1.

Lowest layer of atmosphere is

a. Troposphere
b. Tropopause
c. Stratosphere
2. Height of Tropopause at equator is
a. 10-12 km
b. 16-18 km
c. 12-14 km
3. Height of Tropopause at Poles is
a. 12-14 km
b. 12-13 km
c. 08-10 km
4. Higher the surface temperature would be the tropopause

a. Higher
b. Lower
c. Same
5. Height of tropopause
a. Is constant
b. Varies with altitude
c. Varies with Latitude
6. Above 8 km the lower temperatures are over
a. Equator
b. Mid Latitudes
c. Poles
7. Atmosphere is heated by
a. Solar Radiation
b. Heat from earth surface
c.
8. Tropos means
a. Turning
b. Under current
c. Convection
9. CO2 and H2O are also called ...
a. Green House Gases
b. Rare Earth Gases
10. Troposphere is generally
a. Stable
b. Unstable
c. Neutral
11. Stratosphere is
a. Unstable
b. Neutral
c. Stable
12. Tropopause is discontinuous at about
a. 30°lat
b. 40°Iat
c. 60°lat
13. Most of atmospheric mass is contained in ...
a. Troposphere
b. Stratosphere
c. Heterosphere
14. Stratosphere extends from Tropopause to
a. 50 km
b. 60 km
c. 40 km
15. The middle atmosphere layer characterised by temperature inversion and stability...
a. Troposphere
b. Tropopause
c. Stratosphere
16. Mother of pearl clouds occur in………….
a. Mesosphere
b. Thermosphere
c. Stratosphere
17. The temperature in ISA at 17 km is ..
a. -56.5°C
b. -65.5° C
c. -35.5° C
18. By weight, approximate ratio of O2 to N2 in the atmosphere is
a. 1:3
b. 1:4
c. 1:5
19. By volume, the approximate ratio of O2 to N2 in the atmosphere is
a. 1:3
b. 1:4
c. 1:5
20. By volume, the proportion CO2 in the atmosphere is
a. 3%
b. 0.3%
c. 0.03%
21. In ISA, the mean sea level temperature is
a. 15° C
b. 10° C
c. 25°C
22. Maximum concentration of ozone is at 3 height of
a. 10-15 km
b. 20-25 km
c. 30-35 km
23. Additional oxygen is needed while flying above
a. 5000 ft
b. 7000 ft
c. 10000 ft
24. CO2 and H2O keep the atmosphere
a. Warm
b. Cold
c. Have no effect
25. Noctilucent clouds occur in
a. Thermosphere
b. Mesosphere
c. Stratosphere
26. Temperature at 2 km is 05 °C what is ISA deviation
a. -05°C
b. -02° C
c. -03°C
27. Pressure at MSL is 1002.25 hPa. Find the ISA deviation
a. 11 hPa
b. 10 hPa
c. 12 hPa
28. In actual atmosphere temp, at 19 km is -60°C. How much it differs from ISA
a. -4.5°C
b. -05.5° C
c. -03.5°C

Atmospheric Pressure
1. Winds in a low pressure
a. Converge
b. Diverge
c. Go straight
2. Low pressure is associated with
a. Good Weather
b. Bad Weather
c. None
3. In a high pressure area winds are
a. Normal
b. Strong
c. Weak
4. Flying from Low to High an altimeter would read

a. Over
b. Under
c. constant
5. Isallobars are lines of equal
a. Pressure
b. Temperature Tendency
c. Pressure Tendency
6. What kind of a barometer is an altimeter?
a. Aneroid
b. Mercury
c. Alcohol
7. A region between two Lows and Two Highs is
a. Depression
b. Secondary Low
c. Col
8. Bad weather and better visibility is associate with
a. High
b. Low
c. Col
9. The relationship between height and pressure is made use in construction of
a. Altimeter
b. ASI
c. VSI
10. Altimeter always measure the ht of aircraft
a. Above MSL
b. Above datum level of 1013.2 hPa
c. Above datum level at which its sub-scale is set
11. Two aircraft flying at the same indicated altitude with their altimeter set to 1013.2
hPa. One is flying over cold air mass and other over warm air mass. Which of the two has
greater altitude?
a. Ac flying over warm air mass
b. Ac flying over cold air mass
12. The rate of fall of pressure with height in a warm air mass compared to cold air mass
will be
a. Same
b. More
c. Less
13. An increase of 1000 feet in elevation near the earth is associated with decrease of
pressure of
a. 100 hPa
b. 1000 hPa
c. 3 hPa
d. 33 hPa
14. Lines drawn through places of equal pressure are known as
a. Isobars
b. Isotherms
c. Isogonal
d. Isoclinal
15. Isoclinal
a. Trough has frontal characteristics
b. After crossing the axis of trough winds back
c. After crossing the axis of trough winds veer
16. Diurnal pressure changes are most pronounced in
a. Polar region
b. Middle latitudes
c. Tropics
17. Flying from Delhi to Calcutta at constant indicated altitude but, experiencing a drift to
Starboard. The actual altitude will be (Vis-a-vis) indicated altitude
a. Lower
b. Same
c. Higher
18. In the Southern Hemisphere, around a Low Pressure Area wind blows
a. In clockwise direction
b. In anticlockwise direction
c. Across isobars towards the centre
19. If altimeter reads aerodrome elevation when a/c is on ground, its sub-scale must
have been set
a. QNH
b. QNE
c. QFF
d. QFE
20. Instrument for recording pressure is called
a. Anemograph
b. Barometer
c. Hygrograph
21. Poor visibility is associated with
a. High
b. Low
c. Col
22. On either side of pressures rise
a. Trough
b. Ridge
c. Low
23. Fall of pressure with height is more rapid in
a. Cold areas
b. Warm areas
c. Humid areas
24. 300 hPa in ISA corresponds to the level
a. 20,000ft
b. 30,000 ft
c. 35,000 ft
25. 18,000 ft height in ISA corresponds to level
a. 700 hPa
b. 200 hPa
c. 500 hPa
26. 200 hPa in ISA corresponds to the level
a. 20,000ft
b. 30,000 ft
c. 40,000 ft
27. 24,000 ft height in ISA corresponds to level
a. 400 hPa
b. 500 hPa
c. 300 hPa
28. 700 hPa in ISA corresponds to the level
a. 20,000ft
b. 10,000 ft
c. 18,000 ft
29. 40,000 ft height in ISA corresponds to level
a. 400 hPa
b. 500 hPa
c. 200 hPa

30. 850 hPa in ISA corresponds to the level

a. 7,000ft
b. 5,000 ft

c.

TEMPERATURE
1. Diurnal variation of temperature is greatest when wind is
a. calm
b. light
c. strong
2. Diurnal variation of temperature is maximum over
a. forest
b. ocean
c. land
3. On a clear day the amount of radiation received by earth surface is
a. 3/4 th
b. 30%
c. 5/6 th
4. ALBEDO is
a. Radiation received by earth
b. Amount of heat
c. Reflecting power of earth
5. During Day the ambient temperature is ... than ground

a. Lower
b. Higher
c. Same
6. Diurnal variation of temperature over ocean is ...
a. More than land
b. Above 3°C
c. Less than 1°C
7. At a coast diurnal variation of temp, depends on ..
a. Wind direction
b. Wind speed
c. Radiation
8. Snow surface reflects about % of solar radiation.
a. 75%
b. 80%
c. 90%
9. Amount of Solar radiation received per unit area is ...
a. Insolation
b. Convection
c. Radiation
10. Solar radiation received by the earth is called..
a. Long Wave
b. Albedo
c. Shortwave
11. Rise in temperature of a surface is proportional to its specific heat
a. Directly
b. Indirectly

12. Specific heat of land is than that of water

a. Lower
b. Same
c. Higher
13. Minimum temperature is reached at ...
a. sunrise
b. midnight
c. 1/2 - 1 hour after dawn
14. An air parcel is lifted till it gets saturated. The temperature attained at this stage is
called
a. Potential temperature
b. Dew Point
c. Wet bulb
15. Cloudy nights are
a. cold
b. normal
c. warm
16. Water vapour is transparent to terrestrial radiation
a. completely
b. partially
c. indifferent
17. Higher the temperature ... would be the wavelength of emitted radiation
a. longer
b. shorter

18. Air is a bad conductor of heat. A parcel of air can therefore be regarded as insulated
from the environment
a. False
b. True

19. Warmer the earth ... will be the Nocturnal radiation

a. larger
b. smaller

20. Heat is the of the KE of all molecules and atoms of a substance

a. sum total
b. average
21. The solar radiation consists of about 46 %
a. UV
b. IR
c. Visible
22. The total amount of energy radiated by a black body is proportional to
a. T2
b. T3
c. T4

23. Intense radiation are emitted by

a. Hot bodies
b. Cold bodies
c. Stars
24. The wavelength of most intense radiation is inversely proportional to the....
a. Absolute temperature
b. Humidity
c. Albedo
25. Hot bodies (like sun) radiate
a. Short Waves
b. Long Waves
c. Both
26. The flow of heat from earth surface is 77% by
a. Sensible Heat
b. Latent Heat

27. -40° C - -40° F

a. True
b. False
28. Surface Temp, is recorded at a height of above ground
a. 1.5 m
b. 1.25m
c. 2m
29. The door of Stevenson's screen should open
a. opposite to sun
b. into sun
c. any direction
30. The liquid used in Minimum Thermometer is
a. mercury
b. alcohol

ATMOSPHERIC DENSTY / Air Density

1. Density is at poles than equator

a. Higher

b. Lower

c. Same

2. Above 8 km density is at poles than at equator

a. Higher

b. Lower

c. Same

3. The altitude in ISA at which air density is the same as the observed density is called

a. Density Altitude

b. ISA Density

c. Real Density

4. Density is usually expressed as

a. Kg/sq m
b. g/cu m

c. N/sq m

5. Higher density altitude means density

a. Higher

b. Lower

c. Same

6. For given pressure and temperature moist air has density

a. Higher

b. Lower

c. Same

7. Air is less denser in

a. High Altitudes

b. Warm Air

c. High humidity

d. All these

8. Density altitude may be defined as:

a. The altitude in a standard atmosphere at which the prevailing pressure occurs.

b. The altitude in a standard atmosphere at which the prevailing density occurs.

c. Surface of constant atmospheric pressure related to standard atmosphere of 1013.2 hPa

HUMIDITY

1. The ratio in % between the amount of water vapour present in the air to the amount of water
vapour that it can hold at the same temperature is

a. Humidity

b. Relative humidity

c. Dew point

2. The temperature to which air be cooled at constant pressure to become saturated, is called
a. Wet bulb temperature

b. Dry bulb temperature

c. Dew point

d. Humidity

3. Free air temperature, Wet bulb temperature and Dew point temperature are equal when

a. Air temperature is 0°C

b. Relative humidity is 100%

c. Air temperature is not below 0°C

4. On a rainy day compared to sunny day the length of runway required is

a. More

b. Less

c. Same

5. The spread between Free air temperature and Dew point temperature is .... when air is saturated

a. Large

b. Least

c. Same

6. The saturation vapour pressure over water is than the ice

a. More

b. Less

c. Same

7. As the temperature of the air increases, the amount of water vapour required to saturate it

a. decreases

b. increases

c. remains same

8. The actual amount of water vapour contained in a given volume of air at a given temperature is
termed as ...

a. Relative Humidity

b. Specific Humidity
c. Absolute Humidity

9. Humidity Mixing Ratio ……. when air is lifted adiabatically

a. decreases

b. remains constant

c. increases

10. It is the lowest temperature which air would attain by evaporating water into it to saturate it.

a. Wet bulb temp

b. Dry bulb temp

c. Dew point

Wind

1. In S hemisphere if an observer faces wind, low will be to his

a. Right

b. Left

2. In N hemisphere due to rotation of earth winds are deflected to

a. Left

b. Right

3. Local Winds follow Buys Ballots law

a. False

b. True

4. Coriolis force acts perpendicular towards of wind direction

a. Left

b. Right
5. Geostrophic wind is due to the balance between the forces

a. Coriolis and Friction

b. Pressure gradient and Cyclostrophic

c. Pressure gradient and Coriolis

6. Coriolis force is strongest at

a. Mid latitudes

b. Poles

c. Equator

7. Geostrophic rule breaks down at

a. Mid latitudes

b. Poles

c. Equator

8. Fohn winds are on the Leeward side of a mountain,

a. Dry &Warm

b. Cold & Humid

9. The wind sliding down a hill during night is called wind.

a. Fohn

b. Anabatic

c. Katabatic

10. With the onset of sea breeze there is a in temperature and in RH.

a. Fall/Rise

b. Rise/Fall

c. Fall/Fall

11. Sea breeze sets in by and dies off at

a. Night/Day

b. Day/Night

c. Both Day and Night

12. If an aircraft in N-hemisphere flies from H to L it will experience

a. Starboard drift

b. Port drift

13. In N-Hemisphere if you experience Port drift , altimeter will read

a. Under

b. Over

14. Lines of constant wind speed drawn on weather charts are called

a. Isobars

b. Isotachs

c. Isogons

15. Squall are distinguished from gusts by:

a. Shorter duration

b. Longer duration

c. Lower wind speed

16. The thermal wind is:

a. The wind that blows because of thermals

b. The warm wind that blows down the hül on the leeward side

c. The wind which must be added vectorilly to the lower level geostrophic wind to obtain the upper
level geostrophic wind

17. On a weather map where isobars are closely packed, the surface winds are likelyto be

a. Light and parallel to isobars

b. Strong and parallel to isobars

c. Strong and blowing acros theisobars

18. Anabatic wind occurs

a. At night

b. Any time of day and night

c. During day

19. Anabatic wind is stronger than katabatic

a. True

b. False

20. Katabatic wind is down slope cold wind due to nocturnal cooling

a. True

b. False

21. Katabatic wind occur due to sinking of air down the hill slope

a. True

b. False

22. Anabatic wind occur due to downward movement of air along valley

a. True

b. False

23. Sea breeze is stronger than land breeze

a. True

b. False

24. The wind blows clockwise around low in a N-hemisphere

a. True

b. False

25. The wind blows clockwise around low in S-hemisphere

a. True

b. False

26. The wind blows anticlockwise around low in N-hemisphere

a. True
b. False

27. The wind blows anticlockwise around low in S- hemisphere

a. True

b. False

28. The resultant wind that blows under the influence of pressure gradient force, geostrophic force and
cyclostrophic force is called

a. Gradient wind

b. Geostrophic wind

29. Due to friction, from day to night for an isobaric pattern (in N hemisphere) Surface wind backs and
lulls

a. True

b. False

30. The winds which spiral inward in a counter-clockwise direction in the NH are associated with

a. Turbulence

b. High pressure area

c. Low pressure area

31. Lower level wind 05010 kt, upper level wind 23005 kt, what is the thermal wind

a. 05005 kt

b. 23015 kt

c. 05015 kt

32. A change in wind direction from 310° to 020° is

a. Backing

b. Veering

33. A change from 270° to 250° is

a. Backing
b. Veering

34. Sudden change in wind speed from 10 kt to 30 kt and then to 15 kt is

a. Gust

b. Squall

35. Sudden change in wind speed from 10 kt to 30 kt for more than a minute or so is

a. Squall

b. Gust

36. A significant wind shear can be associated with TS or line squall

a. False

b. True

37. Cyclostrophic wind gives a good approximation of the 2000' wind in an intense tropical storm

a. True

b. False

38. Rotor clouds have extremely turbulent flying conditions

a. False

b. True

39. Friction causes winds to flow cross isobaric by over land and .... over sea

a. 30/15°

b. 20/30°

c. 40/30°

40. If temperature is higher to the S and lower to the N from surface up to higher levels , then the
wind will strengthen with height with no change in direction in N hemisphere

a. Ely

b. Wly
c. Sly

d. Nly

41. Gradient wind is of geostrophic wind in an anticyclone

a. Under estimate

b. Accurate

c. Over estimate

42. Gale is

a. persistent strong winds with mean speed 44 kt, associated with thunderstorm

b. marked increase in wind speed lasing few minutes associated with CB or dust storm

c. persistent strong winds exceeding 33 kt, associated with depression

43. In N hemisphere thermal wind is parallel to ...with low value to left

a. Isobars

b. Isotherms

c. Isallobars

ATMOSPHERIC VISIBILITY

44. Fog is reported when visibility is reduced to

a. Less than 1000 m

b. 1000m

c. 1000 to 2000

45. RVR is reported when visibility falls below

a. 500 m

b. 1000 m

c. 1500 m

d. 2000 m

46. Radiation fog occurs

a. Over land

b. Over sea

c. During day
47. When visibility reduces between 5000 m and 1000 m and RH is almost 100%, it is

a. Mist

b. Haze

c. Fog

48. Radiation Fog forms over N India during

a. May to June

b. Dec to Feb

c. Oct to Nov

49. Warm and moist air moving over a cold ground gives rise to:

a. Thunder clouds

b. Fog and stratus

c. Frontal clouds

50. Warm and moist air moving over a cold surface causes

a. Radiation Fog

b. Advection Fog

c. Frontal Fog

51. The radiation fog forms due to

a. Heating of the earth during day

b. Radiational cooling of earth at night

c. Advection of cold air

52. The radiation fog activity increases after the passage of a...

a. WD

b. Depression

c. Col

53. Radiation fog is essentially a phenomena

a. Nocturnal

b. Dusk

c. Day
54. The radiation fog forms over

a. Water

b. Land

c. Both

55. The fog lorms due to horizontal movement of air

a. Radiation

b. Advection

c. Frontal

56. Advection fog forms during

a. night only

b. day time only

c. any time of day and night

57. For formation of Radiation fog

a. There should be sufficient moisture in atmosphere, cloudy sky, nil wind

b. There should be sufficient moisture in atmosphere, clear sky, light wind.

c. There should be sufficient moisture in atmosphere, cloudy sky, strong wind

58. Instrument used for measuring visibility...

a. Visiometer

b. Transmissometer

c. Ceilometer

59. Advection fog forms

a. over sea

b. over Land

c. both over land and sea

METEOROLOGICAL SERVICES FOR AVIATION

1. For non-scheduled National Flights an advance notice (before ETD) is required to be given to Class
I Met Offices

a. 3 hr

b. 18-24 hr

c. 6 hr

2. For non-scheduled National Flights advance notice an advance notice (before ETD) is required to
be given to Class III Met Offices

a. 3 hr

b. 18-24 hr

c. 6 hr

3. World Area Forecast System provides high quality en-route forecasts of to Met Offices

a. Met Offices

b. en-route forests of winds and temperature

c. SIGMET

d. TREND

4. IMD has Regional Met offices

a. 4

b. 5

c. 6

5. There arc Class I Met Offices

a. 14

b. 19

c. 16

6. There are Class III Met Offices

a. 42

b. 52

c. 62

7. In AIREP the Met Information is contained in Section

a. 1

b. 2

c. 3

8. TAF are generally valid for

a. 18 hr

b. 12 hr

c. 9hr

9. The validity of Landing Forecast (TREND) is

a. 1 hr

b. 2 hr

c. 3 hr

10. Landing Forecast is append to

a. METAR and SPECI

b. TAF

c. AIREP

11. Local Forecast is issued three times a day valid for next

a. 18 hr

b. 8hr

c. 9hr

12. Local Forecast covers an area

a. 50 NM

b. 100 NM

c. 150 NM

13. Prognostic Charts are issued by

a. RAFC

b. Class I Met Offices

c. MWO

14. Prognostic Charts are valid for

a. 18 hr
b. 12 hr

c. 9hr

15. S1G Wx Chart are issued for Flight Levels

a. below 460

b. 460

c. above 460

16. CODAR is

a. Radar Report

b. Upper report from an aircraft (other than weather reconnaissance aircraft)

c. Coded ARFOR

17. WINTEM is

a. Actual upper winds

b. Forecast upper wind and temperature

c. Actual temperature and upper winds

18. SIGMET is a notice of severe weather for

a. actual

b. expected

c. both

19. SIGMET is issued for aircraft

a. in flight

b. on ground

c. both

20. SIGMET is issued by

a. RAFC

b. Class I Met Offices

c. MWO

21. SIGMET is valid for

a. 4 hr

b. 18 hr
c. 6 hr

22. SIGMET is not issued for

a. Rain

b. Volcanic Ash

c. SEV Icing

23. AIRMET is issued by a MWO for the occurrence or expected occurrence of en-route weather
phenomena, which may affect the safety of

a. low-level aircraft

b. high -level aircraft

c. both

24. GAMET is an area forecast in abbreviated plain language for

a. high -level aircraft

b. low-level aircraft

c. both

25. The validity of Airfield warnings is not exceeding

a. 3 hr

b. 4 hr

c. 6 hr

26. Airfield warning is issued for expected wind speed

a. 30 kt

b. 24 kt

c. 15 kt

27. Airfield warning is issued for wind direction of 20 kt changes by

a. 45°

b. 30°

c. 60°

28. Airfield Warning for gliders, light aircraft and helicopters is issued for expected wind speed

a. 15 kt

b. 17 kt
c. 30 kt

29. Wind Shear Warning is issued for the observed or expected wind shear above runway

a. up to 500 m

b. above 500 m

c. 300 m

30. VOLMET is a MET information for aircraft

a. on ground

b. in flight

c. both

31. VOLMET Radio Telephony Broadcast made on HF Channel from

a. Mumbai only

b. Kolkata only

c. both

32. VOLMET consists of

a. SIGMET

b. TAP only

c. TAF and METAR

33. In ROBEX the messages exchanged are METAR/SPECI of international aerodromes and their
alternates

a. within India

b. outside India

34. SIG Weather Charts are issued .... times a day

a. Two

b. Three

c. Four

GENERAL CIRCULATION
1. The pole wards moving air piles up in the subtropical regions and forms high pressure belt at the
surface, called

a. Subtropical high

b. Polar High

c. Equatorial high

2. occurs over subtropical high

a. advection

b. convection

c. subsidence

3. The occurrence of large deserts near 30N and 305 are due to large scale

a. subsidence

b. convection

c. advection

4. A part of the sinking air over the subtropical highs flows towards the equator, turning west (in the
northern hemisphere) due to the Coriolis force. This surface air is called

a. Trade winds

b. Roaring forties

c. Doldrums

5. The huge vertical circulations, one between the equator and 3 ON and another between equator
and 30S, are called

a. Hadley Cells

b. Ferrel Cells

c. Polar cells

6. The descending branch of the Hadley cell marked by calm winds and high pressure at the surface
are called

a. Tropical Latitudes

b. Middle latitudes

c. Horse Latitudes

7. The winds in the upper troposphere are westerly. These are known as
a. Natural Westerlies

b. Steady Westerlies

c. Zonal Westerlies

8. In the equatorial regions the upper tropospheric winds are

a. Westerlies

b. Easterlies

c. Zonal Westerlies

9. The disturbances of middle latitudes move from

a. W to E

b. E to W

c. N to S

d. S to N

10. The tropical disturbances which form in the equatorial low pressure belt move in a

a. Easterly direction

b. Westerly direction

c. Southerly direction

11. Tropical disturbance which reach the zone of transition in the upper level flow change course and
begin to move in a

a. Perpendicular direction

b. Opposite direction

c. Southwards

12. Latitudinally, on the average there is radiation in the tropics than in the polar regions

a. surplus

b. Deficit

c. balance

13. The systems like highs, lows, cyclonic circulation etc are associated with distinct types of weather. A
study of the behaviour of these systems, known as

a. Synoptic Meteorology

b. Climatology
c. Physical Meteorology

14. Rising air creates calms or doldrums in the equatorial region.

a. ITCZ

b. Horse Latitudes

c. Equatorial Doldrums

15. Steady NE winds in the N hemisphere and SE winds in the S hemisphere are called.

a. Easterly winds

b. Trade Winds

c. Tropical Winds

Tropical Systems And CLIMATOLOGY OF INDIA

1. Wind speed in a tropicaJ severe cyclone is:

a. 27 -33 kt

b. 48 - 63 kt

c. 17-27 kt

2. Fronts are characteristic of:

a. Tropical cyclone

b. Extra-tropical depressions

c. Monsoon depressions

3. During re-curvature maximum weather in a monsoon depression occurs in

a. SE sector

b. NW sector

c. SW sector

d. NE sector

4. On whatever compass course the cyclone is approached, strong winds from the port indicate that
the centre lies somewhere

a. Ahead
b. Behind

c. Port

d. Starboard

5. The well developed extra tropical cyclonic storm is composed of two main frontal systems and an
occluded front, which varies in extent:

a. A stationary Front followed by a warm front

b. A low with a warm front radiating out Southwards followed by a cold front.

c. A warm front and an occluded front

d. None of the above

6. The weather expected in a well developed cyclonic storm is:

a. Moderate Weather

b. Stormy weather

c. Clear skies

d. No wind or temperature change

7. Cyclone always approach land areas before they die

a. True

b. False

8. The……….. is the most dangerous part of the cyclone is

a. eye wall

b. eye

9. No CS form

a. At Poles

b. At Equator

c. At Lat 40 deg

10. Life cycle of a tropical cyclone in India is

a. 2-3 Days

b. 10 Days

c. 6-7 Days

11. CS in Indian region are less intense because

a. They have a very short travel over the sea

b. Sea surface temp, are not high

c. India is close to Equator

12. CS in India are mostly of intensity

a. Severe

b. Very Weak

c. Moderate

13. Eye of a CS is surrounded by

a. Shelf Clouds

b. Wall Clouds

c. Rotor Clouds

14. Surge is sudden strengthening of wind in the ...air mass

a. Same

b. Different

c. Both

15. During winters

a. Advection fog occurs over northern & central part of India

b. Radiation fog occurs in southern part of country

c. Activity of Radiation fog increases after the passage of a WD over N India

16. Low Temperatures and low humidity is the characteristic of

a. Post Monsoon

b. Hot weather

c. Monsoon

d. Winter months

17. Hot weather period is

a. Jan-Feb

b. Mar-May

c. Jun-Sept
d. Oct - Dec

18. During hot weather

a. WDs cause TS / DS over Punjab & Rajasthan

b. No WD affect N-parts of country

c. Track of WD is southern most

19. The monsoon current over the West coast of India is

a. SWly

b. SEly

c. NEly

20. Monsoon period is

a. Jan to Feb

b. March to May

c. June to Sep

d. Oct to Dec

21. The monsoon advances with

a. Bay of Bengal current only

b. Arabian Sea current only

c. Bay of Bengal and Arabian sea currents

22. The rainfall over India during monsoon depends on

a. Low over Pakistan

b. Depression over Bay of Bengal

c. The position of the axis of Monsoon Trough

23. Rainfall occurs all over the country during monsoon when

a. Axis of MT is in its normal position along Gangetic plains

b. Axis of MT is along Himalayas

c. Depression has formed o-er Bay of Bengal

24. Break in monsoon occurs when

a. Axis of monsoon trough is along Gangetic plains

b. Axis of monsoon trough is along foot hills of Himalayas

c. Depression over Bay of Bengal

25. With a depression over the head Bay fair weather during monsoon occurs over

a. Assam

b. W Bengal

c. Orissa

26. Monsoon is also called

a. NE monsoon

b. SW monsoon

c. SE monsoon

27. Post monsoon weather period re

a. Mar to May

b. Jun to Sept

c. Oct to Nov

d. Jan to Feb

28. During post monsoon, pressure gradient over India is

a. weak

b. steep

c. same as winters

29. During monsoon period, low pressure lies over

a. Bay of Bengal

b. NE India

c. Central India

d. Pakistan

30. During vigorous monsoon period the pressure gradient over west coast is

a. Weak

b. Steep

c. Normal

31. An aircraft flying in Monsoon season from Chennai to Kolkata at 14 km will experience winds

a. Easterly
b. Westerly

c. Nly

d. Southerly

32. An aircraft flying in Winter season from Chennai to Kolkata at 12 km will experience winds

a. Ely

b. Wly

c. Nly

d. Sly

33. An aircraft flying in Pre monsoon season from Delhi to Kolkata at 10 km will experience winds

a. Easterly

b. Westerly

c. Northerly

d. Southerly

34. An aircraft flying in Monsoon season from Mumbai to Ahmedabad at 03 km will experience winds

a. SEly

b. SWIy

c. Nly

d. NWly

35. An aircraft flying in winter season from Delhi to Kolkata at 06 km will experience winds

a. SEly

b. SWIy

c. Nly

d. NW - Wly

36. An aircraft flying in winter season from Delhi to Kolkata at 06 km will experience

a. Port drift

b. Starboard drift

c. Tail wind

d. Head win

37. An aircraft flying in winter season from Kolkata to Nagpur at 02 km will experience
a. Port drift

b. Starboard drift

c. Tail wind

d. Head wind

38. During break monsoon the pressures all over the country

a. Rise

b. Fall

c. Do not change

39. During break monsoon sometimes the surface winds over East UP and Bihar are

a. very strong

b. weak

c. normal

40. Mid tropospheric cyclone occurs during

a. Pre monsoon

b. Winters

c. Post monsoon

d. SW monsoon

41. Mid tropospheric cyclone during monsoon form over

a. Orissa

b. Punjab

c. Gujarat

d. Chennai

42. El Nino episode is applied by fishermen to a period of reduced fish catch due to suppression of
upwelling

a. warm surface coastal current

b. Wly surface coastal current

c. Cold surface coastal current

43. Maximum cyclones occur over India in

a. Pre monsoon
b. Winters

c. Post monsoon

d. SW monsoon

44. Tropical Jet stream occurs in India during

a. Pre monsoon

b. Winters

c. Post monsoon

d. SW monsoon

45. Pressure gradient over West Coast of India is steep during

a. Pre monsoon

b. Winters

c. Post monsoon

d. SW monsoon

46. During break in monsoon rain occurs

a. along foot hills

b. NW India

c. S India

CLEAR AIR TURBULENCE AND MOUNTAIN WAVES

1. For mountain waves to form there should be flow of air across the ridge, generally within
……………of the perpendicular to the ridge.

a. 30°

b. 45°

c. 60°

2. For mountain waves to form the wind speed for small mountains should be atleast

a. 15 m/s

b. 10 m/s

c. 7m/s
3. For mountain waves to form the wind speed for large mountains should be atleast

a. 15 m/s

b. 10 m/s

c. 7m/s

4. For mountain waves to form the atmosphere should be up to the ridge, where air stream strikes
the ridge.

a. Unstable

b. Stable

c. Indifferent

5. For mountain waves to form the atmosphere should be at higher levels above the ridge

a. Unstable

b. Stable

c. Indifferent

6. In Mountain waves the Rotor clouds form in

a. Troughs

b. Ridges

c. Valley

7. Clear air turbulence is often encountered

a. At the boundary of a jet stream

b. In the wake of a passing airplane

c. In the wake of a larger airplane at take off and landing

d. All of the above

8. Most CAT occurs on the of a jet stream and in the vicinity of upper level frontal zones where
temperature contrasts are strong.

a. Fringes

b. Within the core

c. Axis

9. CAT is the bumpiness experienced by aircraft at high altitudes in either cloud-free conditions or
in stratiform clouds
a. above 18,000 feet

b. below 18,000 feet

c. below 28,000 feet

10. When approaching an area where mountain waves have been reported, a pilot should expect:

a. Possible presence of roll clouds and lenticular clouds

b. Intense up drafts and down drafts on the lee side of the mountains

c. Moderate to severe turbulence as far as 20 to 30 miles from the range on lee side

d. All of the above

Jet Streams

1. The arbitrary lower limit of jet core velocity has been assigned by WMO as

a. 60 kt

b. 60 m/s

c. 70 m/s

2. Jet stream has

a. one maxima

b. one or more maxima

c. only two maxima

3. The vertical wind shear in a Jet stream is about

a. 5m/s/ km

b. 6m/s/km

c. 8m/s/km

4. Compared to horizontal wind shear the vertical wind shear in a Jet stream is

a. weaker

b. stronger

c. same

5. In a jet stream, the path of the maximum speed is known as

a. Core
b. Axis

c. Jet streak

6. The wind speed along the axis of a jet stream is always

a. Uniform

b. Not uniform

7. Along the axis of a jet stream there are centres of high speed winds, these are called

a. Jet streaks

b. Core

c. Axis

8. In a wavy jet the Jet streaks are located over or near the

a. Ridge

b. Trough

c. Between Trough and Ridge

9. Sub-tropical Jet Stream (STJ) is

a. Westerly

b. Easterly

c. Southerly

10. The normal position of Sub-tropical Jet Stream is

a. 30° N

b. 27° N

c. 35° N

11. The southern most position of STJ is in February is

a. 22° N

b. 20° N

c. 18° N

12. The STJ affects India from

a. Jun to Jul

b. Oct to May

c. Aug to Sep
13. STJ has a layered structure. There are often two layers of maximum wind to the...of jet core

a. S

b. N

c. SW

14. The STJ strengthens

a. Northwards

b. Upstream

c. Downstream

15. At and near the STJ the temperature gradient is very

a. Small

b. Large

c. Moderate

16. Vertical wind shear in STJ is greater the core

a. above

b. below

c. along

17. The TJ prevails over the Indian Peninsula from

a. May to Jun

b. Sep to Oct

c. Jun to Aug

18. The TJ is located over the Indian Peninsula, approximately at

a. 13° N

b. 17° N

c. 18° N

19. The TJ is located over Indian, approximately at a height of

a. 15 -16 km

b. 12 - 13 km

c. 11 - 12 km

20. The TJ is strongest in

a. July - Aug

b. Sep - Oct

c. June

21. In the TJ the wind shears are much than the STJ

a. more

b. less

c. same

22. TJ is

a. Westerly

b. Easterly

c. Southerly

AIR MASSES, FRONTS AND WESTERN DISTURBANCES

1. The air mass which originates at sea in low Latitudes is called

a. Polar maritime

b. Tropical continental

c. Tropical maritime

2. The air mass which originates over equatorial region is

a. Warm & dry

b. Warm & Moist

c. Cold & dry

3. If the advancing cold front is colder than the cool air mass of the warm front, the advancing cold
front undercuts and lifts both the warm and cool air masses of the warm front. This is

a. Warm Occlusion

b. Cold Occlusion

4. The airmass which originated over land area located in polar region:

a. Warm & dry

b. Warm & Moist

c. Cold & dry

5. If a warm airmass overtakes a cold air mass, it is called

a. Cold Front

b. Warm Front

c. Occluded Front

6. At warm front

a. Warm air overtakes the cold air

b. Cold air undercuts the warm air

7. The conditions are always unstable at

a. Cold front

b. Warm front

8. Line squall occurs about 100-300 km ahead of

a. Warm front

b. Cold front

9. Precipitation occurs over a belt of 30 - 50 km on both side of front

a. Cold front

b. Warm front

10. Cold front moves at ... the speed of a warm front moves

a. Same

b. Double

c. Half

11. Line Squalls occur of Cold front

a. Ahead

b. Behind

c. At the

12. Fronts are associated with

a. Tropical cyclone

b. Monsoon Depression
c. Extra-tropical Cyclones

13. CB, Roll-type clouds, SC, AC with embedded CB are associated

a. Cold front

b. Warm front

14. The Surface of discontinuity between the Polar Easterlies and the temperate Westerlies is called

a. Equatorial Front

b. Tropopause

c. Polar Front

15. The air mass which origir>ates from sea area located in lower Lat is

a. Warm & Dry

b. Warm & Moist

c. Cold & Moist

16. WDs approach India as

a. Cols

b. Occluded Fronts

c. Highs

17. Maximum WDs occur in

a. Summers

b. Post Monsoon

c. Winters

18. Ahead of a warm front the surface wind

a. Backs & weakens

b. Veers & strengthens

c. Backs & strengthens

19. On approach of a Warm Front temperature

a. Fall

b. Rise
c. Remain same

20. CI, CS, AS, NS, ST in sequence are associated with the front

a. Warm

b. Cold

c. Occluded

21. During the passage of a Cold Front winds

a. Suddenly become squally

b. Back and weaken

c. Veer and are of moderate strength

22. Visibility is poor in a Warm Front

a. Ahead

b. Ahead & During

c. After & During

23. Fog occurs in Cold Front

a. Ahead

b. During

c. After

24. WD is a……….. front

a. Cold

b. Warm

c. Occluded

25. FZRA and FZFG occur of a warm front

a. Ahead

b. During

c. After

26. Precipitation ceases after the passage of a front

a. Cold

b. Warm
c. Occluded

27. During the approach of a Warm Front wind

a. Backs

b. Veers

c. Does not change

28. Whenever the low of a WD has two or more closed isobars, at 2 hPa interval, it is termed as

a. Troughs in Westerlies

b. Western Depression

c. Western Cyclone

Thunderstorm

1. The condition necessary for the formation of a thunderstorm are:

a. Steep lapse rate, strong winds

b. shallow lapse rate, adequate supply of moisture

c. Steps lapse rate ,adequate supply of moisture and trigger action.

2. Hail is most likely to fall from a cloud

a. Having layers

b. Composed of Ice crystals

c. Having strong vertical development

3. Nor westers are

a. The western disturbances which affect NW India

b. Severe thunderstorms which occur over NE India during hot weather periot

c. Severe thunderstorms which occur over Peninsula during hot weather perioc

4. Duststorm usually occurs over NW India during

a. Post-monsoon

b. Winter

c. Pre-Monsoon

5. A 'mature' thunderstorm has

a. A strong updraft only

b. Strong downdraft only

c. Strong updrafts and downdrafts

6. Aircraft icing is most favoured in the cloud which have temperatures ranging between

a. - 20° C and - 40° C

b. 0° C and - 20° C

c. below -40 ° C

7. A short duration, showery precipitation is associated with

a. ST

b. AS

c. CB

8. Hail is

a. Solid precipitation which commonly occurs over the mountainous regions during winter.

b. Frozen or partly frozen rain falling from sheet type of clouds

c. Solid precipitation falling from a deep convective cloud

9. The most hazardous cloud for aviation is

a. CB

b. CU

c. NS

10. The life of a Cb cell is usually

a. 7 to 8 hrs

b. 3 to 4 hrs

c. 1/2 - 1 hr

11. Generally the severest activity of a CB clouds is for

a. 2 hrs

b. 30 to 45 min

c. 3 to 4 hr

12. Norwesters occur during

a. Jan-Feb

b. Mar-May

c. June-Sep

d. Oct - Dec

13. Norwesters occur during

a. Winter

b. Hot weather

c. Monsoon

d. Post Monsoon

14. Norwesters affect

a. N India

b. Bengal, Bihar, Orissa and Assam

c. Central India

15. The trigger action may take place due ro

a. Clear night sky no wind

b. Orographic lifting

c. Divergence due to high pressure

16. Norwesters normally occur during

a. Mornings

b. Afternoons

c. Nights

17. Norwesters originates over

a. Chota-Nagpur hills

b. Deccan Plato

c. Khasi hills

18. Andhi (blinding storms) occur generally over

a. S India

b. N India
c. NE India

19. Wind speed in Light DS is

a. 25 kr

b. 30 kt

c. up to 21 kt

20. The diametre of Microburst is

a. less than 4 km

b. less than 2 km

c. less than 6 km

21. The diametre of and Macroburst

a. < 4 km

b. 4 km or more

c. > 8 km

22. For detecting precipitation a Radar wavelength in the range ... is suitable

a. 30 to 200 mm

b. 400-500 mm

c. 600-700 mm

23. For airborne radars wavelength generally used

a. 20 mm

b. 40 mm

c. 60 mm

24. The wavelength of TS detection X band radar is

a. 10 mm

b. 20 mm

c. 30 mm

25. The wavelength of storm detection S band radar is

a. 50 mm

b. 100 ram

c. 200 mm
26. Over plains TS mostly occur during the

a. afternoon

b. night

c. early morning

27. Over valley and foot hills TS generally occur during

a. afternoon

b. night & early morning

28. Over the sea TS are more frequent

a. afternoon

b. night

c. early morning

29. The life of Mesoscale Convective Complex TS is

a. 2-3 hr

b. 3-4 hr

c. 6 to 24 hr

30. Loud peals of thunder, frequent flashes of lightning, moderate or heavy showers accompanied by
light hail with maximum wind speed 15-40 kt is classified as

a. Light TS

b. Moderate TS

c. Severe TS

31. For a severe TS one of the requirements is strong wind shear

a. Horizontal

b. Vertical

c. Slant

32. Severe TS cells are tilted

a. in vertical

b. to the South

c. to the North
ICE ACCRETION

1. Hoar frost occurs on airframe in clear air when the temperature of airframe is

a. below the frost point

b. frost point

c. just above the frost point

2. In clouds at temperatures below 0° C an aircraft may encounter icing of the type

a. only Glazed

b. only Rime

c. intermediate between these two

3. Opaque Rime ice is

a. Light porous

b. Solid

c. Mixture of porous and solid

4. Rime is formed by freezing of supercooled water droplets on airframe when aircraft is flying
through clouds

a. Small

b. Large

c. Medium

5. The ice poses serious aviation hazard

a. Rime

b. Hoar Frost

c. Glazed

6. Airframe icing occurs below 0°C. Its probability of occurrence decreases progressively below -20
°C, as at lower temperatures the proportion of super-cooled water drops in a cloud

a. Increases

b. Decreases

c. Does not change

7. CI, CS and CC clouds consist mostly ice crystals. Icing hazard is therefore

a. Maximum

b. Medium

c. Negligible

8. AS, NS consist of supercooled water drops and ice crystals in varying proportion icing is
possible.

a. Maximum

b. Light or moderate

c. Negligible

9. In AC clouds ………….. icing is likely in mountainous areas

a. Severe

b. Light to moderate

c. Negligible

10. In TCU icing may range from light to severe type at.least up to level.

a. - 40 °C level

b. 30 °C level

c. - 20 °C level

11. In CB icing may range from light to severe type up to -20°C level. Below this temperature severe
icing is

a. not significant

b. significant

c. maximum

12. Liquid water content is an important factor in icing. As the maximum water concentration is around
, maximum ice formation in clouds may also be expected around that level.

a. -25° C level

b. -20° C level

c. -15° C level

13. Carburetor icing occurs when air from intake passes through a ventury (choke) and causes
expansional cooling and vaporization of fuel. Serious icing can occur at extreme temperatures

a. 13 °C
b. 30°C to -10°C

c. 20 °C

14. occurs in a moist cloudless air on an aircraft surface having temp, below 0° C, due to sublimation of
water vapour onto feathery ice crystals.

a. Rime

b. Glazed

c. Hoar Frost

15. occurs in St, Sc, Ac, Cu, Ns at temperature -10 to -40° C and in Cb at temperature -20 to -40°C

a. Rime

b. Glazed

c. Hoar Frost

16. In clouds ………… occurs when a wide range of water drop sizes are present at temperatures
between 0° C and -40° C

a. Rime

b. Glazed

c. Mixture of rime and clear ice

17. occurs in AS, NS, SC and towering CU or CB between 0° C and -20° C, in warm front below 0° C,
especially if the aircraft has rapidly descended from a colder region

a. Glazed

b. Fume

c. Mixture of Rime and Clear ice

18. When fog freezes on parked aircraft it produces..,

a. Hoar Frost

b. Hoar Frost

c. Clear ice

19. Icing the stalling speed appreciably

a. Decreases

b. Increases

c. Does not increase/decrease

Precipitation

1. When super cooled water drops and ice particles co-exist, the ice crystals grow at the expense of
the water drops because

a. Saturation vapour pressure over water drops is less than over the ice crystals

b. Saturation vapour pressure over the ice crystals is less than over water drops

c. The ice crystals convert into water drops

2. The clouds whose tops extend well above the freezing level are called

a. Warm Clouds

b. Cold Clouds

c. Moderate Clouds

3. The clouds whose tops do not extend to the freezing level are called

a. Warm Clouds

b. Cold Clouds

c. Moderate Clouds

4. Coalescence Theory explains occurrence of rainfall from the

a. Warm Clouds

b. Cold Clouds

c. Both types of Clouds

5. Ice crystal Theory explains occurrence of rainfall from the

a. Warm Clouds

b. Cold Clouds

c. Both types of Clouds

6. Giant Nucleus Theory explains occurrence of rainfall over

a. Maritime areas

b. Inland areas

c. Hilly areas

7. Very heavy precipitation as showers over a short period is called

a. Flash floods

b. Cloud Burst

c. Orographic Rain

8. Rain shadow area is on the of the mountain range

a. Top

b. Windward side

c. Leeward side

9. Sleet is a mixture of

a. Hall & Snow

b. Rain & Snow

c. Frozen Rain

10. Rainfall in the tropics is more in

a. Winters

b. Summers

c. Post monsoon

11. Rainfall in the tropics is more in the

a. Morning

b. Afternoon

c. Night

12. Rainfall in the temperate latitudes is more in

a. Winters

b. Summers

c. Spring

13. Over J&K and western Himalayas Rainfall is more in

a. Winters

b. Summers

c. Post monsoon

14. Rainfall over coastal areas is more in the

a. Evening
b. Afternoon

c. Night & early morning

15. Areas to the of western Ghats of India are rain shadow areas

a. W

b. S

c. E

16. A sudden rise in the level of rivers or streams causing floods is called

a. Cloud Burst

b. Catchments flooding

c. Flash Floods

17. Artificial rain making is also termed as

a. Simulation

b. Cloud seeding

c. Nucleation

18. Fog can be dispersed for a short period by artificial stimulation

a. True

b. False

19. Showery precipitation occurs from

a. NS

b. AC

c. CB

20. A day is called Rainy day when rainfall in 24 hr is ....mm or more

a. 0.05

b. 1

c. 2

OPTICAL PHENOMENA IN THE ATMOSPHERE

1. Aurora Australis occur in the

a. S hemisphere

b. N hemisphere

c. Equator

2. Aurora Australis called .... Lights

a. Northern

b. Southern

c. Temperate

3. Aurora BoreaKs occur in the

a. S hemisphere

b. N hemisphere

c. Equator

4. Aurora Borealis are called Lights

a. Northern

b. Southern

c. Temperate

5. Corona occur in clouds

a. AS

b. NS

c. CS

6. Bishop's ring is due to the diffraction of light by fine particles of

a. water

b. dust

c. ice

7. The radius of the Bishop's ring is about

a. 32°

b. 22°

c. 42°

8. Superior Mirage occurs in marked

a. Lapse

b. Isothermal

c. Inversion

9. Inferior Mirage occurs when there is

a. Lapse

b. Isothermal

c. Inversion

10. Corona are formed due to the of light

a. Refraction

b. Diffraction

c. Scattering

11. Corona are formed due to light, passing through

a. Mist only

b. Fog only

c. small water or ice particles only

d. Any one of all these

12. Halo is produced by

a. Refraction

b. Diffraction

c. Scattering

13. Halo is produced when light passes through

a. water particles

b. ice crystals

c. both

14. Halo occur in the cloud

a. AS

b. NS

c. CS

15. Halo is luminous ring of radius

a. 32°

b. 22°

c. 42°

16. Halo round the sun shows a pure clear on the outside

a. Red

b. Yellow

c. Violet

17. Halo signifies predominance in the cloud of

a. Supercooled water drops

b. Ice crystals

c. Both

18. The cloud which cause Halo has ... chances of ice accretion

a. negligible

b. maximum

c. medium

19. Sometimes a halo with a radius of is observed, called Large Halo

a. 32°

b. 42°

c. 22°

20. Halo occurs from.... cloud

a. Low

b. Medium

c. High

Atmospheric Stability and Instability

1. DALR = 9.8 °C, ELR = 6.8 °C ; atmosphere is

a. stable

b. unstable
c. indifferent

2. SALR = 5.5 °C, ELR= 4.5 °C ; atmosphere is

a. unstable

b. stable

c. indifferent

3. DALR > ELR > SALR

a. conditionally stable

b. latently stable

c. potentially stable

4. Dry air is unstable when

a. ELR-DALR

b. ELR>DALR

c. ELR<DALR

5. The saturated air is said to be unstable if

a. SALR=ELR

b. SALR<ELR

c. SALR > ELR

6. If ELR = SALR - DALR the atmosphere is

a. Stable

b. Instable

c. Indifferent

7. DALR means:

a. The rate at which temperature of unsaturated parcel of air falls with height

b. when made to ascend adiabatically

c. The rate at which temp falls with height

d. The rate at which ascending parcel of saturated air cools

8. The surface air temp, is 30° C. Assuming DALR prevailing what is the temperature at 2 km

a. 18° C
b. 10° C

c. 42° C

9. An Isothermal atmosphere is

a. Stable

b. Unstable

c. Neutral

10. If environmental lapse rate(ELR) is less than SALR, that part of the atmosphere is said to be:

a. Absolutely unstable

b. Conditionally stable

c. Absolutely stable

11. DALR is approximately

a. 5 ° C /km

b. 15 ° C /km

c. 10 ° C /km

12. SALR at mean sea level is about

a. 10 ° C/Km

b. 5 ° C/Km

c. 5 ° F/Km

13. SALR approaches DALR

a. at 0°C

b. at -15°F

c. at -40°C

14. Dry air having a temperature of 35°C on surface when forced to rise adiabatically by 1 km would
attain a temperature of

a. 29°C

b. 25°C

c. 45°C

15. Inversion in the atmosphere indicates

a. Stability
b. Instability

c. Neutrality

16. Inversion is Lapse Rate (LR)

a. Positive

b. Negative

c. Neutral

17. Environmental LR can be more than DALR

a. True

b. False

18. The process which to a large extent determines the vertical distribution of temperature in
atmosphere is

a. Adiabatic

b. Isothermal

c. Isentropic

19. Rise in temperature with height is

a. Inversion

b. Lapse

c. (c) Normal

20. Inversion is common in

a. Post Monsoon

b. Monsoon

c. Winters

Vertical Motion And Clouds

1. Drizzle occurs from

a. CS

b. ST
c. NS

d. CU

2. Altostratus (AS) is

a. Low cloud of sheet type

b. A medium cloud of sheet type

c. A cloud of large vertical growth

d. A high cloud of sheet type

3. Showers occurs from

a. CU

b. CB

c. AS

d. AC

4. Heavy icing is possible in

a. CI

b. CS

c. ST

d. CB

5. To avoid icing in cloudy conditions, a pilot is advised to fly through a cloud which shows an optical
phenomena

a. Halo

b. Corona

c. With multi-coloured clouds

6. Dark gray cloud giving continuous rain is called

a. AS

b. NS

c. ST

d. CB

7. A uniform layer of cloud resembling fog but not on the ground

a. AS

b. NS

c. ST

8. The clouds composed of ice crystals having feathery appearance

a. CI

b. CS

c. AS

9. NS clouds occur

a. At cold front

b. At warm front

10. Halo is associated with the cloud

a. AC

b. AS

c. CS

d. CI

11. Corona is associated with the cloud

a. AS

b. AC

c. CC

d. CS

12. Lenticular clouds indicate presence of

a. Warm Front

b. Cold front

c. Mountain waves

13. The lowest level below which condensation trails will not form is
a. Mintra Level

b. Drytra Level

c. Maxtra Level

14. Rain falling from cloud but not reaching ground is

a. Virgo

b. Virga

c. Mirage

15. CB with distinct anvil is called

a. Castellanus

b. Capillatus

c. Uncinus

16. Cloud ceiling is the height of the cloud covering

a. 3-4/8

b. 8/8

c. 5/8 or more

17. No condensation trails occur above

a. Maxtra Level

b. Dytra Level

c. Mintra Level

18. Cloud of operational significance has base below m or below the highest minimum sector
altitude, which is greater

a. 1500

b. 2000

c. 1000

19. AC cloud with cumuliform protuberances are indicative of

a. Stability

b. Instability

c. Neutrality

20. Hail may be experienced under the anvil of a CB

a. True

b. False