MASTERS FLYING SCHOOL

Private Pilot – Aircraft General Knowledge

1. In the Northern Hemisphere, a magnetic compass will normally indicate a turn toward the north if
A. a right turn is entered from an east heading.
B. a left turn is entered from a west heading.
C. an aircraft is accelerated while on an east or west heading.

2. During flight, when are the indications of a magnetic compass accurate?

A. Only in straight-and-level unaccelerated flight.
B. As long as the airspeed is constant.
C. During turns if the bank does not exceed 18°.

3. Deviation in a magnetic compass is caused by the

A. presence of flaws in the permanent magnets of the compass.
B. difference in the location between true north and magnetic north.
C. magnetic fields within the aircraft distorting the lines of magnetic force.

4. In the Northern Hemisphere, if an aircraft is accelerated or decelerated, the magnetic compass will
normally indicate
A. a turn momentarily.
B. correctly when on a north or south heading.
C. a turn toward the south.

5.In the Northern Hemisphere, a magnetic compass will normally indicate initially a turn toward the
west if
A. a left turn is entered from a north heading.
B. a right turn is entered from a north heading.
C. an aircraft is accelerated while on a north heading.

6. In the Northern Hemisphere, the magnetic compass will normally indicate a turn toward the south
when
A. a left turn is entered from an east heading.
B. a right turn is entered from a west heading.
C. the aircraft is decelerated while on a west heading.

7. In the Northern Hemisphere, a magnetic compass will normally indicate initially a turn toward the
east if
A. an aircraft is decelerated while on a south heading.
B. an aircraft is accelerated while on a north heading.
C. a left turn is entered from a north heading.

8. The pitot system provides impact pressure for which instrument?

A. Altimeter.
B. Vertical-speed indicator.
C. Airspeed indicator.
9. Which instrument will become inoperative if the pitot tube becomes clogged?
A. Altimeter.
B. Vertical speed.
C. Airspeed.

10. If the pitot tube and outside static vents become clogged, which instruments would be affected?
A. The altimeter, airspeed indicator, and turn-and-slip indicator.
B. The altimeter, airspeed indicator, and vertical speed indicator.
C. The altimeter, attitude indicator, and turn-and-slip indicator.

11. Which instrument(s) will become inoperative if the static vents become clogged?
A. Airspeed only.
B. Altimeter only.
C. Airspeed, altimeter, and vertical speed.

12. What does the red line on an airspeed indicator represent?

A. Maneuvering speed.
B. Turbulent or rough-air speed.
C. Never-exceed speed.

13. What is an important airspeed limitation that is not color coded on airspeed indicators?
A. Never-exceed speed.
B. Maximum structural cruising speed.
C. Maneuvering speed.

14. (Refer to figure 4.) What is the caution range of the airplane?
A. 0 to 60 MPH.
B. 100 to 165 MPH.
C. 165 to 208 MPH.

15. (Refer to figure 4.) The maximum speed at which the airplane can be operated in smooth air is
A. 100 MPH.
B. 165 MPH.
C. 208 MPH.

16. (Refer to figure 4.) What is the full flap operating range for the airplane?
A. 60 to 100 MPH.
B. 60 to 208 MPH.
C. 65 to 165 MPH.

17. (Refer to figure 4.) Which color identifies the never-exceed speed?
A. Lower limit of the yellow arc.
B. Upper limit of the white arc.
C. The red radial line.
18. (Refer to figure 4.) Which color identifies the power-off stalling speed in a specified configuration?
A. Upper limit of the green arc.
B. Upper limit of the white arc.
C. Lower limit of the green arc.

19. (Refer to figure 4.) What is the maximum flaps-extended speed?

A. 65 MPH.
B. 100 MPH.
C. 165 MPH.

20. (Refer to figure 4.) Which color identifies the normal flap operating range?
A. The lower limit of the white arc to the upper limit of the green arc.
B. The green arc.
C. The white arc.

21. (Refer to figure 4.) Which color identifies the power-off stalling speed with wing flaps and landing
gear in the landing configuration?
A. Upper limit of the green arc.
B. Upper limit of the white arc.
C. Lower limit of the white arc.

22. (Refer to figure 4.) What is the maximum structural cruising speed?
A. 100 MPH.
B. 165 MPH.
C. 208 MPH.

23. (Refer to figure 3.) Altimeter 2 indicates

A. 1,500 feet.
B. 4,500 feet.
C. 14,500 feet.

24. (Refer to figure 3.) Altimeter 1 indicates

A. 500 feet.
B. 1,500 feet.
C. 10,500 feet.

25. (Refer to figure 3.) Altimeter 3 indicates

A. 9,500 feet.
B. 10,950 feet.
C. 15,940 feet.

26. (Refer to figure 3.) Which altimeter(s) indicate(s) more than 10,000 feet?
A. 1, 2, and 3.
B. 1 and 2 only.
C. 1 only.
27. What is absolute altitude?
A. The altitude read directly from the altimeter.
B. The vertical distance of the aircraft above the surface.
C. The height above the standard datum plane.

28. What is true altitude?

A. The vertical distance of the aircraft above sea level.
B. The vertical distance of the aircraft above the surface.
C. The height above the standard datum plane.

29. What is density altitude?

A. The height above the standard datum plane.
B. The pressure altitude corrected for nonstandard temperature.
C. The altitude read directly from the altimeter.
30. Under what condition is pressure altitude and density altitude the same value?
A. At sea level, when the temperature is 0°F.
B. When the altimeter has no installation error.
C. At standard temperature.

31. Under what condition is indicated altitude the same as true altitude?
A. If the altimeter has no mechanical error.
B. When at sea level under standard conditions.
C. When at 18,000 feet MSL with the altimeter set at 29.92.

32. Under which condition will pressure altitude be equal to true altitude?
A. When the atmospheric pressure is 29.92" Hg.
B. When standard atmospheric conditions exist.
C. When indicated altitude is equal to the pressure altitude.
33. What is pressure altitude?
A. The indicated altitude corrected for position and installation error.
B. The altitude indicated when the barometric pressure scale is set to 29.92.
C. The indicated altitude corrected for nonstandard temperature and pressure.

34. Altimeter setting is the value to which the barometric pressure scale of the altimeter is set so the
altimeter indicates
A. calibrated altitude at field elevation.
B. absolute altitude at field elevation.
C. true altitude at field elevation.

35. If it is necessary to set the altimeter from 29.15 to 29.85, what change occurs?
A. 70-foot increase in indicated altitude.
B. 70-foot increase in density altitude.
C. 700-foot increase in indicated altitude.
36. If a pilot changes the altimeter setting from 30.11 to 29.96, what is the approximate change in
indication?
A. Altimeter will indicate .15" Hg higher.
B. Altimeter will indicate 150 feet higher.
C. Altimeter will indicate 150 feet lower.

37. If a flight is made from an area of low pressure into an area of high pressure without the altimeter
setting being adjusted, the altimeter will indicate
A. the actual altitude above sea level.
B. higher than the actual altitude above sea level.
C. lower than the actual altitude above sea level.

38. If a flight is made from an area of high pressure into a lower pressure without the altimeter setting
being adjusted, the altimeter will indicate
A. lower than the actual altitude above sea level.
B. higher than the actual altitude above sea level.
C. the actual altitude above sea level.
39. Which condition would cause the altimeter to indicate a lower altitude than true altitude?
A. Air temperature lower than standard.
B. Atmospheric pressure lower than standard.
C. Air temperature warmer than standard.

40. Under what condition will true altitude be lower than indicated altitude?
A. In colder than standard air temperature.
B. In warmer than standard air temperature.
C. When density altitude is higher than indicated altitude.

41. How do variations in temperature affect the altimeter?

A. Pressure levels are raised on warm days and the indicated altitude is lower than true altitude.
B. Higher temperatures expand the pressure levels and the indicated altitude is higher than true
altitude.
C. Lower temperatures lower the pressure levels and the indicated altitude is lower than true altitude.

42. (Refer to figure 7.) The proper adjustment to make on the attitude indicator during level flight is to
align the
A. horizon bar to the level-flight indication.
B. horizon bar to the miniature airplane.
C. miniature airplane to the horizon bar.

43. (Refer to figure 7.) How should a pilot determine the direction of bank from an attitude indicator
such as the one illustrated?
A. By the direction of deflection of the banking scale (A).
B. By the direction of deflection of the horizon bar (B).
C. By the relationship of the miniature airplane (C) to the deflected horizon bar (B).
44. (Refer to figure 5.) A turn coordinator provides an indication of the
A. movement of the aircraft about the yaw and roll axes.
B. angle of bank up to but not exceeding 30°.
C. attitude of the aircraft with reference to the longitudinal axis.

45. (Refer to figure 6.) To receive accurate indications during flight from a heading indicator, the
instrument must be
A. set prior to flight on a known heading.
B. calibrated on a compass rose at regular intervals.
C. periodically realigned with the magnetic compass as the gyro precesses.

46. An abnormally high engine oil temperature indication may be caused by

A. the oil level being too low.
B. operating with a too high viscosity oil.
C. operating with an excessively rich mixture.

47. Excessively high engine temperatures will

A. cause damage to heat-conducting hoses and warping of the cylinder cooling fins.
B. cause loss of power, excessive oil consumption, and possible permanent internal engine damage.
C. not appreciably affect an aircraft engine.

48. For internal cooling, reciprocating aircraft engines are especially dependent on
A. a properly functioning thermostat.
B. air flowing over the exhaust manifold.
C. the circulation of lubricating oil.

49. If the engine oil temperature and cylinder head temperature gauges have exceeded their normal
operating range, the pilot may have been operating with
A. the mixture set too rich.
B. higher-than-normal oil pressure.
C. too much power and with the mixture set too lean.

50. What action can a pilot take to aid in cooling an engine that is overheating during a climb?
A. Reduce rate of climb and increase airspeed.
B. Reduce climb speed and increase RPM.
C. Increase climb speed and increase RPM.

51. What is one procedure to aid in cooling an engine that is overheating?

A. Enrich the fuel mixture.
B. Increase the RPM.
C. Reduce the airspeed.
52. How is engine operation controlled on an engine equipped with a constant-speed propeller?
A. The throttle controls power output as registered on the manifold pressure gauge and the propeller
control regulates engine RPM.
B. The throttle controls power output as registered on the manifold pressure gauge and the propeller
control regulates a constant blade angle.
C. The throttle controls engine RPM as registered on the tachometer and the mixture control regulates
the power output.

53. A precaution for the operation of an engine equipped with a constant-speed propeller is to
A. avoid high RPM settings with high manifold pressure.
B. avoid high manifold pressure settings with low RPM.
C. always use a rich mixture with high RPM settings.

54. What is an advantage of a constant-speed propeller?

A. Permits the pilot to select and maintain a desired cruising speed.
B. Permits the pilot to select the blade angle for the most efficient performance.
C. Provides a smoother operation with stable RPM and eliminates vibrations.

55. One purpose of the dual ignition system on an aircraft engine is to provide for
A. improved engine performance.
B. uniform heat distribution.
C. balanced cylinder head pressure.

56. With regards to ice, float type carburetor systems in comparison to fuel injection systems are
generally considered to be
A. more susceptible to icing.
B. equally susceptible to icing.
C. susceptible to icing only when visible moisture is present.

57. The operating principle of float-type carburetors is based on the

A. automatic metering of air at the venturi as the aircraft gains altitude.
B. difference in air pressure at the venturi throat and the air inlet.
C. increase in air velocity in the throat of a venturi causing an increase in air pressure.

58. If an aircraft is equipped with a fixed-pitch propeller and a float-type carburetor, the first indication
of carburetor ice would most likely be
A. a drop in oil temperature and cylinder head temperature.
B. engine roughness.
C. loss of RPM.

59. The presence of carburetor ice in an aircraft equipped with a fixed-pitch propeller can be verified by
applying carburetor heat and noting
A. an increase in RPM and then a gradual decrease in RPM.
B. a decrease in RPM and then a constant RPM indication.
C. a decrease in RPM and then a gradual increase in RPM.
60. Which condition is most favorable to the development of carburetor icing?
A. Any temperature below freezing and a relative humidity of less than 50 percent.
B. Temperature between 32 and 50°F and low humidity.
C. Temperature between 20 and 70°F and high humidity.

61. The possibility of carburetor icing exists even when the ambient air temperature is as
A. high as 70°F and the relative humidity is high.
B. high as 95°F and there is visible moisture.
C. low as 0°F and the relative humidity is high.

62. Generally speaking, the use of carburetor heat tends to

A. decrease engine performance.
B. increase engine performance.
C. have no effect on engine performance.

63. Applying carburetor heat will

A. result in more air going through the carburetor.
B. enrich the fuel/air mixture.
C. not affect the fuel/air mixture.

64. What change occurs in the fuel/air mixture when carburetor heat is applied?
A. A decrease in RPM results from the lean mixture.
B. The fuel/air mixture becomes richer.
C. The fuel/air mixture becomes leaner.

65. During the run-up at a high-elevation airport, a pilot notes a slight engine roughness that is not
affected by the magneto check but grows worse during the carburetor heat check. Under these
circumstances, what would be the most logical initial action?
A. Check the results obtained with a leaner setting of the mixture.
B. Taxi back to the flight line for a maintenance check.
C. Reduce manifold pressure to control detonation.

66. The basic purpose of adjusting the fuel/air mixture at altitude is to

A. decrease the amount of fuel in the mixture in order to compensate for increased air density.
B. decrease the fuel flow in order to compensate for decreased air density.
C. increase the amount of fuel in the mixture to compensate for the decrease in pressure and density
of the air.

67. While cruising at 9,500 feet MSL, the fuel/air mixture is properly adjusted. What will occur if a
descent to 4,500 feet MSL is made without readjusting the mixture?
A. The fuel/air mixture may become excessively lean.
B. There will be more fuel in the cylinders than is needed for normal combustion, and the excess fuel
will absorb heat and cool the engine.
C. The excessively rich mixture will create higher cylinder head temperatures and may cause
detonation.
68. Detonation occurs in a reciprocating aircraft engine when
A. the spark plugs are fouled or shorted out or the wiring is defective.
B. hot spots in the combustion chamber ignite the fuel/air mixture in advance of normal ignition.
C. the unburned charge in the cylinders explodes instead of burning normally.

69. If a pilot suspects that the engine (with a fixed-pitch propeller) is detonating during climb-out after
takeoff, the initial corrective action to take would be to
A. lean the mixture.
B. lower the nose slightly to increase airspeed.
C. apply carburetor heat.

70. If the grade of fuel used in an aircraft engine is lower than specified for the engine, it will most likely
cause
A. a mixture of fuel and air that is not uniform in all cylinders.
B. lower cylinder head temperatures.
C. detonation.

71. The uncontrolled firing of the fuel/air charge in advance of normal spark ignition is known as
A. combustion.
B. pre-ignition.
C. detonation.

72. What type fuel can be substituted for an aircraft if the recommended octane is not available?
A. The next higher octane aviation gas.
B. The next lower octane aviation gas.
C. Unleaded automotive gas of the same octane rating.

73. Filling the fuel tanks after the last flight of the day is considered a good operating procedure because
this will
A. force any existing water to the top of the tank away from the fuel lines to the engine.
B. prevent expansion of the fuel by eliminating airspace in the tanks.
C. prevent moisture condensation by eliminating airspace in the tanks.

74. On aircraft equipped with fuel pumps, when is the auxiliary electric driven pump used?
A. All the time to aid the engine-driven fuel pump.
B. In the event engine-driven fuel pump fails.
C. Constantly except in starting the engine.

75. Which would most likely cause the cylinder head temperature and engine oil temperature gauges to
exceed their normal operating ranges?
A. Using fuel that has a lower-than-specified fuel rating.
B. Using fuel that has a higher-than-specified fuel rating.
C. Operating with higher-than-normal oil pressure.

76. What should be the first action after starting an aircraft engine?
A. Adjust for proper RPM and check for desired indications on the engine gauges.
B. Place the magneto or ignition switch momentarily in the OFF position to check for proper grounding.
 C. Test each brake and the parking brake.

77. Should it become necessary to handprop an airplane engine, it is extremely important that a
competent pilot
A. call "contact" before touching the propeller.
B. be at the controls in the cockpit.
C. be in the cockpit and call out all commands.
Private Pilot – Aircraft General Knowledge Answer Key

[1] Answer (C) is correct. In the Northern Hemisphere, a magnetic compass will normally indicate a turn
toward the north if an airplane is accelerated while on an east or west heading.
[2] Answer (A) is correct. During flight, the magnetic compass indications can be considered accurate
only when in straight-and-level, unaccelerated flight. During acceleration, deceleration, or turns, the
compass card will dip and cause false readings.
[3] Answer (C) is correct. Magnetic fields produced by metals and electrical accessories in the airplane
disturb the compass needle and produce errors. These errors are referred to as compass deviation.
[4] Answer (B) is correct. Acceleration and deceleration errors on magnetic compasses do not occur
when on a north or south heading in the Northern Hemisphere. They occur on east and west headings.
[5] Answer (B) is correct. Due to the northerly turn error in the Northern Hemisphere, a magnetic
compass will initially indicate a turn toward the west if a right (east) turn is entered from a north
heading.
[6] Answer (C) is correct. In the Northern Hemisphere, a magnetic compass will normally indicate a turn
toward the south if an airplane is decelerated while on an east or west heading.
[7] Answer (C) is correct. In the Northern Hemisphere, a magnetic compass normally initially indicates a
turn toward the east if a left (west) turn is entered from a north heading.
[8] Answer (C) is correct. The pitot system provides impact pressure, or ram pressure, for only the
airspeed indicator.
[9] Answer (C) is correct. The pitot-static system is a source of pressure for the altimeter, vertical-speed
indicator, and airspeed indicator. The pitot tube is connected directly to the airspeed indicator and
provides impact pressure for it alone. Thus, if the pitot tube becomes clogged, only the airspeed
indicator will become inoperative.
[10] Answer (B) is correct. The pitot-static system is a source of air pressure for the operation of the
altimeter, airspeed indicator, and vertical speed indicator. Thus, if the pitot and outside static vents
become clogged, all of these instruments will be affected.
[11] Answer (C) is correct. The pitot-static system is a source of air pressure for the operation of the
airspeed indicator, altimeter, and vertical speed indicator. Thus, if the static vents become clogged, all
three instruments will become inoperative.
[12] Answer (C) is correct. The red line on an airspeed indicator indicates the maximum speed at which
the airplane can be operated in smooth air, which should never be exceeded intentionally. This speed is
known as the never-exceed speed.
[13] Answer (C) is correct. The maneuvering speed of an airplane is an important airspeed limitation not
color-coded on the airspeed indicator. It is found in the airplane manual (Pilot's Operating Handbook) or
placarded in the cockpit. Maneuvering speed is the maximum speed at which full deflection of the
airplane controls can be made without incurring structural damage. Maneuvering speed or less should
be held in turbulent air to prevent structural damage due to excessive loads.
[14] Answer (C) is correct. The caution range is indicated by the yellow arc on the airspeed indicator.
Operation within this range is safe only in smooth air. The airspeed indicator in Fig. 4 indicates the
caution range from 165 to 208 MPH.
[15] Answer (C) is correct. The maximum speed at which the airplane can be operated in smooth air is
indicated by the red radial line. The airspeed indicator in Fig. 4 indicates the red line is at 208 MPH.
[16] Answer (A) is correct. The full flap operating range is indicated by the white arc on the airspeed
indicator. The airspeed indicator in Fig. 4 indicates the full flap operating range is from 60 to 100 MPH.
[17] Answer (C) is correct. The never-exceed speed is indicated by a red line and is found at the upper
limit of the yellow arc. Operating above this speed may result in structural damage.
[18] Answer (C) is correct. The lower airspeed limit of the green arc indicates the power-off stalling
speed in a specified configuration. "Specified configuration" refers to flaps up and landing gear
retracted.
[19] Answer (B) is correct. The maximum flaps-extended speed is indicated by the upper limit of the
white arc. This is the highest air speed at which a pilot should extend full flaps. At higher airspeeds,
severe strain or structural failure could result. The upper limit of the white arc on the airspeed indicator
shown in Fig. 4 indicates 100 MPH.
[20] Answer (C) is correct. The normal flap operating range is indicated by the white arc. The power-off
stall speed with flaps extended is at the lower limit of the arc, and the maximum speed at which flaps
can be extended without damage to them is the upper limit of the arc.
[21] Answer (C) is correct. The lower limit of the white arc indicates the power-off stalling speed with
wing flaps and landing gear in the landing position.
[22] Answer (B) is correct. The maximum structural cruising speed is the maximum speed for normal
operation and is indicated as the upper limit of the green arc on an airspeed indicator. The upper limit of
the green arc on the airspeed indicator shown in Fig. 4 indicates 165 MPH.
[23] Answer (C) is correct. Altimeter 2 indicates 14,500 ft. because the shortest needle is between the 1
and the 2, indicating about 15,000 ft; the middle needle is between 4 and 5, indicating 4,500 ft; and the
long needle is on 5, indicating 500 ft., i.e., 14,500 ft.
[24] Answer (C) is correct. The altimeter has three needles. The short needle indicates 10,000-ft.
intervals, the middle-length needle indicates 1,000-ft. intervals, and the long needle indicates 100-ft.
intervals. In altimeter 1, the shortest needle is on 1, which indicates about 10,000 ft. The middle-length
needle indicates half-way between zero and 1, which is 500 ft. This is confirmed by the longest needle
on 5, indicating 500 ft., i.e., 10,500 ft.
[25] Answer (A) is correct. Altimeter 3 indicates 9,500 ft. because the shortest needle is near 1 (i.e.,
about 10,000 ft.), the middle needle is between 9 and the 0, indicating between 9,000 and 10,000 ft.,
and the long needle is on 5, indicating 500 ft.
[26] Answer (B) is correct. Altimeters 1 and 2 indicate over 10,000 ft. because 1 indicates 10,500 ft. and
2 indicates 14,500 ft. The short needle on 3 points just below 1, i.e., below 10,000 ft.
[27] Answer (B) is correct. Absolute altitude is altitude above the surface, i.e., AGL.
[28] Answer (A) is correct. True altitude is the actual altitude above mean sea level, i.e., MSL.
[29] Answer (B) is correct. Density altitude is the pressure altitude corrected for nonstandard
temperature.
[30] Answer (C) is correct. Pressure altitude and density altitude are the same when temperature is
standard.
[31] Answer (B) is correct. Indicated altitude (what you read on your altimeter) approximates the true
altitude (distance above mean sea level) when standard conditions exist and your altimeter is properly
calibrated.
[32] Answer (B) is correct. Pressure altitude equals true altitude when standard atmospheric conditions
(29.92" Hg and 15°C at sea level) exist.
[33] Answer (B) is correct. Pressure altitude is the airplane's height above the standard datum plane of
29.92" Hg. If the altimeter is set to 29.92" Hg, the indicated altitude is the pressure altitude.
[34] Answer (C) is correct. Altimeter setting is the value to which the scale of the pressure altimeter is
set so that the altimeter indicates true altitude at field elevation.
[35] Answer (C) is correct. When increasing the altimeter setting from 29.15 to 29.85, the indicated
altitude increases by 700 ft. The altimeter-indicated altitude moves in the same direction as the
altimeter setting and changes about 1,000 ft. for every change of 1" Hg in the altimeter setting.
[36] Answer (C) is correct. Atmospheric pressure decreases approximately 1" of mercury for every 1,000
ft. of altitude gained. As an altimeter setting is changed, the change in altitude indication changes the
same way (i.e., approximately 1,000 ft. for every 1" change in altimeter setting) and in the same
direction (i.e., lowering the altimeter setting lowers the altitude reading). Thus, changing from 30.11 to
29.96 is a decrease of .15 in., or 150 ft. (.15 x 1,000 ft.) lower.
[37] Answer (C) is correct. When an altimeter setting is at a lower value than the correct setting, the
altimeter is indicating less than it should and thus would be showing lower than the actual altitude
above sea level.
[38] Answer (B) is correct. When flying from higher pressure to lower pressure without adjusting your
altimeter, the altimeter will indicate a higher than actual altitude. As you adjust an altimeter barometric
setting lower, the altimeter indicates lower.
[39] Answer (C) is correct. In air that is warmer than standard temperature, the airplane will be higher
than the altimeter indicates. Said another way, the altimeter will indicate a lower altitude than actually
flown.
[40] Answer (A) is correct. The airplane will be lower than the altimeter indicates when flying in air that
is colder than standard temperature. Remember that altimeter readings are adjusted for changes in
barometric pressure but not for changes in temperature. When one flies from warmer to cold air and
keeps a constant indicated altitude at a constant altimeter setting, the plane has actually descended.
[41] Answer (A) is correct. On warm days, the atmospheric pressure levels are higher than on cold days.
Your altimeter will indicate a lower than true altitude. Remember, "low to high, clear the sky."
[42] Answer (C) is correct. The horizon bar (marked as B) on Fig. 7 represents the true horizon. This bar is
fixed to the gyro and remains on a horizontal plane as the airplane is pitched or banked about its lateral
or longitudinal axis, indicating the attitude of the airplane relative to the true horizon. An adjustment
knob is provided, with which the pilot may move the miniature airplane (marked as C) up or down to
align the miniature airplane with the horizontal bar to suit the pilot's line of vision.
[43] Answer (C) is correct. The direction of bank on the attitude indicator (AI) is indicated by the
relationship of the miniature airplane to the deflecting horizon bar. The miniature airplane's relative
position to the horizon indicates its attitude: nose high, nose low, left bank, right bank. As you look at
the attitude indicator, you see your airplane as it is positioned with respect to the actual horizon. The
attitude indicator in Fig. 7 indicates a level right turn.
[44] Answer (A) is correct. There really are no yaw and roll axes, i.e., an airplane yaws about its vertical
axis and rolls about its longitudinal axis. However, this is the best answer since the turn coordinator
does indicate the roll and yaw movement of the airplane. The movement of the miniature airplane is
proportional to the roll rate of the airplane. When the roll rate is reduced to zero (i.e., when the bank is
held constant) the instrument provides an indication of the rate of turn.
[45] Answer (C) is correct. Due to gyroscopic precession, directional gyros must be periodically realigned
with a magnetic compass. Friction is the major cause of its drifting from the correct heading.
[46] Answer (A) is correct. Operating with an excessively low oil level prevents the oil from being cooled
adequately; i.e., an inadequate supply of oil will not be able to transfer engine heat to the engine's oil
cooler (similar to a car engine's water radiator). Insufficient oil may also damage an engine from
excessive friction within the cylinders and on other metal-to-metal contact parts.
[47] Answer (B) is correct. Excessively high engine temperatures will result in loss of power, excessive oil
consumption, and possible permanent internal engine damage.
[48] Answer (C) is correct. An engine accomplishes much of its cooling by the flow of oil through the
lubrication system. The lubrication system aids in cooling by reducing friction and absorbing heat from
internal engine parts. Many airplane engines use an oil cooler, a small radiator device that will cool the
oil before it is recirculated through the engine.
[49] Answer (C) is correct. If the engine oil temperature and cylinder head temperature gauges exceed
their normal operating range, it is possible that the power setting is too high and the fuel/air mixture is
set excessively lean. These conditions may cause engine overheating.
[50] Answer (A) is correct. If an airplane is overheating during a climb, the engine temperature will be
decreased if the airspeed is increased. Airspeed will increase if the rate of climb is reduced.
[51] Answer (A) is correct. Enriched fuel mixtures have a cooling effect on an engine.
[52] Answer (A) is correct. Airplanes equipped with controllable-pitch propellers have both a throttle
control and a propeller control. The throttle controls the power output of the engine, which is registered
on the manifold pressure gauge. This is a simple barometer that measures the air pressure in the engine
intake manifold in inches of mercury. The propeller control regulates the engine RPM, which isregistered
on a tachometer.
[53] Answer (B) is correct. For any given RPM, there is a manifold pressure that should not be exceeded.
Manifold pressure is excessive for a given RPM when the cylinder design pressure is exceeded, placing
undue stress on them. If repeated or extended, the stress would weaken the cylinder components and
eventually cause engine failure.
[54]Answer (B) is correct. A controllable-pitch propeller (constant-speed) permits the pilot to select the
blade angle that will result in the most efficient performance given the flight conditions. A low blade
angle and a decreased pitch reduces the propeller drag and allows more engine RPM (power) for
takeoffs. After airspeed is attained during cruising flight, the propeller blade is changed to a higher
angle to increase pitch. The blade takes a larger bite of air at a lower RPM and consequently increases
the efficiency of the flight. This process is similar to shifting gears in an automobile from low to high
gear.
[55] Answer (A) is correct. Most airplane engines are equipped with dual ignition systems, which have
two magnetos to supply the electrical current to two spark plugs for each combustion chamber. The
main advantages of the dual system are increased safety and improved burning and combustion of the
mixture, which results in improved performance.
[56] Answer (A) is correct. Float-type carburetor systems are generally more susceptible to icing than
fuel-injected engines. When there is visible moisture or high humidity and the temperature is between
20°F and 70°F, icing is possible, particularly at low power settings.
[57] Answer (B) is correct. In a float-type carburetor, air flows into the carburetor and through a venturi
tube (a narrow throat in the carburetor). As the air flows more rapidly through the venturi, a low
pressure area is created which draws the fuel from a main fuel jet located at the throat of the
carburetor and into the airstream, where it is mixed with flowing air. It is called a float-type carburetor
in that a ready supply of gasoline is kept in the float bowl by a float, which activates a fuel inlet valve.
[58] Answer (C) is correct. In an airplane equipped with a fixed-pitch propeller and float-type carburetor,
the first indication of carburetor ice would be a loss in RPM.
[59] Answer (C) is correct. The presence of carburetor ice in an airplane equipped with a fixed-pitch
propeller can be verified by applying carburetor heat and noting a decrease in RPM and then a gradual
increase. The decrease in RPM as heat is applied is caused by less dense hot air entering the engine and
reducing power output. Also, if ice is present, melting water entering the engine may also cause a loss
inperformance. As the carburetor ice melts, however, the RPM gradually increases until it stabilizes
when the ice is completely removed.
[60] Answer (C) is correct. When the temperature is between 20°F and 70°F with visible moisture or high
humidity, one should be on the alert for carburetor ice. During low or closed throttle settings, an engine
is particularly susceptible to carburetor icing.
[61] Answer (A) is correct. When the temperature is between 20°F and 70°F with visible moisture or high
humidity, one should be on the alert for carburetor ice. During low or closed throttle settings, an engine
is particularly susceptible to carburetor icing.
[62] Answer (A) is correct. Use of carburetor heat tends to decrease the engine performance and also to
increase the operating temperature. Warmer air is less dense, and engine performance decreases with
density. Thus, carburetor heat should not be used when full power is required (as during takeoff) or
during normal engine operation except as a check for the presence or removal of carburetor ice.
[63] Answer (B) is correct. Applying carburetor heat will enrich the fuel/air mixture. Warm air is less
dense than cold air, hence the application of heat increases the fuel-to-air ratio.
[64] Answer (B) is correct. When carburetor heat is applied, hot air is introduced into the carburetor.
Hot air is less dense than cold air; therefore, the decrease in air density with a constant amount of fuel
makes a richer mixture.
[65] Answer (A) is correct. If, during a run-up at a high-elevation airport, you notice a slight roughness
that is not affected by a magneto check but grows worse during the carburetor heat check, you should
check the results obtained with a leaner setting of the mixture control. At a high-elevation field, the air
is less dense and the application of carburetor heat increases the already too rich fuel-to-air mixture. By
leaning the mixture during the run-up, the condition should improve.
[66] Answer (B) is correct. At higher altitudes the air density is decreased. Thus the mixture control must
be adjusted to decrease the fuel flow in order to maintain a constant fuel/air ratio.
[67] Answer (A) is correct. At 9,500 ft., the mixture control is adjusted to provide the proper fuel/air
ratio. As the airplane descends, the density of the air increases and there will be less fuel to air in the
ratio, causing a leaner running engine. This excessively lean mixture will create higher cylinder
temperature and may cause detonation.
[68] Answer (C) is correct. Detonation occurs when the fuel/air mixture in the cylinders explodes instead
of burning normally. This more rapid force slams the piston down instead of pushing it.
[69] Answer (B) is correct. If you suspect engine detonation during climb-out after takeoff, you would
normally decrease the pitch to increase airspeed (more cooling) and decrease the load on the engine.
Detonation is usually caused by a poor grade of fuel or an excessive engine temperature.
[70]Answer (C) is correct. If the grade of fuel used in an airplane engine is lower than specified for the
engine, it will probably cause detonation. Lower grades of fuel ignite at lower temperatures. A higher
temperature engine (which should use a higher grade of fuel) may cause lower grade fuel to explode
(detonate) rather than burn evenly.
[71] Answer (B) is correct. Pre-ignition is the ignition of the fuel prior to normal ignition or ignition
before the electrical arcing occurs at the spark plug. Pre-ignition may be caused by excessively hot
exhaust valves, carbon particles, or spark plugs and electrodes heated to an incandescent, or glowing,
state. These hot spots are usually caused by high temperatures encountered during detonation. A
significant difference between pre-ignition and detonation is that if the conditions for detonation exist
in one cylinder they usually exist in all cylinders, but pre-ignition often takes place in only one or two
cylinders.
[72] Answer (A) is correct. If the recommended octane is not available for an airplane, the next higher
octane aviation gas should be used.
[73] Answer (C) is correct. Filling the fuel tanks after the last flight of the day is considered good
operating practice because it prevents moisture condensation by eliminating airspace in the tanks.
Humid air may result in condensation at night when the airplane cools.
[74] Answer (B) is correct. In a fuel pump system, two fuel pumps are used on most airplanes. The main
fuel pump is engine-driven and an auxiliary electric-driven pump is provided for use in the event the
engine pump fails.
[75] Answer (A) is correct. Use of fuel with lower-than-specified uel ratings, e.g., 80 octane instead of
100, can cause many problems, including higher operating temperatures, detonation, etc.
[76] Answer (A) is correct. After the engine starts, the engine speed should be adjusted to the proper
RPM. Then the engine gauges should be reviewed, with the oil pressure being the most important gauge
initially.
[77] Answer (B) is correct. Because of the hazards involved in handstarting airplane engines, every
precaution should be exercised. It is extremely important that a competent pilot be at the controls in
the cockpit. Also, the person turning the propeller should be thoroughly familiar with the technique.
Figure 4.

Figure 3.
Figure 7.

Figure 5.
Figure 6.