Emergency Care (EMT) 13th Edition

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Exam

Name

MULTIPLE CHOICE. Choose the one alternative that best completes the statement or answers the
question.

1) Which one of these groups is at greatest risk of contracting and transmitting tuberculosis?
1) A) Healthcare practitioners B) Immunosuppressed patients
C) Uranium mine workers D) Current and former
smokers
Answer: B
Explanation: A) INCORRECT. Healthcare practitioners who are healthy and take proper
body substance isolation precautions are not at the greatest risk for
contracting or transmitting TB.
B) CORRECT. Those at greatest risk of contracting and transmitting TB are
people who have suppressed immune systems.
C) INCORRECT. Although inherently dangerous, exposure to uranium does
not increase a person's risk of contracting tuberculosis.
D) INCORRECT. Smoking does not create the greatest risk for
contracting tuberculosis.

2) You observe a coworker telling a terminal cancer patient and her family, "Everything will be okay."
2)
Making false reassurances is considered:
A) ambiguous and uncertain. B) caring and supportive.
C) naive and uncompassionate. D) professional and discreet.
Answer: C
Explanation: A) INCORRECT. False reassurances (such as the statement in the situation described)
are usually direct and certain.
B) INCORRECT. It is neither caring nor supportive to assure a good outcome in
this situation.
C) CORRECT. Offering false reassurance will only be irritating or convey
the impression that you do not really understand.
D) INCORRECT. The coworker making false reassurances is certainly not
being professional and discretion doesn't apply.

3) One's "cognitive ability" refers to his or her ability to do which of the following?
3)
A) Think and solve problems B) Control his or her emotions
C) Use fine motor skills D) Adapt to stress
Answer: A
Explanation: A) CORRECT. Thinking and problem-solving is referred to as "cognitive
ability." B) INCORRECT. Control of one's emotions is not related to "cognitive
ability."

1
 C) INCORRECT. Cognitive ability does not refer to physical action or
skills. D) INCORRECT. Stress adaptation is unrelated to "cognitive
ability."

4) Which of the following pathogens can live in dried blood for days and should be a major concern
4)
for EMS providers even while cleaning contaminated equipment?
A) Hepatitis B B) Hepatitis A C) AIDS D) Tuberculosis
Answer: A
Explanation: A) CORRECT. Hepatitis B has been found to live for many days in dried blood
spills, posing a risk of transmission long after many other viruses would have
died.
B) INCORRECT. Hepatitis A does not live for long periods in dried blood.
C) INCORRECT. The virus that causes AIDS does not live long outside of the
body. D) INCORRECT. Tuberculosis cannot live for extended periods in dried
blood.

2
5) The CDC recommends using an alcohol-based hand sanitizer in all except which of the following
5)
situation(s)?
A) The provider is not vaccinated against hepatitis B.
B) The patient has a bloodborne communicable
disease. C) The patient has a respiratory illness.
D) The provider's hands come into contact with fecal matter.
Answer: D
Explanation: A) INCORRECT. If soap and water are not immediately available, the CDC
recommends using an alcohol-based hand sanitizer after treating a
hepatitis B patient.
B) INCORRECT. Alcohol-based hand sanitizers are recommended after contact
with patients who have bloodborne diseases.
C) INCORRECT. After caring for a patient with a respiratory illness, an alcohol-
based hand cleaner would be an effective way for the provider to sanitize her
hands.
D) CORRECT. The CDC considers alcohol-based hand sanitizers to be effective except
for when hands are visibly soiled or when anthrax is present.

6) Which of the following statements about HIV/AIDS is true?

6)
A) The HIV virus lives longer outside the body than hepatitis B.
B) Drugs are not available that slow HIV from progressing into
AIDS. C) HIV positive needlesticks have a 30 percent infection rate.
D) HIV positive needlesticks have less than a 0.05 percent infection rate.
Answer: D
Explanation: A) INCORRECT. Whereas the hepatitis B virus can survive for days in dried
blood, HIV does not survive well outside of the human body.
B) INCORRECT. Although there is currently no cure, there are drugs available
that slow HIV from progressing into AIDS.
C) INCORRECT. Hepatitis B, not HIV, have positive needlesticks result in a
30 percent infection rate.
D) CORRECT. According to the U.S. Occupational Safety and Health Administration
(OSHA), less than half of 1 percent of HIV positive needlesticks result in infection.

7) You are dispatched to a female with altered mental status. Once inside the home, you find a female
7)
who appears to have been beaten unconscious. A man, who smells of alcohol, says that she is his
wife and that he does not know what happened: "I just found her this way!" The husband is
behaving suspiciously, appears paranoid, and is pacing erratically around the room. What
would be the safest course of action?
A) Have your partner call for help while you stay with the
patient. B) Leave the house and call for law enforcement.
C) Evacuate the patient and begin treatment.
D) Continue to question the man and begin treating the patient.
Answer: B
Explanation: A) INCORRECT. The safety of both EMTs should be the priority and leaving
one in the dangerous situation is unacceptable.
B) CORRECT. The three Rs of reacting to the danger in this situation require the
EMTs to leave, call for assistance, and plan how to
proceed.
C) INCORRECT. Trying to move the unconscious patient from this
potentially dangerous situation puts the EMTs at risk.

3
D) INCORRECT. This is a dangerous situation for the responders to be in and
staying in it is not a safe choice.

4
 8) The "Stress Triad," or the body's response to a stressful stimulation, is known as general _
syndrome.
A) reaction B) adaptation C) incident D) resistance
Answer: B
Explanation: A) INCORRECT. The "Stress Triad" does not include a general reaction syndrome.
B) CORRECT. The "Stress Triad" is also known as general adaptation
syndrome. C) INCORRECT. A general incident syndrome is not related to the
"Stress Triad." D) INCORRECT. The body's response to stress is not called the
general resistance
syndrome.

9) You are approaching the scene of a motor vehicle crash. Which of the following would be the
first way to safeguard your well-being as an EMT?
A) Request additional
resources. B) Ensure scene
safety.
C) Utilize DOT-approved reflective safety clothing.
D) Take personal protective equipment (PPE) precautions.
Answer: B
Explanation: A) INCORRECT. Although requesting additional resources may be necessary
based on the situation, it would not be the first way to safeguard your well-
being.
B) CORRECT. The first way to safeguard your well-being as an EMT arriving
at a vehicle crash is make sure that the scene is safe before entering it.
C) INCORRECT. DOT-approved reflective clothing can help to keep an EMT
safer while on scene, but it wouldn't be the first way to ensure personal
well-being.
D) INCORRECT. Utilizing appropriate PPE is important for personal well-being,
but it's not the first way to ensure safety.

10) You are dispatched to the staging area of a terrorist-related chemical exposure. The
incident commander asks you to stand by while hazmat personnel bring patients to the cold
zone. As an EMT on-board an ambulance, what statement BEST describes your role?
A) Transport patients to be decontaminated. B) Transport decontaminated patients.
C) Coordinate hazmat response. D) Triage patients to be decontaminated.
Answer: B
Explanation: A) INCORRECT. EMTs should not be transporting patients until after
decontamination.
B) CORRECT. As an EMT, you should not be treating or transporting patients
until after they have undergone decontamination.
C) INCORRECT. The hazmat response in this scenario has already been
coordinated. D) INCORRECT. Patients being brought to the cold zone would
have already been
triaged and decontaminated.

11) Which of the following is a physiologic effect of the "Stress Triad" as described by the physician
Hans Selye?
A) Atrophy of the adrenal glands B) Hypertrophy of the lymph nodes
C) Amnesia for stressful events D) Bleeding gastric ulcers
Answer: D
Explanation: A) INCORRECT. The adrenal glands will actually become enlarged (hypertrophy)
during the third stage of the "Stress Triad."

5
odes. C) INCORRECT. Amnesia is not an effect of the "Stress Triad." 8)
D) CORRECT. During the third stage of the "Stress Triad," Dr. Selye describes
enlargement (hypertrophy) of the adrenal glands; wasting (atrophy) of
lymph nodes; and bleeding gastric ulcers.

9)

10)

11)

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12) When covering a patient's mouth and nose with a mask of any kind, which of the following is 12)
the primary risk?
A) Interfering with patient communication
B) Upsetting the patient because of the social stigma
C) Obstructing the ability to visualize and protect the airway
D) Causing or exasperating respiratory illnesses
Answer: C
Explanation: A) INCORRECT. Although certain types of masks can interfere with
verbal communication, it is not a primary risk.
B) INCORRECT. Upsetting a patient because of the appearance of a
medically necessary mask is not generally a risk.
C) CORRECT. When covering a patient's mouth and nose with a mask of any
kind, use caution. The mask reduces the ability to visualize and protect the
airway.
D) INCORRECT. The masks used by medical care providers will not cause
or exasperate respiratory illnesses.
13)
13) While transporting a patient to the hospital who has a history of terminal brain cancer, the
patient says, "I know I'm going to die, but first I want to see my grandson graduate from high
school." What stage of death and dying describes this patient's current condition?
A) Bargaining B) Denial C) Depression D) Anger
Answer: A
Explanation: A) CORRECT. In the mind of the patient, bargaining may seem to postpone death
and will commonly include phrases like, "At least let me…" or "But first I
want…."
B) INCORRECT. Patients in the denial stage do not believe that they are going to
die. C) INCORRECT. The depression stage is usually marked by the patient being
sad
about the things that she was never able to do.
D) INCORRECT. This patient is not exhibiting the behavior of someone in the
anger stage.

14) Which of the following is true regarding proper hand cleaning?

14)
A) Soap and water should be used following any patient contact if the EMT does not
wear gloves.
B) In cases where soap and water and alcohol-based hand cleaners are not
immediately available, bleach wipes should be used.
C) If the EMT's hands are visibly dirty, an alcohol-based hand cleaner is not sufficient.
D) Following patient contact, the EMT should soak his hands in warm soapy water for at
least 30 seconds and then shake them vigorously.
Answer: C
Explanation: A) INCORRECT. Proper hand cleaning is critical even when gloves are used,
and in most situations an alcohol-based hand cleaner is appropriate.
B) INCORRECT. Either soap and water or alcohol-based hand cleaners
should always be used following patient contact; bleach wipes are not
safe for skin.
C) CORRECT. Alcohol-based hand cleaners are considered effective except
when hands are visibly soiled or when anthrax is present.
D) INCORRECT. When soap and water are available following patient
contact, vigorous hand washing is recommended; soaking and shaking is
not effective.

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15) Which of the following is the form of stress that can cause immediate and long-term problems 15)
with an EMT's health and well-being?
A) Distress B) Hyperstress C) Megastress D) Eustress
Answer: A
Explanation: A) CORRECT. Distress can cause immediate and long-term problems with a
person's health and well-being.
B) INCORRECT. The term hyperstress usually refers to a long-term mental
or psychological strain that causes a person to feel overwhelmed.
C) INCORRECT. Megastress is not a recognized form of stress.
D) INCORRECT. Eustress is a positive form of stress that helps people to work
under pressure and respond effectively.

16) Which hormone helps the body control stress, regulate metabolism, and influence an 16)
immune response?
A) Cortisol B) Immunoglobulin
C) Epinephrine D) Serotonin
Answer: A
Explanation: A) CORRECT. Cortisol is the hormone that influences metabolism and
immune response, and is critical to the body's ability to adapt to and cope
with stress.
B) INCORRECT. Immunoglobulin is a protein that neutralizes bacteria and
viruses in the body.
C) INCORRECT. Epinephrine, also known as adrenaline, does not assist in
stress control or regulate metabolism.
D) INCORRECT. Serotonin influences a person's sleep, appetite, and moods.
17)
17) When the potential exists for exposure to exhaled air of a person with suspected or confirmed
TB, a(n) mask should be worn by the EMT.
A) surgical B) B-50 C) N-95 D) nonrebreather
Answer: C
Explanation: A) INCORRECT. A surgical mask does not provide enough protection when
exposed to tuberculosis.
B) INCORRECT. A B-50 mask is not used in the EMS setting.
C) CORRECT. EMTs are required to wear an N-95 or HEPA respirator when
treating or transporting a patient suspected of having TB.
D) INCORRECT. An EMT would never wear a nonrebreather mask when caring
for a patient.
18)
18) Which of the following terms is best defined as "a state of physical and/or psychological
arousal to a stimulus?"
A) Eustress B) Stress C) Distress D) Homeostasis
Answer: B
Explanation: A) INCORRECT. Eustress is a positive form of stress that helps people work
under pressure and respond effectively.
B) CORRECT. Doctors and psychologists generally define stress as a state of
physical and/or psychological arousal to a stimulus.
C) INCORRECT. Distress is a negative form of stress that can cause immediate
and long-term problems with health and well-being.
D) INCORRECT. The body's tendency to seek and maintain a certain
equilibrium is called homeostasis.

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19) You are called to an assault on a homeless male. Dried blood from the trauma is visible around 19)
the patient's mouth and nose. During assessment, you note the patient has a productive cough.
The patient says, "Don't worry, I'm not contagious. I've had this cough for a year." Describe the
best approach regarding respiratory isolation.
A) Mask yourself only.
B) Isolate the patient with a nonrebreather
mask. C) Mask yourself and the patient.
D) Use gloves for PPE, as that's all that's needed.
Answer: C
Explanation: A) INCORRECT. It is a good idea to mask yourself in this situation; however,
the patient should also be masked.
B) INCORRECT. A nonrebreather mask would not be appropriate for this
type of patient. You should use an N-95 of HEPA respirator.
C) CORRECT. Best practice would be to mask yourself and the patient using an
N-95 or HEPA respirator.
D) INCORRECT. Since this patient could spatter fluid or blood, a mask
should be worn in addition to gloves.

20) A family member who keeps pleading with a deceased loved one to "wake up" is 20)
experiencing which reaction to death and dying?
A) Anger B) Rejection C) Denial D) Projection
Answer: C
Explanation: A) INCORRECT. An anger reaction would usually be directed at other
family members or the EMS providers for allowing the death to occur.
B) INCORRECT. Rejection is not a term used to describe one of the stages of grief.
C) CORRECT. This family member is obviously in denial about the death of the
loved one.
D) INCORRECT. There is not a reaction to death and dying called projection.

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21) For the last few days, your regular EMT partner has been having trouble sleeping, has been D
on
edge, and has trouble concentrating on his job during EMS calls. Luckily, your call volume has
been
low with no serious calls since the infant cardiac arrest you both worked last month. You ask
him if anything is bothering him and he states he is fine in every way. He states that he has been
going to the bars lately to relax and invites you to come along for some drinks after work.
Choose the best answer for this situation.
A) Your partner is suffering from a delayed stress reaction and you should recommend
that he seek professional counseling.
B) Your partner is suffering from acute stress reaction and you should recommend to him
that he seek professional counseling.
C) Your partner is suffering from post-traumatic stress disorder and you should go to the
bar with him to provide moral support and talk with him.
D) Your partner is suffering from a cumulative stress reaction. This is a natural response
and he should be fine in a few days.
Answer: A
Explanation: A) CORRECT. EMTs suffering from any type of stress reaction where they are
having difficulty coping should seek professional counseling.
B) INCORRECT. The EMT is suffering from a delayed stress reaction because
the incident occurred over a month prior.
C) INCORRECT. Drug and alcohol abuse is a common coping mechanism for
a delayed stress mechanism, so any form of moral support that involves
alcohol should be avoided.
D) INCORRECT. The EMT's stress response is most-likely from the infant cardiac
arrest call, meaning that it is not cumulative, and he should be encouraged to
seek professional help.

22) You have just worked a cardiac arrest call on a 48-year-old father of three. Despite your
best efforts, the patient died in the emergency department. As you are getting your
ambulance in service, the patient's wife rushes out of the emergency department. She finds
you and begins
screaming at you that her husband's death is your fault. She blames you for not getting on the
scene fast enough, taking too long at the house, and not shocking her husband back to life like
she has seen on television. What response should you have to her anger?
A) Correct her misconceptions and remind her that television shows are fiction, so she will
not sue you in the future.
B) Recognize that she is in the denial stage of grief and interrupt her hysterical behavior
pattern by getting her attention and helping her calm down.
C) Reassure her that you did everything you could and that everything will be
okay.
D) Listen empathetically to all of her complaints and let her know she can contact you for
any additional assistance.
Answer: D
Explanation: A) INCORRECT. Correcting her misconceptions will not help the situation and
may make it worse.
B) INCORRECT. The patient is in the anger stage of grief, not the denial stage.
Her anger is part of the normal grieving process and should not be taken
personally.
C) INCORRECT. EMTs should not offer false reassurance by telling the patient
that everything will be okay.

10
fering to help her as realistically as possible are the best actions to take when 21)
confronted by a person in the anger stage of grief.

22)

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23) Post-traumatic stress disorder may be described as a(n):
23) A) acute stress reaction. B) delayed stress reaction.
C) severe stress reaction. D) cumulative stress
reaction. Answer: B
Explanation: A) INCORRECT. Acute stress reactions occur immediately, whereas PTSD does not.
B) CORRECT. A delayed stress reaction, also known as posttraumatic stress
disorder (PTSD), has signs and symptoms that may not become evident until
days, months, or even years later.
C) INCORRECT. Posttraumatic stress disorder is not generally called a severe
stress reaction.
D) INCORRECT. Unlike a cumulative stress reaction, which is caused by a series
of events over time, PTSD can be caused by one significant event.

24) What is the EMT's highest priority at the scene of a hazardous materials incident?
24) A) Identification of hazardous materials B) Personal safety
C) Safety of bystanders D) Patient care
Answer: B
Explanation: A) INCORRECT. There are several priorities that are more important than
specifically identifying the hazardous materials involved in an incident.
B) CORRECT. Your most important roles at the scene of a hazardous material
incident are recognizing that a hazard exists, taking initial actions for your
personal safety and the safety of others, and notifying an appropriately
trained hazardous material response team.
C) INCORRECT. The safety of bystanders is not the EMT's highest priority in
this situation.
D) INCORRECT. Although important, patient care is not the highest priority
at a hazardous materials incident.

25) Which three "Rs" are essential for the EMT to practice when reacting to danger?
25) A) Retreat, radio, reevaluate B) Ricochet, recover, re-entry
C) Remember, respect, respond D) Realize, react, reassess
Answer: A
Explanation: A) CORRECT. The three Rs of reacting to danger are retreat, radio, and reevaluate.
B) INCORRECT. Ricochet, recover, and re-entry are not the three Rs of
reacting to danger.
C) INCORRECT. The concept behind the three Rs is to get out of danger,
request assistance, and determine the next course of action.
D) INCORRECT. The three Rs of reacting to danger are not realizing, reacting,
and reassessing.

26) What mode of transmission most accurately describes the route of spreading hepatitis A?
26) A) Bloodborne B) Fecal-oral
C) Respiratory droplet D) Unprotected sex
Answer: B
Explanation: A) INCORRECT. Hepatitis A is not a bloodborne pathogen.
B) CORRECT. Hepatitis A is acquired primarily through contact with food or
water contaminated by feces.
C) INCORRECT. Hepatitis A is not normally transmitted through
respiratory secretions.
D) INCORRECT. Although most types of hepatitis can be spread through
unprotected sex, hepatitis A is not usually transmitted this way.

12
27) What would be the primary reason for an EMT to change gloves between contact with 27)
different patients?
A) To ensure soiled gloves are changed as soon as possible
B) To protect the EMT from becoming infected
C) To prevent spreading infection to the next patient
D) To minimize the amount of time the EMT's hands are spent in gloves
Answer: C
Explanation: A) INCORRECT. Disposing of soiled gloves is important, but it is not the
primary reason to change them between patients.
B) INCORRECT. Wearing gloves is what protects EMTs from exposure to
infection, not changing them between patients.
C) CORRECT. Be sure to change gloves between contact with different
patients to prevent the spread of infection.
D) INCORRECT. There is no need to minimize the amount of time an EMT
wears gloves while providing patient care.

28) According to Dr. Hans Selye, the third stage of the "Stress Triad" is known as the _ stage.
28)
A) alarm B) exhaustion C) resistance D) cumulative
Answer: B
Explanation: A) INCORRECT. The alarm stage is first in Dr. Selye's "Stress
Triad." B) CORRECT. Exhaustion is the third stage of the "Stress
Triad."
C) INCORRECT. Resistance is the second stage of Dr. Selye's "Stress
Triad." D) INCORRECT. The "Stress Triad" doesn't include a cumulative
stage.

29) What is the name of the federal act that mandates a procedure by which emergency healthcare 29)
providers can find out if they have been exposed to potentially life-threatening diseases
while on the job?
A) Communicable Disease Notification Act
B) Ryan White CARE Act
C) Occupational Exposure to Bloodborne Pathogens Act
D) EMS Personnel Health Protection Act of 1991
Answer: B
Explanation: A) INCORRECT. The Communicable Disease Notification Act is not a
federal mandate.
B) CORRECT. The Ryan White CARE Act and the Ryan White HIV/AIDS
Treatment Extension Act of 2009 establish procedures by which emergency
response workers may find out if they have been exposed to life-threatening
infectious diseases.
C) INCORRECT. The Occupational Exposure to Bloodborne Pathogens Act does
not exist as a federal regulation.
D) INCORRECT. The federal government did not mandate exposure
notifications through an EMS Personnel Health Protection Act in 1991.

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30) Which of the following descriptions BEST defines the term pathogen?
30) A) An immunity developed after an exposure
B) A medication with a harmful effect
C) An organism that causes infection and disease
D) A study of the origins of infection and disease
Answer: C
Explanation: A) INCORRECT. Immunity following an exposure is known as an
"acquired immunity."
B) INCORRECT. A medication with a harmful side effect is not called a
pathogen. C) CORRECT. Pathogens are organisms that cause infection, such as
viruses and
bacteria.
D) INCORRECT. Pathology is the study of the origins of infections and disease.

31) You are dispatched to a "man down" with no further information. As your unit arrives on- 31)
scene,
you see a crowd of bystanders looking at a man lying in an alleyway. The bystanders begin
screaming to you, "Help him, he's been shot! He's bleeding real bad!" What would be the
best course of action?
A) Tell law enforcement investigators to meet your unit at the ER.
B) Move bystanders aside since the patient will die without
treatment. C) Dispatch law enforcement and wait until the scene is
secure.
D) Load and go, because you're already on-
scene. Answer: C
Explanation: A) INCORRECT. This patient should not even be approached for care or transport
until the EMTs are certain that the scene is safe.
B) INCORRECT. The EMT's first priority–even before patient care–is to be certain
that the scene is safe.
C) CORRECT. This is an uncontrolled and potentially dangerous situation. The
EMTs should not attempt to enter or care for the patient until their own safety
is assured.
D) INCORRECT. This unsecured scene is potentially too dangerous for the 32)
EMT's to enter and get the patient.

32) Which of the following behaviors would be considered a common sign of stress rather
than an acute psychological problem?
A) Irritability with friends, family, coworkers, or patients
B) Flashbacks, nightmares, and feelings of detachment
C) Increased speeding and reckless driving
D) Failure to use PPE appropriately on a regular basis
Answer: A
Explanation: A) CORRECT. Common signs and symptoms of stress include irritability with
family, friends, and coworkers; inability to concentrate; loss of interest in sexual
activity; anxiety; and loss of interest in work.
B) INCORRECT. Flashbacks, nightmares, and feelings of detachment are signs
and symptoms of posttraumatic stress disorder (PTSD).
C) INCORRECT. Reckless driving and speeding are not common signs of
stress. D) INCORRECT. Failure to use PPE appropriately is not a sign of
stress, it is just
unprofessional.

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33) What are some signs and symptoms that a coworker may be experiencing delayed stress 33)
reaction
(PTSD)?
A) Excessive sleeping, loss of appetite, and
distractibility
B) Flashbacks, nightmares, and feelings of
detachment C) Headaches, stomach ailments, and a
chronic cough D) Suspicion of friends, family,
coworkers, or patients
Answer: B
Explanation: A) INCORRECT. A coworker with these signs and symptoms may be suffering
from depression, but not PTSD specifically.
B) CORRECT. Signs and symptoms of PTSD may include flashbacks,
nightmares, feelings of detachment, irritability, sleep difficulties, or
problems with concentration or interpersonal relationships.
C) INCORRECT. PTSD does not commonly cause physical
ailments. D) INCORRECT. Suspicion is generally not a symptom
of PTSD.

34) What is a positive, healthy way to help deal with stress?

34)
A) Caffeine to "get up and go"
B) Adding workload to a busy regular schedule
C) Drinking alcohol to
"unwind" D) Regular physical
exercise
Answer: D
Explanation: A) INCORRECT. Using caffeine or any other stimulant to deal with
stress is unhealthy.
B) INCORRECT. Relaxing more, rather than adding work, is a positive way to
cope with stress.
C) INCORRECT. Drug and alcohol abuse is a negative (although common)
coping mechanism for stress.
D) CORRECT. Developing a more healthful lifestyle through diet and exercise
is a positive way to deal with stress.

35) Healthcare employers are required by law to provide a hepatitis B available to 35)
employees
free of charge.
A) immunity B) prophylaxis C) cure D)
vaccine
Answer: D
Explanation: A) INCORRECT. The law does not require healthcare employers to provide
immunity from hepatitis B.
B) INCORRECT. Although a prophylaxis is a measure taken to prevent a disease,
the law governing healthcare providers is more specific regarding hepatitis B.
C) INCORRECT. There is no cure for hepatitis B.
D) CORRECT. Employers must make the hepatitis B vaccination series available
free of charge and at a reasonable time and place.

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36) All of the following are ways that an EMT can increase both physical and mental well-being, except:
36) A) spending more time relaxing with friends and family.
B) eating more carbohydrates.
C) following a regular walking
regimen. D) drinking caffeine instead
of alcohol.
Answer: D
Explanation: A) INCORRECT. Devoting time to relaxing with friends and family can
have a positive effect on a person's mental well-being.
B) INCORRECT. Healthful eating habits, such as avoiding fatty foods and
increasing carbohydrate intake, is physically and mentally beneficial.
C) INCORRECT. When performed safely and properly, exercise helps to "burn
off" stress, and it can also better prepare the EMT for the physical aspects of
the job.
D) CORRECT. Both caffeine and alcohol can increase stress and anxiety, as
well as disturb sleep patterns.

37) An EMT is confronted by an armed gunman who is threatening to kill the EMT and his partner. 37)
An
elevation in the EMT's heart rate and blood pressure occurs in which stage of the body's response
to
stress?
A) Exhaustion stage B) Resistance stage
C) Alarm reaction stage D) Response stage
Answer: C
Explanation: A) INCORRECT. The exhaustion stage includes adrenal gland enlargement
and bleeding gastric ulcers.
B) INCORRECT. The body systems return to normal during the resistance
stage of stress.
C) CORRECT. During the alarm reaction stage of stress, pupil dilation, heart
rate increases, and bronchial passage dilation are all common.
D) INCORRECT. There is no clinically recognized "response stage" to stress. 38)

38) During which of these situations would the EMT be least likely to experience a body
substance exposure?
A) Childbirth B) Splinting a sprained ankle
C) Glucometry D) Bandaging a laceration
Answer: B
Explanation: A) INCORRECT. Emergency responders can easily be exposed to blood
and numerous types of body fluids when assisting at childbirth.
B) CORRECT. Splinting a sprained ankle will generally not expose an EMT to
blood or body fluids.
C) INCORRECT. Glucometry involves obtaining blood samples for
testing. D) INCORRECT. Exposure to blood is likely when caring for
lacerations.

16
39) What is a common term used to describe the items needed for Standard Precautions or 39)
body substance isolation precautions?
A) Infection-control plan B) Exposure-control plan
C) Personal protective equipment D) Harm-reduction strategy
Answer: C
Explanation: A) INCORRECT. An infection-control plan will usually call for body
substance isolation precautions, but it is not a term used to describe the
items needed.
B) INCORRECT. Although an exposure-control plan may include directives
for
Standard Precautions, the term itself does not refer to the items
required.
C) CORRECT. Personal protective equipment such as gloves, goggles, and
gowns help to protect care providers from exposure to body substances.
D) INCORRECT. The term harm-reduction strategy does not describe the
items needed for body substance isolation precautions.

40) Critical Incident Stress Debriefings (CISDs):

40)
A) have been replaced with "defusings."
B) are now less common than they once were.
C) must be held from 2 to 4 hours following an incident to be
effective. D) are always recommended.
Answer: B
Explanation: A) INCORRECT. Critical Incident Stress Debriefings and defusing sessions are
two different types of stress management events; one does not replace the
other.
B) CORRECT. The CISD model is now used less frequently and is not
recommended by many in EMS and mental health professions.
C) INCORRECT. If they are to be effective at all, CISDs should occur within 24 to
72 hours following the incident.
D) INCORRECT. Critical Incident Stress Debriefings are no longer standard in the
EMS industry.

41) Due to the high risk of an unstable work environment, EMTs responding to a motor vehicle crash 41)
may consider using in addition to standard PPE.
A) face shields B) Level B hazmat suits
C) N-95 masks D) heavy-duty gloves
Answer: D
Explanation: A) INCORRECT. Although face shields will protect against some fluid exposure,
they would generally not be beneficial as protection at a vehicle crash scene.
B) INCORRECT. Level B hazmat suits are not only unnecessary during a
standard vehicle crash response, they would also provide very little extra
protection from metal and broken glass.
C) INCORRECT. N-95 masks will provide no additional protective
benefit to providers responding to an unstable environment.
D) CORRECT. As an EMT works in rescue operations, such as following a car
crash, he will need personal protective equipment that includes turnout gear
(coat, pants, and boots), protective eyewear, helmet, and heavy-duty gloves.

17
42) What action does an organ undergo to best describe the term hypertrophy?
42) A) Enlargement B) Wasting C) Changing D) Absence
Answer: A
Explanation: A) CORRECT. The term hypertrophy means enlargement and is seen in the third
stage of the body's response to stress.
B) INCORRECT. An organ that is wasting is not considered to be hypertrophying.
C) INCORRECT. Although a hypertrophied organ is one that has changed, that is
not the best description of the term.
D) INCORRECT. Hypertrophy does not indicate the absence of an organ.

43) What reference provides important information regarding hazardous materials, emergency 43)
care,
and procedures in case of accidental fire or release; supplies definitions of placard colors and
identification numbers; and should be standard issue on-board all ambulances and rescue units?
A) Safety Data Sheets
B) Emergency Preparedness and Response Plan
C) Emergency Response Guidebook
D) Accidental Exposure and Contamination Guide
Answer: C
Explanation: A) INCORRECT. Safety Data Sheets are not carried on ambulances and rescue
units.
B) INCORRECT. An emergency preparedness and response plan is
not a comprehensive hazardous materials reference.
C) CORRECT. The Emergency Response Guidebook provides important information
about the properties and labeling of dangerous substance as well as information
on safe distances, emergency care, and suggested procedures in the event of
spills or fire.
D) INCORRECT. An Accidental Exposure and Contamination Guide does not
provide information on all common hazardous materials, including placard
identification, nor is it standard issue on all ambulances.

44) An EMT should consider wearing protective eyewear when caring for which of these patients?
44)
A) A trauma patient who is covered in dirt, rocks, and other foreign debris
B) A patient who is actively coughing
C) A patient with a difficult-to-visualize scalp laceration
D) A patient who was sprayed with mace by police during arrest
Answer: B
Explanation: A) INCORRECT. Dirt and foreign debris on a patient does not generally
pose an exposure threat to responders.
B) CORRECT. Eye protection prevents splashing, spattering, or spraying fluids
(such as from a cough) from entering the body through the mucous
membranes of the eyes.

14
C) INCORRECT. A scalp laceration that is difficult to see does not specifically
require the EMT to have protective eyewear.
D) INCORRECT. Mace is not a pathogen that can infect an EMT through
exposure to the eyes.

14
45) You are first on the scene of a vehicle collision where a vehicle has gone off a bridge and is 45)
partially submerged. You are told that a person is still trapped in the vehicle. Your partner
starts to take off his shoes and prepares to go in to save the victim. You stop your partner and
tell him it is too dangerous. He tells you he is prepared to die to save a life. What is the best
response to him?
A) He will force additional fire units to come to his aid unnecessarily and waste taxpayer
money. B) The patient's family may sue him if he is not successful in rescuing him.
C) His family will not receive any benefits if he is not trained in rescue and dies
while attempting a rescue.
D) He is not only putting his life at risk, but also placing the lives of the professional
rescuers unnecessarily at risk.
Answer: D
Explanation: A) INCORRECT. The fire units will be put out of service unnecessarily at a
waste of money, but the life safety of the EMT and the professional rescuers
is the first priority.
B) INCORRECT. There is no guarantee as to whether the victim's family may or
may not sue the EMT regardless of what he does.
C) INCORRECT. The financial benefits the EMT's family may or may not receive
are not of importance.
D) CORRECT. The life of the EMT and those who may be forced to rescue him
take the highest priority.
46)
46) Which of the following provides the greatest personal safety for an EMT working at a motor
vehicle collision?
A) Reflective outer clothing B) Portable radio
C) Flashlight D) Nonslip footwear
Answer: A
Explanation: A) CORRECT. Being highly visible to passing motorists is critical to an EMT's
safety while working on or near a roadway; reflective outer clothing is
essential.
B) INCORRECT. Simply having a portable radio does not make an EMT safer
at a crash scene.
C) INCORRECT. A flashlight can be effective at night to expose potential hazards
and provide some visibility to the EMT's location for passing drivers, but if the
collision occurs during the day it will not do much good.
D) INCORRECT. Proper footwear is important when working in EMS, but
nonslip shoes would not provide the greatest benefit on the scene of a 47)
vehicle crash.

47) The tuberculin skin test (TST), formerly known as the purified protein derivative (PPD) test, is
used to:

A) prevent tuberculosis from spreading following an

exposure. B) detect a person's exposure to tuberculosis.
C) determine if a person has infected others with
TB. D) inoculate healthcare workers against TB
infections.
Answer: B
Explanation: A) INCORRECT. A tuberculin skin test will not prevent the spread of TB.
B) CORRECT. The tuberculin skin test will show if a person has been exposed to
TB. C) INCORRECT. The TST does not determine if a person is infected with TB,
nor if
they have infected others.
D) INCORRECT. There is no immunization against tuberculosis used in the United
15
States.

16
48) You are on the scene of an "unknown medical" call. The patient is a 26-year-old, 250-pound
male patient who suddenly becomes violently angry. Everything you say to the patient only
makes him angrier. Offended by your questions, he screams that he is going to "cut your
tongue out" and hurries into the kitchen. What should you do?
A) Radio for police and then calmly walk out of the house, being sure to take all of your
medical equipment.
B) Leave immediately to a safe area and then call for police
assistance. C) Tackle the patient before he can get a kitchen knife to
stab you.
D) Radio for police and relay to dispatch important scene information until they
arrive. Answer: B
Explanation: A) INCORRECT. Whenever a patient becomes violent or threatens violence, the
EMT
should immediately leave the scene and call for police and not do anything that
will slow down or impede his escape, such as taking the time to collect
heavy medical equipment.
B) CORRECT. The EMT should leave immediately, call for assistance, and
not re-enter the scene until it has been made safe by law enforcement.
C) INCORRECT. The EMT should not try to fight the patient, as he is not
trained in law enforcement techniques and the EMT can be seriously injured
or killed.
D) INCORRECT. The EMT should never stay on-scene in an attempt to calm
down the violent patient or provide pertinent scene information to the police.
This is a very dangerous situation and can result in serious injury or death.

49) Which of the following parts of the nervous system is responsible for the "fight or flight"
response experienced in response to a stressor?
A) Parasympathetic nervous system B) Central nervous system
C) Sympathetic nervous system D) Peripheral nervous system
Answer: C
Explanation: A) INCORRECT. The parasympathetic nervous system is responsible for more
passive tasks like stimulating saliva production.
B) INCORRECT. The central nervous system consists of the brain and spinal cord
and does not directly react to stress.
C) CORRECT. When exposed to stressors, the sympathetic nervous system
increases its activity in what is known as the "fight-or-flight" syndrome.
D) INCORRECT. The peripheral nervous system does not create the "fight-or-
flight" response.

50) You are treating a patient who has a productive cough and who reports weight loss, loss
of appetite, weakness, night sweats, and fever. Which of the following diseases is most
likely the cause of these signs and symptoms?
A) Pneumonia B) Hepatitis B C) AIDS D) Tuberculosis
Answer: D
Explanation: A) INCORRECT. A person suffering from pneumonia may present with a
cough, fever, chills and difficulty breathing.
B) INCORRECT. Abdominal and/or joint pain, dark urine, fever, weakness,
and jaundice are common signs and symptoms of hepatitis B.
C) INCORRECT. Although rapid weight loss and night sweats or fevers are
common among patients with AIDS, a productive cough is not generally
related.
D) CORRECT. Patients who have TB may have the following signs and
symptoms: productive cough (coughing up mucus or other fluid) and/or

17
and weakness, night sweats, and fever. 48)

49)

50)

18
51) Which of the following is an accurate statement regarding tuberculosis (TB)?
51) A) The TB pathogen only affects lung tissue.
B) A tuberculin skin test can detect TB exposure.
C) TB is not spread through surface
contamination. D) The incubation period of TB is
from 1 to 7 days.
Answer: B
Explanation: A) INCORRECT. The tuberculosis infection can sometimes settle in the lungs, but
may also be found in other areas of the body.
B) CORRECT. Although there is no immunization against tuberculosis used in the
United States, a tuberculin skin test (TST) can detect exposure.
C) INCORRECT. Tuberculosis is highly contagious and can be spread through
any contact with infected fluids, whether airborne or on surfaces.
D) INCORRECT. The incubation period for tuberculosis is between 2 and 12 weeks.

52) A(n) is a situation that may lead to an acute stress reaction.

52)
A) abuse of alcohol B) routine call
C) ongoing night shift D) injury of a coworker
Answer: D
Explanation: A) INCORRECT. Substance abuse will generally lead to cumulative issues.
B) INCORRECT. A routine call will not lead to an acute stress reaction.
C) INCORRECT. An ongoing night shift may lead to cumulative stress problems.
D) CORRECT. An acute stress reaction occurs simultaneously with or shortly
after a critical incident, such as a disaster or injury of a coworker.

53) What is a simple step EMTs can perform to help prevent the spread of flu in the prehospital 53)
environment?
A) Notify the CDC and local health department of flu
cases. B) Place a surgical mask on suspected flu patients.
C) Encourage patients to get their H1N1 antivirals early in the flu
season. D) Transport all patients with coughs to negative pressure
rooms.
Answer: B
Explanation: A) INCORRECT. Although it is beneficial for the CDC and other various
health departments to track flu outbreaks, it does not prevent flu from
spreading.
B) CORRECT. When a patient is suspected of having an infection spread by
droplets (such as flu or measles), a surgical-type mask may be placed on the
patient if he is alert and cooperative.
C) INCORRECT. Promoting flu shots in the community is important, but it is not a
simple step that an EMT can perform to prevent the spread of flu in the
prehospital setting.
D) INCORRECT. Transporting patients to negative pressure rooms is not a
simple step.

19
54) Since EMS personnel are often exposed to both acute and chronic stressors, 54)
management may be helpful to cope with on-the-job experiences.
A) chronic stress B) critical incident stress
C) crisis intervention D) stress prevention
Answer: B
Explanation: A) INCORRECT. EMS professionals are potentially exposed to both acute and
chronic stress; both of which must be managed.
B) CORRECT. Critical incident stress management (CISM) is a comprehensive
system that includes education and resources to both prevent stress and to deal
with
on-the-job stress appropriately when it does occur.
C) INCORRECT. Crisis intervention is generally only focused on acute incidents.
D) INCORRECT. The stresses encountered while working in EMS cannot
usually be prevented, so programs should be focused on appropriately
dealing with the stresses encountered.
55)
55) What are the minimum Standard Precautions an EMT should take when transporting a
patient infected with Middle East Respiratory Syndrome (MERS)?
A) Gloves, N-95 mask, goggles, and gown B) Gloves
C) Gloves, N-95 mask, and goggles D) Gloves and N-95 mask
Answer: A
Explanation: A) CORRECT. Protection against MERS and other respiratory infections in a
patient-care setting includes frequent hand washing and the use of gloves,
gowns, eye protection, and an N-95 respirator.
B) INCORRECT. Gloves alone will not properly protect the EMT when caring for a
MERS patient.
C) INCORRECT. Gloves, N-95 mask, and goggles are not sufficient Standard
Precautions when transporting a MERS patient.
D) INCORRECT. Gloves and an N-95 mask will only protect the provider's hands
and respiratory system, leaving other routes open to infection from MERS
exposure.

56) Which of the following pathogens is transmitted through contact with open wounds or sores?
56)
A) Meningitis B) Pertussis C) Rubella D)
Staphylococcus
Answer: D
Explanation: A) INCORRECT. Meningitis is passed by contact with oral or nasal secretions.
B) INCORRECT. Pertussis (whooping cough) is not passed through open wounds
or sores.
C) INCORRECT. Rubella is normally transmitted through airborne droplets.
D) CORRECT. Staphylococcus is transmitted through direct contact with
infected wounds or sores, or with contaminated objects.

20
57) When responding to the scene of a patient who was discovered to be unresponsive, not 57)
breathing, and without a pulse, family members state that the patient has been suffering from
cancer for several years. One of his sons is cursing at you and your partner, saying that you are
not moving fast enough. Which stage of grief is the patient's son experiencing in response to
his father's death?
A) Acceptance B) Depression C) Denial D) Anger
Answer: D
Explanation: A) INCORRECT. A person who has reached acceptance of the situation would not
be cursing or ordering emergency providers to move quicker.
B) INCORRECT. A hallmark of the depression stage is sadness and despair.
C) INCORRECT. The denial stage is usually accompanied by a belief that
nothing is wrong.
D) CORRECT. The anger stage of grief is commonly vented on family members
and 58)
EMS personnel.

58) Which of the following terms refers to a positive form of stress that helps people work when
under pressure and respond effectively?
A) Prostress B) Unstress C) Distress D) Eustress
Answer: D
Explanation: A) INCORRECT. Prostress is not a term used to describe a positive form of stress.
B) INCORRECT. The word unstress is related to grammar and word
pronunciation and does not apply to stress reactions.
C) INCORRECT. Distress is a negative form of stress that can create immediate
and lasting negative effects.
D) CORRECT. Eustress is a positive form of stress that helps people to work
59)
under pressure and respond effectively.

59) You respond to a laceration call. When you arrive on-scene, you walk into the house and find a
person suffering from a severe wrist laceration from a broken window. Without thinking, you
immediately grab the wrist and apply direct pressure to the wound. You then realize that, in
your hurry to save a life, you forgot to put on your gloves. You look down to see your hand is
covered in blood. When practical, you immediately wash your hands thoroughly. What is your
next best action?
A) If your hands had no open wounds, it is not required to report the exposure as there is no
risk of infection, and you could get in trouble at work for failure to follow policy.
B) Report the exposure incident because it is the law and you could be fined a large
sum of money for failing to report the exposure.
C) Report the exposure so you can protect yourself from any accidental infection.
D) Report the exposure. Failure to report the exposure may result in you not receiving
financial compensation for a potential line-of-duty injury.
Answer: C
Explanation: A) INCORRECT. Fear of discipline is never an acceptable reason for failing to
report an exposure, and just because the EMT has no open wounds it does not
mean that there is no risk.
B) INCORRECT. There is no law mandating that employees have to self-report
any exposures.
C) CORRECT. Immediate reporting of any bloodborne pathogen exposure is
critical to minimize any potential infection risk to the EMT.
D) INCORRECT. Although reporting the exposure may be helpful from a
financial perspective should the EMT become infected, this is not the best
reason for disclosing the exposure.
21
22
60) An EMT involved in an especially difficult call, such as one in which a coworker was killed, 60)
should be urged to:
A) seek help from a trained mental health
professional. B) discuss the experience freely with
coworkers.
C) conceal the problem because care may not be covered
financially. D) begin a course of psychiatric medications.
Answer: A
Explanation: A) CORRECT. Medical professionals and EMS leaders agree that the best course
of action for an EMT who is experiencing significant stress from a serious call
or experience is to seek help from a mental health professional who is
experienced in treating these issues.
B) INCORRECT. Openly discussing a difficult call with coworkers may increase
the stress levels of all involved and the responses received may not always be
helpful.
C) INCORRECT. Concealing the stress caused by a traumatic incident can be
very damaging and result in long-term problems.
D) INCORRECT. Psychiatric medications are generally not the first step in
dealing with a stressful situation.

61) The term burnout is also known as a(n) stress reaction.

61)
A) cumulative B) delayed C) post-traumatic D) acute
Answer: A
Explanation: A) CORRECT. A cumulative stress reaction (also known as burnout) occurs as a
result of prolonged recurring stressors.
B) INCORRECT. A delayed stress reaction doesn't result in burnout.
C) INCORRECT. Burnout is not a sign or symptom of a post-traumatic stress
reaction. D) INCORRECT. An acute stress reaction occurs during or just after a
critical incident,
whereas burnout takes longer to develop.

62) Which of the following behaviors would demonstrate that an EMT understands reactions to death 62)
and dying?
A) Being firm with grieving family members and telling them they need to accept what
has happened
B) Giving a dying patient hope that a cure can be found before the patient dies
C) Providing spiritual guidance to patients who express anger at God
D) Being tolerant of angry reactions by patients and family members
Answer: D
Explanation: A) INCORRECT. The EMT should just be patient and comforting; telling people
how they should be feeling in a tragic situation is not beneficial.
B) INCORRECT. Offering false reassurances do not help in situations involving
dying patients, and clearly shows a lack of understanding by the EMT.
C) INCORRECT. It is inappropriate for an EMT to try to correct, debate or
convince a patient who is dying.
D) CORRECT. There may be feelings of helpless rage about death or the prospect
of death. An EMT should know that the anger is not personal and to be tolerant
of the reactions in these situations.

23
Answer Key
Testname: C2

1) B
2) C
3) A
4) A
5) D
6) D
7) B
8) B
9) B
10) B
11) D
12) C
13) A
14) C
15) A
16) A
17) C
18) B
19) C
20) C
21) A
22) D
23) B
24) B
25) A
26) B
27) C
28) B
29) B
30) C
31) C
32) A
33) B
34) D
35) D
36) D
37) C
38) B
39) C
40) B
41) D
42) A
43) C
44) B
45) D
46) A
47) B
48) B
49) C
50) D

24
Answer Key
Testname: C2

51) B
52) D
53) B
54) B
55) A
56) D
57) D
58) D
59) C
60) A
61) A
62) D

25