1.

Three types of branched cells in the

epidermis: 9. The eruption of Asteatotic eczema most
a) Melanocyte, Langerhans cell, Merkel cell commonly seen on the:
b) Langerhans cell, Merkel cell, Mast cells a) anterolateral aspects of the lower legs
c) Merkel cell, Mast cells, Histiocytes b) any skin area
d) Collagen fibers, Melanocyte, Merkel cell c) palms and soles
d) soles, webs, and sides of the feet
2. Macule is:
a) An elevated solid lesion up to 0.5 cm in 10. Mechanism of response of Irritant
diameter; Contact Dermatitis:
b) A circumscribed, flat discoloration that a) Delayed hypersensitivity reaction
may be brown, blue, red, or hypopigmented b) Nonimmunologic, a physical and
c) A circumscribed, elevated, solid lesion chemical alteration of epidermis
more than 0.5 cm in diameter; c) Lymphedema may complicate
d) A circumscribed collection of leukocytes lipodermatosclerosis syndrome because of
and free fluid that varies in size involvement of lymphatic channels by
fibrotic process
3. Secondary skin lesions: d) Transmission of hypertension to
a) Wheal, scales, vesicle saphenous system
b) Bulla, crust, erosion
c) Ulcer, fissure, atropy 11. Frequent symptoms of Venous Leg
d) Scar, pustule, nodule Ulcers:
a) Loss of hair, shiny, atrophic skin, dystrophic
4. Excoriation is: toenails, cold feet
a) An erosion caused by scratching, often b) Claudication, resting ischemic pain
linear c) Foot numbness, burning, paresthesia
b) A small, superficial keratin cyst with no d) Pain, odor, and copious drainage from wound
visible opening
c) A circumscribed lesion with a wall and a 12. True phase of Allergic contact
lumen; the lumen may contain fluid or solid dermatitis:
matter a) Elicitation Phase
d) A circumscribed deposit of blood greater b) Convalescence Phase
than 0.5 cm in diameter c) Active Phase
d) Manifestation Phase
5. Morphology of acute Eczema:
a) Redness, scaling, fissuring 13. Duration of Childhood Pgase of AD:
b) Vesicles, blisters, intense redness a) 2 to 10 years
c) Slight to moderate itch, pain, stinging, b) 3 to 12 years
burning c) 2 to 12 years
d) Thickened skin, skin lines accentuated d) 2 to 11 years

6. Predictive Factors for Hand Eczema: 14. A cicatrix is:

a) Female gender a) Comedone
b) Scratching b) Benign
c) Exposure to cold c) A Lesion
d) Solar radiation d) A scar

7. A very thick, chronic form of eczema 15. Definition of wheal:

that occurs on the palms and a) circumscribed, erythematous or white,
occasionally the soles is seen almost nonpitting, edematous, usually pruritic
exclusively in men: plaque
a) Asteatotic eczema b) small (1 to 2 mm), rough, follicular
b) Hyperkeratotic Eczema papules or pustules may appear at any age
c) Nummular Eczema and are common in young children
d) Fingertip Eczema c) a disorder of keratinization characterized
by the development of dry, rectangular
8. The typical lesion of Nummular scales
eczema: d) A common appearance in children with
a) dry, cracked, and scaly erythema and scaling confined to the
b) coin-shaped red plaque that averages 1 to cheeks and sparing the perioral and
5 cm in diameter paranasal areas
c) dry and scaly and show accentuation of
the skin lines 16. Pityriasis Alba means:
d) erythema, scaling, and lichenification
a) hypopigmented, slightly elevated, fine, b) Cardiovascular system, mucous
scaling plaque with indistinct borders membranes
b) the florid form with a red halo c) hair, gastrointestinal tract
surrounding the follicle can persist in d) nails, musculoskeletal system
adults
c) small, rough follicular papules or pustules 25. Wickham striae is classically seen in:
occur most often on the posterolateral a) lichen nitidus
aspects of the upper arms and anterior b) lichenoid eruption
thighs c) lichen striatus
d) red, inflammatory, and pustular and d) lichen planus
resemble bacterial folliculitis, particularly
on the thighs 26. The characteristic histological features
of lichen planus are:
17. Erythema: a) hyperkeratosis, spongiosis, papillomatosis
a) Blood condition b) parakeratosis, atrophy, lymphoid
b) Red infiltration of the dermis
c) Lack of pigmentation c) acanthosis, papillomatosis, parakeratosis
d) Yellow skin d) granulosis, hyperkeratosis, lymphoid
infiltration of the dermis
18. The primary morphological element in
lichen planus is: 27. What is the possible cause of urticaria:
a) macula a) medicines
b) papula b) exposure to cold
c) urticaria c) solar radiation
d) tuberculum d) all of the above

19. Basal cell degeneration is seen in: 28. What medications can cause an allergic
a) lichen planus reaction like hives?
b) psoriasis a) ascorbic acid, halogen preparations
c) pemphigus b) aspirin, penicillin
d) eczema c) prednisolone, calcium gluconate
d) diphenhydramine, sulfonamides
20. What is the uncharacteristic
localization of lichen planus: 29. Which line lists the diseases
a) Torso characteristic of atopy?
b) the scalp a) neurodermatitis, bronchial asthma, true
c) the flexion surface of the forearms eczema
d) anterior surface of lower legs b) contact dermatitis, urticaria, conjunctivitis
c) urticaria, neurodermatitis, bronchial
21. Purple papule followed by asthma
hyperpigmentation on resolution is seen in: d) rhinitis, seborrheic eczema, conjunctivitis
a) lichen planus
b) addison's disease 30. What are the characteristic clinical
c) diabetes meliitus manifestations of atopic dermatitis?
d) hypothyroidism a) severe itching, lichenification,
vesiculation, and weeping
22. What organs and tissues, except the b) nodular rash, vesiculation and weeping,
skin, can be affected by lichen planus? severe itching
a) mucous membranes, nails c) lichenification, nodular rash, white
b) cardiovascular system, mucous dermographism
membranes d) white dermographism, vesiculation and
c) hair, gastrointestinal tract weeping, severe itching
d) nails, musculoskeletal system
31. What are the clinical manifestations of
23. The best indication of giving urticaria?
corticosteroids in pustular psoriasis is: a) itching, blisters, scratching
a) psoriasis b) blisters, nodules, itching
b) pemphigus c) hemorrhagic spots, seropapules,
c) lichen planus bronchospasm
d) pityriasis rosea d) itching, spotted rash, scratching
32. What are the therapeutic measures for
24. What organs and tissues, except the atopic dermatitis?
skin, can be affected by lichen planus? a) exclusion of food allergen, the use of
a) mucous membranes, nails keratolytic ointments, psychotropic drugs
b) the use of corticosteroid ointments, 39. Psoriasis is exacerbated by:
antihistamines, diuretics a) Lithium
c) the use of corticosteroids systemically, the b) B-Blockers
use of corticosteroid ointments, antihistamines c) Antimalarials
d) the use of antihistamines, calcium d) All of the above
preparations, corticosteroid ointments
40. The important feature of psoriasis is:
33. What medicines can be used as a) Crusting
antipruritic? b) Scaling
a) tavegil, paracetamol, dexamethasone c) oozing
b) valerian extract, triamcinolone, d) erythema
magnesium preparations
c) analgin, fenkarol, histoglobulin 41. Vitamin D analogue calcitriol is useful
d) prednisolone, suprastin, sedatives in the treatment of :
a) Psoriasis
34. What is the emergency care for acute b) lichen planus
laryngeal edema? c) pemphigus
a) diphenhydramine intramuscularly d) leprosy
b) corticosteroids inside
c) adrenaline subcutaneous 42. Patient 6 years old complaints are: red
d) gastric lavage plaques covered with scales on the pressing
zones. About what disease we can thing?
35. What are the therapeutic measures for a) dermatitis
atopic dermatitis? b) eczema
a) exclusion of food allergen, the c) tinea
use of keratolytic ointments, d) psoriasis
psychotropic drugs
b) the use of corticosteroid 43. Doctor diagnose on the patient skin
ointments, Koebner’s phehomenon. For what disease it is
antihistamines,diuretics characterized?
c) the use of corticosteroids a) Psoriasis
systemically, the use of b) lichen planus
corticosteroid ointments, c) pituriasis rosea
antihistamines d) tumor
d) the use of antihistamines, calcium
preparations, corticosteroid 44. Doctor diagnose on the patient skin
ointments ”Herald patch”. For what disease it is
characterized?
36. What is the mechanism of antiallergic a) Psoriasis
action of antihistamines? b) pitшriasis rosea
a) narrowing of blood vessels, blocking H2 c) pituriasis lichenoid chronic
receptors d) acne vulgaris
b) blocking of the H1 and H2 receptors
c) blocking of H2 receptors, stabilization of 45. Least common site involvement in
mast cell membranes psoriasis is:
d) stabilization of mast cell membranes, a) Scalp
blocking of H1 receptors b) Arthritis
c) nail involvement
37. All are common of psoriasis except: d) CNS involvement
a) arthritis
b) squamo erythematous lesions 46. Photochemotherapy is used in:
c) nail changes a) Psoriasis
d) extensor distribution b) Phemphigus
c) tinea capitis
38. Psoriasis is characterised by all the d) tinea cruris
following except:
a) definite pink plaque with clear 47. Zoophilic trichophytosis differs under a
margin microscope from anthropophilic:
b) always associated with nail a) the presence of spores of ectotrix
infection b) the presence of spores of ectotrix
c) in children disappears in 2 weeks c) the presence of the coupling
to reappear again d) hair splitting
d) involves knees and elbows
48. Allergic contact dermatitis is 55. The ocular form of cicatricial
characterized histologically by: pemphigoid is most likely to be associated with
a) Psoriasiform dermatitis antibodies to:
b) Lichenoid infiltrate a) Beta-4-integrin
c) Spongiosis b) Laminin 5
d) Parakeratosis c) BPAg1
e) Granuloma d) BPAg2-NC16A

49. The primary autoantigen in 56. Mutations in beta-catenin are most

pemphigoid gestationis is: commonly associated with:
a) Desmoplakin a) Naxos disease
b) BPAG1 b) Bullous pemphigoid
c) BPAG2 c) Pilomatricomas
d) Plakoglobin d) Ectodermal dysplasia with skin
e) Anchoring fibrils fragility
50. 6-year-old girl presents with a 1-year
history of a waxing and waning rash on her 57. Pemphigus erythematosus:
limbs and face. The rash starts as red scaly a) Is also called Hallopeau
syndrome
bumps that fade over several weeks leaving
b) May be an abortive form of
smooth white spots. Every few months, the subcorneal pustulosis
patient gets several new red bumps. The rash is c) Is often in a malar/seborrheic
not itchy or painful. Her parents have tried distribution
topical steroid creams that did not help clear d) Does not have linear IgG and C3
the rash. Examination reveals scattered at the basement membrane zone
erythematous scaly papules on both legs and
58. Papillary dermal deposits of IgA and a
several hypopigmented macules on her legs,
papillary dermal infiltrate of neutrophils is
arms, and face. What is your diagnosis? diagnostic of:
a) Guttate psoriasis a) Sweet's syndrome
b) Lichen planus b) Leukocytoclastic vasculitis
c) Pityriasis lichenoides chronica c) Dermatitis herpetiformis
d) Lymphomatoid papulosis d) Linear IgA dermatosis

51. The genetic predisposition for patients 59. Cicatricial pemphigoid can be induced
with pemphigus vulgaris is: by:
a) HLA-DRQ402 a) Aminoglycosides
b) HLA-DR3 b) Benzene
c) HLA-DR4 c) Clonidine
d) HLA-0505 d) Vancomycin

52. Characteristic eosinophilic abscesses 60. In Brunsting-Perry pemphigoid, the

are seen in: recrurrent crops of blisters are most likely to
a) Bullous drug appear on:
b) Pemphigus vegetans a) Genitals
c) Herpes gestationis b) Palms and soles
d) Incontinentia pigmenti c) Umbilicus
e) Paraneoplastic pemphigus d) Head and neck

53. Drugs that are associated with the 61. What is the most common site of
exacerbation of pemphigus foliaceus include : involvement of this autoimmune blistering
a) Captopril disease?
b) Metoprolol a) Oral mucosa
c) Fluconazole b) Eyes
d) Calcium channel blockers c) Skin
d) Genitalia
54. Bullous pemphigoid antigen 1 (BPAg1)
is a member of this family: 62. Which neoplasm is the most common
a) Cadherin cause of paraneoplastic pemphigus?
b) Integrin a) Thymoma
c) Intermediate filament b) CLL
d) Plakin c) Castleman's disease
d) Retroperitoneal sarcoma
63. Paraneoplastic pemphigus: 71. Circulating autoantibodies to type XVII
a) Is characterized by a collagen are most characteristic of which
pathognomonic 250 kDa antigen disease?
b) Is most often seen in association a) Epidermolysis bullosa accquisita
with lung cancer b) Herpes gestationis
c) Does not remit even if the cancer c) Pemphigus vulgaris
is excised completely d) Pemphigus foliacious
d) May be caused by a benign
neoplasm 72. Which association is incorrect?
a) Epidermolysis bullosa acquisita :
64. Ocular cicatricial pemphigoid has inflammatory bowel disease
antibodies against: b) Dermatitis herpetiformis : small
a) Gamma-catenin bowel lymphoma
b) Peripherin c) Paraneoplastic pemphigus :
c) Beta4-integrin Castleman’s
d) Kalinin d) Herpes gestationis : menopause

65. The most common malignancy 73. Herpes gestationis is most commonly
associated with paraneoplastic pemphigus is: associated with:
a) Non-Hodgkin's lymphoma a) Grave's
b) Chronic lymphocytic leukemia b) Hashimoto's
c) Multiple myeloma c) Diabetes
d) Acute myelocytic leukemia d) Lupus

66. The vector of fogo selvagem may be: 74. Herpes gestationis is exacerbated by:
a) Triatoma a) Oral contraceptives
b) Simulium b) Menstruation
c) Cimex c) Third trimester
d) Ornithodorus d) All of these answers are correct

67. Each of the following is true about anti- 75. A woman in her 2nd trimester of
p200 pemphigoid except: pregnancy presents to clinic with
a) Responsive to dapsone urticarial plaques and papules around
b) Subepidermal bullae her umbilicus, chest and extremities.
c) 200-kd antigen Tense vesicles are present within a few
d) features of linear IgA disease of the erythematous plaques. This
woman’s condition is most commonly
68. The C-terminal domain of BPAg2 is associated with:
targeted in: a) Lymphoma
a) Bullous pemphigoid b) Multiparity
b) Cicatricial pemphigoid c) Grave’s Disease
c) IgA pemphigus d) Inflammatory Bowel Disease
d) Duhring’s disease
76. In penicillamine-induced pemphigus,
69. Patients with pemphigus vulgaris have the split is most often:
lesions that start in the mouth in a) Subcorneal
approximately : b) Intraspinous
a) 70% of patients c) Suprabasal
b) 50% of patients d) Intraepidermal and subepidermal
c) 30% of patients
d) 20% of patients 77. Common cause(s) of drug-induced
pemphigus foliaceus:
70. Which of the following is true of herpes a) Captopril
gestationis? b) Penicillamine
a) Demonstrates antibodies to the C-terminal c) Methotrexate
domain of BPAg2 d) Dilantin
b) Has higher frequency in females with
HLA-DQ2 78. Which of the following agent(s) has been
c) Is associated with Grave's disease most effective in treating severe ocular
d) Usually occurs in the first trimester of cicatricial
pregnancy pemphigoid?

a) Cyclophosphamide
b) Mycophenolate mofetil
c) Cyclophosphamide b) Bulla
d) Cyclosporin c) Patch
d) Nodule
79. The pH of normal skin is:
89. _____ lichen planus can go malignancy:
a) 5.0
b) 6.0 a) Oral LP
c) 7.0 b) Follicular LP
d) 5.5 c) Hypertropic LP
d) Vulvovaginalis LP
80. In normal skim, melanin is found in
which layer of skin: 90. What is the pathogenesis of vitiligo?
a) Subcutaneous tissue a) Congenital lack of pigmentation
b) Epidermis b) Increase in the number of melanosomes
c) Hair follicles c) Autoimmune destruction of melanocytes
d) Fatty tissue d) Benign proliferation of melanocytes

81. Where are scabies mites found? 91. Tumors:

a) Throughout the skin layers a) Solid lesions, >0.5 cm in diameter
b) Stratum Corneum b) Implies enlargement of tissues, by normal
c) Sub-epidermal or pathological material or cells, to form a mass
d) Hair Follicles c) An area of altered consistency of skin
which is usually elevated, but can be depressed or
82. Chemical induced Sceleroderma like flushed with surrounding skin
conditions d) Small, solid, elevated lesion
a) fibrosis, edematous.
b) vinyl chloride disease, fibrosis, 92. Crust:
bleomycin a) Is a collection of dead epidermal cells,
c) vinyl chloride disease, bleomycin, Kellie dried serum and sometimes dried blood. It is
morphea. yellow to brown in color. Removal of crust
d) all of above reveals a moist surface
83. Hypertrophic lichen planus found in: b) Due to complete or partial loss of viable
a) Pre tibial epidermis with no (or minimal) loss of the dermis
b) Post tibial c) Is a slit in the epidermis
c) Post fibular d) Thinning of skin and could be due to
d) Pre fibular atrophy of the epidermis, dermis or subcutaneous
tissue
84. Symptoms of pityriasis rosae:
a) Weakness 93. Clinical features of ecthyma:
b) Cough a) Removal of adherent crust reveals an
c) Cold irregular punched out ulcer.
d) Sore throat b) Dome-shaped follicular pustules
85. Most common site for annular pattern c) Occurs in postpubertal males
d) Beard area (called sycosis barbae) and
of lichen planus:
scalp are commonly involved.
a) Sun exposure site
b) Trunk and external genitalia 94. Etiology of Furuncles (Boils):
c) Scalp a) S. aureus
d) Forearm b) S. pyogenes
86. Extravasated dyskeratotic cell seen c) Scabies
with in: d) S. aureus, S. pyogenes
a) Epidermis
95. Nonfollicular, spreading and superficial
b) Hypodermis Pyoderma is:
c) Dermis a) Cellulitis
d) Statum cornium b) Erysipelas
87. Cutaneous lichen planus associates c) Ecthyma
with: d) Perifolliculitis
a) HCV
96. Wood's lamp diagnosis of pyoderma:
b) HAV
a) Lesions fluoresce coral pink
c) HBV b) Lesions fluoresce yellowl pink
d) ALL c) Lesions fluoresce coral-red pink
88. Earliest lesion of pityriasis rosae are: d) Lesions fluoresce green pink
a) Papule
97. Sites of predilection Pityriasis b) Clinically manifests as an area of
Versicolor: depressed skin and it may be possible to
a) Upper trunk, neck, upper arms invaginate a finger in the depressed skin
b) Any skin fold c) Due to complete or partial loss of viable
c) Foot epidermis with no (or minimal) loss of
d) Centrofacial region the dermis
d) Is diffuse or circumscribed induration of
98. Complications of Mycetoma: dermis/subcutaneous tissue, e.g., lichen
a) Involvement of deeper tissues (bones of sclerosus et atrophicus
feet and hands) may cause deformities in
longstanding cases 105. Sites of Impetigo Contagiosa:
b) manifests as an asymptomatic nodule a) Seen on legs, thighs, and buttocks
which ulcerates b) Face (periorificial, especially around the
c) Lytic lesions in underlying bones more mouth and nose), most frequent site of
frequent in eumycotic mycetoma. involvement
d) Rarely, gluteal region and thighs may be c) Seen on scalp
involved d) Seen on neck

99. Favus: 106. Differential diagnosis of Bullous

a) Often results in cicatricial alopecia impetigo:
b) Summers and rainy season a) Herpes simplex (HSV) infection
c) Summers and rainy season b) SSSS
d) annular lesions with active periphery c) Ecthyma
showing papulation d) Sycosis

107. Complications of Cellulitis:

100. Collagen: a) Staphylococcal scalded skin syndrome
a) Is synthesized by keratinocytes b) Recurrences may occur in the same area
b) Is arranged in parallel bundles in the and result in lymphedema which further
papillary dermis predisposes to recurrent infection
c) Has an extensive network throughout the c) Eczematization, a frequent complication
dermis d) Untreated, may evolve into ecthyma
d) Provides tensile strength
108. Correct dosage of Rifampicin:
101. What is the infective agent implicated a) 100 mg daily on empty stomach, for 8-10
in acne? days
a) Staphylococcus aureus b) 300 mg daily on empty stomach, for 7–14
b) Streptococcus pyogenes days
c) Staphylococcus epidermidis c) 250 mg daily on empty stomach, for 7–10
d) Propionobacterium a. days
d) 600 mg daily on empty stomach, for 7–10
102. How does impetigo present? days
a) Golden honey coloured crust over an
erythematous base 109. Causative agent of the Noninflammatory
b) Salmon coloured plaque with silvery scale tinea capitis:
c) Comedones, pustules and nodules a) M. canis
d) Flesh coloured papule with a rough b) T. verrucosum
surface c) Malassezia furfur
d) Candida albicans
103. Wheal:
a) Is an evanescent (lasting 48–72 h) 110. Morphology of Subcutaneous
elevated lesion produced by dermal edema phycomycosis:
b) Can be follicular (when they are conical) a) Slowly spreading, painless subcutaneous
or extrafollicular swelling with smooth edge which can be
c) Lesion is not blanchable—meaning that if raised by inserting a finger under it
a glass slide is pressed on the lesion b) A painless warty papule, slowly enlarges
d) Is a swelling caused by extravasation of to form a cauliflower-like hypertrophic
blood plaque
c) Trauma prone sites
104. Erosion: d) Verrucous plaques on lower extremity
a) Is the response of the skin to repeated
scratching and is typically seen in lichen 111. Three clinical patterns of Tinea pedis:
simplex chronicus and atopic dermatitis. a) Vesicular variant
It manifests as b) Atypical
c) Pustulation 121. Patients with crest syndrome usually
d) Inflammatory have
a) antibodies, ss-A
112. Systemic fungal infection b) anticentromere antibodies
a) Sporotrichosis c) centromere antibodies
b) Chromoblastomycosis d) sd-70
c) Candidiasis
d) Histoplasmosis 122. Hypergammaglobulinemia occurs in
approximately
a) 50%
113. Raynauds phenomenon is first b) 20-30%
symptoms of c) 90%
a) systemic sclerosis d) 10%
b) localized morphea
c) morphea profundus 123. Treatment of choice for progressive
d) nose systemic sclerosis
a) cyclosporine
114. Localized scleroderma is restricted to b) azathicprine
skin an c) chloroquine
a) symmetric manner d) penicillamine
b) asymmetric manner
c) both a and b 124. Linear morphea is most common
d) none of above variant in
a) children
115. All forms of scleroderma are more b) no one
common in c) female
a) male d) male
b) children
c) female 125. Morphea also known as
d) child and adult a) morphea profundus
b) localized scleroderma
116. Sceleroderma like disease can be c) linear scleroderma
induced by a no of chemical compound such as d) systemic sclerosis
a) plastic, solvent, drugs
b) plastic
c) drugs 126. Cirucumferential involvement of limbs
d) nose affecting skin, subcutaneous tissues, muscle
and bone
117. In both systemic sclerosis and crest a) morphea profundus
syndrome. How many stages of skin diseases b) pansclerotic morphea
a) 2 c) generalized morphea
b) 3 d) linear scleroderma
c) 1
d) 4 127. Lesion may involve other area of body
without internal organs involvement
118. Repeated and increasingly severe a) profundus
attack of Raynauds phenomenon b) mixed
a) skin damage c) pansclerotic morphea
b) face swelling d) linear scleroderma
c) finger tip ulceration
d) all the above
128. 30% of adults with morphea have auto
119. A dexrease in capillary loops occurs in immune diseases including
a) Raynauds phenomenon a) psoriasis
b) crest syndrome b) sclerosis
c) both a and b c) localized morphea
d) none d) systemic sclerosis

120. Telangiectasis may be present around

a) scalp, wrist 129. Which cream may be effective
b) tongue,scalp treatment for localized scleroderma
c) lips, tongue and M. Membranes a) tacrolimus
d) all above b) methotrexate
c) calcipotriene ointment
d) captopril d) all

130. It may be considered for patients who 139. Under what classification of morphea
have multiple lesions that on skin biopsy does the characteristics of morphea profundity
a) predinsolone lies
b) hydroxychloroquine sulfate a) plaque.
c) chloroquine b) Generalized
d) tacrolimus c) Deep
d) Bullous or linear
131. In linear scleroderma, female to male
ratio 140. Distinct form of localized scleroderma
a) 4:1 a) lesion in feet
b) 1:4 b) plaque in skin
c) 2:1 c) Bullous in skin
d) 3:2 d) coup de sabre

132. In linear scleroderma, which medicine 141. Circumferential involvement of limbs

is used for 3months affecting skin
a) oral MTX. a) linear scleroderma
b) prednisone b) pansclerotic morphea
c) methotrexate c) mixed morphea
d) both a and b d) Generalized morphea

133. Which are therapeutic option for pt 142. Allergic contact dermatitis is
with secondary Raynauds phenomenon characterized histologically by:
a) prednisone a) Psoriasiform dermatitis
b) prostacyclins b) Lichenoid infiltrate
c) cyclosporine c) Spongiosis
d) chloroquine d) Parakeratosis

143. The primary autoantigen in

134. With or without facial hemiotrophy is pemphigoid gestationis is:
a) localized scleroderma. a) Desmoplakin
b) linear scleroderma b) BPAG1
c) myopia c) BPAG2
d) morphea profundus d) Plakoglobin

135. Smoothening of facial lines, breaking 144. The genetic predisposition for patients
of nose, thinning of lips with pemphigus vulgaris is:
a) localized scleroderma a) HLA-DRQ402
b) linear morphea b) HLA-DR3
c) systemic sclerosis c) HLA-DR4
d) morphea profundus d) HLA-0505

136. Skin bilateral symmetric fibrosis of 145. Characteristic eosinophilic abscesses

skin, face, proximal and distal portion of are seen in:
extremities a) Bullous drug
a) diffuse Sceleroderma b) Pemphigus vegetans
b) linear scleroderma c) Herpes gestationis
c) localized morphea d) Incontinentia pigmenti
d) psoriasis

137. In minkin and rabban techniques 146. Drugs that are associated with the
which is used exacerbation of pemphigus foliaceus include :
a) ginger oil a) Captopril
b) mineral oil b) Metoprolol
c) olive oil c) Fluconazole
d) canola oil d) Calcium channel blockers

138. The lesions of morphea begins as one to 147. Bullous pemphigoid antigen 1 (BPAg1)
several circumscribed areas of is a member of this family:
a) pink Induration a) Cadherin
b) purplish Induration b) Integrin
c) Red duration c) Intermediate filament
d) Plakin
156. Paraneoplastic pemphigus:
148. The ocular form of cicatricial a) Is characterized by a
pemphigoid is most likely to be associated with pathognomonic 250 kDa antigen
antibodies to: b) Is most often seen in association
a) Beta-4-integrin with lung cancer
b) Laminin 5 c) Does not remit even if the cancer
c) BPAg1 is excised completely
d) BPAg2-NC16A d) All of these answers are correct

149. Mutations in beta-catenin are most

commonly associated with: 157. Ocular cicatricial pemphigoid has
a) Naxos disease antibodies against:
b) Bullous pemphigoid a) Gamma-catenin
c) Pilomatricomas b) Peripherin
d) Ectodermal dysplasia with skin c) Beta4-integrin
fragility d) Kalinin

150. Pemphigus erythematosus: 158. The most common malignancy

a) Is also called Hallopeau associated with paraneoplastic pemphigus is:
syndrome a) Non-Hodgkin's lymphoma
b) May be an abortive form of subcorneal b) Chronic lymphocytic leukemia
pustulosis c) Multiple myeloma
c) Is often in a malar/seborrheic d) Hodgkin's lymphoma
distribution
d) All of these answers are correct 159. The vector of fogo selvagem may be:
a) Triatoma
151. Papillary dermal deposits of IgA and a b) Simulium
papillary dermal infiltrate of neutrophils is c) Cimex
diagnostic of: d) Ornithodorus
a) Sweet's syndrome
b) Leukocytoclastic vasculitis 160. Each of the following is true about anti-
c) Dermatitis herpetiformis p200 pemphigoid except:
d) Linear IgA dermatosis a) Responsive to dapsone
b) Subepidermal bullae
152. Cicatricial pemphigoid can be induced c) 200-kd antigen
by: d) features of linear IgA disease
a) Aminoglycosides
b) Benzene 161. The C-terminal domain of BPAg2 is
c) Clonidine targeted in:
d) Vancomycin a) Bullous pemphigoid
b) Cicatricial pemphigoid
153. In Brunsting-Perry pemphigoid, the c) IgA pemphigus
recrurrent crops of blisters are most likely to d) Duhring’s disease
appear on:
a) Genitals 162. A 6-year-old girl presents with a 1-year
b) Palms and soles history of a waxing and waning rash on her
c) Umbilicus limbs and face. The rash starts as red scaly
d) Head and neck
bumps that fade over several weeks leaving
154. What is the most common site of smooth white spots. Every few months, the
involvement of this autoimmune blistering patient gets several new red bumps. The rash is
disease? not itchy or painful. Her parents have tried
a) Oral mucosa topical steroid creams that did not help clear
b) Eyes the rash. Examination reveals scattered
c) Skin erythematous scaly papules on both legs and
d) Genitalia
several hypopigmented macules on her legs,
155. Which neoplasm is the most common arms, and face. What is your diagnosis?
cause of paraneoplastic pemphigus? e) Guttate psoriasis
a) Thymoma f) Lichen planus
b) CLL g) Pityriasis lichenoides chronica
c) Retroperitoneal sarcoma h) Lymphomatoid papulosis
d) Non-Hodgkin's lymphoma
 b) Captopril and penicillamine
163. Which of the following is true of herpes c) Methotrexate
gestationis? d) Dilantin
a) Demonstrates antibodies to the C-
terminal domain of BPAg2 171. ____ is not varients of Pityriasis rosae:
b) Has higher frequency in females a) Inverse PR
with HLA-DQ2 b) Papular PR
c) Is associated with Grave's disease
c) Bullous PR
d) Usually occurs in the first
trimester of pregnancy d) Patchy PR

172. A 25-year-old man presents with a

164. Circulating autoantibodies to type
rash on his knees. This had gradually
XVII collagen are most characteristic of which
disease? worsened over three years. In addition he
a) Epidermolysis bullosa accquisita had previously had dandruff and more
b) Herpes gestationis recently noticed his nails changing, for
c) Pemphigus vulgaris which his GP treated him for a fungal nail
d) Pemphigus foliacious infection, but with no improvement. He is
a smoker and drinks 35 units of alcohol
165. Which association is incorrect? per week. He has noticed an improvement
a) Epidermolysis bullosa acquisita : during the summer months and has also
inflammatory bowel disease developed pains in his elbow and knees.
b) Dermatitis herpetiformis : small His sister had a similar rash over her
bowel lymphoma elbows.
c) Paraneoplastic pemphigus : Examination: there are erythematous
Castleman’s plaques on his knees with clearly defined
d) Herpes gestationis : menopause borders and overlying thick scale. There
is fine scale throughout the scalp and in
166. Herpes gestationis is most commonly his external auditory canals. Examination
associated with: of his finger nails reveal three nail plates
a) Grave's with pitting and onycholysis. What is the
b) Hashimoto's diagnosis?
c) Diabetes a) Clinically this patient has discoid LE
d) Lupus b) Clinically this patient has chronic
eczema
167. Herpes gestationis is exacerbated by:
a) Oral contraceptives c) Clinically this patient has localized
b) Menstruation neurodermatitis
c) Third trimester d) Clinically this patient has chronic
d) All of these answers are correct plaque psoriasis

168. A woman in her 2nd trimester of 173. An 18-year-old girl develops a

pregnancy presents to clinic with widespread rash 5 days after a sore
urticarial plaques and papules around throat. She had pre- sented in a similar
her umbilicus, chest and extremities. way 2 years ago to her GP who treated
Tense vesicles are present within a few her with antibiotics and the rash had
of the erythematous plaques. This faded. She does not feel unwell in herself
woman’s condition is most commonly and has no other symptoms. There are
associated with: multiple erythematous small dis- crete
a) Lymphoma plaques and papules with overlying scale
b) Multiparity predominantly over her trunk but also
c) Grave’s Disease affecting her limbs. Her face and scalp
d) Lupus have been spared. Her nails are nor- mal.
Examination of her throat reveals some
169. In penicillamine-induced pemphigus, erythema over her pharynx, but no
the split is most often: pustules are seen. What is the most likely
a) Subcorneal diagnosis?
b) Intraspinous
a) This patient is suffering from pustular
c) Suprabasal
d) Intraepidermal and subepidermal psoriasis
b) This patient is suffering from
170. Common cause(s) of drug-induced erythrodermic psoriasis
pemphigus foliaceus: c) This patient is suffering from guttate
a) Penicillamine psoriasis
 d) This patient is suffering from chronic DNA repair. Individuals with XP
psoriasis develop multiple cutaneous neoplasms
at a young age (from 4 to 5 years of
174. A 74-year-old woman presents age)
with a 1-year history of a lesion on the b) XP stands dryness and scali- ness of the
dorsum of her middle finger. This has skin is often present from birth, and
gradually increased in size over the last 12 gradually becomes more prominent in
months and is asymptomatic. Previously late childhood. The build-up of adherent
she had a similar lesion on her left leg, scale imparts a ‘dirty appearance’ to the
which had been treated successfully 18 skin
months ago. She lived abroad as a child c) XP stands group of disorders
and is a keen gardener. She is otherwise characterized by intra-epidermal
well and takes 75 mg aspirin daily. blistering. The disease phenotype can
range from mild to severe. clinical
There is an erythematous plaque 1 cm in
spectrum
size with overlying scale on the dorsum of
d) XP stands tuberous sclerosis complex,
her middle finger, the surrounding skin
which has a broad
being normal. What are the differential
176. A 65-year-old man of Middle Eastern
diagnoses? descent presents with a tender, weeping mass
a) discoid eczema on his right palm. Since appearing 8 months
b) cavernous haemangioma ago, the lesion has enlarged into a 0.9-cm, pink
c) tinea pedis pedunculated nodule with abundant serous
d) unilateral lymphedema crust. The patient has no significant history of
175. A 17-year-old woman is brought to trauma. His medical history is significant for
the accident and emergency department atrial fibrillation, hypertension, coronary
by ambu- lance. She had collapsed in the artery disease, congestive heart failure, and
high street; witnesses called an ambulance lung cancer, which was treated with right
immediately as she began to fit. She had lobectomy. It is unclear what medications were
two further fits on the way to hospital and used to treat his lung cancer. His current
the paramedical team described classic medications include metoprolol, lisinopril,
generalized tonic–clonic seizures, allopurinol, aspirin, and digoxin. The patient
including a stereotypical ictal cry. She is also presents with additional pink, scaly
drowsy and confused on arrival. Her plaques on his right ankle, consistent with
Medi-Alert bracelet confirms that she is nummular eczema.
What is your diagnosis?
known to have epilepsy and that she has
another diagnosis, ‘XP’. Her family are on a) Amelanotic melanoma
their way to the hospital. In the meantime b) Squamous cell carcinoma
the medical team ensures that she is now c) Bacillary angiomatosis
stable. She appears to be in a deep sleep d) Lobular capillary hemangioma
and is difficult to rouse, although she 177. A 60-year-old Black woman presents
withdraws from pain. Her blood pressure with a 30-day history of a nonitchy rash. The
is 105/60 mmHg, heart rate 68 beats/min rash is located on her face, trunk, and
and respiratory rate 12 breaths/min. She extremities. She reports that she has tried
is clearly still in a post-ictal state. There topical steroids on the rash, which did not help.
are marked skin changes affecting all The patient has no other medical conditions
exposed areas of skin, particularly her and takes no medications. She notes that she
face (especially cheeks, nose and pinna of
had unprotected sex with a new partner about
her ears), neck, ‘V’ of the chest and the
dorsa of her hands, but not affecting her 4 months prior to presentation. On physical
trunk or other clothed areas. There is examination, the patient has many scattered
poikiloderma (skin atrophy, and erythematous scaly papules on her face,
telangiectasias with mottled abdomen, back, and upper and lower
hyperpigmentation and extremities including the palms and soles.
hypopigmentation). She has bilateral What is your diagnosis?
ectropions and a narrow ‘pinched’ nose. a) Pityriasis lichenoides et varioliformis
The distribution of the skin changes acuta (PLEVA)
suggests a role for what environmental b) Secondary syphilis
factor? c) Pemphigus vulgaris
a) XP stands for xeroderma pigmentosum, d) Bullous pemphigoid
a rare autosomal recessive disorder 178. A 56-year-old woman presents with
character- ized by a cellular thickened, yellow skin on the soles of her feet
hypersensitivity to ultraviolet (UV) that has been present since she was a child. On
radiation resulting from a defect in
examination, the affected areas appear d) HLA-Bw3
localized to the weight-bearing pressure areas
of her feet, with hypertrophy of her fifth 184. Characteristic eosinophilic abscesses
toenail. She has a history of hyperhidrosis, and are seen in:
her mother and grandfather had similar a) Bullous drug
symptoms on their soles. Histologic b) Pemphigus vegetans
examination of a skin sample shows a c) Incontinentia pigmenti
nonepidermolytic pattern, with increased d) Paraneoplastic pemphigus
thickness of the stratum corneum
(hyperkeratosis) and acanthosis. Molecular 185. Drugs that are associated with the
testing reveals a mutation in exacerbation of pemphigus foliaceus include :
the KRT6C gene, which codes for an isoform of a) Captopril
keratin 6. What is your diagnosis? b) Fluconazole
a) Lichen planus c) Calcium channel blockers
b) Palmoplantar keratoderma d) Statins
c) Psoriasis
d) Chronic dermatitis 186. Bullous pemphigoid antigen 1 (BPAg1)
179. A 61-year-old man presents with a 7- is a member of this family:
month history of lesions on his hands and a) Cadherin
arms. His medical history includes depression, b) Intermediate filament
hypertension, and hyperlipidemia. He has no c) Plakin
d) Selectin
personal or family history of skin problems.
His skin lesions are not painful or itchy, and he
187. The ocular form of cicatricial
is not bothered by their appearance. He has not pemphigoid is most likely to be associated with
tried any treatments for the lesions. Physical antibodies to:
examination reveals a number of pink, annular a) Beta-4-integrin
plaques with smooth raised borders on the b) Laminin 5
patient’s dorsal forearms and hands. On close c) BPAg1
inspection, small discrete papules are seen d) Plectin
within the plaques. What is your diagnosis? 188. Mutations in beta-catenin are most
a) Lupus commonly associated with:
b) Tinea corporis a) Naxos disease
c) Localized granuloma annulare b) Bullous pemphigoid
d) Sarcoidosis c) Pilomatricomas
d) Ectodermal dysplasia with skin
180. Which of the following agent(s) has fragility
been most effective in treating severe ocular
cicatricial pemphigoid? 189. Pemphigus erythematosus:
a) Cyclophosphamide a) May be an abortive form of
b) Mycophenolate mofetil subcorneal pustulosis
c) Cyclophosphamide + corticosteroids b) Is often in a malar/seborrheic
d) Cyclosporin distribution
c) Does not have linear IgG and C3
181. Allergic contact dermatitis is at the basement membrane zone
characterized histologically by: d) All of these answers are correct
a) Psoriasiform dermatitis
b) Lichenoid infiltrate 190. Papillary dermal deposits of IgA and a
c) Spongiosis papillary dermal infiltrate of neutrophils is
d) Parakeratosis diagnostic of:
a) Sweet's syndrome
182. The primary autoantigen in b) Dermatitis herpetiformis
pemphigoid gestationis is: c) Linear IgA dermatosis
a) Desmoplakin d) Bullous pemphigoid
b) BPAG1
c) Plakoglobin 191. Cicatricial pemphigoid can be induced
d) Anchoring fibrils by:
a) Aminoglycosides
183. The genetic predisposition for patients b) Benzene
with pemphigus vulgaris is: c) Clonidine
a) HLA-DRQ402 d) Ciprofloxacin
b) HLA-DR3
c) HLA-DR4
192. In Brunsting-Perry pemphigoid, the d) Pemphigoid gestationis
recrurrent crops of blisters are most likely to
appear on: 201. Patients with pemphigus vulgaris have
a) Genitals lesions that start in the mouth in
b) Palms and soles approximately :
c) Umbilicus a) 70% of patients
d) Head and neck b) 50% of patients
c) 30% of patients
193. What is the most common site of d) 10% of patients
involvement of this autoimmune blistering
disease? 202. Which of the following is true of herpes
a) Oral mucosa gestationis?
b) Eyes a) Demonstrates antibodies to the C-
c) Skin terminal domain of BPAg2
d) Nasopharyngeal mucosa b) Is associated with Grave's disease
c) Usually occurs in the first
194. Which neoplasm is the most common trimester of pregnancy
cause of paraneoplastic pemphigus? d) Shows subepidermal bullae
a) Thymoma mostly with neutrophils
b) CLL
c) Castleman's disease 203. Circulating autoantibodies to type
d) Retroperitoneal sarcoma XVII collagen are most characteristic of which
disease?
195. Paraneoplastic pemphigus: a) Epidermolysis bullosa accquisita
a) Is characterized by a b) Herpes gestationis
pathognomonic 250 kDa antigen c) Pemphigus vulgaris
b) Does not remit even if the cancer d) Paraneoplastic pemphigus
is excised completely
c) May be caused by a benign 204. Which association is incorrect?
neoplasm e) Epidermolysis bullosa acquisita :
d) All of these answers are correct inflammatory bowel disease
f) Dermatitis herpetiformis : small
196. Ocular cicatricial pemphigoid has bowel lymphoma
antibodies against: g) Herpes gestationis : menopause
a) Gamma-catenin h) Porphyria cutanea tarda :
b) Peripherin hemochromatosis
c) Beta4-integrin
d) Kalinin 205. Herpes gestationis is most commonly
associated with:
197. The most common malignancy a) Grave's
associated with paraneoplastic pemphigus is: b) Hashimoto's
a) Non-Hodgkin's lymphoma c) Diabetes
b) Chronic lymphocytic leukemia d) Rheumatoid arthritis
c) Multiple myeloma
d) Acute myelocytic leukemia 206. Herpes gestationis is exacerbated by:
a) Oral contraceptives
198. The vector of fogo selvagem may be: b) Menstruation
a) Triatoma c) Postpartum state
b) Simulium d) All of these answers are correct
c) Cimex
d) Ornithodorus 207. A woman in her 2nd trimester of
pregnancy presents to clinic with
199. Each of the following is true about anti- urticarial plaques and papules around
p200 pemphigoid except: her umbilicus, chest and extremities.
a) Responsive to dapsone Tense vesicles are present within a few
b) Subepidermal bullae of the erythematous plaques. This
c) 200-kd antigen woman’s condition is most commonly
d) features of linear IgA disease associated with:
a) Lymphoma
200. The C-terminal domain of BPAg2 is b) Grave’s Disease
targeted in: c) Inflammatory Bowel
a) Bullous pemphigoid Disease
b) Cicatricial pemphigoid d) Lupus
c) IgA pemphigus
208. In penicillamine-induced pemphigus, d) Caused by dermatophytes
the split is most often:
a) Subcorneal 217. Localized papules are not located in:
b) Intraspinous
a) Palm and sole
c) Intraepidermal and subepidermal
d) Subepidermal b) Wrist and forearm
c) Legs and above ankle
209. Common cause(s) of drug-induced d) In lumbar region
pemphigus foliaceus:
a) Captopril 218. Untreated LP continues for
b) Penicillamine approximately:
c) Methotrexate
a) 8 month
d) Dilantin
b) 9 month
210. Which of the following agent(s) has c) 7 month
been most effective in treating severe d) 10 month
ocular cicatricialpemphigoid?
a) Cyclophosphamide 219. Pityriasis rosae limited to:
b) Mycophenolate mofetil a) Face
c) Cyclophosphamide
b) Truck
d) Azathioprine
c) Proximal extremities
211. Lichen planus occur in children d) All are correct
younger than:
a) 5 year 220. Location of oral LP ( choose correct
b) 4 year one):
c) 2 year a) Buccal 80-90%
d) 3 year b) Tongue 60-70%
c) Tongue 40-50%
212. Herald patch seen in: d) Buccal 70-80%
a) Lichen planus
b) Pityriasis rosae 221. Aggregation lesion of PR is:
c) Lichen sclerosis a) Upward
d) None of these b) Downward
c) Lateral
213. Surgical excision and grafting required d) Inward
in ___ LP: 222. Papular lesion of pityriasis rosae
a) Hypertropic LP commonly seen in:
b) Palm and sole LP a) Adult
c) Follicular LP b) Children
d) Oral LP c) Neonate
d) All the these
214. Salmon Pink lesion seen in:
a) Lichen planus 223. Which statement is true:
b) Pityriasis rosae a) lichen planus lesion (papule) Large and
c) Both of these aggregated
d) None of these b) lichen planus lesion (papule) small and
aggregated
215. Hypertrophic LP __in color: c) lichen planus lesion (papule) Large and
a) Reddish brown linear
b) Pinkish red d) lichen planus lesion (papule) small and
c) Bluish linear
d) Violet
224. Hypertropic pattern of lichen planus
216. Pityriasis rosae is: is seen in:
a) Self limiting a) Lower limb (ankle)
b) Chronic relapsing b) Upper limb (plam)
c) Life threatening c) Lower limb (toes)
d) A problem( forearm)
 a) small multiple foci, apparently unchanged
225. Herald patch are: hair in the lesion foci at the base of the
a) Annular hair - white clutch
b) Linear b) outlines of the focus – clear
c) Hypertropic c) foci large, continuous hair damage
d) None. 235. For inguinal epidermophytia are
characteristic:
226. Inverse pityriasis rosae:
a) Dominantly papular a) localization in large folds of skin
b) Dominantly vesicular b) lack of erythema
c) Present on extremities c) conflicts
d) Present on trunk d) ulcers
227. Wickham striate is accentuated by: e)
a) Methylene blue 236. The diagnosis of inguinal
epidermophytosis is based on:
b) Immersion oil
a) Microscopy
c) Brown staining b) Lymphadenitis
d) Silver nitrate c) Dermatoscopy
d) sowing
228. Hyperpigmentation of black patient
seen in:
a) Lichen planus 237. Nail plate for onychomycosis:
b) Pityriasis rosae a) hypertrophies
c) Lichen sclerosis b) looks like a thimble
d) None of these c) has the appearance of convex glass
229. Erosive and ulcerative lichen planus d) has the form of concave glass
seen in:
a) Feet and mouth 238. The clinical features of infiltrative
b) Palm suppurative trichophytosis are:
a) erythema
c) Trunk
b) cartilage inflammation
d) Scalp c) smooth skin
230. Pityriasis rosae cause by: d) fuzzy
a) HHV-6 239. Nizoral (ketokenazole) in children's
b) HHV-2 practice is used:
c) HAV a) not applicable under 3 years old
d) HCA b) in children under two years of age only
231. Lichenoid reaction mainly due to: for health reasons
a) Cigarette smoking c) for all children only for health reasons
b) Alcohol intake d) in chronic candidiasis
c) Intake of drugs 240. For external treatment of
onychomycosis, it is used:
d) Chewing nuts
a) distilled water
232. Which drug don't cause drug induced b) iodine
lichenoid eruption: c) white streptocide
a) Chloroquine d) novocaine solution
b) Phenothiazine
c) Gold salt 241. Side effects in the treatment of nizoral
d) Dapson include:
a) thinning nails
233. In chronic trichophytosis, it is affected: b) hair thickening
a) skin (score - 9) c) nausea
b) mucous membranes
d) thinning hair
c) cartilage
d) central nervous system 242. Route of transmission for acquired
234. For trichophytosis of the scalp are syphilis.
characteristic: a) Alimentary
b) transcutaneous
c) placental
d) sexual
243. The incubation period of syphilis a) phlegmon
usually continues b) atheroma
a) 3-4 year c) hyperkeratosis
b) 6-7 weeks d) weeping
c) 3-4 weeks
d) 2-3 weeks 253. Typical localization of chronic lupus
erythematosus:
244. The duration of the primary period of a) palms
syphilis is usually: b) auricles
a) 6-7 week c) face
b) 3-4 weeks
d) scalp
c) 2-3 months
d) 2-4 years 254. The disseminated form of lupus
erythematosus is characterize , in addition to:
245. Treponema pallidum called pale
a) small lesions
a) because it is transparent
b) lichenization
b) due to the presence in the lesion focus of the
c) common rash
toxin secreted by treponema, which stains the
skin in a pale color d) lesions of closed skin
c) hardly stained with aniline dyes
255. Centrifugal erythema is characterized
d) because it forms L-forms and cysts
246. Characteristics of a solid chancre by:
a) soft ulcer a) follicular hyperkeratosis
b) painless erosion or an ulcer with a dense b) atrophy
infiltrate at the base c) lichenization
c) edges undermined d) erythema
d) purulent discharge
256. Diagnostic symptoms of discoid lupus
247. The solid chancre is differentiated from erythematosus:
a) Microsporia a) Benier-Meshchersky symptom
b) herpes zoster b) symptom - blood dew‖
c) phlegmon c) Nikolsky's symptom 1
d) chanciform pyoderma d) Nikolsky's symptom 2
257. Favorite localization of discoid lupus
248. Average duration of the secondary erythematosus, in addition to
a) Torso
period of syphilis
b) Face
a) 6-7 weeks
c) Auricles
b) 4-5 weeks
c) 2-4 years d) scalp
d) 6-10 years
258. The differential diagnosis of discoid
249. The solid chancre is always located
lupus erythematosus is carried out with:
a) on the skin of the genital organs
a) simple contact dermatitis
b) at the site of the entry gate of infection
c) on the red border of the lips b) lichen planus
d) on the back of the tongue c) centrifugal erythema
250. Atypical chancre localized on the d) lupus tuberculosis
tonsils
a) chancre panaritium 259. Choose the correct order of growing stages
b) inductive edema of the hair:
c) chanciform pyoderma
a. telogen – catagen – anagen
d) chancre amygdalite
b. anagen – catagen – telogen
251. Complications of hard chancre c. catagen – telogen – anagen
d. catagen – anagen – telogen
a) Phimosis
b) penetration 260. Which part of sun radiation does induce
c) pyoderma erythema on skin?
d) orchitis
a. infrared radiation
252. Symptoms of chronic lupus
b. UV-A-rays (400 nm – 315 nm)
erythematosus:
c. UV-B-rays (314 nm – 280 nm)
d. UV-C-rays (below 280 nm) b) Fever
c) Pruritis
261.What is the meaning of the term phototoxic d) Urticarial-appearing plaque
dermatitis?
a) reaction of skin when because of sun 266. If a patient presents with blisters, it is
radiation arise metabolites, that cause most appropriate to differentiate bullous
abnormal inflammatory reaction pemphigoid from pemphigus vulgaris, a much
more serious condition. Differentiation is usually
b) reaction of skin after longterm exposition
possible using clinical criteria. Of the following
to intense sun radiation
clinical criteria, which best differentiates bullous
c) reaction of skin caused by direct pemphigoid from pemphigus vulgaris?
interaction of radiation and
photosensitising substance producing a a) Bullae are flaccid and of various
type of sunburn reaction sizes
d) reaction of skin after too intense b) Lesions shear off skin, leaving
exposition to infrared radiation painful erosions  
e) reaction of skin to UV-radiation as a c) Lesions start in the mouth
consequence of genetic higher sensibility d) Nikolsky sign is negative  

262. What is the meaning of the term 267. Without treatment, bullous pemphigoid
photoallergic dermatitis ? usually remits after 3 to 6 years but can be fatal
in about one third of elderly, debilitated
a) reaction of skin caused by patients. For elderly patients with generalized
photoallergens and UVA radiation in and recalcitrant disease, which of the following
sensitised individuals is the most appropriate treatment to decrease
b) reaction of skin after longterm the risk for morbidity?
exposition of skin to intense sun
radiation a) Anti-inflammatory drugs
c) reaction of skin caused by direct b) High-potency topical corticosteroids  
interaction of radiation and c) Immunosuppressants
photosensitising substance producing d) Oral corticosteroids  
a type of sunburn reaction
268. What is erosion?
d) reaction of skin after too intense
exposition to infrared radiation e. a) superficial loss of epidermis
reaction of skin to UV-radiation as a b) loss of epidermis and upper region of
consequence of genetic higher papillary part of
sensibility c) circumscribed loss of stratum disjunctum

263. Lichenoid drug eruption is induced by: d) saturation of epidermis by blood

a) sulphonamides discharge
b) broad- spectrum antibiotics
269. Assign important characteristic and
c) preparations of gold
differential diagnostic signs of lichen ruber:
d) beta blockers
e) antipyretics a) changes can be found on the buccal
mucosa close to molars, on the
264. Acne vulgaris can be provoked or tonguethere is typical white net without
exacerbated by these drugs: papules
a) corticosteroids b) uniformly white-colored spots on the
b) mercury, bismuth buccal mucosa, which may grow,
c) arsenic, gold infiltrate or erode
d) halogens c) changes can be localized on the oral
mucosa, where they form asymptomatic
e) antimalarials
erythematous plaques covered with white
hyperkeratosis
265. Bullous pemphigoid is a chronic
d) painful superficial erosions surrounded by
autoimmune skin disorder that occurs more
a narrow erythema, covered by white film
often in patients > 60 years of age. Which of the
on the bucal mucosa and soft palate
following is the most common initial symptom?
270. What is erosion?
a) Bullae   a) superficial loss of epidermis
 b) loss of epidermis and upper region of a) Asymmetry
papillary part of b) clear boundaries
c) circumscribed loss of stratum disjunctum c) "archipelago of islands"
d) saturation of epidermis by blood d) 1 to 5 cm in diameter itchy plaques
279. Seborrheic eczema is
discharge
localized on the skin,
271. Crust develops: in addition to:
a) from necrosis a) Back
b) from dried epidermis b) Faces
c) from cellular elements over pathological c) Lower limbs
lesion d) scalp
d) from dried excretion over some 280. The basis of eczema are
pathological histopathological changes:
272. Sebaceous glands are a) Parakeratosis
normally found on: b) Spongiosis
a) Soles c) Vegetation
b) backs of the hands d) Acantholysis
c) face 281. Pseudofurunculosis
d) abdomen is:
273. A 15-year-old girl presents with patches a) inflammation of the sebaceous hair
of hair loss on her scalp that have been present follicles
for the last 6 months. She reports that her scalp b) inflammation of the mucous sweat glands
is not itchy or painful and denies any recent c) inflammation of the apocrine glands
illnesses, diet changes, or stressful life events. d) inflammation of the sebaceous hair
She does not have any other medical conditions 282. In the treatment of epidemic
and takes no medications. Her uncle had a pemphigus prescribed, in addition to:
similar condition that started when he was in a) Antibiotics
his 20s, but no one else in the family has b) Ointments with antibiotics
experienced hair loss. The patient says she has c) Enter quarantine
not tried any treatments for the condition. On d) Salicylic acid
examination, she has several well-demarcated 283. The epidemic pemphigus of newborns is
patches of hair loss on her frontal and parietal different from:
scalp, with no perifollicular erythema or a) congenital pemphigus
scale. What is your diagnosis? b) staphylococcus
a) Tinea capitis c) streptococcus
b) Androgenetic alopecia d) vesiculopustulosis
c) Alopecia areata 284. The causative agent of epidemic
d) Trichotillomania pemphigus in newborns:
274. Choose the correct order of growing a) Staphylococcus
stages of the hair: b) Streptococcus
a) telogen - catagen – anagen c) Congenital pemphigus
b) anaqen - catagen – telogen d) Syphilitic pemphigus
c) catagen - telogen – anagen 285. In newborns it
d) catagen - anagen – telogen happens:
275. In which part of the skin is produced a) nummular dermatitis
melanin? b) vesiculopustulosis
a) in keratinocytes of stratum basale c) lichen planus
b) in melanofores of derma d) tubercles
c) in keratinocytes of stratum spinosum 286. Varnishes have the
d) in melanocytes following effect:
276. How many rows of cells with nuclei are a) Disinfectant
normally in the stratum corneum? b) Anti-inflammatory
a) 10 – 12 c) Keratolytic
b) 7 – 9 d) Antibiotics
c) 4 – 6 287. Chatterboxes have
d) 1 – 3 the following effect,
277. Developmental transition of cells from in addition to:
the basal layer to the horny layer in a) Drying
normal skin depends on their: b) Antipruritic
a) proliferation ability c) Disinfectant
b) none of the options is correct d) Keratoplastic
c) differentiation 288. Lotions have the
d) survival following effect:
278. For true eczema are characteristic: a) Warming
 b) Talc d) Scalp
c) Disinfectant 298. Symptoms of chronic
d) Keratolytic lupus erythematosus:
289. Toxic shock a) Phlegmon
syndrome is caused b) Atheroma
by: c) Weeping
a) Staphylococcal infection d) Hyperkeratosis
b) Streptococcus 299. Complications of
c) Pseudomonas hard chancre
d) Escherichia coli
a) Pyoderma
290. Erysipeloid is
transmitted by: b) Penetration
a) Droplet c) Orchitis
b) Feco-oral d) Phimosis
c) Mosquito bite 300. Atypical chancre
localized on the
d) Contact with animal
tonsils
291. Which of these statements is false for
a) Chancre panaritium
Erythema marginatum?
b) Inductive edema
a) Lesions are serpiginous
c) Chancre amygdalite
b) Characteristically it is evanescent
d) Chanciform pyoderma
c) Rash worsens on application of heat
d) Rash is itchy
292. Commonest skin
infection in children
is:
a) Scabies
b) Impetigo contagiosa
c) Molluscum contagiosa
d) Warts
293. On the transition of chronic lupus
erythematosus in the systemic says:
a) LE- phenomenon
b) Follicular hyperkeratosis
c) Infectious diseases
d) Lichenization
294. In systemic lupus erythematosus more
often passes:
a) Discoid lupus erythematosus
b) Centrifugal erythema bietta
c) Scabies
d) Warts
295. Currently, lupus
erythematosus is
attributed to:
a) Infectious diseases
b) Autoimmune diseases
c) Viral diseases
d) Sexually transmitted diseases
296. The differential
diagnosis of discoid
lupus erythematosus
is carried out with:
a) simple contact dermatitis
b) lichen planus
c) centrifugal erythema
d) lupus tuberculosis
297. Favorite localization
of discoid lupus
erythematosus, in
addition to:
a) Torso
b) Face
c) Auricles