Location via proxy:   [ UP ]  
[Report a bug]   [Manage cookies]                

Final Year Mbbs (2019-23) Question Papers

Download as pdf or txt
Download as pdf or txt
You are on page 1of 66

Rajiv Gandhi University of Health Sciences, Karnataka

MBBS Phase – III (Part – II) Degree Examination - 26-Dec-2019


Time: Three Hours Max. Marks: 100 Marks
Paediatrics (RS2 & RS3)
Q.P. CODE: 1092
Your answers should be specific to the questions asked
Draw neat, labeled diagrams wherever necessary

LONG ESSAYS 2 x 10 = 20 Marks


1. Define growth and describe the milestones achieved from birth till one year of age and
mention the laws of growth and development.
2. Mention the classical features of marasmus and outline the nutritional management in a
child with marasmus.

SHORT ESSAYS 10 x 5 = 50 Marks


3. Radiological diagnosis of scurvy
4. Advantages of human breast milk
5. Vaccine storage in peripheral health centre
6. Cerebrospinal fluid analysis in tubercular meningitis
7. Newer antimalarial drugs
8. Modalities of treatment of neonatal hyperbilirubinaemia
9. Genetic counseling in Down syndrome
10. Febrile seizures: recognition and management
11. Clinical features of congestive cardiac failure in infancy
12. Measures to reduce infant mortality rate in India

SHORT ANSWERS 10 x 3 = 30 Marks


13. Aetiology of neonatal seizures (any 6)
14. Investigations in lead poisoning
15. Antisnake venom
16. Urine examination in nephrotic syndrome
17. Penicillin prophylaxis in acute rheumatic fever
18. Treatment of hyponatremia
19. Pica: definition and management
20. Mantaux test: false negative interpretation
21. Anthropometry at birth of a term appropriate for gestational age neonate
22. Complications of measles (any 6)
*****
Rajiv Gandhi University of Health Sciences, Karnataka
MBBS Phase – III (Part – II) Degree Examination - 11-Dec-2019

Time: Three Hours Max. Marks: 100 Marks

GENERAL MEDICINE – PAPER I (RS2 & RS3)


Q.P. CODE: 1093
Your answers should be specific to the questions asked.
Draw neat, labeled diagrams wherever necessary.
LONG ESSAYS 2 x 10 = 20 Marks
1. Describe etiology, clinical features, investigations and management of Septic Shock.
2. Describe etiology, clinical features, investigations and management of Subacute Bacterial
Endocarditis.

SHORT ESSAYS 10 x 5 = 50 Marks


3. Chagas disease
4. Treatment of chicken pox in Adults
5. Hyponatremia causes and treatment
6. Biological agents
7. Probiotics
8. Define hepato renal syndrome and treatment.
9. Takayasu disease
10. Complications of acute pancreatitis
11. Reactive arthritis
12. Environmental factors predispose to cancer

SHORT ANSWERS 10 x 3 = 30 Marks


13. Cerebral toxoplasmosis
14. Contra indications to Renal Transplantation
15. Polycythemia rubra vera
16. Huntington’s disease
17. Types of respiratory failure
18. Iron Over Dosage
19. Puerperal psychosis
20. Differential diagnosis of peripheral oedema
21. Risk factor for stable angina
22. Management of acute variceal bleed
*****
Rajiv Gandhi University of Health Sciences, Karnataka
MBBS Phase - III (PART - II) Degree Examination – 13-Dec-2019

Time: Three Hours Max. Marks: 100 Marks


General Medicine - Paper-II (RS2 & RS3 Scheme)
QP Code: 1094
Your answers should be specific to the questions asked
Draw neat labeled diagrams wherever necessary

LONG ESSAYS 2 x 10 = 20 Marks


1. Etiology, clinical features, investigations and management of Cushings syndrome

2. Classification of Pneumothorax, clinical features, investigations and management.

SHORT ESSAYS 10 x 5 = 50 Marks


3. Common causes of end stage renal failure
4. Causes of Osteo malacia
5. Four examples of autosomal recessive diseases
6. Water soluble vitamins their deficiencies
7. Antiherpes virus agents
8. Indications for mechanical ventilation
9. Recognize difference between normal and abnormal behavior
10. Cholinergic features of O.P poisoning
11. Lewy body dementia
12. Lepra reactions

SHORT ANSWERS 10 x 3 = 30 Marks


13. Essential tremors
14. Causes of Hyper uricemia and gout
15. Electro convulsive therapy
16. Complications of Cystic fibrosis
17. Hirsutism
18. Causes of Large bronchus obstruction
19. Serological tests for syphilis
20. Complications of chronic hepatitis
21. Causes of Pancytopenia
22. Features of collapsing pulse
*****
Rajiv Gandhi University of Health Sciences, Karnataka
MBBS Phase – III (Part II) Degree Examination - 16-Dec-2019

Time: Three Hours Max. Marks: 50 Marks

GENERAL SURGERY (RS2 & RS3)


Q.P. CODE: 1095
Your answers should be specific to the questions asked.
Draw neat, labeled diagrams wherever necessary.
(Note: Both QP Codes 1095 and 1096 are to be, answered within total duration of three hours)
(Use separate Answer Books for QP Code 1095 &1096)

LONG ESSAYS 2 x 10 = 20 Marks


1. Classify wounds. Describe the principles of management of severely injured person.
2. Discuss the investigation and principles of management of ischaemic limb.

SHORT ESSAYS 3 x 5 = 15 Marks


3. Venous ulcer
4. Complications of Thyroidectomy
5. Benign breast diseases

SHORT ANSWERS 5 x 3 = 15 Marks


6. Ludwig’s angina
7. Paronychia
8. Raynaud’s disease
9. Sebaceous cyst
10. Thiersch’s graft
*****
Rajiv Gandhi University of Health Sciences, Karnataka
M.B.B.S. Phase III (Part II) Degree Examination – 16-Dec-2019

Time: Three Hours Max. Marks: 50 Marks

ORTHOPAEDICS (RS2 & RS3)


QP Code: 1096 – Section B
Your answers should be specific to the questions asked.
Draw neat labeled diagrams wherever necessary.
Use separate answer books for section A and section B.

LONG ESSAYS 2 x 10 = 20 Marks


1. Write about mechanism of injury, pathoanatomy, diagnosis, treatment and complications of
Colles fracture.
2. Write about etiopathogenesis, pathology, clinical features and management of Potts spine.

SHORT ESSAYS 3 x 5 = 15 Marks


3. Bennet’s fracture dislocation
4. Aneurysmal bone cyst
5. Compartment syndrome

SHORT ANSWERS 5 x 3 = 15 Marks


6. Bholer Braun splint
7. Tennis elbow
8. Bamboo spine
9. Pseudo arthrosis
10. Barlow’s test

*****
Rajiv Gandhi University of Health Sciences, Karnataka
MBBS Phase – III (Part – II) Degree Examination - 18-Dec-2019

Time: Three Hours Max. Marks: 100 Marks

GENERAL SURGERY – Paper II (RS2 & RS3)


QP Code: 1097
Your answers should be specific to the questions asked
Draw neat, labeled diagrams wherever necessary

LONG ESSAYS 2 x 10 = 20 Marks


1. Describe the aetiology, pathology and management carcinoma of oesophagus.
2. Describe the clinical features and management and differential diagnosis of Acute appendicitis.

SHORT ESSAYS 10 x 5 = 50 Marks


3. Crohn’s disease
4. Stricture of oesophagus
5. Clinical features and management of portal hypertension
6. Management of peritonitis
7. Obstructive Jaundice
8. Volvulus neonatorum
9. Hydrocele
10. Staghorn calculus
11. Carcinoma of Penis
12. Budd Chiari syndrome

SHORT ANSWERS 10 x 3 = 30 Marks


13. Empyema necessitans
14. Bleeding peptic ulcer
15. Splenic abscess
16. Pseudomyxoma Peritonii
17. Paralytic ileus
18. Colostomy
19. Richter’s Hernia
20. Fissure in Ano
21. Percutaneous nephrolithotomy (PCNL)
22. Circumcission
*****
Rajiv Gandhi University of Health Sciences, Karnataka
MBBS Phase – III (Part – II) Degree Examination - 28-Dec-2019

Time: Three Hours Max. Marks: 100 Marks

OBSTETRICS AND GYNEACOLOGY – PAPER I (RS2 & RS3)


Q.P. CODE: 1098
Your answers should be specific to the questions asked.
Draw neat, labeled diagrams wherever necessary.

LONG ESSAYS 2 x 10 = 20 Marks


1. Define preterm labour. Mention the causes, relevant investigation and the management of
the preterm labour.
2. Define caesarean section. What are the indications, types and complications of Caesarean
section?

SHORT ESSAYS 10 x 5 = 50 Marks


3. Glucose tolerance test
4. Twin to twin transfusion syndrome
5. Bio physical profile
6. Molar pregnancy
7. Erythroblastosis fetalis
8. External cephalic version
9. Ultrasound in obstetrics – I trimester
10. Outlet forceps
11. Asymptomatic bacteriuria
12. Physiology of lactation

SHORT ANSWERS 10 x 3 = 30 Marks


13. Indications for amniocentesis
14. Types of pelvis
15. Pudendal block
16. Roll over test
17. Causes of Perinatal mortality
18. Nutrition in pregnancy and lactation
19. Failed forceps
20. DFMC
21. Oxytocin
22. Hegar’s sign
*****
Rajiv Gandhi University of Health Sciences, Karnataka
M.B.B.S. (PART – II), III Professional Examination - 23-Dec-2019

Time: Three Hours Max. Marks: 100 Marks

OBSTETRICS AND GYNAECOLOGY


PAPER - II (RS2 & RS3)
QP Code: 1099
Your answers should be specific to the questions asked.
Draw neat labeled diagrams wherever necessary.

LONG ESSAY 2 X 10 = 20 Marks


1. FIGO staging of carcinoma cervix. Signs, symptoms and management of carcinoma cervix
Stage II B.
2. Classification of fibroid Uterus. Signs and symptoms and complication of fibroid uterus and its
management.

SHORT ESSAY 10 X 5 = 50 Marks


3. Medical methods of termination of pregnancy.
4. Causes of post menopausal bleeding.
5. Trichomonas Vaginitis.
6. Dermoid cyst.
7. PCOD
8. Stress Incontinence.
9. Dysmenorrhoea.
10. Metropathia Heamorrhagica.
11. Course of Ureter.
12. Wertheim’s Hysterectomy.

SHORT ANSWERS 10 X 3 = 30 Marks


13. Bartholin’s Cyst.
14. Chronic Cervicitis.
15. Puberty Menorrhagia.
16. Emergency Contraception.
17. Diagnostic Laparoscopy
18. Chromotubation.
19. Clomiphene citrate.
20. Pap Smear
21. Semen analysis
22. Tuberculous Salpingitis.

*****
Rajiv Gandhi University of Health Sciences, Karnataka
MBBS Phase – III (Part – II) Degree Examination - JULY-2019
Time: Three Hours Max. Marks: 100 Marks
Paediatrics (RS2 & RS3)
Q.P. CODE: 1092
Your answers should be specific to the questions asked
Draw neat, labeled diagrams wherever necessary

LONG ESSAYS 2 x 10 = 20 Marks


1. Mention the government nutritional programs for under five years children in India and its
role in reducing mortality.
2. Discuss etiopathogenesis, clinical features and management of tubercular meningitis and
mention the long term complications.

SHORT ESSAYS 10 x 5 = 50 Marks


3. Recognition of sepsis in a term neonate
4. Vitamin A deficiency: clinical features and treatment
5. Growth charts
6. H influenza type B vaccine
7. Management of severe dehydration in an one year old child weighing 10kgs
8. Management of seizures in a 5 day old neonate
9. Clinical features of congestive cardiac failure in infants
10. Aetiology of cerebral palsy
11. Investigations in a child with recurrent respiratory infections
12. Complications expected in low birth weight babies

SHORT ANSWERS 10 x 3 = 30 Marks


13. Define and enumerate types of acute glomerulonephritis.
14. Describe joint involvement in acute rheumatic fever.
15. Mention 6 causes of short stature.
16. Amylase rich foods
17. Feeding instructions in an infant with cleft palate
18. Peripheral smear in hemolytic anemias
19. Mention the age independent anthropometric indices.
20. Intravenous immunoglobulins: indications
21. Treatment of cyanotic spells
22. Life cycle of malaria parasite in female anopheles mosquito
*****
Rajiv Gandhi University of Health Sciences, Karnataka
MBBS Phase – III (Part – II) Degree Examination - JUNE-2019
Time: Three Hours Max. Marks: 100 Marks
General Medicine – Paper I (RS2 & RS3 Scheme)
Q.P. CODE: 1093
Your answers should be specific to the questions asked
Draw neat, labeled diagrams wherever necessary
LONG ESSAYS 2 x 10 = 20 Marks
1. Etiology, pathogenesis, clinical features, investigations and management of ulcerative colitis
2. Describe classification. Clinical features, investigations and management of Lymphomas.

SHORT ESSAYS 10 x 5 = 50 Marks


3. Pulsus paradoxus
4. Uricosuric drugs
5. Management of atrial fibrillation
6. Management of status epilepticus
7. Metabolic syndrome
8. Enteral nutrition
9. Genetic inheritance
10. Management of variceal bleed
11. Graves ophthalmopathy
12. Hemolytic anemia

SHORT ANSWERS 10 x 3 = 30 Marks


13. Differential diagnosis of pneumonia
14. Causes of mediastinal mass
15. Management of adrenal crisis
16. Imaging in gastroenterology
17. Investigations of aortic stenosis
18. Causes of raised intracranial tensions
19. Factors influence pharmaco kinetics
20. Criteria for acute kidney injury
21. Common causes of Ptosis
22. Algid malaria
*****
Rajiv Gandhi University of Health Sciences, Karnataka
MBBS Phase - III (PART - II) Degree Examination – JUNE-2019

Time: Three Hours Max. Marks: 100 Marks


General Medicine - Paper-II (RS2 & RS3 Scheme)
QP Code: 1094
Your answers should be specific to the questions asked
Draw neat labeled diagrams wherever necessary

LONG ESSAYS 2 x 10 = 20 Marks


1. Describe etiology, clinical features, investigations and management of Chronic Kidney
Disease.
2. Classify epilepsy, clinical features and management status epilepticus.

SHORT ESSAYS 10 x 5 = 50 Marks


3. Metabolic acidosis
4. Renal replacement therapy
5. Hemifacial spasm
6. Vitamin D deficiency
7. Somatization disorder
8. Viral haemorrhagic fever
9. Causes of secondary hyperlipidemia
10. Features of primary pulmonary tuberculosis
11. Clinical recognition and initial therapy of psychiatric emergencies
12. Differential diagnosis of peripheral oedema

SHORT ANSWERS 10 x 3 = 30 Marks


13. Causes of Haemoptysis
14. Indications for upper gastro intestinal endoscopy
15. Clinical features of congenital syphilis
16. Thrombotic thrombocytopenic Purpura
17. Treatment of psoriasis
18. Serum tumour markers
19. Causes of Chronic Diarrhoea
20. Anti retro viral therapy in pregnancy
21. Acne vulgaris
22. Treatment of prolactinoma
*****
Rajiv Gandhi University of Health Sciences, Karnataka
MBBS Phase – III (Part II) Degree Examination - JUNE-2019
Time: Three Hours Max. Marks: 50 Marks
General Surgery (RS2 & RS3 Scheme)
Q.P. CODE: 1095
Section-A
Your answers should be specific to the questions asked
Draw neat, labeled diagrams wherever necessary
(Note: Both QP Codes 1095 and 1096 are to be, answered within total duration of three hours)
(Use separate Answer Books for QP Code 1095 &1096)

LONG ESSAYS 2 x 10 = 20 Marks


1. Discuss the types, clinical features and management of malignant melanoma.
2. Discuss the clinical features, presentation and management of varicose veins.

SHORT ESSAYS 3 x 5 = 15 Marks


3. Branchial Cyst
4. Rodent ulcer
5. Thyroid storm

SHORT ANSWERS 5 x 3 = 15 Marks


6. Secondary Lymphoedema
7. Keloid
8. Ganglion
9. Tetany
10. Rule of Nine in burns
*****
Rajiv Gandhi University of Health Sciences, Karnataka
M.B.B.S. Phase III (Part II) Degree Examination – JUNE-2019

Time: Three Hours Max. Marks: 50 Marks

ORTHOPAEDICS (RS2 & RS3 Scheme)


QP Code: 1096 – Section B
Your answers should be specific to the questions asked
Draw neat labeled diagrams wherever necessary
Use separate answer books for section A and section B.

LONG ESSAYS 2 x 10 = 20 Marks


1. Discuss classification, mechanism, clinical types of fracture healing and general principles of
management of fracture.
2. Discuss etiopathogenesis, clinical features and management of congenital talipes equino varus
(Club foot)

SHORT ESSAYS 3 x 5 = 15 Marks


3. Fat embolism
4. Ulnar claw hand
5. Triple deformity of knee

SHORT ANSWERS 5 x 3 = 15 Marks


6. Osteoporosis
7. Jaipur foot
8. Charcot’s joint
9. Psoas abscess
10. Mallet finger

*****
Rajiv Gandhi University of Health Sciences, Karnataka
MBBS Phase – III (Part – II) Degree Examination - JUNE-2019

Time: Three Hours Max. Marks: 100 Marks

General Surgery – Paper II (RS2 & RS3)


QP Code: 1097
Your answers should be specific to the questions asked
Draw neat, labeled diagrams wherever necessary

LONG ESSAYS 2 x 10 = 20 Marks


1. Discuss the etiology, clinical features and management of prolapse rectum.
2. Discuss clinical features, Pathology and management of Carcinoma of stomach.

SHORT ESSAYS 10 x 5 = 50 Marks


3. Hydropneumothorax
4. Esophageal varices
5. Clinical features and management of perforated peptic ulcer
6. Rupture of spleen
7. Management of portal hypertension
8. Gall stones
9. Intussusceptions
10. Femoral hernia
11. Benign prostatic hypertrophy
12. Varicocele

SHORT ANSWERS 10 x 3 = 30 Marks


13. Cardiac tamponade
14. Hiatus hernia
15. Charcot’s triad
16. Mesenteric cyst
17. Meconium ileus
18. Carcinoid tumour
19. Pilonidal sinus
20. Horse-shoe kidney
21. Epidydamal cyst
22. Hemangioma of liver
*****
Rajiv Gandhi University of Health Sciences
M.B.B.S. (PART – II), III Professional Examination - JULY-2019
Time: 3 Hrs. [Max. Marks: 100]

OBSTETRICS & GYNAECOLOGY – Paper - I


(RS2 & RS3)
QP Code: 1098

Your answers should be specific to the questions asked.


Draw neat labeled diagrams wherever necessary.

LONG ESSAY 2 X 10 = 20 Marks


1. Mention the causes for bleeding per vagina in late pregnancy? Describe the clinical features and
management of placenta praevia?
2. Describe Occipito posterior position, its mechanism of Labour and management?

SHORT ESSAY 10 X 5 = 50 Marks


3. Describe different methods of Mid trimester termination of pregnancy.
4. Hyperemesis gravidarum.
5. Describe management of Severe Pre-eclampsia at 34 weeks of gestation.
6. Describe management of twin pregnancy during labour.
7. Describe Immunological tests for diagnosis of pregnancy.
8. Management of post partum haemorrhage
9. Write about puerperal sepsis.
10. Describe VBAC (vaginal birth after caesarean).
11. Define cephalopelvic disproportion and mention different methods of its assessment.
12. Indications, types and complications of caesarean section

SHORT ANSWERS 10 X 3 = 30 Marks


13. Placenta accreta
14. Biophysical profile.
15. Lochia
16. Prostaglandins.
17. Outlet forceps.
18. Total Dose Infusion in Anaemia.
19. Jacquemier’s sign.
20. Velamentous insertion of cord.
21. Pathological retraction ring.
22. Methods of cervical ripening.

*****
Rajiv Gandhi University of Health Sciences, Karnataka
M.B.B.S. PHASE III PART II Degree Examination – 29-Oct-2020

Time: Three Hours Max. Marks: 100 Marks

PAEDIATRICS (RS3)
QP Code: 1092
Your answers should be specific to the questions asked
Draw neat labeled diagrams wherever necessary

LONG ESSAYS 2 x 10 = 20 Marks


1. Describe clinical features of Marasmus and Kwashiorkor. Discuss the complications in a child
with grade IV malnutrition.
2. Etiopathogenesis and management of shock in children.

SHORT ESSAYS 10 x 5 = 50 Marks


3. Hereditary spherocytosis

4. Prevention of vertical transmission of hepatitis B

5. Management of Acute bronchiolitis

6. Staging of lymphoma

7. Hydrops fetalis

8. Aplastic crisis

9. Clinical features of ventricular septal defect

10. Persistent diarrhea

11. Management of portal hypertension

12. Etiopathogenesis of hydrocephalus

SHORT ANSWERS 10 x 3 = 30 Marks


13. Amylase rich food

14. Clinical features of hemophilia

15. Criteria to diagnose pathological jaundice in newborn babies

16. Fluid management in acute renal failure

17. Clinical features of hypernatremic dehydration

18. Spina bifida

19. Scrofula

20. Crack pot sign

21. Vaccine associated polio

22. DOTS plus strategy.

*****
Rajiv Gandhi University of Health Sciences, Karnataka
MBBS Phase – III (Part – II) Degree Examination - 14-Oct-2020

Time: Three Hours Max. Marks: 100 Marks

GENERAL MEDICINE – PAPER I (RS3)


Q.P. CODE: 1093
Your answers should be specific to the questions asked.
Draw neat, labeled diagrams wherever necessary.

LONG ESSAYS 2 x 10 = 20 Marks


1. Describe etiology, clinical features, investigations and management of Acute Bacterial Meningitis.
2. Describe types of cardio myopathies, their etiology, clinical features and management.

SHORT ESSAYS 10 x 5 = 50 Marks


3. Lupus Nephritis
4. Sero-Negative arthritis
5. Anti thyroid drugs
6. Fluorosis
7. Hyperkalemia
8. Hyperglycemic hyperosmolar state
9. Anti-microbial resistance
10. Laboratory diagnosis of leishmaniasis
11. Turner’s syndrome
12. Causes of raised intracranial tension

SHORT ANSWERS 10 x 3 = 30 Marks


13. Anti-fungal agents
14. Pleotropic effects of statins
15. Secondary causes of headache
16. Mention three antitubercular drugs.
17. Classification of adverse drug reactions
18. Treatment of brucellosis
19. Alport’s syndrome
20. Target organ damage in hypertension
21. Treatment of nuerocysticercosis
22. Autoimmune hepatitis
*****
Rajiv Gandhi University of Health Sciences, Karnataka
MBBS Phase – III (Part – II) Degree Examination - 16-Oct-2020

Time: Three Hours Max. Marks: 100 Marks

GENERAL MEDICINE – PAPER II (RS3)


Q.P. CODE: 1094
Your answers should be specific to the questions asked
Draw neat, labeled diagrams wherever necessary

LONG ESSAYS 2 x 10 = 20 Marks


1. Describe the etiology, clinical features, complications and management of Cirrhosis of liver.
2. Describe the etiology, clinical features, diagnosis and management of Megaloblastic
anemias.

SHORT ESSAYS 10 x 5 = 50 Marks


3. CNS manifestations of HIV
4. Substance misuse disorder
5. Diagnosis and management of Bronchiectasis
6. Panic disorder
7. Eczema
8. Clinical features of Nephrotic syndrome
9. Obsessive compulsive disorder
10. MDRTB
11. Clinical features of Myxoedema
12. Anorexia nervosa

SHORT ANSWERS 10 x 3 = 30 Marks


13. Three drugs useful in management of gout
14. Conditions associated with X-linked recessive inheritance
15. Three indications of Polymerase Chain Reaction (PCR)
16. Management of Granuloma Inguinale
17. Three types of Atrial Septal defect
18. Three side effects of Levodopa
19. GERD
20. Three causes of Digital Clubbing
21. Three stages of syphilis
22. Three causes of Nystagmus
*****
Rajiv Gandhi University of Health Sciences, Karnataka
MBBS Phase – III (Part II) Degree Examination - 19-Oct-2020

Time: Three Hours Max. Marks: 50 Marks

GENERAL SURGERY (RS3)


Q.P. CODE: 1095
Section-A
Your answers should be specific to the questions asked.
Draw neat, labeled diagrams wherever necessary.
(Note: Both QP Codes 1095 and 1096 are to be, answered within total duration of three hours)
(Use separate Answer Books for QP Code 1095 &1096)

LONG ESSAYS 2 x 10 = 20 Marks


1. Define Shock. Enumerate classification of shock. Discuss clinical features and management of
septic shock.
2. Enumerate cause of peripheral vascular disease. Discuss clinical features, investigations and
management of a case of Buerger’s disease.

SHORT ESSAYS 3 x 5 = 15 Marks


3. Complications of blood transfusion
4. Basal cell carcinoma
5. Deep vein thrombosis

SHORT ANSWERS 5 x 3 = 15 Marks


6. Pilonidal sinus
7. Leukoplakia
8. Sebaceous cyst
9. Ranula
10. Desmoid tumour
*****
Rajiv Gandhi University of Health Sciences, Karnataka
M.B.B.S. Phase III (Part II) Degree Examination – 19-Oct-2020

Time: Three Hours Max. Marks: 50 Marks

ORTHOPAEDICS (RS3)
QP Code: 1096 – Section B
Your answers should be specific to the questions asked.
Draw neat labeled diagrams wherever necessary.
(Note: Both QP Codes 1095 and 1096 are to be, answered within total duration of three hours)
Use separate answer books for section A and section B.

LONG ESSAYS 2 x 10 = 20 Marks


1. Describe classification, clinical features and management of open fractures.
2. Define osteomyelitis. Describe etiology, pathology, clinical features, radiological features and
management of chronic osteomyelitis.

SHORT ESSAYS 3 x 5 = 15 Marks


3. Plaster of Paris
4. External fixation
5. Wrist drop

SHORT ANSWERS 5 x 3 = 15 Marks


6. Bone graft
7. Osteoarthritis
8. Bone scan
9. Osteoid osteoma
10. De-quervain’s disease (Tenosynovitis)

*****
Rajiv Gandhi University of Health Sciences, Karnataka
M.B.B.S. PHASE III (Part - II) Degree Examination – 21-Oct-2020

Time: Three Hours Max. Marks: 100 Marks

GENERAL SURGERY – PAPER II (RS3)


QP Code: 1097
Your answers should be specific to the questions asked
Draw neat labeled diagrams wherever necessary

LONG ESSAYS 2 x 10 = 20 Marks


1. Enumerate causes of Dysphagia – write about aetio-pathology, investigations and
management of carcinoma of oesophagus.

2. Enumerate groin hernia. Write about management of femoral hernia.

SHORT ESSAYS 10 x 5 = 50 Marks


3. Rectal prolapse

4. Sigmoid volvulus

5. Pancreatic pseudo cyst

6. Aetiology of ileal perforation

7. Carcinoma penis

8. Undescended testis

9. Benign prostatic hypertrophy

10. Subdural haematoma

11. Choledochal cyst

12. Post operative adhesions

SHORT ANSWERS 10 x 3 = 30 Marks


13. Split skin grafting

14. Ulcerative colitis

15. Amoebic liver abscess

16. Incisional Hernia

17. Gynaecomastia

18. Pleomorphic adenoma

19. Ranson’s score for acute pancreatitis

20. Imperforate anus

21. Tongue tie

22. Appendicular mass


Rajiv Gandhi University of Health Sciences, Karnataka
M.B.B.S. PHASE III PART II Degree Examination – 23-Oct-2020

Time: Three Hours Max. Marks: 100 Marks

OBSTETRICS AND GYNAECOLOGY- PAPER-I (RS3)


QP Code: 1098
Your answers should be specific to the questions asked.
Draw neat labeled diagrams wherever necessary.

LONG ESSAYS 2 x 10 = 20 Marks


1. Define post-partum hemorrhage? Discuss the risk factors and the management of postpartum
haemorrhage. (2+3+5).

2. Write about NewYork heart association (NYHA) grading of cardiac disease. Discuss the
management of cardiac disease in labour in a patient with NYHA grade I at 36 weeks (3+7).

SHORT ESSAYS
3. Complications of gestational Diabetes Mellitus (GDM)

4. Shoulder dystocia

5. Cord prolapse

6. Parenteral iron therapy

7. Episiotomy

8. Red degeneration of fibroid in pregnancy


9. Deep transverse arrest
10. MTP act

11. Bandl’s ring

12. Cephalhematoma

SHORT ANSWERS 10 x 3 = 30 Marks


13. Investigations in first trimester of pregnancy

14. Six causes of intrauterine fetal death

15. Signs of placental separation

16. Induction of labour

17. Causes of neonatal hyperbilirubinemia

18. Functions of the placenta

19. Biophysical profile

20. Steroid prophylaxis

21. HELLP syndrome

22. Tubectomy
*****
Rajiv Gandhi University of Health Sciences, Karnataka
M.B.B.S. (PART – II), III Professional Examination - 27-Oct-2020

Time: Three Hours Max. Marks: 100 Marks

OBSTETRICS AND GYNAECOLOGY


PAPER - II (RS3)
QP Code: 1099
Your answers should be specific to the questions asked.
Draw neat labeled diagrams wherever necessary.

LONG ESSAY 2 X 10 = 20 Marks


1. Classification of uterovaginal prolapse. Signs & Symptoms, Investigations, Differential Diagnosis
and management of III degree Prolapse in a 45-year-old lady.
2. Define PID Mention the types. Signs and symptoms of Acute Pelvic Inflammatory disease and its
management.

SHORT ESSAY 10 X 5 = 50 Marks


3. Secondary Amenorrhoea.
4. IUCD
5. HSG
6. VVF
7. Bartholin’s abscess
8. Development of uterus and classify Mullerian duct Anomalies.
9. Physiology of menstruation.
10. Estrogens.
11. Non-Contraceptive uses of combined pill and condoms.
12. Complications of Ovarian tumours.

SHORT ANSWERS 10 X 3 = 30 Marks


13. Danazol.
14. Krukenberg’s tumour.
15. Post Coital test.
16. Senile Vaginitis.
17. Lymphatic supply of vulva.
18. Chocolate cyst.
19. Fractional Curettage.
20. Haematocolpos.
21. Screening test for carcinoma cervix.
22. Precocious puberty.

*****
Rajiv Gandhi University of Health Sciences, Karnataka
MBBS Phase – III (Part – II) Degree Examination - 07-Apr-2021

Time: Three Hours Max. Marks: 100 Marks

PAEDIATRICS (RS3)
Q.P. CODE: 1092
Your answers should be specific to the questions asked
Draw neat, labeled diagrams wherever necessary

LONG ESSAYS 2 x 10 = 20 Marks


1. A child of 6 years is brought with history of short stature. Discuss the etiology and
management of short stature.
2. Define and classify anemia. Write a note on management of Thalassemia and prevention of
thalassemia.

SHORT ESSAYS 10 x 5 = 50 Marks


3. Clinical features and management of bronchiolitis in children
4. Discuss the ecological causes of PEM.
5. Diagnosis of tuberculosis
6. Physiological jaundice of new born
7. Complicated malaria
8. Classify acute respiratory infection (ARI) and discuss the management of very severe ARI.
9. Febrile convulsion
10. Note on Von-Willebrand disease
11. Management of acute renal failure
12. General guidelines in the management of poisoning

SHORT ANSWERS 10 x 3 = 30 Marks


13. Clinical features of hypernaetremic dehydration
14. Cephalhematoma
15. Age independent anthropometric indices
16. Name the drugs used in treatment of acute lymphatic leukemia in children.
17. Jone’s criteria in acute rheumatic fever
18. Radiological changes in rickets
19. Causes of lactational failure
20. Mention the classification of Anti retroviral drugs and give 2 examples each.
21. Name the sexual maturity rating (SMR) staging in boys.
22. Complication of acute glomerular nephritis
*****
Rajiv Gandhi University of Health Sciences, Karnataka
MBBS Phase – III (Part – II) Degree Examination - 23-Mar-2021

Time: Three Hours Max. Marks: 100 Marks

GENERAL MEDICINE – PAPER I (RS2 & RS3)


Q.P. CODE: 1093
Your answers should be specific to the questions asked.
Draw neat, labeled diagrams wherever necessary.

LONG ESSAYS 2 x 10 = 20 Marks


1. Describe the aetiology pathophysiology clinical features complications and management of Dengue
Fever.

2. Enumerate the causes of Cirrhosis of Liver, clinical features of Liver Cell failure and management
of Acute Fulminant Hepatic failure.

SHORT ESSAYS 10 x 5 = 50 Marks


3. Clinical features and management of Brucellosis.
4. Immune Reconstitution Inflammatroy Syndrome.
5. Clinical presentation and treatment of Tetany.
6. Toxic Epidermal Necrolysis.
7. Presenting features of Cushing’s Syndrome.
8. ADPKD clinical features diagnosis management.
9. Clinical features of Weil’s disease and its management.
10. Marfan’s syndrome.
11. Obstructive sleep Apnoea.
12. Management of Grave’s disease.

SHORT ANSWERS 10 x 3 = 30 Marks


13. Complications during dialysis.
14. Cardinal features suggestive leprosy.
15. Components of TOF.
16. Causes of Hirsuitism.
17. Types of Insulin’s.
18. Endocrine emergencies.
19. Peutz Jeghers syndrome.
20. Types of Jaundice.
21. Hall mark lab results indicative of Acute Haemolysis.
22. Modified Jones criteria.

*****
Rajiv Gandhi University of Health Sciences, Karnataka
MBBS Phase - III (PART - II) Degree Examination – 25-Mar-2021

Time: Three Hours Max. Marks: 100 Marks

General Medicine - Paper-II (RS3)


QP Code: 1094
Your answers should be specific to the questions asked
Draw neat labeled diagrams wherever necessary

LONG ESSAYS 2 x 10 = 20 Marks


1. Discuss the aetiopathogenesis of Bronchial Asthma, clinical features and management of
acute severe asthma.

2. Describe the aetiopathogenesis, clinical features, complications and management of


Plasmodium Vivax Malaria.

SHORT ESSAYS 10 x 5 = 50 Marks


3. Steven Johnson syndrome.
4. Myxoedema coma.
5. Mood disorders.
6. Management of snake bite.
7. Turner’s syndrome.
8. Clinical features and management of Paracetamol poisoning.
9. Post exposure prophylaxis of HIV.
10. Clinical features of Empyema.
11. Causes of secondary hypertension.
12. Management of Ventricular Fibrillation.

SHORT ANSWERS 10 x 3 = 30 Marks


13. Complications of Enteric Fever.
14. Classical clinical features of Aortic stenosis.
15. Light’s criteria.
16. Complications of acute Myocardial Infarction.
17. DMARDs
18. Clinical features of Grave’s disease.
19. OGTT.
20. Three D’s of Niacin deficiency.
21. Bell’s Palsy.
22. Neurological Emergencies.

*****
Rajiv Gandhi University of Health Sciences, Karnataka
MBBS Phase – III (Part II) Degree Examination - 27-Mar-2021

Time: Three Hours Max. Marks: 50 Marks

GENERAL SURGERY (RS3)


Q.P. CODE: 1095
Section-A
Your answers should be specific to the questions asked.
Draw neat, labeled diagrams wherever necessary.
(Note: Both QP Codes 1095 and 1096 are to be, answered within total duration of three hours)
(Use separate Answer Books for QP Code 1095 & 1096)

LONG ESSAYS 2 x 10 = 20 Marks


1. Etiology, clinical features, investigations and management of thrombo angitis.
2. Etiopathogenesis, clinical features, diagnosis and management of tuberculous
lymphadenitis.

SHORT ESSAYS 3 x 5 = 15 Marks


3. Rodent ulcer.
4. Electrolyte abnormalities in congenital hypertrophic pyloric stenosis.
5. Cystic hygroma.

SHORT ANSWERS 5 x 3 = 15 Marks


6. Plunging ranula.
7. Speckled leukoplakia.
8. Sternomastoid tumour.
9. Cancrum oris
10. Adson’s test.

*****
Rajiv Gandhi University of Health Sciences, Karnataka
MBBS Phase III (Part II) Degree Examination – 27-Mar-2021

Time: Three Hours Max. Marks: 50 Marks

ORTHOPAEDICS (RS3)
QP Code: 1096
Section B
Your answers should be specific to the questions asked.
Draw neat labeled diagrams wherever necessary.
(Note: Both QP Codes 1095 and 1096 are to be, answered within total duration of three hours)
Use separate answer books for section A and section B.

LONG ESSAYS 2 x 10 = 20 Marks


1. Classify shoulder dislocations. Describe the clinical features diagnosis and management of
anterior dislocation of shoulder in an adult.
2. Describe the clinical features, diagnosis and management of Osteogenic sarcoma of lower end
femur in a 16-year-oldboy.

SHORT ESSAYS 3 x 5 = 15 Marks


3. Foot drop.
4. Lumbar spondylolisthesis.
5. Open fractures.

SHORT ANSWERS 5 x 3 = 15 Marks


6. Plaster of paris.
7. Management of brodies abscess.
8. McMurray’ s test.
9. Austin Moore prosthesis.
10. Autonomous bladder.

*****
Rajiv Gandhi University of Health Sciences, Karnataka
MBBS Phase – III (Part – II) Degree Examination - 30-Mar-2021

Time: Three Hours Max. Marks: 100 Marks

GENERAL SURGERY – PAPER II (RS3)


QP Code: 1097
Your answers should be specific to the questions asked
Draw neat, labeled diagrams wherever necessary

LONG ESSAYS 2 x 10 = 20 Marks


1. Describe pathophysiology, clinical features and management of carcinoma oesophagus.
2. Discuss causes of Acute Retention of Urine. Discuss management of Benign Prostatic Hypertrophy.

SHORT ESSAYS 10 x 5 = 50 Marks


3. Wilm’s tumour
4. Pseudo-pancreatic cyst
5. Torsion Testis
6. Epidural Anaesthesia
7. Intussusception
8. Abdominal tuberculosis
9. Ischio-rectal abscess
10. Carcinoid Tumour
11. Prolapse rectum
12. Premalignant conditions in Cancer Penis

SHORT ANSWERS 10 x 3 = 30 Marks


13. Pneumoperitoneum
14. Duke’s staging
15. Tamoxifen
16. Fissure in Ano
17. Colostomy
18. Complications of peptic ulcer
19. Complications of inguinal hernia
20. Serum Amylase
21. Murphy’s sign
22. Peyronie’s disease
*****
Rajiv Gandhi University of Health Sciences, Karnataka
M.B.B.S. PHASE III PART II Degree Examination – 01-Apr-2021

Time: Three Hours Max. Marks: 100 Marks

OBSTETRICS AND GYNAECOLOGY- PAPER-I (RS3)


QP Code: 1098
Your answers should be specific to the questions asked
Draw neat labeled diagrams wherever necessary
LONG ESSAYS 2 x 10 = 20 Marks
1. Discuss causes, clinical features, investigations & diagnosis of twin gestation. Describe
conduction of delivery of second twin.

2. Discuss the antenatal, intrapartum and postpartum management of a primigravida with Rh-
negative status.

SHORT ESSAYS 10 x 5 = 50 Marks


3. Functions of Placenta

4. Cephalo pelvic disproportion (CPD)

5. Triple test

6. Doppler in pregnancy

7. Prostaglandins in obstetrics

8. Physiological anemia in pregnancy


9. Medical management of ectopic gestation

10. Molar pregnancy

11. Partogram

12. Missed abortion

SHORT ANSWERS 10 x 3 = 30 Marks


13. Post natal check up

14. Pelvic assessment

15. Hydrops fetalis

16. Gestational hypertension

17. Cervical encirclage

18. Braxton Hicks contraction

19. Postpartum hemorrhage

20. Types of placenta praevia

21. Transverse lie


22. Laparoscopic sterilization

*****
Rajiv Gandhi University of Health Sciences, Karnataka
MBBS Phase – III (Part – II) Degree Examination - 05-Apr-2021

Time: Three Hours Max. Marks: 100 Marks

OBSTETRICS AND GYNAECOLOGY


PAPER - II (RS3)
QP Code: 1099
Your answers should be specific to the questions asked.
Draw neat labeled diagrams wherever necessary.

LONG ESSAY 2 X 10 = 20 Marks


1. Discuss the clinical features of fibroid uterus and the management of fibroid in a nulliparous 35
year old women.

2. What are the risk factors, clinical features, staging and management of cervical cancer?

SHORT ESSAY 10 X 5 = 50 Marks


3. Course of pelvic ureter and the anatomical sites where it is susceptible to injury.
4. Staging of Ca ovary.
5. Pelvic inflammatory disease – classification and management.
6. Post menopausal bleeding.
7. Prolapse uterus diagnosis and management in a post menopausal women.
8. Tubal patency test.
9. Adenomyosis.
10. Palm coien classification.
11. Laparscopic sterilization.
12. Complication of hysterectomy.

SHORT ANSWERS 10 X 3 = 30 Marks


13. Perineal body.
14. Lymphatic drainage of cervix.
15. Gonadotropins.
16. Injectable contraceptives.
17. Bacterial vaginosis.
18. Causes of puberty menorrhagia.
19. Ovulation induction.
20. Indications of laparoscopy.
21. Cryotherapy.
22. Classification of endometrial hyperplasia.

*****
Rajiv Gandhi University of Health Sciences, Karnataka
MBBS Phase – III (Part – II) Degree Examination - 20-Sep-2021

Time: Three Hours Max. Marks: 100 Marks

PAEDIATRICS (RS3)
Q.P. CODE: 1092
Your answers should be specific to the questions asked.
Draw neat, labeled diagrams wherever necessary.

LONG ESSAYS 2 x 10 = 20 Marks


1. Mention the factors that affect the Growth. What are the developmental mile stones seen
from birth to one year of life?

2. What are the advantages and problems of Breast feeding? Hazards and demerits of artificial
feeding.

SHORT ESSAYS 10 x 5 = 50 Marks

3. Growth charts

4. What are the types of Vaccines? Discuss MMR vaccine.

5. Clinical features and management of Idiopathic Thrombocytopenic Purpura

6. Aetiopathogenesis, clinical features and complications of Bronchiolitis

7. Clinical features and management of Attention Deficit Hyperactivity Disorder (ADHD)

8. Define Persistant Diarrhoea. Mention dietary algorithm for treatment of Persistant Diarrhoea.

9. Pathophysiology and management of Status Epilepticus

10. Jones criteria for Acute Rheumatic Fever. Primary and Secondary Prevention of Rheumatic
Fever
11. Clinical features and management of Hemolytic Uremic Syndrome

12. Clinical features and problems of Intrauterine Growth Retardation Baby

SHORT ANSWERS 10 x 3 = 30 Marks


13. Nadas criteria
14. Peripheral smear in Iron deficiency Anemia
15. Principles of Integrated Management of Neonatal and Childhood Illnesses (IMNCI)
16. What are the superficial infections in Newborn Baby?
17. Steps of Warm Chain
18. Complications of Tetralogy of Fallots
19. Stages in Hepatic encephalopathy
20. Differences between Primary and Post Primary Tuberculosis
21. Causes of Hydrocephalous
22. Complications of Acute Renal Failure

*****
Rajiv Gandhi University of Health Sciences, Karnataka
MBBS Phase – III (Part – II) Degree Examination - 22-Sep-2021

Time: Three Hours Max. Marks: 100 Marks

GENERAL MEDICINE – PAPER I (RS3)


Q.P. CODE: 1093
Your answers should be specific to the questions asked.
Draw neat, labeled diagrams wherever necessary.

LONG ESSAYS 2 x 10 = 20 Marks


1. Describe etiology, pathogenesis, clinical features, investigations and management of Congestive
Heart Failure.

2. Describe etiology, pathogenesis, clinical features, investigations and management of Acute Viral
Hepatitis.

SHORT ESSAYS 10 x 5 = 50 Marks


3. Peritoneal dialysis
4. Management of hypertensive emergencies
5. Management of Idiopathic thrombocytopenic Purpura
6. Clinical manifestations of anaphylaxis
7. Classification of pain
8. Causes of haematuria
9. Extra pulmonary manifestations of bronchogenic carcinoma
10. Blood component therapy
11. Extra articular manifestations of rheumatoid arthritis
12. Hypercalcemia

SHORT ANSWERS 10 x 3 = 30 Marks


13. Secondary prevention of Stroke – Strategies
14. Cardiac Syncope
15. Valve replacement therapy
16. Four causes of wheeze
17. Metabolic syndrome
18. Investigations of mitral stenosis
19. Extra articular features of Ankylosing Spondylosis
20. Causes of generalized lymphadenopathy
21. Prevention of Malaria
22. Pulmonary Eosinophilia
*****
Rajiv Gandhi University of Health Sciences, Karnataka
MBBS Phase – III (Part – II) Degree Examination - 24-Sep-2021

Time: Three Hours Max. Marks: 100 Marks

GENERAL MEDICINE – PAPER II (RS3)


Q.P. CODE: 1094
Your answers should be specific to the questions asked
Draw neat, labeled diagrams wherever necessary
LONG ESSAYS 2 x 10 = 20 Marks
1. Describe etiology, clinical features, laboratory diagnosis and treatment of acute viral hepatitis A.
2. Write etiology, clinical features, diagnosis and treatment of hypothyroidism.

SHORT ESSAYS 10 x 5 = 50 Marks


3. Neurotoxic snake bite
4. Mood disorders
5. Psoriasis
6. Myasthenia gravis
7. Chronic complications of diabetes mellitus
8. Organophosphorus poisoning
9. Proton pump inhibitors
10. Laboratory diagnosis in Typhoid
11. Drugs used in Parkinsonism
12. Idiopathic thrombocytopenic purpura

SHORT ANSWERS 10 x 3 = 30 Marks


13. Philadelphia chromosome
14. Drugs in liver abscess (Amoebic)
15. Impotence
16. Causes of continuous murmur
17. Causes of pleural effusion right side
18. Horner’s syndrome
19. Lepra reaction
20. Indications of IV gamma globulin
21. CSF finding in pyogenic meningitis
22. Indications for haemodialysis
*****
Rajiv Gandhi University of Health Sciences, Karnataka
MBBS Phase – III (Part II) Degree Examination - 27-Sep-2021

Time: Three Hours Max. Marks: 50 Marks

GENERAL SURGERY (RS3)


Q.P. CODE: 1095
Section-A
Your answers should be specific to the questions asked.
Draw neat, labeled diagrams wherever necessary.
(Note: Both QP Codes 1095 and 1096 are to be, answered within total duration of three hours)
(Use separate Answer Books for QP Code 1095 &1096)

LONG ESSAYS 2 x 10 = 20 Marks


1. Describe the symptoms, signs investigations and treatment of varicose veins.
2. Define and classify shock. How will you manage a case of Hypovolemic shock?

SHORT ESSAYS 3 x 5 = 15 Marks


3. Blood transfusion, its indications and complications
4. Mixed parotid tumour
5. Keloid

SHORT ANSWERS 5 x 3 = 15 Marks


6. Phylloides tumour
7. Thyroglossal cyst
8. Gas gangrene
9. Rule of nine in Burns
10. Berry aneurysm
*****
Rajiv Gandhi University of Health Sciences, Karnataka
M.B.B.S. Phase III (Part II) Degree Examination – 27-Sep-2021

Time: Three Hours Max. Marks: 50 Marks

ORTHOPAEDICS (RS3)
QP Code: 1096
Section B
Your answers should be specific to the questions asked.
Draw neat labeled diagrams wherever necessary.
(Note: Both QP Codes 1095 and 1096 are to be, answered within total duration of three hours)
Use separate answer books for section A and section B.

LONG ESSAYS 2 x 10 = 20 Marks


1. Describe classification, clinical features, complications and management of dislocation of hip.
2. Describe etiopathogenesis, clinical features radiological features and management of Pott’s
paraplegia.

SHORT ESSAYS 3 x 5 = 15 Marks


3. Colle’s fracture
4. Cubitus varus deformity
5. Radial nerve palsy

SHORT ANSWERS 5 x 3 = 15 Marks


6. Myositis ossificans
7. Malunion
8. Brown tumour
9. Flat foot
10. Brodies abscess

*****
Rajiv Gandhi University of Health Sciences, Karnataka
MBBS Phase – III (Part – II) Degree Examination - 29-Sep-2021

Time: Three Hours Max. Marks: 100 Marks

GENERAL SURGERY – PAPER II (RS3)


QP Code: 1097
Your answers should be specific to the questions asked
Draw neat, labeled diagrams wherever necessary

LONG ESSAYS 2 x 10 = 20 Marks


1. Describe Pathology, etiology, clinical features and management of acute pancreatitis.
2. Discuss briefly etiology, clinical features and management of acute intestinal obstruction.

SHORT ESSAYS 10 x 5 = 50 Marks


3. Congenital hypertrophic pyloric stenosis
4. Hydatid cyst of liver
5. Indications for splenectomy and complications of splenectomy
6. Hirschsprung’s disease
7. Management of Appendicular mass
8. Fistula in Ano
9. Seminoma of testis
10. Rupture of urethra
11. Subdiaphragmatic abscesses
12. Tension pneumothorax

SHORT ANSWERS 10 x 3 = 30 Marks


13. Patent ductus arteriosus
14. Achalasia cardia
15. Sister joseph’s nodule
16. Endoscopic Retrograde Cholangio Pancreatography (ERCP)
17. Meckel’s diverticulum
18. Desmoid tumour
19. Goodsall’s rule
20. Dietl’s crisis
21. Hypospadias
22. Vasectomy
*****
Rajiv Gandhi University of Health Sciences, Karnataka
M.B.B.S. PHASE III PART II Degree Examination – 01-Oct-2021

Time: Three Hours Max. Marks: 100 Marks

OBSTETRICS AND GYNAECOLOGY – PAPER – I (RS3)


QP Code: 1098
Your answers should be specific to the questions asked.
Draw neat labeled diagrams wherever necessary.

LONG ESSAYS 2 x 10 = 20 Marks


1. Describe cardiovascular changes during pregnancy. Discuss intrapartum management of
pregnancy complicated with rheumatic heart disease.

2. Define puerperium. Enumerate four complications of puerperium. Discuss management of


any one of those.

SHORT ESSAYS 10 x 5 = 50 Marks


3. Diagnosis of pregnancy

4. Operative vaginal deliveries

5. Cardiotocography
6. Threatened abortion

7. Tocolytic therapy

8. Cervical ripening
9. Intra uterine growth restriction

10. Bad obstetric history (BOH)


11. Hydramnios

12. Antenatal care

SHORT ANSWERS 10 x 3 = 30 Marks


13. Amniotic fluid index

14. Daily fetal movement count (DFMC)

15. (CPD) – Cephalo Pelvic Disproportion

16. Pelvic assessment

17. Diagnosis of twin gestation

18. Restitution (Stages of labour)

19. Intrauterine fetal transfusion

20. Vaginal birth after cesarean (VBAC)


21. Obstetric hysterectomy

22. Interval sterilization

*****
Rajiv Gandhi University of Health Sciences, Karnataka
MBBS Phase III (Part II) Degree Examination – 04-Oct-2021

Time: Three Hours Max. Marks: 100 Marks

OBSTETRICS AND GYNAECOLOGY


PAPER - II (RS3)
QP Code: 1099
Your answers should be specific to the questions asked.
Draw neat labeled diagrams wherever necessary.

LONG ESSAYS 2 x 10 = 20 Marks


1. Discuss the clinical features (symptoms and signs) and the management of endometriosis
(investigation and treatment).

2. Discuss the etiology, clinical features, staging of Cancer cervix and the management of Cancer
cervix Stage II B.

SHORT ESSAYS 10 x 5 = 50 Marks


3. Candidiasis
4. Primary dysmenorrhea
5. Turner syndrome
6. Degeneration in fibroids

7. Dysgerminoma

8. Ultrasound features of malignant ovarian tumour


9. Bartholin cyst
10. Semen analysis
11. Long term consequences of polycystic ovarian syndrome (PCOS)
12. Genital tuberculosis

SHORT ANSWERS 10 x 3 = 30 Marks


13. Metronidazole
14. Bicornuate uterus
15. Leucorrhoea
16. Tests of ovulation
17. Complications of menopause
18. CA-125
19. Steps of abdominal hysterectomy
20. Asherman syndrome
21. Hypothalamo-pituitary ovarian axis
22. Anatomy of the vagina

*****
Rajiv Gandhi University of Health Sciences, Karnataka
M.B.B.S. (PART – II), III Professional Examination - 12-Aug-2022

Time: Three Hours Max. Marks: 100 Marks

OBSTETRICS AND GYNAECOLOGY


PAPER - II (RS3)
QP Code: 1099
Your answers should be specific to the questions asked.
Draw neat labeled diagrams wherever necessary.

LONG ESSAY 2 X 10 = 20 Marks


1. Discuss etiology, clinical features and different modalities of treatment of Fibroid uterus.

2. Enumerate the causes of Uterovaginal prolapse. Discuss the management of Uterovaginal prolapse
in 30 year old multi parous woman.

SHORT ESSAY 10 X 5 = 50 Marks


3. Semen analysis.
4. Cryptomenorrhoea.
5. Syndromic management of sexually transmitted diseases.
6. Tubal patency tests.
7. Germ cell tumours of the ovary
8. Puberty menorrhagia.
9. Emergency contraception.
10. Cervical cancer screening.
11. Role of laparoscopy in Gynaecology.
12. Medical management of AUB.

SHORT ANSWERS 10 X 3 = 30 Marks


13. Indications for Hysteroscopy.
14. Transformation zone.
15. Decubitus ulcer.
16. Causes for Azoospermia.
17. Non contraceptive benefits of OC Pills.
18. Missing threads of IUCD diagnosis and management.
19. Causes of Heavy Menstrual Bleeding.
20. Causes of Chronic pelvic pain.
21. Human Papilloma Virus (HPV) Vaccine.
22. Mention drugs used in induction of Ovulation.

*****
Rajiv Gandhi University of Health Sciences, Karnataka
MBBS Phase – III (Part – II) Degree Examination – 10 AUG 2022

Time: Three Hours Max. Marks: 100 Marks

OBSTETRICS AND GYNEACOLOGY – PAPER I (RS3)


Q.P. CODE: 1098
Your answers should be specific to the questions asked.
Draw neat, labeled diagrams wherever necessary.

LONG ESSAYS 2 x 10 = 20 Marks


1. Define Abortion. Enumerate the causes of Abortion. Discuss the diagnosis and management
of Septic Abortion.

2. Enumerate the causes of breech presentation at term. Discuss the diagnosis, management
of multi Gravida with breech in labour.

SHORT ESSAYS 10 x 5 = 50 Marks


3. Fetal circulation.
4. Define fetal attitude, lie, presentation and position with example.
5. Diagnosis and management of Hyperemesis gravidarum.
6. Methods of Antepartum Fetal surveillance.
7. Discuss causes and management of Polyhydramnios.
8. Medical nutritional therapy in Gestational Diabetes.
9. Expectant management in Placenta Praevia.
10. Complications of Eclampsia.
11. Define Anemia and discuss the effects of Anemia on pregnancy.
12. Discuss the management of post Cesarean pregnancy in labour.

SHORT ANSWERS 10 x 3 = 30 Marks


13. Role of corticosteroid in preterm labour.
14. Complications of caesarean section.
15. Causes of neonatal seizures.
16. Twin to twin transfusion.
17. Mention methods of medical termination of pregnancy.
18. Janani Surakha Yojana.
19. Advantages and disadvantages of vacuum delivery.
20. Complication of artificial rupture of membranes.
21. Difference between constriction ring and retraction ring.
22. Causes of intrauterine death (IUD).

*****
Rajiv Gandhi University of Health Sciences, Karnataka
M.B.B.S. PHASE III (Part - II) Degree Examination – 08-Aug-2022

Time: Three Hours Max. Marks: 100 Marks

GENERAL SURGERY – PAPER II (RS3)


QP Code: 1097
Your answers should be specific to the questions asked
Draw neat labeled diagrams wherever necessary

LONG ESSAYS 2 x 10 = 20 Marks


1. Enumerate aetiopathology, clinical features and investigations for renal calculi – write
about management of STAG HORN Calculus.

2. Discuss aetiology, clinical features and management of small bowel obstruction.

SHORT ESSAYS 10 x 5 = 50 Marks


3. Abdominal tuberculosis

4. Colonic diverticulosis

5. Aetiopathology of gall stones

6. Hydrocele

7. Achalasia cardia

8. Acute Appendicitis

9. Inguinal Hernia

10. Fistula – in – ano


11. Peptic Ulcer

12. Meckel’s Diverticulum

SHORT ANSWERS 10 x 3 = 30 Marks

13. Annular pancreas


14. Duke’s staging for carcinoma rectum

15. Charcot’s triad and its significance

16. Budd – chiari syndrome

17. Intestinal Amoebiasis

18. Crohn’s disease

19. Hirschsprung’s disease

20. Torsion of testis

21. Glasgow coma scale

22. Circumcision
Rajiv Gandhi University of Health Sciences, Karnataka
*****
Rajiv Gandhi University of Health Sciences, Karnataka
M.B.B.S. Phase III (Part II) Degree Examination – 05 AUG 2022

Time: Three Hours Max. Marks: 50 Marks

ORTHOPAEDICS (RS3)
QP Code: 1096
Section B
Your answers should be specific to the questions asked.
Draw neat labeled diagrams wherever necessary.
(Note: Both QP Codes 1095 and 1096 are to be, answered within total duration of three hours)
Use separate answer books for section A and section B.

LONG ESSAYS 2 x 10 = 20 Marks


1. Discuss classification, clinical features and management of colle’s fracture.
2. Describe clinical features and management of chronic Osteomyelitis.

SHORT ESSAYS 3 x 5 = 15 Marks


3. Sudeck’s Osteodystrophy.
4. Foot drop.
5. Ankle injuries.

SHORT ANSWERS 5 x 3 = 15 Marks


6. Types of sequestrum.
7. Thomas splint.
8. Dequervains tenosynovitis.
9. Osteochondroma.
10. Bennett’s fracture.

*****
Rajiv Gandhi University of Health Sciences, Karnataka
MBBS Phase – III (Part II) Degree Examination - 05-Aug-2022

Time: Three Hours Max. Marks: 50 Marks

GENERAL SURGERY (RS3)


Q.P. CODE: 1095
Section-A
Your answers should be specific to the questions asked.
Draw neat, labeled diagrams wherever necessary.
(Note: Both QP Codes 1095 and 1096 are to be, answered within total duration of three hours)
(Use separate Answer Books for QP Code 1095 &1096)

LONG ESSAYS 2 x 10 = 20 Marks


1. Describe the clinical features and management of Wilm’s tumour
2. Describe etiology, complications and management of chronic duodenal ulcer

SHORT ESSAYS 3 x 5 = 15 Marks


3. Surgical Anatomy of liver
4. Pheochromocytoma
5. Classify parotid tumours

SHORT ANSWERS 5 x 3 = 15 Marks


6. Tracheostomy - indications
7. Indications for cholecystecomy in asymptomatic gall stone disease
8. Thyroglossal cyst
9. Complications of Hernia
10. Types of fibroadenoma of breast
*****
Rajiv Gandhi University of Health Sciences, Karnataka
MBBS Phase - III (PART - II) Degree Examination – 03-Aug-2022

Time: Three Hours


Max. Marks: 100 Marks
General Medicine - Paper-II (RS3)
QP Code: 1094
Your answers should be specific to the questions asked
Draw neat labeled diagrams wherever necessary

LONG ESSAYS 2 x 10 = 20 Marks


1. Describe etiology, clinical features and management of nephrotic syndrome.

2. Describe the etiology, clinical manifestations, complications and management of chronic


hepatitis.

SHORT ESSAYS 10 x 5 = 50 Marks


3. Tumour markers.
4. Vitamin D deficiency.
5. Management of acute Pancreatitis.
6. Syncope.
7. Parecetamol poisoning.
8. Acute psychosis.
9. Scabies.
10. Aplastic anaemia.
11. Hypoglycemia.
12. Secondary Hypertension.

SHORT ANSWERS 10 x 3 = 30 Marks


13. Pathological causes of tachycardia.
14. Adverse effects of thrombolytics.
15. Cardinal symptoms of aortic stenosis.
16. Causes of peptic ulcer.
17. Treatment of vitiligo.
18. Rifampicin toxicity and its treatment.
19. Causes of acute renal failure.
20. Complication of sickle cell anaemia.
21. Mention three drugs used to treat Covid-19.
22. Treatment of brucellosis.

*****
Rajiv Gandhi University of Health Sciences, Karnataka
MBBS Phase – III (Part – II) Degree Examination - 01-Aug-2022

Time: Three Hours Max. Marks: 100 Marks

GENERAL MEDICINE – PAPER I (RS3)


Q.P. CODE: 1093
Your answers should be specific to the questions asked.
Draw neat, labeled diagrams wherever necessary.
LONG ESSAYS 2 x 10 = 20 Marks
1. Discuss the stages of alcoholic liver disease. What are the clinical features, investigations,
complications and treatment of alcoholic cirrhosis?
2. Discuss etiopathogenesis, clinical manifestations, diagnosis and treatment of type 1 diabetes
mellitus.

SHORT ESSAYS 10 x 5 = 50 Marks


3. Outline treatment approach to hyperthyroidism.
4. Discuss clinical features of subacute combined degeneration of spinal cord.
5. Mention distinguishing features of Crohn’s Disease and Ulcerative Colitis.
6. What are the indications and contraindications for thrombolytic therapy in acute ischemic stroke?
7. Outline treatment of status epilepticus in an adult.
8. Discuss clinical features and treatment of Strongyloides stercoralis infection in
immunocompromised people.

9. Mention complications of typhoid fever and their timeline during infection.


10. Discuss diagnosis of chronic myeloid Leukaemia.
11. How is severity of SARA CO-V2 pneumonia assessed at bed side?
12. Classify acute kidney injury. Mention their distinguishing features.

SHORT ANSWERS 10 x 3 = 30 Marks


13. List hormones of anterior pituitary gland.
14. Mention organs involved and hormones responsible for calcium homeostatsis (3 each).
15. What is body mass index (MBI)? Mention four categories of BMI.
16. Mention three extra esophageal symptoms or signs of gastro esophageal reflux disorder (GERD).
17. Define tremor and list most common types.
18. What are the three common peripheral nerves examined for evidence of nerve thickening? Mention
three causes for nerve thickening.
19. Define nephrotic syndrome.
20. Mention late joint deformities seen in rheumatoid arthritis.
21. Mention common spondylartropathies and the common HLA association with this group.
22. Mention two crystal arthropathies and how to treat podagara?

*****
Rajiv Gandhi University of Health Sciences, Karnataka
MBBS Phase – III (Part – II) Degree Examination - 30-Jul-2022

Time: Three Hours Max. Marks: 100 Marks

PAEDIATRICS - (RS3)
Q.P. CODE: 1092
Your answers should be specific to the questions asked
Draw neat, labeled diagrams wherever necessary

LONG ESSAYS 2 x 10 = 20 Marks


1. Describe the factors influencing growth. Illustrate the composition of a balanced diet by a
food pyramid.

2. Describe investigations, treatment and complications of Nephrotic syndrome.

SHORT ESSAYS 10 x 5 = 50 Marks


3. WHO criteria for diagnosis of SAM. Describe short term complications.
4. Hydrocephalus.
5. Complementary feeding.
6. Neonatal convulsions.
7. Clinical and radiological features of Vit-D deficiency.
8. Management of Cyanotic spells in Fallot’s Tetralogy.
9. Down Syndrome.
10. Kangaroo Mother Care (KMC).
11. Hyaline membrane disease.
12. Ventricular septal defect: Clinical features, investigations and treatment.

SHORT ANSWERS 10 x 3 = 30 Marks

13. APGAR score in Newborn births.

14. BCG Vaccine.

15. Moro’s reflex.

16. Developmental milestones in a 9months old child.

17. Measles.

18. Causes of Macrocephaly.

19. Clinical features of Hemophilia.

20. Pica.

21. Nocturnal enuresis.

22. Benefits of human breast milk.

*****
Rajiv Gandhi University of Health Sciences, Karnataka
MBBS Phase – III (Part – II) Degree Examination - 04-Feb-2023

Time: Three Hours Max. Marks: 100 Marks

PAEDIATRICS (RS3)
QP Code: 1092
Your answers should be specific to the questions asked
Draw neat labeled diagrams wherever necessary

LONG ESSAYS 2 x 10 = 20 Marks

1. Tabulate normal essential milestones attained in all four domains of development assessed
at 3, 6, 9, 12 and 18 months. Explain most likely causes for speech delay and isolated
gross motor delay.

2. State the WHO criteria for severe acute malnutrition. Describe the management in the first
week of SAM.

SHORT ESSAYS 10 x 5 = 50 Marks

3. ICDS (Integrated Child Development Services) program.

4. Pathologic jaundice among neonates.

5. Management of hepatic encephalopathy.

6. Polio immunization in India.

7. Macrocytic anemia.

8. Investigations and treatment of Acute Glomerulonephritis

9. Medical management of Tetralogy of Fallot’s cyanotic spells.

10. Status epilepticus definition and treatment.

11. Primary complex.

12. Ascariasis.

SHORT ANSWERS 10 x 3 = 30 Marks

13. Erb’s palsy.

14. X linked disorders.

15. BCG vaccine

16. Investigations for diagnosis of childhood pulmonary tuberculosis

17. Plan C for dehydration.

18. Disease modifying agents in juvenile rheumatoid arthritis.

19. Clinical features of birth asphyxia.

20. CSF study in pyogenic meningitis.

21. Paracetamol.

22. Prophylaxis in children with acute Rheumatic Fever.

*****
Rajiv Gandhi University of Health Sciences, Karnataka
MBBS Phase – III (Part – II) Degree Examination - 06-Feb-2023

Time: Three Hours Max. Marks: 100 Marks

GENERAL MEDICINE – PAPER I (RS3)


Q.P. CODE: 1093
Your answers should be specific to the questions asked.
Draw neat, labeled diagrams wherever necessary.
LONG ESSAYS 2 x 10 = 20 Marks
1. Discuss etiology, clinical features and management of rheumatic fever.
2. Describe in detail etiology, clinical features, investigation and treatment of chronic bronchitis.

SHORT ESSAYS 10 x 5 = 50 Marks


3. Cushing syndrome.
4. TPN – Total Parenteral nutrition.
5. Crohn’s disease.
6. Glycosylated hemoglobin.
7. Management of enteric fever.
8. Hypertensive emergencies.
9. Management of parkinsonism.
10. Hypersplenism.
11. Acute glomerulonephritis.
12. Antiplatelet drugs.

SHORT ANSWERS 10 x 3 = 30 Marks


13. Treatment of Thalassemias.
14. Virchow’s triad.
15. Name acute complications of diabetes mellitus.
16. Indications of bone marrow transplantation.
17. Complications of Snakebite.
18. Causes of pansystolic murmur.
19. Causes of Adrenal crisis.
20. Causes of tremors.
21. Lithium adverse effects.
22. Drugs used to treat congestive heart failure.

*****
Rajiv Gandhi University of Health Sciences, Karnataka
MBBS Phase - III (PART - II) Degree Examination – 08-Feb-2023

Time: Three Hours Max. Marks: 100 Marks

General Medicine - Paper-II (RS3)


QP Code: 1094
Your answers should be specific to the questions asked
Draw neat labeled diagrams wherever necessary

LONG ESSAYS 2 x 10 = 20 Marks


1. Describe the aetiopathogenesis, clinical features, complications and management of
Pulmonary Tuberculosis.

2. Discuss the aetiology, pathophysiology, clinical features and management of Rheumatoid


Arthritis.

SHORT ESSAYS 10 x 5 = 50 Marks


3. Tumor markers and their clinical relevance.
4. Clinical features and management of Anaphylaxis.
5. Complications of Plasmodium Falciparum Malaria.
6. Clinical features and management of Organophosphorous compound poisoning.
7. Post-Exposure prophylaxis of Rabies.
8. Opportunistic Infections in HIV.
9. Clinical features of DKA (Diabetic Ketoacidosis) and management.
10. Definition and management of status epilepticus.
11. Anorexia Nervosa.
12. Clinical presentation of scabies and its treatment.

SHORT ANSWERS 10 x 3 = 30 Marks


13. X-linked conditions.
14. E.C.G findings in Atrial fibrillation.
15. Urinary casts and its clinical significance.
16. Diagnostic criteria for Diabetes Mellitus.
17. Functions of macrophages.
18. Classical clinical features of Parkinsonism.
19. Types of respiratory failure.
20. Clinical manifestations of allergy.
21. Differential diagnosis of central chest pain.
22. Raynaud’s syndrome.

*****
Rajiv Gandhi University of Health Sciences, Karnataka
MBBS Phase – III (Part II) Degree Examination - 10-Feb-2023

Time: Three Hours Max. Marks: 50 Marks

GENERAL SURGERY (RS3)


Q.P. CODE: 1095
Section-A
Your answers should be specific to the questions asked.
Draw neat, labeled diagrams wherever necessary.
(Note: Both QP Codes 1095 and 1096 are to be, answered within total duration of three hours)
(Use separate Answer Books for QP Code 1095 &1096)

LONG ESSAYS 2 x 10 = 20 Marks


1. Describe the etiology, pathogenesis, clinical features and management of carcinoma
tongue.
2. What is a wound? Describe the phases of wound healing and the factors affecting wound
healing.

SHORT ESSAYS 3 x 5 = 15 Marks


3. Systemic inflammatory Response syndrome.
4. Indications of Blood transfusion and its complications
5. Non-Hodgkin’s Lymphoma.

SHORT ANSWERS 5 x 3 = 15 Marks


6. Split skin grafting.
7. Ankle-Brachial pressure Index.
8. Fresh Frozen Plasma.
9. Hypokalemia.
10. Virchow’s triad.

*****
Rajiv Gandhi University of Health Sciences, Karnataka
M.B.B.S. Phase III (Part II) Degree Examination – 10-Feb-2023

Time: Three Hours Max. Marks: 50 Marks

ORTHOPAEDICS (RS3)
QP Code: 1096
Section B
Your answers should be specific to the questions asked.
Draw neat labeled diagrams wherever necessary.
(Note: Both QP Codes 1095 and 1096 are to be, answered within total duration of three hours)
Use separate answer books for section A and section B.

LONG ESSAYS 2 x 10 = 20 Marks


1. Discuss classification, clinical features and management of compound fracture of leg.
2. Discuss etiology, clinical features and management of CTEV.

SHORT ESSAYS 3 x 5 = 15 Marks


3. Wrist drop.
4. Osteoid osteoma.
5. Loose bodies in Knee.

SHORT ANSWERS 5 x 3 = 15 Marks


6. Tennis elbow.
7. Anterior drawer test.
8. Thomas splint.
9. Popliteal cyst.
10. Galeazzi fracture.

*****
Rajiv Gandhi University of Health Sciences, Karnataka
M.B.B.S. PHASE III (Part - II) Degree Examination – 13-Feb-2023

Time: Three Hours Max. Marks: 100 Marks

GENERAL SURGERY – PAPER II (RS3)


QP Code: 1097
Your answers should be specific to the questions asked
Draw neat labeled diagrams wherever necessary

LONG ESSAYS 2 x 10 = 20 Marks

1. Describe the etiology, pathogenesis, clinical features, diagnosis and management of Locally
Advanced Breast Carcinoma.

2. Describe the etiopathogenesis, clinical features, diagnosis and management of Hydatid cyst
of liver.

SHORT ESSAYS 10 x 5 = 50 Marks

3. Sub dural hemorrhage.

4. Thyroglossal cyst.

5. Types of Gall stones.

6. Mesenteric cyst.

7. Intussusception.

8. Ureteric calculi.

9. Management of carcinoma prostate.

10. Varicocele.

11. Ectopia vesicae.


12. Congenital hydrocele.

SHORT ANSWERS 10 x 3 = 30 Marks

13. Oschner-Sherren regimen.

14. Chylolymphatic cyst.

15. Calot’s triangle.

16. Hourglass stomach.

17. Ischiorectal abscess.

18. Dietl’s crisis.

19. Pinhole meatus.

20. Watering can perineum.

21. Paraneoplastic syndromes in renal cell carcinoma.

22. Carotid body tumor.


Rajiv Gandhi University of Health Sciences, Karnataka
*****
Rajiv Gandhi University of Health Sciences, Karnataka
MBBS Phase – III (Part – II) Degree Examination - 15-Feb-2023

Time: Three Hours Max. Marks: 100 Marks

OBSTETRICS AND GYNAECOLOGY- PAPER-I (RS3)


QP Code: 1098
Your answers should be specific to the questions asked.
Draw neat labeled diagrams wherever necessary.

LONG ESSAYS 2 x 10 = 20 Marks

1. A 28 yrs old G2P1L1 with 34 weeks of gestation came to the casualty with the complaint of
bleeding per Vaginum.
a) What are the probable causes of bleeding?
b) How will you differentiate between abruptio placenta and placenta praevia?
c) How will you manage this patient if she is a case of abruptio placenta?

2. Define eclampsia. What are the differential diagnoses? Discuss the investigations and
management of eclampsia in the following headings: general management, anticonvulsant
therapy, antihypertensive therapy, obstetric management and management of
complications.

SHORT ESSAYS 10 x 5 = 50 Marks


3. What are the cardiovascular changes during pregnancy?

4. How will you assess the gestational age if LMP is known and if LMP is unknown?

5. What are components of preconceptional counselling?

6. What are the phenomena in the third stage of labour? What are the signs and symptoms of
placental separation? Steps of active management of third stage of labour (AMTSL)?
7. How will you grade septic abortion? Discuss the management of septic abortion?

8. What are the uses of ultrasound in the first trimester of pregnancy?


9. What are the maternal and Fetal complications of Twin pregnancy?
10. Diagnosis and management of transverse lie in labour.

11. Define MMR. What are the direct and indirect causes of MMR?

12. What are the National Programmes for Prevention of Anaemia in Pregnancy?

SHORT ANSWERS 10 x 3 = 30 Marks

13. What are components of reactive CTG/NST?

14. What are the WHO criteria for defining a normal labour?

15. How will you manage Breech presentation at 36 week gestation?

16. Causes of puerperal sepsis?

17. How will you diagnose ectopic pregnancy?

18. Explain post molar pregnancy follow up?

19. What are the criteria to diagnose preterm labour?

20. Explain DIPSI guidelines for screening diabetes in Pregnancy.

21. How will you differentiate between atonic and traumatic post partum hemorrhage?
Rajiv Gandhi University of Health Sciences, Karnataka
22. What is modified Bishops score?

*****
Rajiv Gandhi University of Health Sciences, Karnataka
MBBS Phase – III (Part – II) Degree Examination - 17-Feb-2023

Time: Three Hours Max. Marks: 100 Marks

OBSTETRICS AND GYNAECOLOGY - PAPER - II (RS3)


QP Code: 1099
Your answers should be specific to the questions asked.
Draw neat labeled diagrams wherever necessary.

LONG ESSAY 2 X 10 = 20 Marks


1. Define abnormal uterine bleeding, mention its causes and management of AUB in 30 year old
multiparous lady.

2. Discuss in detail about risk factors of CA Cervix and staging of carcinoma cervix and
management.

SHORT ESSAY 10 X 5 = 50 Marks


3. Supports of uterus.
4. PCOS.
5. Leucorrhoea diagnosis and management.
6. Medical management of Ectopic pregnancy.
7. Endometrial biopsy.
8. Adenomyosis.
9. Screening for cervical cancer.
10. Ovarian hyperstimulation syndrome.
11. Course of ureter and its relations.
12. Hormonal contraception.

SHORT ANSWERS 10 X 3 = 30 Marks


13. Palm coien classification.
14. Red degeneration of fibroid.
15. Bartholin’s abscess.
16. Tests for ovulation.
17. Hysteroscopy.
18. Complications of hysterectomy.
19. Levonorgestrel IUCD
20. CA-125
21. Meig’s syndrome.
22. Fothergill’s operation.

*****
Rajiv Gandhi University of Health Sciences, Karnataka
MBBS Phase – III (Part – II) Degree Examination - 12-Mar-2022

Time: Three Hours Max. Marks: 100 Marks

PAEDIATRICS (RS3)
Q.P. CODE: 1092
Your answers should be specific to the questions asked.
Draw neat, labeled diagrams wherever necessary.

LONG ESSAYS 2 x 10 = 20 Marks


1. Aetiology, clinical features, investigations and treatment of thalassemia major

2. Aetiology, clinical features, investigations and treatment of Urinary Tract Infection

SHORT ESSAYS 10 x 5 = 50 Marks


3. Define the WHO classification of under nutrition types. Illustrate the ten steps management of
SAM
4. How will one treat a child with generalized convulsion in continuing in emergency?
5. Define Short Stature. Describe common causes of proportionate and disproportionate short
stature

6. Clinical features and treatment of congestive heart failure in infancy


7. Describe motor milestones from Birth to two year of life (Fine and Gross)
8. Describe clinical features of down syndrome. Discuss the risk of recurrence in siblings
9. Treatment of Hyperkalemia
10. Describe the IMNCI plan B for acute diarrhoea
11. Clinical features and management of raised Intracranial Tension
12. Differential diagnosis, investigations and treatment of Croup

SHORT ANSWERS 10 x 3 = 30 Marks

13. Red flag signs in Child Development

14. Screening, investigation and treatment of Cretinism


15. Temper Tantrum

16. Progressive primary complex


17. Complications of Malaria
18. Classification of Cerebral Palsy

19. Difference between Physiological and Pathological Neonatal Jaundice

20. Scorpion Sting treatment


21. Investigations in Immune Thrombocytopenic Purpura (ITP)

22. Laboratory investigations for Juvenile Rheumatoid Arthritis

*****
Rajiv Gandhi University of Health Sciences, Karnataka
MBBS Phase – III (Part – II) Degree Examination - 22-Feb-2022

Time: Three Hours Max. Marks: 100 Marks

GENERAL MEDICINE – PAPER I (RS2 & RS3)


Q.P. CODE: 1093
Your answers should be specific to the questions asked.
Draw neat, labeled diagrams wherever necessary.
LONG ESSAYS 2 x 10 = 20 Marks
1. Describe etiology, clinical features and management of community acquired pneumonia.
2. Define and classify anaemias, explain in details etiology, clinical features and management of
Megaloblastic anaemia.

SHORT ESSAYS 10 x 5 = 50 Marks


3. Clinical features and treatment of hypothyroidism.
4. Seronegative arthritis.
5. Clinical features and management of subarchnoid haemorrhage.
6. Modified Jones criteria for rheumatic fever.
7. Cerebral malaria.
8. Opportunistic infections in HIV.
9. Irritable bowel syndrome.
10. Metabolic syndrome.
11. Idiopathic thrombocytopenic purpura.
12. Clinical features and treatment of rheumatoid arthritis.

SHORT ANSWERS 10 x 3 = 30 Marks


13. Complications of enteric fever.
14. Mention six causes of clubbing.
15. Causes of hematuria.
16. Mention six clinical signs of aortic regurgitation.
17. Drugs used for the treatment of Hyperkelemia.
18. Indication of ACE inhibitors.
19. Drugs used to treat COVID-19.
20. Noncirrhotic causes of portal hypertension.
21. Treatment of acute gouty arthritis.
22. Treatment of bronchial asthma.

*****
Rajiv Gandhi University of Health Sciences, Karnataka
MBBS Phase – III (Part – II) Degree Examination - 24-Feb-2022

Time: Three Hours Max. Marks: 100 Marks

GENERAL MEDICINE – PAPER II (RS3)


Q.P. CODE: 1094
Your answers should be specific to the questions asked
Draw neat, labeled diagrams wherever necessary
LONG ESSAYS 2 x 10 = 20 Marks
1. A 58-year-old male chronic smoker has presented with progressive exertional breathlessness,
orthopnea and episodes of paroxysmal nocturnal dyspnea since 1 month. On examination he
has bilateral pedal edema, tachycardia, gallop rhythm and fine basal crackles. What is the
most probable diagnosis? Mention four important conditions leading to this condition. Discuss
diagnostic investigations and outline treatment of above patient.

2. A 45-year-old man presents with history of fever, dry cough and chest pain on the right side
since three weeks. His examination reveals tracheal shift to left, reduced movement and dull
note on percussion in right side of chest. What is the most probable diagnosis? How to
confirm diagnosis? Discuss his treatment.

SHORT ESSAYS 10 x 5 = 50 Marks


3. Aetiology and clinical features of basal cell carcinoma of skin.
4. Inheritance and genetic counseling of haemophilia.
5. What is the clinical manifestation of mania? Write a note on lithium carbonate.
6. Clinical features and treatment of pulmonary embolism.
7. Clinical features and treatment of cobra bite.
8. What are the treponemal and non treponemal tests for syphilis? And mention differences
between them.
9. Aluminium phosphide poisoning, clinical features and treatment.
10. What is T score? And mention its clinical utility.
11. What is lung compliance and give examples of respiratory diseases with increased and
reduced compliance.
12. What are the causes of haemoptysis in mitral stenosis?

SHORT ANSWERS 10 x 3 = 30 Marks


13. What is panic disorder? Which phobia is often associated with panic disorder?
14. Which clinical sign demonstrates severity of epithelial detachment in toxic epidermal
necrolysis and how to elicit it?
15. What is Dressler syndrome? How to treat it?
16. What are the complications of atrial fibrillation?
17. Which congenital heart disease is associated with wide fixed splitting of second heart sound
and why?
18. What is the causative organism of condyloma acuminatum and how to treat it?
19. What are the sexually transmitted diseases presenting with painful genital ulcers and
lymphadenopathy?
20. How can antibody measurement be used to indicate an active infection?
21. Mention three clinical features of organophosphorus poisoning.
22. What stages of HIV life cycle are targets for therapy?

*****
Rajiv Gandhi University of Health Sciences, Karnataka
MBBS Phase – III (Part II) Degree Examination - 28-Feb-2022

Time: Three Hours Max. Marks: 50 Marks

GENERAL SURGERY (RS3)


Q.P. CODE: 1095
Section-A
Your answers should be specific to the questions asked.
Draw neat, labeled diagrams wherever necessary.
(Note: Both QP Codes 1095 and 1096 are to be, answered within total duration of three hours)
(Use separate Answer Books for QP Code 1095 &1096)

LONG ESSAYS 2 x 10 = 20 Marks


1. Discuss the etiology, clinical features, investigations and treatment of primary Thyrotoxicosis.

2. Discuss the differential diagnosis of carcinoma of breast. Describe management of stage II Breast
cancer.

SHORT ESSAYS 3 x 5 = 15 Marks


3. Basal cell carcinoma
4. Papillary carcinoma of thyroid
5. Gynaecomastia

SHORT ANSWERS 5 x 3 = 15 Marks


6. Tension Pneumo thorax
7. Dermoid cyst
8. Secondary haemorrhage
9. Intermittent claudication
10. Leucoplakia
*****
Rajiv Gandhi University of Health Sciences, Karnataka
MBBS Phase III (Part II) Degree Examination – 28-Feb-2022

Time: Three Hours Max. Marks: 50 Marks

ORTHOPAEDICS (RS3)
QP Code: 1096
Section B
Your answers should be specific to the questions asked.
Draw neat labeled diagrams wherever necessary.
(Note: Both QP Codes 1095 and 1096 are to be, answered within total duration of three hours)
Use separate answer books for section A and section B.

LONG ESSAYS 2 x 10 = 20 Marks


1. Enumerate the muscles supplied by radial nerve. Describe the management of wrist drop due
to radial nerve injury.

2. Describe the aetiology, pathogenesis, clinical features, classification and management of club
foot.

SHORT ESSAYS 3 x 5 = 15 Marks


3. Colle’s fracture.
4. Management of Fracture neck of femur in old age.
5. Osteochondroma.

SHORT ANSWERS 5 x 3 = 15 Marks


6. Complications of septic arthritis.
7. Rachitic Rosary.
8. Cold abscess.
9. Myositis ossificans.
10. Bohler Brown splint.

*****
Rajiv Gandhi University of Health Sciences, Karnataka
MBBS Phase – III (Part – II) Degree Examination - 03-Mar-2022

Time: Three Hours Max. Marks: 100 Marks

GENERAL SURGERY – PAPER II (RS3)


QP Code: 1097
Your answers should be specific to the questions asked
Draw neat, labeled diagrams wherever necessary

LONG ESSAYS 2 x 10 = 20 Marks


1. Classify gall stones. Discuss aetiopathogenesis and management of acute calculous Cholecystitis.
2. Describe the clinical features and management of Hydronephrosis.

SHORT ESSAYS 10 x 5 = 50 Marks


3. Flail chest
4. Tracheoesophageal fistula
5. Complications of duodenal ulcer
6. Choledochal cyst
7. Pseudocyst of pancreas
8. Volvulus of sigmoid colon
9. Sliding inguinal hernia
10. Phimosis
11. Teratoma of testis
12. Ulcerative colitis

SHORT ANSWERS 10 x 3 = 30 Marks


13. Stove in chest
14. Barret’s oesophagus
15. Vagotomy
16. Amoebic liver abscess
17. Zollinger Ellison syndrome
18. Appendicular abscess
19. Extra corporeal shock wave lithotripsy
20. Wilm’s tumour
21. Ramstedt’s operation
22. Triple assessment
*****
Rajiv Gandhi University of Health Sciences, Karnataka
MBBS Phase – III (Part – II) Degree Examination - 07-Mar-2022

Time: Three Hours Max. Marks: 100 Marks

OBSTETRICS AND GYNEACOLOGY – PAPER I (RS3)


Q.P. CODE: 1098
Your answers should be specific to the questions asked.
Draw neat, labeled diagrams wherever necessary.

LONG ESSAYS 2 x 10 = 20 Marks


1. Define gestational hypertension. Discuss the aetiopathogenesis, clinical features,
investigations and management of preeclampsia.

2. Define and classify anemia in pregnancy. Discuss the etiology, diagnosis and management
of iron deficiency anemia in pregnancy.

SHORT ESSAYS 10 x 5 = 50 Marks


3. Cardiovascular changes in pregnancy.
4. Partograph.
5. Hyperemesis gravidarum.
6. Cervical incompetence.
7. Preconceptional counseling.
8. Methods used for 1st trimester MTP.
9. Outlet forceps.
10. Indications for emergency caesarian section.
11. Polyhydramnios.
12. Meconium aspiration syndrome.

SHORT ANSWERS 10 x 3 = 30 Marks


13. APGAR score.
14. Quickening.
15. Cephalhematoma.
16. Pritchard regime.
17. Vanishing twin.
18. Types of placenta previa.
19. Deep transverse arrest.
20. Neonatal complications of a diabetic mother.
21. AMTSL.
22. Complications of vaccum delivery.
*****
Rajiv Gandhi University of Health Sciences, Karnataka
M.B.B.S. (PART – II), III Professional Examination - 10-Mar-2022

Time: Three Hours Max. Marks: 100 Marks

OBSTETRICS AND GYNAECOLOGY


PAPER - II (RS3)
QP Code: 1099
Your answers should be specific to the questions asked.
Draw neat labeled diagrams wherever necessary.

LONG ESSAY 2 X 10 = 20 Marks


1. Define abnormal uterine bleeding. What is the current FIGO classification? Discuss the medical
management options for Anovulatory AUB.

2. Define PID. Discuss aetiopathogenesis diagnosis and management of acute PID.

SHORT ESSAY 10 X 5 = 50 Marks


3. Screening for cervical cancer.
4. Hysterosalpingography.
5. Chemotherapy for ovarian cancer.
6. Bacterial vaginosis.
7. Dermoid cyst.
8. Evaluation of secondary amenorrhoea.
9. Turners syndrome.
10. Clinical features and diagnosis of PCOS.
11. Fothergill’s operation.
12. Degenerations in a uterine leiomyoma.

SHORT ANSWERS 10 X 3 = 30 Marks


13. Causes of intermenstrual bleeding.
14. Complications of abdominal hysterectomy.
15. Minilap tubectomy.
16. Classification of utero vaginal prolapse.
17. Asherman syndrome.
18. Postcoital test.
19. Emergency contraception.
20. Pessary treatment of prolapse.
21. Complications of ovarian cyst.
22. Semen analysis.

*****

You might also like