Hardware Network Service Level III and IV: Answer: (D)

Hardware Network Service Level III and IV
1. Which address is used in an internet employing the TCP/IP protocols?

a) physical address and logical address
b) port address
c) specific address
d) all of the mentioned
Answer: (d).
all of the mentioned
2. Which address identifies a process on a host?
a) physical address
b) logical address
c) port address
d) specific address
Answer: (c).
port address
3. Transmission data rate is decided by
a) network layer
b) physical layer
c) data link layer
d) transport layer
Answer: (b).
physical layer
4. When collection of various computers seems a single coherent system to its client, then it is
called
a) computer network
b) distributed system
c) both (a) and (b)
d) none of the mentioned
Answer: (b).
distributed system
5. Two devices are in network if
a) a process in one device is able to exchange information with a process in another device
b) a process is running on both devices
c) PIDs of the processes running of different devices are same
Answer: (a).
a process in one device is able to exchange information with a process in another device
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6. Which one of the following computer network is built on the top of another network?
a) prior network
b) chief network
c) prime network
d) overlay network
Answer: (d).
overlay network
7. In computer network nodes are
a) the computer that originates the data
b) the computer that routes the data
c) the computer that terminates the data
Answer: (d).
all of the mentioned
8. Communication channel is shared by all the machines on the network in
a) unicast network
b) multicast network
c) broadcast network
Answer: c
broadcast network
9. Bluetooth is an example of
a) personal area network
b) local area network
c) virtual private network
Answer: (a).
personal area network
10. A _____ is a device that forwards packets between networks by processing the routing
information included in the packet.
a) bridge
b) firewall
c) router
Answer: (c).
router
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11. A list of protocols used by a system, one protocol per layer, is called
a) protocol architecture
b) protocol stack
c) protocol suit
Answer: (b).
protocol stack
12. Network congestion occurs
a) in case of traffic overloading
b) when a system terminates
c) when connection between two nodes terminates
Answer: (a).
in case of traffic overloading
13. Which one of the following extends a private network across public networks?
a) local area network
b) virtual private network
c) enterprise private network
d) storage area network
Answer: (b).
virtual private network
14. The IETF standards documents are called
a) RFC
b) RCF
c) ID
d) IEEE
Answer: (a).
RFC
15. The structure or format of data is called
a) Syntax
b) Semantics
c) Struct
d) None of the mentioned
Answer: (a).
Syntax
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16. Communication between a computer and a keyboard involves ______________

transmission
a) Automatic
b) Half-duplex
c) Half-duplex
d) Simplex
Answer: (d).
Simplex
17. The first Network was
a) CNNET
b) NSFNET
c) ASAPNET
d) ARPANET
Answer: (d).
ARPANET
18. The _______ is the physical path over which a message travels
a) path
b) Medium
c) Protocol
d) Route
Answer: (b).
Medium
19. Which organization has authority over interstate and international commerce in the
communications field?
a) ITU-T
b) IEEE
c) FCC
d) ISOC
Answer: (c).
FCC
20. Which of this is not a network edge device?
a) PC
b) Smartphones
c) Servers
d) Switch
Answer: (d).
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Switch
21. A set of rules that governs data communication
a) Protocols
b) Standards
c) RFCs
Answer: (a).
Protocols
22. Three or more devices share a link in ________ connection
a) Unipoint
b) Multipoint
c) Point to point
Answer: (b).
Multipoint
23. Delimiting and synchronization of data exchange is provided by
a) Application layer
b) Session layer
c) Transport layer
d) Link layer
Answer: (b).
Session layer
24. The_____ address identifies a process on a host.
a) physical
b) IP
c) port
d) specific
Answer: (c).
port
25. The ____ address uniquely defines a host on the Internet.
a) physical
b) IP
c) port
d) specific
Answer: (b).
IP
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26. The ________ address, also known as the link address, is the address of a node as defined by
its LAN or WAN.
a) physical
b) IP
c) port
d) specific
Answer: (a).
physical
27. The ______ layer adds a header to the packet coming from the upper layer that includes the
logical addresses of the sender and receiver.
a) physical
b) data link
c) network
d) none of the above
Answer: (c).
network
28. The ______ layer is responsible for moving frames from one hop (node) to the next.
a) physical
b) data link
c) network
Answer: (b).
data link
29. ICMPv6 includes _______.
a) IGMP
b) ARP
c) RARP
d) a and b
Answer: (d).
a and b
30. IPv6 has _______ -bit addresses.
a) 32
b) 64
c) 128
d) variable
Answer: (c).
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128
31. The _______ layer changes bits into electromagnetic signals.
a) Physical
b) Data link
c) Transport
d) None of the above
Answer: (a).
Physical
32. The _______ layer is the layer closest to the transmission medium.
a) Physical
b) Data link
c) Network
d) Transport
Answer: (a).
Physical
33. The process-to-process delivery of the entire message is the responsibility of the _______
layer.
a) Network
b) Transport
c) Application
d) Physical
Answer: (b).
Transport
34. The information to be communicated in a data communications system is the _______.
a) Medium
b) Protocol
c) Message
d) Transmission
Answer: (c).
Message
35. Frequency of failure and network recovery time after a failure are measures of the _______
of a network.
a) Performance
b) Reliability
c) Security
d) Feasibility
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Answer: (b).
Reliability
36. An unauthorized user is a network _______ issue.
a) Performance
b) Reliability
c) Security
d) All the above
Answer: (c).
Security
37. Communication between a computer and a keyboard involves ______________
transmission.
a) simplex
b) half-duplex
c) full-duplex
d) automatic
Answer: (a).
simplex
38. A television broadcast is an example of _______ transmission.
a) simplex
b) half-duplex
c) full-duplex
d) automatic
Answer: (a).
simplex
39. A _______ connection provides a dedicated link between two devices.
a) point-to-point
b) multipoint
c) primary
d) secondary
Answer: (a).
point-to-point
40. In a _______ connection, more than two devices can share a single link.
a) point-to-point
b) multipoint
c) primary
d) secondary
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Answer: (b).
multipoint
41. In _______ transmission, the channel capacity is shared by both communicating devices at
all times.
a) simplex
b) half-duplex
c) full-duplex
d) half-simplex
Answer: c
full-duplex
42. In the original ARPANET, _______ were directly connected together.
a) IMPs
b) host computers
c) networks
d) routers
Answer: (a).
IMPs
43. _______ are special-interest groups that quickly test, evaluate, and standardize new
technologies.
a) Forums
b) Regulatory agencies
c) Standards organizations
d) All of the above
Answer: (a).
Forums
44. Which agency developed standards for physical connection interfaces and electronic
signaling specifications?
a) EIA
b) ITU-T
c) ANSI
d) ISO
Answer: (a).
EIA
45. _______ refers to the structure or format of the data, meaning the order in which they are
presented.
a) Semantics
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b) Syntax
c) Timing
d) All of the above
Answer: (b).
Syntax
46. ________ defines how a particular pattern to be interpreted, and what action is to be taken
based on that interpretation.
a) Semantics
b) Syntax
c) Timing
Answer: (a).
Semantics
47. _______ refers to two characteristics: when data should be sent and how fast it can be sent.
a) Semantics
b) Syntax
c) Timing
Answer: (c).
Timing
48. Data flow between two devices can occur in a _______ way.
a) simplex
b) half-duplex
c) full-duplex
d) all of the above
Answer: (d).
all of the above
49. In a ______ connection, two and only two devices are connected by a dedicated link.
a) multipoint
b) point-to-point
c) (a) and (b)
Answer: (b).
point-to-point
50. In a ________ connection, three or more devices share a link.
a) multipoint
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b) point-to-point
c) (a) and (b)
Answer: (a).
multipoint
51. ______ refers to the physical or logical arrangement of a network.
a) Data flow
b) Mode of operation
c) Topology
Answer: (c).
Topology
52. Devices may be arranged in a _____ topology.
a) ring
b) mesh
c) bus
d) all of the above
Answer: (d).
all of the above
53. A _______ is a data communication system within a building, plant, or campus, or between
nearby buildings.
a) LAN
b) MAN
c) WAN
Answer: (a).
LAN
54. A ______ is a data communication system spanning states, countries, or the whole world.
a) MAN
b) LAN
c) WAN
Answer: (c).
WAN
55. ________ is a collection of many separate networks.
a) A WAN
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b) An internet
c) a LAN
Answer: (b).
An internet
56. There are ______________ Internet service providers.
a) local
b) regional
c) national and international
d) all of the above
Answer: (d).
all of the above
57. A ________ is a set of rules that governs data communication.
a) forum
b) protocol
c) standard
Answer: (b).
protocol
58. ________ is an idea or concept that is a precursor to an Internet standard.
a) RCF
b) RFC
c) ID
Answer: (b).
RFC
59. Network protocols are?
a) Agreements on how communication components and DTE's are to communicate
b) Logical communication channels for transferring data
c) Physical communication channels sued for transferring data
d) None of above
Answer: (a).
Agreements on how communication components and DTE's are to communicate
60. What is a stub network?
a) A network that has only one entry and exit point.
b) A network with only one entry and no exit point.
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c) A network with more than one exit point.

d) A network with more than one exit and entry point.
Answer: (a).
A network that has only one entry and exit point.
61. Which of the following is required to communicate between two computers?
a) communications software
b) protocol
c) communication hardware
d) all of above including access to transmission medium
Answer: (d).
all of above including access to transmission medium
62. What is NIC used for?
a) To remotely access PC
b) To connect computer to a network
c) It is used in junipers routers for gateway card
d) None
Answer: (b).
To connect computer to a network
63. In a type of computer network, what does MAN stands for?
a) Major area network
b) Mini area network
c) Metropolitan area network
d) Micro area network
Answer: (c).
Metropolitan area network
64. Which of the following are the uses of computer Network Technology?
a) Power communication medium
b) Resource sharing
c) Provide high reliability
d) All of the above
Answer: (d).
All of the above
65. Which of the following is not the network edge device?
a) Switch
b) Server
c) PC
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d) MAC
Answer: (a).
Switch
66. Which of the following is the type of the computer network?
a) Metropolitan area network (MAN)
b) Local area network (LAN)
c) Personal area network (PAN)
d) All of the above
Answer: (d).
All of the above
67. You have shared printers and scanners centrally in a Computer network, what is it called?
a) Data sharing
b) Recourse sharing
c) Device sharing
d) Hardware sharing
Answer: (b).
Recourse sharing
68. Which of the following is the set of rules that governs data communication?
a) FCC
b) Standards
c) Protocols
d) RFCs
Answer: (c).
Protocols
69. How many layers does OSI have?
a) 4
b) 7
c) 5
d) 6
Answer: (b).
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70. Collection of network or networks is called
a) Intranet
b) Internet
c) Extranet
d) LAN network
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Answer: (b).
Internet
81. What does protocol defines?
a) Protocol defines what data is communicated.
b) Protocol defines how data is communicated.
c) Protocol defines when data is communicated.
d) All of above
Answer: (d).
All of above
82. Which of the following includes the benefit of the Networking?
a) File Sharing
b) Easier access to Resources
c) Easier Backups
d) All of the Above
Answer: (d).
All of the Above
83. Which of the following is not the Networking Devices?
a) Gateways
b) Linux
c) Routers
d) Firewalls
Answer: (b).
Linux
84. A network point that provides entrance into another network is called as ___________.
a) Node
b) Gateway
c) Switch
d) Router
Answer: (b).
Gateway
85. We can divide today's networks into ____ broad categories based on switching.
a) four
b) three
c) five
d) two
Answer: (b).
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three
86. A repeater is a connecting device that operates in the _______ layer of the Internet model.
a) physical
b) data link
c) network
d) all of the above
Answer: (a).
physical
87. A _______ regenerates a signal, connects segments of a LAN, and has no filtering capability.
a) repeater
b) bridge
c) router
Answer: (a).
repeater
88. A _______ is a connecting device that operates in the physical and data link layers of the
Internet model.
a) repeater
b) bridge
c) router
Answer: (b).
bridge
89. A ________ bridge can forward and filter frames and automatically build its forwarding
table.
a) simple
b) dual
c) transparent
Answer: (c).
transparent
90. A bridge can use the _________ algorithm to create a loopless topology.
a) binary tree
b) spanning tree
c) multiway tree
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Answer: (b).
spanning tree
91. A _______ is a device that operates only in the physical layer.
a) passive hub
b) repeater
c) bridge
d) router
Answer: (b).
repeater
92. A ________receives a signal and, before it becomes too weak or corrupted, regenerates the
original bit pattern. It then sends the refreshed signal.
a) passive hub
b) repeater
c) bridge
d) router
Answer: (b).
repeater
93. A __________ forwards every frame; it has no filtering capability.
a) passive hub
b) repeater
c) bridge
d) router
Answer: (b).
repeater
94. ________ is actually a multiport repeater. It is normally used to create connections between
stations in a physical star topology.
a) An active hub
b) A passive hub
c) either (a) or (b)
d) neither (a) nor (b)
Answer: (a).
An active hub
95. A ________ operates in both the physical and the data link layer.
a) passive hub
b) repeater
c) bridge
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d) router
Answer: (c).
bridge
96. A _______ can check the MAC addresses contained in the frame.
a) passive hub
b) repeater
c) bridge
d) router
Answer: (c).
bridge
97. A ______ has a table used in filtering decisions.
a) passive hub
b) repeater
c) bridge
Answer: (c).
bridge
98. A ________ is a device in which the stations are completely unaware of its existence.
a) passive hub
b) repeater
c) simple bridge
d) transparent bridge
Answer: (d).
transparent bridge
99. A three-layer switch is a kind of ________.
a) repeater
b) bridge
c) router
Answer: (c).
router
100. A two-layer switch is a ______.
a) repeater
b) bridge
c) router
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Answer: (b).
bridge
101. Some new two-layer switches, called _______ switches, have been designed to forward the
frame as soon as they check the MAC addresses in the header of the frame.
a) cut-through
b) go-through
c) come-through
Answer: (a).
cut-through
102. A _______ is a three-layer device that handles packets based on their logical addresses.
a) repeater
b) bridge
c) router
Answer: (c).
router
103. A ______ normally connects LANs and WANs in the Internet and has a table that is used for
making decisions about the route.
a) repeater
b) bridge
c) router
Answer: (c).
router
104. A ______ switch is a faster and more sophisticated router.
a) two-layer
b) three-layer
c) four-layer
Answer: (b).
three-layer
105. A ________ is normally a computer that operates in all five layers of the Internet model or
seven layers of OSI model.
a) repeater
b) bridge
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c) router
d) gateway
Answer: (d).
gateway
106. A _____ can be used as a connecting device between two internetworks that use different
models.
a) repeater
b) bridge
c) router
d) gateway
Answer: (d).
gateway
107. In a _____ backbone, the backbone is just one switch.
a) bus
b) ring
c) star
Answer: (c).
star
108. _______ is a first-generation cellular phone system.
a) AMPS
b) D-AMPS
c) GSM
Answer: (a).
AMPS
109. __________ is a second-generation cellular phone system.
a) AMPS
b) D-AMPS
c) GSM
Answer: (b).
D-AMPS
110. ____________ is a digital version of AMPS.
a) GSM
b) D-AMPS
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c) IS-95
Answer: (b).
D-AMPS
121. D-AMPS uses ______ to divide each 25-MHz band into channels.
a) FDMA
b) TDMA
c) CDMA
d) both (a) and (b)
Answer: (d).
both (a) and (b)
122. GSM allows a reuse factor of _______.
a) 1
b) 3
c) 5
d) 7
Answer: (b).
3
123. GSM is a digital cellular phone system using ________.
a) FDMA
b) TDMA
c) CDMA
d) both (a) and (b)
Answer: (d).
both (a) and (b)
124. IS-95 is based on ____________.
a) FDMA
b) CDMA
c) DSSS
d) all of the above
Answer: (d).
all of the above
125. IS-95 uses the ISM _______band.
a) 800-MHz
b) 900-MHz
c) 1900-MHz
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d) either (a) or (c)

Answer: (d).
either (a) or (c)
126. IS-95 uses the _______ satellite system for synchronization.
a) GPS
b) Teledesic
c) Iridium
Answer: (a).
GPS
127. In an IS-95 system, the frequency-reuse factor is normally _____.
a) 1
b) 3
c) 5
d) 7
Answer: (a).
1
128. In the third generation of cellular phones, _______ uses W-CDMA.
a) IMT-DS
b) IMT-MC
c) IMT-TC
d) IMT-SC
Answer: (a).
IMT-DS
129. In the third generation of cellular phones, ________ uses CDMA2000.
a) IMT-DS
b) IMT-MC
c) IMT-TC
d) IMT-SC
Answer: (c).
IMT-TC
130. In the third generation of cellular phones, _______ uses TDMA.
a) IMT-DS
b) IMT-MC
c) IMT-TC
d) IMT-SC
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Answer: (d).
IMT-SC
1. How long is an IPv6 address?

A. 32 bits
B. 128 bytes
C. 64 bits
D
128 bits
.
Answer: Option D
Explanation:
An IPv6 address is 128 bits long.
View Answer Discuss
2. What flavor of Network Address Translation can be used to have one IP address allow
many users to connect to the global Internet?
A. NAT
B. Static
C. Dynamic
D
PAT
.
Answer: Option D
Explanation:
Port Address Translation (PAT) allows a one-to-many approach to network address
translation.
View Answer Discuss
3. What are the two main types of access control lists (ACLs)?
Standard
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IEEE
Extended
Specialized
A. 1 and 3
B. 2 and 4
C. 3 and 4
D
1 and 2
.
Answer: Option A
Explanation:
Standard and extended access control lists (ACLs) are used to configure security on a
router.
View Answer Discuss
4. What command is used to create a backup configuration?

A. copy running backup
B. copy running-config startup-config
C. config mem
D
wr mem
.
Answer: Option B
Explanation:
The command to back up the configuration on a router is copy running-config
startup-config.
View Answer Discuss
5. You have 10 users plugged into a hub running 10Mbps half-duplex. There is a server
connected to the switch running 10Mbps half-duplex as well. How much bandwidth
does each host have to the server?
A. 100 kbps
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B. 1 Mbps
C. 2 Mbps
D
10 Mbps
.
Answer: Option D
Explanation:
Each device has 10 Mbps to the server.
6. Which WLAN IEEE specification allows up to 54Mbps at 2.4GHz?
A. A
B. B
C. G
D
N
.
Answer: Option C
Explanation:
IEEE 802.11B is 2.4GHz, but with a maximum of only 11Mbps. IEEE 802.11G is in the
2.4GHz range, with a top speed of 54Mbps.
7. Which of the following is the valid host range for the subnet on which the IP address
192.168.168.188 255.255.255.192 resides?
A
192.168.168.129-190
.
B. 192.168.168.129-191
C. 192.168.168.128-190
D
192.168.168.128-192
.
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8. To back up an IOS, what command will you use?

A. backup IOS disk
B. copy ios tftp
C. copy tftp flash
D
copy flash tftp
.
Answer: Option D
Explanation:
The command copy flash tftp will prompt you to back up an existing IOS in flash to a
TFTP host.
9. What protocol does PPP use to identify the Network layer protocol?
A. NCP
B. ISDN
C. HDLC
D
LCP
.
Answer: Option A
Explanation:
Network Control Protocol is used to help identify the Network layer protocol used in
the packet.
View Answer Discuss
10. Which of the following commands will allow you to set your Telnet password on a
Cisco router?
A. line telnet 0 4
B. line aux 0 4
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C. line vty 0 4
D. line con 0
Answer: Option C
Explanation:
The command line vty 0 4 places you in a prompt that will allow you to set or change
your Telnet password.
11. Which protocol does DHCP use at the Transport layer?
A. IP
B. TCP
C. UDP
D. ARP
Answer: Option C
Explanation:
User Datagram Protocol is a connection network service at the Transport layer, and
DHCP uses this connectionless service.
View Answer Discuss
12. Which command is used to determine if an IP access list is enabled on a particular

interface?
A. show access-lists
B. show interface
C. show ip interface
D. show interface access-lists
Answer: Option C
Explanation:
The show ip interface command will show you if any outbound or inbound interfaces
have an access list set.
View Answer Discuss
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13. Where is a hub specified in the OSI model?

A. Session layer
B. Physical layer
C. Data Link layer
D. Application layer
Answer: Option B
Explanation:
Hubs regenerate electrical signals, which are specified at the Physical layer.
View Answer Discuss
14. What does the passive command provide to dynamic routing protocols?

A. Stops an interface from sending or receiving periodic dynamic updates.
Stops an interface from sending periodic dynamic updates but not from
B.
receiving updates.
C. Stops the router from receiving any dynamic updates.
D. Stops the router from sending any dynamic updates.
Answer: Option B
Explanation:
The passive command, short for passive-interface, stops regular updates from being
sent out an interface. However, the interface can still receive updates.
View Answer Discuss
15. Which protocol is used to send a destination network unknown message back to
originating hosts?
A. TCP
B. ARP
C. ICMP
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D. BootP
Answer: Option C
Explanation:
ICMP is the protocol at the Network layer that is used to send messages back to an
originating router.
16. How often are BPDUs sent from a layer 2 device?
A. Never
B. Every 2 seconds
C. Every 10 minutes
D. Every 30 seconds
Answer: Option B
Explanation:
Every 2 seconds, BPDUs are sent out from all active bridge ports by default.
View Answer Discuss
17. How many broadcast domains are created when you segment a network with a 12-
port switch?
A. 1
B. 2
C. 5
D
12
.
Answer: Option A
Explanation:
By default, switches break up collision domains but are one large broadcast domain.
View Answer Discuss
18. What does the command routerA(config)#line cons 0 allow you to perform next?
A. Set the Telnet password.
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B. Shut down the router.
C. Set your console password.
D. Disable console connections.
Answer: Option C
Explanation:
The command line console 0 places you at a prompt where you can then set your
console user-mode password.
View Answer Discuss
19. Which router command allows you to view the entire contents of all access lists?
A. show all access-lists
B. show access-lists
C. show ip interface
D. show interface
Answer: Option B
Explanation:
To see the contents of all access lists, use the show access-lists command.
View Answer Discuss
20. Which class of IP address has the most host addresses available by default?
A. A
B. B
C. C
D. A and B
Answer: Option A
Explanation:
Class A addressing provides 24 bits for host addressing.
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21. In a network with dozens of switches, how many root bridges would you have?
A. 1
B. 2
C. 5
D. 12
Answer: Option A
Explanation:
You should have only one root bridge per network.
View Answer Discuss
22. What PPP protocol provides dynamic addressing, authentication, and multilink?
A. NCP
B. HDLC
C. LCP
D. X.25
Answer: Option C
Explanation:
Link Control Protocol in the PPP stack provides dynamic addressing, authentication,
and multilink.
View Answer Discuss
23. What is a stub network?

A. A network with more than one exit point.
B. A network with more than one exit and entry point.
C. A network with only one entry and no exit point.
D. A network that has only one entry and exit point.
Answer: Option D
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Explanation:
Stub networks have only one connection to an internetwork. Only default routes can
be set on a stub network or network loops may occur.
View Answer Discuss
24. If your router is facilitating a CSU/DSU, which of the following commands do you
need to use to provide the router with a 64000bps serial link?
A. RouterA(config)#bandwidth 64
B. RouterA(config-if)#bandwidth 64000
C. RouterA(config-if)#clock rate 64
D. RouterA(config-if)#clock rate 64000
Answer: Option D
Explanation:
The clock rate command is two words, and the speed of the line is in bps.
View Answer Discuss
25. Which one of the following is true regarding VLANs?

A. Two VLANs are configured by default on all Cisco switches.
VLANs only work if you have a complete Cisco switched internetwork. No

B.
off-brand switches are allowed.
C. You should not have more than 10 switches in the same VTP domain.
VTP is used to send VLAN information to switches in a configured VTP

D.
domain.
Answer: Option D
Explanation:
Switches do not propagate VLAN information by default; you must configure the VTP
domain. VLAN Trunking Protocol (VTP) is used to propagate VLAN information across
a trunk link
26. What does a VLAN do?
A. Acts as the fastest port to all servers.
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B. Provides multiple collision domains on one switch port.
C. Breaks up broadcast domains in a layer 2 switch internetwork.
D. Provides multiple broadcast domains within a single collision domain.
Answer: Option C
Explanation:
VLANs break up broadcast domains at layer 2.
View Answer Discuss
27. What is the main reason the OSI model was created?
A. To create a layered model larger than the DoD model.
B. So application developers can change only one layer's protocols at a time.
C. So different networks could communicate.
D. So Cisco could use the model.
Answer: Option C
Explanation:
The primary reason the OSI model was created was so that different networks could
inter-operate.
View Answer Discuss
28. How many collision domains are created when you segment a network with a 12-
port switch?
A. 1
B. 2
C. 5
D. 12
Answer: Option D
Explanation:
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Layer 2 switching creates individual collision domains.

View Answer Discuss
29. What command will display the line, protocol, DLCI, and LMI information of an
interface?
A. sh pvc
B. show interface
C. show frame-relay pvc
D. show run
Answer: Option B
Explanation:
The show interface command shows the line, protocol, DLCI, and LMI information of
an interface.
View Answer Discuss
30. Which protocol does Ping use?

A. TCP
B. ARP
C. ICMP
D. BootP
Answer: Option C
Explanation:
ICMP is the protocol at the Network layer that is used to send echo requests and
replies.
31. Which command is used to upgrade an IOS on a Cisco router?
A. copy tftp run
B. copy tftp start
C. config net
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D. copy tftp flash
Answer: Option D
Explanation:
The copy tftp flash command places a new file in flash memory, which is the default
location for the Cisco IOS in Cisco routers.
View Answer Discuss
32. If you wanted to delete the configuration stored in NVRAM, what would you type?
A. erase startup
B. erase nvram
C. delete nvram
D. erase running
Answer: Option A
Explanation:
The command erase startup-config deletes the configuration stored in NVRAM.
View Answer Discuss
33. What protocols are used to configure trunking on a switch?

VLAN Trunking Protocol
VLAN
802.1Q
ISL
A. 1 and 2
B. 3 and 4
C. 1 only
D. 2 only
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Answer: Option B
Explanation:
VTP is not right because it has nothing to do with trunking except that it sends VLAN
information across a trunk link. 802.1Q and ISL are used to configure trunking on a
port.
1. Which of the following services use TCP?

DHCP
SMTP
HTTP
TFTP
FTP
A. 1 and 2
B. 2, 3 and 5
C. 1, 2 and 4
D. 1, 3 and 4
Answer: Option B
Explanation:
SMTP, HTTP and FTP use TCP.
View Answer Discuss
2. What layer in the TCP/IP stack is equivalent to the Transport layer of the OSI model?
A. Application
B. Host-to-Host
C. Internet
D. Network Access
Answer: Option B
Explanation:
The four layers of the TCP/IP stack (also called the DoD model) are Application/Process,
Host-to-Host, Internet, and Network Access. The Host-to-Host layer is equivalent to the
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Transport layer of the OSI model.

View Answer Discuss
3. Which of the following describe the DHCP Discover message?

It uses FF:FF:FF:FF:FF:FF as a layer 2 broadcast.
It uses UDP as the Transport layer protocol.
It uses TCP as the Transport layer protocol.
It does not use a layer 2 destination address.
A. 1 only
B. 1 and 2
C. 3 and 4
D. 4 only
Answer: Option B
Explanation:
A client that sends out a DHCP Discover message in order to receive an IP address sends out
a broadcast at both layer 2 and layer 3. The layer 2 broadcast is all Fs in hex,
or FF:FF:FF:FF:FF:FF. The layer 3 broadcast is 255.255.255.255, which means all networks
and all hosts. DHCP is connectionless, which means it uses User Datagram Protocol (UDP) at
the Transport layer, also called the Host-to-Host layer.
View Answer Discuss
4. You want to implement a mechanism that automates the IP configuration, including IP
address, subnet mask, default gateway, and DNS information. Which protocol will you use
to accomplish this?
A. SMTP
B. SNMP
C. DHCP
D. ARP
Answer: Option C
Explanation:
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Dynamic Host Configuration Protocol (DHCP) is used to provide IP information to hosts on

your network. DHCP can provide a lot of information, but the most common is IP address,
subnet mask, default gateway, and DNS information.
View Answer Discuss
5 Which of the following is private IP address?

.
A
12.0.0.1
.
B
168.172.19.39
.
C
172.15.14.36
.
D
192.168.24.43
.
Answer: Option D
Explanation:
Class A private address range is 10.0.0.0 through 10.255.255.255. Class B private address
range is 172.16.0.0 through 172.31.255.255, and Class C private address range is
192.168.0.0 through 192.168.255.255.
6. Which of the following allows a router to respond to an ARP request that is intended
for a remote host?
A
Gateway DP
.
B
Reverse ARP (RARP)
.
C
Proxy ARP
.
D
Inverse ARP (IARP)
.
Answer: Option C
Explanation:
Proxy ARP can help machines on a subnet reach remote subnets without configuring
routing or a default gate
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way.
View Answer Discuss
7. The DoD model (also called the TCP/IP stack) has four layers. Which layer of the DoD
model is equivalent to
the Network layer of the OSI model?
A
Application
.
B
Host-to-Host
.
C
Internet
.
D
Network Access
.
Answer: Option C
Explanation:
The four layers of the DoD model are Application/Process, Host-to-Host, Internet,
and Network Access. The Internet layer is equivalent to the Network layer of the OSI
model.
View Answer Discuss
8. Which of the following services use UDP?

DHCP
SMTP
SNMP
FTP
HTTP
TFTP
A
1, 3 and 6
.
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B
2 and 4
.
C
1, 2 and 4
.
D
All of the above
.
Answer: Option A
Explanation:
DHCP, SNMP, and TFTP use UDP.
9. Which class of IP address provides a maximum of only 254 host addresses per
network ID?
A
Class A
.
B
Class B
.
C
Class C
.
D
Class D
.
View Answer Discuss
10. If you use either Telnet or FTP, which is the highest layer you are using to
transmit data?
A
Application
.
B
Presentation
.
C
Session
.
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D
Transport
.
Answer: Option A
Explanation:
Both FTP and Telnet use TCP at the Transport layer; however, they both are
Application layer protocols, so the Application layer is the best answer.
11. Which of the following is the decimal and hexadecimal equivalents of the binary
number 10011101?
A
155, 0x9B
.
B
157, 0x9D
.
C
159, 0x9F
.
D
185, 0xB9
.
Answer: Option B
Explanation:
To turn a binary number into decimal, you just have to add the values of each bit that
is a 1. The values of 10011101 are 128, 16, 8, 4, and 1. 128 + 16 + 8 + 4 + 1 = 157.
Hexadecimal is a base-16 number system. The values of hexadecimal are 0, 1, 2, 3, 4,
5, 6, 7, 8, 9, A, B, C, D, E, F-16 characters total, from which to create all the numbers
you'll ever need. So, if 1001 in binary is 9, then the hexadecimal equivalent is 9. Since
we then have 1101, which is 13 in binary, the hexadecimal answer is D and the
complete hexadecimal answer is 0x9D.
View Answer Discuss
12. Which statements are true regarding ICMP packets?

They acknowledge receipt of a TCP segment.
They guarantee datagram delivery.
They can provide hosts with information about network problems.
They are encapsulated within IP datagrams.
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A
1 only
.
B
2 and 3
.
C
3 and 4
.
D
2, 3 and 4
.
Answer: Option C
Explanation:
Internet Control Message Protocol (ICMP) is used to send error messages through the
network, but they do
not work alone. Every segment or ICMP payload must be encapsulated within an IP
datagram (or packet).
View Answer Discuss
13. Which of the following are layers in the TCP/IP model?

Application
Session
Transport
Internet
Data Link
Physical
A
1 and 2
.
B
1, 3 and 4
.
C
2, 3 and 5
.
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D
3, 4 and 5
.
Answer: Option B
Explanation:
This seems like a hard question at first because it doesn't make sense. The listed
answers are from the OSI
model and the question asked about the TCP/IP protocol stack (DoD model).
However, let's just look for what is wrong. First, the Session layer is not in the TCP/IP
model; neither are the Data Link and Physical layers. This
leaves us with the Transport layer (Host-to-Host in the DoD model), Internet layer
(Network layer in the OSI), and Application layer (Application/Process in the DoD).
View Answer Discuss
14. Which layer 4 protocol is used for a Telnet connection?
A
IP
.
B
TCP
.
C
TCP/IP
.
D
UDP
.
Answer: Option B
Explanation:
Although Telnet does use TCP and IP (TCP/IP), the question specifically asks about
layer 4, and IP works at
layer 3. Telnet uses TCP at layer 4.
View Answer Discuss
15. Which statements are true regarding ICMP packets?

ICMP guarantees datagram delivery.
ICMP can provide hosts with information about network problems.
ICMP is encapsulated within IP datagrams.
ICMP is encapsulated within UDP datagrams.
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A
1 only
.
B
2 and 3
.
C
1 and 4
.
D
All of the above
.
Answer: Option B
Explanation:
ICMP is used for diagnostics and destination unreachable messages. ICMP is
encapsulated within IP datagrams, and because it is used for diagnostics, it will
provide hosts with information about network problems.
16. Which of the following are TCP/IP protocols used at the Application layer of the OSI
model?
IP
TCP
Telnet
FTP
TFTP
A
1 and 3
.
B
1, 3 and 5
.
C
3, 4 and 5
.
D
All of the above
.
Answer: Option C
Explanation:
Telnet, File Transfer Protocol (FTP), and Trivial FTP (TFTP) are all Application layer
protocols. IP is a Network
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layer protocol. Transmission Control Protocol (TCP) is a Transport layer protocol.

View Answer Discuss
17. What protocol is used to find the hardware address of a local device?

A
RARP
.
B
ARP
.
C
IP
.
D
ICMP
.
Answer: Option B
Explanation:
Address Resolution Protocol (ARP) is used to find the hardware address from a
known IP address.
View Answer Discuss
18. Which of the following protocols uses both TCP and UDP?

A
FTP
.
B
SMTP
.
C
Telnet
.
D
DNS
.
Answer: Option D
Explanation:
DNS uses TCP for zone exchanges between servers and UDP when a client is trying to
resolve a hostname to an IP address.
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View Answer Discuss
19. What is the address range of a Class B network address in binary?

A
01xxxxxx
.
B
0xxxxxxx
.
C
10xxxxxx
.
D
110xxxxx
.
Answer: Option C
Explanation:
The range of a Class B network address is 128-191. This makes our binary
range 10xxxxxx.
1. Which of the following commands sets the secret password to Cisco?
A
enable secret password Cisco
.
B
enable secret cisco
.
C
enable secret Cisco
.
D
enable password Cisco
.
Answer: Option C
Explanation:
The enable secret password is case sensitive, so the second option is wrong. To set
the enable secret <password>, use the enable secret <password> command from
global configuration mode.
View Answer Discuss
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2. You type the following command into the router and receive the following output:
Router#show serial 0/0

^
% Invalid input detected at '^' marker.
Why was this error message displayed?
A
You need to be in privileged mode.
.
B
You cannot have a space between serial and 0/0.
.
C
The router does not have a serial0/0 interface.
.
D
Part of the command is missing.
.
Answer: Option D
Explanation:
You can view the interface statistics from user mode, but the command is show
interface serial 0/0.
View Answer Discuss
3. Which of the following commands will display the current IP addressing and the layer
1 and 2 status of an interface?
show version
show protocols
show interfaces
show controllers
show ip interface
A
1, 2 and 4
.
B
2, 3 and 5
.
C
3 and 4 only
.
D None of the above
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Answer: Option B
Explanation:
The commands show protocols, show interfaces, and show ip interface will show you
the layer 1 and 2 status and the IP addresses of your router's interfaces.
View Answer Discuss
4. You type show running-config and get this output:
[output cut]
Line console 0
Exec-timeout 1 35
Password BIXPASSWD
Login
[output cut]
What do the two numbers following the exec-timeout command mean?
A If no command has been typed in 35 seconds, the console connection will be

. closed.
B If no router activity has been detected in 1 hour and 35 minutes, the console
. will be locked out.
C If no commands have been typed in 1 minute and 35 seconds, the console

. connection will be closed.
D If you're connected to the router by a Telnet connection, input must be

. detected within 1 minute and 35 seconds or the connection will be closed.
Answer: Option C
Explanation:
The exec-timeout command is set in minutes and seconds.
View Answer Discuss
5. What layer of the OSI model would you assume the problem is in if you type show
interface serial 1 and receive the following message?"Serial1 is down, line protocol is
down."
A
Physical layer
.
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B
Data Link layer
.
C
Network layer
.
D
None. It is a router problem.
.
Answer: Option A
Explanation:
If you see that a serial interface and the protocol are both down, then you have a
Physical layer problem. If you see serial1 is up, line protocol is down, then you are not
receiving (Data Link) keepalives from the remote end.
6. Which of the following commands displays the configurable parameters and statistics
of all interfaces on a router?
A
show running-config
.
B
show startup-config
.
C
show interfaces
.
D
show versions
.
Answer: Option C
Explanation:
With the show interfaces command, you can view the configurable parameters, get
statistics for the interfaces on the router, verify if the interfaces are shut down, and
see the IP address of each interface.
View Answer Discuss
7. Which of the following commands will configure all the default VTY ports on a
router?
A
Router#line vty 0 4
.
B Router(config)#line vty 0 4
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C
Router(config-if)#line console 0
.
D
Router(config)#line vty all
.
Answer: Option B
Explanation:
From global configuration mode, use the line vty 0 4 command to set all five default
VTY lines.
View Answer Discuss
8. You need to find the broadcast address used on a LAN on your router. What
command will you type into the router from user mode to find the broadcast
address?
A
show running-config
.
B
show startup-config
.
C
show interfaces
.
D
show protocols
.
Answer: Option C
Explanation:
The command show ip protocols will actually show you the broadcast address for
each interface - too bad it isn't a possible answer. Your best answer is show
interfaces, which will provide the IP address and mask for each interface.
View Answer Discuss
9. Which command will delete the contents of NVRAM on a router?

A
delete NVRAM
.
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B
delete startup-config
.
C
erase NVRAM
.
D
erase start
.
Answer: Option D
Explanation:
The erase startup-config command erases the contents of NVRAM and will put you in
setup mode if the router is restarted.
View Answer Discuss
10. What keystroke will terminate setup mode?

A
Ctrl+Z
.
B
Ctrl+^
.
C
Ctrl+C
.
D
Ctrl+Shift+^
.
Answer: Option C
Explanation:
You can exit setup mode at any time by using the keystroke Ctrl+C.
11. What command do you type to save the configuration stored in RAM to NVRAM?
A
Router(config)#copy current to starting
.
B
Router#copy starting to running
.
C
Router(config)#copy running-config startup-config
.
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D
Router#copy run startup
.
Answer: Option D
Explanation:
To copy the running-config to NVRAM so that it will be used if the router is restarted,
use the copy running-config startup-config command (copy run start for short).
View Answer Discuss
12. You type Router#sh ru and receive an % ambiguous command error. Why did you
receive this message?
A
The command requires additional options or parameters.
.
B
There is more than one show command that starts with the letters ru.
.
C
There is no show command that starts with ru.
.
D
The command is being executed from the wrong router mode.
.
Answer: Option B
Explanation:
The % ambiguous command error means that there is more then one possible
command that starts with ru. Use a question mark to find the correct command.
View Answer Discuss
13. If you wanted administrators to see a message when logging into the router, which
command would you use?
A
message banner motd
.
B
banner message motd
.
C
banner motd
.
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D
message motd
.
Answer: Option C
Explanation:
The typical banner is a message of the day (MOTD) and is set by using the global
configuration mode command banner motd.
View Answer Discuss
14. How many simultaneous Telnet sessions does a Cisco router support by default?
A
2
.
B
3
.
C
4
.
D
5
.
Answer: Option D
Explanation:
Cisco routers, if they do not have the Enterprise edition of the IOS, will default to 5
simultaneous Telnet sessions.
View Answer Discuss
15. You set the console password, but when you display the configuration, the password
doesn't show up; it looks like this:
[output cut]
Line console 0
Exec-timeout 1 44
Password 7098C0BQR
Login
[output cut]
What cause the password to be stored like this?
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A
encrypt password
.
B
service password-encryption
.
C
service-password-encryption
.
D
exec-timeout 1 35
.
Answer: Option B
Explanation:
The command service password-encryption, from global configuration mode, will
encrypt the passwords.
16. Which command will show you whether a DTE or a DCE cable is plugged into serial 0?
A
sh int s0
.
B
sh int serial 0
.
C
show controllers serial 0
.
D
show serial 0 controllers
.
Answer: Option C
Explanation:
The show controllers serial 0 command will show you whether either a DTE or DCE
cable is connected to the interface. If it is a DCE connection, you need to add clocking
with the clock rate command.
View Answer Discuss
17. You want to totally reinitialize the router and replace the current running-config with
the current startup-config. What command will you use?
A
replace run start
.
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B
copy run start
.
C
copy start run
.
D
reload
.
Answer: Option D
Explanation:
To completely replace the running-config with the startup-config, you must reload
the router. Note : You may have picked option C, which isn't a bad answer.
Remember, though, it doesn't replace the configuration, it appends it.
View Answer Discuss
18. If you delete the contents of NVRAM and reboot the router, what mode will you be
in?
A
Privileged mode
.
B
Global mode
.
C
Setup mode
.
D
NVRAM loaded mode
.
Answer: Option C
Explanation:
If you delete the startup-config and reload the router, the router will automatically
enter setup mode. You can also type setup from privileged mode at any time.
View Answer Discuss
19. What is the problem with an interface if you type show interface serial 0 and receive
the following message? "Serial0 is administratively down, line protocol is down."
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A
The keepalives are different times.
.
B
The administrator has the interface shut down.
.
C
The administrator is pinging from the interface.
.
D
No cable is attached.
.
Answer: Option B
Explanation:
If an interface is shut down, the show interface command will show the interface as
administratively shut down. (It is possible that no cable is attached, but you can't tell
that from this message.)
View Answer Discuss
1. Which layer 1 devices can be used to enlarge the area covered by a single LAN
segment?
Switch
NIC
Hub
Repeater
RJ45 transceiver
A
1 only
.
B
1 and 3
.
C
3 and 4
.
D
5 only
.
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Answer: Option C
Explanation:
Not that you really want to enlarge a single collision domain, but a hub (multiport
repeater) will provide this for you.
View Answer Discuss
2. Routers operate at layer _____. LAN switches operate at layer _____. Ethernet hubs
operate at layer _____. Word processing operates at layer _____.
A
3, 3, 1, 7
.
B
3, 2, 1, none
.
C
3, 2, 1, 7
.
D
3, 3, 2, none
.
Answer: Option B
Explanation:
Routers operate at layer 3. LAN switches operate at layer 2. Ethernet hubs operate at
layer 1. Word processing applications communicate to the Application layer interface,
but do not operate at layer 7, so the answer would be none.
View Answer Discuss
3. Which of the following describe router functions?

A
Packet switching
.
B
Packet filtering
.
C
Internetwork communication
.
D
Path selection
.
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E
All of the above
.
Answer: Option E
Explanation:
Routers provide packet switching, packet filtering, internetwork communication, and
path selection.
View Answer Discuss
4. Why does the data communication industry use the layered OSI reference model?
It divides the network communication process into smaller and simpler components,
thus aiding component development, design, and troubleshooting.
It enables equipment from different vendors to use the same electronic components,
thus saving research and development funds.
It supports the evolution of multiple competing standards and thus provides business
opportunities for equipment manufacturers.
It encourages industry standardization by defining what functions occur at each layer
of the model.
A
1 only
.
B
1 and 4
.
C
2 and 3
.
D
3 only
.
Answer: Option B
Explanation:
The main advantage of a layered model is that it can allow application developers to
change aspects of a program in just one layer of the layer model's specifications.
Advantages of using the OSI layered model include, but are not limited to, the
following:
It divides the network communication process into smaller and simpler components,
thus aiding component development, design, and troubleshooting;
it allows multiple-vendor development through standardization of network
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components;
it encourages industry standardization by defining what functions occur at each layer
of the model;
it allows various types of network hardware and software to communicate;
and it prevents changes in one layer from affecting other layers, so it does not
hamper development.
View Answer Discuss
5. A receiving host has failed to receive all of the segments that it should acknowledge.
What can the host do to improve the reliability of this communication session?
A
Send a different source port number.
.
B
Restart the virtual circuit.
.
C
Decrease the sequence number.
.
D
Decrease the window size.
.
Answer: Option D
Explanation:
A receiving host can control the transmitter by using flow control (TCP uses
Windowing by default). By decreasing the window size, the receiving host can slow
down the transmitting host so the receiving host does not overflow its buffers.
View Answer Discuss
Networking :: Internetworking
Home » Engineering » Networking » Internetworking » Internetworking
Exercise :: Internetworking - Internetworking
Internetworking - Internetworking
6. What are the decimal and hexadecimal equivalents for the binary number 10110111?
A
69/0x2102
.
B
183/B7
.
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C
173/A6
.
D
83/0xC5
.
Answer: Option B
Explanation:
You must be able to take a binary number and convert it into both decimal and
hexadecimal. To convert to decimal, just add up the 1s using their values. The values
that are turned on with the binary number of 10110111 are 128 + 32 + 16 + 4 + 2 + 1
= 183. To get the hexadecimal equivalent, you need to break the eight binary digits
into nibbles (4 bits), 1011 and 0111. By adding up these values, you get 11 and 7. In
hexadecimal, 11 is B, so the answer is 0xB7.
View Answer Discuss
7. What is the purpose of flow control?

A
To ensure that data is retransmitted if an acknowledgment is not received.
.
B
To reassemble segments in the correct order at the destination device.
.
C To provide a means for the receiver to govern the amount of data sent by the
. sender.
D
To regulate the size of each segment.
.
Answer: Option C
Explanation:
Flow control allows the receiving device to control the transmitter so the receiving
device's buffer does not overflow.
View Answer Discuss
8. Which three statements are true about the operation of a full-duplex Ethernet
network?
There are no collisions in full-duplex mode.
A dedicated switch port is required for each full-duplex node.
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Ethernet hub ports are preconfigured for full-duplex mode.

In a full-duplex environment, the host network card must check for the availability of
the network media before transmitting.
The host network card and the switch port must be capable of operating in full-
duplex mode.
A
1, 2, and 5
.
B
2 and 4
.
C
2, 3 and 4
.
D
5 only
.
Answer: Option A
Explanation:
Full-duplex means you are using both wire pairs simultaneously to send and receive
data. You must have a dedicated switch port for each node, which means you will not
have collisions. Both the host network card and the switch port must be capable and
set to work in full-duplex mode.
View Answer Discuss
9. Which of the following are types of flow control?

Buffering
Cut-through
Windowing
Congestion avoidance
A
1 and 2
.
B
1, 3 and 4
.
C
2 only
.
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D
3 only
.
Answer: Option B
Explanation:
The common types of flow control are buffering, windowing, and congestion
avoidance.
View Answer Discuss
10. What are two purposes for segmentation with a bridge?

To add more broadcast domains.
To create more collision domains.
To add more bandwidth for users.
To allow more broadcasts for users.
A
1 only
.
B
2 and 3
.
C
2 and 4
.
D
4 only
.
Answer: Option B
Explanation:
Bridges break up collision domains, which allow more bandwidth for users.
View Answer
11. How does a host on an Ethernet LAN know when to transmit after a collision has
occurred?
In a CSMA/CD collision domain, multiple stations can successfully transmit data
simultaneously.
In a CSMA/CD collision domain, stations must wait until the media is not in use
before transmitting.
You can improve the CSMA/CD network by adding more hubs.
After a collision, the station that detected the collision has first priority to resend
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the lost data.

After a collision, all stations run a random backoff algorithm. When the backoff
delay period has expired, all stations have equal priority to transmit data.
A
1 and 3
.
B
2 and 4
.
C
1,3 and 4
.
D
2 and 5
.
Answer: Option D
Explanation:
Once transmitting stations on an Ethernet segment hear a collision, they send an
extended jam signal to ensure that all stations recognize the collision. After the
jamming is complete, each sender waits a predetermined amount of time, plus a
random time. After both timers expire, they are free to transmit, but they must
make sure the media is clear before transmitting and that they all have equal
priority.
View Answer Discuss
12. Which of the following types of connections can use full duplex?

Hub to hub
Switch to switch
Host to host
Switch to hub
Switch to host
A
1, 2 and 4
.
B
3 and 4
.
C 3 and 5
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D
2, 3 and 5
.
Answer: Option D
Explanation:
Hubs cannot run full-duplex Ethernet. Full duplex must be used on a point-to-
point connection between two devices capable of running full duplex. Switches
and hosts can run full duplex between each other, but a hub can never run full
duplex.
View Answer Discuss
13. Acknowledgments, sequencing, and flow control are characteristics of which OSI

layer?
A
Layer 2
.
B
Layer 3
.
C
Layer 4
.
D
Layer 7
.
View Answer Discuss
14. Which fields are contained within an IEEE Ethernet frame header?

Source and destination MAC address
Source and destination network address
Source and destination MAC address and source and destination network address
FCS field
A
1 and 4
.
B 2 only
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C
2 and 3 only
.
D
3 only
.
Answer: Option A
Explanation:
An Ethernet frame has source and destination MAC addresses, an Ether-Type field
to identify the Network layer protocol, the data, and the FCS field that holds the
answer to the CRC.
View Answer Discuss
15. What type of RJ45 UTP cable do you use to connect a PC's COM port to a router or
switch console port?
A
Straight-through
.
B
Crossover cable
.
C
Crossover with a CSU/DSU
.
D
Rolled
.
Answer: Option D
Explanation:
To connect to a router or switch console port, you would use an RJ45 UTP rolled
cable
16. How to implement a network medium that is not susceptible to EMI. Which type of
cabling should you use?
A
Thicknet coax
.
B
Thinnet coax
.
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C
Category 5 UTP cable
.
D
Fiber-optic cable
.
Answer: Option D
Explanation:
Fiber-optic cable provides a more secure, long-distance cable that is not susceptible
to EMI interference at high speeds.
View Answer Discuss
17. Segmentation of a data stream happens at which layer of the OSI model?

A
Physical
.
B
Data Link
.
C
Network
.
D
Transport
.
Answer: Option D
Explanation:
The Transport layer receives large data streams from the upper layers and breaks
these up into smaller pieces called segments.
View Answer Discuss
18. When data is encapsulated, which is the correct order?

A
Data, frame, packet, segment, bit
.
B
Segment, data, packet, frame, bit
.
C Data, segment, packet, frame, bit
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D
Data, segment, frame, packet, bit
.
View Answer Discuss
19. Which of the following are unique characteristics of half-duplex Ethernet when

compared to full-duplex Ethernet?
Half-duplex Ethernet operates in a shared collision domain.
Half-duplex Ethernet operates in a private collision domain.
Half-duplex Ethernet has higher effective throughput.
Half-duplex Ethernet has lower effective throughput.
A
2 only
.
B
1,2 and 3
.
C
1 and 4
.
D
4 only
.
Answer: Option C
Explanation:
Unlike full duplex, half-duplex Ethernet operates in a shared collision domain, and it
has a lower effective throughput than full duplex.
View Answer Discuss
20. What type of RJ45 UTP cable is used between switches?

A
Straight-through
.
B
Crossover cable
.
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C
Crossover with a CSU/DSU
.
D
Crossover with a router in between the two switches
.
Answer: Option B
Explanation:
To connect two switches together, you would use a RJ45 UTP crossover cable.
1. What
command is
used to
count the
total number
of lines,
words, and
characters
contained in
a file?
A
countw
.
B
wcount
.
C
wc
.
D count
. p
None
E
of the
.
above
Answer: Opti
on C
Explanation:
No answer
description
available for
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this
question. Let
us discuss.
View
Answer Disc
uss
2. What command is used to remove files?

A. dm
B. rm
C. delete
D. erase
E. None of the above
Answer: Option B
Explanation:
No answer description available for this question. Let us discuss.
View Answer Discuss
3. What command is used to remove the directory?

A. rdir
B. remove
C. rd
D. rmdir
Answer: Option D
Explanation:
View Answer Discuss
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4. What command is used with vi editor to delete a single character?

A. x
B. y
C. a
D. z
Answer: Option A
Explanation:
View Answer Discuss
5. What hardware architectures are not supported by Red Hat?

A. SPARC
B. IBM-compatible
C. Alpha
D. Macintosh
Answer: Option D
Explanation:
6. The physical layer of a network
A. constructs packets of data and sends them across the network
B. controls error detection and correction
defines the electrical characteristics of signals passed between the computer and
C.
communication devices
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D
All of the above
.
Answer: Option C
Explanation:
View Answer Discuss
7. What TCP/IP protocol is used for remote terminal connection service?
A. UDP
B. RARP
C. FTP
D
TELNET
.
Answer: Option D
Explanation:
View Answer Discuss
8. How many networks and nodes per network, are allowed by the Class B network?
A. 127 networks and 16,777,216 nodes per network
B. 16,384 networks and 65,534 nodes per network
C. 2,097,152 networks and 254 nodes per network
D
All of the above
.
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Answer: Option B
Explanation:
View Answer Discuss
9. What service is used to translate domain names to IP addresses?

A. NFS
B. SMB
C. NIS
D
DNS
.
Answer: Option D
Explanation:
View Answer Discuss
10. Which of the following command is used to create a Linux installation boot floppy?
A. mkboot disk
B. bootfp disk
C. ww and rawwrite
D. dd and rawrite
Answer: Option D
Explanation:
11. How can you add Amit, a new user, to your system?
A. Using useradd
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B. Using adduser
C. Using linuxconf
D. All of the above
Answer: Option D
Explanation:
View Answer Discuss
12. What file specifies the order in which to use specified name services?
A. /etc/services
B. /etc/nsorder
C. /etc/nsswitch.conf
D. /etc/hosts
Answer: Option C
Explanation:
View Answer Discuss
13. How many primary partitions can exist on one drive?

A. 16
B. 4
C. 2
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D. 1
Answer: Option B
Explanation:
View Answer Discuss
14. In which directory can you store system user default files used for creating user
directories?
A. /usr/tmp
B. /etc/default
C. /etc/skel
D. /etc/users
Answer: Option C
Explanation:
The /etc/skel directory contains files and directories that are automatically copied over
to a new user's home directory when such user is created.
View Answer Discuss
15. How could you install the file ipchains-1.3.9-5.i386.rpm?

A. rpm -qip ipchains
B. rpm -Uvh ipchains
C. rpm -i ipchains* .i386.rpm
D. rpm -e ipchains-1.3.9-5.i386.rpm
Answer: Option C
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Explanation:
1. Telecommunications networks come in a wide range of speed and capacity capabilities.
Select the best fit for answer:
A. Bandwidth alternatives
B. Switching alternating
C. Inter organizational networks
D. Extranets
Answer: Option A
Explanation:
View Answer Discuss
2. Which of the following statements is correct?

A. characteristic of the hub architecture of ARC-net is alternative routing.
B. characteristic of LAN is unlimited expansion
C. characteristic of LAN is low cost access for low bandwidth channels
D. characteristic of the hub architecture of ARC-net is directionalized transmission
Answer: Option D
Explanation:
View Answer Discuss
3. A modem is connected in between a telephone line and a

A. network
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B. computer
C. communication adapter
D. serial port
Answer: Option C
Explanation:
View Answer Discuss
4. What frequency range is used for TV transmission and low power microwave applications?
A. Very Low Frequency : 3 kHz to 30 kHz
B. Medium Frequency : 300 kHz to 3 MHz
C. Ultra High Frequency : 300 MHz to 3000 MHz
D. Super High Frequency : 3000 MHz to 30000 MHz
Answer: Option C
Explanation:
View Answer Discuss
5. Which of the following statement is correct?

Satellite transponders use a higher frequency for reception of radiation from earth
A.
stations and lower frequency for transmission to earth stations.
Satellite transponders contain a device that echos the radiation without change from
B.
one point on earth to another
Satellite transponder contain devices that transform the message sent from one
C.
location on earth to a different code for transmission to another location
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satellite transponders us lower frequency reception of radiation from earth stations

D.
and higher frequency for transmission to earth stations
Answer: Option A
Explanation:
6. We can receive data either through our television aerial or down our telephone lines and
display this data on our television screen. What is the general name given to this process?
A. Viewdata
B. Teletext
C. Telesoftware
D. Videotex
Answer: Option D
Explanation:
View Answer Discuss
7. ASK, PSK, FSK, and QAM are examples of _____ encoding.
A. digital-to-digital
B. digital-to-analog
C. analog-to-analog
D. analog-to-digital
Answer: Option B
Explanation:
View Answer Discuss
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8. The data-link layer, in reference to the OSI model, specifies

data link procedures that provide for the exchange of data via frames that can be
A.
sent and received
B. the interface between the X.25 network and packet mode device
C. the virtual circuit interface to packet-switched service
D. All of the above
Answer: Option A
Explanation:
View Answer Discuss
9. What function does a serial interface perform in data communication?

A. Converts serial data into audio signals
B. Converts analog signals into digital signals
C. Converts parallel data into a stream of bits
D. Decodes incoming signals into computer data
Answer: Option C
Explanation:
View Answer Discuss
10. You need to determine whether IP information has been assigned to your Windows NT.
Which utility should you use?
A. NBTSTAT
B. NETSTAT
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C. IPCONFIG
D. WINIPCFG
E. PING
Answer: Option C
11. Eight stations are competing for the use of the shared channel using the modified Adaptive
free walk protocol by Gallager. If the stations 7 and 8 are suddenly become ready at once,
how many bit slots are needed to resolve the contention?
A. 1 slots
B. 5 slots
C. 10 slots
D. 14 slots
Answer: Option B
Explanation:
View Answer Discuss
12. When two computers communicate with each other, they send information back and forth.
If they are separated by a reasonable distance, they can send and receive the information
through a direct cable connection which is called a null-modem connection. Presently what
is the maximum distance in metres permitted in this null-modem connection?
A. 80
B. 100
C. 30
D. 150
Answer: Option C
Explanation:
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View Answer Discuss
13. Modulation in which the two binary values are represented by two different amplitudes of
the carrier frequency is known as
A. Amplitude-shift keying
B. Amplitude
C. Amplitude modulation
D. Aloha
Answer: Option A
Explanation:
View Answer Discuss
14. You have been contracted to install a windows NT network in an office that is located in a
strip mall. The office is located next to the power plant of the building, so a UPS
(uninterruptible power supply) has already been installed. What type of cable should you
use for the network cabling? Choose the best answer.
A. TI
B. UTP
C. Fiber-optic
D. PSTN
E. STP
Answer: Option E
Explanation:
View Answer Discuss
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15. Communication circuits that transmit data in both directions but not at the same time are
operating in
A. a simplex mode
B. a half-duplex mode
C. a full-duplex mode
D. an asynchronous mode
Answer: Option B
16. In a synchronous modem, the digital-to-analog converter transmits signal to the
A. equalizer
B. modulator
C. demodulator
D. terminal
Answer: Option A
Explanation:
View Answer Discuss
17. If the client receives an address from a DHCP server, what is the only information available
in the Network Properties dialog box?
A. The IP address
B. The subnet address
C. That the client is receiving its address from DHCP
D. The default gateway
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Answer: Option C
Explanation:
View Answer Discuss
18. An internetworking protocol that provides virtual circuit service across multiple X.25
protocol, is
A. X.75
B. X.25
C. X.400
D. X.21
Answer: Option A
Explanation:
View Answer Discuss
19. Which of the following TCP/IP protocol is used for transferring files from one machine to
another?
A. RARP
B. ARP
C. TCP
D. FTP
Answer: Option D
Explanation:
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View Answer Discuss
20. Which of the following is an example of bounded medium?

A. Coaxial cable
B. Wave guide
C. Fiber optic cable {d) All of the above
D. None of the above
Answer: Option D
21. Which transmission mode is used for data communication along telephone lines?
A. Parallel
B. Serial
C. Synchronous
D. Asynchronous
Answer: Option B
Explanation:
View Answer Discuss
22. Who invented the modem?

A. Wang Laboratories Ltd.
B. AT & T Information Systems, USA
C. Apple Computers Inc.
D. Digital Equipment Corpn.
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Answer: Option B
Explanation:
View Answer Discuss
23. With an IP address starting at 200, you currently have 10 subnets. What subnet mask should
you use to maximize the number of available hosts?
A. 192
B. 224
C. 240
D. 248
E. 252
Answer: Option C
Explanation:
View Answer Discuss
24. Which of the following communications modes support two-way traffic but in only one
direction of a time?
A. simplex
B. half-duplex
C. three-quarters duplex
D. full-of the above
Answer: Option B
Explanation:
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View Answer Discuss
25. Which of the following TCP/IP internet protocol a diskless machine uses to obtain its IP
address from a server?
A. RDP
B. RARP
C. RIP
D. X.25
Answer: Option B
26. In OSI network architecture, the dialogue control and token management are
responsibilities of
A. session layer
B. network layer
C. transport layer
D. data link layer
Answer: Option A
Explanation:
View Answer Discuss
27. Which of the following transmission systems provides the highest data rate to an individual
device
A. Computer bus
B. Telephone lines
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C. Voice band modem
D. leased lines
Answer: Option A
Explanation:
View Answer Discuss
28. Which of the following connectivity devices is used to extend a network on a purely
mechanical basis?
A. Gateway
B. Switch
C. Router
D. Active hub
Answer: Option D
Explanation:
View Answer Discuss
29. The IEEE 802 project of the 1980s involved further defining the lower two layers of the OSI
model. A number of standards were agreed upon during that time. Which of the following is
the standard for Ethernet?
A. 802.2
B. 802.3
C. 802.4
D. 802.5
E. 802.6
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Answer: Option B
Explanation:
View Answer Discuss
30. Which of the following digits are known as the terminal number of the Network User
Address (NUA)?
A. 5-7
B. 1-4
C. 8-12
D. 13-14
Answer: Option C
Explanation:
No answer description available for this question
31. Which of the following device is used with an X.25 network to provide service to
asynchronous terminals
A. repeater
B. bridges
C. gateway
D. Packet assembler/disassemble
Answer: Option D
Explanation:
View Answer Discuss
32. A medium access control technique for multiple access transmission media is
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A. Aloha
B. Amplitude
C. Angle modulation
D. Attenuation
Answer: Option A
Explanation:
View Answer Discuss
33. The core diameter of a single-mode fibers is about

A. 10 times the wavelength of the light carried in the fiber
B. 10 times the fiber radius
C. 7 times the light carried in the fiber
D. 3 times the wavelength of the light carried in the fiber
Answer: Option A
Explanation:
View Answer Discuss
34. Which of the following TCP/IP protocol is used for remote terminal connection service?
A. TELNET
B. FTP
C. RARP
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D. UDP
Answer: Option A
Explanation:
View Answer Discuss
35. Networks where end user workstations are tied to LAN servers to share resources and
application processing.
A. Internetworked enterprise
B. Information super highway
C. Business applications of telecommunications
D. Client/Server networks
Answer: Option D
36. The frequency range : 300 kHz to 3 MHz is used for
A. AM radio transmission
B. FM radio transmission
C. TV transmission
D. microwave communications, satellite and radar
Answer: Option A
Explanation:
View Answer Discuss
37. With an IP address of 201.142.23.12, what is your default subnet mask?

A. 0.0.0.0
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B. 255.0.0.0
C. 255.255.0.0
D. 255.255.255.0
Answer: Option D
Explanation:
View Answer Discuss
38. A smart modem can dial, hang up and answer incoming calls automatically. Can you tell who
provides the appropriate instruction to the modem for this purpose?
A. Communications software
B. Error detecting protocols
C. Link access procedure (LAP)
D. Telecommunications
Answer: Option A
Explanation:
View Answer Discuss
39. IEEE project 802 divides the data link layer into an upper _____ sublayer and a lower _____
sublayer.
A. HDLC, PDU
B. PDU, HDLC
C. MAC, LLC
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D. LLC, MAC
Answer: Option D
Explanation:
View Answer Discuss
40. Two computers that communicate with each other use a simple parity check to detect
errors for ASCII transmissions. Which of the following events will always lead to an
undeleted error?
A. one bit or any odd number of bits inverted in a block of data during transmission
B. two bits or any even number of bits inverted in a block during transmission
C. one bit or any odd number of bits inverted in a byte during transmission
D. two bits or any even number of bits inverted in a byte during transmission
Answer: Option D
41. Which utility is an all-purpose tool for troubleshooting TCP/IP problems?
A. NBTSTAT
B. Netstat
C. PING
D. Hostname
Answer: Option C
Explanation:
View Answer Discuss
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42. In communication satellite, multiple repeaters are known as

A. detector
B. modulator
C. stations
D. transponders
Answer: Option D
1. A devices that links two homogeneous packet-broadcast local networks, is

A. gateway
B. repeater
C. bridge
D. hub
Answer: Option C
Explanation:
View Answer Discuss
2. A computer that handles resource sharing and network management in a local area
network. Select the best fit for answer:
A. Network Server
B. Virtual Private Network
C. Network operating system
D. OSI
Answer: Option A
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Explanation:
View Answer Discuss
3. Repeaters are often used on an 802.3 network to help strengthen the signals being
transmitted. As with the length of segments and the number of segments, a limit exists as to
how many repeaters can be used between any two nodes. What is the maximum number of
repeaters that can be used?
A. Five
B. Two
C. Four
D. Six
E. Three
Answer: Option C
Explanation:
View Answer Discuss
4. How much power (roughly) a light-emitting diode can couple into an optical fiber?
A. 100 microwatts
B. 440 microwatts
C. 100 picowatts
D. 10 milliwatts
Answer: Option A
Explanation:
View Answer Discuss
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5. A modem that is attached to the telephone system by jamming the phone's handset into
two flexible receptacles in the coupler?
A. gateway
B. bridge
C. acoustic coupler
D. time-division multiplexer
Answer: Option C
6. With telecommunications and a personal computer you can
A. "download" free public domain programs
B. send letters to be printed and delivered by the post office
C. order goods at a substantial discount
D. All of the above
Answer: Option D
Explanation:
View Answer Discuss
7. Which of the following statement is correct?

A. Teleprinters are used for printing at remote locations, not for input.
B. Teleprinters are same as teletypes
C. Teleprinters are same as x400
D. Teleprinters have a printer for output and keyboard for input
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Answer: Option D
Explanation:
View Answer Discuss
8. What does 224 translate to in binary?

A. 11110000
B. 00011110
C. 00001111
D. 11100000
Answer: Option D
Explanation:
View Answer Discuss
9. What can cause a problem with communication with a client by name but not by IP
address?
A. The IP address
B. Static files such as an LMHOSTS file or a DNS database
C. Subnet mask
D. The default gateway
Answer: Option B
Explanation:
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View Answer Discuss
10. Layer one of the OSI model is

A. physical layer
B. link layer
C. transport layer
D. network layer
Answer: Option A
11. What is the term used to describe addresses available on a DHCP server?
A. Pools
B. Scopes
C. Ranges
D. Notes
Answer: Option B
Explanation:
View Answer Discuss
12. Which of the following signals is not standard RS - 232-C signal?

A. VDR
B. RTS
C. CTS
D. DSR
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Answer: Option A
Explanation:
View Answer Discuss
13. What is the default subnet mask for a class B network?

A. 127.0.01
B. 255.0.0.0
C. 255.255.0.0
D. 255.255.255.0
Answer: Option C
Explanation:
View Answer Discuss
14. Which of the following files is used for NetBIOS name resolution?
A. HOSTS
B. LMHOSTS
C. ARP
D. FQDN
Answer: Option B
Explanation:
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View Answer Discuss
15. In CRC the quotient at the sender

A. becomes the dividend at the receiver
B. becomes the divisor at the receiver
C. is discarded
D. is the remainder
Answer: Option C
16. How many pairs of stations can simultaneously communicate on Ethernet LAN?
A. 1
B. 2
C. 3
D. multiple
Answer: Option A
Explanation:
View Answer Discuss
17. The OCR reading unit attached to a POS terminal is called a

A. light pen
B. wand
C. cursor
D. All of the above
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Answer: Option B
Explanation:
View Answer Discuss
18. A protocol is a set of rules governing a time sequence of events that must take place
A. between peers
B. between modems
C. between an interface
D. across an interface
Answer: Option A
Explanation:
View Answer Discuss
19. The coming together of three technologies i.e. microelectronics, computing and
communications has ushered in
A. information explosion
B. information technology
C. business revolution
D. educational upgradation
Answer: Option B
Explanation:
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View Answer Discuss
20. Terminals are used to

A. collect data from the physical system
B. provide information for the manager
C. communicate management decisions to the physical system
D. All of the above
Answer: Option D
21. Sales persons and other employees of the company who spend much of their time away
from their offices but keep in touch with their company's microcomputers or main frame
computers over telephone lines are called
A. field workers
B. telecommuters
C. teleprocessors
D. company directors
Answer: Option B
Explanation:
View Answer Discuss
22. What is the standard protocol for network management features?

A. SNA
B. FTP
C. SNMP
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D. SMS
Answer: Option C
Explanation:
View Answer Discuss
23. The application layer of a network

A. establishes, maintains, and terminates virtual circuits
B. defines the user's port into the network
C. consists of software being run on the computer connected to the network
D. All of the above
Answer: Option C
Explanation:
View Answer Discuss
24. Brad is in charge of a small network and wants to make it simple but secure. The users want
to have full control over their data and still be able to share data with the rest of the office.
The networking knowledge of the office staff is excellent. Which network(s) would be the
best to set up?
A. Peer-to-peer
B. Master domain
C. Server-based
D. Ethernet
E. Share-level
Answer: Option A
Explanation:
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View Answer Discuss
25. The simultaneous transmission of data to a number of stations is known as

A. broadcast
B. Band width
C. Aloha
D. Analog transmission
Answer: Option A
26. Most data communications involving telegraph lines use:
A. simplex lines
B. wideband channels
C. narrowband channels
D. dialed service
Answer: Option C
Explanation:
View Answer Discuss
27. You have a network ID of 134.57.0.0 with 8 subnets. You need to allow the largest possible
number of host IDs per subnet. Which subnet mask should you assign?
A. 255.255.224.0
B. 255.255.240.0
C. 255.255.248.0
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D. 255.255.252.0
E. 255.255.255.255
Answer: Option B
Explanation:
View Answer Discuss
28. Modulation is the process of

A. sending a file from one computer to another computer
B. converting digital signals to analog signals
C. converting analog signals to digital signals
D. echoing every character that is received
Answer: Option B
Explanation:
View Answer Discuss
29. Which multiplexing technique shifts each signal to a different carrier frequency?
A. FDM
B. synchronous TDM
C. asynchronous TDM
D. All of the above
Answer: Option A
Explanation:
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View Answer Discuss
30. Which of the following protocol is connection-oriented?

A. IPX
B. UDP
C. NetBEUI
D. TCP
Answer: Option D
31. The loss in signal power as light travels down the fiber is called
A. attenuation
B. propagation
C. scattering
D. interruption
Answer: Option A
Explanation:
View Answer Discuss
32. Operating system functions may include

A. input/output control
B. virtual storage
C. multiprogramming
D. All of the above
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Answer: Option D
Explanation:
View Answer Discuss
33. Which layer of international standard organization's OSI model is responsible for creating
and recognizing frame boundaries?
A. physical layer
B. data link layer
C. transport layer
D. network layer
Answer: Option B
Explanation:
View Answer Discuss
34. Which of the following might be used by a company to satisfy its growing communications
needs?
A. front-end processor
B. multiplexer
C. controller
D. concentrator
E. All of the above
Answer: Option E
Explanation:
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View Answer Discuss
35. Different computers are connected to a LAN by a cable and a/an

A. modem
B. interface card
C. special wires
D. telephone lines
Answer: Option B
36. The Token-Ring architecture was developed for a more efficient way to determine who
should be transmitting at any one time. With Ethernet, collisions may take place, causing
the transmitting computers to have to retransmit their data. The use of token guarantees
that only one computer can transmit at a time. What happens as the network increases in
size? Choose the best answer
A. An additional token is added for every 1,000 nodes
The speed of the Token-Ring network must be 16Mbps if the number of nodes is
B.
greater then 500
C. The network becomes less efficient
After the number of nodes exceeds 550, the Multistation Access Unit must be
D.
replaced by the more powerful Hyperstation Unified Bandwidth device
E. The network becomes more efficient
Answer: Option E
Explanation:
View Answer Discuss
37. A characteristic of a multiprogramming system is:

A. simultaneous execution of program instructions from two applications
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B. concurrent processing of two or more programs
C. multiple CPUs
D. All the above
Answer: Option B
Explanation:
View Answer Discuss
38. When a host knows its physical address but not its IP address, it can use _____.
A. RARP
B. ARP
C. IGMP
D. ICMP
Answer: Option A
Explanation:
View Answer Discuss
39. What is the name given to the exchange of control signals which is necessary for
establishing a connection between a modem and a computer at one end of a line and
another modem and computer at the other end?
A. Handshaking
B. Modem options
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C. Protocol
D. Duplexing
Answer: Option A
Explanation:
View Answer Discuss
40. A communications medium that uses pulses of laser light in glass fibers. Select the best fit
for answer:
A. Fiber optic cables
B. Cellular phone systems
C. Telecommunications processors
D. Telecommunications software
Answer: Option A
41. After you have verified that TCP/IP is installed correctly, what is the next step in verifying
the TCP/IP configuration?
A. Ping the broadcast address
B. Ping the Microsoft Web site
C. Ping a distant router.
D. Ping the address of the local host
Answer: Option D
Explanation:
View Answer Discuss
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42. Which utility is useful for troubleshooting NetBIOS name resolution problems?
A. NBTSTAT
B. Netstat
C. PING
D. Hostname
Answer: Option A
Explanation:
View Answer Discuss
43. The EIA-232 interface has _____ pins.

A. 20
B. 24
C. 25
D. 30
Answer: Option C
Explanation:
View Answer Discuss
44. In OSI model, which of the following layer transforms information from machine format into
that understandable by user
A. application
B. presentation
C. session
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D. physical
Answer: Option B
Explanation:
View Answer Discuss
45. The channel in the data communication model can be

A. postal mail service
B. telephone lines
C. radio signals
D. All of the above
Answer: Option D
46. Which of the following is an important characteristic of LAN?
A. application independent interfaces
B. unlimited expansion
C. low cost access for low bandwidth channels
D. parallel transmission
Answer: Option A
Explanation:
View Answer Discuss
47. Which of the following is a wrong example of network layer:
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A. Internet Protocol (IP) ARPANET
B. X. 25 Packet Level Protocol (PLP) - ISO
C. Source routing and Domain naming - Usenet
D. X.25 level 2 - ISO
Answer: Option D
Explanation:
View Answer Discuss
48. A 2000-character text file has to be transmitted by using a 1,200 baud modem. Can you tell
how long will it take?
A. 2 seconds
B. 20 seconds
C. 120 seconds
D. 12 seconds
Answer: Option B
1. Most networks are connected to other local area or wide area networks. Select the best fit
for answer:
A. Internet works
B. The Internet
C. Internet revolution
D. Internet technologies
Answer: Option A
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Explanation:
View Answer Discuss
2. You are working with a network that is 172.16.0.0 and would like to support 600 hosts per
subnet. What subnet mask should you use?
A. 255.255.192.0
B. 255.255.224.0
C. 255.255.240.0
D. 255.255.248.0
E. 255.255.252.0
Answer: Option E
Explanation:
View Answer Discuss
3. A 6-MHz channel is used by a digital signaling system utilizing 4-level signals. What is the
maximum possible transmission rate?
A. 1.5 Mbaud/sec
B. 6 Mband/sec
C. 12 Mbaud/sec
D. 24 Mbaud/sec
Answer: Option C
Explanation:
View Answer Discuss
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4. Which of the following digits are known as the sub-address digits (for use by the user) of the
Network User Address (NUA)?
A. 5-7
B. 1-4
C. 8-12
D. 13-14
Answer: Option D
Explanation:
View Answer Discuss
5. Error detecting code is

an error-detecting code based on a summation operation performed on the bits to
A.
be checked
a check bit appended to an array of binary digits to make the sum of all the binary
B.
digits.
a code in which each expression conforms to specify rules of construction, so that if

C. certain errors occur in an expression, the resulting expression will not conform to the
rules of construction and thus the presence of the error is detected.
D. the ratio of the data units in error to the total number of data units
Answer: Option C
6. A modulator converts a _____ signal to a(n) _____ signal.
A. FSK; PSK
B. PSK; FSK
C. analog; digital
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D. digital; analog
Answer: Option D
Explanation:
View Answer Discuss
7. The birthplace of the World Wide Web is considered to be

A. the Department of Defense
B. CERN
C. ARPA
D. Netscape
Answer: Option B
Explanation:
View Answer Discuss
8. You have purchased a MAU (Multistation Access Unit) from your computer supplier and
now must decide what type of network card you should install in the workstations. Which of
the following would be the most appropriate?
A. Fast SCSI Wide
B. Token-Ring
C. ArcServe
D. Ethernet
Answer: Option B
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Explanation:
View Answer Discuss
9. What is the loopback address?

A. 127.0.0.1
B. 255.0.0.0
C. 255.255.0.0
D. 255.255.255.255.0
Answer: Option A
Explanation:
View Answer Discuss
10. An ROP would be attached to a

A. simplex channel
B. duplex channel
C. half duplex channel
D. full duplex channel
Answer: Option A
11. Who originally designed TCP/IP?
A. The Department of Defense
B. Novell
C. IBM
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D. Xerox
Answer: Option A
Explanation:
View Answer Discuss
12. The systematic access of small computers in a distributed data processing system is referred
to as:
A. dialed service
B. multiplexing
C. polling
D. conversational mode
Answer: Option C
Explanation:
View Answer Discuss
13. The process of converting analog signals into digital signals so they can be processed by a
receiving computer is referred to as:
A. modulation
B. demodulation
C. synchronizing
D. synchronizing
Answer: Option B
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Explanation:
View Answer Discuss
14. An example of digital, rather than analog, communication is

A. DDD
B. DDS
C. WATS
D. DDT
Answer: Option B
Explanation:
View Answer Discuss
15. How many OSI layers are covered in the X.25 standard?
A. two
B. three
C. seven
D. six
Answer: Option B
16. A band is always equivalent to
A. a byte
B. a bit
C. 100 bits
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D. 16 bits
Answer: Option E
Explanation:
View Answer Discuss
17. What is the port number for HTTP?

A. 99
B. 86
C. 80
D. 23
Answer: Option C
Explanation:
View Answer Discuss
18. The most flexibility in how devices are wired together is provided by
A. bus networks
B. ring networks
C. star networks
D. T-switched networks
Answer: Option A
Explanation:
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View Answer Discuss
19. Which of the following statement is incorrect?

The transport layer provides for any format, translationer code conversion necessary
A.
to put the data into an intelligible format.
The presentation layer transforms information from machine format to the

B.
understandable format.
C. The data link layer handles the transfer of data between the ends of a physical link.
D. All of the above
Answer: Option A
Explanation:
View Answer Discuss
20. When you connect to an online information service, you are asked to provide some kind of
identification such as your name, an account number and a password. What is the name
given to this brief dialogue between you and the information system?
A. Security procedure
B. Safeguard procedure
C. Identification procedure
D. Log-on procedure
Answer: Option D
21. Bus is
one or more conductors that some as a common connection for a related group of
A.
devices
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a continuous frequency capable of being modulated or impressed with a second

B.
signal
the condition when two or more stations attempt to use the same channel at the
C.
same time
a collection of interconnected functional units that provides a data communications

D.
service among stations attached to the network
Answer: Option A
Explanation:
View Answer Discuss
22. Which of the following medium is used for broadband local networks?
A. Coaxial cable
B. optic fiber
C. CATV
D. UTP
Answer: Option C
Explanation:
View Answer Discuss
23. In cyclic redundancy checking what is the CRC?

A. the divisor
B. the quotient
C. the dividend
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D. the remainder
Answer: Option D
Explanation:
View Answer Discuss
24. What is the maximum number of entries in the HOSTS file?

A. 8
B. 255
C. 500
D. Unlimited
Answer: Option D
Explanation:
View Answer Discuss
25. The communication mode that supports data in both directions at the same time is
A. simplex
B. half-duplex
C. full-duplex
D. multiplex
Answer: Option C
26. Which of the following program is used to copy files to or from another UNIX timesharing
system over a single link?
A. VMTP
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B. TFTP
C. UUCP
D. UART
Answer: Option C
Explanation:
View Answer Discuss
27. One important characteristic of the hub architecture of ARC-net is

A. directionalized transmission
B. access control and addressing
C. multiple virtual networks
D. alternative routing
Answer: Option A
Explanation:
View Answer Discuss
28. The basic Ethernet design does not provide

A. access control
B. addressing
C. automatic retransmission of a message
D. multiple virtual networks
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Answer: Option C
Explanation:
View Answer Discuss
29. Phase shift keying (psk) method is used to modulate digital signals at 9600 bps using 16
levels. Find the line signaling speed (i.e., modulation rate)
A. 2400 bands
B. 1200 bands
C. 4800 bands
D. 9600 bands.
Answer: Option A
Explanation:
View Answer Discuss
30. You are in the process of analyzing a problem that requires you to collect and store TCP/IP
Packets. Which of the following utilities is best suited for this purpose?
A. NBTSTAT
B. Performance Monitor
C. NETSTAT
D. Network Monitor
E. DHCP Management Console
Answer: Option D
31. A software that allows a personal computer to pretend it as a terminal is
A. auto-dialing
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B. bulletin board
C. modem
D. terminal emulation
Answer: Option A
Explanation:
View Answer Discuss
32. What is the name of the network topology in which there are bi-directional links between
each possible node?
A. Ring
B. Star
C. Tree
D. Mesh
Answer: Option D
Explanation:
View Answer Discuss
33. What is the main purpose of a data link content monitor?

A. to detect problems in protocols
B. to determine the type of transmission used in a data link
C. to determine the type of switching used in a data link.
D. to determine the flow of data
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Answer: Option A
Explanation:
View Answer Discuss
34. Synchronous protocols

A. transmit characters one at a time
B. allow faster transmission than asynchronous protocols do
C. are generally used by personal computers
D. are more reliable
Answer: Option B
Explanation:
View Answer Discuss
35. To set up a bulletin board system you need

A. a smart modem with auto-answer capabilities
B. a telephone line
C. a personal computer
D. All of the above
Answer: Option D
36. Videotex is a combination of
A. television
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B. communication
C. computer technology
D. All of the above
Answer: Option D
Explanation:
View Answer Discuss
37. Which of the following frequency ranges is used for AM radio transmission?
C. High Frequency : 3 MHz to 30 MHz
D. Very High Frequency : 30 MHz to 300 MHz
Answer: Option B
Explanation:
View Answer Discuss
38. Baseband is
A. transmission of signals without modulation
B. a signal all of whose energy is contained within a finite frequency range
C. the simultaneous transmission of data to a number of stations
D. All of the above
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Answer: Option A
Explanation:
View Answer Discuss
39. A 4 KHz noise less channel with one sample ever 125 per sec is used to transmit digital
signals. Differential PCM with 4 bit relative signal value is used. Then how many bits per
second are actually sent?
A. 32 Kbps
B. 64 Kbps
C. 8 Kbps
D. 128 Kbps.
Answer: Option A
Explanation:
View Answer Discuss
40. X.21 is
a method of determining which device has access to the transmission medium at any
A.
time
B. a method access control technique for multiple-access transmission media
C. a very common bit-oriented data link protocol issued by ISO
D. network access standard for connecting stations to a circuit-switched network
Answer: Option D
41. What is the minimum number of wires required for sending data over a serial
communications links?
A. 2
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B. 1
C. 4
D. 3
Answer: Option A
Explanation:
View Answer Discuss
42. In cyclic redundancy checking, the divisor is _____ the CRC.

A. the same size as
B. one bit less than
C. one bit more than
D. two bits more
Answer: Option C
Explanation:
View Answer Discuss
43. Which command-line tool is included with every Microsoft TCP/IP client?
A. DHCP
B. WINS
C. PING
D. WINIPCFG
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Answer: Option C
Explanation:
View Answer Discuss
44. If odd parity is used for ASCII error detection, the number of 0s per eight-bit symbol is
_____.
A. even
B. odd
C. indeterminate
D. 42
Answer: Option B
Explanation:
View Answer Discuss
45. An error-detecting code inserted as a field in a block of data to be transmitted is known as

A. Frame check sequence
B. Error detecting code
C. Checksum
D. flow control
Answer: Option A
46. Number of bits per symbol used in Baudot code is
A. 1
B. 5
C. 8
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D. 9
Answer: Option B
Explanation:
View Answer Discuss
47. Working of the WAN generally involves

A. telephone lines
B. microwaves
C. satellites
D. All of the above
Answer: Option D
Explanation:
View Answer Discuss
48. What does the acronym ISDN stand for?

A. Indian Standard Digital Network
B. Integrated Services Digital Network
C. Intelligent Services Digital Network
D. Integrated Services Data Network
Answer: Option B
Explanation:
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View Answer Discuss
49. Which of the following services dynamically resolves NetBIOS-to-IP resolution?

A. DNS
B. DHCP
C. WINS
D. LMHOSTS
Answer: Option C
Explanation:
View Answer Discuss
50. An example of a medium-speed, switched communications service is

A. Series 1000
B. Dataphone 50
C. DDD
D. All of the above
Answer: Option C
1. Your router has the following IP address on Ethernet0: 172.16.2.1/23. Which of the
following can be valid host IDs on the LAN interface attached to the router?
172.16.1.100
172.16.1.198
172.16.2.255
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172.16.3.0
A. 1 only
B. 2 and 3 only
C. 3 and 4 only
Answer: Option C
Explanation:
The router's IP address on the E0 interface is 172.16.2.1/23, which is 255.255.254.0. This
makes the third octet a block size of 2. The router's interface is in the 2.0 subnet, and the
broadcast address is 3.255 because the next subnet is 4.0. The valid host range is 2.1
through 3.254. The router is using the first valid host address in the range.
View Answer Discuss
2. Which two statements describe the IP address 10.16.3.65/23?

The subnet address is 10.16.3.0 255.255.254.0.
The lowest host address in the subnet is 10.16.2.1 255.255.254.0.
The last valid host address in the subnet is 10.16.2.254 255.255.254.0.
The broadcast address of the subnet is 10.16.3.255 255.255.254.0.
A. 1 and 3
B. 2 and 4
C. 1, 2 and 4
D. 2, 3 and 4
Answer: Option B
Explanation:
The mask 255.255.254.0 (/23) used with a Class A address means that there are 15 subnet
bits and 9 host bits. The block size in the third octet is 2 (256 - 254). So this makes the
subnets in the interesting octet 0, 2, 4, 6, etc., all the way to 254. The host 10.16.3.65 is in
the 2.0 subnet. The next subnet is 4.0, so the broadcast address for the 2.0 subnet is 3.255.
The valid host addresses are 2.1 through 3.254.
View Answer Discuss
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3. A network administrator is connecting hosts A and B directly through their Ethernet
interfaces, as shown in the illustration. Ping attempts between the hosts are unsuccessful.
What can be done to provide connectivity between the hosts?
A crossover cable should be used in place of the straight-through cable.

A rollover cable should be used in place of the straight-through cable.
The subnet masks should be set to 255.255.255.192.
A default gateway needs to be set on each host.
A. 1 only
B. 2 only
C. 3 and 4 only
D. 1 and 5 only
E. 2 and 5 only
Answer: Option D
Explanation:
First, if you have two hosts directly connected, as shown in the graphic, then you need a
crossover cable. A straight-through cable won't work. Second, the hosts have different
masks, which puts them in different subnets. The easy solution is just to set both masks to
255.255.255.0 (/24).
View Answer Discuss
4. What is the maximum number of IP addresses that can be assigned to hosts on a local
subnet that uses the 255.255.255.224 subnet mask?
A. 14
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B. 15
C. 16
D. 30
Answer: Option D
Explanation:
A /27 (255.255.255.224) is 3 bits on and 5 bits off. This provides 8 subnets, each with 30
hosts. Does it matter if this mask is used with a Class A, B, or C network address? Not at all.
The number of host bits would never change.
View Answer Discuss
5. You need to subnet a network that has 5 subnets, each with at least 16 hosts. Which classful
subnet mask would you use?
A. 255.255.255.192
B. 255.255.255.224
C. 255.255.255.240
D. 255.255.255.248
Answer: Option B
Explanation:
You need 5 subnets, each with at least 16 hosts. The mask 255.255.255.240 provides 16
subnets with 14 hosts-this will not work. The mask 255.255.255.224 provides 8 subnets,
each with 30 hosts. This is the best answer
6. You have a network that needs 29 subnets while maximizing the number of host addresses
available on each subnet. How many bits must you borrow from the host field to provide
the correct subnet mask?
A. 2
B. 3
C. 4
D. 5
Answer: Option D
Explanation:
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A 240 mask is 4 subnet bits and provides 16 subnets, each with 14 hosts. We need more
subnets, so let's add subnet bits. One more subnet bit would be a 248 mask. This provides 5
subnet bits (32 subnets) with 3 host bits (6 hosts per subnet). This is the best answer.
View Answer Discuss
7. If an Ethernet port on a router were assigned an IP address of 172.16.112.1/25, what would
be the valid subnet address of this host?
A. 172.16.112.0
B. 172.16.0.0
C. 172.16.96.0
D. 172.16.255.0
Answer: Option A
Explanation:
A /25 mask is 255.255.255.128. Used with a Class B network, the third and fourth octets are
used for subnetting with a total of 9 subnet bits, 8 bits in the third octet and 1 bit in the
fourth octet. Since there is only 1 bit in the fourth octet, the bit is either off or on-which is a
value of 0 or 128. The host in the question is in the 0 subnet, which has a broadcast address
of 127 since 128 is the next subnet.
View Answer Discuss
8. You have an interface on a router with the IP address of 192.168.192.10/29. Including the
router interface, how many hosts can have IP addresses on the LAN attached to the router
interface?
A. 6
B. 8
C. 30
D. 32
Answer: Option A
Explanation:
A /29 (255.255.255.248), regardless of the class of address, has only 3 host bits. Six hosts is
the maximum number of hosts on this LAN, including the router interface.
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View Answer Discuss
9. What is the subnetwork number of a host with an IP address of 172.16.66.0/21?

A. 172.16.36.0
B. 172.16.48.0
C. 172.16.64.0
D. 172.16.0.0
Answer: Option C
Explanation:
A /21 is 255.255.248.0, which means we have a block size of 8 in the third octet, so we just
count by 8 until we reach 66. The subnet in this question is 64.0. The next subnet is 72.0, so
the broadcast address of the 64 subnet is 71.255.
View Answer Discuss
10. The network address of 172.16.0.0/19 provides how many subnets and hosts?
A. 7 subnets, 30 hosts each
B. 8 subnets, 8,190 hosts each
C. 8 subnets, 2,046 hosts each
D. 7 subnets, 2,046 hosts each
Answer: Option B
Explanation:
A CIDR address of /19 is 255.255.224.0. This is a Class B address, so that is only 3 subnet
bits, but it provides 13 host bits, or 8 subnets, each with 8,190 hosts.
11. You need to configure a server that is on the subnet 192.168.19.24/29. The router has the
first available host address. Which of the following should you assign to the server?
A. 192.168.19.0 255.255.255.0
B. 192.168.19.33 255.255.255.240
C. 192.168.19.26 255.255.255.248
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D. 192.168.19.31 255.255.255.248
Answer: Option C
Explanation:
A /29 is 255.255.255.248, which is a block size of 8 in the fourth octet. The subnets are 0, 8,
16, 24, 32, 40, etc. 192.168.19.24 is the 24 subnet, and since 32 is the next subnet, the
broadcast address for the 24 subnet is 31. 192.168.19.26 is the only correct answer.
View Answer Discuss
12. You have an interface on a router with the IP address of 192.168.192.10/29. What is the
broadcast address the hosts will use on this LAN?
A. 192.168.192.15
B. 192.168.192.31
C. 192.168.192.63
D. 192.168.192.127
Answer: Option A
Explanation:
A /29 (255.255.255.248) has a block size of 8 in the fourth octet. This means the subnets are
0, 8, 16, 24, etc. 10 is in the 8 subnet. The next subnet is 16, so 15 is the broadcast address.
View Answer Discuss
13. You have a network with a subnet of 172.16.17.0/22. Which is the valid host address?
A. 172.16.17.1 255.255.255.252
B. 172.16.0.1 255.255.240.0
C. 172.16.20.1 255.255.254.0
D. 172.16.18.255 255.255.252.0
Answer: Option D
Explanation:
A Class B network ID with a /22 mask is 255.255.252.0, with a block size of 4 in the third
octet. The network address in the question is in subnet 172.16.16.0 with a broadcast
address of 172.16.19.255. Only option E even has the correct subnet mask listed, and
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172.16.18.255 is a valid host.

View Answer Discuss
14. On a VLSM network, which mask should you use on point-to-point WAN links in order to
reduce the waste of IP addresses?
A. /27
B. /28
C. /29
D. /30
Answer: Option D
Explanation:
A point-to-point link uses only two hosts. A /30, or 255.255.255.252, mask provides two
hosts per subnet.
View Answer Discuss
15. To test the IP stack on your local host, which IP address would you ping?
A. 127.0.0.0
B. 1.0.0.127
C. 127.0.0.1
D. 127.0.0.255
Answer: Option C
Explanation:
To test the local stack on your host, ping the loopback interface of 127.0.0.1.
16. If a host on a network has the address 172.16.45.14/30, what is the subnetwork this host
belongs to?
A. 172.16.45.0
B. 172.16.45.4
C. 172.16.45.8
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D. 172.16.45.12
Answer: Option D
Explanation:
A /30, regardless of the class of address, has a 252 in the fourth octet. This means we have a
block size of 4 and our subnets are 0, 4, 8, 12, 16, etc. Address 14 is obviously in the 12
subnet.
View Answer Discuss
17. Using the following illustration, what would be the IP address of E0 if you were using the
eighth subnet? The network ID is 192.168.10.0/28 and you need to use the last available IP
address in the range. The zero subnet should not be considered valid for this question.
A. 192.168.10.142
B. 192.168.10.66
C. 192.168.100.254
D. 192.168.10.143
E. 192.168.10.126
Answer: Option A
Explanation:
A /28 is a 255.255.255.240 mask. Let's count to the ninth subnet (we need to find the
broadcast address of the eighth subnet, so we need to count to the ninth subnet). Starting
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at 16 (remember, the question stated that we will not use subnet zero, so we start at 16,
not 0), 16, 32, 48, 64, 80, 96, 112, 128, 144. The eighth subnet is 128 and the next subnet is
144, so our broadcast address of the 128 subnet is 143. This makes the host range 129-142.
142 is the last valid host.
View Answer Discuss
18. Which configuration command must be in effect to allow the use of 8 subnets if the Class C
subnet mask is 255.255.255.224?
A. Router(config)#ip classless
B. Router(config)#no ip classful
C. Router(config)#ip unnumbered
D. Router(config)#ip subnet-zero
Answer: Option D
Explanation:
A Class C subnet mask of 255.255.255.224 is 3 bits on and 5 bits off (11100000) and provides
8 subnets, each with 30 hosts. However, if the command ip subnet-zero is not used, then
only 6 subnets would be available for use.
View Answer Discuss
19. Using the illustration from the previous question, what would be the IP address of S0 if you
were using the first subnet? The network ID is 192.168.10.0/28 and you need to use the last
available IP address in the range. Again, the zero subnet should not be considered valid for
this question.
A. 192.168.10.24
B. 192.168.10.62
C. 192.168.10.30
D. 192.168.10.127
Answer: Option C
Explanation:
A /28 is a 255.255.255.240 mask. The first subnet is 16 (remember that the question stated
not to use subnet zero) and the next subnet is 32, so our broadcast address is 31. This
makes our host range 17-30. 30 is the last valid host.
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View Answer Discuss
20. What is the subnetwork address for a host with the IP address 200.10.5.68/28?
A. 200.10.5.56
B. 200.10.5.32
C. 200.10.5.64
D. 200.10.5.0
Answer: Option C
Explanation:
This is a pretty simple question. A /28 is 255.255.255.240, which means that our block size is
16 in the fourth octet. 0, 16, 32, 48, 64, 80, etc. The host is in the 64 subnet.
1. Your router has the following IP address on Ethernet0: 172.16.2.1/23. Which of the
following can be valid host IDs on the LAN interface attached to the router?
172.16.1.100
172.16.1.198
172.16.2.255
172.16.3.0
A. 1 only
B. 2 and 3 only
C. 3 and 4 only
Answer: Option C
Explanation:
The router's IP address on the E0 interface is 172.16.2.1/23, which is 255.255.254.0. This
makes the third octet a block size of 2. The router's interface is in the 2.0 subnet, and the
broadcast address is 3.255 because the next subnet is 4.0. The valid host range is 2.1
through 3.254. The router is using the first valid host address in the range.
View Answer Discuss
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2. Which two statements describe the IP address 10.16.3.65/23?

The subnet address is 10.16.3.0 255.255.254.0.
The lowest host address in the subnet is 10.16.2.1 255.255.254.0.
The last valid host address in the subnet is 10.16.2.254 255.255.254.0.
The broadcast address of the subnet is 10.16.3.255 255.255.254.0.
A. 1 and 3
B. 2 and 4
C. 1, 2 and 4
D. 2, 3 and 4
Answer: Option B
Explanation:
The mask 255.255.254.0 (/23) used with a Class A address means that there are 15 subnet
bits and 9 host bits. The block size in the third octet is 2 (256 - 254). So this makes the
subnets in the interesting octet 0, 2, 4, 6, etc., all the way to 254. The host 10.16.3.65 is in
the 2.0 subnet. The next subnet is 4.0, so the broadcast address for the 2.0 subnet is 3.255.
The valid host addresses are 2.1 through 3.254.
View Answer Discuss
3. A network administrator is connecting hosts A and B directly through their Ethernet
interfaces, as shown in the illustration. Ping attempts between the hosts are unsuccessful.
What can be done to provide connectivity between the hosts?
A crossover cable should be used in place of the straight-through cable.

A rollover cable should be used in place of the straight-through cable.
A default gateway needs to be set on each host.
10. The subnet masks should be set to 255.255.255.0.
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A. 1 only
B. 2 only
C. 3 and 4 only
D. 1 and 5 only
E. 2 and 5 only
Answer: Option D
Explanation:
First, if you have two hosts directly connected, as shown in the graphic, then you need a
crossover cable. A straight-through cable won't work. Second, the hosts have different
masks, which puts them in different subnets. The easy solution is just to set both masks to
255.255.255.0 (/24).
View Answer Discuss
4. What is the maximum number of IP addresses that can be assigned to hosts on a local
subnet that uses the 255.255.255.224 subnet mask?
A. 14
B. 15
C. 16
D. 30
Answer: Option D
Explanation:
A /27 (255.255.255.224) is 3 bits on and 5 bits off. This provides 8 subnets, each with 30
hosts. Does it matter if this mask is used with a Class A, B, or C network address? Not at all.
The number of host bits would never change.
View Answer Discuss
5. You need to subnet a network that has 5 subnets, each with at least 16 hosts. Which classful
subnet mask would you use?
A. 255.255.255.192
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B. 255.255.255.224
C. 255.255.255.240
D. 255.255.255.248
Answer: Option B
Explanation:
You need 5 subnets, each with at least 16 hosts. The mask 255.255.255.240 provides 16
subnets with 14 hosts-this will not work. The mask 255.255.255.224 provides 8 subnets,
each with 30 hosts. This is the best answer
6. You have a network that needs 29 subnets while maximizing the number of host addresses
available on each subnet. How many bits must you borrow from the host field to provide
the correct subnet mask?
A. 2
B. 3
C. 4
D. 5
Answer: Option D
Explanation:
A 240 mask is 4 subnet bits and provides 16 subnets, each with 14 hosts. We need more
subnets, so let's add subnet bits. One more subnet bit would be a 248 mask. This provides 5
subnet bits (32 subnets) with 3 host bits (6 hosts per subnet). This is the best answer.
View Answer Discuss
7. If an Ethernet port on a router were assigned an IP address of 172.16.112.1/25, what would
be the valid subnet address of this host?
A. 172.16.112.0
B. 172.16.0.0
C. 172.16.96.0
D. 172.16.255.0
Answer: Option A
Explanation:
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A /25 mask is 255.255.255.128. Used with a Class B network, the third and fourth octets are
used for subnetting with a total of 9 subnet bits, 8 bits in the third octet and 1 bit in the
fourth octet. Since there is only 1 bit in the fourth octet, the bit is either off or on-which is a
value of 0 or 128. The host in the question is in the 0 subnet, which has a broadcast address
of 127 since 128 is the next subnet.
View Answer Discuss
8. You have an interface on a router with the IP address of 192.168.192.10/29. Including the
router interface, how many hosts can have IP addresses on the LAN attached to the router
interface?
A. 6
B. 8
C. 30
D. 32
Answer: Option A
Explanation:
A /29 (255.255.255.248), regardless of the class of address, has only 3 host bits. Six hosts is
the maximum number of hosts on this LAN, including the router interface.
View Answer Discuss
9. What is the subnetwork number of a host with an IP address of 172.16.66.0/21?

A. 172.16.36.0
B. 172.16.48.0
C. 172.16.64.0
D. 172.16.0.0
Answer: Option C
Explanation:
A /21 is 255.255.248.0, which means we have a block size of 8 in the third octet, so we just
count by 8 until we reach 66. The subnet in this question is 64.0. The next subnet is 72.0, so
the broadcast address of the 64 subnet is 71.255.
View Answer Discuss
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10. The network address of 172.16.0.0/19 provides how many subnets and hosts?
A. 7 subnets, 30 hosts each
B. 8 subnets, 8,190 hosts each
C. 8 subnets, 2,046 hosts each
D. 7 subnets, 2,046 hosts each
Answer: Option B
Explanation:
A CIDR address of /19 is 255.255.224.0. This is a Class B address, so that is only 3 subnet
bits, but it provides 13 host bits, or 8 subnets, each with 8,190 hosts.
11. You need to configure a server that is on the subnet 192.168.19.24/29. The router has the
first available host address. Which of the following should you assign to the server?
A. 192.168.19.0 255.255.255.0
B. 192.168.19.33 255.255.255.240
C. 192.168.19.26 255.255.255.248
D. 192.168.19.31 255.255.255.248
Answer: Option C
Explanation:
A /29 is 255.255.255.248, which is a block size of 8 in the fourth octet. The subnets are 0, 8,
16, 24, 32, 40, etc. 192.168.19.24 is the 24 subnet, and since 32 is the next subnet, the
broadcast address for the 24 subnet is 31. 192.168.19.26 is the only correct answer.
View Answer Discuss
12. You have an interface on a router with the IP address of 192.168.192.10/29. What is the
broadcast address the hosts will use on this LAN?
A. 192.168.192.15
B. 192.168.192.31
C. 192.168.192.63
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D. 192.168.192.127
Answer: Option A
Explanation:
A /29 (255.255.255.248) has a block size of 8 in the fourth octet. This means the subnets are
0, 8, 16, 24, etc. 10 is in the 8 subnet. The next subnet is 16, so 15 is the broadcast address.
View Answer Discuss
13. You have a network with a subnet of 172.16.17.0/22. Which is the valid host address?
A. 172.16.17.1 255.255.255.252
B. 172.16.0.1 255.255.240.0
C. 172.16.20.1 255.255.254.0
D. 172.16.18.255 255.255.252.0
Answer: Option D
Explanation:
A Class B network ID with a /22 mask is 255.255.252.0, with a block size of 4 in the third
octet. The network address in the question is in subnet 172.16.16.0 with a broadcast
address of 172.16.19.255. Only option E even has the correct subnet mask listed, and
172.16.18.255 is a valid host.
View Answer Discuss
14. On a VLSM network, which mask should you use on point-to-point WAN links in order to
reduce the waste of IP addresses?
A. /27
B. /28
C. /29
D. /30
Answer: Option D
Explanation:
A point-to-point link uses only two hosts. A /30, or 255.255.255.252, mask provides two
hosts per subnet.
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View Answer Discuss
15. To test the IP stack on your local host, which IP address would you ping?
A. 127.0.0.0
B. 1.0.0.127
C. 127.0.0.1
D. 127.0.0.255
Answer: Option C
Explanation:
To test the local stack on your host, ping the loopback interface of 127.0.0.1.
16. If a host on a network has the address 172.16.45.14/30, what is the subnetwork this host
belongs to?
A. 172.16.45.0
B. 172.16.45.4
C. 172.16.45.8
D. 172.16.45.12
Answer: Option D
Explanation:
A /30, regardless of the class of address, has a 252 in the fourth octet. This means we have a
block size of 4 and our subnets are 0, 4, 8, 12, 16, etc. Address 14 is obviously in the 12
subnet.
View Answer Discuss
17. Using the following illustration, what would be the IP address of E0 if you were using the
eighth subnet? The network ID is 192.168.10.0/28 and you need to use the last available IP
address in the range. The zero subnet should not be considered valid for this question.
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A. 192.168.10.142
B. 192.168.10.66
C. 192.168.100.254
D. 192.168.10.143
E. 192.168.10.126
Answer: Option A
Explanation:
A /28 is a 255.255.255.240 mask. Let's count to the ninth subnet (we need to find the
broadcast address of the eighth subnet, so we need to count to the ninth subnet). Starting
at 16 (remember, the question stated that we will not use subnet zero, so we start at 16,
not 0), 16, 32, 48, 64, 80, 96, 112, 128, 144. The eighth subnet is 128 and the next subnet is
144, so our broadcast address of the 128 subnet is 143. This makes the host range 129-142.
142 is the last valid host.
View Answer Discuss
18. Which configuration command must be in effect to allow the use of 8 subnets if the Class C
subnet mask is 255.255.255.224?
A. Router(config)#ip classless
B. Router(config)#no ip classful
C. Router(config)#ip unnumbered
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D. Router(config)#ip subnet-zero
Answer: Option D
Explanation:
A Class C subnet mask of 255.255.255.224 is 3 bits on and 5 bits off (11100000) and provides
8 subnets, each with 30 hosts. However, if the command ip subnet-zero is not used, then
only 6 subnets would be available for use.
View Answer Discuss
19. Using the illustration from the previous question, what would be the IP address of S0 if you
were using the first subnet? The network ID is 192.168.10.0/28 and you need to use the last
available IP address in the range. Again, the zero subnet should not be considered valid for
this question.
A. 192.168.10.24
B. 192.168.10.62
C. 192.168.10.30
D. 192.168.10.127
Answer: Option C
Explanation:
A /28 is a 255.255.255.240 mask. The first subnet is 16 (remember that the question stated
not to use subnet zero) and the next subnet is 32, so our broadcast address is 31. This
makes our host range 17-30. 30 is the last valid host.
View Answer Discuss
20. What is the subnetwork address for a host with the IP address 200.10.5.68/28?
A. 200.10.5.56
B. 200.10.5.32
C. 200.10.5.64
D. 200.10.5.0
Answer: Option C
Explanation:
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This is a pretty simple question. A /28 is 255.255.255.240, which means that our block size is
16 in the fourth octet. 0, 16, 32, 48, 64, 80, etc. The host is in the 64 subnet.
1. Most networks are connected to other local area or wide area networks. Select the best fit
for answer:
A. Internet works
B. The Internet
C. Internet revolution
D. Internet technologies
Answer: Option A
Explanation:
View Answer Discuss
2. You are working with a network that is 172.16.0.0 and would like to support 600 hosts per
subnet. What subnet mask should you use?
A. 255.255.192.0
B. 255.255.224.0
C. 255.255.240.0
D. 255.255.248.0
E. 255.255.252.0
Answer: Option E
Explanation:
View Answer Discuss
3. A 6-MHz channel is used by a digital signaling system utilizing 4-level signals. What is the
maximum possible transmission rate?
A. 1.5 Mbaud/sec
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B. 6 Mband/sec
C. 12 Mbaud/sec
D. 24 Mbaud/sec
Answer: Option C
Explanation:
View Answer Discuss
4. Which of the following digits are known as the sub-address digits (for use by the user) of the
Network User Address (NUA)?
A. 5-7
B. 1-4
C. 8-12
D. 13-14
Answer: Option D
Explanation:
View Answer Discuss
5. Error detecting code is

an error-detecting code based on a summation operation performed on the bits to
A.
be checked
a check bit appended to an array of binary digits to make the sum of all the binary
B.
digits.
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a code in which each expression conforms to specify rules of construction, so that if

C. certain errors occur in an expression, the resulting expression will not conform to the
rules of construction and thus the presence of the error is detected.
D. the ratio of the data units in error to the total number of data units
Answer: Option C
6. A modulator converts a _____ signal to a(n) _____ signal.
A. FSK; PSK
B. PSK; FSK
C. analog; digital
D. digital; analog
Answer: Option D
Explanation:
View Answer Discuss
7. The birthplace of the World Wide Web is considered to be

A. the Department of Defense
B. CERN
C. ARPA
D. Netscape
Answer: Option B
Explanation:
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View Answer Discuss
8. You have purchased a MAU (Multistation Access Unit) from your computer supplier and
now must decide what type of network card you should install in the workstations. Which of
the following would be the most appropriate?
A. Fast SCSI Wide
B. Token-Ring
C. ArcServe
D. Ethernet
Answer: Option B
Explanation:
View Answer Discuss
9. What is the loopback address?

A. 127.0.0.1
B. 255.0.0.0
C. 255.255.0.0
D. 255.255.255.255.0
Answer: Option A
Explanation:
View Answer Discuss
10. An ROP would be attached to a
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A. simplex channel
B. duplex channel
C. half duplex channel
D. full duplex channel
Answer: Option A
11. Who originally designed TCP/IP?
A. The Department of Defense
B. Novell
C. IBM
D. Xerox
Answer: Option A
Explanation:
View Answer Discuss
12. The systematic access of small computers in a distributed data processing system is referred
to as:
A. dialed service
B. multiplexing
C. polling
D. conversational mode
Answer: Option C
Explanation:
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View Answer Discuss
13. The process of converting analog signals into digital signals so they can be processed by a
receiving computer is referred to as:
A. modulation
B. demodulation
C. synchronizing
D. synchronizing
Answer: Option B
Explanation:
View Answer Discuss
14. An example of digital, rather than analog, communication is

A. DDD
B. DDS
C. WATS
D. DDT
Answer: Option B
Explanation:
View Answer Discuss
15. How many OSI layers are covered in the X.25 standard?
A. two
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B. three
C. seven
D. six
Answer: Option B
16. A band is always equivalent to
A. a byte
B. a bit
C. 100 bits
D. 16 bits
Answer: Option E
Explanation:
View Answer Discuss
17. What is the port number for HTTP?

A. 99
B. 86
C. 80
D. 23
Answer: Option C
Explanation:
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View Answer Discuss
18. The most flexibility in how devices are wired together is provided by
A. bus networks
B. ring networks
C. star networks
D. T-switched networks
Answer: Option A
Explanation:
View Answer Discuss
19. Which of the following statement is incorrect?

The transport layer provides for any format, translationer code conversion necessary
A.
to put the data into an intelligible format.
The presentation layer transforms information from machine format to the

B.
understandable format.
C. The data link layer handles the transfer of data between the ends of a physical link.
D. All of the above
Answer: Option A
Explanation:
View Answer Discuss
20. When you connect to an online information service, you are asked to provide some kind of
identification such as your name, an account number and a password. What is the name
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given to this brief dialogue between you and the information system?
A. Security procedure
B. Safeguard procedure
C. Identification procedure
D. Log-on procedure
Answer: Option D
21. Bus is
one or more conductors that some as a common connection for a related group of
A.
devices
a continuous frequency capable of being modulated or impressed with a second

B.
signal
the condition when two or more stations attempt to use the same channel at the
C.
same time
a collection of interconnected functional units that provides a data communications

D.
service among stations attached to the network
Answer: Option A
Explanation:
View Answer Discuss
22. Which of the following medium is used for broadband local networks?
A. Coaxial cable
B. optic fiber
C. CATV
D. UTP
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Answer: Option C
Explanation:
View Answer Discuss
23. In cyclic redundancy checking what is the CRC?

A. the divisor
B. the quotient
C. the dividend
D. the remainder
Answer: Option D
Explanation:
View Answer Discuss
24. What is the maximum number of entries in the HOSTS file?

A. 8
B. 255
C. 500
D. Unlimited
Answer: Option D
Explanation:
View Answer Discuss
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25. The communication mode that supports data in both directions at the same time is
A. simplex
B. half-duplex
C. full-duplex
D. multiplex
Answer: Option C
26. Which of the following program is used to copy files to or from another UNIX timesharing
system over a single link?
A. VMTP
B. TFTP
C. UUCP
D. UART
Answer: Option C
Explanation:
View Answer Discuss
27. One important characteristic of the hub architecture of ARC-net is

A. directionalized transmission
B. access control and addressing
C. multiple virtual networks
D. alternative routing
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Answer: Option A
Explanation:
View Answer Discuss
28. The basic Ethernet design does not provide

A. access control
B. addressing
C. automatic retransmission of a message
D. multiple virtual networks
Answer: Option C
Explanation:
View Answer Discuss
29. Phase shift keying (psk) method is used to modulate digital signals at 9600 bps using 16
levels. Find the line signaling speed (i.e., modulation rate)
A. 2400 bands
B. 1200 bands
C. 4800 bands
D. 9600 bands.
Answer: Option A
Explanation:
View Answer Discuss
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30. You are in the process of analyzing a problem that requires you to collect and store TCP/IP
Packets. Which of the following utilities is best suited for this purpose?
A. NBTSTAT
B. Performance Monitor
C. NETSTAT
D. Network Monitor
E. DHCP Management Console
Answer: Option D
31. A software that allows a personal computer to pretend it as a terminal is
A. auto-dialing
B. bulletin board
C. modem
D. terminal emulation
Answer: Option A
Explanation:
View Answer Discuss
32. What is the name of the network topology in which there are bi-directional links between
each possible node?
A. Ring
B. Star
C. Tree
D. Mesh
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Answer: Option D
Explanation:
View Answer Discuss
33. What is the main purpose of a data link content monitor?

A. to detect problems in protocols
B. to determine the type of transmission used in a data link
C. to determine the type of switching used in a data link.
D. to determine the flow of data
Answer: Option A
Explanation:
View Answer Discuss
34. Synchronous protocols

A. transmit characters one at a time
B. allow faster transmission than asynchronous protocols do
C. are generally used by personal computers
D. are more reliable
Answer: Option B
Explanation:
View Answer Discuss
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35. To set up a bulletin board system you need

A. a smart modem with auto-answer capabilities
B. a telephone line
C. a personal computer
D. All of the above
Answer: Option D
36. Videotex is a combination of
A. television
B. communication
C. computer technology
D. All of the above
Answer: Option D
Explanation:
View Answer Discuss
37. Which of the following frequency ranges is used for AM radio transmission?
C. High Frequency : 3 MHz to 30 MHz
D. Very High Frequency : 30 MHz to 300 MHz
Answer: Option B
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Explanation:
View Answer Discuss
38. Baseband is
A. transmission of signals without modulation
B. a signal all of whose energy is contained within a finite frequency range
C. the simultaneous transmission of data to a number of stations
D. All of the above
Answer: Option A
Explanation:
View Answer Discuss
39. A 4 KHz noise less channel with one sample ever 125 per sec is used to transmit digital
signals. Differential PCM with 4 bit relative signal value is used. Then how many bits per
second are actually sent?
A. 32 Kbps
B. 64 Kbps
C. 8 Kbps
D. 128 Kbps.
Answer: Option A
Explanation:
View Answer Discuss
40. X.21 is
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a method of determining which device has access to the transmission medium at any
A.
time
B. a method access control technique for multiple-access transmission media
C. a very common bit-oriented data link protocol issued by ISO
D. network access standard for connecting stations to a circuit-switched network
Answer: Option D
41. What is the minimum number of wires required for sending data over a serial
communications links?
A. 2
B. 1
C. 4
D. 3
Answer: Option A
Explanation:
View Answer Discuss
42. In cyclic redundancy checking, the divisor is _____ the CRC.

A. the same size as
B. one bit less than
C. one bit more than
D. two bits more
Answer: Option C
Explanation:
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View Answer Discuss
43. Which command-line tool is included with every Microsoft TCP/IP client?
A. DHCP
B. WINS
C. PING
D. WINIPCFG
Answer: Option C
Explanation:
View Answer Discuss
44. If odd parity is used for ASCII error detection, the number of 0s per eight-bit symbol is
_____.
A. even
B. odd
C. indeterminate
D. 42
Answer: Option B
Explanation:
View Answer Discuss
45. An error-detecting code inserted as a field in a block of data to be transmitted is known as

A. Frame check sequence
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B. Error detecting code
C. Checksum
D. flow control
Answer: Option A
46. Number of bits per symbol used in Baudot code is
A. 1
B. 5
C. 8
D. 9
Answer: Option B
Explanation:
View Answer Discuss
47. Working of the WAN generally involves

A. telephone lines
B. microwaves
C. satellites
D. All of the above
Answer: Option D
Explanation:
View Answer Discuss
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48. What does the acronym ISDN stand for?

A. Indian Standard Digital Network
B. Integrated Services Digital Network
C. Intelligent Services Digital Network
D. Integrated Services Data Network
Answer: Option B
Explanation:
View Answer Discuss
49. Which of the following services dynamically resolves NetBIOS-to-IP resolution?

A. DNS
B. DHCP
C. WINS
D. LMHOSTS
Answer: Option C
Explanation:
View Answer Discuss
50. An example of a medium-speed, switched communications service is

A. Series 1000
B. Dataphone 50
C. DDD
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D. All of the above
Answer: Option C
Connected: An Internet Encyclopedia

DoD Networking Model
Up: Connected: An Internet Encyclopedia

Up: Programmed Instruction Course
Up: Section 1 - Introduction
Prev: Protocol Layering
Next: Encapsulation
DoD Networking Model
The first layered protocol model we will study is the 4-layer DoD Model. This is the
model originally designed for the Internet, and is important because all of the Internet's
core protocols adhere to it.
The Department of Defense Four-Layer Model was developed in the 1970s for the
DARPA Internetwork Project that eventually grew into the Internet. The core Internet
protocols adhere to this model, although the OSI Seven Layer Model is justly preferred
for new designs.
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The four layers in the DoD model, from bottom to top, are:
1. The Network Access Layer is responsible for delivering data over the particular
hardware media in use. Different protocols are selected from this layer,
depending on the type of physical network.
2. The Internet Layer is responsible for delivering data across a series of different
physical networks that interconnect a source and destination machine. Routing
protocols are most closely associated with this layer, as is the IP Protocol, the
Internet's fundamental protocol.
3. The Host-to-Host Layer handles connection rendezvous, flow control,
retransmission of lost data, and other generic data flow management. The
mutually exclusive TCP and UDP protocols are this layer's most important
members.
4. The Process Layer contains protocols that implement user-level functions, such
as mail delivery, file transfer and remote login.
Connected: An Internet Encyclopedia

DoD Networking ModelTCP/IP and the DoD Model
The DoD model is basically a condensed version of the OSI model—it’s composed of
four, instead of seven, layers:
 Process/Application layer
 Host-to-Host layer
 Internet layer
 Network Access layer
Figure 3-1 shows a comparison of the DoD model and the OSI reference model. As you
can see, the two are similar in concept, but each has a different number of layers with
different names.
routing messages
In the Internet reference model, the layer above the network access layer is called
theinternetwork layer. This layer is responsible for routing messages through
internetworks. Two types of devices are responsible for routing messages between
networks.
The purpose was to allow computers to communicate over long distance networks.
TheTCP part has to do with the verifying delivery of the packets. The IP part refers to the
moving of data packets between nodes. TCP/IP has since then become the foundation
of the Internet.
TCP and IP are two separate computer network protocols. IP is the part that obtains the
address to which data is sent. TCP is responsible for data delivery once that IP address
has been found.

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Department of Defense Model of TCP/IP

The Department of Defense created TCP/IP to ensure and preserve date integrity. The DoD model is a
condensed version of the OSI model and only has four layers.
Corresponding Layers
DoD Model OSI Model
Application
Process Application Layer Presentation
Session
Host-to-Host Layer Transport
Internet Layer Network
Data Link
Network Access Layer
Physical
Process Application Layer
Defines protocols for node-to-node application communication and also controls user interface
specifications. Consists of a set of services that provide ubiquitous access to all types of networks.
Applications utilize the services to communicate with other devices and remote applications
Protocols and Applications
Port Protocol Description
23 Telnet Terminal Emulation (Telephone network)
21 FTP Allows file transfers between computers (File Transfer Protocol)
Have to know what you want and where it is on the server, no directory browsing,
69 TFTP
no user authentication (Trivial File Transfer Protocol)
2049 NFS Allows remote file systems to be mounted as local (Network File System)
25 SMTP Used to send mail between mail servers (Simple Mail Transfer Protocol)
515 LPD Used for print sharing of network printers with TCP/IP (Line Printer Daemon)
161 SNMP Collect and manipulates network information (Simple Network Management
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Protocol)
53 DNS Resolves FQDN to IP addresses (Domain Name Service)
67 BootP Used by diskless workstations to receive boot file and other information via TFTP
Assigns IP addresses to hosts from a pool. Can send IP address, Subnet mask,
DHCP Domain Name, Default Gateway, DNS IP, WINS info. (Dynamic Host Configuration
Protocol)
Host-to-Host Layer
This layer shields the upper layers from the process of sending data. Also provides an end-to-end
connection between two devices during communication by performing sequencing, acknowledgments,
checksums, and flow control. Applications using services at this layer can use two different protocols: TCP
and UDP.
Protocols at the Host-to-Host Layer are:
TCP (Transmission Control Protocol)
TCP provides a connection-oriented, reliable services to the applications that use its services.
Main Functions of TCP
Segments application layer data stream--

TCP accepts data from applications and segments it into a desirable size for transmission between
itself and the remote devices. The segment size is determined while TCP is negotiating the
connection between the two devices. Either device can dictate the segment size.
Provides acknowledgment times--
TCP maintains timers to identify when packets have taken too long to get to their destination. When
an acknowledgment is not received for a packet and the timer expires, TCP will resend the packet
to the destination.
Enables sequence number checking--
TCP/IP uses sequence numbers to ensure that all packets sent by an application on one device are
read in the correct order by an application on another device. The packets might not be received at
the transport layer in the correct order, but TCP sequences them in their original order before
passing them to the application layer.
Provides buffer management--
Any time two devices are communicating, the possibility exists that one device can send data faster
than the other can accept it. If this happens, the receiving device puts the extra packets into a buffer
to be read at the first chance it gets. When this data overflow persists, however, the buffer is
eventually filled and packets begin to drop. TCP performs some preventive maintenance called flow
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control to avoid the problem.

Initiates connections with 3-way handshake--
TCP uses the concept of the three-way handshake to initiate a connection between two devices. A
TCP connection begins with a device sending a request to synchronize sequence numbers (a SYN
packet) and initiate a connection. The other device receives the message and responds with a SYN
message and the sequence number increased by one. The first device responds by sending an
acknowledgment message (an ACK) to the second device, indicating that the device received the
sequence number it expected.
Performs error and duplication checking--
TCP uses a checksum to identify packets that have changed during transport. If a device receives a
packet with a bad checksum, it drops the packet and does not send an acknowledgment for the
packet. So the sending device will resend the packet. Any time TCP receives a duplicate packet it
will drop the duplicate.
Performs acknowledgment windowing--
Any time a TCP device sends data to another device, it must wait for the acknowledgment that this
data was received, To increase the bandwidth utilization, TCP can change the window size.
Whatever the window size is negotiated to be, acknowledgments will only be sent after that many
packets have been received at the receiving device. TCP sets the window size dynamically during a
connection, allowing either device involved in the communication to slow down the sending data
rate based on the other devices capacity. This process is known as sliding windowbecause of
TCP's ability to change the window size dynamically.
TCP Overview
Before data is sent, the transmitting host contacts the receiving host to set up a connection known as a
virtual circuit. This makes TCP connection-oriented. During the handshake the two hosts agree upon the
amount of information to be sent before an acknowledgment is needed (Windowing). TCP takes the large
blocks of data from the upper layers and breaks them up into segments that it numbers and sequences.
TCP will the pass the segments to the network layer, which will route them through the Internetwork. The
receiving TCP can put the segments back into order. After packets are sent, TCP waits for an
acknowledgment from the receiving end of the virtual circuit. If no acknowledgment is received then the
sending host will retransmit the segment.
TCP Header Information
Destinatio
n Port
Source Port Number Number
16 bits 16 bits
(Number of calling port) (Number
of called
port)
Sequence Number
32 bits
(Number to ensure proper sequence of data.)
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Acknowledgment Number
32-bits
(Identifies next segment expected)
Window
Header size
Length Code bits 16 bits
Reserved
4 bits 6 bits (Number
6 bits
(Number of (Identifies type of segment, setup/termination of octets
(Always 0)
32 bit words of session) the device
in header) is willing
to accept)
Urgent
Pointer
TCP Checksum 16 bits
16 bits (Indicates
(Used to ensure data integrity) end of
urgent
data)
Options
0 or 32 bits
(Identifies maximum segment size)
Data

UDP (User Datagram Protocol)
UDP transports information that doesn't require reliable delivery; therefore it can have less overhead
than TCP as no sequencing or acknowledgments are used. NFS and SNMP use UDP for their sessions,
the applications have their own methods to ensure reliability. UDP receives blocks of information from the
upper layers, which it breaks into segments. It gives each segment a number, sends it, and then forgets
about it. No acknowledgments, no virtual circuits, connectionless protocol.
UDP Header Format
Source Port Number Destination Port Number

16 bits 16 bits
(Number of calling port) (Number of called port)
UDP Checksum
UDP Length
16 bits
16 bits
(Used to ensure data
(Length of UDP in bytes)
integrity)
Data

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Differences between TCP and UDP

Differences Between TCP and UDP
TCP UDP
Sequenced Unsequenced
Reliable -sequence numbers,

acknowledgments, and 3-way Unreliable -best effort only
handshake
Connection Oriented Connectionless
Virtual Circuits Low Overhead
Checksum for Error Checking Checksum for Error Checking
Uses buffer management to

avoid overflow, uses sliding
No flow control
window to maximize
bandwidth efficiency
Assigns datagram size Every datagram segment is

dynamically for efficiency the same size
TCP and UDP Port Numbers
TCP and UDP use port numbers to communicate with the upper layers. Port numbers keep track of
different sessions across the network. The source port will be above 1024 (unprivileged). 1023 and below
(privileged) are known as well known ports and are assigned to common protocols. TCP and upper layer
don't use hardware (MAC) and logical (IP) addresses to see the host's address; instead they use port
numbers.
Internet Layer
The Internet Layer exists for routing and providing a single network interface to the upper layers. IP
provides the single network interface for the upper layers.
Protocols at the Internet Layer are:

IP (Internet Protocol)
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The Internet Protocol (IP) is a network-layer (Layer 3) protocol that contains addressing information and
some control information that enables packets to be routed. IP has two primary responsibilities: providing
connectionless, best-effort delivery of datagrams through an internetwork; and providing fragmentation and
reassembly of datagrams to support data links with different maximum-transmission unit (MTU) sizes.
All machines on a TCP/IP network have a unique logical address, an IP address. The Internet Layer
(IP) has a complete picture of the entire network and is responsible for path determination and packet
switching. IP is the transport for TCP, UDP, and ICMP and provides an unreliable service. It lets the upper
layer protocols that use it worry about reliability. IP will perform as a connectionless service because it
handles each datagram as an independent entity. IP performs packet switching and path determination by
maintaining tables that indicate where to send a packet based on its IP address. IP gets the destination
address from the packet. IP receives segments from the Host-to-Host layer and fragments them into
packets. IP will then reassemble the packets into segments on the receiving end to send to the Host-to-
Host layer. Each packet has the source and destination IP address. Each router will make path
determinations based on the destination IP address.
ICMP (Internet Control Message Protocol)
The Internet Control Message Protocol (ICMP) is a network-layer Internet protocol that provides
message packets to report errors and other information regarding IP packet processing back to the
source. ICMP utilizes IP to carry the ICMP data within it through a network.
ICMP Messages
ICMPs generate several kinds of useful messages, including Destination Unreachable, Echo Request
and Reply, Redirect, Time Exceeded, and Router Advertisement and Router Solicitation. If an ICMP
message cannot be delivered, no second one is generated. This is to avoid an endless flood of ICMP
messages.
When an ICMP destination-unreachable message is sent by a router, it means that the router is

unable to send the package to its final destination. The router then discards the original packet.
Destination-unreachable messages include four basic types: network unreachable, host unreachable,
protocol unreachable, and port unreachable.
 Network-unreachable messages usually mean that a failure has occurred in the routing or

addressing of a packet.
 Host-unreachable messages usually indicates delivery failure, such as a wrong subnet mask.
 Protocol-unreachable messages generally mean that the destination does not support the upper-
layer protocol specified in the packet.
 Port-unreachable messages imply that the TCP socket or port is not available.
An ICMP echo-request message, which is generated by the ping command, is sent by any host to test
node reachability across an internetwork. The ICMP echo-reply message indicates that the node can be
successfully reached. PING - Packet Internet Gropher, uses echo message to test physical connectivity.
An ICMP Redirect message is sent by the router to the source host to stimulate more efficient routing.
The router still forwards the original packet to the destination. ICMP redirects allow host routing tables to
remain small because it is necessary to know the address of only one router, even if that router does not
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provide the best path. Even after receiving an ICMP Redirect message, some devices might continue using
the less-efficient route.
An ICMP Time-exceeded message is sent by the router if an IP packet's Time-to-Live field (expressed

in hops or seconds) reaches zero. The Time-to-Live field prevents packets from continuously circulating
the internetwork if the internetwork contains a routing loop. Routers discard packets that have reached
their maximum hop count and tell the source machine that the packet is expired. Traceroute - uses ICMP
timeouts to find the path a packet takes through the internetwork.
ARP (Address Resolution Protocol)
Used to find the MAC address from the known IP address. ARP sends a broadcast asking for the
machine with the specified IP address to respond with its MAC address. If two devices want to
communicate, the first device can send a broadcast ARP message requesting the physical address for a
specified IP address. The receiving device responds with its IP address and the first device maintains the
entry in its ARP cache. If a device doesn't exist on the same subnet, the sending device addresses the the
default gateway's physical address and sends the packet to the default gateway.
RARP Reverse Address Resolution Protocol)
This protocol is used to find an IP address when the MAC address is known. A machine sends a
broadcast with its MAC address and requests its IP address. An example of a device that uses RARP is a
diskless workstation. Since it can't store its logical network address, it sends its MAC address to a RARP
server to requests its IP address. A RARP server responds to the RARP request with the device's IP
address.
Network Access Layer
The Network Access Layer monitors the data exchange between the host and the network. Oversees
MAC addressing and defines protocols for the physical transmission of data.
DOD Model and TCP/IP
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Skill 1.2: Create and configure DNS zones and records

Although DNS is based on the concept of domains and subdomains, you store
information about these domains and subdomains and the relationship between them in
DNS zones. You can consider a DNS zone to be one or more domains and subdomains
from your DNS infrastructure.
For example, the domains Adatum.com and sales.adatum.com might both be stored in a

DNS zone called Adatum.com, or sales.adatum.com might be stored in a delegated
zone called sales.adatum.com, while the parent domain, Adatum.com, is stored in its
own zone.
You can store the zone in files on the DNS server or in the Active Directory Domain
Services (AD DS) database. It is important that you know how and when to create
primary and secondary zones, delegated zones, AD DS–integrated zones, and stub
zones.
Overview of DNS zones

Zones are used by DNS servers to resolve client DNS queries. Usually, clients perform
forward lookup queries in which a hostname must be resolved into the corresponding
Internet Protocol Version 4 (IPv4) or Internet Protocol Version 6 (IPv6) address. Forward
lookup queries are resolved by reference to forward lookup zones.
Forward lookup zones contain a variety of DNS record type (discussed in the next
section) include:
 Host (A) records

 Alias (CNAME) records
 Records that identify which server is hosting a service, such as service (SRV) records
and Mail exchanger (MX) records.
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Less often, a DNS client queries a DNS server for the name of a host when it has the
IPv4 or IPv6 address of the host. This is called a reverse lookup, and is satisfied by
reference to a reverse lookup zone. Reverse lookup zones contain pointer (PTR)
records.
Before you create your zone, you must first determine whether the zone is a forward or
reverse lookup zone. Then you must determine whether the zone is primary, secondary,
or AD DS–integrated. Strictly speaking, it is not the zone that is primary or secondary.
Instead, it is the local copy of the zone that is primary or secondary. In other words, for
there to be a secondary zone for Adatum.com, there must already exist a primary zone
for Adatum.com on another DNS server from which the secondary can obtain the zone
data.
When you first deploy the DNS server role in Windows Server 2016, the DNS Manager
console navigation pane contains the server node, and beneath this, nodes for Forward
Lookup Zones, Reverse Lookup Zones, Trust Points, and Conditional Forwarders.
These nodes are all empty until you start to create zones on the DNS server.
Configure DNS zones

Windows Server 2016 supports a number of different zone types. These include primary
zones, secondary zones, and Active Directory integrated zones. It’s important that you
know how to create and configure these different types of zone..
Create primary zones

A primary zone is a writable copy of a DNS zone that exists on a DNS server. To create
a primary zone, in the DNS Manager console, use the following procedure:
1. Right-click the Forward Lookup Zones node, and then click New Zone.
2. In the New Zone Wizard, on the Welcome To The New Zone Wizard page, click Next.
3. On the Zone Type page, select Primary Zone, as shown in Figure 1-17, and then click
Next.
4. On the Zone Name page, in the Zone name box, type the zone name. For example, type
Contoso.com. Click Next.
5. On the Zone File page:
 If you have a DNS zone file with which to populate your zone (for example, from
another DNS server), click Use This Existing File, specify the path to the file, and
then click Next.
 If you do not have an existing zone file, click Create A New File With This File
Name and click Next. Figure 1-18 shows the filename that is created
automatically when you choose this option.
6. On the Dynamic Update page, shown in Figure 1-19, choose one of the following, and
then click Next:
 Allow Only Secure Dynamic Updates (Recommended For Active
Directory) This option enables clients that support dynamic DNS to update their
records in the DNS zone, such as when a client computer obtains a different IPv4
address from a Dynamic Host Configuration Protocol (DHCP) server. This option
requires that each DNS record has an owner—the entity that registered the
original record. Only the owner can update the record, which helps you secure
your DNS records. This option is only available if you are creating an AD DS–
integrated zone.
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 Allow Both Nonsecure And Secure Dynamic Updates This option also

enables clients that support dynamic DNS to update their records in the DNS
zone. It also supports nonsecure dynamic updates.
 Do Not Allow Dynamic Updates Choose this option if you want to manually
maintain all DNS records.
7. On the Completing The New Zone Wizard page, click Finish.
After you have created your primary zone, you can view the initial contents of the zone
by using the DNS Manager console, as shown in Figure 1-20. It contains the Start of
Authority (SOA) record and a Name Server (NS) record. These two records define which
computer(s) are responsible, or authoritative, for the zone.
You can also add a primary zone by using the Add-DnsServerPrimaryZone Windows
PowerShell cmdlet. For example, to complete the same process as in the preceding
example by using Windows PowerShell, run the following command:
Add-DnsServerPrimaryZone -Name "Contoso.com" -ZoneFile "Contoso.com.dns"

-DynamicUpdate None
After you have created the primary zone, you can reconfigure it from the DNS Manager
console by right-clicking the zone in the navigation pane and clicking Properties. You
can then configure the following properties on each of the following tabs:
 General You can change the zone type, zone file name, the dynamic updates setting,
and configure aging and scavenging.
 Start of Authority (SOA) Shown in Figure 1-21, you can reconfigure the SOA record.
This includes the Primary server’s Fully Qualified Domain Name (FQDN), the
responsible person’s contact details, and the Refresh, Retry, and Expire intervals. These
intervals determine:
 Refresh interval The frequency with which other DNS servers that host the zone
must refresh the zone data.
 Retry interval The interval at which other DNS servers retry a refresh operation.
 Expires after The length of time after failure to refresh zone data other DNS
servers assume that the zone data has expired.
The Start of Authority (SOA) tab also contains the Minimum (Default) TTL value. This is
the value that determines how long records in this zone can be cached by other
recursive DNS servers.
 Name Servers Use this tab to add, remove, or edit the name and IP addresses of other
DNS servers that host this zone.
 Zone Transfers Use this tab to configure how the zone data is transferred to other
name servers hosting copies of the zone.
 WINS Use this tab to configure Windows Internet Name Service (WINS) and DNS
integration. WINS supports the resolution of NetBIOS names. Less relevant today,
NetBIOS names use a nonhierarchical structure based on a 16-character name.
Enabling the Use WINS Forward Lookup option enables the DNS server to respond to
requests for NetBIOS names without the client computer having to petition a WINS
server directly.
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You can configure the zone properties by using the Set-DnsServerPrimaryZone

Windows PowerShell cmdlet. For example, to change the Contoso.com Primary Zone
Dynamic Update settings with Windows PowerShell, run the following command:
Set-DnsServerPrimaryZone -Name "Contoso.com" -DynamicUpdate

"NonsecureAndSecure"
Need More Review? Set-Dnsserverprimaryzone
To review further details about modifying primary zone properties with Windows
PowerShell, refer to the Microsoft TechNet website at https://technet.microsoft.com/en-
us/library/jj649865.aspx.
Create and configure secondary zones

Creating a secondary zone is a different process from a primary zone. This is because a
secondary zone hosts a read-only copy of a zone, which it obtains from another DNS
server.
To create a secondary zone, you must know the name of the zone, and have the name
and IP address of a DNS server that hosts a copy of the zone.
Exam Tip
The name server you specify as a source for a secondary zone does not have to be
hosting a primary copy of the zone. You can point one secondary zone server to another
secondary zone server. However, somewhere a primary copy of the zone must exist.
You can use the DNS Manager console to create a secondary zone. To do this, use the
following procedure:
3. On the Zone Type page, select Secondary Zone, and then click Next.
4. On the Zone Name page, in the Zone Name box, type the zone name, and click Next.
5. On the Master DNS Servers page, in the Master Servers list, type the FQDN or IP
address of the server that hosts a copy of the zone, press Enter, and then click Next, as
shown in
After you have added the secondary zone, it is necessary to configure the master DNS
server that you specified. This is to enable zone transfers to your secondary server. To
perform this step, switch to the DNS Manager console on the master server and perform
the following procedure:
1. Right-click the appropriate zone, and then click Properties.

2. On the Name Servers tab, in the Name servers list, click Add to specify the FQDN and
IP address of the DNS server hosting the secondary copy of the zone, Click the Zone
Transfers tab.
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3. Select the Allow Zone Transfers check box. Then,

 To Any Server.
 Only To Servers Listed On The Name Servers Tab.
 Only To The Following Servers (If you choose this option, you must click Edit to
specify the list of name servers that you want to allow).
4. Click Notify.
5. In the Notify dialog box, either select Servers Listed On The Name Servers Tab, or else
click The Following Servers, and then type the IP addresses of the secondary name
servers you want to notify.
6. Click OK twice to complete configuration. Next, switch back to the DNS Manager
console on the server hosting the secondary zone. You should see the DNS records
populate into the secondary zone. If this does not happen immediately, right-click the
secondary zone, and then click Transfer From Master.
You can use the Add-DnsServerSecondaryZone Windows PowerShell cmdlet to create

a secondary zone. For example, the following command creates a secondary zone for
the Adatum.com zone:
Add-DnsServerSecondaryZone -Name "Adatum.com" -ZoneFile "Adatum.com.dns"

-MasterServers 172.16.0.10
Configure delegation
DNS delegation is when a DNS server delegates authority over a part of its namespace
to one or more other DNS servers. For example, Adatum.com
and sales.adatum.comcould be hosted in the same zone, Adatum.com, with
the sales.adatum.com merely being a subdomain record. In this case, the authoritative
DNS servers for Adatum.com and sales.adatum.com are the same. There is no need for
the DNS servers in Adatum.com to refer recursive DNS servers to another domain.
Alternatively, you could create a separate zone for both Adatum.com

and sales.adatum.com, each with their own DNS servers. Because one domain,
sales.adatum.com, is a child domain of another domain, Adatum.com, there must exist a
method to enable the authoritative name servers for the subdomain to be located. This
method is called delegation, and is essentially a pointer to the authoritative name
servers for a subdomain.
In Figure 1-25, you can see two DNS zones: Adatum.com, which contains a
subdomain, marketing.adatum.com, and a second zone, sales.adatum.com, which
contains a single domain, sales.adatum.com.
When determining whether to delegate a subdomain, consider the following:
 Your DNS zones are large, and delegation enables you to distribute the zone into
smaller pieces across your organization.
 Organizational changes, such as mergers and acquisitions, mean that you have
additional subdomains to manage.
 You have a distributed management structure, and want different departments or
locations to be responsible for managing their own DNS namespaces.
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To create a DNS delegation, in the DNS Manager console, perform the following
procedure:
1. Right-click the parent zone. For example, right-click Adatum.com, and then click New
Delegation. The New Delegation Wizard launches.
2. In the New Delegation Wizard, on the Welcome page, click Next.
3. On the Delegated Domain Name page, as shown in Figure 1-26, in the Delegated
domain box, type the subdomain name. For example, type Sales. The suffix is added
automatically. Click Next.
4. On the Name Servers page, click Add.
5. In the New Name Server Record dialog box, on the Server Fully Qualified Domain name
(FQDN) box, type the name of the DNS server that hosts the new delegated zone, click
Resolve, and then click OK.
6. On the Name Servers page, click Next, and then click Finish.
You can use the Add-DnsServerZoneDelegation Windows PowerShell cmdlet to create

a delegated zone in an existing zone. For example, the following command creates the
sales.adatum.com delegated zone in the existing Adatum.com zone:
Add-DnsServerZoneDelegation -Name "Adatum.com" -ChildZoneName "Sales" -

NameServer
"ns1.Sales.Adatum.com" -IPAddress 172.16.0.136
After you have completed the delegation, if necessary, you should install DNS on the
name server that you specified in the wizard, and create the delegated zone, in this case
sales.adatum.com.
Configure Active Directory integration of primary zones

Traditional DNS zones are file-based and are stored in the local file system of the DNS
server. DNS servers that host the primary copy of a zone have a writable version of the
DNS zone file. Secondary servers have read-only copies of the zone file; they
periodically obtain updates by using a zone transfer from their configured master, as you
saw in Create and configure secondary zones.
In an AD DS environment, you have the option to create AD DS-integrated zones. In this

situation, all copies of the zone data are writable. In addition, the zone data is stored
securely in Active Directory and is replicated securely as part of the AD DS database.
The benefits of using AD DS-integrated zones are:
 Multimaster updates AD DS-integrated DNS zones are multimaster, and updates can
be made to any copy of the zone data. This provides for redundancy in your DNS
infrastructure. If your organization implements dynamic updates to the DNS zone, then
geographically remote DNS clients can update their records by connecting to the nearest
DNS server.
 Replicated using AD DS replication AD DS replication is based at the attribute-level.
This means that only changed attributes, rather than entire records, are replicated. This
means that the volume of zone transfer traffic can be reduced.
 Secure dynamic updates You can implement secure dynamic updates in an AD DS–
integrated zone. This is discussed in the next section.
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 Improved security You can delegate administration of AD DS-integrated zone,

domains, and resource records with the AD DS object-level Access Control List (ACL)
for the zone.
Exam Tip
When you promote a new domain controller in your AD DS forest, the DNS server role
deploys automatically. This is configurable on the Domain Controller Options page of the
Active Directory Domain Services Configuration Wizard.
When you create zones on a DNS server that is also a domain controller, you have the
option to install an AD DS-integrated zone. To create an AD DS-integrated DNS zone,
use the following procedure:
1. On your domain controller, open DNS Manager.

4. On the Zone Type page, select Primary Zone, as shown in Figure 1-27, select the Store
The Zone In Active Directory (Available Only If The DNS Server Is A Writable Domain
Controller) check box, and then click Next.
5. On the Active Directory Zone Replication Scope page, as shown in Figure 1-28, select
the appropriate zone replication option from the following:
 To All DNS Servers Running On Domain Controllers In This Forest This
option causes the zone data to replicate to all domain controllers running the
DNS server role in the forest.
 To All DNS Servers Running On Domain Controllers In This Domain This
option (the default) causes the zone data to replicate to all domain controllers
running the DNS server role in the current AD DS domain.
 To All Domain Controllers In This Domain (For Windows 2000
Compatibility) This option provides backward compatibility with earlier versions
of Windows Server. You would not normally select this option.
 To All Domain Controllers Specified In The Scope Of This Directory
Partition Directory partitions enable you to create an AD DS replication
boundary that is not restricted to all domain controllers in the forest or local
domain. The option is only available if you have created a directory partition
before you configure the DNS zone.
6. Click Next.
7. On the Zone Name page, in the Zone name box, type the zone name, for example, type
Contoso.com. Click Next.
8. On the Dynamic Update page, choose one of the following, and then click Next.
 Allow Only Secure Dynamic Updates (Recommended For Active Directory)
 Allow Both Non-Secure And Secure Dynamic Updates
 Do Not Allow Dynamic Updates
You can also create an AD DS-integrated primary zone by using the Add-
DnsServerPrimaryZone Windows PowerShell cmdlet. For example, to complete the
same process as in the preceding example by using Windows PowerShell, run the
following command:
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Add-DnsServerPrimaryZone -Name "Contoso.com" -ReplicationScope "Domain"

On domain controllers, existing standard primary zones can be converted to AD DS–
integrated zones. In DNS Manager, right-click the zone, and then click Properties. On
the General page, click Change, and then select the Store The Zone In Active Directory
(Available Only If The DNS Server Is A Writable Domain Controller) check box. Click OK
twice.
Configure secure dynamic updates

If you have implemented an AD DS-integrated primary zone, you have the option of
enabling secure dynamic updates. Dynamic updates is a feature in which DNS clients
can update their own DNS records on their configured DNS server. This is particularly
convenient when an organization assigns IP configuration to networked clients by using
DHCP. If a client obtains a different IP address from a DHCP scope, they can register
this change automatically on DNS.
With secure dynamic updates, the DNS server assigns ownership to the registered DNS
records, and only the owner—the original DNS client—can update the records. To
enable secure dynamic updates, you can choose one of the following options:
 Select the Allow Only Secure Dynamic Updates (Recommended For Active Directory)
option on the Dynamic Updates page of the New Zone Wizard when you create an AD
DS-integrated primary zone.
 After creating the AD DS-integrated primary zone, in DNS Manager, right-click the DNS
zone, and then click Properties. On the General page, in the Dynamic Updates list, click
Secure Only.
 After creating the AD DS-integrated primary zone in Windows PowerShell, use the Set-
DnsServerPrimaryZone command. For example:
Set-DnsServerPrimaryZone -Name "Contoso.com" -DynamicUpdate "Secure"

Create and configure stub zones
You can use conditional forwarding as a means to redirect query traffic to a designated
DNS server. With conditional forwarding, if a DNS query contains a specific domain
name, for example Contoso.com, it is forwarded to a specific DNS server. To learn more
about Conditional Forwarding, see “Configure forwarders, root hints, recursion, and
delegation.”
Alternatively, you can also use a stub zones to achieve a similar result. A stub zone is
used by a DNS server to help resolve names between two separate DNS namespaces,
such as following a merger or acquisition. A stub zone differs from conditional forwarding
in that the stub zone contains the complete list of DNS servers for the other domain.
Comparing Conditional Forwarding with stub Zones

Imagine that two DNS namespaces, Adatum.com and Contoso.com, are now owned by
the A. Datum Corporation following an acquisition. For DNS clients in the Adatum.com
domain to locate resources in the Contoso.com domain it requires the use of root hints
by Adatum.com DNS servers.
To avoid this, in the Adatum.com domain, you could configure DNS conditional
forwarding for the Contoso.com domain. With conditional forwarding, you configure to
which DNS server(s) in the Contoso.com domain to forward DNS queries.
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You can also use a stub zone for Contoso.com in the Adatum.com domain. This stub
zone contains the complete list of DNS server that are authoritative for the foreign
domain. This list of servers is updated automatically.
When considering whether to use conditional forwarding or stub zones, remember:
 You must manually maintain conditional forwarding records, while stub zones are
maintained automatically.
 With conditional forwarding, you can designate the specific foreign DNS server to
forward queries to, but with a stub zone, you cannot.
Creating a stub Zone

You can use the following procedure to create a stub zone. Open DNS Manager, and
then:
2. On the New Zone Wizard, on the Welcome to the New Zone Wizard page, click Next.
3. On the Zone Type page, select Stub Zone, and then click Next.
4. On the Zone Name page, in the Zone name box, type the DNS domain name for the
foreign domain, and then click Next.
5. On the Zone File page, if you have a DNS zone file that you use to populate your zone
(for example, from another DNS server), click Use This Existing File, specify the path to
the file on the Zone File page, and then click Next.
6. On the Master DNS Servers page, in the Master Servers list, type the IP address or
FQDN of the DNS server in the foreign domain from which the DNS server obtains zone
updates, and then click Next.
7. Click Finish to create the stub zone.
You must now populate the stub zone with the required records that includes the Start of
Authority (SOA) record, and the Host (A) and NS records that pertain to the foreign DNS
servers, and are retrieved from the specific master server(s). To manually perform this
task, in the DNS Manager, right-click the stub zone and then click Transfer from Master.
You can use the Windows PowerShell Add-DnsServerStubZone cmdlet to create a stub
zone. For example, to create a stub zone for Contoso.com, use the following command:
Add-DnsServerStubZone -Name "Contoso.com" -MasterServers "172.16.0.66" -ZoneFile

"Contoso.dns"
Exam Tip
You can create AD DS-integrated stub zones, either in the DNS Manager console, or by
using Windows PowerShell. To use Windows PowerShell, replace the zonefile
parameter with ReplicationScope.
Configure a GlobalNames zone

Some older networked apps rely on a non-hierarchical naming standard known as
NetBIOS. In the past, network clients that accessed these apps needed to be able to
resolve these single-label NetBIOS names. You can use the WINS server feature to
provide for NetBIOS name registration, resolution, and release.
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The disadvantages of using WINS are:
 Organizations must maintain two name services, with the resultant administrative
overhead.
 Network clients potentially use both DNS and WINS to resolve names, resulting in
possible name resolution delay.
As an alternative to WINS, you can use the DNS GlobalNames zone in Windows Server
2016. When clients resolve single-label names, such as LON-SVR2, these names are
resolved by reference to the GlobalNames zone. An organization has only a single
GlobalNames zone, which you must create manually. Also, you must populate the zone
with the required CNAME resource records that point to your organization’s server and
app resources.
To create the GlobalNames zone, use the following procedure:
1. Open Windows PowerShell.

2. Run the Set-DnsServerGlobalNameZone –AlwaysQueryServer $true command to
enable GlobalNames zone support.
3. Run the Add-DnsServerPrimaryZone –Name GlobalNames –ReplicationScope Forest
command to create the GlobalNames zone.
4. Open DNS Manager and locate the GlobalNames zone node.
5. Create the required CNAME records for server resources that still use single-label
names.
Configure DNS records

Zones contain DNS records that point either to name servers, hosts, services, or to other
zones. After you have created your zones, you must populate them with records
appropriate to your organization’s network. You must also be prepared to maintain these
records to ensure the accuracy of zone data.
Create and configure DNS resource records

A DNS server exists to provide name resolution for DNS clients. In order for this to be
possible, you must populate the DNZ zones that you create with appropriate DNS
resource records. These resource records include:
 Host A host record—commonly given the abbreviation A—holds the IPv4 address for
the specified hostname. AAAA records hold the IPv6 address for the specified
hostname. These are probably the most common resource records and are found in
forward lookup zones.
 Pointer Also known as PTR records, these enable a DNS client to resolve an IPv4 or
IPv6 address into a hostname. These records exist in reverse lookup zones.
 Start of Authority Created when you create a primary zone, the SOA record contains
information about the authoritative server for the zone, contact information for the zone,
and other information, including TTL values for resource records in the zone.
 Name Server Name server (NS) records identify the authoritative name servers in the
zone, including both primary and secondary servers. They also identify name servers for
any delegated zones.
 Service Location Known as SRV records, these enable you to specify by service,
protocol, and DNS domain name, which servers are hosting particular apps or services.
If a DNS client is looking for a web server, for example, you can configure SRV records
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for the http service enabling clients to find all servers providing that service. Clients then
use corresponding A or AAAA records to resolve the server names into IP addresses.
An SRV record is more complex than many others, and contains the following fields:
_Service.Proto.Name TTL Class SRV Priority Weight Port Target. For example:
http._tcp.Contoso.com. IN SRV 0 0 80 www.Contoso.com. AD DS services, such as the
Kerberos authentication service, use SRV records to advertise themselves to clients in
an AD DS network.
 Alias CNAME records enable you to create an alias for a host. For example, the server
lon-svr2.adatum.com might host a website. You can create an alias for this host with the
name www by adding a CNAME record that points to the FQDN of the lon-svr2 server.
 Mail Exchanger MX records are used by Simple Mail Transfer Protocol (SMTP) hosts
for transferring email around the Internet. In order for an originating SMTP host to route
mail to a recipient with the email address Dave@Contoso.com, it is necessary for the
originating host to know which hosts can receive the email at Contoso.com. You create
MX records in the Contoso.com namespace to advertise which hosts provide this
service. To help to ensure a reliable inbound email flow, you can advertise several hosts
by using multiple MX records. Each can be assigned the same or different mail server
priorities, or preference values. If you implement MX records with the same priority,
email is routed to them randomly, distributing the load. If you use different values, the
lower value is used first by the originating server, thereby enabling you to specify a
preferred inbound server.
Note Enabling Dynamic Updates
Remember that you can enable dynamic updates for your DNS zone in Microsoft DNS.
This enables hosts to register and update their own resource records. This is particularly
relevant for A, AAAA, PTR, and SRV records that might commonly be expected to
change.
You can create these records manually from the DNS Manager console. Right-click the
appropriate forward lookup zone (reverse lookup zone for PTR records), and then click
the appropriate option for the record type you want to create, as shown in Figure 1-29.
Creating the resource records are straightforward, but vary slightly for each record type
because you must specify different information for each separately. However, this is a
very intuitive process. For example, for a new host record, you must specify the host’s
name and its IP address. You can also select the option to create a PTR record for the
host automatically. For an MX record, you must specify the FQDN of the host that
provides SMTP email support, and a Mail server priority value.
If the record type you want is not listed on the context menu, (for example, SRV), select
Other New Record from the context menu. Then select the record type you want in the
Resource Record Type dialog box, and then click Create Record, shown in Figure 1-30.
This list contains all record types, including those used less frequently.
You can use the Add-DnsServerResourceRecord Windows PowerShell cmdlet to create

resource records. For example, the following command creates a host called lon-svr2 in
the Contoso.com domain:
Add-DnsServerResourceRecord -ZoneName "Contoso.com" -A -Name "lon-svr2"

-AllowUpdateAny -IPv4Address "172.16.0.27" -TimeToLive 01:00:00 -AgeRecord
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Need More Review? Add-Dnsserverresourcerecord
Configure zone scavenging

Resource records often remain in a DNS zone even though the host that registered the
record is no longer active. This is known as a stale record. You can use aging settings to
determine when the DNS role can remove a stale record. This removal is known as
scavenging.
Two parameters determine scavenging behavior:
 No-refresh Interval The no-refresh interval is the period of time that the record is not
eligible to be refreshed. By default, this is also seven days.
 Refresh Interval The refresh interval is the time that the record is eligible to be
refreshed by the client. The default is seven days.
Usually, a client host record cannot be refreshed for seven days after it is first registered
(or refreshed). But then it must be refreshed within the following seven days. If it is not,
the record becomes eligible to be scavenged.
Exam Tip
By default, aging and scavenging of resource records is disabled.
To enable scavenging, you must enable it on both the DNS zone(s) and on the server(s)
that host those zones.
To configure aging and scavenging on a DNS zone:
1. In DNS Manager, right-click the appropriate zone, and then click Properties.
2. On the General tab, click Aging.
3. In the Zone Aging/Scavenging Properties dialog box, shown in Figure 1-31, select the
Scavenge Stale Resource Records check box, and then configure your preferred No-
Refresh Interval and Refresh Interval values.
4. Click OK twice.
You can also enable zone aging/scavenging with the Set-DnsServerZoneAging

Windows PowerShell cmdlet. For example:
Set-DnsServerZoneAging Contoso.com -Aging $True -ScavengeServers 172.16.0.10
Exam Tip
You can configure aging/scavenging for all zones by right-clicking a server in the DNS
Manager console and then clicking Set Aging/Scavenging for All Zones.
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To configure scavenging on a DNS server, in the DNS Manager console:
1. Right-click the appropriate DNS server and then click Properties.

2. In the Server Properties dialog box, click the Advanced tab.
3. Select the Enable Automatic Scavenging Of Stale Records check box, and then in the
Scavenging period box, specify the number of days, and then click OK.
You can enable DNS server aging/scavenging with the Set-DnsServerScavenging

Windows PowerShell cmdlet. For example:
Set-DnsServerScavenging -RefreshInterval 7.00:00:00
Exam Tip
You can force scavenging to be initiated by right-clicking a server in the DNS Manager
console and then clicking Scavenge Stale Resource Records. Alternatively, use the
Start-DnsServerScavenging Windows PowerShell command.
Configure record options

You can configure a number of options for resource records, including preference,
weight, priority, and tie to live.
Changing Preference, Weight, and Priority

Some resource records are assigned preference, weight, and priority values. These are
used when there are multiple records that point to the same service or server and you
want to control which servers are used first. For example, an AD DS domain controller
registers its Kerberos authentication service DNS resource records with a priority value
of 0 and a weight of 100,
You can adjust these initial values to determine which Kerberos authentication server is
used by clients. DNS clients attempt to use the server with the lowest priority value. If
multiple servers have the same priority value, clients use the server in proportion to their
weight values. Similarly, if multiple MX records exist for an email domain name, then the
server with the lowest preference value is used. You can adjust these values using the
DNS Manager console or the Windows PowerShell Add-DnsServerResourceRecord or
Set-DnsServerResourceRecord cmdlets using the Priority, Weight, and Preference
parameters.
Changing time to Live values

All resource records have a time to live (TTL) value. The TTL is used to determine how
long a record can reside in the DNS cache of a DNS client or DNS server that has
recently resolved the record. These values should be representative of how frequently
resource records change in your organization. If record values are fairly static, a higher
TTL is acceptable. If they change frequently, then setting a TTL too high results in DNS
cache being out of date, with resultant name resolution errors.
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Exam Tip
To change individual TTL values for resource records in a zone by using the DNS
Manager console, you must enable the Advanced view. In DNS Manager, click View,
and then click Advanced.
To change the TTL of a record in DNS Manager:
1. Right-click a resource record, and then click Properties.

2. In the Record Properties dialog box, in the Time to live (TTL) box, type the preferred
value in days, hours, minutes, and seconds and then click OK.
Alternatively, use the Windows PowerShell Add-DnsServerResourceRecord or Set-

DnsServerResourceRecord cmdlets with the -TimetoLive parameter.
Configure unknown record support

Windows Server 2016 adds support in the DNS server role for Unknown Records.
Unknown Records are resource records with a format that is foreign to the Microsoft
DNS server. Support for these unknown records means that you can add the
unsupported record types into your zones to support specific apps that require them.
The Windows DNS server does not perform record-specific processing for these
unknown records, but does respond to DNS client requests for these records.
Exam Tip
You can use the Add-DnsServerResourceRecord Windows PowerShell cmdlet with the -
Unknown parameter to create unknown resource records.
Configure round robin

You can use DNS round robin to help to distribute load across servers providing the
same service. For example, if you had three web servers in your network and you
wanted to distribute the client load across all three equally, one solution is to configure
the same host resource record (www.contoso.com) and point it to three different IP
addresses. For example:
 www.contoso.com 60 IN A 172.16.0.10
Round robin works by responding to each client request for the resolution
of www.contoso.com with a differently ordered list of IP addresses. On the first request,
the server with the IPv4 address of 172.16.0.10 is returned at the top of the list. Next,
172.16.0.12 is returned first on the list, and so on.
You configure round robin on DNS server on the Advanced server settings dialog box. It
is enabled by default. You can also use the Set-DnsServer Windows PowerShell cmdlet.
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Exam Tip
You can also use netmask ordering to achieve a similar result, but in this case, a client
receives the result that is most relevant to their location, based on their subnet.
Configure DNS scopes

Windows Server 2016 supports two types of DNS scopes. These are recursion scopes
and zone scopes. Recursion scopes are a collection of settings that define recursion
behavior in a DNS zone, while zone scopes are collections of resource records. To
create, configure, and apply DNS scopes, you must use Windows Server 2016 DNS
policies.
Note Recursion Scopes
Implementing recursion scopes is covered in the “Configure recursion” section.
Configuring zone scopes

In Windows Server 2016, you can configure your DNS zones to have multiple zone
scopes. Each zone scope contains its own set of DNS resource records. A resource
record can exist in multiple zone scopes, each with different IP addresses depending on
the scope. You can also use the zone scope to control zone transfers, enabling resource
records from a zone scope in a primary zone to be transferred to the same zone scope
in a secondary zone.
Typically, the first step in creating a zone scope is to create and configure client subnets.
You do this in reference to your physical network topology. For example, to create
subnet for DNS clients in New York and another for clients in London, use the following
Windows PowerShell commands:
Add-DnsServerClientSubnet -Name "NYCSubnet" -IPv4Subnet "172.16.0.0/24"
Add-DnsServerClientSubnet -Name "LONSubnet" -IPv4Subnet "172.16.1.0/24"

Next, you create the DNS zone scopes for New York and London DNS clients by using
the following commands:
Add-DnsServerZoneScope -ZoneName "Adatum.com" -Name "NYCZoneScope"
Add-DnsServerZoneScope -ZoneName "Adatum.com" -Name "LONZoneScope"

Configuring records in zone scopes
After you create the zone scopes, you must populate them with resource records. Again,
you must do this with Windows PowerShell. To create a specific IP address record for
clients in the New York City zone scope, run the following command:
Add-DnsServerResourceRecord -ZoneName "Adatum.com" -A -Name "www" -

IPv4Address
"172.16.0.41" -ZoneScope "NYCZoneScope"
For clients in the London City zone scope, run the following command:
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Add-DnsServerResourceRecord -ZoneName "Adatum.com" -A -Name "www" -

IPv4Address
"172.16.1.22" -ZoneScope "LONZoneScope"
Configuring policies for zones
Finally, you must create the policies that instruct the DNS servers to respond to client
queries based upon the previously defined factors. To configure the DNS servers to
respond with resource records from the New York zone scope, create a DNS policy:
Add-DnsServerQueryResolutionPolicy -Name "NYCPolicy" -Action ALLOW -

ClientSubnet
"eq,NYCSubnet" -ZoneScope "NYCZoneScope,1" -ZoneName "Adatum.com"
Similarly, for clients based in the London zone scope, you must add another policy:
Add-DnsServerQueryResolutionPolicy -Name "LONPolicy" -Action ALLOW -

ClientSubnet
"eq,LONSubnet" -ZoneScope "LONZoneScope,1" -ZoneName "Adatum.com"
Now, if a client in the New York subnet petitions a DNS server for the IPv4 address of
the www.adatum.com host, the DNS server responds with the IP address 172.16.0.41. If
a client in London requests the same record, the client receives the IPv4 address
172.16.1.22.
Note DNS Policies
Implementing DNS policies is also covered in “Implement DNS policies.”
Monitor DNS
Since DNS is such a critical service, providing name resolution and service location for
configured clients, it is important that you ensure that DNS is running reliably and is
optimized. To help you achieve this, you can use a number of monitoring and auditing
tools in Windows Server.
Use DNS audit events and analytical events

Windows Server 2016 can collect a vast amount of logging data. Much of this logging is
enabled by default, but features such as Debug logging (discussed in the “Configure
DNS logging” section) must first be enabled before you can use them.
You can also use DNS Audit events and DNS Analytic events.
 DNS Audit Events These are enabled by default. Use to enable change tracking on
your DNS servers. Every time a server, zone, or resource record is edited, an audit
event is logged. Event IDs numbered 513 through 582 are logged in this regard, and are
explained on the following website.
 DNS Analytic Events These are disabled by default. Windows logs an analytic event
every time the DNS server sends or receives DNS information. Event IDs numbered 257
through 280 are logged in this regard, and are explained on the website listed below.
Need More Review? Analytic Events
Viewing Audit and Analytical Events

To view audit events, use the following procedure:
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1. Open Event Viewer.

2. Expand Application And Services Logs, expand Microsoft, expand Windows, and then
click DNS-Server.
3. Click the Audit folder, as shown in Figure 1-33. You can review events from here.
To view analytic events, use the following procedure:
1. Open Event Viewer.

2. Expand Application And Services Logs, expand Microsoft, expand Windows, and then
click DNS-Server.
3. Right-click DNS-Server, click View, and then click Show Analytic And Debug Logs. The
Analytical and Audit log folders display,
4. Right-click Analytical and then click Enable Log.
5. In the Event Viewer pop-up dialog box, click OK.
Need More Review? DNS Logging and Diagnostics
Analyze zone level statistics

Introduced in Windows Server 2012 R2, and improved in Windows Server 2016, DNS
zone level statistics enable you to understand how a DNS server is being used for each
authoritative zone on that server.
You can gather and view the following zone level statistics:
 Zone queries Provides the number of:

 Queries received
 Successful responses
 Failed query responses
 Name error responses
 Zone transfers Provides the number of zone transfer:
 Requests received when operating as a primary server for a specific zone
 Requests sent when operating as a secondary server for a specific zone
 Requests received when operating as a secondary server for a specific zone
 Zone transfers statistics also provide the number of zone transfers
 Received by the DNS Server service when operating as a secondary server for a
specific zone
 Sent by the DNS Server service when operating as a master server for a specific
zone
 Zone updates Provides the total number of
 Dynamic update requests received
 Dynamic updates rejected
To access these statistics, use the Windows PowerShell Get-DnsServerStatistics

cmdlet. For example:
Get-DnsServerStatistics -ZoneName "Adatum.com"

Need More Review? DNS Zone Level Statistics
Chapter summary
 You can install the DNS server role on Windows Server 2016 and Nano Server.
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 DNS forwarders, recursion, and root hints enable you to control the flow of DNS query
traffic throughout your organization’s network.
 You can implement DNSSEC, DNS socket pool, cache locking, DANE, and response
rate limiting to help to secure your DNS infrastructure from malicious attacks.
 DNS policies in Windows Server 2016 help you configure DNS behavior throughout your
organization without needing to manually configure each DNS server.
 DNS logging can help you to pinpoint problems with the DNS servers in your
organization before they can affect your users.
 The DNS server role is affected by CPU and memory resources, and proactive
monitoring of these resources can be beneficial.
 Although the DNS namespace is based on domains and subdomains, the data that
maintains this namespace is stored in DNS zones.
 Secondary zones receive updates via their configured master server.
 DNS delegation enables a part of your DNS namespace, such as a child domain, to be
authoritatively maintained in a separate zone.
 AD DS-integrated zones provide for multimaster updates, secure replication, and secure
dynamic updates.
 Conditional forwarding provides similar function to stub zones.
 DNS scopes are based on DNS policies.
DNS Delegation is the process of dividing up different parts of the DNS name space.
This name space can be independently managed. This video looks at how to divide up
DNS so different parts can be stored on different servers and managed independently.
What is DNS Delegation?

DNS Delegation allows the DNS namespace to be expanded. For example additional
sub domains can be created like east and west. These can then be stored on different
DNS servers. This allows that part of the DNS namespace to be managed by different
people, for example, by different IT administrators. Dividing up the namespace can also
be done for performance reasons. Having the DNS namespace on multiple servers and
can give faster name resolution and also allows for better fault toleration.
Demonstration
1) To create a new DNS delegation, open Server Manager. If your DNS server is not
present in Server Manager, right click “All Servers” and add the DNS server. It is
possible to add a DNS server using its IP Address. However, if that DNS server is not
part of the domain or trust relationship does not exist, Server Manager will not be able to
create a connection to it.
2) Launch DNS Manager by right clicking a server in the server manager if DNS installed
on it and selecting the option “DNS Manager”. It is also possible to run DNS Manager by
selecting the tools menu and selecting DNS Manager from the list.
3) To add additional DNS Servers, right click DNS at the top of the DNS Manager and
select the option “Connect to DNS Server”. When prompted, enter in the DNS server
address or its IP Address.
4) To create a new namespace. Right click the Forward Lookup Zone that you want to
create the DNS zone in and select the option new zone. Creating the zone is the same
process as creating a standard DNS zone.
5) Once a zone has been created, a DNS delegation needs to be created in the zone
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above it telling it where this new zone is. To do this, right click on the zone and select the
option New Delegation.
6) The delegation wizard will ask for the name of the delegated DNS zone and also the
name of the DNS server that is an authoritative DNS server for that DNS name. If the
DNS server does not resolve, the IP Address for the DNS server can be used instead.
Once this is done, the DNS server will pass DNS requests to the other DNS server.
References
“Understanding Zone
Delegation” http://technet.microsoft.com/en-us/library/cc771640.aspx
A delegation is a record in a parent zone that lists a name server that is authoritative for
thezone in the next level of the hierarchy.Delegations make it possible for servers in
onezone to refer clients to servers in other zones.
Zone name servers (also known as root nameservers) are servers that maintain a list
of every domain's name servers. In summary, they tell web browsers where to find a
certain domain's name servers. Then the domain's name serverstell the browser where
that domain's website is located by returning an IP address.
A "domain" represents the entire set of names / machines that are contained under an
organizational domain name. For example, alldomain names ending with ".com" are
part of the "com" domain. A "zone" is a domain less any sub-domains delegated to
other DNS servers (see NS-records).
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Hardware Network Service Level III and IV: Answer: (D)

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Hardware Network Service Level III and IV

1. Which address is used in an internet employing the TCP/IP protocols?

16. Communication between a computer and a keyboard involves ______________

c) A network with more than one exit point.

d) either (a) or (c)

1. How long is an IPv6 address?

4. What command is used to create a backup configuration?

B. copy running-config startup-config

8. To back up an IOS, what command will you use?

B. copy ios tftp

C. copy tftp flash

12. Which command is used to determine if an IP access list is enabled on a particular

D. show interface access-lists

13. Where is a hub specified in the OSI model?

C. Data Link layer

14. What does the passive command provide to dynamic routing protocols?

C. Stops the router from receiving any dynamic updates.

D. Stops the router from sending any dynamic updates.

B. Shut down the router.

C. Set your console password.

D. Disable console connections.

23. What is a stub network?

B. A network with more than one exit and entry point.

C. A network with only one entry and no exit point.

D. A network that has only one entry and exit point.

D. RouterA(config-if)#clock rate 64000

25. Which one of the following is true regarding VLANs?

VLANs only work if you have a complete Cisco switched internetwork. No

VTP is used to send VLAN information to switches in a configured VTP

B. Provides multiple collision domains on one switch port.

C. Breaks up broadcast domains in a layer 2 switch internetwork.

D. Provides multiple broadcast domains within a single collision domain.

B. So application developers can change only one layer's protocols at a time.

C. So different networks could communicate.

D. So Cisco could use the model.

Layer 2 switching creates individual collision domains.

C. show frame-relay pvc

30. Which protocol does Ping use?

B. copy tftp start

D. copy tftp flash

33. What protocols are used to configure trunking on a switch?

1. Which of the following services use TCP?

Transport layer of the OSI model.

3. Which of the following describe the DHCP Discover message?

Dynamic Host Configuration Protocol (DHCP) is used to provide IP information to hosts on

5 Which of the following is private IP address?

8. Which of the following services use UDP?

12. Which statements are true regarding ICMP packets?

13. Which of the following are layers in the TCP/IP model?

15. Which statements are true regarding ICMP packets?

layer protocol. Transmission Control Protocol (TCP) is a Transport layer protocol.

17. What protocol is used to find the hardware address of a local device?

18. Which of the following protocols uses both TCP and UDP?

19. What is the address range of a Class B network address in binary?

Router#show serial 0/0

Why was this error message displayed?

D None of the above

4. You type show running-config and get this output:

What do the two numbers following the exec-timeout command mean?