IAS BABA PEP 2023 - UPSC CSE PRELIMS PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS (2013- 2022)

TOPIC: Polity

ANALYTICS POLITY PYQS

2013-2022
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2013 2014 2015 2016 2017 2018 2019 2020 2021 2022

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 IAS BABA PEP 2023 - UPSC CSE PRELIMS PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS (2013- 2022)

Year – 2013 No. of Questions - 18 c) Tahsildar /Block Development Officer /

Mandai Revenue Officer
Q.1 With reference to National Legal Services d) Gram Sabha
Authority, consider the following statements:
Q.4 ‘Economic Justice’ the objectives of
1. Its objective is to provide free and Constitution has been as one of the Indian
competent legal services to the weaker provided in
sections of the society on the basis of
equal opportunity. a) the Preamble and Fundamental Rights
2. It issues guidelines for the State Legal b) the Preamble and the Directive Principles
Services Authorities to implement the of State Policy
legal programs and schemes throughout c) the Fundamental Rights and the Directive
the country. Principles of State Policy
d) None of the above
Which of the statements given above is / are
correct? Q.5 Consider the following statements

a) 1 only 1. An amendment to the Constitution of

b) 2 only India can be initiated by an introduction of
c) Both 1 and 2 a bill in the Lok Sabha only.
d) Neither 1 nor 2 2. If such an amendment seeks to make
changes in the federal character of the
Q.2 With reference to Indian History, the Constitution, the amendment also
Members of the Constituent Assembly from the requires to be ratified by the legislature of
Provinces were all the States of India.

a) directly elected by the people of those Which of the statements given above is/are
Provinces correct?
b) nominated by the Indian National
Congress and the Muslim League a) 1 only
c) elected by the Provincial Legislative b) 2 only
Assemblies c) Both 1 and 2
d) selected by the Government for their d) Neither 1 nor 2
expertise in constitutional matters
Q.6 According to the Constitution of India, which
Q.3 Under the Scheduled Tribes and Other of the following are fundamental for the
Traditional Forest Dwellers (Recognition of Forest governance of the country?
Rights) Act, 2006, who shall be the authority to
a) Fundamental Rights
initiate the process for determining the nature
b) Fundamental Duties
and extent of individual or community forest
c) Directive Principles of State Policy
rights or both?
d) Fundamental Rights and Fundamental
a) State Forest Department Duties
b) District Collector/Deputy Commissioner

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 IAS BABA PEP 2023 - UPSC CSE PRELIMS PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS (2013- 2022)

Q.7 Consider the following statements: b) The Judges of the High Court of the States
in India are appointed by the Governor of
1. The Council of Ministers in the Centre the State just as the Judges of the
shall be collectively responsible to the Supreme Court are appointed by the
Parliament. President
2. The Union Ministers shall hold the office c) No procedure has been laid down in the
during the pleasure of the President of Constitution of India for the removal of a
India. Governor from his/her post
3. The Prime Minister shall communicate to d) In the case of a Union Territory having a
the President about the proposals for legislative setup, the Chief Minister is
Legislation. appointed by the Lt. Governor on the
basis of majority support
Which of the statements given above is/are
correct? Q.10 Consider the following statements:

a) only 1 Attorney General of India can

b) only 2 and 3
c) only 1 and 3 1. take part in the proceedings of the Lok
d) 1, 2 and 3 Sabha
2. be a member of a committee of the Lok
Q.8 In the context of India, which of the following Sabha
principles is/are implied institutionally in the 3. speak in the Lok Sabha
parliamentary government? 4. vote in the Lok Sabha

1. Members of the Cabinet are Members of Which of the statements given above is/are
the Parliament. correct?
2. Ministers hold the office till they enjoy
confidence in the Parliament. a) 1 only
3. The Cabinet is headed by the Head of the b) 2 and 4
State. c) 1, 2 and 3
d) 1 and 3 only
Select the correct answer using the codes given
below. Q.11 Consider the following statements:

a) 1 and 2 only The Parliamentary Committee on Public Accounts

b) 3 only (PAC)
c) 2 and 3 only
d) 1, 2 and 3 1. consists of not more than 25 Members of
the Lok Sabha
Q.9 Which one of the following statements is 2. scrutinizes appropriation and finance
correct? accounts of Government
3. examines the report of CAG.
a) In India, the same person cannot be
appointed as Governor for two or more Which of the statements given above is / are
States at the same time correct? `
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 IAS BABA PEP 2023 - UPSC CSE PRELIMS PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS (2013- 2022)

a) 1 only Q.15 Who among the following constitute the

b) 2 and 3 only National Development Council?
c) 3 only
d) 1, 2 and 3 1. The Prime Minister
2. The Chairman, Finance Commission
Q.12 The Parliament can make any law for whole 3. Ministers of the Union Cabinet
or any part of India for implementing 4. Chief Ministers of the States
international treaties
Select the correct answer using the codes given
a) with the consent of all the States below:
b) with the consent of the majority of States
c) with the consent of the States concerned a) 1, 2 and 3 only
d) without the consent of any State b) 1, 3 and 4 only
c) 2 and 4 only
Q.13 What will follow if a Money Bill is d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
substantially amended by the Rajya Sabha?
Q.16 Consider the following statements:
a) The Lok Sabha may still proceed with the
Bill, accepting or not accepting the 1. The National Development Council is an
recommendations of the Rajya Sabha organ of the Planning Commission.
b) The Lok Sabha cannot consider the Bill 2. The Economic and Social Planning is kept
further in the Concurrent List in the Constitution
c) The Lok Sabha may send the Bill to the of India.
Rajya Sabha for reconsideration 3. The Constitution of India prescribes that
d) The President may call a joint sitting for Panchayats should be assigned the task of
passing the Bill preparation of plans for economic
development and social justice.
Q.14 Consider the following statements:
Which of the statements given above is/are
1. The Chairman and the Deputy Chairman correct?
of the Rajya Sabha are not the members
of that House. a) 1 only
2. While the nominated members of the two b) 2 and 3 only
Houses of the Parliament have no voting c) 1 and 3 only
right in the presidential election, they d) 1,2 and 3
have the right to vote in the election of
Q.17 The Government enacted the Panchayat
the Vice President.
Extension to Scheduled Areas (PESA) Act in 1996.
Which of the statements given above is/are Which one of the following is not identified as its
correct? objective?
a) To provide self-governance
a) 1 only b) To recognize traditional rights
b) 2 only c) To create autonomous regions in tribal
c) Both 1 and 2 areas
d) Neither 1 nor 2 d) To free tribal people from exploitation
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 IAS BABA PEP 2023 - UPSC CSE PRELIMS PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS (2013- 2022)

Q.18 Which of the following bodies does not/do Which of the statements given above is/are
not find mention in the Constitution? correct?

1. National Development Council a) 1 only

2. Planning Commission b) 2 only
3. Zonal Councils c) Both 1 and 2
d) Neither 1 nor 2
Select the correct answer using the codes given
below. Q.3 In the Constitution of India, promotion of
international peace and security is included in the
a) 1 and 2 only
b) 2 only a) Preamble to the Constitution
c) 1 and 3 only b) Directive Principles of State Policy (DPSP)
d) 1, 2 and 3 c) Fundamental Duties
d) Ninth Schedule
Year – 2014 No. of Questions - 11
Q.4 Which of the following are the discretionary
Q.1 Consider the following statements: A powers given to the Governor of a State?
Constitutional Government is one which
1. Sending a report to the President of India
1. Places effective restrictions on individual for imposing the President’s rule
liberty in the interest of State Authority 2. Appointing the Ministers
2. Places effective restrictions on the 3. Reserving certain bills passed by the State
Authority of the State in the interest of Legislature for consideration of the
individual liberty President of India
4. Making the rules to conduct the business
Which of the statements given above is/are
of the State Government
correct?
Select the correct answer using the code given
a) 1 only
below.
b) 2 only
c) Both 1 and 2 a) 1 and 2 only
d) Neither 1 nor 2 b) 1 and 3 only
c) 2, 3 and 4 only
Q.2 Consider the following statements:
d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
1. The President shall make rules for the
Q.5 Which of the following is/are the
more convenient transaction of the
function/functions of the Cabinet Secretariat?
business of the Government of India, and
for the allocation among Ministers of the 1. Preparation of agenda for Cabinet
said business. Meetings
2. All executive actions of the Government 2. Secretarial assistance to Cabinet
of India shall be expressed to be taken in Committees
the name of the Prime Minister. 3. Allocation of financial resources to the
Ministries
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 IAS BABA PEP 2023 - UPSC CSE PRELIMS PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS (2013- 2022)

Select the correct answer using the code given b) 2 only

below. c) Both 1 and 2
d) Neither 1 nor 2
a) 1 only
b) 2 and 3 only Q.9 Which one of the following Schedules of the
c) 1 and 2 only Constitution of India contains provisions
d) 1, 2 and 3 regarding anti-defection?

Q.6 Which of the following are associated with a) Second Schedule

‘Planning’ in India? b) Fifth Schedule
c) Eighth Schedule
1. The Finance Commission d) Tenth Schedule
2. The National Development Council
3. The Union Ministry of Rural Development Q.10 The power to increase the number of judges
4. The Union Ministry of Urban Development in the Supreme Court of India is vested in
5. The Parliament
a) the President of India
Select the correct answer using the code given b) the Parliament
below. c) the Chief Justice of India
d) the Law Commission
a) 1, 2 and 5 only
b) 1, 3 and 4 only Q.11 The power of the Supreme Court of India to
c) 2 and 5 only decide disputes between the Centre and the
d) 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5 States falls under its

Q.7 Which one of the following is the largest a) advisory jurisdiction

Committee of the Parliament? b) appellate jurisdiction.
c) original jurisdiction
a) The Committee on Public Accounts d) writ jurisdiction
b) The Committee on Estimates
c) The Committee on Public Undertakings Year – 2015 No. of Questions - 13
d) The Committee on Petitions
Q.1 There is a Parliamentary System of
Q.8 Consider the following statements regarding Government in India because the
a No-Confidence Motion in India:
a) Lok Sabha is elected directly by the people
1. There is no mention of a No-Confidence b) Parliament can amend the constitution
Motion in the Constitution of India. c) Rajya Sabha cannot be dissolved
2. A Motion of No-Confidence can be d) Council of Ministers is responsible to the
introduced in the Lok Sabha only. Lok Sabha

Which of the statements given above is/are Q.2 Consider the following Statements regarding
correct? the DPSP/ Directive Principles of State Policy:

a) 1 only

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 IAS BABA PEP 2023 - UPSC CSE PRELIMS PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS (2013- 2022)

1. The Principles spell out the socio- 4. Financial mobilization

economic democracy in the country
2. The provisions contained in these Select the correct answer using the code given
Principles are not enforceable by any below
court.
a) 1, 2 and 3 only
Which of the statements given below is correct? b) 2 and 4 only
c) 1 and 3 only
a. 1 only d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
b. 2 only
c. Both 1 & 2 Q 6. When a bill is referred to a joint sitting both
d. Neither 1 nor 2 the Houses of the Parliament, has to be passed by

Q.3 The ideal of “Welfare State” in the Indian a) a simple majority of member present and
Constitution is enshrined in its voting
b) three-fourths majority of member present
a. Preamble and voting
b. Directive Principles of State Policy c) two-thirds majority of the House
c. Fundamental Rights d) absolute majority of the House
d. Seventh Schedule
Q.7 “To uphold and protect the Sovereignty Unity
Q.4 Consider the following statements: and Integrity of India” is a provision made in the

1. The Rajya Sabha has no power either to a) Preamble of the Constitute

reject or to amend a Money Bill b) Directive Principles of State Policy
2. The Rajya Sabha cannot vote on the c) Fundamental Rights
Demands for Grants. d) Fundamental Duties
3. The Rajya Sabha cannot discuss the
Annual Financial Statement. Q.8 Consider the following statements:

Which of the statements given above is/are 1. The Executive Power of the Union of India
correct? is vested in the Prime Minister.
2. The Prime Minister is the ex officio
a. 1 only Chairman of the Civil Services Board.
b. 1 and 2 only
c. 2 and 3 only Which of the statements given above is/are
d. 1, 2 and 3 correct?

Q 5. The fundamental object of the Panchayati a) 1 only

Raj system is to ensure which among the b) 2 only
following? c) Both 1 and 2
d) Neither 1 nor 2
1. People’s participation in development
2. Political accountability Q.9 Consider the following statements:
3. Democratic decentralization

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 IAS BABA PEP 2023 - UPSC CSE PRELIMS PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS (2013- 2022)

1. The Legislative Council of a state in India 3. All the disbursements made from Public
can be larger in size than half of the Account also need the Authorization from
Legislative Assembly of that particular the Parliament of India
state.
2. The Governor of a State nominates the Which of the following statements given above
Chairman of the Legislative Council of that is/are correct?
particular state.
a) 1 and 2 only
Which of the statements given above is/are b) 2 and 3 only
correct? c) 2 only
d) 1, 2, and 3
a) 1 only
b) 2 only Q.13 India is a member of which among the
c) Both 1 and 2 following?
d) Neither 1 nor 2
1. Asia-Pacific Economic Cooperation
Q.10 The provisions in the Fifth Schedule and 2. Association of South-East Asian Nations
Sixth Schedule in the Constitution of India are 3. East Asia Summit
made in order to
Select the correct answer using the code given
a) protect the interests of Scheduled Tribes below.
b) determine the boundaries between states
a) 1 and 2 only
c) determine the powers, authorities, and
b) 3 only
responsibilities of Panchayats
c) 1, 2 and 3
d) protect the interests of all the border
d) India is a member of none of them
States
Year – 2016 No. of Questions - 9
Q.11 Who/Which of the following is the
Custodian of the Constitution of India? Q 1. Consider the following statements:

a) The President of India 1. The minimum age prescribed for any

b) The Prime Minister of India person to be a member of Panchayat is 25
c) The Lok Sabha Secretariat years.
d) The Supreme Court of India 2. A Panchayat reconstituted after
premature dissolution continues only for
Q.12 With reference to the Union Government
the remainder period.
consider the following statements.
Which of the statements given above is/are
1. The Department of Revenue is responsible
correct?
for the preparation of Union Budget that
is presented to the parliament a) 1 only
2. No amount can be withdrawn from the b) 2 only
Consolidated Fund of India without the c) Both 1 and 2
authorization of Parliament of India. d) Neither 1 nor 2

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 IAS BABA PEP 2023 - UPSC CSE PRELIMS PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS (2013- 2022)

Q 2. Which of the following statements is/are b) 2 only

correct? c) Both 1 and 2
d) Neither 1 nor 2
1. A bill pending in the Lok Sabha lapses on
its prorogation. Q.5 Consider the following statements:
2. A bill pending in the Rajya Sabha, which
has not been passed by the Lok Sabha, 1. The Chief Secretary in a State is appointed
shall not lapse on dissolution of the Lok by the Governor of that State.
Sabha. 2. The Chief Secretary in a State has a fixed
tenure
Select the correct answer using the code given
below: Which of the statements given above is/are
correct?
a) 1 only
b) 2 only a) 1 only
c) Both 1 and 2 b) 2 only
d) Neither 1 nor 2 c) Both 1 and 2
d) Neither 1 nor 2
Q 3. The Parliament of India acquires the power
to legislate on any item in the State List in the Q 6. Which of the following is/are the
national interest if a resolution to that effect is indicator/indicators used by IFPRI to compute the
passes by the Global Hunger Index Report?

a) Lok Sabha by a simple majority of its total 1. Undernourishment

membership 2. Child stunting
b) Lok Sabha by a majority of not less than 3. Child mortality
two-thirds of its total membership
Select the correct answer using the code given
c) Rajya Sabha by a simple majority of its
below.
total membership
d) RajyaSabha by a majority of not less than a) 1 only
two-thirds of its members present and b) 2 and 3 only
voting c) 1 , 2 and 3
d) 1 and 3 only
Q 4. With reference to the ‘Gram Nyayalaya Act’,
which of the following statements is/are correct? Q.7 Rashtriya Garima Abhiyaan is a national
campaign to
1. As per the Act, Gram Nyayalayas can hear
only civil cases and not criminal cases a) rehabilitate the homeless and destitute
2. The Act allows local social activists as persons and provide them with suitable
mediators/reconciliators. sources of livelihood
b) release the sex workers from their
Select the correct answer using the code given
practice and provide them with
below:
alternative sources of livelihood
a) 1 only
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 IAS BABA PEP 2023 - UPSC CSE PRELIMS PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS (2013- 2022)

c) eradicate the practice of manual Year – 2017 No. of Questions - 19

scavenging and rehabilitate the manual
scavengers Q 1. One of the implications of equality in society
d) release the bonded labourers from their is the absence of
bondage and rehabilitate them
a) Privileges
Q.8 With reference to ‘Organization for the b) Restraints
Prohibition of Chemical Weapons (OPCW)’, c) Competition
consider the following statements: d) Ideology

1. It is an organization of European Union in Q 2. Consider the following statements:

working relation with NATO and WHO.
With reference to the Constitution of India, the
2. It monitors the chemical industry to
Directive Principles of State Policy constitute
prevent new weapons from emerging.
limitations upon
3. It provides assistance and protection to
States (Parties) against chemical weapons 1. legislative function.
threats. 2. executive function.

Which of the statements given above is/are Which of the above statements is/are correct?
correct?
a) 1 only
a) 1 only b) 2 only
b) 2 and 3 only c) Both 1 and 2
c) 1 and 3 only d) Neither 1 nor 2
d) 1, 2 and 3
Q 3. With reference to the Parliament of India,
Q.9 With reference to ‘Pradhan Mantri Fasal Bima consider the following statements:
Yojana’, consider the following statements:
1. A private member’s bill is a bill presented
1. Under this scheme, farmers will have to by a Member of Parliament who is not
pay a uniform premium of two percent for elected but only nominated by the
any crop they cultivate in any season of President of India.
the year. 2. Recently, a private member’s bill has been
2. This scheme covers post-harvest losses passed in the Parliament of India for the
arising out of cyclones and unseasonal first time in its history.
rains.
Which of the statements given above is/are
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
correct?
a) 1 only
a) 1 only b) 2 only
b) 2 only c) Both 1 and 2
c) Both 1 and 2 d) Neither 1 nor 2
d) Neither 1 nor 2

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 IAS BABA PEP 2023 - UPSC CSE PRELIMS PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS (2013- 2022)

Q 4. The Parliament of India exercises control c) Rights, not Duties, are important for the
over the functions of the Council of Ministers advancement of the personality of the
through citizen.
d) Duties, not Rights, are important for the
1. Adjournment motion stability of the State.
2. Question hour
3. Supplementary questions Q.8 Democracy’s superior virtue lies in the fact
that it calls into activity
Select the correct answer using the code given
below: a) the intelligence and character of ordinary
men and women.
a) 1 only b) the methods for strengthening executive
b) 2 and 3 only leadership.
c) 1 and 3 only c) a superior individual with dynamism and
d) 1, 2 and 3 vision.
d) a band of dedicated party workers.
Q 5. The mind of the makers of the Constitution
of India is reflected in which of the following? Q.9 Which one of the following objectives is not
embodied in the Preamble to the Constitution of
a) The Preamble
India?
b) The Fundamental Rights
c) The Directive Principles of State Policy a) Liberty of thought
d) The Fundamental Duties b) Economic liberty
c) Liberty of expression
Q 6. The main advantage of the parliamentary
d) Liberty of belief
form of government is that
Q.10 Which one of the following is not a feature
a) the executive and legislature work
of Indian federalism?
independently.
b) it provides continuity of policy and is more a) There is an independent judiciary in India.
efficient. b) Powers have been clearly divided
c) the executive remains responsible to the between the Centre and the States.
legislature. c) The federating units have been given
d) the head of the government cannot be unequal representation in the Rajya
changed without election. Sabha.
d) It is the result of an agreement among the
Q.7 In the context of India, which one of the
federating units.
following is the correct relationship between
Rights and Duties? Q.11 Out of the following statements, choose the
one that brings out the principle underlying the
a) Rights are correlative with Duties.
Cabinet form of Government:
b) Rights are personal and hence
independent of society and Duties. a) An arrangement for minimizing criticism
against the Government whose

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 IAS BABA PEP 2023 - UPSC CSE PRELIMS PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS (2013- 2022)

responsibilities are complex and hard to d) 1, 2, 3 and 4

carry out to the satisfaction of all.
b) A mechanism for speeding up the Q.14 Which of the following are not necessarily
activities of the Government whose the consequences of the proclamation of the
responsibilities are increasing day by day. President’s rule in a State?
c) A mechanism of parliamentary democracy
1. Dissolution of the State Legislative
for ensuring collective responsibility of the
Assembly
Government to the people.
2. Removal of the Council of Ministers in the
d) A device for strengthening the hands of
State
the head of the Government whose hold
3. Dissolution of the local bodies
over the people is in a state of decline.
Select the correct answer using the code given
Q.12 Which of the following statements is/are
below:
true of the Fundamental Duties of an Indian
citizen? a) 1 and 2 only
b) 1 and 3 only
1. A legislative process has been provided to
c) 2 and 3 only
enforce these duties.
d) 1, 2and 3
2. They are correlative to legal duties.
Q.15 Right to vote and to be elected in India is a
Select the correct answer using the code given
below: a) Fundamental Right
b) Natural Right
a) 1 only
c) Constitutional Right
b) 2 only
d) Legal Right
c) Both 1 and 2
d) Neither 1 nor 2 Q.16 In India, Judicial Review implies

Q.13 Which of the following are envisaged by the a) the power of the Judiciary to pronounce
Right against Exploitation in the Constitution of upon the constitutionality of laws and
India? executive orders.
b) the power of the Judiciary to question the
1. Prohibition of traffic in human beings and
wisdom of the laws enacted by the
forced labour
Legislatures.
2. Abolition of untouchability
c) the power of the Judiciary to review all
3. Protection of the interests of minorities
the legislative enactments before they are
4. Prohibition of employment of children in
assented to by the President.
factories and mines
d) the power of the Judiciary to review its
Select the correct answer using the code given own judgements given earlier in similar or
below: different cases.
a) 1, 2 and 4 only
b) 2, 3 and 4 only
c) 1 and 4 only

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 IAS BABA PEP 2023 - UPSC CSE PRELIMS PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS (2013- 2022)

Q.17 Consider the following statements: b) a resident of the constituency from which
the election is to be contested.
1. The Election Commission of India is a five- c) any citizen of India whose name appears
member body. in the electoral roll of a constituency.
2. The Union Ministry of Home Affairs d) any citizen of India.
decides the election schedule for the
conduct of both general elections and Year – 2018 No. of Questions - 12
bye-elections.
3. Election Commission resolves the disputes Q 1. Consider the following statements:
relating to splits/mergers of recognised 1. No criminal proceedings shall be
political parties. instituted against the Governor of a State
in any court during his term of office.
Which of the statements given above is/are 2. The emoluments and allowances of the
correct? Governor of a State shall not be
diminished during his term of office.
a) 1 and 2 only
b) 2 only Which of the statements given above is/are
c) 2 and 3 only correct?
d) 3 only
a) 1 only
Q.18 Consider the following statements: b) 2 only
c) Both 1 and 2
1. In the election for Lok Sabha or State
d) Neither 1 nor 2
Assembly, the winning candidate must get
at least 50 percent of the votes polled, to Q 2. Which of the following are regarded as the
be declared elected. main features of the “Rule of Law”?
2. According to the provisions laid down in
the Constitution of India, in Lok Sabha, the 1. Limitation of powers
Speaker’s post goes to the majority party 2. Equality before law
and the Deputy Speaker’s to the 3. People’s responsibility to the Government
Opposition. 4. Liberty and civil rights

Which of the statements given above is/are Select the correct answer using the code given
correct? below:

a) 1 only a) 1 and 3 only

b) 2 only b) 2 and 4 only
c) Both 1 and 2 c) 1, 2 and 4 only
d) Neither 1 nor 2 d) 1, 2, 3 and 4

Q.19 For election to the Lok Sabha, a nomination 3. Consider the following statements:
paper can be filed by 1. The Speaker of the Legislative Assembly
Shall vacate his/her office if he/she ceases
a) anyone residing in India. to be a member of the Assembly.

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 IAS BABA PEP 2023 - UPSC CSE PRELIMS PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS (2013- 2022)

2. Whenever the Legislative Assembly is a) 1 only

dissolved, the Speaker shall vacate his/her b) 2 only
immediately. c) Both 1 and 2
d) Neither 1 Or 2
Which of the statements given above is/are
correct? Q.7 Right to Privacy is protected as an intrinsic
part of Right to Life and Personal Liberty.
a) 1 only
b) 2 only Which of the following in the Constitution of India
c) Both 1 and 2 correctly and appropriately imply the above
d) Neither 1 nor 2 statement?

Q 4. Which one of the following reflects the a) Article 14 and the provisions under the
nicest, appropriate relationship between law and 42nd Amendment to the Constitution
liberty? b) Article 17 and the Directive Principles of
State Policy in Part IV
a) if there are more laws, there is less liberty. c) Article 21 and the freedoms guaranteed in
b) If there are no laws, there is no liberty. Part. III
c) If there is liberty, laws have to be made by d) Article 24 and the provisions under the
the people. 44th Amendment to the Constitution
d) If laws are changed too often, liberty is in
danger. Q.8 With reference to the Parliament of India,
which of the following Parliamentary Committees
Q 5. In the federation established by The scrutinizes and reports to the Ilouse whether the
Government on India Act of 1935. Residuary powers to make regulations, rules, sub-rules, by-
Power was given to the laws, etc. conferred by the Constitution or
delegated by the Parliament are being properly
a) Federal Legislature
exercised by the Executive within the scope of
b) Governor General
such delegation ?
c) Provincial Legislature
d) Provincial Governors a) Committee on Government Assurances
b) Committee on Subordinate Legislation
Q 6. With reference to the election of the
c) Rules Committee
President of India, consider the following
d) Business Advisory Committee
statements:
Q.9 Which of the following led to the introduction
1. The value of the vote of each MLA varies
of English Education in India?
from State to State.
2. The value of the vote of MPs of the Lok 1. Charter Act of 1813
Sabha is more than the value of the vote 2. General Committee of Public Instruction,
of MPs of the Rajya Sabha. 1823
3. Orientalist and Anglicist Controversy
Which of the following statements given above
is/are Correct? Select the correct answer using the code given
below
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 IAS BABA PEP 2023 - UPSC CSE PRELIMS PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS (2013- 2022)

a) 1 and 2 only Q.12 If the President of India exercises his power

b) 2 only as provided under Article 356 of the Constitution
c) 1 and 3 only in respect of a particular State, then
d) 1, 2 and 3
a) the Assembly of the State is automatically
Q.10 Consider the following statements: dissolved.
b) the powers of the Legislature of that State
1. The Parliament of India can place a shall be exercisable by or under the
particular law in the Ninth Schedule of the authority of the Parliament.
Constitution of India. c) Article 19 is suspended in that State.
2. The validity of a law placed in the Ninth d) the President can make laws relating to
Schedule cannot be examined by any that State.
court and no judgement can be made on
it. Year – 2019 No. of Questions - 11

Which of the statements given above is/are Q 1. Consider the following statements:
correct? 1. The Parliament (Prevention of
Disqualification) Act, 1959 exempts
a) 1 only
several posts from disqualification on the
b) 2 only
grounds of ‘Office of Profit’.
c) Both 1 and 2
2. The above-mentioned Act was amended
d) Neither 1 nor 2
five times.
Q.11 Consider the following statements: 3. The term ‘Office of Profit’ is well-defined
in the Constitution of India.
1. In the first Lok Sabha, the single largest
party in the opposition was the Swatantra Which of the statements given above is/are
Party. correct?
2. In the Lok Sabha, a “Leader of the
a) 1 and 2 only
Opposition” was recognised for the first
b) 3 only
time in 196Q.9
c) 2 and 3 only
3. In the Lok Sabha, if a party does not have
d) 1, 2 and 3
a minimum of 75 members, its leader
cannot be recognised as the Leader of the Q 2. The Ninth Schedule was introduced in the
Opposition. Constitution of India during the prime
ministership of
Which of the statements given above is/are
a) Jawaharlal Nehru
correct?
b) Lal Bahadur Shastri
a) 1 and 3 only c) Indira Gandhi
b) 2 only d) Morarji Desai
c) 2 and 3 only
Q 3. Consider the following statements:
d) 1, 2 and 3
1. The 44th Amendment to the Constitution
of India introduced an article placing the

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 IAS BABA PEP 2023 - UPSC CSE PRELIMS PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS (2013- 2022)

election of the Prime Minister beyond d) 1, 3 and 4

judicial review
2. Supreme Court of India struck down the Q 5. Which Article of the Constitution of India
99th amendment to the Constitution of safeguards one’s right to marry the person of
India as being violative of the one’s choice?
independence of the judiciary
a) Article 19
Which of the statements given above is/are b) Article 21
correct? c) Article 25
d) Article 29
a) 1 only
b) 2 only Q 6. With reference to the Constitution of India,
c) Both 1 and 2 prohibitions or limitations or provisions contained
d) Neither 1 nor 2 in ordinary laws cannot act as prohibitions or
limitations on the constitutional powers under
Q 4. Consider the following statements: Article 142. It could mean which one of the
following?
1. The- motion to impeach a Judge of the
Supreme Court of India cannot be rejected a) The decisions taken by the Election
by the Speaker of the Lok Sabha as per the Commission of India while discharging its
Judges (Inquiry) Act, 196Q.8 duties cannot be challenged in any court
2. The Constitution of India defines and gives of law.
details of what Constitutes ‘incapacity and b) The Supreme Court of India is not
proved misbehaviour’ of the Judges of the constrained in the exercise of its powers
Supreme Court of India. by laws made by the Parliament.
3. The details of the process of impeachment c) In the event of a grave financial crisis in
of the Judges of the Supreme Court of the country, the President of India can
India are given in the Judges (Inquiry) Act, declare a Financial Emergency without the
196Q.8 counsel from the Cabinet.
4. If the motion for the impeachment of a d) State Legislatures cannot make laws on
Judge is taken up for voting, the law certain matters without the concurrence
requires the motion to be backed by each of the Union Legislature.
House of the Parliament and supported by
a majority of total membership of that Q.7 With reference to the Legislative Assembly of
House and by not less than two-thirds of a State in India, consider the following
total members of that House present and statements:
voting.
1. The Governor makes a customary address
Which of the statements given above is/are to Members of the House at the
correct? commencement of the first session of the
year.
a) 1 and 2 2. When a State Legislature does’ not have a
b) 3 only rule on a particular matter, it follows the
c) 3 and 4 only Lok Sabha rule on that matter.

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 IAS BABA PEP 2023 - UPSC CSE PRELIMS PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS (2013- 2022)

Which of the statements given above is/are d) Neither 1 nor 2

correct?
Q.10 In the context of polity, which one of the
a) 1 only following would you accept as the most
b) 2 only appropriate definition of liberty?
c) Both 1 and 2
d) Neither 1 nor 2 a) Protection against the tyranny of political
rulers
Q.8 Consider the following statements about b) Absence of restraint
Particularly Vulnerable Tribal Groups (PVTGs) in c) Opportunity to do whatever one likes
India: d) Opportunity to develop oneself fully

1. PVTGs reside in 18 States and one Union Q.11 Which one of the following suggested that
Territory. the Governor should be an eminent person from
2. A stagnant or declining population is one outside the State and should be a detached figure
of the criteria for determining PVTG without intense political links or should not have
status. taken part in politics in the recent past?
3. There are 95 PVTGs officially notified in
the country so far. a) First Administrative Reforms Commission
4. Irular and Konda Reddi tribes are included (1966)
in the list of PVTGs. b) Rajamannar Committee (1969)
c) Sarkaria Commission (1983)
Which of the statements given above are correct? d) National Commission to Review the
Working of the Constitution (2000)
a) 1, 2 and 3
b) 2, 3 and 4 Year – 2020 No. of Questions - 17
c) 1, 2 and 4
d) 1, 3 and 4 Q 1. Rajya Sabha has equal powers with Lok
Sabha in
Q.9 With reference to the Constitution of India,
consider the following statements: a) the matter of creating new All India
Services
1. No High Court shall have the jurisdiction b) amending the Constitution
to declare any central law to be c) the removal of the government
constitutionally invalid. d) making cut motions
2. An amendment to the Constitution of
India cannot be called into question by the Q 2. With reference to the funds under Members
Supreme Court of India. of Parliament Local Area Development Scheme
(MPLADS), which of the following statements are
Which of the statements given above is / are correct?
correct?
1. MPLADS funds must be used to create
a) 1 only durable assets like physical infrastructure
b) 2 only for health, education, etc.
c) Both 1 and 2
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 IAS BABA PEP 2023 - UPSC CSE PRELIMS PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS (2013- 2022)

2. A specified portion of each MP’s fund d) Provisions of the Fiscal Responsibility and
must benefit SC/ST populations. Budget Management Act, 2003
3. MPLADS funds are sanctioned on yearly
basis and the unused funds cannot be Q 6. A constitutional government by definition is
carried forward to the next year. a
4. The district authority must inspect at least a) government by legislature
10% of all works under implementation b) popular government
every year. c) multi-party government
d) limited government
Select the correct answer using the code given
below: Q.7 Other than the Fundamental Rights, which of
the following parts of the Constitution of India
a) 1 and 2 only reflect/reflects the principles and provisions of
b) 3 and 4 only the Universal Declaration of Human Rights
c) 1, 2 and 3 only (1948)?
d) 1, 2 and 4 only
1. Preamble
Q 3. Which one of the following categories of 2. Directive Principles of State Policy
‘Fundamental Rights incorporated against 3. Fundamental Duties
untouchability as a form of discrimination?
Select the correct answer using the code given
a) Right against Exploitation below:
b) Right to Freedom
c) Right to Constitutional Remedies a) 1 and 2 only
d) Right to Equality b) 2 only
c) 1 and 3 only
Q 4. In India, separation of judiciary from the d) 1, 2 and 3
executive is enjoined by
Q.8 In India, Legal Services Authorities provide
a) the Preamble of the Constitution free legal services to which of the following
b) a Directive Principle of State Policy
c) the Seventh Schedule type of citizens?
d) the conventional practice
1. Person with an annual income of less than
Q 5. Along with the Budget, the Finance Minister Rs 1,00,000
also places other documents before the 2. Transgender with an annual income of
Parliament which include ‘The Macro Economic less than Rs 2,00,000
Framework Statement’. The aforesaid document 3. Member of Other Backward Classes (OBC)
is presented because this is mandated by with an annual income of less than ₹
3,00,000
a) Long standing parliamentary convention 4. All Senior Citizens
b) Article 112 and Article 110(1) of the
Constitution of India Select the correct answer using the code given
c) Article 113 of the Constitution of India below:

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 IAS BABA PEP 2023 - UPSC CSE PRELIMS PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS (2013- 2022)

a) 1 and 2 only Q.12 In the context of India, which one of the

b) 3 and 4 only following is the characteristic appropriate for
c) 2 and 3 only bureaucracy?
d) 1 and 4 only
a) An agency for widening the scope of
Q.9 A Parliamentary System of Government is parliamentary democracy
one in which b) An agency for strengthening the structure
of federalism
a) all political parties in the Parliament are c) An agency for facilitating political stability
represented in the Government and economic growth
b) the Government is responsible to the d) An agency for the implementation of
Parliament and can be removed by it public policy
c) the Government is elected by the people
and can be removed by them Q.13 The Preamble to the Constitution of India is
d) the Government is chosen by the
Parliament but cannot be removed by it a) a part of the Constitution but has no legal
before completion of a fixed term effect
b) not a part of the Constitution and has no
Q.10 Which part of the Constitution of India legal effect either
declares the ideal of a Welfare State? c) part of the Constitution and has the same
legal effect as any other part
a) Directive Principles of State Policy d) a part of the Constitution but has no legal
b) Fundamental Rights effect independently of other parts
c) Preamble
d) Seventh Schedule Q.14 With reference to the provisions contained
in Part IV of the Constitution of India, which of
Q.11 Consider the following statements: the following statements is/are correct?

a) The Constitution of India defines its ‘basic 1. They shall be enforceable by courts.
structure’ in terms of federalism, 2. They shall not be enforceable by any
secularism, fundamental rights and court.
democracy. 3. The principles laid down in this part are to
b) The Constitution of India provides for influence the making of laws by the State.
‘judicial review’ to safeguard the citizens’
liberties and to preserve the ideals on Select the correct answer using the code given
which the Constitution is based. below:

Which of the statements given above is/are a) 1 only

correct? b) 2 only
c) 1 and 3 only
a) 1 only d) 2 and 3 only
b) 2 only
c) Both 1 and 2
d) Neither 1 nor 2

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 IAS BABA PEP 2023 - UPSC CSE PRELIMS PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS (2013- 2022)

Q.15 Consider the following statements: Q.17 In which one of the following groups are all
the four countries members of G20?
1. According to the Constitution of India, a
person who is eligible to vote can be a) Argentina, Mexico, South Africa and
made a minister in a State for six months Turkey
even if he/she is not a member of the b) Australia, Canada, Malaysia and New
Legislature of that State. Zealand
2. According to the Representation of People c) Brazil, Iran, Saudi Arabia and Vietnam
Act, 1951, a person convicted of a criminal d) Indonesia, Japan, Singapore and South
offence and sentenced to imprisonment Korea
for five years is permanently disqualified
from contesting an election even after his Year – 2021 No. of Questions - 18
release from prison.
Q 1. Under the Indian constitution concentration
Which of the statements given above is/are of wealth violates
correct?
a) The Right to Equality
a) 1 only b) The Directive Principles of State Policy
b) 2only c) The Right to Freedom
c) Both 1 and 2 d) The Concept of Welfare
d) Neither 1 nor 2
Q 2. What is the position of the Right to Property
Q.16 Consider the following statements: in India?

1. The President of India can summon a a) Legal right available to citizens only
session of the Parliament at such a place b) Legal right available to any person
as he/she thinks fit. c) Fundamental Right available to citizens
2. The Constitution of India provides for only
three sessions of the Parliament in a year, d) Neither fundamental Right nor legal right
but it is not mandatory to conduct all
Q 3. What was the exact constitutional status of
three sessions.
India on 26th January, 1950?
3. There is no minimum number of days that
the Parliament is required to meet in a a) A Democratic Republic
year. b) A Sovereign Democratic Republic
c) (C) A Sovereign Secular Democratic
Which of the statements given above is/are
Republic
correct?
d) A Sovereign Socialist Secular Democratic
a) 1 only Republic
b) 2 only
Q 4. Constitutional government means
c) 1 and 3 only
d) 2 and 3 only a) a representative government of a nation
with a federal structure

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 IAS BABA PEP 2023 - UPSC CSE PRELIMS PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS (2013- 2022)

b) a government whose Head enjoys nominal Q.7 With reference to India, consider the
powers following statements:
c) a government whose Head enjoys nominal
powers 1. When a prisoner makes out a sufficient
d) a government limited by the terms of the case, parole cannot be denied to such
Constitution prisoner because it becomes a matter of
his/her right.
Q 5. Consider the following statements in respect 2. State Governments have their own
of Bharat Ratna and Padma Awards. Prisoners Release on Parole Rules.

1. Bharat Ratna and Padma Awards are titles Which of the statements given above is/are
under the Article 18(1) of the Constitution correct?
of India.
2. Padma Awards, which were instituted in a) 1 only
the year 1954, were suspended only once. b) 2 only
3. The number of Bharat Ratna Awards is c) Both 1 and 2
restricted to a maximum of five in a d) Neither 1 nor 2
particular year.
Q.8 At the national level, which ministry is the
Which of the above statements are not correct? nodal agency to ensure effective implementation
of the Scheduled Tribes and Other Traditional
a) 1 and 2 only Forest Dwellers (Recognition of Forest Rights)
b) 2 and 3 only Act, 2006?
c) 1 and 3 only
d) 1, 2 and 3 a) Ministry of Environment, Forest and
Climatic change.
Q 6. With reference to India, consider the b) Ministry of Panchayat Raj
following statements: c) Ministry of Rural Development
d) Ministry of Tribal Affairs
1. Judicial custody means an accused is in
the custody of the concerned magistrate Q.9 A legislation which confers on the executive
and such accused is locked up in police or administrative authority an unguided and
station, not in jail. uncontrolled discretionary power in the matter of
2. During judicial custody, the police officer the application of law violates which one of the
in charge of the case is not allowed to following Articles of the Constitution of India?
interrogate the suspect without the
approval of the court. a) Article 14
b) Article 28
Which of the statements given above is/are c) Article 32
correct? d) Article 44

a) 1 only Q.10 Which one of the following in Indian polity is

b) 2 only an essential feature that indicates that it is
c) Both 1 and 2 federal in character?
d) Neither 1 nor 2
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 IAS BABA PEP 2023 - UPSC CSE PRELIMS PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS (2013- 2022)

a) The independence of the judiciary is a) 1 only

safeguarded b) 2 only
b) The Union Legislature has elected c) Both 1 and 2
representatives from constituent units d) Neither 1 nor 2
c) the Union cabinet can have elected
representatives from regional parties Q.13 With reference to India, consider the
d) The Fundamental rights are enforceable following statements:
by Courts of Law
1. There is only one citizenship and one
Q.11 Which one of the following best defines the domicile.
term “State”? 2. A citizen by birth only can become the
Head of State.
a) A community of persons permanently 3. A foreigner once granted citizenship
occupying a definite territory independent cannot be deprived of it under any
of external control and possessing an circumstances.
organized government.
b) A politically organized people of a definite Which of the statements given above is/are
territory and possessing an authority to correct?
govern them, maintain law and order,
a) 1 only
protect their natural rights and safeguard
b) 2 only
their means of sustenance.
c) 1 and 3
c) A number of persons who have been living
d) 2 and 3
in a definite territory for a very long time
with their own culture, tradition and Q.14 Which of the following factors constitutes
government. the best safeguard of liberty in a liberal
d) A society permanently living in a definite democracy?
with a central authority, an executive
responsible to the central authority and a) A committed judiciary
an independent judiciary. b) Centralization of powers
c) Elected government
Q.12 With reference to Indian Judiciary, consider d) Separation of powers
the following statements.
Q.15 We adopted parliamentary democracy
1. Any retired judge of the Supreme Court of based on the British model, but how does our
India can be called back to sit by the Chief model differ from that model?
Justice of India with prior permission of
the President of India. 1. As regards legislation, the British
2. A High court in India has the power to Parliament is supreme or sovereign but in
review its own judgement as the Supreme India, the power of the parliament to
Court does. legislate is limited.
2. In India, matters related to the
Which of the statements given above is/are constitutionality of the Amendment of an
correct? Act of the Parliament are referred to the
Constitution Bench by the Supreme Court.
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 IAS BABA PEP 2023 - UPSC CSE PRELIMS PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS (2013- 2022)

Select the correct answer using the code given 2. In 1991 Lok Sabha Election, Shri Devi Lal
below. contested from three Lok Sabha
constituencies.
a) 1 only 3. As per the existing rules, if a candidate
b) 2 only contests in one Lok Sabha election from
c) Both 1 and 2 many constituencies, his/her party should
d) Neither 1 nor 2 bear the cost of bye-elections to the
constituencies vacated by him/her in the
Q.16 With reference to the Union Government,
event of him/her winning in all the
consider the following statements:
constituencies.
1. N. Gopalaswamy Iyenger Committee
Which of the statements given above is/are
suggested that a minister and a secretary
correct?
be designated solely for pursuing the
subject of administrative reform and a) 1 only
promoting it. b) 2 only
2. In 1970, the Department of personnel was c) 1 and 3
constituted on the recommendation of d) 2 and 3
the Administrative Reforms Commission,
1966, and this was placed under the Prime Year – 2022 No. of Questions - 17
Minister’s charge.
Q.1 Consider the following statements:
Which of the statements given above is/are
correct? 1. Pursuant to the report of H.N. Sanyal
Committee, the Contempt of Courts Act,
a) 1 only 1971 was passed.
b) 2 only 2. The Constitution of India empowers the
c) Both 1 and 2 Supreme Court and the High Courts to
d) Neither 1 nor 2 punish for contempt of themselves.
3. The Constitution of India defines Civil
Q.17 ‘Right to Privacy’ is protected under which
Contempt and Criminal Contempt.
Article of the constitution of India?
4. In India, the Parliament is vested with the
a) Article 15 powers to make laws on Contempt of
b) Article 19 Court.
c) Article 21
Which of the statements given above is/are
d) Article 29
correct?
Q.18 Consider the following statements:
a) 1 and 2 only
1. In India, there is no law restricting the b) 1, 2 and 4 only
candidates from contesting in one Lok c) 3 and 4 only
Sabha election from three constituencies. d) 3 only

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 IAS BABA PEP 2023 - UPSC CSE PRELIMS PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS (2013- 2022)

Q 2. With reference to India, consider the Minister, Minister of State with

following statements: Independent Charge, Minister of State
and Deputy Minister.
1. Government law officers and legal firms 2. The total number of ministers in the
are recognized as advocates, but Union Government, including the Prime
corporate lawyers and patent attorneys Minister, shall not exceed 15 percent of
are excluded from recognition as the total number of members in the Lok
advocates. Sabha.
2. Bar Councils have the power to lay down
the rules relating to legal education and Which of the statements given above is/are
recognition of law colleges. correct?

Which of the statements given above is/are a) 1 only

correct? b) 2 only
c) Both 1 and 2
a) 1 only d) Neither 1 nor 2
b) 2 only
c) Both 1 and 2 Q 5. Which of the following is/are the exclusive
d) Neither 1 nor 2 power(s) of Lok Sabha?

Q 3. Consider the following statements: 1. To ratify the declaration of Emergency

2. To pass a motion of no-confidence against
1. A bill amending the Constitution requires the Council of Ministers
a prior recommendation of the President 3. To impeach the President of India
of India.
2. When a Constitution Amendment Bill is Select the correct answer using the code given
presented to the President of India, it is below:
obligatory for the President of India to
give his/her assent. a) 1 and 2
3. A Constitution Amendment Bill must be b) 2 only
passed by both the Lok Sabha and Rajya c) 1 and 3
Sabha by a special majority and there is no d) 3 only
provision for joint sitting.
Q 6. With reference to anti-defection law in India,
Which of the statements given above are correct? consider the following statements:

a) 1 and 2 only 1. The law specifies that a nominated

b) 2 and 3 only legislator cannot join any political party
c) 1 and 3 only within six months of being appointed to
d) 1, 2 and 3 the House.
2. The law does not provide any time-frame
Q 4. Consider the following statements: within which the presiding officer has to
decide a defection case.
1. The Constitution of India classifies the
ministers into four ranks viz. Cabinet
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 IAS BABA PEP 2023 - UPSC CSE PRELIMS PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS (2013- 2022)

Which of the statements given above is/are c) 1 and 3 only

correct? d) 1, 2 and 3

a) 1 only Q.9 With reference to Deputy Speaker of Lok

b) 2 only Sabha, consider the following statements:
c) Both 1 and 2
d) Neither 1 nor 2 1. As per the Rules of Procedure and
Conduct of Business in Lok Sabha, the
Q.7 Consider the following statements: election of Deputy Speaker shall be held
on such date as the Speaker may fix.
1. Attorney General of India and Solicitor 2. There is a mandatory provision that the
General of India are the only officers of election of a candidate as Deputy Speaker
the Government who are allowed to of Lok Sabha shall be from either the
participate in the meetings of the principal opposition party or the ruling
Parliament of India. party.
2. According to the Constitution of India, the 3. The Deputy Speaker has the same power
Attorney General of India submits his as of the Speaker when presiding over the
resignation when the Government which sitting of the House and no appeal lies
appointed him resigns. against his rulings.
4. The well-established parliamentary
Which of the statements given above is/are
practice regarding the appointment of
correct?
Deputy Speaker is that the motion is
a) 1 only moved by the Speaker and duly seconded
b) 2 only by the Prime Minister.
c) Both 1 and 2 Which of the statements given above are correct?
d) Neither 1 nor 2
a) 1 and 3 only
Q.8 With reference to the writs issued by the b) 1, 2 and 3
Courts in India, consider the following c) 3 and 4 only
statements: d) 2 and 4 only
1. Mandamus will not lie against a private
Q.10 If a particular area is brought under the Fifth
organization unless it is entrusted with a
Schedule of the Constitution of India, which one
public duty.
of the following statements best reflects the
2. Mandamus will not lie against a Company
consequence of it?
even though it may be a Government
Company. a) This would prevent the transfer of land of
3. Any public minded person can be a tribal people to non-tribal people.
petitioner to move the Court to obtain the b) This would create a local self-governing
writ of Quo Warranto. body in that area.
Which of the statements given above are correct? c) This would convert that area into a Union
Territory.
a) 1 and 2 only
d) The State having such areas would be
b) 2 and 3 only
declared a Special Category State.
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 IAS BABA PEP 2023 - UPSC CSE PRELIMS PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS (2013- 2022)

2013-2022 IAS Prelims Polity Questions with Solutions

2013 1. C 2016 1. B 2019 1. A 12. C

2. C 2. B 2. A 13. A
3. D 3. D 3. B 14. D
4. B 4. B
4. C 15. C
5. D 5. D
6. C 6. C 5. B 16. B
7. B 7. C 6. B 17. C
8. A 8. B 7. C 18. B
9. C 9. B 8. C
10. C 9. D 2022 1. B
11. B 2017 1. A 2. B
10. B
12. D 2. D 3. B
3. D 11. C
13. A 4. B
14. B 4. D 2020 1. B
5. A 2. D 5. B
15. B
16. B 6. C 3. D 6. B
17. C 7. A 4. B 7. D
18. D 8. A 8. C
5. D
2014 1. B 9. B 9. A
6. D
2. A 10. D 10. A
11. C 7. D
3. B 8. A
12. D
4. B 13. C 9. B
5. C 14. B 10. A
6. C 15. C 11. B
7. B 16. A
12. D
8. C 17. C
18. D 13. D
9. D 14. D
19. C
10. B 15. D
2018 1. C
11. C 16. C
2. C
2015 1. D 17. A
3. A
2. C
4. B 2021 1. B
3. B
4. B 5. B 2. B
5. C 6. C 3. B
6. A 7. C 4. D
7. D 8. B 5. D
8. D 9. A 6. B
9. D
10. A 7. B
10. A
11. D 11. B 8. D
12. C 12. B 9. A
13. B 10. A
11. A

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 IAS BABA PEP 2023 - UPSC CSE PRELIMS PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS (2013- 2022)

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