Location via proxy:   [ UP ]  
[Report a bug]   [Manage cookies]                

Aiatsoyjmo2016t09 Solution

Download as pdf or txt
Download as pdf or txt
You are on page 1of 27

Test - 9 (Code-A) All India Aakash Test Series for JEE (Main)-2016

Time : 3 Hrs. MM : 360


TEST - 9
PART - A (PHYSICS)
SECTION - I R R
(1)  (2) 
Straight Objective Type Questions 2 2
This section contains 25 multiple choice questions
R
numbered 1 to 25. Each question has 4 choices (1), (2), (3)  (4) R
(3) and (4), out of which ONLY ONE is correct. 4

Choose the correct answer : 5. The system starts from rest and A attains a velocity
of 5 m/s after it has moved 5 m towards right.
1. A body is thrown up in a lift with a velocity 20 m/s Assuming the arrangement to be frictionless
relative to the lift and the time of flight is 2 s. The everywhere and pulley and string to be light, the value
acceleration of the lift is of the force F applied on A is
(1) 10 m/s2 up (2) 10 m/s2 down
(3) 5 m/s2 up (4) 5 m/s2 down
A 6 kg F
dv
2. Equation of motion of a body is  2v  4 , where
dt
v is the velocity in m/s and t is the time in second. B 2 kg
Initial velocity of the particle was zero, then
(1) 50 N (2) 75 N
(1) The initial acceleration is zero
(3) 10 N (4) 96 N
(2) The initial acceleration is 2 m/s2
6. A block attached to a spring, pulled by a constant
(3) The initial rate of change of acceleration of the horizontal force is kept on a smooth surface as shown
particle is 4 m/s2 in figure. Initially the spring is in the natural state.
(4) The terminal speed is 2 m/s Then the maximum positive work that the applied force
F can do is
3. A stone is thrown horizontally with a velocity of
10 m/s. Find the radius of curvature of its trajectory
at the end of 3 s after motion began. K
F
(1) 10 10 m (2) 100 10 m

(3) 10 m (4) 100 m F2 2F 2


(1) (2)
4. A uniform disc of radius R lies in the x – y plane, with K K
its centre at origin. Its moment of inertia about z-axis
is equal to its moment of inertia about line F2
(3) Infinite (4)
y = x + c. The value of c will be 2K

Space for Rough Work

1/16
All India Aakash Test Series for JEE (Main)-2016 Test - 9 (Code-A)

7. The figure shows a soap film in which a closed elastic Y


thread is lying. The film inside the thread is pricked.
Now the sliding wire is moved out so that the surface Vs
area increases. The radius of circle formed by elastic 30°
thread will VW
Elastic thread A B

Sliding wire (1) 510 Hz (2) 500 Hz


(3) 525 Hz (4) 550 Hz
10. A hot black body emits the energy at the rate of 16
Soap film J m–2 s–1 and its most intense radiation corresponds
(1) Increase to 20,000 Å . When the temperature of this body is
(2) Decrease further increased and its most intense radiation
corresponds to 10,000 Å, then the energy radiated
(3) Remain same in J m–2 s–1 will be
(4) May increase or decrease
(1) 4 (2) 1
8. A cubical block of side a and density  slides over a
(3) 64 (4) 256
fixed inclined plane with constant velocity v. There is
a thin film of viscous fluid of thickness t between the 11. M1 and M2 are plane mirrors and kept parallel to each
plane and the block. Then the coefficient of viscosity other. At point O there will be a maxima for wavelength
of the thin film will be . Light from monochromatic source S of wavelength
 is not reaching directly in the screen. Then  is
(D>>d, d>>)


 a g t sin  a g t
(1)   (2)
v v
v  a g t cos  d
(3)  a g t sin  (4)
v
9. In the figure shown a source of sound of frequency
510 Hz moves with constant velocity Vs = 20 m/s in
the direction shown. The wind is blowing at a constant
velocity, Vw = 20 m/s towards an observer who is at 3d 2 3d 2
rest at point B. Corresponding to the sound emitted (1) (2)
D 2D
by the source at initial position A, the frequency
detected by the observer is equal to (Speed of sound d2 2d 2
relative to air = 330 m/s) (3) (4)
D D
Space for Rough Work

2/16
Test - 9 (Code-A) All India Aakash Test Series for JEE (Main)-2016

12. A satellite is launched in the equatorial plane in such 15. A non-conducting semicircular disc (as shown in
a way that it can transmit signals upto 60° latitude figure) has a surface charge density . The ratio of
on the earth. Then the angular velocity of the electric field to electric potential at the centre of the
satellite is disc will be

GM
(1)
8R 3
b
GM a
(2)
2R 3

GM ⎛b⎞
ln
(3)
4R 3 1 ⎜⎝ a ⎟⎠ 2
(1) (2)
 b  a 

3 3GM
(4)
8R 3 ⎛b⎞
2

1
ln ⎜ ⎟  b  a
13. A sample of radioactive material decays (3) ⎝a⎠ (4)
simultaneously by two processes A and B with half  b  a ⎛b⎞
2 ln ⎜ ⎟
⎝a⎠
1 1
lives and hour respectively. For first half hour 16. The figure shows a charge q placed inside a cavity
2 4
in an uncharged conductor. Now if an external electric
it decays with the process A, next one hour with the field is switched on
process B and for further half an hour with both A and
B. If originally there were N0 nuclei. Find the number
of nuclei after 2 hour of such decay.
o
N0 N0
q
(1)
 2 8 (2)
 2 4

N0 N0 (1) Only induced charge on outer surface will


(3)
 2 6 (4)
2 5 redistribute

14. All electrons ejected from a surface by incident light (2) Only induced charge on inner surface will
of wavelength 200 nm can be stopped before travelling redistribute
1 m in the direction of uniform electric field of 4 N/C. (3) Both induced charge on outer surface and inner
The work function of the surface is surface will redistribute
(1) 4 eV (2) 6.2 eV (4) Force on charge q placed inside the cavity will
(3) 2 eV (4) 2.2 eV change

Space for Rough Work

3/16
All India Aakash Test Series for JEE (Main)-2016 Test - 9 (Code-A)

17. Acceleration a versus time t graph of a body in SHM


is given by a curve shown below. T is the time period.
2.38
Then corresponding graph between kinetic energy KE

log P (kPa)
and time t is correctly represented by 2.30
2.20
a 2.10

1.10 1.20 1.30


log V (dm3)
t
(1) Monatomic and undergoing an adiabatic change
(2) Monatomic and undergoing an isothermal change
(3) Diatomic and undergoing an adiabatic change
(4) Triatomic and undergoing an isothermal change
KE
(1) 19. If I1 = 3 sin t and I2 = 4 cos t, then I3 is

t I1 I2

I3

KE (1) 5 sin (t + 53°) (2) 7 sin (t + 53°)


(2) (3) 3 sin (t + 45°) (4) 5 sin (t + 45°)
t 20. An infinitely long wire carrying current I is along
y-axis such that its one end is at point A (0, a) while
the wire extends upto +. The magnitude of magnetic
field strength at point (a, 0) is
KE +
(3)
t I
>

A (0, a)

KE
(0, 0) (a, 0)
(4)
0 i ⎛ 1 ⎞ 0 i ⎛ 1 ⎞
t (1) ⎜1  ⎟ (2) ⎜1  ⎟
4a ⎝ 2⎠ 4a ⎝ 2⎠
18. Logarithms of readings of pressure and volume for an
0 1
ideal gas were plotted on a graph as shown in figure. (3)  (4) Zero
The gas may be 4a 2

Space for Rough Work

4/16
Test - 9 (Code-A) All India Aakash Test Series for JEE (Main)-2016

21. In the circuit shown, each resistance is 2  The 24. A plane electromagnetic wave of frequency 25 MHz
potential V1 as indicated in the circuit, is equal to travels in free space along the x-direction. At a

particular point in the space and time, E  6.3j V/m ,

what is B at this point?

(1) 2.1 108 


k T

(2) 2.1 10 8i T


5V
12 V
V1 (3) 4.2  108 
k T

(1) 11 V (2) –11 V (4) 6.4  108i T

(3) 9 V (4) –9 V 25. The intensity of a laser light is 53.10 W/m2. Find the
22. In the figure shown, the equivalent capacitance amplitude of the electric field oscillations in it.
between A and B is
(1) 200 2 N/C
(2) 400 N/C
3 F 6 F (3) 200 N/C
B (4) 100 N/C

SECTION - II
1 F 4 F
5 F Assertion-Reason Type Questions
Directions : Questions number 26 to 30 are Assertion-
Reason type questions. Each of these questions contains
two statements. Statement-1 (Assertion) and Statement-
2 F
A 2 (Reason). Each of these questions also has four
alternative choices, only one of which is the correct answer.
You have to select the correct choice.
(1) 3.75 F (2) 2 F
26. Statement-1 : In resonance column experiment using
(3) 21 F (4) 16 F
same turning fork, the difference between successive
23. In a photodiode the current increases if it is exposed resonant lengths decreases as the diameter of tube
to light of wavelength 620 nm or lesser. The band gap is decreased.
of the material of photodiode is
and
(1) 0.7 eV (2) 1.2 eV
Statement-2 : End correction decreases as the
(3) 2.0 eV (4) 2.3 eV diameter of tube decreases.

Space for Rough Work

5/16
All India Aakash Test Series for JEE (Main)-2016 Test - 9 (Code-A)

(1) Statement-1 is True, Statement-2 is True; (3) Statement-1 is True, Statement-2 is False
Statement-2 is a correct explanation for
Statement-1 (4) Statement-1 is False, Statement-2 is True

(2) Statement-1 is True, Statement-2 is True; 29. Statement-1 : In a glass medium red light travels
Statement-2 is NOT a correct explanation for faster than the blue light.
Statement-1
and
(3) Statement-1 is True, Statement-2 is False
Statement-2 : Red light has a wavelength longer than
(4) Statement-1 is False, Statement-2 is True
blue.
27. Statement-1 : A coin is lying at rest on ground. When
you approach it while riding on bicycle, according to (1) Statement-1 is True, Statement-2 is True;
you, there is kinetic friction acting on the coin. Statement-2 is a correct explanation for
and Statement-1
Statement-2 : Kinetic friction acts when there is (2) Statement-1 is True, Statement-2 is True;
relative motion between the contact surfaces. Statement-2 is NOT a correct explanation for
(1) Statement-1 is True, Statement-2 is True; Statement-1
Statement-2 is a correct explanation for
Statement-1 (3) Statement-1 is True, Statement-2 is False

(2) Statement-1 is True, Statement-2 is True; (4) Statement-1 is False, Statement-2 is True
Statement-2 is NOT a correct explanation for
Statement-1 30. Statement-1 : Keeping a point object fixed, if a plane
mirror is moved, the image will definitely move.
(3) Statement-1 is True, Statement-2 is False
and
(4) Statement-1 is False, Statement-2 is True
28. Statement-1 : When a circuit having large inductance Statement-2 : In case of a plane mirror, distance of
is switched off, sparking occurs at the switch. a point object and its image from a given point on
and mirror is equal.

Statement-2 : Emf induced in an inductor is given (1) Statement-1 is True, Statement-2 is True;
di Statement-2 is a correct explanation for
by e  L .
dt Statement-1

(1) Statement-1 is True, Statement-2 is True; (2) Statement-1 is True, Statement-2 is True;
Statement-2 is a correct explanation for Statement-2 is NOT a correct explanation for
Statement-1 Statement-1
(2) Statement-1 is True, Statement-2 is True; (3) Statement-1 is True, Statement-2 is False
Statement-2 is NOT a correct explanation for
Statement-1 (4) Statement-1 is False, Statement-2 is True

Space for Rough Work

6/16
Test - 9 (Code-A) All India Aakash Test Series for JEE (Main)-2016

PART - B (CHEMISTRY)
32. Consider the following reaction occurring in gas phase
SECTION - I : Cl2(g) + CHCl3(g) HCl(g) + CCl4(g)
Straight Objective Type Questions
The reaction is exceptionally found to obey the
This section contains 25 multiple choice questions following rate laws
numbered 31 to 55. Each question has 4 choices (1), (2),
1
(3) and (4), out of which ONLY ONE is correct. Rate(R) = k CHCl3 Cl2 2
31. Consider the following two cases :
Step-1 : Cl2(g)  2Cl(g)
Case-i : V1 ml of NaCl solution (having concentration Step-2 : Cl(g) + CHCl3(g)  HCl(g) + CCl3(g)
M1, N1 and S1) is diluted by adding some amount of
Step-3 : Cl(g) + CCl3(g)  CCl4(g)
water to make a V 2 ml NaCl solution (having
concentration M2, N2 and S2) Based on this information, what conclusion can be
drawn about this proposed mechanism?
Case-ii : V 3 ml of NaOH solution (having
concentrations M3, N3 and S3) is titrated with V4 ml (1) Step 1 is RDS
of H2SO4 solution (having concentration M4, N4 and (2) Step 2 is RDS
S4) for complete neutralisation. (3) Step 3 is RDS
(Where ‘M’ is molarity, ‘N’ is normality, ‘S’ is strength (4) RDS cannot be identified
and ‘V’ is volume of solution)
33. A mixture of two gases-A (reactive) and X (inert) is
Which of the following statements are correct? kept in a closed vessel when ‘A’ decomposes as per
the following reaction at 500 K.
I. For Case-i : M1V1 = M2V2; N1V1 = N2V2 and S1V1
= S2V2 can be used A(g)  2B(g) + 3C(l) + 4D(s)
Initial pressure (P°) = 210 mm Hg
II. For Case-ii : M3V3 = M4V4; N3V3 = N4V4 and
S3V3 = S4V4 can be used Pressure after 10 min (Pt) = 330 mm Hg

III. For Case-i : M1V1 = M2V2; N1V1 = N2V2 only can Pressure after infinite time (P) = 430 mm Hg
be used and S1V1 = S2V2 is not valid Vapour pressure of C(l) at 500 K is 20 mm Hg
IV. For Case-ii : Only N3V3 = N4V4 can be used and Calculate the half life for A
other two equations are not valid (1) 5 min
The correct choice is (2) 10 min
(1) I & II (2) III & IV (3) 12 min
(3) I & IV (4) II & III (4) Given data is not sufficient to answer

Space for Rough Work

7/16
All India Aakash Test Series for JEE (Main)-2016 Test - 9 (Code-A)

34. Incorrect statement about ClO2 and Cl2O is The aqueous solution of the mixture gives deep blue
coloration with K3[Fe(CN)6] solution.
(1) The Cl—O bond length would be larger in Cl2O
Choose the incorrect statement
(2) The bond angle would be larger in Cl2O
(1) Mixture may contain NH4+, Cl–, Fe2+ and SO42–
(3) ClO2 is likely to be a coloured compound
(2) Oxidation state of Fe in deep blue compound is
(4) Cl2O is likely to be water soluble
(+3) only
35. The pH range of a basic indicator (InOH) is 3.4 to 4.6.
(3) Red vapours is due to CrO2Cl2 formation and
⎡In+ ⎤ gas (Z) is NH3
⎣ ⎦
For what minimum ratio of does the solution
InOH (4) White precipitate is due to BaSO4 formation

appear in the colour of In+? 38. In which of the following given complex formation
reaction, for their stable end product, d-block metal
(1) 1 (2) 2 (Cu or Fe) exhibiting (+I) oxidation state?
(3) 3 (4) 4 I. K4[Fe(CN)6] + CuSO4 
36. The following equations of state are occasionally used II. CuSO4 + Na2S2O3 
for approximate calculation on real gases :
III. CuSO4 + KCN (excess) 
1
⎡ b ⎤ IV. KCNS + Cul 
Gas(X) : PVm = RT ⎢1  ⎥
⎣ Vm ⎦ (1) I, II & III (2) III & IV

Gas(Y) : P(Vm – b) = RT (3) I, II & IV (4) II, III & IV

By assuming gas (X) and (Y) actually obeyed above 39. The polymerization of propene to linear polyethene is
equation of state at all temperature respectively, then represented by the reaction
choose the correct statement.
CH3
(1) Gas (X) is more liquefiable than gas (Y)
n (CH3 CH CH2) —CH—CH2— n
(2) Gas (X) and (Y) both are liquefiable with equal
ease
where ‘n’ has large integral value. Given that average
(3) Neither gas (X) nor gas (Y) is liquefiable bond enthalpy of bond dissociation for C C , C C
and C H at 298 K are x, y and z kJ
(4) Gas (Y) is more liquefiable than gas (X)
mol –1 respectively. Hence the enthalpy of
NaOH K 2 HgI 4 polymerisation per mole of propene at 298 K is
37. (X + Y) 

 Z (g)  Brown ppt.
(Mixture of salts)
 (1) (x – 2y) kJ mol–1
red vapours
(K2Cr2O7 + Conc.H2SO4) (2) (x – 3y + 1) kJ mol–1
BaCl2(aq)
(3) (x – 2y + z) kJ mol–1
Conc.
White ppt. Soluble (4) (2x – 3y + z) kJ mol–1
HCl

Space for Rough Work

8/16
Test - 9 (Code-A) All India Aakash Test Series for JEE (Main)-2016

40. Inorganic benzene surpasses organic benzene in 44. Identify the correct statement w.r.t. the titration curves
which property? shown below

(1) Resonance stabilization


14 strong base
(2) Ease to addition reaction

(3) Total number of electrons in the molecule

(4) All of these


weak base
41. How many types of gases/vapours are involved either pH
as reactants or products in Serpeck's process used
for concentration of bauxite ore?
7
(1) 3

(2) 5

(3) 4

(4) 2

42. The magnitude of potential energy of electron in nth


0
8
excited state of He+ ion is times the kinetic Volume of strong acid added (ml) 
81
(1) Equivalence point with strong base is at pH = 7.5
energy of electron in the first excited state of Li2+ ion.
Hence the value of ‘n’ is (2) Equivalence point with weak base is at pH = 7
(3) Phenolphthalein (8 – 9.8) can be used as
(1) 2
indicator in both titrations
(2) 3 (4) Chlorophenol red (4.8 – 6.4) can be used as
(3) 5 indicator in both titrations

alc.KOH
(4) 6 45. ClCH2CHCl2  
 X (major product)
43. Which of the following would be observed in the Lewis
What will be the major product (X) in the above
dot structure of N4O? reaction?
(1) Positive charge on ‘N’ (1) ClCH CHCl
(2) Negative charge on ‘N’ (2) CH 2 CCl 2
(3) More than one Lewis dot structures are possible (3) H C C H
(4) All of these (4) ClCH2CHO

Space for Rough Work

9/16
All India Aakash Test Series for JEE (Main)-2016 Test - 9 (Code-A)

46. O 48. Which of the following does not decolourise Br2


1. O3 H water?
(Y) + O+ H
2. Zn/H2O
O H O O O
(Hydrocarbon) (1) (2)
Hyrdrocarbon (Y) in the above reaction can be :

H3C (3) H C C H (4)

49. Monomer used to prepare ‘Orlon’ is


(1)
CH3 (1) CH 2 CH Cl (2) F2C CF2
CH C
CH3
(3) CH 2 CH CN (4) H2C C CH CH2

CH3 Cl
CH3 50. Select the correct statement regarding the following
(2) compounds

H3C

H3C CH3
(I) (II)
(3) (1) (II) has a greater dipole moment than (I)
CH3
CH (2) Covalent character of (II) is less than (I)

(4) All of these (3) (I) is more soluble in polar solvent than (II)
(4) None of these
Monochlorination Mg
47. (X)
Ether
(70 gm) dil.H2SO4
51. HO OH ?

HOCH2CH2 CH
(2.9 g) The major product formed in the above reaction is
(Y) (Z) + Salt

The number of moles of (Z) produced would be (1) O (2) O


(assuming the yield to be 100% in each stage of
reaction)
OH
(1) 1 (2) 0.01
(3) (4) O
(3) 0.1 (4) 10 OH

Space for Rough Work

10/16
Test - 9 (Code-A) All India Aakash Test Series for JEE (Main)-2016
+
H3O 55. When 96.5 g of X2 is dissolved in 1 kg CCl4, the
52. H2C C CH2 ?
freezing point of CCl4 was decreased by 8.88°C. Find
Select the correct statement(s) regarding the major the equilibrium constant for the given reaction
product formed in the above reaction.
X4  2X2
(1) It reduces Fehling's solution
Assuming that only these two molecular species
(2) It is oxidised by Tollen's reagent remain in the solution, the melting point of pure CCl4
(3) It decolourises Br2 CCl4 (–22.9°C) and heat of fusion of CCl4(s) is 4.2 cal/g
(mol.wt. of X 4 = 3.86) and also (assume
(4) It gives Iodoform test
molality = molarity)
C2H5Br (1) 2 × 10–3 (2) 5 × 10–2
(Y)
base
53. (X) (3) 8 × 10–2 (4) 6 × 10–3
N O (Z)
AgNO3/C2H5Br
SECTION - II
H
Assertion-Reason Type Questions
Select the only incorrect statement regarding (X), (Y) Directions : Questions number 56 to 60 are Assertion-
and (Z). Reason type questions. Each of these questions contains
(1) (X) is aromatic in nature two statements. Statement-1 (Assertion) and Statement-
2 (Reason). Each of these questions also has four
(2) (Y) is alternative choices, only one of which is the correct answer.
N O You have to select the correct choice.

CH2 CH3 56. Statement-1 : 0.05 F charge is passed in 100 ml of


0.1 M NaCl solution, pH of the solution is 13
(3) (Z) is (assuming no volume change in solution) at 25°C.
N OC2H5 and
(4) (X) is non-aromatic Statement-2 : Given amount of NaCl is just
completely electrolysed by 0.05 F charge.
54. Potassium crystallizes in a body centered cubic
lattice with edge length ‘a’ = 5.0 Å. Now choose the (1) Statement-1 is True, Statement-2 is True;
correct statements in the given option. Statement-2 is a correct explanation for
(1) The number of second nearest neighbours is 6 Statement-1

(2) The number of nearest neighbour to any K-atom (2) Statement-1 is True, Statement-2 is True;
is 8 Statement-2 is NOT a correct explanation for
Statement-1
(3) Distance between second nearest neighbour and
K-atom is 5.0 Å (3) Statement-1 is True, Statement-2 is False

(4) All are correct (4) Statement-1 is False, Statement-2 is True

Space for Rough Work

11/16
All India Aakash Test Series for JEE (Main)-2016 Test - 9 (Code-A)

57. Statement-1 : H2S2O8 and H2SO5 act as an oxidising 59. Statement-1 : PhO—CH2—CH2—Cl reacts with aq.
agent while H2S2O3 cannot. KOH with much higher rate than PhSCH2CH2—Cl.

and and

Statement-2 : H2S2O8 and H2SO5 both have O O Statement-2 : CH3S– is a stronger nucleophile than
CH3O– in H2O.
bond while in H 2S 2O 3 molecule S O bond is
present. (1) Statement-1 is True, Statement-2 is True;
Statement-2 is a correct explanation for
(1) Statement-1 is True, Statement-2 is True;
Statement-1
Statement-2 is a correct explanation for
Statement-1 (2) Statement-1 is True, Statement-2 is True;
Statement-2 is NOT a correct explanation for
(2) Statement-1 is True, Statement-2 is True; Statement-1
Statement-2 is NOT a correct explanation for
Statement-1 (3) Statement-1 is True, Statement-2 is False

(4) Statement-1 is False, Statement-2 is True


(3) Statement-1 is True, Statement-2 is False
60. Statement-1 : Generally esterification reaction of
(4) Statement-1 is False, Statement-2 is True
carboxylic acid and alcohol is carried out in acidic
58. Statement-1 : Acetaldehyde reacts with alkaline medium while esterification reaction of acid chloride
solution of sodium nitroprusside to give red and alcohol is carried out in basic medium of base
colouration. like pyridine.

and
and
Statement-2 : In acid chlorides and alcohols reaction,
Statement-2 : Acetaldehyde is good reducing agent.
HCl is released which can be neutralised by base.
(1) Statement-1 is True, Statement-2 is True;
(1) Statement-1 is True, Statement-2 is True;
Statement-2 is a correct explanation for
Statement-2 is a correct explanation for
Statement-1 Statement-1
(2) Statement-1 is True, Statement-2 is True; (2) Statement-1 is True, Statement-2 is True;
Statement-2 is NOT a correct explanation for Statement-2 is NOT a correct explanation for
Statement-1 Statement-1

(3) Statement-1 is True, Statement-2 is False (3) Statement-1 is True, Statement-2 is False

(4) Statement-1 is False, Statement-2 is True (4) Statement-1 is False, Statement-2 is True

Space for Rough Work

12/16
Test - 9 (Code-A) All India Aakash Test Series for JEE (Main)-2016

PART - C (MATHEMATICS)
66. The range of values of  for which the point (, 4) is
SECTION - I outside the circle x 2 + y 2 + 10x = 0 and
Straight Objective Type Questions x2 + y2 – 12x + 20 = 0 is
This section contains 25 multiple choice questions
(1) (–, –8)  (–2, 6)  (6, )
numbered 61 to 85. Each question has 4 choices (1), (2),
(3) and (4), out of which ONLY ONE is correct. (2) (–8, –2)
49
⎡ r ⎤
(3) (–, –8)  (–2, )
 ∑ ⎢x  ⎥
5 r 0 ⎣ 50 ⎦
25 (4) (–2, )
61. If ∫ 5 100 x
dx is equal to (where [ ] is greatest
67. If two tangents can be drawn to the different branches
5
integer function)
x2 y 2
120 240 of hyperbola   1 from the point (, 2) then
(1) (2) 1 4
ln5 ln5
(1) (–, 2)
60 250
(3) (4)
ln5 ln5 (2) (–2, )
62. The natural numbers are divided into groups (3) (–, –2)  (2, )
1, (2, 3, 4), (5, 6, 7, 8, 9)...and so on, the sum of the
numbers in the nth group is (4) (–2, 2)

(1) n3 + 1 (2) (2n – 1) (n2 – n + 1) 68. The area between the curve 2{y} = [x] + 1, 0  y < 1
(where {.} and [.] are the fractional part and greatest
(3) (n – 1) (n2 + 1) (4) (2n + 1) (n2 – n)
integer function respectively) and the x-axis is
63. Let C be the curve y3 – 3xy + 2 = 0. Let m be the
number of points on C at which tangents are horizontal 1
(1)
and n be the number of point on C at which tangents 2
is vertical then m + n is equal to
(2) 1
(1) 4 (2) 3
(3) 2 (4) 1 (3) 0
64. The number of roots of the equation
3
x2 – 2x – log21 – x= 3 is (4)
2
(1) 0 (2) 1
69. If f(1) = 3, f '(1) = 2 and f ''(1) = 4 and let f –1(x) = g(x),
(3) 2 (4) 4
then g''(3) is equal to
65. If a2 + b2 = 1 and x2 + y2 = 1 then the maximum
volume of ax + by is (1) –2 (2) 1

(1) –1 (2) 0 1 1
(3)  (4) 
(3) 1 (4) 2 4 2

Space for Rough Work

13/16
All India Aakash Test Series for JEE (Main)-2016 Test - 9 (Code-A)
      74. Solution of differential equation
70. Let a  i  j  
k , b  i  j  
k , a  c  b   a and
dy
  x cos x  y  x sin x  cos x   1 is
a . c  1 , then which of the following is true? dx
(1) xy sec x = cosec x + c
   8 2
(1) ⎡⎣a b c ⎤⎦   and   (2) xy sec x = tan x + c
3 3
(3) xy = sec2 x – tan x + c
   8 1
(2) ⎡⎣a b c ⎤⎦   and   (4) xy = 2 sin x – c cos x
3 3
(where c is an arbitrary constant)
   8 2 75. General solution of 4 sin2 x + tan2 x + cosec2 x +
(3) ⎡⎣a b c ⎤  and  
⎦ 3 3 cot2 x – 6 = 0 is (n  Z)

    
8
(4) ⎡⎣a b c ⎤⎦   and  
2 (1) n   (2) n  
3 3 6 4
 
71. If system of equations ax + y + z = a, x + by + z = b (3) 2n  (4) n  
and x + y + cz = c is inconsistent, then which of the 4 3
following is correct? 76. If the sides a, b, c of a triangle ABC are the roots of
the equation x3 – 13x2 + 54x – 72 = 0, then the value
(1) abc – a – b – c + 2 = 0
cos A cos B cos C
(2) abc – a – b – c + 3 = 0 of   is equal to
a b c
(3) abc – a – b – c + 3 = 0, a = 1
59 61
(4) abc – a – b – c + 2 = 0, a  1, b  1, c  1 (1) (2)
144 72

72. Let P = (–3, 1, 1) and Q = (3, 4, 2), R divides PQ 61 115
(3) (4)
such that PR : PQ = 1 : 3, then the equation of the 144 144
 77. The shortest distance from the line 3x + 4y = 25 to
plane perpendicular to PQ at R is
the circle x2 + y2 – 6x + 8y = 0 is equal to (in units)
(1) 18x + 9y + 3z = 8 (2) 9x + 18y + 3z = 4
7 9
(3) 18x + 9y + 3z = 4 (4) 3x + 9y + 18z = 8 (1) (2)
5 5
73. f(x) = {x} + {x + 1} + {x + 2} + ...... + {x + 999} then 12 32
(3) (4)
 
⎡f 2 ⎤ (where {.} denotes fractional part function
⎣ ⎦
5 5
78. The equation of line which is at maximum distance
and [.] denotes the greatest integer function) is equal from the point (1, 2) and belonging to family of lines
to (x + 2y + 1) +  (x + y – 2) = 0 is
(1) 999 × 500 (2) 1001 × 500 (1) 4x – 5y = 35 (2) 4x + 5y = 25
(3) 414 (4) 4140 (3) 4x – 5y = 25 (4) 4x – 3y = 25

Space for Rough Work

14/16
Test - 9 (Code-A) All India Aakash Test Series for JEE (Main)-2016

79. A vertical pole PS has two marks at Q and R such 3 1


that the portions PQ, PR and PS subtend angels (1) (2)
25 50
, ,  at a point on the group distance x from the
bottom of the pole P. If PQ = a, PR = b, PS = c and 7 3
 +  +  = 180° then x2 is equal to (3) (4)
25 50

a3 b3
(1) (2) x2 x2 2
abc abc 84. If the curve  y 2  1 and 2  y  1 for suitable
9 a
value of a cut on four concyclic points the equation
c3 abc
(3) (4) of circle passing through these four points is
abc abc
(1) x2 + y2 = 1 (2) x2 + y2 = 2
80. Negation of the compound proposition if the
(3) x2 + y2 = 4 (4) x2 + y2 = 9
examination is difficult, then I shall pass if I study hard
85. If three district normal can be drawn to the parabola
(1) The examination is difficult and I study hard but
y2 – 2y = 4x – 9 from the point (2a, 1), then range of
I shall not pass
values of a is
(2) The examination is difficult and I study hard and
(1) No real values possible
I shall pass
(2) (–, 2)
(3) The examination is not difficult and I study hard
and I shall pass (3) (2, )
(4) The examination is not difficult then I shall pass (4) (–2, 2)
81. If the arithmetic mean of the numbers x1, x2, x3.....xn
SECTION - II
is x , then the arithmetic mean of the numbers
ax1 + b, ax2 + b, ax3 + b,.....axn + b, where a, b are Assertion – Reason Type Questions
two constants, would be Directions : Questions number 86 to 90 are Assertion-
Reason type questions. Each of these questions contains
(1) x (2) nax  nb
two statements. Statement-1 (Assertion) and Statement-
(3) ax (4) ax  b 2 (Reason). Each of these questions also has four
alternative choices, only one of which is the correct answer.
82. In a polygon the number of diagonals is 35. The You have to select the correct choice.
number of sides of polygon is
86. Statement-1 : If A and B are symmetric matrices of
(1) 8 (2) 10
same order, then AB + BA is symmetric and AB – BA
(3) 20 (4) 22 is skew symmetric.
83. A natural number x is chosen at random from the first and
100 natural numbers, the probability that
Statement-2 : If P and Q are matrices of same order,
2
x  60 x  800 then (P  Q)T = PT  QT and if P, Q are compatible
 0 is for multiplication, then (PQ)T = QTPT.
x  30
Space for Rough Work

15/16
All India Aakash Test Series for JEE (Main)-2016 Test - 9 (Code-A)

(1) Statement-1 is True, Statement-2 is True; (3) Statement-1 is True, Statement-2 is False
Statement-2 is a correct explanation for
(4) Statement-1 is False, Statement-2 is True
Statement-1
89. Statement-1 : The function f(x) = x3 + bx2 + cx + d
(2) Statement-1 is True, Statement-2 is True;
where 0 < b2 < c is strictly increasing in (–, ).
Statement-2 is NOT a correct explanation for
Statement-1 and
(3) Statement-1 is True, Statement-2 is False Statement-2 : If f is continuous on [a, b],
(4) Statement-1 is False, Statement-2 is True differentiable in (a, b) and f '(x) > 0, x  (a, b), then f
is strictly increasing in (a, b).
87. Statement-1 : If 2n + 1C0 + 2n + 1C3 + 2n + 1C6 + ... = 170,
then n = 4. (1) Statement-1 is True, Statement-2 is True;
Statement-2 is a correct explanation for
and
Statement-1
Statement-2 : If  is non-real cube root of unity,
3 = 1 and 1 +  + 2 = 0. (2) Statement-1 is True, Statement-2 is True;
Statement-2 is NOT a correct explanation for
(1) Statement-1 is True, Statement-2 is True; Statement-1
Statement-2 is a correct explanation for
Statement-1 (3) Statement-1 is True, Statement-2 is False
(2) Statement-1 is True, Statement-2 is True; (4) Statement-1 is False, Statement-2 is True
Statement-2 is NOT a correct explanation for
Statement-1 ⎛ sin2 x  a sin x ⎞
90. Statement-1 : If xlim ⎜ ⎟ exists finitely
(3) Statement-1 is True, Statement-2 is False
0 ⎝ x3 ⎠
then the value of a is 2.
(4) Statement-1 is False, Statement-2 is True
and
88. Statement-1 : If a, b, c are pth, qth and rth terms
respectively of an HP, then (q – r)bc + (r – p)ca + f (x)
(p – q)ab = 0. Statement-2 : If lim exits finitely and
x a g ( x )

and lim g ( x )  0 , then lim f ( x )  0 .


x a x a
Statement-2 : If a, b, c, d are in A.P. (a, b, c, d are
(1) Statement-1 is True, Statement-2 is True;
1 1 1 1
real numbers), then , , , will be in H.P. Statement-2 is a correct explanation for
a b c d Statement-1
(1) Statement-1 is True, Statement-2 is True; (2) Statement-1 is True, Statement-2 is True;
Statement-2 is a correct explanation for Statement-2 is NOT a correct explanation for
Statement-1 Statement-1
(2) Statement-1 is True, Statement-2 is True; (3) Statement-1 is True, Statement-2 is False
Statement-2 is NOT a correct explanation for
Statement-1 (4) Statement-1 is False, Statement-2 is True

  
Space for Rough Work

16/16
Test - 9 (Code-A) (Answers & Hints) All India Aakash Test Series for JEE (Main)-2016

TEST - 9

Test Date : 27/03/2016


ANSWERS
PHYSICS CHEMISTRY MATHEMATICS
1. (1) 31. (3) 61. (1)
2. (4) 32. (2) 62. (2)
3. (2) 33. (2) 63. (4)
4. (2) 34. (2) 64. (4)
5. (2) 35. (4) 65. (3)
6. (2) 36. (3) 66. (1)
7. (3) 37. (2) 67. (3)
8. (1) 38. (4) 68. (1)
9. (3) 39. (1) 69. (4)
10. (4) 40. (2) 70. (2)
11. (2) 41. (2) 71. (4)
12. (1) 42. (3) 72. (3)
13. (1) 43. (4) 73. (3)
14. (4) 44. (4) 74. (2)
15. (3) 45. (2) 75. (2)
16. (1) 46. (4) 76. (3)
17. (1) 47. (3) 77. (1)
18. (3) 48. (4) 78. (1)
19. (1) 49. (3) 79. (4)
20. (2) 50. (3) 80. (1)
21. (4) 51. (1) 81. (4)
22. (2) 52. (4) 82. (2)
23. (3) 53. (4) 83. (3)
24. (1) 54. (4) 84. (1)
25. (4) 55. (2) 85. (3)
26. (4) 56. (3) 86. (1)
27. (4) 57. (2) 87. (1)
28. (1) 58. (2) 88. (3)
29. (1) 59. (4) 89. (1)
30. (4) 60. (1) 90. (4)

1/11
All India Aakash Test Series for JEE (Main)-2016 Test - 9 (Code-A) (Answers & Hints)

PART - A (PHYSICS)
1. Answer (1)
V 2
2. Answer (4) Radius of curvature r 
g sin 
dv
 a  2v  4  r  100 10 m
dt
4. Answer (2)
da dv
  2  2( 2v  4)  4v  8 y=x+c
dt dt R
Initially v = 0, Q B
N
da
 8 m/s3
dt O
v t
P
dv
∫ 2v  4  ∫ dt A
0 

IPQR = IAOB + M.(ON)2


v
⎡ loge ( 2v  4) ⎤
 t 0
t
 ⎢ ⎥ 2
⎣ 2 ⎦0 1 ⎛ C ⎞
 IPQR  MR 2  M ⎜ ⎟
4 ⎝ 2⎠
2v  4
 loge   2t
4
MR 2
But IPQR 
 2v  4  4e 2t 2
At t = , v = 2 m/s2
MR 2 1 MC 2
3. Answer (2)   MR 2 
2 4 2
10 m/s
R
 C
2
Vx = 10 m/s
5. Answer (2)

V T a
Vy = 30 m/s F
T 2T
After 3 s
Vy = Vy + gt = 30 m/s T
and Vx = 10 m/s 2a
V2 = Vx2 + Vy2
2g
 V  10 10 m/s
v 2 25
V 1 a   2.5 m/s2
tan   x  25 10
Vy 3
For 6 kg : F – 2T = 6a
1 For 2 kg : T – 2g = 2(2a)
 sin  
10 So F = 75 N

2/11
Test - 9 (Code-A) (Answers & Hints) All India Aakash Test Series for JEE (Main)-2016

6. Answer (2) The central point O to be a maxima

1 2 ⎛d ⎞
Fl  Kl  0 (3d ) ⎜ ⎟
2 For P, ⎝ 2 ⎠  n
D
2F
 l
K 3d 2
 
2nD
2F 2
 W  Fl 
K 3d 2 3d 2
So,   , ,...
7. Answer (3) 2D 4D
8. Answer (1) 12. Answer (1)
A
⎛v ⎞
A ⎜ ⎟  mg sin 
⎝t ⎠ R 60
° 30°
O B
2v
 a  a3  g sin 
t
R
agt sin  cos30 
  OB
v
 OB = 2R
9. Answer (3)
u  Vw GMm
n'    m2  2R 
u  Vw  Vs cos 60 
 2R 2

510  330  20 
=  525 Hz GM
1  
330  20  20  8R 3
2
10. Answer (4) 13. Answer (1)
1 1
E T4 and T  After first half hour N  N0 .
m 2
4 4 4
E2 ⎛ T2 ⎞ ⎛ m1 ⎞ ⎛ 20000 ⎞
 ⎜ ⎟ ⎜ ⎟ ⎜ ⎟  16 1 1
 For t  to t  1 hours
E1 ⎝ T1 ⎠ ⎝ m2 ⎠ ⎝ 10000 ⎠ 2 2
 E2 = 16 × 16 = 256
4 5
⎛ N ⎞⎛ 1 ⎞ ⎛ 1⎞
11. Answer (2) N  ⎜ 0 ⎟⎜ ⎟  N0 ⎜ ⎟
⎝ 2 2
⎠⎝ ⎠ ⎝2⎠

1 1 1 1
For t  1 to t  2 hours  
2 t t A tB

1
 t hours
6

⎡ 5 3
⎛ 1⎞ ⎤⎛ 1⎞ N
 N  ⎢N0  ⎜ ⎟ ⎥ ⎜ ⎟  80
⎢⎣ ⎝ 2 ⎠ ⎥⎦ ⎝ 2 ⎠ 2

3/11
All India Aakash Test Series for JEE (Main)-2016 Test - 9 (Code-A) (Answers & Hints)

14. Answer (4) 21. Answer (4)


1
mVm 2  eV0  e  Ed   4 eV
2 2
1240
>
E  6.2 eV
200 2 2 2
   E  Kmax  6.2  4  2.2 eV
5V
15. Answer (3) 12 V
b V1 >
2K dx ⎛b⎞ i 2
E  ∫ dE  ∫  2K ln ⎜ ⎟
a
x ⎝a⎠
12  5
b
K x dx Current I  1 Å
V  ∫ dV  ∫  K  (b  a ) 7
a
x
So, 0 – 2 – 2 – 5 = V1
2
⎛b⎞  V1 = – 9 V
ln ⎜ ⎟
E a
  ⎝ ⎠ 22. Answer (2)
V  b  a
23. Answer (3)
16. Answer (1)
hc 1240
17. Answer (1) E   2.0 eV
 620
18. Answer (3)
24. Answer (1)
19. Answer (1)
20. Answer (2) E 6.3
B   2.1 10 8 T
C 3  108
I
   i
JA
A
  K
A 

45° 25. Answer (4)


(0, 0)
(a, 0) 26. Answer (4)
0 i 27. Answer (4)
B sin90  sin( 45)
4a 28. Answer (1)
0 i ⎛ 1 ⎞ 29. Answer (1)
 ⎜1  ⎟
4a ⎝ 2⎠ 30. Answer (4)

PART - B (CHEMISTRY)
31. Answer (3) 33. Answer (2)
Case-I : It is the case of dilution where all equations A(g) 2B(g) + 3C(l) + 4D(s) inert gas
can be used but Case II is neutralisation, so only at t = 0, P 0 0 0 i mm Hg
N3V3 = N4V4 can be used. after 10 min (P–x) 2x 20 0 i mm Hg
32. Answer (2) at t = , 0 2P 20 0 i mm Hg
R = k[Cl] [CHCl3] So, P + i = 210 ... (1)
R = k'[CHCl3][Cl2]½ (given rate law) also P – x + 2x + 20 + i = 330 ... (2)
So, step 2 is RDS and 2P + 20 + i = 430 ... (3)

4/11
Test - 9 (Code-A) (Answers & Hints) All India Aakash Test Series for JEE (Main)-2016

On solving, P = 200, x = 100 as ‘n’ is very large as compared to unity


Hence 10 min must be t½ So, (3n + 1)  3n
34. Answer (2) 40. Answer (2)
41. Answer (2)

14
Al2O3 (s)  N2 (g)  + 3C(s)  AlN(s) + 3CO(g) 
1
Cl
7 pm O 70 pm (Impure)
O 117° O Cl 111° Cl
SiO2 + 2C(s)  Si(v)  + 2CO(g) 
Cl2O + H2O  HOCl
(Impurity)
35. Answer (4)
pH range of indicator = 3.4 – 4.6 AlN(s) + 3H2 O  Al(OH)3 (s) + NH3 (g) 
 pOH range of indicator = 9.4 – 10.6

2Al(OH)3 (s )   Al2O3 + 3H2O(v) 
9.4  10.6 (pure)
 pKb of indicator =  10
2
42. Answer (3)
InOH  In+ + OH–

pOH = pKb + log


In 
+
KE =
KZe2
2r
, PE = 
KZe2
r
(InOH)
For solution to appear in the colour of KZe2 13.6 × Z2
TE = = (eV)
In+, pOH  10.6 2r n2
[In+ ]
in limiting case, 10.6 = 10 + log 13.6 × 22 8 32
[In OH]
= × 13.6 × 2
n + 12 81 2


 In+
=4
InOH  n=5
36. Answer (3) 43. Answer (4)
In both cases ‘a’ is negligible and Z > 1 and force of Nitrosyl azide (NON3)
repulsion is more dominating over force of attraction.
37. Answer (2) N N N
N
Blue colour is due to Fe3[Fe(CN)6]2 in which Fe (II)
and Fe (III) both are present. O

38. Answer (4) 44. Answer (4)

Oxidate State 45. Answer (2)


End
Reaction
Product Cu Fe Mo
I Cu2[Fe(CN)6] +2 +2 re
a cid
H ic
II Na4[Cu6(S2O3)5] +1 -
alc. KOH
III K3[Cu(CN)4] +1 - Cl CH2 C Cl 
CH2 CCl2
(X)
IV CuSCN +1 - Cl

39. Answer (1) 46. Answer (4)


(nx+ny)  [(3n + 1) y] All compounds given in (1), (2) and (3) produce the
H = = (x  2y) desired products on reductive ozonolysis.
n

5/11
All India Aakash Test Series for JEE (Main)-2016 Test - 9 (Code-A) (Answers & Hints)

47. Answer (3) 54. Answer (4)

(Monochlo
Cl Mg/ether
MgCl Distance between next nearest neighbours is ‘a’
-rination) 3a
(1 mol) (1 mol) (1 mol) Distance between nearest neighbours =
2
(X) (Y)
55. Answer (2)
HO CH2 CH2 C C H R  Tf ° M
2
1.987 × (250.1)2
Kf = 
H 4.2 × 1000
= 29.6 k kg mol –1

(Z)
Tf
(0.1 mol) i=  0.6
Kf  m
48. Answer (4)
Benzene (being aromatic) does not undergo addition 2X2 X4
of Br2-water. Molality at t = 0, 0.50 0
49. Answer (3) at equilibrium (0.50 – 2x) x
Orlon is polyvinyl cyanide or polyacrylonitrile (PAN).
0.50  x
50. Answer (3)  i= = 0.6
0.50
 x = 0.20
(0.50  2x)2
 Kc = = 5 × 102
(both rings are aromatic) aromatic (antiaromatic) x
(I) (II) 56. Answer (3)
(I) has higher dipole moment than (II)
Only 0.01 F charge is used for electrolysis, amount
51. Answer (1) of OH– formed from 0.01 F charge
H
+
H 2H2O + 2e–  2OH– + H2(g)
HO OH Ho O H O 2Cl–  Cl2(g) + 2e–
H
–H
+ 0.01 mol of OH– is formed
O 0.01
[OH–] =  1000  0.1 M
100
52. Answer (4)
H+
 pOH = 1
H 2C C CH 2 H2C C CH3  pH = 13
H2O
+ H2C C CH3 57. Answer (2)
–H
OH 58. Answer (2)
59. Answer (4)
CH3 C CH3
CH2
O Ph S CH2
(Major product)
53. Answer (4) Cl

base CH3—CH2—Br / Ag+


CH2 CH2
N O N O N O

OH
Ph S CH2 Ph S CH2
H (X) CH3—CH2—Br
N OEt OH
N O (Z) Sulphur is a better nucleophile than O atom and act
as neighbouring group participant.
Et
(Y) 60. Answer (1)

6/11
Test - 9 (Code-A) (Answers & Hints) All India Aakash Test Series for JEE (Main)-2016

PART - C (MATHEMATICS)
61. Answer (1) 64. Answer (4)
49 x=1
= 25
⎡ r ⎤
 ∑ ⎢x  ⎥
50 x 
r 0 ⎣ 50 ⎦
25

25  
5  50 x 10
50 x dx
∫ 25 50 x
dx = ∫ 25
5 0

1
50 (–1, 0) (0, 0) (2, 0) (3, 0)
= 500 ∫ 25
50 x 
dx
0

=
500
50ln 25
25 x
1
0 
=
500
50ln 25

251  250  x2 – 2x – 3 = log2 1 – x
y = x2 – 2x – 3 ... (1)
24  500
= y = log2 1 – x ... (2)
50  2 ln5
Equation (1) and (2) intersect at 4 points
120 65. Answer (3)
=
ln5
Let, a + ib = cos  + i sin 
62. Answer (2) x + iy = cos  + i sin 
Clearly the nth group contains 2n – 1 number last So, a = cos  and b = sin 
terms of each group are 12, 22, 32....... and hence last
of nth group is n2 x = cos  and y = sin 
Maximum value is 1
First term of nth group is (n – 1)2 + 1
66. Answer (1)
Sum of he numbers in the nth group is
Common solution of
⎛ 2n  1 ⎞ ⎡
⎜ 2 ⎟ ⎣⎢ n  1  1  n ⎦⎥
2 2⎤ a2 + 10a + 16 > 0 and a2 – 12a + 36 > 0
⎝ ⎠ a2 + 8a + 2a +16 > 0 and (a – 6)2 > 0
= (2n – 1) (n2 – n + 1) (a + 8) (a + 2) > 0
63. Answer (4) (–, –8)  (–2, 6)  (6, )
From the curve equation 67. Answer (3)
(, 2) lies on the parabola y = x2
dy dy
3y 2  3y  3 x 0 (, 2) must lie between the asymptotes of hyperbola
dx dx
x2 y 2
  1 in 1st and 2nd quadrant
y 2
x  dy
dx
y 1 4
 asymptotes are y =  2x
But y  0 otherwise z = 0 therefore y2 = x  2 < 2
This implies y3 – 3y2 +2=0   < 0 or  > 2 and – 2 < 2
So that y = 1 and x = 1  < –2 or  > 0
Therefore m = 0, and n = 1 thus m + n = 1   (–, –2) or  (2, )

7/11
All India Aakash Test Series for JEE (Main)-2016 Test - 9 (Code-A) (Answers & Hints)

68. Answer (1) 72. Answer (3)


2{y} = [x] + 1 PR : PQ = 1 : 3
 0y<1  3PR = PQ
{y} = y and 0  [x] + 1 < 2  3PR = PR + RQ
–1  [x] < 1  2PR = RQ
When –1 < x < 0 y=0 therefore PR : RQ = 1 : 2

1 ⎛ 4⎞
Hence R  ⎜ 1, 2, ⎟
0x<1 y= ⎝ 3⎠
2

The normal to the required plane is PQ  (6, 3, 1)
1
Area = Hence the equation of the required plane is
2
⎛ 4⎞
69. Answer (4) 6  x  1  3  y  2  1⎜ z  ⎟  0
⎝ 3⎠
18x + 9y + 3z – 4 = 0
d2x d 2 y 4 1
   73. Answer (3)
dy 2 dx 2 8 2
3 {x + r} = {x} if r is integer
⎛ dy ⎞
⎜ dx ⎟ x + r – [x] – r = x – [x]
⎝ ⎠
f(x) = {x} + {x} + {x} + .............{x}
70. Answer (2)
= 1000 {x}
     2
 
ac . a  b . b a ⎡f ( 2)⎤  [100  0.414]  414
⎣ ⎦
74. Answer (2)
1
 cos x [xdy + ydx] + xy sin xdx = dx
3
     dxy
taking cross product a  c    ab×a
cos x
dx
 xy sin x  1

I.F. = e ∫
tan x dx sec x
 elog  sec x
2     
 
a c  a . c a  ba  xy sec x =  sec x . sec x dx + c
xy sec x = tan x + c
    
 
b × a a . c a  75. Answer (2)
 c 2
a 4 sin2 x + tan2 x + cosec2 x + cot2x = 6
Minimum value of 4 sin2 x + cosec2 x  4
 2
   b×a By AM  GM
 a×b .c 8
2  3
and minimum value of tan2 x + cot2 x  2
a
tan2 x  cot 2 x 1
71. Answer (4)  1 2
2
a 1 1 4 sin2 x = cosec2x and tan2 x = cot2x
  1 b 1  0 for inconsistent 2
1 1 c ⎛ 1 ⎞
sin2 x  ⎜
⎝ 2 ⎟⎠
abc – a – b – c + 2 = 0

a  1, b  1, c  1 x  n 
4

8/11
Test - 9 (Code-A) (Answers & Hints) All India Aakash Test Series for JEE (Main)-2016

76. Answer (3) 79. Answer (4)


From equation S
a + b + c = 13
ab + bc + ca = 54 R
abc = 72 c
b Q
cos A cos B cos C
 
a b c  
P
b2  c 2  a2 a2  c 2  b2 a2  b2  c 2 a
=   We have, tan  
2abc 2abc 2abc x
b
a 2  b 2  c 2  a  b  c   2  ab  bc  ca 
2
tan  
=  x
2abc 2abc
c
tan  
61 x
=
144 tan  + tan  + tan  = tan  . tan . tan 
77. Answer (1)
a b c abc
Centre of circle is (3, –4)   
x x x x.x.x
Hence distance of centre from the line
(3x + 4y – 25 = 0) abc
abc 
x2
9  16  25 32
=  units
a  16 5 abc
x2 
abc
32 7
Shortest distance  5  units 80. Answer (1)
5 5
IF p : examination is difficult
78. Answer (1)
r : I study hard
q : I shall pass

(1, 2) (5, –3) Given result is p  (r q)


Now ~ (r q) = r ~ q
~ (p (r  q))  p  (r ~ q)
After solving 81. Answer (4)
x + 2y + 1 = 0 Required mean
x+y–2=0
 ax1  b   ax2  b  ..........   axn  b
(5, –3) =
n
The required line is passes through (5, –3) and
perpendicular to the line joining (1, 2) and (5, –3) a  x1  x2  .....  xn 
= b
n
4
Then y  3  ( x  5)
5 = ax  b

4x – 5y = 35 82. Answer (2)

9/11
All India Aakash Test Series for JEE (Main)-2016 Test - 9 (Code-A) (Answers & Hints)

n(n  3) = BA – AB
Total number of diagonals =  35
2 QT = – [AB – BA]

 n = 10 QT = –Q

83. Answer (3) It is skew symmetric matrix


87. Answer (1)
 x  20 x  40  0
We have,
x  30
 x  {1, 2, ...... 19}  {31, 32, ...... 39} (1 + x)2n + 1 = 2n + 1C
0 + 2n + 1C
1 x+
....... + 2n + 1C x2n + 1
[ x  N) 2n + 1

Therefore, the number of favourable cases is Put x = 1,  and 2 addition of three equation
19 + 9 = 28 22n + 1 + (1 + )2n + 1 + (1 + 2)2n + 1
Total number of cases is 100 = 3 [2n + 1C0 + 2n + 1C + 2n + 1C + ......... ]
3 6

28 7 After solving we get


Hence required probability = 
100 25 22n + 1 = 509
84. Answer (1)
Which is not possible
⎛1  ⎞ therefore n – 1 + 2(n – 1) = 2
x 2 ⎜  2 ⎟  y 2 1     1  
⎝9 a ⎠
22n + 1 = 512
⎛ a2  9 ⎞
⎟  y 1     1  
n=4
x2 ⎜ 2
⎝ 9a 2 ⎠ 88. Answer (3)
⎛ a 2  9 ⎞ Since a is the pth term of an H.P.
x2 ⎜ 2 2
⎟ y 1
⎝ 4a 1    ⎠ 1
Let a 
x2 + y2 = 1 a1   p  1 d
85. Answer (3)
1
Given parabola is (y – 1)2 = 4(x –2)  a1   p  1 d
a
Equation of any normal to the given parabola is
1
y – 1 = m (x – 2) – m – m3 Similarly  a1   q  1 d
b
y = mx – 4m – m3 + 1
1
Since this passes through (2a, 1)  a1   r  1 d
c
m3 + 2m (2 – a) = 0 will have three distinct and real
values of m
1 1
 a>2   r  q d
c b
86. Answer (1) b – c = – (q – r) bcd
Let P = AB + BA c – a = – (p – q) abd
PT = BTAT + ATBT where AT = A, BT = B a – b = – (p – q) abd
= BA + AB = AB + BA = P Hence, –d  bc (q – r) = (b – c) = 0
It is symmetric matrix.  bc (q – r) = 0
Let Q = AB – BA Statement 2 is false as numbers given must be
PT = (AB – BA)T = BTAT – ATBT nonzero for taking reciprocals.

10/11
Test - 9 (Code-A) (Answers & Hints) All India Aakash Test Series for JEE (Main)-2016

89. Answer (1) 90. Answer (4)


f(x) = x3 + bx2 + cx + d ⎛ sin2 x  a sin x ⎞
lim ⎜ ⎟
Differentiating this we get x 0 ⎝ x3 ⎠
f '(x) = 3x2 + 2bx + c
sin x ⎛ 2cos x  a ⎞
= lim
2
x 0 x ⎜⎝ x3


⎡⎛ b⎞ 2c c  b 2 ⎤
 3 ⎢⎜ x  ⎟   ⎥0
⎢⎣⎝ 3⎠ 9 9 ⎥⎦ = lim  2cos x  a   0
x 0

 0 < b2 < c 2+a=0


Hence f is strictly increasing for all root x a = –2
Statement 2 is long range's mean value theorem. Statement 2 is correct.

  

11/11

You might also like