Time: 3 Hrs. l e;: 3 ?kaVs CODE - (D) Max.

Marks : 720 v f/kd re v ad : 720

INSTRUCTIONS (funs
'k)
Z

Important Instructions: egRoiw.kZfunsZ'k %

1. The Answer Sheet is inside this Test Booklet. When you 1. mÙkj i=k bl ijh{kk iqfLrdk ds vUnj j[kk gSA tc vkidks
are directed to open the Test Booklet, take out the Answer ijh{kk iqfLrdk [kksyus dks dgk tk,] rks mÙkj i=k fudky
Sheet and fill in the particulars on Side-1 and Side-2
dj i`"B-1 ,oa i`"B-2 ij dsoy uhy s@ d ky sckWy ikWbaV isu
carefully with blue/black ball point pen only.
ls fooj.k HkjsaA
2. The test is of 3 hours duration and Test Booklet contains
2. ijh{kk dh vof/k 3 ?kaVs gS ,oa ijh{kk iqfLrdk esa 180 iz'u
180 questions. Each question carries 4 marks. For each
gSaA izR;sd iz'u 4 vad dk gSA izR;sd lgh mÙkj ds fy,
correct response, the candidate will get 4 marks. For
each incorrect response, one mark will be deducted ijh{kkFkhZ dks 4 vad fn, tk,axsA izR;sd xyr mÙkj ds fy,
from the total scores. The maximum marks are 720. dqy ;ksx esa ls ,d va d ?kVk;k tk,xkA vf/kdre vad 720
3. Use Blue/Black Ball Point Pen only for writing particulars gSaA
on this page/marking responses. 3. bl i` "B ij fooj.k vafdr djus ,ao mÙkj i=k ij fu'kku yxkus
4. Rough work is to be done on the space provided for this ds fy, d osy uhys u dk iz;ksx djsAa
@ d kysckyW ikbWVa is
purpose in the Test Booklet only.
4. jQ dk;Z bl ijh{kk iqfLrdk esa fu/kkZfjr LFkku ij gh djsaA
5. On completion of the test, the candidate must
5. ijh{kk lEiUu gksusij] ijh{kkFkhZd {k@gkWy NksM uslsiwoZ
havdover the Answer Sheet to the invigilator in the
mÙkj i=k d {k fujh{kd d ksv o'; lkSai nsaA ijh{kkFkhZv ius
Room/Hall. The candidates are allowed to take away
this Test Booklet with them. lkFk iz'u iqfLrd k d ksy st k ld rsgSaA
6. The CODE for this Booklet is F. Make sure that the CODE 6. bl iqfLrdk dk ladsr gS F A ;g lqfuf'pr dj ysa fd bl
printed on Side-2 of the Answer Sheet is the same as iqfLrdk dk ladsr] mÙkj i=k ds i`"B-2 in Nis ladsr ls
that on this Booklet. In case of discrepancy, the candidate feyrk gSA vxj ;g fHkUu gks rks ijh{kkFkhZ nwljh ijh{kk
should immediately report the matter to the Invigilator
iqfLrdk vkSsj mÙkj i=k ysus ds fy, fujh{kd dks rqjUr
for replacement of both the Test Booklets and the
voxr djk,aA
Answer Sheets.
7. ijh{kkFkhZ lqfuf'pr djsa fd bl mÙkj i=k dks eksM+k u tk,
7. The Candidates should ensure that the Answer Sheet
is not folded. Do not make any stray marks on the Answer
,oa ml ij d ksbZ vU; fu'kku u y xk,aA ijh{kkFkhZ viuk
Sheet. Do not write your roll no. anywhere else except in vuqØekad iz'u iqfLrdk@mÙkj i=k es fu/kkZfjr LFkku ds
the specified space in the Test Booklet/Answer Sheet. vfrfjDr vU;=k uk fy[ksaA
8. Use of white fluid for correction is NOT permissible on
8. mÙkj i=k ij fdlh izdkj ds la'kks/ku gsrq OgkbV ¶+ywbM ds
the Answer Sheet.
iz;ksx dh vuqefr ughagSA

In case of any ambiguity in translation of any question, English version shall be treated as final.
iz'uksad sv uqokn esafd l h v Li"Vrk d h fLFkfr esa] v axzst h l aLd j.k d ksgh v fUre ekuk t k;sxkA

Name of the Candiate (in Capital letters) : ____________________________________________________________

Roll Number : in figures : in words : _______________________________________________

Name of Examination Centre (in Capital letters) : ________________________________________

Candidate's Signature : ______________________________ Invigilator's Signature : ___________________________________

CODE - (D) | DATE: 25-07-2015 AIPMT-2015 BIOLOGY

PART A : BIOLOGY

1. In his classic experiments on pea plants, Mendel did not use

(1) Pod length (2) Seed shape (3) Flower position (4) Seed colour
Ans (1)
Sol. Pod length did not use by mendel for ihs experiment.

2. Which one of the following is not applicable to RNA?

(1) 5’ phosphoryl and 3’ hydroxyl ends
(2) Heterocyclic nitrogenous bases
(3) Chargaff’s rule
(4) Complementary base pairing

Ans (3)

3. Male gametophyte in angiosperms produces:

(1) Single sperm and a vegetative cell
(2) Single sperm and two vegetative cells
(3) Three sperms
(4) Two sperms and a vegetative cell
Sol. Male gametophyte in angiosperm is 3-celled containing 2 male gametes (sperms) an vegetative cell.
Ans (4)

4. Which of the following are not membrane-bound?

(1) Ribosomes (2) Lysosomes (3) Mesosomes (4) Vacuoles
Sol. Ribosome is naked cell organelle.
Ans (1)

5. The chitinous exoskeleton of arthropods is formed by the polymerisation of:

(1) D- glucosamine (2) N- acetyl glucosamine
(3) lipoglycans (4) keratin sulphate and chondroitin sulphate

Ans (2)

6. Among china rose, mustard, brinjal, potato, guava, cucumber, onion and tulip, how many plants have superior
ovary?
(1) Six (2) Three (3) Four (4) Five
Sol. China rose, mustard, brinjal , potato, onion and tulip– total six plants have superior ovary.

Ans (1)

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CODE - (D) | DATE: 25-07-2015 AIPMT-2015 BIOLOGY

7. The function of the gap junction is to

(1) facilitate communication between adjoining cells by connecting the cytoplasm for rapid transfer of ions,
small molecules and some large molecules.
(2) separate two cells from each other
(3) stop substance from leaking across a tissue
(4) performing cementing to keep neighbouring cells together.

Ans (1)
Sol. Colostrum has high levels of IgA, which provide passive immunity to foetus.

8. Which of the following immunoglobulins does constitute the largest percentage in human milk?
(1) Ig M (2) Ig A (3) Ig G (4) Ig D

Ans (2)

9. In mammalian eye, the ‘fovea’ is the center of the visual field, where:
(1) the optic nerve leaves the eye.
(2) only rods are present.
(3) more rods than cones are found.
(4) high density of cones occur, but has no rods.

Ans (4)
Sol. Fovea is present at centre of macula lutea, whcih is centre of highest resolution has only cones.

10. Doctors use stethoscope to hear the sounds produced during each cardiac cycle. The second sound is heard
when:
(1) Ventricular walls vibrate due to gushing in of blood from atria
(2) Semilunar valves close down after the blood flows into vesels from ventricles
(3) AV node receives signal from SA node
(4) AV valves open up

Ans (2)

11. Coconut water from a tender coconut is:

(1) Free nuclear endosperm
(2) Innermost layers of the seed coat
(3) Degenerated nucellus
(4) Immature embryo

Ans (1)

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CODE - (D) | DATE: 25-07-2015 AIPMT-2015 BIOLOGY

12. The cutting of DNA at specific locations became possible with the discovery of:
(1) Probes (2) Selectable markers
(3) Ligases (4) Restriction enzymes
Ans (4)
Sol. Restriction endomiclease enzyme cut the DNA at specific site

13. Which of the following structures is not found in a prokaryotic cell?

(1) Ribosome (2) Mesosome (3) Plasma membrane (4) Nuclear envelope
Ans (4)
Sol. Procaryotic celld does not contain distinct nucleus and nuclear membrane.

14. Arrange the following events of meiosis in correct sequence:

(a) Crossing over
(b) Synapsis
(c) Terminalisation of chiasmata
(d) Disappearance of nucleolus
(1) (b), (a), (c), (d) (2) (a), (b), (c), (d) (3) (b), (c), (d), (a) (4) (b), (a), (d), (c)
Ans (1)
Sol. In prophase I of meiosis I, The correct sequence of events are
b– synapsis in zygotene
c– corssingover in pachytene in diakensis
d– Disappearance of nucleolus in diakinesis

15. A column of water within xylem vesels of tall trees does not break under its weight because of:
(1) Tensile strength of water (2) Lignification of xylem vessels
(3) Positive root pressure (4) Dissolved sugars in water
Ans (1)

16. The imperfect fungi which are decomposer of litter and help in minearl cycling belong to:
(1) Basidiomycetes (2) Phycomycetes (3) Ascomycetes (4) Deuteromycetes
Ans (4)
Sol. The members of deuteromycetes do not show sexual reproduction therefore they are called fungi infercti.

17. The structures that help some bacteria to attach to rocks and / or host tissues are:
(1) Fimbriae (2) Mesosomes (3) Holdfast (4) Rhizoids
Ans (1)

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CODE - (D) | DATE: 25-07-2015 AIPMT-2015 BIOLOGY

18. The DNA molecule to which the gene of interest is integrated for cloning is called:
(1) Vector (2) Template (3) Carrier (4) Transformer
Ans (1)

19. Pick up the wrong statement:

(1) Protista have photosynthetic and heterotrophic modes of nutrition
(2) Some fungi are edible
(3) Nuclear membrane is present in Monera
(4) Cell wall is absent in Animalia

Ans (3)

20. Metagenesis refers to:

(1) Alternation of generation between asexual and sexual phases of an organisms
(2) Occurrence of a drastic change in form during post-embryonic development
(3) Presence of a segmented body and parthenogenetic mode of reproduction
(4) Presence of different morphic forms

Ans (1)
Sol. Metagenesis is alternation of generations found in cnidaria phylum eg. obelia.

21. Which of the following events is not associated withovulation in human female?
(1) Full development of Graffian follicle
(2) Release of secondary oocyte
(3) LH surge
(4) Decrease in estradiol
Ans (4)
Sol. At ovulation, LH surge occur due to hypersecretion of estrogen, which gives positive feed back to anterior
pituitary for secretion of LH.

22. Which of the following joints would allow no movement?

(1) Cartilaginous joint (2) Synovial joint (3) Ball and Socket joint (4) Fibrous joint
Ans (4)

23. Match the following list of microbes and their importance:

(a) Sacharomyces cerevisiae (i) Production of immunosuppressive agents

(b) Monascus purpureus (ii) Ripening of Swiss cheese
(c ) Trichodemra polysporum (iii) Commerical production of ethanol
(d) Propionibacterium sharmanii (iv) Production of blood cholesterol lowering agents

(a) (b) (c) (d) (1)

(iv) (iii) (ii) (i)
(2) (iv) (ii) (i) (iii)
(3) (iii) (i) (iv) (ii)
(4) (iii) (iv) (i) (ii)

Ans (4)

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CODE - (D) | DATE: 25-07-2015 AIPMT-2015 BIOLOGY

24. The UN conference of Parties on climate change in the year 2012 was helf at:
(1) Doha (2) Lima (3) Warsaw (4) Durban
Ans (1)

25. If you suspect major deficiency of antibodies in a person, to which of the following would you look for confirma-
tory evidences?
(1) Serum albumins (2) Haemocytes (3) Serum globulins (4) Fibrinogin in plasma
Ans (3)
Sol. Antibodies are -Globulin.

26. Chromatophores take part in:

(1) Growth (2) Movement (3) Respiration (4) Photosynthesis
Ans (4)
Sol. Chromatophores contain pigments and they are found in blue green algae for
photosynthesis

27. Acid rain is caused by increase in the atmospheric concentration of:

(1) SO3 and CO (2) CO2 and CO (3) O3 and dust (4) SO2 and NO2
Ans (4)
Sol. The main contribution in acid rain is 60-70 SO2 and 20 – 30% NO2.

28. During ecological seccession:

(1) the establishment of a new biotic communityh is very fast in its primary phase.
(2) the numbers and types of animals remain constant.
(3) the changes lead to a community that is in near equilbrium with the environment and is called pioneer
community
(4) the gradual and predictable change in species composition occurs in a given area

Ans (4)

29. The oxygen evolved during photosynthesis comes from water molecules. Which one of the following pairs of
elements is involved in this reaction?
(1) Manganese and Potassium (2) Magnesium and Molybdenum
(3) Magnesium and Chlorine (4) Manganese and Chlorine
Ans (4)
Sol. photolysis of water is initiated by Mn++ and Cl– ions.

30. Which of the followin pairs is not correctly matched?

Mode of reproduction Example
(1) Rhizome Banana
(2) Binary fission Sargassum
(3) Conidia Penicillium
(4) Offset Water hyacinth

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CODE - (D) | DATE: 25-07-2015 AIPMT-2015 BIOLOGY

Sol. Binary fission is usually found in amoeba, Paramoecium, euglena.

Ans (2)

31. In the following human pedigree, the filled symbols represent the affected individuals. Identify the type of
given pedigree.

(1) X- linked recessive (2) Autosomal recessive (3) X-linked dominant (4) Autosomal dominant

Ans (2)

32. Which one of the following animals has two separate circulatory pathways?
(1) Lizard (2) Whale (3) Shark (4) Frog
Ans (2)
Sol. Whale is a mammal and has 4 chambered heart with 2 atria & 2 ventricles, oxygenated & deoxygenated blood
flow on separate sides.

33. Flowers are unisexual in:

(1) Cucumber (2) China rose (3) Onion (4) Pea
Ans (1)

34. Which one of the follownig fruits is parthenocarpic?

(1) Apple (2) Jackfruit (3) Banana (4) Brinjal
Ans (3)

35. A pleiotropic gene:

(1) is a gene evolved during Pliocene.
(2) controls a trait only in combinatio with another gene
(3) controls multiple traits in an individual.
(4) is expressed only in primitive plants

Ans (3)

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CODE - (D) | DATE: 25-07-2015 AIPMT-2015 BIOLOGY

36. Which of the following is not a function of the skeletal system?

(1) Storage of minerals
(2) Production of body heat
(3) Locomotion
(4) Production of erythrocytes

Ans (2)

37. A jawless fish, which lays eggs in fresh water and whose ammocoetes larvae after metamorphosis retun to the
ocean is:
(1) myxine (2) Neomyxine (3) Petormyzon (4) Eptatretus
Ans (3)

38. Filiform apparatus is characteristic feature of:

(1) Nucellar embryo
(2) Aleurone cell
(3) Synergids
(4) Generative cell
Ans (3)

39. Read the different components from (a) to (d) in the list given below and tell the correct order of the compo-
nents with reference to their arrangement from outer side to inner side in a woody dicot stem
(a) Secondary cortex (b) Wood
(c) Secondary phloem (d) Phellem
The correct order is:
(1) (a), (b), (d), (c) (2) (d), (a), (c), (b) (3) (d), (c), (a), (b) (4) (c), (d), (b), (a)
Ans (2)
Sol. The correct sequence from outerside towards inner side in a wood dicot stem is
Phelluum Secondary cortex Secondary phloem Wood
(d) (a) (c) (b)

40. Which one of the following hormones is not involved in sugar metabolism ?
(1) Aldosterone (2) Insulin (3) Glucagon (4) Cortisone
Ans (1)
Sol. Al dosterone is secreted by adrenal cortex and is responible for regulation of Na+ & K+ levels in body

41. Golden rice is a genetically modified crop plant where the incorporated gene is meant for biosynthesis of :
(1) Vitamin C (2) Omega 3 (3) Vitamin A (4) Vitamin B
Ans (3)

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CODE - (D) | DATE: 25-07-2015 AIPMT-2015 BIOLOGY

42. Outbreeding is an important strategy of animal husbandry because it :

(1) is useful in producing purelines of animals.
(2) is useful in overcoming inbreeding depression.
(3) exposes harmful recessive genes that are eliminated by selection.
(4) helps in accumulation of superior genes.
Ans (2)

43. A gene showing codominance has:

(1) alleles tightly linked on the same chromosome
(2) alleles that are recessive to each other
(3) both alleles independently expressed in the heterozygote
(4) one allele dominant on the other
Ans (3)

44. Which one of the following hormones through synthesised elsewhere is stored and released by the master
gland ?
(1) Luteinizing hormone (2) Prolactin
(3) Melanocyte stimulating hormone (4) Antidiuretic hormone
Ans (4)
Sol. ADH and oxytocin are secreted by hypothalamus & stored in posterior pituitary.

45. Increase in concentration of the toxicant at successive trophic levels is known as :

(1) Biodeterioration (2) Biotransformation (3) Biogeochemical (4) Biomagnification
Ans (4)

46. Industrial melanism is an example of :

(1) Natural selection (2) Mutation (3) Neo Lamarckism (4) Neo Darwinism
Ans (1)

47. The primary dentition in human differs from permanent dentition in not having one of the following type of teeth
:
(1) Premolars (2) Molars (3) Incisors (4) Canine
Ans (1)
2102
Sol. Dental formula for milk teeth is so premolars are absent.
2102

48. The wheat grain has an embryo with one, large, shield-shaped cotyledon known as:
(1) Coleorrhiza (2) Scutellum (3) Coleoptile (4) Epiblast

Ans (2)

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CODE - (D) | DATE: 25-07-2015 AIPMT-2015 BIOLOGY

49. The body cells in cockroach discharge their nitrogenous waste in the haemolymph mainly in the form of :
(1) Potassium urate (2) Urea (3) Calcium carbonate (4) Ammonia
Ans (1)

50. Which of the following biomolecules does have phosphodiester bond ?

(1) Monosaccharides in a polysaccharide (2) Amino acids in a polypeptide
(3) Nucleic acids in a nucleotide (4) Fatty acids in a diglyceride
Ans (3)

51. The term “linkage” was coined by :

(1) T. Boveri (2) G. Mendel (3) W. Sutton (4) T.H. Morgan
Ans (4)

52. Which one is wrong statement ?

(1) Mucor has biflagellate zoospores
(2) Haploid endosperm is typical feature of gymnosperms
(3) Brown algae have chlorophyll a and c and fucoxanthin
(4) Archegonia are found in Bryophyta, Pteridophyta and Gymnosperms.
Ans (1)

53. Ectopic pregnancies are referred to as:

(1) Implantation of embryo at site other than uterus.
(2) Implantation of defective embryo in the uterus
(3) Pregnancies terminated due to hormonal imbalance.
(4) Pregnancies with genetic abnormality.

Ans (1)

54. Most animals that live in deep oceanic waters are :

(1) secondary consumers (2) tertiary consumers
(3) detritivores (4) primary consumers
Ans (3)

55. Which of the following diseases is caused by a protozoan ?

(1) Influenza (2) Babesiosis (3) Blastomycosis (4) Syphilis
Ans (2)
Sol. Babesiosis is caused by sporozoan protozoon-babesia. In this disease haemoglobinuric fever occur.

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CODE - (D) | DATE: 25-07-2015 AIPMT-2015 BIOLOGY

56. In which of the following interactions both partners are adversely affected ?
(1) Predation (2) Parasitism (3) Mutualism (4) Competition
Ans (4)

57. Identify the correct order of organisation of genetic material from largest to smallest :
(1) Genome, chromosome, nucleotide, gene (2) Genome, chromosome, gene, nucleotide
(3) Chromosome, genome, nucleotide, gene (4) Chromosome, gene, genome, nucleotide
Ans (2)

58. A colour blind man marries a woman with normal sight who has no history of colour blindness in her family.
What is the probability of their grandson being colour blind ?
(1) 1 (2) Nil (3) 0.25 (4) 0.5

Ans (3)

Sol.

The daughters of this couple will normal eye sight & carrier if one of the carrier daughter marries with normaleyed
man.

only 25% crand son will colourblind.

59. Photosynthesis the light-independent reactions take place at :

(1) Photosystem-I (2) Photosystem-II (3) Stromal matrix (4) Thylakoid lumen
Ans (3)

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CODE - (D) | DATE: 25-07-2015 AIPMT-2015 BIOLOGY

60. In which of the following both pairs have correct combination ?

Gaseous nutrient cycle Carbon and sulphur

(1)
Sedimentary nutrient cycle Nitrogen and Phosphorus
Gaseous nutrient cycle Nitrogen and sulphur
(2)
Sedimentary nutrient cycle Carbon and Phosphorus
Gaseous nutrient cycle Sulphur and Phosphorus
(3)
Sedimentary nutrient cycle Carbon and Nitrogen
Gaseous nutrient cycle Carbon and Nitrogen
(4)
Sedimentary nutrient cycle Sulphur and Phosphorus

Ans (4)

61. The introduction of t-DNA into plants involves :

(1) Altering the pH of the soil, then heat shocking the plants
(2) Exposing the plants to cold for a brief period
(3) Allowing the plant roots to stand in water
(4) Infection of the plant by Agrobacterium tumefaciens
Ans (4)

62. The wings of a bird and the wings of an insect are :

(1) analogous structures and represent convergent evolution
(2) phylogenetic structures and represent divergent evolution
(3) homologous structures and represent convergent evolution
(4) homologous structures and represent divergent evolution
Ans (1)

63. Root pressure develops due to :

(1) Low osmotic potential in soil (2) Passive absorption
(3) Increase in transpiration (4) Active absorption
Ans (4)

64. Human urine is usually acidic because :

(1) excreted plasma proteins are acidic
(2) potassium and sodium exchange generates acidity
(3) hydrogen ions are actively secreted into the filtrate.
(4) the sodium transporter exchanges one hydrogen ion for each sodium ion, in peritubular capillaries.
ekuo ew=k vkerkSj ls vEyh; gksrk gS D;ksafd %
Ans (3)

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CODE - (D) | DATE: 25-07-2015 AIPMT-2015 BIOLOGY

65. A protoplast is a cell :

(1) without nucleus (2) undergoing division
(3) without cell wall (4) without plasma membrane
Ans (3)

66. The species confined to a particular region and not found elsewhere is termed as :
(1) Alien (2) Endemic (3) Rare (4) Keystone
Ans (2)

67. Select the wrong statements :

(1) W.M. Stanley showed that viruses could be crystallized
(2) The term 'contagium vivum fluidum' was coined by M.W. Bejerinek
(3) Mosaic disease in tobacco and AIDS in human being are caused by viruses
(4) The viroids were dicovered by D.J. Ivanowski
Ans (4)

68. Axile placentation is present in

(1) Lemon (2) Pea (3) Argemaone (4) Dianthus

Ans (1)

69. A childless couple can be assisted to have a child through a technique called GIFT. The full form of this
technique is :
(1) Gamete intra fallopian transfer (2) Gamete internal fertillization and transfer ( 3 )
Germ cell internal fallopian transfer (4) Gemete inseminated fallopian transfer ,d fu%lr
a ku naifÙk
Ans (1)

70. Destruction of the anterior horn cell of the spinal cord would result in loss of :
(1) voluntary motor impulses (2) commissural impulses
(3) integrating impulses (4) sensory impulses
Ans (1)
Sol. In poliomyelitis, anterior horn cells of spinal cord are destroyed which result in loss of motor activities of limbs.

71. During biological nitrogen fixation, inactivation of nitrogenase by oxygen poisoning is prevented by :
(1) Xanthophyll (2) Carotene (3) Cytochrome (4) Leghemoglobin
Ans (4)

72. An association of individuals of different species living in the same habital and having functional interactions is:
(1) Biotic community (2) Ecosystem (3) Population (4) Ecological niche
Ans (1)

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CODE - (D) | DATE: 25-07-2015 AIPMT-2015 BIOLOGY

73. Name the pulmonary disease in which alveolar surface area involved in gas exchange is drastically reduced
due to damage in the alveolar walls.
(1) Emphysema (2) Pneumonia (3) Asthma (4) Pleurisy
Ans (1)

74. Balbiani rings are sites of :

(1) Nucleotide synthesis (2) Polysaccharide synthesis
(3) RNA and protein synthesis (4) Lipid synthesis
Ans (3)

75. Mathe the columns and identify the correct option.

Column-I Column-II
(a) Thylakoids (i) Disc-shaped sacs in Golgi apparatus
(b) Cristae (ii) Condensed structure of DNA
(c) Cisternae (iii) Flat membranous sacs in stroma
(d) Chromatin (iv) Infoldings in mitochondria
(1) (iii) (iv) (i) (ii)
(2) (iii) (i) (iv) (ii)
(3) (iii) (iv) (ii) (i)
(4) (iv) (iii) (i) (ii)
Ans (1)

76. Cellular organelles with membranes are :

(1) chormosomes, ribosomes and endoplasmic reticulum
(2) endoplasmic reticulum, ribosomes and nuclei
(3) lysosomes, Golgi apparatus and mitochondria
(4) nuclei, ribosomes and mitochondria

Ans (3)

77. Auxin can be bioassayed by :

(1) Hydroponics (2) Potometer
(3) Lettuce hypocotyl elongation (4) Avena coleoptile curvature

Ans (4)

78. Which of the following layers in an antral follicle is acelluar ?

(1) Theca interna (2) Stroma (3) Zona pellucida (4) Granulosa
Ans (3)
Sol. Zona pellucida is secreted by secondary oocyte around it self

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CODE - (D) | DATE: 25-07-2015 AIPMT-2015 BIOLOGY

79. Satelliete DNA in important because it :

(1) shows high degree of polymorphism in population and also the same degree of polymorphism in an indi-
vidual, which is heritable form parents to children.
(2) does not code for proteins and is same in all members of the population
(3) codes for enzymes needed for DNA replication
(4) codes for proteins needed in cell cycle.

Ans (1)

80. Cell wall is absent in :

(1) Funaria (2) Mycoplasma (3) Nostoc (4) Aspergillus
Ans (2)

81. In angiosperms, microsporogenesis and megasporogenesis :

(1) form gametes without further divisions (2) Involve meiosis
(3) occur in ovule (4) occur in anther
Ans (2)
Sol. Each microspore mother cell of anther undergoes meiosis to form microspore tetrad while megspore moter
cell of ovule undergoes meiosis to form megaspore tetrad.

82. Roots play insignificant role in absorption of water in :

(1) Pistia (2) Pea (3) Wheat (4) Sunflower
Ans (1)
Sol. Pistia is hydrophyte where absorption of water by root is insignificant

83. Which of the following are most suitable indicators of SO2 pollution in the environment?
(1) Conifers (2) Algae (3) Fungi (4) Lichens
Ans (4)

84. Grafted kidney may be rejected in a patient due to :

(1) Cell-midiated immune response (2) Passive immune responce
(3) Innate immune responce (4) Humoral immune responce
Ans (1)

85. Body having meshwork of cell, internal cavities lined with food filtering flagellated cells and indirect develop-
ment are the characteristics of phylum.
(1) Porifera (2) Mollusca (3) Protozoa (4) Coelenterate
Ans (1)

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CODE - (D) | DATE: 25-07-2015 AIPMT-2015 BIOLOGY

86. In which group of organisms the cell walls form two thin overlapping shells which fit together?
(1) Euglenoids (2) Dinoflagellates (3) Slime moulds (4) Chrysopytes
Ans (4)
Sol. Diatoms (chrysophytes) body is look like soap box and fit together.

87. Choose the wrong statements:

(1) Neurospora is used in the study of biochemical genetics
(2) Morels and truffles are poisonoues mushrooms
(3) Yeast is unicellular and useful in fermentation
(4) Penicillium is multicellular and produces antibiotics
Ans (2)
Sol. Morel and truffles are edible and members of Ascomycetes in fungi

88. In human females, meiosis-II in not complete until?

(1) fertilization (2) uterine implantation (3) birth (4) puberty
Ans (1)

89. Eutrophication of water bodies leading to killing of fishes is mainly due to non-availability of :
(1) light (2) essential minerals (3) oxygen (4) food
Ans (3)

90. The enzyme that is not present in succus Entericus is :

(1) nucleases (2) nucleosidase (3) lipase (4) maltase
Ans (1)

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CODE - (D) | DATE: 25-07-2015 AIPMT-2015 Chemistry

PART B : CHEMISTRY
91. Reaction of phenol with chloroform in presence of dilute sodium hydroxide finally introduces which one of the
following functional group ?(
1) –CH2Cl (2) –COOH (3) –CHCl2 ( 4) –CHO
Ans. (4)

Sol. Ph – OH + CHCl3 
dil.NaOH
  > It is Reimer - Tiemann reaction

92. If the equilibrium constant for N 2(g) + O 2 (g) 


 2NO(g) is K, the equilibrium constant for



1 1
N (g) + O2(g) 

 NO(g) will be :

2 2 2 

1
(1) K 12 (2) K (3) K (4) K2
2
Ans. (1)

[NO]2
Sol. K=
[N2 ][O2 ]

NO
K' = 1/ 2
[N2 ] [O2 ]1/ 2

 K'  K

93. 20.0 g of a magnesium carbonate sample decomposes on heating to give carbon dioxide and 8.0 g magne-
sium oxide. What will be the percentage purity of magnesium carbonate in the sample ?
(1) 75 (2) 96 (3) 60 (4) 84
(At. Wt.: Mg = 24)
Ans. (4)
Sol. MgCO3  MgO + CO2
84 g 40g

84
 8g MgO will be from g
5

84 100
 % Purity =   84%
5 20

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CODE - (D) | DATE: 25-07-2015 AIPMT-2015 Chemistry

94. The number of water molecules is maximum in :

(1) 18 molecules of water (2) 1.8 gram of water
(3) 18 gram of water (4) 18 moles of water
Ans. (4)
Sol. 1 mole contains 6.02×1023 molecule
 18 mole will contain 18×6.02×1023

95. The formation of the oxide ion O2– (g), from oxygen atom requires first an exothermic and then an endothermic
step as shown below :
O(g) + e–  O–(g) ; = –141 kJ mol–1

O– (g) + e–  O2–(g) ; = +780 kJ mol–1

Thus process of formation of O2– in gas phase is unfavourable even though O2– is isoelectronic with neon. It is
due to the fact that
(1) Electron repulsion outweighs the stability gained by achieving noble gas configuration
(2) O– ion has comparatively smaller size than oxygen atom
(3) Oxygen is more electronegative
(4) Addition of electron in oxygen results in larger size of the ion.
Ans. (1)

96. What is the mole fraction of the solute in a 1.00 m aqueous solution ?
(1) 0.177 (2) 1.770 (3) 0.0354 (4) 0.0177
Ans. (4)

1000  n 1000  n n 18
Sol. Molality = 1
N 18 = N 1000

NM

n 18
   0.0177
n  N 1018

97. The rate constant of the reaction A  B is 0.6 × 10–3 mole per second. If the concentration of A is 5 M then
concentration of B after 20 minutes is :

(1) 1.08 M (2) 3.60 M (3) 0.36 M (4) 0.72 M

Ans. (4)
con.
Sol. It is zero order reaction  6×10–4 = 20  60

conc.of B  0.72M

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CODE - (D) | DATE: 25-07-2015 AIPMT-2015 Chemistry

98. Decreasing order of stability of O2 ,O2– ,O2 and O2–

2 is :

(1) O2  O2  O 2  O22  (2) O22   O2  O 2  O 2

(3) O2  O 2  O 22   O 2 (4) O2  O22   O 2  O 2

Ans. (1)

O 2  O2  O 2  O22 
Sol. B.O.
2.5 2 1.5 1.0

99. Which one of the following esters gets hydrolysed most easily under alkaline conditions ?

(1) (2)

(3) (4)

Ans. (1)
Sol. In basic medium rate of hydrolysis increases with electron withdrawing group (-M effect predominates)

100. On heating which of the following releases CO2 most easily ?

(1) K2CO3 (2) Na2CO3 (3) MgCO3 (4) CaCO3

Ans. (3)
Sol. BeCO3 to BaCO3 stability increases

101. Which one of the following pairs of solution is not an acidic buffer ?

(1) HClO4 and ,oa NaClO4 (2) CH3COOH and ,oa CH3COONa
(3) H2CO3 and ,oa Na2CO3 (4) H3PO4 and ,oa Na3PO4
Ans. (1)
Sol. Stong acid with its salt can not form duffer solution.

102. The sum of coordination number and oxidation number of the metal M in the complex [M(en)2(C2O4)]Cl (where
en is ethylenediamine) is :
(1) 9 (2) 6 (3) 7 (4) 8
Ans. (1)
Sol. C.No. = 6
O.No. = +3

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CODE - (D) | DATE: 25-07-2015 AIPMT-2015 Chemistry

103. Which of the statements given below is incorrect ?

(1) Cl2O7 is an anhydride of perchloric acid (2) O3 molecule is bent
(3) ONF is isoelectronic with O2N –
(4) OF2 is an oxide of fluorine
Ans. (4)
Sol. OF2 is oxygen difluoride.

104. In the reaction with HCl, an alkene reacts in accordance with the Markovnikov's rule, to give a product 1-chloro-

1-methylcyclohexane. The possible alkene is :

(1) (A) (2) (B) (3) (A) and vkSj (B) (4)

Ans. (3)

Sol. HCl
   Cl
 

–

HCl Cl–
    


105. 2,3-Dimethyl-2-butene can be prepared by heating which of the following compounds with a strong acid ?

(1) (2) (CH3)3C – CH = CH2

(3) (CH3)2C = CH– CH2 – CH3 (4) (CH3)2CH – CH2– CH = CH2

Ans. (2)

Sol.

106. The following reaction

is known by the name :

(1) Friedel-Craft's reaction (2) Perkin's reaction
(3) Acetylation reaction following (4) Schotten-Baumen reaction
reaction

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CODE - (D) | DATE: 25-07-2015 AIPMT-2015 Chemistry

Ans. (4)

Sol. Name reaction

107. In the extraction of copper from its sulphide ore, the metal finally obtained by the reduction of cuprous oxide
with :
(1) iron (II) sulphide (2) carbon monoxide
(3) copper (I) sulphide (4) sulphur dioxide
Ans. (3)

108. If Avogadro number NA, is changed from 6.022 × 1023 mol–1 to 6.022 × 1020 mol–1 this would change :
(1) the definition of mass in units of grams
(2*) the mass of one mole of carbon
(3) the ration of chemical species to each other in a balanced equation.
(4) the ratio of elements to each other in a compound

109. The variation of the boiling point of the hydrogen halides is in the order HF > HI > HBr > HCl.
What explains the higher boiling point of hydrogen fluoride ?
(1) The electronegativity of fluorine is much higher than for other elements in the group.
(2) There is strong hydrogen bonding between HF molecules
(3) The bond energy of HF molecules is greater than in other hydrogen halides.
(4) The effect of nuclear shielding is much reduced in fluorine which polarises the HF molecule.
Ans. (2)

110. Which of the following reaction (s) can be used for the preparation of alkyl halideds ?
anh. ZnCl2
(I) CH3CH2OH + HCl   
(II) CH3CH2OH + HCl 

(III) (CH3)3COH + HCl 

(IV) (CH3)2CHOH + HCl  anh. ZnCl2

 
(1) (I), (III) and (IV) only (2) (I) and (II) only
(3) (IV) only (4) (III) and (IV) only
Ans. (1)
Sol. Lucas reagent in I & IV while SN1 in III

111. The name of complex ion, [Fe(CN)6]3– is :

(1) Hexacyanoiron (III) ion (2) Hexacyanitoferrate (III) ion
(3) Tricyanoferrate (III) ion (4) Hexacyanidoferrate (III) ion
Ans. (4)

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CODE - (D) | DATE: 25-07-2015 AIPMT-2015 Chemistry

112. Assuming complete ionization, same moles of which of the following compounds will require the least amount
of acidified KMnO4 for complete oxidation

(1*) FeSO4 (2) FeSO3 (3) FeC2O4 (4) Fe(NO2)2

Ans. (1)

113. In which of the following pairs, both the species are not isostructural ?
(1) SiCl4, PCl4 (2) diamond, silicon carbide
(3) NH3, PH3 (4*) XeF4, XeO4
Ans. (4)

114. Caprolactum is used for the manufacture of :

(1) Nylon - 6 (2) Teflon (3) Terylene (4) Nylon - 6,6
Ans. (1)
Sol. Caprolactum is used for the manufacturing of Nylon-6

115. The hybridization involved in complex [Ni(CN)4]2– is (At. No. Ni = 28)

(1) dsp2 (2) sp3 (3) d2sp2 (4) d2sp3

Ans. (1)

116. What is the mass of precipitate formed when 50 mL of 16.9% solution of AgNO3 is mixed with 50 mL of 5.8%
NaCl solution ?
(Ag = 107.8, N = 14, O = 16, Na = 23, Cl =
35.5)(1) 28 g (2) 3.5 g (3) 7 g (4) 14 g
Ans. (3)

117. Gadolinium belongs to 4f series. It's atomic number is 64. Which of the following is the correct electronic
configuration of gadolinium ?
(1) [Xe]4f86d2 (2) [Xe]4f 95s 1 (3) [Xe] 4f 75d 16s 2 (4) [Xe] 4f 65d 26s 2
Ans. (3)

118. Which of the following is not the product of dehydration of ?

(1) (2) (3) (4)

Ans. (2)


 
–H O

2

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CODE - (D) | DATE: 25-07-2015 AIPMT-2015 Chemistry

* According to question (2) option is +

probable answer

119. A gas such as carbon monoxide would be most likely to obey the ideal gas law at :
(1) high temperatures and low pressures.
(2) low temperatures and high pressures.
(3) high temperatures and low pressures.
(4) low temperatures and low pressures.
Ans. (1)

120. The stability of +1 oxidation state among Al, Ga, In and Tl increases in the sequence :
(1) Ga < In < Al < Tl (2*) Al < Ga < In < Tl
(3) Tl < In < Ga < Al (3) In < Tl < Ga < Al
Ans. (2)

121. What is the pH of the resulting solution when equal volumes of 0.1 M NaOH and 0.01 M HCl are mixed ?
(1*) 12.65 (2) 2.0 (3) 7.0 (4) 1.04
Ans. (1)

122. Strong reducing behaviour of H3PO4 is due to :

(1) Presence of one –OH group and two P–H bonds
(2) High electron gain enthalpy of phosphourus
(3) High oxidation state of phosphorus
(4) Presence of two –OH groups and one P–H bond.
Ans. (1)

123. The number of structural isomers possible from the molecular formula C3H9N is :

(1) 4 (2) 5 (3) 2 (4) 3

Ans. (1)
Sol. Structure isomers of C3H9N are
CH3–CH2–CH2–NH2 , , CH3–NH–CH2–CH3 , Total = 4

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CODE - (D) | DATE: 25-07-2015 AIPMT-2015 Chemistry

124. Which of the following statements is not correct for a nucleophile ?

(1) Nucleophile is a Lewis acid
(2) Ammonia is a nucleophile
(3) Nucleophiles attack low e– density sites
(4) Nucleophiles are not electron seeking.
Ans. (1)

125. Number of possible isomers for the complex [Co(en)2Cl2]Cl will be

(en = ethylenediamine)
(1) 2 (2) 1 (3) 3 (4) 4
Ans. (3)

126. Which is the correct order of increasing energy of the listed orbitals in the atom of titanium ?
(1) 3s 4s 3p 3d (2) 4s 3s 3p 3d (3) 3s 3p 3d 4s (4) 3s 3p 4s 3d
Ans. (3)

127. In an SN1 reaction on chiral centres there is :

(1) 100 % racemization
(2) inversion more than retention leading to partial racemization
(3) 100 % retention
(4) 100 % inversion
Ans. (2)
Sol. Inversion product will be more than retention product due to close ion pair formation.

128. The vacant space in bcc lattice cell is :

(1) 26 % (2) 48 % (3) 23 % (4) 32 %
Ans. (4)

129. the heat of combustion of carbon to CO2 is –393.5 kJ/mol. The heat released upon formation of 35.2 g of CO2
from carbon and oxygen gas is
(1) –315 kJ (2) +315kJ (3) –630 kJ (4) –3.15 kJ
Ans. (1)

130. Aqueous solution of which of the following compounds is the best conductor of electric current ?
(1) Acetic acid, C2H4O2 (2*) Hydrochloric acid, HCl
(3) Ammonia, NH3 (4) Fructose, C6H12O6

Ans. (2)

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CODE - (D) | DATE: 25-07-2015 AIPMT-2015 Chemistry

131. The oxidation of benzene by V2O5 in presence of air produces :

(1) benzoic anhydride (2) maleic anhydride
(3) benzoic acid (4) benzaldehyde
Ans. (2)

132. Reaction of a carbonyl compound with one of the following reagents involves nucleophilic addition followed by
elimination of water. The reagent is :
(1) a Grignard reagent (2) hydrazine in presence of feebly acidic solution
(3) hydrocyanic acid (4) sodium hydrogen sulphite
Ans. (2)
Sol. With Ammonia derivation carbonyl compounds give addition followed by elimination reaction. Sligtly acidic
medium will generate a nucleophilic centre for weak base like ammonia derivatives.

133. Method by which Aniline cannot be prepared is :

(1) hydrolysis of phenylisocyanide with acidic solution
(2) degradation of benzamide with bromine in alkaline solution
(3) reduction of nitrobenzene with H2/Pd in ethanol
(4) potassium salt of phthalimide treated with chlorobenzene followed by hydrolysis with aqueous NaOH
solution.
Ans. (4)
Sol. Chlorine of chlorobenzene is inert towards nucleophile, which is phthalimide ion.

134. Two possible stereo-structures of

CH3CHOH.COOH, which are optically active, are called.
(1) Diastereomers (2) Atropisomers
(3) Enantiomers (4) Mesomers
Ans. (3)

135. The correct statement regarding defects in crystalline solid is :

(1) Schottky defects have no effect on the density of crystalline solids
(2) Frenkel defects decrease the density of crystalline solids
(3*) Frenkel defect is a dislocation defect.
(4) Frenkel defect is found in halides of alkaline metals.
Ans. (3)

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CODE - (D) | DATE: 25-07-2015 AIPMT-2015 Physics

PART C : PHYSICS


136. The position vector of a particle R as a function of time is given by:

R = 4sin(2t) î + 4cos(2t) ĵ

Where R is in meters, t is seconds and î and ĵ denote unit vectors along x-and y-directions, respectively..
Which one of the following statements is wrong for the motion of particle?

v2
(1) Magnitude of acceleration vector is , where v is the velocity of particle
R
(2) Magnitude of the velocity of particle is 8 meter/second
(3) path of the particle is a circle of radius 4 meter.

(4) Acceleration vector is along - R


R = 4sin(2t) î + 4cos(2t) ĵ
Sol. (2)
x = 45 m 2t, y = 4 cos (2t)
Squiring and adding x2 + y2 = 42  R=4
Circular motion
V = R = (2) (4) = 8
So, Ans. is (2)

137. The energy of the em waves is of the oder of 15 ke V. To which part of the spectrum does it belong?
(1) Infra-red rays (2) Ultraviolet rays
(3) -rays (4) X-ray
Sol. (4)
E of x-ray E (100 ev to 100 kev)

138. A beam of light consisting of red, green and blue colours is incident on a right angled prism. The refractive
index of the material of the prism for the above red, green and blue wavelengths are 1.39, 1.44 and 1.47,
respectively.

The prism will:

(1) separate all the three colours from one another
(2) not separate the three colours at all
(3) separate the red colour part from the green and blue colours
(4) separate the blue coloure part from the red and green colours

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CODE - (D) | DATE: 25-07-2015 AIPMT-2015 Physics

Sol. (3)

For TIR i > ic so sin i > sin ic

1
sin 450 >   2   > 1.414

Since of green and voilet are greater than 1.414 so they will total internal refrected. But red colour will be
vetracted
So Ans. is (3)

 
139. Two particles A and B, move with constant velocities v 1 and v 2 . At the initial moment their position vector are
 
r1 and r2 respectively. The condition for particles A and B for their collision is:
       
(1) r1 .v 1  r2 .v 2 (2) r1  v 1  r2  v 2
   
    r1  r2 v 2  v1
(3) r1  r2  v 1  v 2 (4) r  r
    
1 2 v 2  v1
Sol. (4)


For collision V B / A should be along B  A ( rA / B )

   
V2  V1 r1  r2
So, = |r r |
| V2  V1 | 1 2

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CODE - (D) | DATE: 25-07-2015 AIPMT-2015 Physics

140. At the first minimum adjacent to the central maximum of a single-slit diffraction pattern, the phase difference
between the Huygen's wavelet from the edge of the slit and the wavelet from the midpoint of the slit is :

  
(1) radian (2)  radian (3) radian (4) radian
2 8 4
Sol. (2)
For first minima
AP - BP = 


AP - MP =
2
2 
So phase difference =  
 2

141. A proton and an alpha particle both enter a region of uniform magnetic field B, moving at right angles to field B.
If the radius of circular orbits for both the particles is equal and the kinetic energy acquired by proton is 1 MeV
the energy acquired by the alpha particle will b:
(1) 0.5 MeV (2) 1.5 MeV (3) 1 MeV (4) 4 MeV
Sol. (3)

mV 2m(kE)
R= 
qB qB

q2
Since R is same so KE 
m
(2)2
So KE of  particle will be = same = 1 MeV
4
Ans. is (3)

142. A circuit contains an ammeter, a batter of 30 V and a resistance 40.8 ohm all connected in series. If the
ammeter has a coil of resistance 480 ohm and a shunt of 20 ohm, the reading in the ammeter will be:
(1) 0.25 A (2) 2A (3) 1 A (4) 0.5 A
Sol. (4)

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CODE - (D) | DATE: 25-07-2015 AIPMT-2015 Physics

480  20
Resitance of ammeter = = 19.2 .
480  20

30
i= = 0.5 A
40.8  19.2
Ans. is (4)

143. The value of coefficient of volume expansion of glycerin is 5 × 10–4 K–1. The fractional chage in the density of
glycerin for a rise of 40°C in its temperature, is:
(1) 0.020 (2) 0.025 (3) 0.010 (4) 0.015
Sol. (1)
 = 0 (1 - t)

 0 = T = (5 × 10 ) (40) = 0.02
–4

Ans. is (1)

144. An ideal gas is compressed to half its initial volume by measns of several processes. Which of the process
results in the maximum work done on the gas?
(1) Isobaric (2) Isochoric (3) Isothermal (4) Adiabatic
Sol. (4)

Since area under the curve is max for adiabatic process so work done on the gas will be max for adiabatic
process.

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CODE - (D) | DATE: 25-07-2015 AIPMT-2015 Physics

145. A series R-C circuit is connected to an alternating voltage source. Consider two situation:
(a) When capacitor is air filled.
(b) When capacitor is mica filled.
Current through resistor is i and voltage across capacitor is V then :
(1) Va > Vb (2) ia > ib (3) Va = Vb (4) Va < Vb
Sol. (1)

v
2
i= 2 1 
R  
 c 

v  1 
 
 1   c 
2
VC = 2
R  
 c 

V
VC =
(Rc) 2  1
If we fill a di-electric material
C  VC 
Ans is (1)

146. Light of wavelength 500 nm is incident on a metal with work function 2.28 eV. The de Broglie wavelength of the
emitted electron is:
(1) < 2.8 × 10–9 m (2)  2.8 × 10–9 m (3)  2.8 × 10–12 m (4) < 2.8 × 10–10 m
Sol. (2)
hc
KEmax = –


1240
KEmax = – 2.82
500
KEmax = 2.48 – 2.28 = 0.2 ev

20
h  10 34
min = 2m(KE) = 3
max 2  9  10 31  0.2 1.6  10 19

25
min = 10 9 = 2.80 × 10–9 nm so  2.8 × 10–9 m
9
Ans. (2)

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CODE - (D) | DATE: 25-07-2015 AIPMT-2015 Physics

147. Two metal wires of identical dimension are connected in series. If 1 and 2 are the conductivities of the metal
wires respectively, the effective conductivity of the combination is :

1   2 1   2 1  2 21  2
(1) 2  (2)   (3)    (4)   
1 2 1 2 1 2 1 2

Sol. (4)

   eq
Rec =  A   A =  A
1 2 eq eq

2   1   2 
=  
 eq A A  1 2 

21 2
 eq =
1   2
Ans. (4)

148. An automobile moves on a road with a speed of 54 km h–1. The radius of its wheels is 0.45 m and the moment
of inertia of the wheel about its axis of rotation is 3 kg m2. If the vehicle is brought to rest in 15s, the magnitude
of average torque transmitted by its brakes to the wheel is :
(1) 8.58 kg m2 s–2 (2) 10.86 kg m2 s–2 (3) 2.86 kg m2 s–2 (4) 6.66 kg m2 s–2
Sol. (4)
15 100
i = = f = 0
0.45 3
f = i + t
100 100
0= + (–) (15) =
3 45

100
 = (I) () = 3 × = 6.66 N.m.
45

149. A source of sound S emitting waves of frequency 100 Hz and an observor O are located at some distance from
each other. The source is moving with a speed of 19.4 ms–1 at an angle of 60° with the source observer line as
shown in the figure. The observor is at rest. The apparent frequency observod by the observer (velocity of sound
in air 330 ms–1) is:

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CODE - (D) | DATE: 25-07-2015 AIPMT-2015 Physics

(1) 103 Hz (2) 106 Hz (3) 97 Hz (4) 100 Hz

Sol. (1)

 vv 
t1 = f0  v  v 

 s 

 v 0 
f1 = 100  
 v   9.7  
v
f = 100 v 1  9.7 
1 
 v 

 9.7 
f1 = 100  1   = 103 Hz
 330 

150. On a frictionless surface a block of mass M moving at speed v collides elastically with another block of same
mass M which is initially at rest. After collision the first block moves at an angle  to its initial direction and has
v
a speed . The second block's speed after the collision is :
3

3 3 3 2 2
(1) v (2) v (3) v (4) v
4 2 2 3
Sol. (4)

 
Pi  Pf
2
 V 2 2 2
 Pi = Pf  = mV =  m    mV2  V2 = V Ans.
 3  3

151. Point masses m 1 and m 2 are placed at the opposite ends of a rigid of length L, and negligible mass. The
rod is to be set rotating about an axis perpendicular to it. The position of point P on this rod through
which the axis should pass so that the work required to set the rod rotating with angular velocity 0 is
minimum, is given by :

m1 m2 m2L m1L
(1) x  m L (2) x  m L (3) x  m  m (4) x  m  m
2 1 1 2 1 2

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CODE - (D) | DATE: 25-07-2015 AIPMT-2015 Physics

Sol. (3)
1
K.E. = I 2
2
I is min. about the centre of mass
So. (m1) (x) = (m2) (L–x)
m 2L
x = m m
1 2

152. A ball is thrown vertically downwards from a height of 20 m with an initial velocity v0. It collides with the ground
loses 50 percent of its energy in collision and rebounds to the same height. The initial velocity v0 is :
(Take g = 10 ms–2)
(1) 20 ms–1 (2) 28 ms–1 (3) 10 ms–1 (4) 14 ms–1
Sol. (1)
KE f 1

KEi 2

Vf 1

Vi 2

2gh 1

2
V  2gh
0
2

V0 = 20 m sec

153. A nucleus of uranium decays at rest into nuclei of thorium and helium. Then :
(1) The helium nucleus has less momentum than the thorium nucleus.
(2) The helium nucleus has more momentum than the thorium nucleus.
(3) The helium nucleus has less kinetic energy than the thorium nucleus.
(4) The helium nucleus has more kinetic energy than the thorium nucleus.
Sol. (4)
U  Th + 
P2 P2
KE Th   , KE 
2m Th 2m 
sinc m is less so KE will be mone

154. An electron moves on a straight line path XY as shown. The abcd is a coil adjacent to the path of electron.
What will be the direction of current if any, induced in the coil.
(1) adcb
(2) The current will reverse its direction as the electron goes past the coil
(3) No current induced
(4) abcd

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CODE - (D) | DATE: 25-07-2015 AIPMT-2015 Physics

Sol. (2)

When e– comes closer the induced current will be anticlockwise

When e– comes farther induced current will be clockwise

155. A particle is executing a simple harmonic motion. Its maximum acceleration is  and maximum velocity is .
Then its time period of vibration will be :
 2 2 2
(1) (2) (3) (4)
   2
Sol. (3)
2 A = 
A = 

 =


2 2
T= 
 

156. Two slits in Youngs experiment have widths in the ratio 1 : 25. The ratio of intensity at the maximum and
max
minima in the interference pattern,  is :

121 49 4 9
(1) (2) (3) (4)
49 121 9 4
Sol. (4)
1 25 A1 5
 
2 1  A 2 1

A max 5  1 6 3
 
A min 5 – 1 = 4 2

max  3 2 9
min =  2 

4

157. If potential (in volts) in a region is expressed as V(x, y, z) = 6 xy – y + 2yz, the electric field (in N/C) at point
(1, 1, 0) is :
(1) –(6î  5 ĵ  2k̂) (2) –(2î  3 ĵ  k̂) (3) –(6î  9 ĵ  k̂) (4) –(3î  5 ĵ  3k̂)
Sol. (1)
V = 6xy – y + 24z
  V  V  V  
E I j k
 x y z 
    

E   6y  I  6x  1 2z  j  2y  k 
 

E = –(6î  5 ĵ  2k̂)
(1,1,0)

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CODE - (D) | DATE: 25-07-2015 AIPMT-2015 Physics

158. A parallel plate air capacitor has capacity 'C' distance of separation between plates is 'd' and potential differ-
ence 'V' is applied between the plates. Force of attraction between the plates of the parallel plate air capacitor
is :
CV 2 CV 2 C2 V 2 C2 V 2
(1) (2) (3) (4)
2d d 2d2 2d2
Sol. (1)
Attraction between the plates
q2 0 A
F= where q = CV and C =
2A0 d

C2 V 2 CV 2
F= 
2Cd 2d

159. A plank with a box on it at one end is gradually raised about the other end. As the angle of inclination with the
horizontal reaches 30º the box starts to slip and slides 4.0 m down the plank in 4.0s. The coefficients of static
and kinetic friction between the box and the plank will be, respectively :

(1) 0.6 rFkk0.5 (2) 0.5 rFkk0.6 (3) 0.4 rFkk0.3 (4) 0.6 rFkk0.6
Sol. (1)
1
s = tan 30º =  0.5
3
s = 0.57 = 0.6
1 2
S = ut + at
2
1 1
4= a(4)2  a = = 0.5
2 2
a = gsin – k (g) cos
0.9
K = = 0.5
3

160. In the spectrum of hydrogen, the ratio of the longest wavelength in the Lyman series to the longest wavelength
in the Balmer series is
9 27 5 4
(1) (2) (3) (4)
4 5 27 9
Sol. (3)
1  1 1 
 Re  2 – 2 
1 1 2 

1  1 1 
 Re  2 – 2 
2 2 3 

1 5

2 27

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CODE - (D) | DATE: 25-07-2015 AIPMT-2015 Physics

161. In the given figure, a diode D is connected to an external resistance R = 100  and an e.m.f. of 3.5 V. If the
barrier potential developed across the diode is 0.5 V ,the current in the circuit will be:

(1) 40 mA (2) 20 mA (3) 35 mA (4) 30 mA

Sol. (4)
(3.5 – 0.5)
Current = A
100
3
 A  30mA
100

162. A satellite S is moving in an elliptical orbit around the earth. The mass of the satellite is very small compared
to the mass of the earth. Then,
(1) the total mechanical energy of S varies periodically with time.
(2) the linear momentum of S remains constant in magnitude.
(3) the acceleration of S is always directed towards the centre of the earth.
(4) the angular momentum of S about the centre of the earth changes in direction, but its magnitude remains
constant.
Sol. (3)
The gravitation force on the satelite will be aiming toward the centre of earth so aceleration of the satelite will
also be aiming toward the centre of earth


A force F   î  3 ĵ  6k̂ is acting at a point r  2î – 6 ĵ – 12k̂ . The value of  for which angular momentum

163.
about origin is conserved is :
(1) 2 (2) zero (3) 1 (4) –1
Sol. (4)

 
If If L  cons tan t then   0

    3 6
so r  F  0  F should be parallel to r so coefficient should be in same ratio.So
  
2 –6 –12
So –Ans (4)

164. A potentiometer wire of length L and a resistance r are connected in series with a battery of e.m.f. E0 and a
resistance r1. An unknown e.m.f. E is balanced at a length l of the potentiometer wire. The e.m.f. E will be given
by :
E0r l E0 l LE0r LE0r
(1) (r  r ) . L (2) (3) (r  r )l (4) lr1
1 L 1

Sol. (1)
 E0 r  1
K = potential gradient =  r  r  L
 1

E0r
so E = K  =
(r  r1)L

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CODE - (D) | DATE: 25-07-2015 AIPMT-2015 Physics

165. 4.0 g of a gas occupies 22.4 litres at NTP. The specific heat capacity of the gas at constant volume is
5.0JK–1. IF the speed of sound in this gas at NTP is 952 ms–1, then the heat capacity at constant pressure is
(Take gas constant R = 8.3 JK–1 mol–1)
(1) 7.5 JK–1 mol–1 (2) 7.0 JK–1 mol–1 (3) 8.5 JK–1 mol–1 (4) 8.0 JK–1 mol–1
Sol. (4)
No. of mole of gas = 1 so molar mass = 4g/mole
RT   3.3  273 16 8
V=  952  952   =1.6 = 
m 4  10 –3 10 5

CP 8 85
  os CP =  8jk –1mole –1
CV 5 5

r
166. Two stones of masses m and 2 m are whirled in horizontal circles the heavier one in radius and the lighter
2
one in radius r. The tangential speed of lighter stone is n times that of the value of heavier stone when they
experience same centripetal forces. The value of n is :
(1) 3 (2) 4 (3) 1 (4) 2
Sol. (4)
2
mv 1 2mv 22 4mv 22
FC =  
r (r / 2) r
so v1 = 2v2

167. A remote - sensing satellite of earth revolves in a circular orbit at a height of 0.25 × 106 m above the surface of
earth. If earth's radius is 6.38 × 106 m and g = 9.8 ms–2, then the orbital speed of the satellite is :
(1) 8.56 km s–1 (2) 9.13 km s–1 (3) 6.67 km s–1 (4) 7.76 km s–1
Sol. (4)

GM GM R 2
V0   .
r R2 r

9.8  6.38  6.38

= 6
 60 10 6 m / sec
6.63  10
= 7.76 km/sec

168. A string is stretched between fixed points separated by 75.0 cm. It is observed to have resonant frequencies
of 420 Hz and 315 Hz. There are no other resonant frequencies between these two. The lowest resonant
frequency for this string is :
(1) 205 Hz (2) 10.5 Hz (3) 105 Hz (4) 155 Hz
Sol. (3)
Fundamental frequency = highest common factor = 105Hz

169. The coefficient of performance of a refrigerator is 5 if the temperature inside freezer is –20°C, is temperature of
the surroundings to which it rejects heat is
(1) 41°C (2) 11°C (3) 21°C (4) 31°C
Sol. (4)
q1 q2 TC
cop    5
w q1 – q2 TH – T C
TC = 5TH – 5TC
6TC = 5TH
6
TH =  253k = 303.6 k = 30.6ºC = 31ºC
5

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CODE - (D) | DATE: 25-07-2015 AIPMT-2015 Physics

170. Water rises to a height 'h' in capillary tube. If the length of capaillary tube above the surface of water is made
less than 'h' then :
(1) water rises upto the top of capillary tube and stays there without overflowing
(2) water rises upto a point a little below the top and stays there
(3) water does not rise at all.
(4) Water rises upto the tip of capillary tube and then starts overflowing like fountain.
Sol. (1)
Water will not overflow but will change its radius of curvature.

171. Two vessels separately contain two ideal gases A and B at the same temperature the pressure of A being twice
that of B. Under such conditions, the density of A is found to be 1.5 times the density of B. The ratio of
molecular weight of A and B is :
3 1 2
(1) (2) 2 (3) (4)
4 2 3
Sol. (1)
 A MA BMB 3 PA  A MA M 3
PA   PB     = 2 A 
RT RT 2 PB B MB MB 2

MA 3
so, 
MB 4

172. Two Young's modulus of steel is twice that of brass. Two wires of same length and of same area of cross
section, one of steel and another of brass are suspended from the same roof. If we want the lower ends of the
wires to be at the same level, then the weights added to the steel and brass wires must be in the ratio of :
(1) 2 : 1 (2) 4 : 1 (3) 1 : 1 (4) 1 : 2

Sol. (1)

W 
Y .
A 

w
so  
AY
w1 w 2 
e1  e2 
AY1 AY2

w1 Y1
 2
w 2 Y2

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CODE - (D) | DATE: 25-07-2015 AIPMT-2015 Physics

 
173. The input signal given to a CE amplifier having a voltage gain of 150 is Vi = 2 cos  15t   . The corresponding
 3 
output signal will be :
 2   5   4   
(1) 75 cos15t   (2) 2cos15t   (3) 300 cos15t   (4) 300 cos15t  
 3   6   3   3

Sol. (3)
  
CE amplifier causes phase difference of  (= 180º) so Vout = 300 cos  1 5 t    
 3 

174. In an astronomical telescope in normal adjustment a straight black line of lenght L is drawn on inside part of
objective lens. The eye-piece forms a real image of this line. The length of this image is I. The magnification of
the telescope is :
L LI L L
(1) –1 (2) (3) (4) 1
I L–I I I
Sol. (3)

Magnification by eyepiece
f
m
f u

 fe  fe
–   L  f
L fe  (–(f0  fe ) 0

f0 L
m.p.  
fe 

175. The heart of man pumps 5 litres of through the arteries per minute at a pressure of 150 mm of mercury. If the
density of mercury be 13.6 ×103 kg/m3 and g = 10m/s2 then the power of heart in watt is :
(1) 2.35 (2) 3.0 (3) 1.50 (4) 1.70
Sol. (4)
  
power = F.V  PAV  ghAV
102
= 13.6 ×103 × 10 × 150 × 10–3 × 0.5 × 10–3 / 60 watt = watt  1.70watt
60

176. If dimensions of critical velocity c of a liquid flowing through a tube are expressed as [ x  yr x ] , where ,  and
r are the coefficient of viscosity of liquid, density of liquid and radius of the tube respectively, then the values of
x, y and z are given by :
(1) –1, –1, 1 (2) –1, –1, –1 (3) 1,1,1 (4) 1, –1, –1

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CODE - (D) | DATE: 25-07-2015 AIPMT-2015 Physics

Sol. (4)
VC = xyrz
R
critical velocity is given by VC 
2r
so, x = 1
y = –1 z = –1

177. A photoelectric surface is illuminated successively by monochromatic light of wavelength  and . If the
2
maximum kinetic energy of the emitted photoelectrons in the second case is 3 times that in the first case, the
work function of the surface of the material is :
(h = Planck's constant, c = speed of light)
hc 2hc hc hc
(1) (2) (3) (4)
  3 2
Sol. (4)
hc 2hc 3hc
k1  – k 2  3k1  –  – 3
  
hc hc
so 2  so  
 2

178. The cylindrical tube of a spray pump has radius, R, one end of which has n fine holes, each of radius r. If the
speed of the liquid in the tube is V, the speed of the ejection of the liquid through the holes is :
VR 2 VR 2 V 2R VR 2
(1) (2) (3) (4)
nr 2 n 3r 2 nr n 2r 2
Sol. (1)
Volume inflow rate = volume anflow rate
R 2 V VR 2
R2V = nr2 (v)  v 2

nr nr 2

If vectors A  cos t î  sin t ĵ and B  cos t î  sin t ĵ are functions of time, then the value of t at
 
179.
2 2
which they are orthogonal to each other is :
  
(1) t  (2) t  (3) t = 0 (4) t 
2  4
Sol. (2)

A  cos wt î  sin wt ĵ
 wt wt
B  cos î  sin ĵ
2 2
 
for A.B  0
  wt wt
A.B  0  cos wt.cos  sin wt.sin
2 2

 wt   wt 
= cos  wt –   cos  
 2   2 

wt  
so   t
2 2 w

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CODE - (D) | DATE: 25-07-2015 AIPMT-2015 Physics

180. A rectangular coil of length 0.12 m and width 0.1 m having 50 turns of wire is suspended vertically in a uniform
magnetic field of strength 0.2 Weber/m2. The coil carries a current of 2A. If the plane of the coil is inclined at
an angle of 30° with the direction of the field, the torque required to keep the coil in stable equilibrium will be :
(1) 0.20 Nm (2) 0.24 Nm (3) 0.12 Nm (4) 0.15 Nm
Sol. (1)

  
  M  B  MB sin 60º
= Ni AB sin 60º
3
= 50 × 2 × 0.12 × 0.1 × 0.2 ×
2
= 12 3 10 –2 Nm = 0.20784 Nm

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