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National Eligibility Cum Entrance Test Neet (Ug) ,: Phase-2 (CODE:BB-QQ-XX)

This document provides information about the National Eligibility Cum Entrance Test (NEET) for undergraduate programs. It includes 7 multiple choice questions related to chemistry concepts such as reaction mechanisms, molecular structure, acid strength, and hybridization of atomic orbitals. The questions cover topics like aromatic compounds, alcohols, carboxylic acids, gases, and inorganic compounds.

Uploaded by

Vivek Singh
Copyright
© © All Rights Reserved
Available Formats
Download as PDF, TXT or read online on Scribd
0% found this document useful (0 votes)
30 views

National Eligibility Cum Entrance Test Neet (Ug) ,: Phase-2 (CODE:BB-QQ-XX)

This document provides information about the National Eligibility Cum Entrance Test (NEET) for undergraduate programs. It includes 7 multiple choice questions related to chemistry concepts such as reaction mechanisms, molecular structure, acid strength, and hybridization of atomic orbitals. The questions cover topics like aromatic compounds, alcohols, carboxylic acids, gases, and inorganic compounds.

Uploaded by

Vivek Singh
Copyright
© © All Rights Reserved
Available Formats
Download as PDF, TXT or read online on Scribd
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NATIONAL ELIGIBILITY

CUM ENTRANCE TEST


NEET (UG), 2016
Phase-2 (CODE:BB-QQ-XX)
1. A given nitrogen-containing aromatic 4. Which among the given molecules ca

cct
compound A reacts with Sn/HCl, followed exh uto
by HN02 to give an unstable compound B. f' 0
B, on treatment with phenol, forms a � cri��
· beautiful coloured compound C with the
molecular formula C 12 H10N 2 0. The structure

U
of compound A is
CONH2 7 J j'II

(1) (1) Both II and III

U
✓,:;

N (2) III only


C
(4)
✓,:;
/i Both I and III

(4) Both I and II


2. Consider the reaction
CH 3 CH 2 c!:Br + NaCN--) CH 3CH 2CH 2CN + NaBr
5. The correct order of strengths of ti
This reaction will be the fastest in
carboxylic acids
COOH COOH COOH
(1 ) water, O O
O
�ethanol II m
is
Xmethanol
(1) II>I>III
/;,N'-dimethylformamide (OMF) )(
(2) I>II>Ill

/11 >III>I
3. The correct structure of the product A
formed in the reaction (4) III>II>I

U L11-\_'.ZL� � l
� H 2 (gas, 1 atmosphere)
Pd/carbon, ethanol
r
6. The compound that will react most read
with gaseous bromine has the formula
is

(II
c5
o
(2)
&

✓ (4)
c5
7. Which one of the following compounds How many electrons can fit in the orbital for
k h na3 and
12.
shows the presence of intramolecular
�� l�
hydrogen bond? 14 2
(1 ) Concentrated acetic acid (3) 6 (4) 10
..J2f H202 13. For a sample of perfect gas when its pressure
. (3) H CN p(_ \-\---- C,., is changed isothermally from Pi to p J, the
-;,

(4) Cellulose entropy change is given by

8. The molar conductivity of a O · 5 mcl �m3 °'jl) 6S a RTln(:�)


solution of AgN03 with electrolytic
conductivity of 5 · 76 x 10-3 S cm -l at (2) llS= nRln(�)
298 K is
(1) 28·8 Scm 2 /mol
/�s= nR1n(;�)
(2)· 2-88 Sc�2 /mol
�1°-52 Scm 2 /mo! (4) llS= nRTln (pPi�) � _ J Ul V1 f1-
e (4) 0· 086 S cm2 /mol
-
14. The van't Hoff factor (i) for a dilute aqueous 2,, 9
The decomposition of phosphine (PH3) on solution of the strong electrolyte barium
tungsten at low pressure is a first-order hydroxide is
reaction. It is because the (2) 0
(1) rate of decomposition is very slow
...A1i3'
(3) 1 (4) 2
(2) rate is proportional to the surface 15. The percentage of pyridine (C5H5N) that
coverage forms pyridinium ion (C5 H5N + H) in a 0-10 M
(3) rate is inversely proportional to the aqueous pyridine solution (K b for
surface coverage 9
C5H5N = l• 7 x 10- ) is
(4) rate is independent of the surface C "2-......:. J.-
(1) 1-6% � - ,...._b •
coverage
(� Q. 0060 % '(y'
10. The coagulation values in millimoles per litre �) 0-013%
of the electrolytes used for the coagulation of (4J o-77%
As �3 are given below : "\..-
� 16. In calcium fluoride, having the fluorite
1. {l'f"�l) = 52, II. (tacl 2) = 0-69, structure, the coordination numbers for
m. (Mgs�> = 0-22 c- v J-_ r.
o(._ calcium ion (Ca 2+) and fluoride ion (F-) are
The correct order of their coa�lating
power is. �4 and 8
(2) 4 and 2
(1) Ill > I > II (2) I> II> ill
(3) 6 and 6
(3) II> I > Ill �II> U> J. (4) 8 and 4
11. During the electrolysis of molten sodium 17. If the E �ell for a given reaction has a �egative
chloride, the time required to produce value, which of the following gives the
O· l O mol of chlorine gas using a current of correct relationships for the values of t:.0°
3 ampe,res is and Keq?
(1) 330 minutes (1) !:,.G0 < O; Keq<1-<
(2) 55 minutes -\_9(t1G0 >0; Keq < 1
�1'io minutes .,,, (3) llG0 >O; Keq >1
(4) 220 minutes (4) t:.G0 < 0; Keq >1 p<.,.
18. Which one of the following is incorrect for 24. Zinc can be coated on iron to produce

JJ'f
ideal solution? galvanized iron but the reverse is not
L'.Gmix = 0,' possible. It is because
(1) zinc has higher negative electrode
(2) !!iHurix= Qr
potential than iron
(3) 0:lmix= 0
(2) zinc is lighter than iron""-
(4) l!iP =� - Pcalculated by Raoult's law = O
(3) zinc has lower melting point than iro�
19. The solubility of AgCl (s) with solubility IM zinc has lower negative electrode
product 1·6x 10-10 in 0·1 M NaCl solution V' potential than iron
would be
25. The suspension of slaked lime in water is
(1) zero known as
(1) aqueous solution of slaked lime
� i-26x·10-s M

(3) 1-6 x 10-9 M


✓i 1imewater:, ��
(3) quicklime I)
(4) 1·6 X 10-ll M (4) milk of lime

20. Suppose the elements X an.ii7.- combine to 26. The hybridizations of atomic orbitals of
(h
.o form two compounds XY2 an� X3Y2. When nitrogen in �02, N 0 3 and NH: respectively
0-1 mole of XY2 weighs 10 g and 0-05 mole are
of X 3 Y2 weighs 9 g, the atomic weights of
X and Y are (1) sp 2 , sp and sp 3 V"
(1) 30, 20 �40, 30 °l;)'f),i.'i ;:; l i -o (2) sp, sp 3 and sp'(
(3) 6P, 40
y ,. (4) 20, 30 -"'X .,,_· =-- �O vfJ sp 2
, sp 3 and sp�
#.
\ oo- �
- '"v -- -=- �
.:::.1D, )(...-.:::�0-
21. The number of1electrons delivered at the sp, sp 2 and sp 3 0
cathode during electrolysis by a current of
1 ampere in 60 seconds 27. Which of the following fluoro-compounds is
electron= 1-60x 10- 19 C ) most likely to behave as a Lewis base?

(1) 7 -48x 1023 (2) 6x 1023 !{f X IO


(3) 6 X 1020 �- 75 X 1020
28. Which of the following pairs of ions is
isoelectroruc and isostructural?
22. Boric acid is an acid because its molecule , 7A-�·-q \tn-t-n-
J
(1) combines with proton from water \Y' c103, so�- (2) co�-, N0 3

e
molecule
(3) c1 03, co�- (4) so�-, N03
(2) contains replaceable H + ion"''
✓i gives up a proton<' In context with beryllium, which one of the
following statements is incorrect?
(4) accepts OH- from water releasing proton
(1) Its hydride is electron-deficient and
23. AlF3 is soluble in HF only in presence of KF. polymeric. ✓
It is due to the formation of
(2) It is rendered passive by nitric acid .• ,
(1) K{A1F3H) (2) K3[A1F3H3]
(3) It forms Be 2C.
\!)Yi 3 (AlF 61 (4) AIH 3 (4) Its salts rarely hydrolyze. v
30. Hot concentrated sulphuric acid is a 8Jahn-Teller effect is not observed in high
moderately strong oxidizing agent. Which of spin complexes of
the following reactions does not show
izing behaviour? l (1) d 9 (2) d 7
't�; 1+ H S0 ➔ C�S0 + 2HF 1
(3) d 8 (4) d 4
2 4 4
(2) Cu+ 2H2 S0 4 ➔ CuS0 4 + S0 2 + 2H2 0
C _..._

(3) 3S + 2H2 S0 4 ➔ 3 S0 2 + 2H2 0 �


,:;, _v<,\

37. Which of the following can be used as


"'
(4) C+ 2H2 S04 ➔ CO 2 + 2 S0 2 + 2H2 G./
,:,

the halide component for Friedel-Crafts


31. Which of the following pairs of d-orbitals will reaction?
have electron density along the axes?
�Isopropyl chloride
g: =�·. �::~.2. (2) Chlorobenzene i
(3) dxz, d yz
(3) Bromobenzen�
J'
I# d 2,
Z
d 2 . .2 •
X -y
(4) Chloroethene
32. The correct geometry and hybridization for
XeF4 are
� square planar, sp 3 d 2
@ In .which of the following molecules, all
atoms are coplanar?
(2) octahedral, sp 3 d 2
(3) trigonal bipyramidal, sp 3 d
(4) planar triangle, sp 3 d 3
4.J,_
V
\
(1) 0-0�
33. Among the following, which one is a wrong
statement?
(1) 1; has bent geometry. t·�
(2) PH5 and BiCl 5 do not exist.
(3) Qi (4)

(3) pn-dn bonds are present in S0 2/' 07


¥seF4 and CH4 have same shape. S,C/ 39. Which one of the following structures
represents nylon 6,6 polymer?
� The c�ect increasing order of trans-effect
� of the following species is
(1) CN- > Br- > C 6H5 > NH3 � ( IT'i--c.......... �\ c......-�-f-CH2)6-NH,)
/
H2
(2) NH3 CN- Br- C 6H5 0
II n

13
> > >

(3) CN-
(4) Br-
>

>
C 6 Hs
CN- >
>

NH3
Br-
>
> NH3
C 6H5
(2)
(/ :...r....13:...f )
NH2 CH3 66
Which one of the following statements
related to lanthanons is incorrect?
(l} Ce (+ 4 ) solutions are widely used as
oxidizing agent in volumetric analysis.
(2) Europium shows +2 oxiaation state.
(3) The basicity decreases as the ionic
radius decreases from Pr to Lu.
(4) All the lanthanons · are much more
reactive than aluminium.
40. !� pyrrole 43. The central dogma of molecular genetics
states that the genetic information flows
from

(1) DNA ➔ RNA ➔ Carbohydrates

(2) Amino acids ➔ Proteins ➔ DNA


the electron density is maximum on
(1) 2 and 5
(3) DNA ➔ Carbohydrates ➔ Proteins

(2) 2 and 3 � �NA ➔ RNA ➔ Proteins

3 3 and
( ) 4 The correct corresponding order of names of
four aldoses with configuration given below
� 2 and 4
CHO CHO CHO CHO
H 0H HO+H HO+H H+OH
41. Which of the following compounds shall not H1OH H-t-OH HOT H HOTH
produce propene by reaction with HBr H2OH CH2 OH CH2OH CH2OH
followed by elimination or direct only
elimination reaction? respectively, is
( 1) H3C_]�H2Br ( L-erythrose,
(1) D-erythrose, D-threose,
L-threose
(2) H2C---yH2 ..z_

"'cH2
l (2) L-erythrose, L-threose, L-erythrose,
D-threose
H2
3 D-threose,
H3C-e=-cH2 0H 'I D-erythrose, L-threose,
( ) L-erythrose
(3)

L-erythrose, L-threose, D-erythrose


(4) D-threose
42. Which one of the following nitro-compounds
does not react with nitrous acid?

9
H3 @ In the given reaction
O+O
H3C
(1) Y�"-N02 HF > p
0 o·c

[2
(2) H3C "- the product P is
c/ - "-tm2

� lu
l
H2

(3)
(1)
2
( ) Cl

-�
(3)
% (4) �
46. A foreign DNA and plasmid cut by the same The primary producers of the deep-sea
restriction endonuclease can be joined to hydrothermal vent ecosystem are
form a recombinant plasmid using
,P ligase
(1) coral reefs �-

\ (2) green algae'


(2) Eco RI
(3) chemosynthetic bacteria
(3) Taq polymerase
(4) blue-green algae{
(4) polymerase III

47.
rs2>
Which of the following is correct for
Which of the following is not a component of � r-selected species?
downstream processing?
(1) Small number of progeny with large size
� Expressipn
(2) Large number of progeny with small size
(2) Separation
(3) Large number of progeny with large size
(3) Purification
(4) Small number of progeny with small size
(4) Preservation

53. If'+' sign is assigned to beneficial interaction,


@which of the following restriction enzymes '-' sign to detrimental and 'O' sign to neutral
produces blunt ends? interaction, then the population interaction
represented by '+' '-' refers to
J11
(1) Hind Ill
(2) Sal I parasitism

(3) Eco RV,;J­ (2) mutualism

(4) Xho I (3) amensalism


(4) commensalism
49. Which kind of therapy was given in 1990 to a
four-year-old girl with adenosine deaminase
(ADA) deficiency? 54. Which of the following is correctly matched?

(1) Radiation therapy (1) Stratification-Population

ft Gene therapy (2) Aerenchyma-Opuntia

(3) Chemotherapy (3) Age pyramid-Biome

(4) Immunotherapy (4) Parthenium hysterophorus-Threat .


to biodiversity
50. How many hot spots of biodiversity in the
world have been identified till date by 55. Red List contains data or information on
Norman Myers?
(1) marine· vertebrates onl.t\_
,;i'43 (2) all economically important plant�
(2) 17
(3) plants whose products are in
(3) 25 international trade "
(4) 34 -�threatened species
56. Which one of the following is wrong for 62. The term 'polyadelphous' is related to
fungi?
(1) calyx
(1) They are both unicellular and
multicellular. (2) gynoecium
(2) They are eukaryotic. v3J androecium
� All fungi possess a purely cellulosic cell (4) corolla
wall.
(4) They are heterotrophic. How many plants amon& Indiqofera,
,
�esbania , $alvia, Al� Al&, mustardY"'"
57. Methanogens belong to
groundnut, radish, � and � have
(1) Slime moulds stamens with �ifferent lengths m their
(2) Eubacteria flowers?
JM' Archaebacteria (1) Six i,(.
(4) Dinoflagellates (2) Three
58. Select the wrong statement. (3) Four
(1) Diatoms are microscopic and float
(4) Five
passively in water.•·
�The walls of diatoms are easily 64. Radial symmetry is found in the flowers of
\/'-, destructible.
(1) Cassia�
(3) 'Diatomaceous earth' is formed by the
ceU walls of diatoms. � Brassica
(4) Diatoms are chief producers in the (3) Trifolium �­
oceans.
59. The label of a herbarium sheet does not
(4) Pi�um .\K
carry information on 65. Free-central placentation is found in
c)J1 height of the plant
(1) Citrus
(2) date of collectionv
� Dianthus
(3) name of collectorv
(4) local names .,, (3) Argemone

60. Conifers are adapted to tolerate extreme


(4) Brassica
environmental conditions because of
66. Cortex is the region found between
(1) presence of vessels
(2) broad hardy leaves (1) endodermis and vascular bundle
(3) superficial stomata .Jrf) epidermis and stele
� Ulick cuticle (3) pericycle and e:Adodermis
61. Which one of the following statements is (4) endodermis and pith
wrong?
(1) Laminaria and Sargassum are used as 67. The ba!Joon-shaped structures ca!Jed tyloses
food.'r (1) are linked to the ascent of sap through
(2) AJgae increase the level of dissolved xylem vessels
oxygen in the -immediate environment.
(2) originate in the lumen of vessels
�gin is obtained fr9m red algae, and
carrageenan from brown algae.- (3) characterize the sapwood
(4) Agar-agar is obtained from Gelidium and � are extensions of xylem parenchyma
Gracilaria. cells into vessels
68. A non-proteinaceous enzyme is 74. A few drops of sap were collected by cutting
across a plant stem by a suitable method.
(1) deoxyribonuclease
The sap was tested chemically. Which one of
(2) lysozyme the following test results indicates that it is
$ ribozyme phloem sap?
(1) Absence of sugar�
(4) ligase
� Acidic
69. Select the mismatch. (3) Alkaline
(1) Methanogens-Prokaryotes ✓ (4) Low refractive index rJ,-.
(2) Gas vacuoles-Green bacteria 75. You are given a tissue with its potential for
differentiation in an artificial culture. Which
� Large central vacuoles-Animal cells / of the following pairs of hormones would you
(4) Protists-Eukaryotes"IV add to the medium to secure shoots as well
as roots?
70. Select the wrong statement. (1) Gibberellin and abscisic acid
(1) Mycoplasma (2) IAA and gibberellin
v2J
is a wall-less
microorganism. Auxin and cytokinin
(2) Bacterial cell wall is made up of (4) Auxin and abscisic acid

A wotility
peptidoglycan.
76. Phytochrome is a
Pili and ijmbpae are mainly involved in (1) chromoprotein
of bacterial cells.
(2) flavoprotein
(4) Cyanobacteria lack flagellated cells.
'9( glycoprotein
(4) lipoprotein
@ Which is essential for the.growth of rpot tip?
71. A cell organelle containing hydrolytic
enzymes is
(1) mesosome (1) Mn� (2) Zn,
� lysosome (3) Fe (4) Ca
(3) microsome
@ The process which makes major difference
(4) ribosome between C3 and C4 plants is
� respiration
72. During cell growth, DNA synthesis takes
(2) glycolysis�
place in
(3) Calvin cycle�
(1) M phase
(4) photorespiration�
�S phase
79. Which one of the following statements is not
(3) G1 phase correct?
(4) G2 phase (1) Water hyacinth, growing in the standing­
water, drains oxygen from water that
73. Which of the following biomolecules is leads to the death of fishes.
common to respiration-mediated breakdown (2) Offspring produced by the asexual
of fats, carbohydrates and proteins? reproduction are called clone.
� Acetyl CoA (3) Microscopic, motile asexual reproductive
(2) Glucose-6-phosphate� structures are called zoospores.
�n potato, banana and ginger, the
(3) Fructose 1,6-bisphosphate �
plantlets arise from the intemodes
(4) Pyruvic acid present in the modified stem. - -
80. Which one of the following generates new 85. Taylor conducted the experiments to prove
genetic combinations leading to variation? semiconservative mode of chromosome
(1) Nucellar polyembryony replication on
(2) Vegetative reproduction ( 1) E. coli


a
(3) Prthenogenesis (2) Vinca rosea
Se�.ial reproduction \f5l' Viciafaba
81. Match Column-I with Column-II and (4) Drosophila melanogaster
select the correct option using the codes
86. The mechanism that causes a gene to move
given below :
from one linkage group to another is called
Column-I Column-II
(1) crossing-over K,
a. Pistils fused (i) Gametogenesis
(2) inversion e(
together
(ii) Pistillate (3�uplication �
b. Formation of
gainetes � translocation
C. Hyphae of higher (iii) Syncarpous
87. The equivalent of a structural gene is
Ascomycetes
(1) reconD(
d. Unisexual female (iv) Dikaryotic
(2) mutonoi:.
,$ cistron
flower

Codes
(4) operon
a b C d
�(iii) - (i) (iv)· (ii) 88. A true breeding plant is
(2) (iv) (iii) (i) (ii) (1) always homozygous recessive in its
genetic constitution6(
(3) (ii) (i) (iv) (iii)
(4) (i) (ii) (iv) (iii) (2) one that is able to breetl on its own
(3) produced due to cross-pollination among
82. In majority of angiosperms unrelated plant�
(1) a small central cell is present in the ('l>Y near homozygous and produces offspring
embryo sac o(_ ,
'-Y · of its own kind
(2) egg has a filiform apparatus
(3) there are numerous antipodal cells t( 89. Which of the following rRNAs acts as
structural RNA as well as ribozyme in
$reduction division occurs in the bacteria?
megaspore mother cells
(1) 5·8 S rRNA
83. Pollination in water hyacinth and water lily is
brought about by the agency of
(2) 5 S rRNA
(1) bats
� water ¥(3) 18 S rRNA
23S rRNA
(3) insects or wind 90. Stirred-tank bioreactors have been designed
(4) birds for
84. The ovule of an angiosperm is technically (1) ensuring anaerobic conditions in the
equivalent to culture vessel
( 1) mega spore (2) purification of product
� m.egasporangium (3) addition of preservatives to the product
(3) megasporophyll � availability of oxygen throughout the
(4) m.egaspore mother cell process
91. A molecule that can act as a genetic material 96. Match Column-I with Column-II and
must fulfill the traits given below, except select the correct option using the codes
(1) it should provide the scope for slow given below
changes that are required for evolution Column-I Colum'n--:II
a. Citric acid (i) Trichodenna
(2) it should be able to express itself in the b. Cyclosporin A (ii) Clostridium
form of 'Mendelian characters' ✓
c. Statins (iii) Aspergillus
(3) it should be able to generate its repliccf d. Butyric acid • (iv) Monascus
td1 it should be unstable structurally and Codes :
J �heroically a b c d
l11 (iiiJ (ivJ (iJ (iilK
92. DNA-dependent RNA polymerase catalyzes
transcription on one strand of the DNA (2) (iii) (i) (ii) (iv)
which is called the � (iii) . (i) (iv) (ii)
(4) (i) (iv) (ii) (iii�
JI
(1) antistrand
template strand
@ Biochemical Oxygen Demand (BOD) may not
be a good index for pollution for water bodies
(3) coding strand receiving effluents from f lf..2b Wj'
•• _ ,..
(4) alpha strand (1) sugar industry-, �-�· 7
(2) domestic sewage'/... l\.. n0v
, �
93. lnterspecific hybridization is the mating of (3) dairy industry _..:, e,,- -o
(1) more closely related individuals within (4) petroleum industry P'--
same breed for 4-6 generations 98. The principle of competitive exclusion was
(2) animals within same breed without stated by
having colllll1on ancestors (I) Verhulst and Pearl
0ef �o different related species (2) C. Datwin
ft G. F. Gause
(4) superior males and females of different (4) MacArthur
breeds � Which of the following National Parks is
�Which of the following is correct regarding
V home to the famous musk deer or hangul?
AIDS causative agent HIV? (1) Dachigam National Park, Jammu &
Kashmir
(1) HIV does not escape but attacks the (2) Keibul Lamjao National Park, Manipur
D,<)0 j!Q.guired imnmne response ..,., <f-½\ rv\f\,o (3) Bandhavgarh National Park, Madhya
(2) HIV is enveloped virus containing one Pradesh
molecule of single-stranded RNA and one (4) Eaglenest Wildlife Sanctuary, Arunachal
molecule of reverse transcriptase: Pradesh
(3) HIV is enveloped virus that contains two 100. A lake which is rich in organic waste may
identical molecules of single-stranded result in
RNA and two molecules of reverse � mortality of fish due to lack of oxygen✓
transcriptase. (2) increased population of aquatic
(4) HIV is unenveloped retrovirus.� organisms due to minerals,(
(3) drying of the lake due to algal bloo�
f9s\ Among the following edible fishes, which (4) increased population of fish due to lots of
'v one is a marine fish having rich source of nutrients�
omega-3 fatty acids? 101. The highest DDT concentration in aquatic
(1) Mackerel food chain shall occur in
(1) eel
(2) Mystus \.
(2) phytoplankton
(3) Mangur Y.seagull .
(4) Mrigala (4) crab
102. Which. of the following sets of diseases is 108. ��at1ve phosphorylation is
caused by bacteria? � :ormation of ATP by energy released fron
(1) Herpes and influenzaK electrons removed during substrat,
� Cholera and tetanus✓ oxidation
(3) Typhoid and smallpox I( (2) formation of ATP by transfer o
(4) Tetanus and mumps K phosphate group from a substrat,
103. Match Column-I with Column-II for to ADP
housefly classification and select the correct (3) oxidation of phosphate gr6up in ATP
option using the codes given below (4) addition of phosphate group to ATP
Column-I Column-Il 109. Which of the following is the least likely to bt
a. Family (i) Diptera involved in stabilizing the three-dimensiona
b. Order (ii)' Arthropoda folding of most proteins?
c. Class � -· (iii) Muscidae (1) Ester bonds\/
d. Phylum • (iv) Insecta (2) Hydrogen bonds✓
., (3) Electrostatic interaction·✓
Codes·:
a b C d �Hydro_�c interaction
(1) (iv) (ii) (i) (iiij 110. Which of the following describes the giver
(iii) (i) (iv) (ii) ::. graph correctly?
� (iii) (ii) (iv) (i)
(4) (iv) (iii) (ii) (i)
104. Choose the correct statement.
(1) All Pisces have gills covered by an
operculum. �
(2) All mammals are viviparous. '<
\Y( All cyclostomes do not possess jaws and
paired fins. :
(4) All reptiles have., a three-chambered
heart.{>(
105. Study the four statements (A-D) given below
and select the two correct ones out of them :
A. Definition of biological species was given
by Ernst Mayr,v
Reaction �
B. Photoperiod d�ect reproduction
in plants.\)<_ (1) Exothermic reaction with energy A in
C. Binomial nomenclature system was absence of enzyme and B in presence ol
given by R. H. Whittaket<_ enzyme
D. In unicellular organisms, reproduction is Endothermic reaction with energy A in
synonymous with growth.V- presence of enzyme and B in absence ol
The two correct statements are enzyme
(1) A and B (2) B and C Exothermic reaction with energy A in

cQ.
(3) C and D �A and D presence of enzyme and B in absence of
In m�e cockroaches, sperms are stored in enzyme
which part of the reproductive system? Endothermic reaction with energy A in
(1) Vas deferens ✓ absence of enzyme and B in presence of
(2) Seminal vesicles enzyme
. (3) Mushroom glands 111. When cell has stalled DNA replication fork,
(4) Testes v- which checkpoint should be predominantly
107. Smooth muscles are activated?
(1) �' spindle-shaped, uninucleate (1) B�th G2/M and M
� involuntary., fusiform, non-striated· \YfG1/S
(3) voluntary, multinucleate, cylindricalK_ (3) G2/M
(4) involuntary, cylindrical, striated t><;, (4) M
112. Match the stages of meiosis in Column-I to 117. Na.me the ion responsible for unmasking of
their characteristic features in Column-II active sites for myosin for cross-bridge
and select the correct option using the codes activity during muscle contraction.
given below (1) Potassium (2) Calcium
Column-I Column-II /Magnesium (4) Sodium
a. Pachytene (i) Pairing of homologous 118. Name the blood cells, whose reduction in
chromosomes number can cause clotting disorder, leading
b. Metaphase I (ii} Terminalization of to excessive loss of blood from the body.
chiasmata
C. Diakinesis (iii) Crossing-over takes place � Thrombocytes-­
d. Zygotene (iv) Chromosomes align at (2) Erythrocytes
equatorial plate ..... (3) Leucocytes
Codes : (4) Neutrophils
a b C d 119. Name a peptide hormone which acts mainly
on hepatocytes, adipocytes and enhances
(1) (iv) (i) r,(
cellular glucose uptake and utilization.
(iii) (ii)
f\P((iii) (iv) (ii) (1) Gastrin (2) Insulin tl
(i}
(3) (i) (iv) (ii) (ill}�
/ Glucagon (4) Secretin
(4) (ii) (iv) (ill) (i) ,.
120. Osteoporosis, an age-related disease of
113. Which hormones do stimulate the
skeletal system, may OQcur due to
production of pancreatic juice and
bicarbonate? (1) accumulation of uric acid leading to
inflammation of joints
(1) Insulin and glucagon
(2) immune disorder affecting neuro­
(2) Angiotensin and epinephrine muscular junction leading to fatigue
(3) Gastrin and insulin
.y(Cholecystokinin and secretin
(3) high concentration of Ca ++ and Na +
� decreased level of estrogen
114. The partial pressure of oxygen in the alveoli
of the lungs is 121. Serum differs from blood in
(1) less than that of carbon dioxide\( . (1) lacking antibodies
(2) equal to that in the blood (2) lacking globulins
(3) more than that in the blood . (3) lacking albumins
, vj{ less than that in the blood y1acking clotting factors

� Choose the correct statement. 122. Lungs do not collapse between breaths and
K:.J {l ) Receptors do not produce graded
some air always remains in the lungs which
can never be expelled because
potentials.
(2) Nociceptors respond to changes in (1) pressure in the lungs is higher than the
atmospheric pressureo:---
pressure.
(2) there is a negative pressure in the lungs�
{3) Meissner's corpuscles are thermo-
receptors. BY'there is a negative intrapleural pressure
pulling at the lung walls
. (4) Photoreceptors in the human eye are
depolarized during darkness and become (4) there is a positive intrapleural pressure �
hyperpolarized in response to the light 123. The posterior pituitary gland is not a 'true'
stimulus. endocrine gland because
116. Graves' disease is caused due to (1) it secretes enzymes
�hypersecretion of adrenal gland K_ (2) it is provided with a duct
(2) hyposecretion of thyroid gland �t only stores and releases hormones
(3) hypersecretion of thyroid glandO{ (4) it is under the regulation of hypo­
(4) hyposecretion of adrenal gland thalamus
� The part of nephron involved in active 130. Several hormones like hCG, hPL, estroge1
":..J reabsorption of sodium is progesterone are produced by
(1) descending limb of Henle's loop (1) pituitary
(2) distal convoluted tubule C '1 .
1) (2) ovary
(3) proximal convoluted tubule
(4) Bowman's capsule V' JZ)placenta
125. Which of the following is hormone­ (4) fallopian tube
releasing IUD?
131. If a colour-blind man marries a woman wt
(1) Cu7
is homozygous for normal colour vision, U
$LNG-20
probability of their son being cole�r-blind is
(3) Multiload 375
(4) Lippes loop (ll 1 vefJo
126- Which of the following is incorrect regarding (3) 0·5 (4) 0·75
vasectomy?
(1) Irreversible stetili ty ✓ � 132. Genetic drift operates in
(2) No sperm occurs in seminal fluidv ( 1) slow reproductive population
$ No sperm occurs in epididyn).!S �
$ small isolated population
(4) Vasa deferentia is cut and tied✓
127. Embryo with more than 16 blastomeres (3) large isolated population
formed due to in vitro fertilization is (4) non-reproductive population
transferred into
(1) cervix 133. In Hardy-Weinberg equation, the frequenc
� uterus of heterozygous individual is represented b)
(3) fallopian tube (1) q 2 (2)
(4) fimbriae
128. Which of the following depicts the correct
y('2pq (4) pq
pathway of transport of sperms?

deferens ➔ Epididymis V
(1) Efferent ductules ➔ Rete testis ➔ Vas � The chronological order o'f human evolutic
from early to the recent is

v'
. (�Rete testis ➔ Effer�nt ductules ➔
Epididymis ➔ Vas deferens
(3) Rete testis ➔ Epididymis ➔ Efferent
tl:tJ Australopithecus ➔ Homo habil.is
Ramapithecu.s � Homo erectus,
(2) Australopithecus ➔ Ramapithecu.s
ductules ➔ Vas deferens Homo habilis ➔ Homo erectus
(4) Rete testis ➔ Vas deferens ➔ Efferent
ductules ➔ Epididymis (3) Ramapithecu.s ➔ Australopithecus
129. Match Column-I with Column-II and Homo habilis ➔ Homo erectus
select the correct option using the codes (4) Ramapithecu.s ➔ Homo habilis
given below Australopithecus ➔ Ho_mo er�ctus
Column-I Column-II
135. Which of the following is the corre,
a. Mons pubis .._ (i) Embryo formation sequence of events in the origin of life?
b. Antrum (ii) Sperm 1. Formation of protobionts
c. Trophectoderm (ill) Female external
� genitalia II. Synthesis of organic monomers ✓ ·
d. Nebenkern iv) Graafian follicle III. Synthesis of organic polymers ./
Codes : IV. Formation of DNA-based genetic systerr
a b C d (1) II, Ill, IV, I
(1) (i) (iv) (ill) (ii) (2) I, II, III, IV
(2) (ill) (iv) (ii) (i)
III, II, IV
� (ill) (iv1 (i). (ii) �:/.
(4) (iii) (i) (iv) (ii) I u, III, I, IV
J
@ A person can see clearly objects only when
they lie between 50 cm and 400 cm from his
40. If an electron in a hydrogen atom jumps
from the 3rd orbit to the 2nd orbit, it emits
eyes. In order to increase the maximum a photon o.f wavelength A. When it jumps
distance of distinct vision to infinity, the type from the 4th orbit to the 3rd orbit, the
and power of the correcting corresponding wavelength of the photon
has to use, will be �1' will be
(1) convex, +0·15 diopt'er
(2) convex, + 2 ·25 diopter
A concave, -0·25 diopter✓
(4) concave, -0· 2 diopte� - l- f -;.. / 0 50 -
� 141 The half-life of a radioactive substance is
�- A linear aperture whose width is 0"·02 cm is
.J--·
0-

placed immediately in front of a lens of focal 30 minutes. The time (in minutes) taken
length 60 cm.· The aperture is illuminated between 40% decay and 85% decay of the
normally by a parallel beam of wavelength s radioactive substance is

5 60 (2 ) 15 =
5 x 10- cm. The distance of the first dark ..Jl1" J.n - - A(A T)
band of the diffraction pattern from the
ce

e of the screen i
(3) 30 (4) 45 � i 1 -= �

0·15 cm 42. For CE transistor amplifier, the audio signal



.,1...

voltage across the collector resistance of 2 kQ


(2 ) 0· 10 cm
r: tor of \oo
· 4 V . If the current amplifi1cati. on ,ac
1s
(3) 0· 2 5 cm the transistor is 100 and the base resistance
is llill, then the input signal voltage is
(4) 0·20 cm
(1) 15 mV (2 ) 10 mV
138. Electrons of mass m with de-Broglie (✓ (4) 30 mV
'71 20 mV
wavelength A fall on the target in an X-ray
·

tube. The cutoff wavelength (Ao) of the 143. The given circuit has two ideal diodes
emitted X-ray is connected as shown in the figure below. The
(1) Ao = 11. current flowing through the res
will be
,J� __ 2mc11.2
0
h
I\.
i,J/1
2h
(3) "-o = -
me
_2_m_2_c_2_"-_
(4) Ao = n
3

h�

139. Photons with energy 5 eV are incident


on a cathode C in a photoelectric cell. The
maximum energy of emitted photoelectrons
(1) 3·13 A /i 2·5 A

(3) 10·0 A (4) l ·43 A


is 2 eV. When photons of energy 6 eV are
incident on C, no photoelectrons will reach
What is the output Y· in the following circuit,
the anode A. if the stopping potential of A
144.
when all the three inputs A, B, C are first
relative to C is
0 and then 1?

fi-3V ��'!:._-r--Q-}---'LY
(2) +3 V �
(3) +4 V (1) 1. 1 r (2) 0, 1
(4) -1 V (3) 0, 0 J% 1, 0
)/
145. Planck's constant (h), speed of !ight in
vacuum (c) and Newton , s gravitational
_
8 A bullet of mass IO 1:1 vin� horizont.
with a velocityof 400 m s 1 stnkes a wooc
constant (G) are three fundamental block of mass 2kg which is suspended b
constants. Which of the following light inextensible string of length 5m. A
combinations of these has the dimension of result, the centre of gravity of the block
length? found to rise a vertical distance of 01 c
.J .Jha L. Vt 1 The speed of the bullet after it emerges (
(1) �
Vh3/2 \JZ) ·c3/ 2 horizontally from the block will be
Ill 160 m s-1
()3 ../hG
c s1 2
(4) �
G
6:=
(2) 100 m s-1 __(

146. Two cars P and Q start from a point at the


same time in a straight line and their (3) 80 m s-l 11.oc.:=� '4-xloX.;o __ i �1
posipons are represented by x p (t)=at+bt
and x Q (t) = ft-t 2 . At what time do the cars � .JV::. 4\2-t>.? '). 0 -=--- )/ ·
�•
have the same velocity? '150. 1\vo identical balls A and B having velocitJ
/4 f-a
2( 1+ b)
(2) a-f
1+ b
of0·5m/s and-0· 3m/s respectivelycoUi
elasticallyin one dimension. The velocities
�) a+ f �) a+ 2.bt
-t Band A after the collision respectivelywill l
2(b- l ) 2(l+ b) tA·l-) (1) 0·3 m/s and 0·S m/s
/i4'n. In the given figure,a= 15m/s 2 re�� (2) -0·5 m/s and 0·3 m/s �
c../ the total acceleration of a particle moving in (3) 0·5 m/s and -0·3 m/s
the clockwise direction in a circle of radius
R = 2·5m at a give instant of time. The $ -0·3 m/s and 0·5 m/s
speed of the particl
151. A particle moves from a, point (- 2i + S ])
� • • •
(4J+3k) when a force of (4i+3j)N
applied. How much work has been done l
the force? -� t?..
(1) 2J

( 2) 8 J

(3) 11 J
148. A rigid ball of mass m strikes a rigid wall at
\J2..·. 60 ° and gets reflected without loss of speed �J
�-=- �,. as shown in the figure below. The value of ,,,/ 5 J
/.) impulse imparted by the wall on the ball
J'
152. Two rotating bodies A and B of masses
and 2m with moments of inertia JA an
I8 (I 8 > I A) have equal kinetic energy ,
rotation. Jf LA and L8 be their angul�
momenta respectively, then

JI! L a > L,
153. A solid sphere of mass m and radius R is 157. A rectangular film of liquid is extended
rotating about its diameter. A solid cylinder from (4 cm x 2 cm) to (5 cm x 4 cm). If the
of the same mass and same radius is also work done is 3 x 10-4 J, the value of the
rotating about its geometrical axis with an surface tension of the liquid is
angular speed twice that of the sphere. The
J..
ratio of their kinetic energies of rotation
( E sphere / E cylinder�will be
(1) 3: 1 ��
?- ·
(1) 8·0 N m-1
(3) 0·125 N m -1 (4) 0·2 N m-1 �tJ
�0·250 N m-1 ... ,,J.

J;j;. - � - 158. Three liquids of densities p 1 , p 2 and p 3 (with


(2) 2 : 3 w
6'1'. P 1>P2>P3), having the same value of
yr 1 :5 surface tension T, rise to the same height
(4) 1 : 4 in three identical capillaries. The angles of
contact 81, 82 and 83 obey g
154. A light rod of length l has two masses m1 and � C,P-'.
m 2 attached to its two ends. The moment 111 n > 0 1 > 0 2 > 0 3 > �
of inertia of · the system about an ax.is
perpendicular to the rod and passing
v thro h the centre of mass is

� m
(� ·m1 2 12 �
v
m2 12 �3) 9:;;81 <82 <83 <-
1t
;(���
V. m l +m2 � �� v 2
\ ��/ m1 + m2 z2
�3) (4) ( m 1 + m2 )12 �- i<81 <82 <83 <1t

155. Starting from the centre of the earth having 159. Two identical bodies are made of a material
radius R, the variation of g (acceleration due for which the heat capacity increases with
to gravity) is shown by temperature. One of these is at 100 °C, while
the other one is at O °C. If the two bodies are

(1) Jh

(2)

Ji A
brought into contact, then, assuming no ·
heat loss, the final common temp�rature is;{f?>�/
11 l o c 0

0 R ➔r O R ➔r
(2) 50 °C
..)3l
'more than 50 °C
J
)31 � J�
(4) Jess than 50 °C but grea�er than O °C

(4J
160. A body cools from a temperature 3T to 2T
0 R ➔r O R ➔r iri 10 minutes. The room temperature is T.
Assume that Newton's law of cooling is
156. A satellite of mass m is orbiting the earth applicable. The temperature of the body at
(of radius R'J at a height h from its surface. th� end of next 10 minutes be
The total energy of the satellite in terms of
)
g0, the value of acceleration due to gravity at
the earth's surface, is
2mg0 R 2
(l
} - R+h .
161. One mole of an ideal motltorR1c gas
mgoR2 undergoes a process described by the
(2)
2(R+h equation PV3 = constant. The heat capacity
of the gas during this process is
(2) �R
2
(3) �R (4) 2R
2
162. The temperature inside a refrigerator is t2°C A parallel-plate capacitor of area A, plat
and the room temperature is t 1 °e. The separation d and capacitance C is filled wit
amount of heat delivered to the room for four dielectric materials having dielectr:
each joule of electrical energy consumed constants k 1 , k2, k 3 and k4 as shown in th
ideally will be figure below. If a single dielectric material ;
t +t to be used to have the same capacitance Ci
this capacitor, then its dielectric constant
is given by
A/3

A given sample of an ideal gas �es


a volume V at a pressure P and absolute
temperature T. The mass of each molecule
T d
"77;?77,����trrrf11mn1 'f
d/2
l.
of the gas is m. Which of the following gives
the d_ensity of the gas?
(1) mkT (2) P /(kT)
l
J?(Pm
A
/(kT) _f.._!;\
(4) P /(kTV) 1 1
(1) -=-+-+-+-
1 1 3
164. A body of mass m is attached \;'f the k k 1 k2 k3 2k4
lower end of a spring whose upper end
(2) k = k 1 +k2+k3 + 3k4
is fixed. The spring bas negligible mass.
When the mass m is slightly pulled down 2
and released, it oscillates with a time period (3) k = (k1 +k2+k3)+2k4
of 3 s. When the mass m is increased 3
by 1 kg, the time period of oscillations ,A/2 = 3 1
becomes 5 s. The value of m in kg is � k k1 +k2+k3 +�
9 3
. 11,,( (2)
V, 16 \ b �� 4 169. The potential difference ( VA - V8 ) betwee
w.:-y
(3)

(4)
16 the points A and B in the given figure is
3 9 2Q 3V lQ
The second overtone of an open organ • ) VVvv--+-<1�,---�VVvv,----·
pipe has the same frequency as the first A /= 2 A
overtone of a closed pipe L metre long. The VA-�--� -2=
ength of the open pipe will be 5\
3 +9 V (2) -3 V
(1) 4L � � (2) L
.fi ffrCfft..
__;,J--_:;::::::.-,-4 2L ½ . (4)
(3) +3 V (4) +6 V
tt;(J
170. A filament bulb (500 W, 100 V) is to be use
166. Three sound waves � amplitudes in a 2 30 V main supply. When a resistance
have frequencies ( n-:-� (n ji 1 ). They is connected in series, it works perfectly an
superimpose to give beats. lh? number of the bulb consumes 500 W. The value of R is
beats produced per second will be
(1) 2 ( 2) l
(3) 4
#3
167. An electric dipole is placed at an angle of 30 ° 171. A long wire carrying a steady curren
with an electric field intensity 2 x 10 5 N/C. It into a circular loop of one turn. The magnet
experiences a torque equal to 4 N m. The field at the centre of the loop is B. It is the
charge on the dipole, if the dipole length is bent into a circular coil of n turns. Tt
2 cm, is magnetic field at the centre of this coil
(1) 7 µC n turns will be
8 me (1) 2n 2 B (2) nB
�� 6:: tt.. L

-...JOI 2 me
, (4) 5 me (4) 2nB l -f(•
172. A bar magnet is hung by a thin cotton thread 176. The potential duterences across th\<;\
in a uniform horizontal magnetic field and resistance, capacitance and inductance are
is in equilibrium state. The energy required 80 V, 40 V and 100 V respectively in an
to rotate it by 60° is W. Now the torque L-C-R circuit. The power factor of thjs ¥-1 t.
required to keep the magnet in this new circuit is - \., oi- '".,
position is (1) l·O \.o1 (2) 0·4
2W
l
( )
./3
(2)
w
./3 (3) 0·5 J?f . 0·8

/, ./3w ./3w
(4) lf:i:n A 100 .Q��sistance and a capacito;-'°c;'f 100 .Q V'-J
2 � reactance are connected in series across
173. An electron is moving in a circular a 220 V source. When the capacitor is 50%
path under the influence of a transverse charged, the peak value of the displacement
magnetic field of 3·57 x 10-2 T. If the value current is
of e / m is l ·76 x 10 C / kg, the frequency of
, ,, '(<';- -,_.{
(1) 11J2 A (2) 2·2 A \.,
11 'l
wi'�
revolution of the elecy,on is
(3) 11 A (4) 4·4 A
(1) 6·28 MHz �) 1 GHz ..._

e.
<N°
(3) 100 MHz (4) 62·8 MHz )1'' ., 178. Two identical glass (µg= 3 /2) equiconve� �,,
lenses of focal length J each are kept in
contact. The space between the two lenses is "- :,:\:c>r
Which of the following combinations should
be selected for better tuning of an L-C-R
circuit used for communication? filled with water (µw =4 / 3). The focal length "�
(1) R=25Q, L=1·5 H, C=45 µF of the combination is
(2) R= 20Q, L = l ·5 H, C=35 µF -�
(3) R=25Q, L =2·5 H, C=45 µF
(4) R=15Q, L =3·5 H, C= 30 µF
175. A uniform magnetic field is restricted within 179. An air bubble in a glass slab with refractive ," .t1.,,,
index 1·5 (near normal incidence)• is 5 cm '\1 'l,..:
a region of radius r. The magnetic field
deep when viewed from one surface and
d
changes with time at a rate B_ Loop 1 of 3 cm deep when viewed from the opposite
dt face. The thickness (in cm) of the slab is
radius R > r encloses the region r and loop 2
(1) 16 (2) 8
of- radius R is outside the region of magnetic
$' . 5>; 1:)) /
,�

field as shown in the figure below. Then the (3) 10 12 "\);


e.m.f. generated is .t>
180. The interference pattern is obtained'with two
coherent light sources of intensity ratio n.
In the interference pattern, the ratio
Imax - Imm .
Imax + Imin
will be
d 2
- B nr 2 in loop 1 and zero in loop 2 (1)

dt
..fn ::3:t0Q"'
(n+ 1) 2 .--
(2) zero in loop 1 and zero in loop 2 '-'
(2) Fn
d
B n+ 1
\J--

(3) --nr in loop 1 and �I


dt
2

d
- B nr 2 in loop 2

dt
y(�-:i
..fn
dB _\
2 in loop 1 and zero in loop 2-l. (4

(4) --nR l (n + ) 2
dt �

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