kg m2 (1) 3% (2) 4%

13. Among the following, which is not a fundamental (3) 5% (4) 2%

quantity? 23. The dimensional formula of force is
(1) Length (2) Luminous intensity (1) [MLT–2] (2) [ML2T–2]
(3) Electric current (4) Solid angle (3) [MLT–1] (4) [ML2T–1]
2π 24. If acceleration (A), velocity (V) and mass (M) are
14. The value of radian in degree will be
3 taken as fundamental quantities then dimensional
(1) 60° (2) 90° formula of length is
(3) 120° (4) 150° (1) [A–1V2M0] (2) [AVM0]
15. The mass of proton is 1.67 × 10–27 kg then order of (3) [A–1VM] (4) [AV–2M]
magnitude of mass of proton in S.I. unit will be
25. The velocity of particle at any time t is given by
(1) –25 (2) –27 a
v = bt + where a and b are constant. The
(3) –23 (4) –30 t
16. Among the following, which is not a unit of length? a
dimension of is
b
(1) Astronomical unit (2) Light-year
(1) [MLT2] (2) [M0L0T2]
(3) Parsec (4) Steradian
17. Two resistances R1 = (50 + 1) Ω and R2 = (100 + 2) Ω (3) [ML–1T–1] (4) [M0LT–1]
are connected in series. Their equivalent resistance 26. The most uncertain digit in measurement of length
with error is reported as 21.47 cm is
(1) (150 + 3) Ω (2) (150 + 1) Ω (1) 2 (2) 4
(3) (50 + 3) Ω (4) (50 + 1) Ω (3) 1 (4) 7
(2)
Two Year Medical (2019-2021) Term Exam Test-1 (TYMRG1_Code-A1)
27. A particle starts from origin, moves along x-axis to 36. Which pair have same dimensions?
the point (5 m, 0) and then returns along the same (1) Angular momentum and Planck’s constant
line to the point (–10 m, 0). The displacement of (2) Energy and impulse
particle during the trip is (3) Torque and force
(1) 10 m (2) –10 m (4) Both (1) and (2)
(3) 15 m (4) –20 m 37. Round off the value 3.745 to three significant figures.
(1) 3.70 (2) 3.74
28. The position x of an object as function of time t is,
(3) 3.75 (4) 3.73
x = 2+3t (where x is in metre and t is in second).
38. Zero error in an instrument introduces
The acceleration of the object at t = 2 s will be
(1) Random error (2) Systematic error
(1) 4 m/s2 (2) 1 m/s2
(3) Least count error (4) Personal error
(3) 2 m/s2 (4) Zero 39. The side of a square is (20+0.2) cm. The maximum
29. A particle moves along a circular path of radius R. percentage error in its perimeter is
The ratio of distance and magnitude of displacement (1) 5% (2) 3%
of particle in completing half revolution is (3) 1% (4) 4%
(1) π : 2 (2) 1 : 1 ⎛ a ⎞
40. In equation ⎜ P + 2 ⎟ (V − b ) = nRT, P is pressure,
⎝ V ⎠
(3) π : 2 (4) 2π : 1 V is volume and T absolute temperature. If a and b
30. The displacement x of an object is given by a
are constant, then dimension of is
x = 2t – 3t2. The instantaneous velocity at t = 2 s is b
(1) [ML2T–2] (2) [MLT–2]
(1) 10 m/s (2) –10 m/s
–1
(3) [ML T ] –2 (4) [ML–2T–2]
(3) 12 m/s (4) –12 m/s 41. A particle moves in a straight line and its position(x)
at time t is given by x2 = 2t + 1. Its velocity is given
31. If y = sin θ + 3 cos θ , then the maximum value of
by
y is
2 –2
(1) 1 (2) 4 (1) (2)
x x2
(3) 2 (4) 3 1 –1
(3) (4)
x x
dy
32. If y = cosθ, then at θ = π will be 42. A particle is moving in same direction, with constant
dθ
speed, then
(1) 1 (2) –1 (1) Its acceleration is positive
1 (2) Its acceleration is negative
(3) (4) Zero
2 (3) Its acceleration is decreasing
33. A car is moving on a straight road covers one third (4) Its acceleration is zero
of the total distance with speed 25 km/h and rest 43. The position of a particle moving on a straight line is
with speed of 50 km/h. The average speed of the car given as x = t2–2t (where x is in m and t is in s). The
is position of the particle when its velocity is zero
(1) 1 m (2) –1 m
(1) 40 km/h (2) 20 km/h
(3) –2 m (4) Zero
(3) 37.5 km/h (4) 42.5 km/h 44. The position of particle change with time as
34. The position of particle is given as a function of time y = 3t2. The instantaneous speed at 2 s is
t, s = 3t2+3t. The instantaneous velocity of object at (1) 4 m/s (2) 6 m/s
t = 0 will be (3) 8 m/s (4) 12 m/s
(1) 6 m/s (2) 3 m/s 45. Choose the correct statement.
(1) Distance travelled by a body is always greater
(3) 5 m/s (4) Zero
than magnitude of displacement.
35. The velocity of a body moving along x-axis at time (2) Average speed is the magnitude of average
t is given by v = (t2 – 4t + 6) m/s. Then the time at velocity.
which acceleration of the particle will be zero is
(3) Instantaneous speed is equal to the magnitude
(1) 3 s (2) 4 s of instantaneous velocity.
(3) 1 s (4) 2 s (4) Both (2) and (3)
(3)
Term Exam Test-1 (TYMRG1_Code-A1) Two Year Medical (2019-2021)

CHEMISTRY
46. Number of atoms in 0.5 mol of P4 is 56. The volume of CO2 (g) evolved at STP on heating 20 g
CaCO3 is
(NA : Avogadro number)
(1) 11.2 L (2) 5.6 L
(1) 0.5 NA (2) NA
(3) 4.48 L (4) 2.24 L
(3) 2 NA (4) 4NA
57. Moles of O2(g) produced on complete decomposition
47. The law of mass conservation is not applicable for of 1.5 mol of KClO3, is
(1) Evaporation of water 2KClO3 → 2KCl + 3O2
(2) Burning of methane (1) 1.575 (2) 1.25
(3) Nuclear fission of uranium (3) 2.25 (4) 1.75
(4) Dissolution of salt in water 58. Minimum frequency among the following is of

48. Mass of one mole of electron is (1) X-rays (2) UV rays

(3) Microwaves (4) Radio waves
(1) 9.1 × 10–28 g (2) 0.55 mg
59. Mole fraction of NaOH in 5 molal aqueous NaOH
(3) 9.1 × 10–24 g (4) 1.67 × 10–24 g
solution is
49. Mole fraction of solute in aqueous solution of 30%
5 1
urea (by mass) is (1) (2)
12.11 12.11
(1) 0.182 (2) 0.114
3 1
(3) (4)
(3) 0.225 (4) 0.421 5.45 5.45
50. Number of significant figures in 4.157 × 10–3 is 60. If an element X is present 70% by weight in its oxide
X2O3, then atomic mass of element X is
(1) 1 (2) 3
(1) 36 u (2) 56 u
(3) 4 (4) 7
(3) 40 u (4) 80 u
51. Equivalent weight of H2SO4 in the given reaction,
61. Red light has wavelength 750 nm. Frequency of this
H2SO4 + NaOH → NaHSO4 + H2O is
light will be
(1) 98 (2) 49
(1) 1 × 1014 Hz (2) 2.5 × 1014 Hz
(3) 24.5 (4) 40 (3) 4 × 1014 Hz (4) 2 × 1014 Hz
52. How much CO2 can be produced by reaction of 62. Number of neutrons present in 18 mL water is
6 g carbon and 32 g oxygen? (NA : Avogadro number)
(1) 26 g (2) 22 g (1) 10 NA (2) 8 NA
(3) 20 g (4) 14 g (3) 2 NA (4) 3 NA
53. When 1.2 g CH3COOH is dissolved in 250 g water 63. Mass of methane gas combusted to produced
then molality of the solution is 36 g H2O is

(1) 0.08 m (2) 0.04 m (1) 8g (2) 4g

(3) 16 g (4) 32 g
(3) 0.02 m (4) 0.05 m
64. Volume of 0.5 M NaOH solution required for complete
54. How many minimum moles of A should be initially
neutralisation of 3.65 g HCl is
taken to prepare 0.6 moles of C?
(1) 100 mL (2) 200 mL
2A + B → 3C
(3) 250 mL (4) 500 mL
(1) 0.2 (2) 0.4
65. Select incorrect statement about cathode rays
(3) 0.6 (4) 0.8 (1) These rays move towards anode
55. A bivalent metal has an equivalent mass of 20. The (2) These rays travel in straight lines
molecular mass of the metal sulphate is
(3) Their characteristics depend upon the material
(1) 112 u (2) 136 u of electrode
(3) 124 u (4) 108 u (4) These are negatively charged
(4)
Two Year Medical (2019-2021) Term Exam Test-1 (TYMRG1_Code-A1)
66. Neutron was discovered by bombarding a thin sheet 74. The substance which is not in elemental form is
of metal by α-particles. The metal used was
(1) Cu (2) O2
(1) Sodium (2) Silver
(3) He (4) H2O
(3) Gold (4) Beryllium
75. The prefix “mega” is a multiple as
67. On the basis of Rutherford model of atom radius of
nucleus is about (1) 10 (2) 103
(1) 10–10 m (2) 10–12 m (3) 106 (4) 1010
(3) 10–15 m (4) 10–20 m 76. Room temperature 0°C is represented in Fahrenheit,
68. Incorrect statement about photoelectric effect is it’s equal to

(1) Metals like potassium, rubidium shows this (1) 212°F (2) 32°F
effect. (3) 98.6°F (4) 77°F
(2) There is a time lag between the striking of light
77. If carbon has three isotopes 12 C, 13 C, 14 C and
beam and the ejection of electrons from the metal
their relative abundances are 98.892, 1.108 and
surface.
2 × 10–10 respectively then average atomic mass of
(3) For each metal there is threshold frequency below carbon will be
which photoelectric effect is not observed
(1) 12.21 u (2) 12.011 u
(4) Kinetic energy of the ejected electrons depends
upon the frequency of the light used. (3) 12.305 u (4) 12.255 u

69. Kinetic energy of an electron emitted when radiation 78. Amount of silver chloride precipitated, when
of frequency ν = 1.25 × 10 15 s –1 strikes the 100 mL 0.1 M AgNO3 was added to 200 mL 0.05 M
metal surface whose threshold frequency ν 0 is NaCl solution, is (Ag = 108, Cl = 35.5)
7.25 × 1014s–1, is (h = 6.626 × 10–34 J sec) (1) 1.435 g (2) 1.223 g
(1) 1.98 × 10–19 J (2) 3.46 × 10–19 J (3) 2.235 g (4) 0.768 g
(3) 12.5 × 10–19 J (4) 5× 10–19 J
79. Select the option in which given gas occupies
70. Phenomenon(s) that explain the particle nature of light maximum volume at S.T.P. conditions.
is/are
(1) 44 g CO2(g)
(1) Diffraction
(2) 4 g of CH4(g)
(2) Photoelectric effect
(3) 1.54 × 1023 molecules of NH3
(3) Black body radiation
(4) Both (2) and (3) (4) 0.1 mole SO2(g)

71. The number of photons of light of frequency 80. Chlorine is prepared in lab by treating MnO2 with
10 s–1 equivalent to 1 J is aqueous HCl according to given reaction MnO2(s) +
4HCl (aq) MnCl2 (aq) + Cl2(g) + 2H2O(l)↑.
10 1
(1) (2) How many gram of chlorine is produced when 0.24
h h
mole of HCl and excess MnO2 is taken?
1 h
(3) (4) (1) 1.26 g (2) 3.76 g
10h 10
72. 0.1 M HCl (200 mL) and 0.1 M NaOH (800 mL) was (3) 4.26 g (4) 10.12 g
mixed in a container. Concentration of 81. 1 L of a gas at STP weight 1.964 g. What is vapour
[OH–] ion in the mixture will be density of the gas?
(1) 0.06 M (2) 0.1 M
(1) 11 (2) 22
(3) 0.02 M (4) 0.01 M
(3) 44 (4) 88
73. Manganese forms different oxides as MnO, Mn2O3,
Mn2O7. Formation of these oxides explains 82. Normality of 0.1 M H3PO3 solution is

(1) Law of multiple proportions. (1) 0.2 N

(2) Law of definite proportions. (2) 0.1 N
(3) Law of conservation of mass. (3) 0.3 N
(4) Law of definite volume. (4) 0.05 N
(5)
Term Exam Test-1 (TYMRG1_Code-A1) Two Year Medical (2019-2021)
83. When 2 L of NH3 (g) and 1.2 L of HCl (g) are mixed 87. Numbers of neutrons and protons respectively present
then volume of gaseous mixture after the reaction will 80
in 35 Br are
be
NH3(g) + HCl(g) NH4Cl(s) (1) 35, 45 (2) 35, 35

(1) 1.2 L (2) 2L (3) 45, 35 (4) 45, 45

(3) 0.8 L (4) 3.2 L 88. If the density of 1 M NaOH solution is 2 g/cm3 then
the molality of the solution is
84. If 1 mL of liquid water contains 20 drops then number
of molecules in one drop of water is (dwater = 1 g/mL) (1) 1m (2) 2m

(1) 1.67 × 1021 (2) 1.376 × 1022 (3) 0.51 m (4) 0.25 m

(3) 1.344 × 1018 (4) 4.346 × 1020 89. The ratio of charge to mass would be maximum for

85. How many moles of Ca3(PO4)2 could be prepared from (1) Electron (2) Proton
10 g of calcium? (3) Neutron (4) Alpha particle
(1) 0.0415 (2) 0.0833 90. 0.40 M, 100 ml solution of NaCl is diluted to
(3) 0.03 (4) 0.015 1000 ml. The molarity of resultant solution is

86. 28 kg of N2(g) and 3 kg of H2(g) are mixed to produce (1) 0.2 M

NH3(g). The maximum amount of NH3(g) formed is (2) 0.1 M
(1) 34 kg (2) 17 kg (3) 0.04 M
(3) 28 kg (4) 8.5 kg (4) 0.08 M

BOTANY
91. According to the cell theory 96. The structure in a bacterium that allows it to hide
from host’s immune system is
(1) All living cells have nucleus
(1) Capsule
(2) All cells arise from pre-existing cells
(2) Cell wall
(3) Organisms are always composed of more than
one cell (3) Mesosome
(4) Cell wall is a unique character of every cells (4) Pilus

92. Credit for the discovery of nucleus is given to 97. Gram staining is a special technique, on the basis
of which
(1) Robert Hooke (2) Matthias Schleiden
(1) Bacteria were classified into two groups
(3) A.V. Leeuwenhoek (4) Robert Brown
(2) Prokaryotes were classified into three groups
93. In plant cells, the main arena of cellular activities is
(3) Organisms were classified into plants and
(1) Nucleus (2) Chloroplast animals
(3) Cytoplasm (4) Nucleoplasm (4) Organisms were classified into prokaryotes and
94. Select the incorrect statement regarding the cell eukaryotes
organelle found in both prokaryotic and eukaryotic 98. Which of the following functions is/are related to
cells. polysome?
(1) It contains hydrolytic enzymes a. Storage of glycogen granules.
(2) It is non-membrane bound organelle b. Translation of mRNA into proteins.
(3) It is the site of protein synthesis c. Glycosylation of proteins.
(4) It is made up of two subunits (1) a and c
95. The size of the smallest cell in the living world is of (2) b and c
(1) 7 μm (2) 3 to 5 μm (3) b only
(3) 0.02 μm (4) 0.3 μm (4) c only
(6)
Two Year Medical (2019-2021) Term Exam Test-1 (TYMRG1_Code-A1)
99. 70S ribosomes are not present 104. Read the following statements and choose the option
which is true for them.
(1) In the stroma of chloroplast
Statement - 1 : Endoplasmic reticulum is
(2) On the surface of rough endoplasmic reticulum
continuous with the outer membrane of nucleus.
(3) In the matrix of mitochondria Statement - 2 : Lipids like steroidal hormones are
(4) In the cytoplasm of prokaryotic cell synthesised in smooth endoplasmic reticulum.
100. Select the correct statement regarding active and (1) Only statement-1 is incorrect
passive transport. (2) Only statement-2 is incorrect
(1) Active transport is an energy independent (3) Both the statements are incorrect
process whereas passive transport is an energy (4) Both the statements are correct
dependent process.
105. Match the following columns and select the correct
(2) Energy is not required in passive transport but it option.
is required in active transport
Column I Column II
(3) Both active and passive transports are energy
a. Contractile vacuole (i) Provides buoyancy
independent processes
b. Gas vacuole (ii) Forms acrosome of
(4) Energy is required in both active and passive
sperms
transports
c. Lysosome (iii) Rich in hydrolytic
101. In plant cells, the middle lamella is chiefly made up
enzymes
of (i) and may be traversed by (ii) .
d. Golgi complex (iv) Helps in excretion
Select the correct option to fill in the blanks (i) and (1) a(iv), b(iii), c(i), d(ii) (2) a(ii), b(i), c(iii), d(iv)
(ii).
(3) a(iv), b(i), c(iii), d(ii) (4) a(iii), b(i), c(iv), d(ii)
(1) (i)-Calcium carbonate, (ii)-Endoplasmic reticulum
106. Choose the incorrect one w.r.t. the functions of
(2) (i)-Calcium pectate, (ii)-Plasmodesmata SER.
(3) (i)-Magnesium pectate, (ii)-Secondary wall (1) Synthesis of steroids
(4) (i)-Chitin, (ii)-Endoplasmic reticulum (2) Detoxification of drugs

102. Identify the structure of a cell that serves following (3) Release and uptake of Ca2+ ions for muscle
functions and select the correct option. contraction
(4) Providing precursors of enzyme for lysosome
• Maintenance of shape of the cell.
107. From Golgi apparatus, vesicles are discharged
• Protection of cells from mechanical injury. through its
• Warding off from the attacks of pathogens. (1) Cis face

(1) Cell wall (2) Trans face

(2) Vacuole (3) Forming face

(4) Both forming and maturing face
(3) Plasma membrane
108. Which of the following chromosomes appear
(4) Endoplasmic reticulum
V-shaped during anaphase stage of cell division?
103. Mitochondria is not included in endomembrane (1) Acrocentric (2) Sub-metacentric
system of cell because
(3) Metacentric (4) Telocentric
(1) Mitochondria is a double membrane-bound
109. The cells that lack nucleus at maturity are
organelle while organelles of endomembrane
system are single membrane-bound (i) Paramoecium (ii) Sieve tube cell

(2) It is an autonomous cell organelle (iii) Opalina (iv) Mammalian RBC

(3) Its functions are not coordinated with the The correct ones are
organelles of endomembrane system (1) (i) and (iv) (2) (ii) and (iii)
(4) It is found only in eukaryotic cells (3) (i) and (ii) (4) (ii) and (iv)

(7)
Term Exam Test-1 (TYMRG1_Code-A1) Two Year Medical (2019-2021)
110. Nucleolus is the site of the synthesis of 119. Match the following columns and select the correct
(1) rRNA (2) tRNA option.

(3) DNA (4) mRNA Column I Column II

111. (9 + 2) organisation of microtubules is found in a. Anaphase (i) Centrioles begin to

(1) Centrioles (2) Eukaryotic flagella move to opposite
(3) Prokaryotic fimbriae (4) Prokaryotic flagella poles
112. In chloroplasts, lumen is the space b. Metaphase (ii) Splitting of
(1) Enclosed by the membrane of thylakoid centromere
(2) Between outer and inner membrane c. Telophase (iii) Assembly of
(3) Between two thylakoids nuclear envelope
(4) Around the granum d. Prophase (iv) Congression of
113. Starch storing cell organelles are
chromosomes
(1) Amyloplast and Aleuroplast
(1) a(ii), b(iv), c(iii), d(i) (2) a(ii), b(i), c(iii), d(iv)
(2) Elaioplast and Amyloplast
(3) a(iv), b(ii), c(i), d(iii) (4) a(ii), b(iv), c(i), d(iii)
(3) Aleuroplast and Chloroplast
120. Which of the following events marks the start of the
(4) Amyloplast and Chloroplast
second phase of mitosis?
114. Select the incorrect statement w.r.t. mitochondria.
(1) Movement of chromosomes to the spindle
(1) Inner membrane infolds to form cristae equator
(2) Subunits of its ribosomes are 60S and 40S (2) Begining of condensation of chromatin material
(3) It contains single circular dsDNA molecule (3) Complete disintegration of the nuclear envelope
(4) New mitochondria are formed from pre-existing
(4) Duplication of centrosome
mitochondria
121. During cell division, spindle fibres attach to
115. Cell cycle is
(1) Both the tips of chromosome
(1) A series of changes that occur only in gamete
forming cells (2) Plasma membrane of the opposite poles
(2) A process in which number of chromosomes (3) The cell plate
reduced to half
(4) Kinetochores of chromosomes
(3) A genetically controlled series of changes
122. Phragmoplast is formed by
(4) Not observed in haploid cells
(1) Endoplasmic reticulum in animal cells
116. How many cells are formed from a typical human cell
(2) Dictyosomes in plant cells
in five days?
(1) 32 (2) 64 (3) Microtubules in plant cells

(3) 10 (4) 16 (4) Centrioles in animal cells

117. M phase constitutes _______duration of the cell 123. Read the following statements.
cycle. i. The process of cytokinesis is same in animal
Select the correct option to fill in the blank. cell and plant cell.
(1) More than 95% (2) 24% ii. Nucleolus is reformed in telophase of mitotic
(3) 50% (4) Less than 5% division.

118. Select the incorrect match. iii. Cytokinesis marks the beginning of the next cell
cycle.
(1) Karyokinesis – Division of the nucleus
iv. Karyokinesis is followed by cytokinesis.
(2) G1 phase – Cells continuously
grow The correct ones are
(3) Cytokinesis – Division of cytoplasm (1) (i), (ii) and (iii) (2) (ii) and (iv)
(4) G0 phase – Protein synthesis stops (3) (i), (ii) and (iv) (4) (i) and (iv)
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Two Year Medical (2019-2021) Term Exam Test-1 (TYMRG1_Code-A1)
124. All of the following are the significances of mitosis, 130. Identify the following statements as true (T) or
except false (F) and choose the option accordingly.
(1) Formation of new combination of chromosomes A. The reduction in the number of chromosomes
(2) Maintenance of cell size begins during anaphase I.

(3) Reproduction in unicellular organisms B. The RNA and proteins required during meiosis II
are synthesised during G2 phase.
(4) Healing and regeneration
A B
125. Select the incorrect statement w.r.t. meiosis.
(1) T F
(1) It involves two sequential cycles of nuclear and
(2) T T
cell divisions
(3) F T
(2) It is initiated just before the parental
chromosomes have replicated (4) F F
(3) It involves pairing of homologous chromosomes 131. Growth cannot be taken as defining property of living
organisms because
(4) At the end of meiosis, four haploid cells are
formed from a diploid parent cell (1) Non-living objects also exhibit growth by
126. What will happen if meiosis gets completed without accumulation of material on them
crossing over in a cell? (2) Unicellular organisms do not show growth
(1) Daughter cells will have chromosomes with sister (3) Only few multicellular organisms show growth
chromatids
(4) Growth and reproduction are mutually inclusive
(2) Only two daughter cells will be formed events in all organisms
(3) Diploid gametes will be formed from diploid 132. Generic name of brinjal is
parent
(1) Allium (2) Triticum
(4) Chromosomes of the daughter cells will be
(3) Solanum (4) Rosa
identical to that of parent chromosomes
133. In the scientific name Mangifera indica Linn., the
127. Duplication of centrioles occurs during term Linn. indicates that
(a) S phase (1) This species was described prior to Linnaeus
(b) G2 phase (2) This species is endemic to particular place in
(c) Cytokinesis America
(d) Interkinesis (3) The name of this species is derived from Latin
language
The correct one(s) is/are
(4) This species was first described by Linnaeus
(1) (a) and (d) (2) (a) and (c)
134. According to IUCN, currently known and described
(3) (a) only (4) (b) only
species of all organisms are between
128. The event which occurs in fourth substage of
(1) 17-18 billion
prophase I is
(2) 1.7-1.8 million
(1) Terminalisation of chiasmata
(3) 5.7-5.8 million
(2) Recombination of genetic material
(4) 11.5-12 million
(3) Synapsis of chromosomes
135. Select the incorrect statement from the following.
(4) Dissolution of synaptonemal complex
(1) All organisms are aware of their surroundings
129. Which of the following phase(s) is/are characterised
by splitting of centromere? (2) All living organisms are linked to one another by
(1) Mitotic anaphase and anaphase I sharing of the common genetic material, but to
varying degree
(2) Meiotic anaphase I and anaphase II
(3) Prokaryotes are also self conscious
(3) Mitotic anaphase and anaphase II
(4) Cellular organisation is defining feature of life
(4) Mitotic metaphase and metaphase II forms
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Term Exam Test-1 (TYMRG1_Code-A1) Two Year Medical (2019-2021)

ZOOLOGY
136. Tissue level of organisation is found in 144. In which location are epithelial cells composed of a
(1) Hydra single layer of non ciliated, tall and slender cells with
basal nuclei?
(2) Single celled organisms
(1) Walls of blood vessels
(3) Unicellular organisms
(2) PCT
(4) Organisms that do not show division of labour
(3) Intestine
137. Organs such as lung, stomach and kidney show
presence of (4) Bronchioles
a. Epithelial tissue b. Muscular tissue 145. Select the option which is not a secretion of
multicellular glands.
c. Connective tissue d. Nervous tissue
(1) Mucus (2) Saliva
(1) a and b only (2) b, c, d only
(3) a and c only (4) a, b, c and d (3) Earwax (4) Oil

138. Cells of which tissue are least likely to undergo cell 146. Secretion of an endocrine gland includes
division and repair activity after an injury? (1) Insulin (2) Milk
(1) Connective tissue (2) Nervous tissue (3) Mucus (4) Sebum
(3) Epithelial tissue (4) Muscular tissue 147. Compound epithelium is present in all given surfaces
139. Increased surface area for absorption of nutrients is except
due to presence of______ in some regions of human (1) Buccal cavity (2) Pharynx
alimentary canal.
(3) DCT (4) Skin
Choose the option which fills the blank correctly.
148. ‘These’ help to stop substances from leaking across
(1) Cilia (2) Pseudopodia a tissue. ‘These’ refers to
(3) Flagella (4) Microvilli (1) Gap junctions
140. The tissue which has a free surface, facing either a (2) Tight junctions
body fluid or the outside environment is
(3) Communication junctions
(1) Muscular tissue
(4) Adhering junctions
(2) Connective tissue
149. Type of connective tissue that lack fibre secreting cells
(3) Epithelial tissue is
(4) Neural tissue (1) Loose connective tissue
141. Tissue lining of which of the following surface does (2) Fluid connective tissue
not belong to category of simple epithelium?
(3) Dense regular tissue
(1) Air sacs of human lungs
(4) Dense irregular tissue
(2) Skin
150. Histamine secreting cells of areolar tissue are
(3) Tubular parts of nephron
(1) Adipocytes (2) Fibroblasts
(4) Walls of blood vessels
(3) Mast cells (4) Macrophages
142. Single layer of thin, flattened cells with irregular
boundaries line the wall of 151. Cells specialised to store fats are called
(1) Alveoli in lungs (1) Areolar cells (2) Adipocytes
(2) Ducts of salivary glands (3) Macrophages (4) Plasma cells
(3) PCT of nephron 152. The most abundant and widely distributed tissue in
(4) Fallopian tubes the body of complex animals is

143. Simple epithelium mainly does not serve the function (1) Connective tissue
of (2) Epithelial tissue
(1) Secretion (2) Absorption (3) Neural tissue
(3) Diffusion (4) Protection (4) Muscular tissue
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Two Year Medical (2019-2021) Term Exam Test-1 (TYMRG1_Code-A1)
153. Specialised connective tissue is not represented by 162. Select the sugar which will not give a positive test
with Benedict’s solution.
(1) Bone (2) Cartilage
(1) Glucose (2) Sucrose
(3) Tendon (4) Blood
(3) Fructose (4) Galactose
154. Read the given statements.
163. Biomolecular component that constitutes nearly
Statement A: The intercellular material of cartilage
10 – 15% of total cellular mass is
is solid and pliable.
(1) Water (2) Nucleic acids
Statement B: Most of the bones in vertebrate
(3) Proteins (4) Lipids
embryos are replaced by cartilages in adults.
164. Monomers of which of the following will not be found
(1) Statement A is incorrect
in acid soluble fraction obtained upon homogenisation
(2) Statement B is correct of liver tissue?
(3) Both statements A and B are correct (1) Lecithin (2) Collagen
(4) Statement A is correct but statement B is incorrect (3) Glycogen (4) DNA
155. Presence of both lamellae and lacunae is a feature of 165. Element which is negligible in human body but present
in Earth’s crust in a range of 27% by weight is
(1) Bones (2) Cartilage
(1) Hydrogen (2) Sodium
(3) Tendon (4) Ligament
(3) Silicon (4) Calcium
156. Excitability is a property of
166. The term ‘Zwitterionic form’ can be associated with
(1) Astrocytes (2) Neurons
(1) Lecithin (2) Lysine
(3) Neuroglial cells (4) Schwann cells
(3) RNA (4) Lactose
157. Which of the following is not a component of blood?
167. Sugar with molecular formula “C5H10O4” is found in
(1) Leucocytes (2) Erythrocytes (1) Adenosine (2) DNA
(3) Platelets (4) Chondrocytes (3) Adenine (4) Adenylic acid
158. Nissl’s granules in neurons are site of 168. Amino acid represented by single alphabet ‘T’ is
(1) Lipid metabolism (1) Tyrosine (2) Threonine
(2) Carbohydrate synthesis (3) Tryptophan (4) Thiamine
(3) Nucleic acid metabolism 169. Select the odd one among the following w.r.t.
nucleosides.
(4) Protein synthesis
(1) Guanosine (2) Adenosine
159. Smooth muscle fibres are
(3) Cytosine (4) Thymidine
(1) Under the control of our will
170. Constituent likely to be absent in lecithin is
(2) Striated in appearance
(1) Phosphoric acid (2) Substituted methane
(3) Fusiform in shape
(3) Palmitic acid (4) Choline
(4) Held together in bundles by intercalating discs
171. Peptide bond is not present in
160. Properties of skeletal muscle fibres exclude
(1) Collagen (2) Insulin
(1) Contractility (3) Trypsin (4) Cellulose
(2) Presence of striped appearance 172. Pitch of B-DNA helix found in humans is
(3) Presence of branching (1) 36° (2) 34 nm
(4) Excitability in cells (3) 3.4 Å (4) 34 Å
161. Select the correct match. 173. Select the incorrect match.
(1) Pigment – Curcumin (1) Enzymes – Always proteinaceous
(2) Drug – Concanavalin A (2) Glycosidic bond – Dehydration reaction
(3) Toxin – Morphine (3) Haemoglobin – Quaternary structure

(4) Alkaloid – Codeine (4) Anthocyanins – Secondary metabolite

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Term Exam Test-1 (TYMRG1_Code-A1) Two Year Medical (2019-2021)
174. Homopolymers do not include 177. Most abundant protein in the whole biosphere is
(1) Antibody (1) Collagen (2) RuBisCO
(2) Chitin (3) Cellulose (4) Starch
(3) Inulin 178. When a single protein chain is folded upon itself, like
a hollow woollen ball, it represents which level of
(4) Cellulose
protein organisation?
175. Select the biomolecule not formed by repetition of
(1) Primary structure (2) Secondary structure
monomeric unit glucose
(3) Tertiary structure (4) Quaternary structure
(1) Starch
179. Simplest amino acid is
(2) Inulin
(1) Serine (2) Alanine
(3) Glycogen
(3) Glutamic acid (4) Glycine
(4) Cellulose
180. Select the incorrect statement.
176. Exoskeletons of arthropods are composed of a
complex polysaccharide whose monomeric unit is (1) Arachidonic acid is 20C saturated fatty acid.

(1) N-acetyl galactosamine (2) Cytidylic acid is a nucleotide

(2) Chitin (3) Biocatalysts are not used during the biochemical
reaction
(3) N-acetyl glucosamine
(4) Heterocyclic rings are found in both uracil and
(4) N-acetyl cysteine uridine

  

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