A350 Oral Questions
A350 Oral Questions
A350 Oral Questions
LATEST NOTIFICATION
SYSTEM REVIEW
OPERATION RELATED
MEMORY ITEMS
AIRCRAFT LIMITATION 3
TYPE RATING CHECK
SYLLABUS BRIEFING
CREWS BRIEFING
SITUATION CONSIDERATION
AIRCRAFT ACCEPTANCE
SID BRIEFING
4
SYLLABUS BRIEFING
5
SYSTEM REVIEW
ATA21
ATA 21 ATA 22 ATA 23 ATA 24
PRESSURIZATION/
AIR CONDITIONING AUTOFLIGHT COMMUNICATIONS ELECTRICAL
VENTILATION
ATA30
ATA26 ATA27 ATA28 ATA29
ICE and RAIN
FIRE PROTECTION FLIGHT CONTROLS FUEL HYDRAULIC
PROTECTION
ATA31
ATA32 ATA33 ATA34 ATA 34
CONTROL AND
LANDING GEAR LIGHTS NAVIGATION SURVEILLANCE
DISPLAY SYSTEM
6
ATA21 AIR CONDITIONING
7
21 AIR CONDITIONING
Q01. What are sources of bleed air system?
• From engines
• From APU
• From ground air supply
8
21 AIR CONDITIONING
Q02. In case of both packs fail, what receive air from outside through
emergency ram air inlet?
9
21 AIR CONDITIONING
Q03. Brief descript how does condition air to meet temperature
demand?
Cooled air comes from packs, goes through premixer with recycled air, then
hot air from bleed system is added to the mixed air, to obtain the selected
temperature.
10
ATA21 PRESSURIZATION/VENTILATION
Q01 Q02 Q03 Q04 Q05
Q06 Q07 Q08 Q09
11
21 PRESSURIZATION/VENTILATION
Q01. What is the maximum cabin altitude can regulate during cruise?
The maximum cabin altitude during cruise can regulate is 6000 ft.
12
21 PRESSURIZATION/VENTILATION
Q02. What are the components to regulate the cabin pressure?
13
21 PRESSURIZATION/VENTILATION
Q03. How does negative relief valve work?
14
21 PRESSURIZATION/VENTILATION
Q04. When does the overpressure relief valve open?
15
21 PRESSURIZATION/VENTILATION
Q05. Which figure tells that cabin altitude control mode is in automatic?
A.
A. B.
16
21 PRESSURIZATION/VENTILATION
Q06. Which cargo compartment has heater to regulate temperature?
17
21 PRESSURIZATION/VENTILATION
Q07. Which cargo compartment has a temperature regulation system
from air conditioning system?
18
21 PRESSURIZATION/VENTILATION
Q08. How many circuits of avionics ventilation, and what are they
cooling?
There are 2 avionics ventilation, Left and Right circuit. They are cooling the
cockpit panels and the avionics bay.
19
21 PRESSURIZATION/VENTILATION
Q09. When dose the avionic overboard valve open?
20
ATA22 AUTOFLIGHT
Q01 Q02 Q03 Q04 Q05 Q06
Q07 Q08 Q09 Q10 Q11 Q12
Q13 Q14 Q15 Q16 Q17 Q18
Q19 Q20 Q21 Q22 Q23
21
22 AUTOFLIGHT
Q01. What are the major elements of auto flight system?
• Flight envelope
• Flight guidance
• Flight management
• Flight control data concentrator
22
22 AUTOFLIGHT
Q02. How does vertical and lateral guidance work in AFS?
23
22 AUTOFLIGHT
Q03. In case the AFS CP fails, what page in MFD can provide alternate
control?
• The MFD FCU BKUP / AFS CP page can provides all the AFS CP controls and
indicators
24
22 AUTOFLIGHT
Q04. When does Yaw Bar display on PFD?
25
22 AUTOFLIGHT
Q05. When do FDs automatic engagement?
26
22 AUTOFLIGHT
Q06. What is the recommend method to disengage AP?
27
22 AUTOFLIGHT
Q07. With AP engaged, what are indications if AP fail or disengage not
correctly?
28
22 AUTOFLIGHT
Q08. With AP engaged, what are indications if AP disengaged correctly?
29
22 AUTOFLIGHT
Q09. What are the effects of thrust lever movement beyond active
range when the A/THR is active?
• The A/THR becomes armed as described below:
ü All engines are operative: all the thrust levers are above the CL detent,
or at least one thrust lever is above the FLX-MCT detent.
ü One engine is out: the thrust lever of the operative engine is above the
FLX-MCT detent.
• When the A/THR becomes armed, the thrust immediately increases, in
accordance with the thrust lever position.
30
22 AUTOFLIGHT
Q10. With A/THR engaged, what are indications if A/THR is involuntary
disconnection?
• If A/THR is involuntary disconnected,
ü The A/THR OFF memo appears on the PFD and WD.
ü The AUTO FLT A/THR OFF alert.
ü The MASTER CAUT light comes on.
ü The single chime sounds
ü The thrust lock function activates.
31
22 AUTOFLIGHT
Q11. In manual or automatic landing, what are consequences if the
flight crew doesn’t set the thrust levers to idle?
32
22 AUTOFLIGHT
Q12. What is recommend method to disconnect A/THR in flight if
needed ?
• Move thrust levers position (blue circle) to align with current thrust, then
press one of A/THR instinctive disconnect pushbutton
33
22 AUTOFLIGHT
Q13. For managed speed/Mach, what the lowest and the highest target
speed are ?
34
22 AUTOFLIGHT
Q14. When will ground speed mini function activate?
• The ground speed mini function is active when the speed is managed and
the FMS flight phase is the approach phase.
35
22 AUTOFLIGHT
Q15. What is magenta dot indicated on the PFD speed scale?
36
22 AUTOFLIGHT
Q16. What is approximate crossover altitude for speed/Mach switching?
37
22 AUTOFLIGHT
Q17. How to preset HDG/TRK for takeoff if NAV mode not used after
airborne ?
• The preset HDG/TRK can be set by only turning the HDG/TRK knob on the
AFS CP without pulling.
38
22 AUTOFLIGHT
Q18. What difference on FMA second column for next altitude target is
selected on the AFS CP altitude window ?
• The next altitude target one is selected altitude, and the other is cruise
altitude.
39
22 AUTOFLIGHT
Q19. What does this indication tell you ?
40
22 AUTOFLIGHT
Q20. How does FMC provide data to FMS in normal operation ?
• In normal operation,
ü FMC-A provides data to FMS 1
ü FMC-B provides data to FMS 2
ü FMC-C is the backup FMC
41
22 AUTOFLIGHT
Q21. What databases in FMC ?
42
22 AUTOFLIGHT
Q22. What does the triangle behind
waypoint ABN mean ?
43
22 AUTOFLIGHT
Q23. How to change departure T.O. data after rejected takeoff?
• To change the FMS departure in the active flight plan, the flight crew:
ü Use an empty SEC F-PLN, or deletes a SEC F-PLN
ü Initializes the SEC F-PLN with appropriate inputs in the INIT/F-PLN/PERF
pages of the SEC F-PLN
ü Use the SWAP function in order to activate the secondary flight plan
with updated inputs.
44
ATA23 COMMUNICATION
Q01 Q02
45
23 COMMUNICATION
Q01. What does this EVAC panel tell you ?
46
23 COMMUNICATION
Q02. What does EMER pb on the CALLS panel tell you ?
47
ATA24 ELECTRICAL
48
24 ELECTRICAL
Q01. During preliminary cockpit preparation, why batteries check needs
to turn off/on in specific order ?
This specific order for switching off/on batteries to prevent the display of
spurious dispatch messages.
49
24 ELECTRICAL
Q02. In order to avoid electrical reconfigurations, how to connect
EXT 1(2) when the AVAIL light is on?
In order to avoid electrical reconfiguration:
ü When only one electrical power is available, connect EXT PWR 2
ü When two electrical powers available, connect EXT PWR 2 before EXT
PWR 1
50
24 ELECTRICAL
Q03. How does A350 AC power generate?
51
24 ELECTRICAL
Q04. How does A350 DC power generate?
52
24 ELECTRICAL
Q05. How does A350 emergency power generate?
53
24 ELECTRICAL
Q06. In flight, what condition the APU will automatically start and
supply side 1 power?
When all engine flameout in flight, the APU will automatically start to supply
side 1 power
54
24 ELECTRICAL
Q07. If the normal network not available, what batteries to supply
power for refuel on batteries operation?
• BAT 1 and BAT 2 can supply the electrical power for refuel operation.
55
24 ELECTRICAL
Q08. What if the DRIVE pb has been pushed to disconnect from engine
on ELEC panel, how can be reconnected ?
56
24 ELECTRICAL
Q09. When will RAT deploy automatically in flight?
57
ATA26 FIRE PROTECTION
Q01 Q02 Q03 Q04 Q05
Q06 Q07 Q08 Q09
58
26 FIRE PROTECTION
Q01. How many fire extinguisher bottles are there for each ENG, APU,
and FWD+AFT/bulk CARGO compartments?
• 2 bottles for each ENG.
• 1 bottle for APU.
• 2 bottles for FWD+AFT/bulk CARGO compartments.
59
26 FIRE PROTECTION
Q02. What are the indications if fire is detected in an engine?
60
26 FIRE PROTECTION
Q03. How does the fire protection system to distinguish fire or fault if
one fire detection loop fails after the other on the same engine?
On the same engine, if one detection loop fails after the other,
ü Interval is within 5 sec, ENG FIRE triggers.
ü Interval more than 5 sec, ENG FIRE DET FAULT triggers.
61
26 FIRE PROTECTION
Q04. What does this agent pb tell you on FIRE panel ?
62
26 FIRE PROTECTION
Q05. On A350, what areas equip with fire and overheat detection ?
63
26 FIRE PROTECTION
Q06. On A350, what areas equip with fire extinguishing ?
64
26 FIRE PROTECTION
Q07. On A350, what areas equip with smoke detection ?
65
26 FIRE PROTECTION
Q08. On ground with APU running, what happens if APU fire is
detected ?
The fire protection system for APU automatically activates the extinguishing
system if fire is detected on ground.
66
26 FIRE PROTECTION
Q09. How long of SRARLUX A350 cargo compartment protection for fire
extinguishing or smoke suppression is installed?
The STARLUX A350 is equipped with 290 min for cargo compartment for fire
extinguishing and smoke suppression.
67
ATA27 FLIGHT CONTROLS
Q01 Q02 Q03 Q04 Q05 Q06
Q07 Q08 Q09 Q10 Q11 Q12
Q13 Q14 Q15 Q16 Q17 Q18
68
27 FLIGHT CONTROLS
Q01. How many flight control computers on A350, and what they are?
There are 6 flight control computers on A350, They are 3 PRIMs, and 3 SECs
One computer of any type (PRIM or SEC) is able to control the aircraft.
69
27 FLIGHT CONTROLS
Q02. What kind of actuator shown in figure below, what flight controls
are fitted with ?
The figure on the left is EHA, Electro-Hydrostatic
Actuator. It is fitted on inner ailerons, elevator, and
rudder
70
27 FLIGHT CONTROLS
Q03. What is EBHA, how does it work and which flight control is fitted
with ?
• The EBHA is a combination of a
conventional actuator and an EHA.
• It works as conventional actuator, when
hydraulic power is available. Also behaves
as EHA, when hydraulic power is lost.
• The pair of spoiler 5th is fitted with EBHA.
71
27 FLIGHT CONTROLS
Q04. When the pitch trim is set automatically for takeoff ?
72
27 FLIGHT CONTROLS
Q05. Above what speed the outer ailerons wouldn’t deflect ?
73
27 FLIGHT CONTROLS
Q06. When the rudder trim is set at 0 deg. automatically for takeoff ?
74
27 FLIGHT CONTROLS
Q07. When will ground spoilers automatically FULL extend at landing ?
75
27 FLIGHT CONTROLS
Q08. What do these indicate on F/CTL SD page ?
76
27 FLIGHT CONTROLS
Q09. What does the white round symbol indicate for aileron on F/CTL
SD page ?
• The white round symbol indicates the neutral position when aileron
droop occurs.
• The aileron droop occurs when,
ü The flaps are extended for lift augmentation, or
ü In cruise for performance optimization.
77
27 FLIGHT CONTROLS
Q10. How to deactivate the other sidestick permanently ?
• To deactivate the other sidestick permanently, the flight crew must press
its sidestick pb for 40 sec.
• To release the deactivated sidestick, any flight crew presses its sidestick
pb again.
78
27 FLIGHT CONTROLS
Q11. What does this indication tell you ?
• Ground spoilers are armed. The blue triangle represents the fully
extended position of the ground spoilers.
79
27 FLIGHT CONTROLS
Q12. What does this indication tell you ?
80
27 FLIGHT CONTROLS
Q13. What are the normal law protections ?
81
27 FLIGHT CONTROLS
Q14. What control law does this indication tell you ?
82
27 FLIGHT CONTROLS
Q15. What control law does this indication tell you ?
83
27 FLIGHT CONTROLS
Q16. If we lost all flight control computers (PRIMs, and SECs) in flight,
what control mode can provide control and stability of the aircraft ?
The Backup Control provides control and stability of the aircraft through
following surfaces:
ü Inner ailerons
ü Rudder
ü Elevators.
84
27 FLIGHT CONTROLS
Q17. What is flap cruise deployment function ?
85
27 FLIGHT CONTROLS
Q18. For flaps positions indication, what do the upper and lower green
lines show ?
86
ATA28 FUEL
87
28 FUEL
Q01. What is the surge tank for?
The surge tank is for connecting fuel tanks to atmosphere, this limits the
differential pressure between the tanks and the atmosphere, and maintains
the pressure within structural limits.
88
28 FUEL
Q02. With fuel in center tank, what is the feeding sequence for engines
with flap level at 0 ?
89
28 FUEL
Q03. How does APU be fed ? ( at least 2 answers )
90
28 FUEL
Q04. What is the Fuel Tank Inerting System (FTIS) for?
91
28 FUEL
Q05. What could happen if the (FOB+FU)-BLOCK indication shows
below ?
92
ATA29 HYDRAULIC
Q01 Q02
93
29 HYDRAULIC
Q01. How many hydraulic systems ?
What is their normal system operating pressure?
A350 has 2 identical and independent hydraulic systems, which are YELLOW
and GREEN, provide 5,000 PSI.
94
29 HYDRAULIC
Q02. Which hydraulic system provide power for cargo door operation
on ground ?
YELLOW hydraulic power provides power for cargo door operation on ground.
95
ATA30 ICE and RAIN PROTECTION
96
30 ICE and RAIN PROTECTION
Q01. What components use hot bleed air against from icing?
97
30 ICE and RAIN PROTECTION
Q02. What components use electrical power against from icing?
98
30 ICE and RAIN PROTECTION
Q03. If electric power fails, what will happen to engine anti-ice and
wing anti-ice valves?
The engine anti-icing valves open, and wing anti-ice valves closed.
99
30 ICE and RAIN PROTECTION
Q04. Which parts of the wing would be heated when Wing Anti-ice is
selected on ?
Hot air from the pneumatic system heats slats 3, 4 and 5 of each wing.
100
30 ICE and RAIN PROTECTION
Q05. For window heating system, what is the difference between
windshield and side windows?
The windshields are heated to prevent icing and to defog,
The side windows are heated to defog only.
101
30 ICE and RAIN PROTECTION
Q06. Why does the “ICE NOT DET” message appear in green on ECAM
MEMO?
If no ice has been detected 2 min after the flight crew has selected the
ENG/WING ANTI ICE pb-sw ON.
102
ATA31 CONTROL AND DISPLAY SYSTEM
Q01 Q02 Q03 Q04 Q05 Q06
Q07 Q08 Q09 Q10 Q11 Q12
Q13 Q14
103
31 CONTROL AND DISPLAY SYSTEM
Q01. Which three DUs are with touchscreen capability?
104
31 CONTROL AND DISPLAY SYSTEM
Q02. What is the priority of CDS automatic reconfiguration if DUs fail?
105
31 CONTROL AND DISPLAY SYSTEM
Q03. What does the yellow arrow point to ?
106
31 CONTROL AND DISPLAY SYSTEM
Q04. What are those three target speeds during takeoff ?
107
31 CONTROL AND DISPLAY SYSTEM
Q05. What do those two yellow arrow point ?
108
31 CONTROL AND DISPLAY SYSTEM
Q06. What do those three yellow arrows point in normal law ?
109
31 CONTROL AND DISPLAY SYSTEM
Q07. What do those two yellow arrows point in alternate or direct law ?
110
31 CONTROL AND DISPLAY SYSTEM
Q08. What does this indication on altitude tape tell you?
111
31 CONTROL AND DISPLAY SYSTEM
Q09. What is the actual heading?
What is the selected heading?
What is the actual track?
112
31 CONTROL AND DISPLAY SYSTEM
Q10. When aircraft is in HDG (TRK) mode, what do those yellow arrows
point to on ND ?
A. • A is the end of VD
D.
• B is the level off point
B. • C is energy circle
E. • D is the track of aircraft
C. • E is speed change point from FMS
113
31 CONTROL AND DISPLAY SYSTEM
Q11. What is different between these three ECAM alert ?
114
31 CONTROL AND DISPLAY SYSTEM
Q12. What is different between push buttons with guarded in red and
black on overhead panel ?
A. D.
• The push button with guarded in black is reversible, and
B. The push button with guarded in red is irreversible, the
E. •
system can’t get back in flight. Maintenance actions is
required to reset the system.
115
31 CONTROL AND DISPLAY SYSTEM
Q13. What is EMER CANC pb for on ECP panel ?
116
31 CONTROL AND DISPLAY SYSTEM
Q14. What controls do PF and PM must crosscheck before any action in
flight ?
• The following controls must crosscheck by PF and PM before any
actions:
ü ENG MASTER lever
ü IR MODE selector
ü All guarded controls
ü RESET/POWER SUPPLY buttons
117
ATA32 LANDING GEAR
Q01 Q02 Q03 Q04 Q05
Q06 Q07 Q08 Q09
118
32 LANDING GEAR
Q01. What is the L/G pre-arm function ?
• The L/G pre-arm function enables to reduce the L/G retraction time after
aircraft lift off with OEI. The reduction of the L/G retraction time improves
the takeoff performance.
119
32 LANDING GEAR
Q02. When will L/G CTL system change over ?
• The L/G CTL system changes over when the L/G lever is move from down to
up.
120
32 LANDING GEAR
Q03. What are the braking modes of A350 ?
121
32 LANDING GEAR
Q04. How does hydraulic power distribute on MLG wheel ?
122
32 LANDING GEAR
Q05. When will automatic reinflation happen for accumulator ?
123
32 LANDING GEAR
Q06. How many A/BRK modes does A350 equipped with ?
124
32 LANDING GEAR
Q07. What is braking Pre-Land Test (PLT) ?
125
32 LANDING GEAR
Q08. What is max NWS angle vis rudder pedals below 100 kt, and via
steering handwheels below 30 kt ?
• The max NWS angle via rudder pedals below 100 kt is 6 degree.
• The max NWS angle vis steering handwheel below 30 kt is 72 degree.
126
32 LANDING GEAR
Q09. When does N/W STEER DISC indication on MEMO turn from green
into amber?
• The NWS disconnect pin is installed and at least one engine is running.
127
ATA33 LIGHTS
Q01
128
33 LIGHTS
Q01. When will cabin emergency lights on if EMER EXIT LT SW at ARM
position ?
129
ATA34 NAVIGATION
130
34 NAVIGATION
Q01. What parameters can Multi Function Probes ( MFPs) provide ?
The MFPs can provide the AOA, the total air temperature, and the total
pressure.
131
34 NAVIGATION
Q02. How to perform a complete alignment of ADIRS ?
To perform a complete alignment, the flight crew must do the following actions,
in the following sequence:
ü Turn off the IR mode selector to OFF for more than 5 s,
ü then set the IR mode selector to NAV
132
34 NAVIGATION
Q03. What is the priority of each ADIRU provide aircraft position ?
The priority of each ADIRU provides the aircraft system with the most accurate
position is:
ü The consolidated GPIRS position
ü Its own GPIRS position
ü The IR/radio position
ü Its own IR position
133
ATA34 SURVEILLANCE
134
34 SURVEILLANCE
Q01. How does WXR detect weather ?
The WXR detects water drops in the surrounding area, by use the WXR
antenna.
A.
B.
135
34 SURVEILLANCE
Q02. What information do those arrows tell you?
136
34 SURVEILLANCE
Q03. What system provide the reactive windshear detection and
predictive windshear (PWS) function ?
The reactive windshear detection is provided by
PRIMs,
ü During takeoff from 50 ft or 3 s after liftoff,
until reaching 1300 ft
ü During landing from 1300 ft to 50 ft
The PWS is provided by WXR,
ü During takeoff roll below 100 kt, then all
alerts are inhibited until above 50 ft to
1500 ft
ü At landing from 1500 ft to 50 ft, then
inhibited below 50 ft
137
34 SURVEILLANCE
Q04. When will TCAS system TA ONLY automatically select ?
138
34 SURVEILLANCE
Q05. What do those intruder symbols on ND mean ?
• An intruder is in RA range
• An intruder is in TA range
• Other intruder
139
34 SURVEILLANCE
Q06. Before pushback or start procedure, why both flight crew need to
select SURV/CONTROLS page SURV DEFAULT SETTINGS ?
• When clicks SURV DEFAULT SETTINGS, automatically sets all the SURV
settings to their default position from either side, but the following default
settings on WRX system are valid ONLY for the onside MFD;
• The ELEVN/TILT option list
• The GAIN button
• The MODE button
140
ATA34-32 ROW/ROP - BTV
141
34-32 ROW/ROP - BTV
Q01. When will ROW/ROP transition happen ?
• Above ROW transition altitude, the FMS provides with the destination
airport information; PERF/APPR panel and the associated aircraft data;
FUEL&LOAD page predicted LW.
• Below ROW transition altitude, the ADIRUs provide real time data; the
current GS, OAT, and pressure altitude.
143
34-32 ROW/ROP - BTV
Q03. What information sources for ROW/ROP-BTV function in PRIMs to
compute selected runway landing performance above/below
ROW transition altitude ?
• Above ROW transition altitude, the FMS provides with the destination
airport information; PERF/APPR panel and the associated aircraft data;
FUEL&LOAD page predicted LW.
• Below ROW transition altitude, the ADIRUs provide real time data; the
current GS, OAT, and pressure altitude.
144
34-32 ROW/ROP - BTV
Q04. How does BTV work ?
145
ATA35 OXYGEN
146
35 OXYGEN
Q01. What is the crew oxygen discharge indicator for ?
147
35 OXYGEN
Q02. What are the purposes for crew oxygen mask test ?
• Checking there is no residual pressure in supply host via press and hold PRESS
TO TEST AND RESET pb that the oxygen flow indicator turns yellow for a short
time, then goes black;
• Checking oxygen flow and microphone function normal via hold the PRESS TO
TEST AND RESET pb down, and press the EMERGENCY selector that the
oxygen flow indicator turns yellow, remains yellow as long as the EMERGENCY
selector is pressed. Meanwhile listen for oxygen flow through the
loudspeakers
• Checking oxygen not supply to mask via press EMERGENCY selector only, and
flow indicator remains black. Final correct setting for emergency use.
148
35 OXYGEN
Q03. What is duration of oxygen supply for cabin and crew rest
compartments ?
• The duration of oxygen supply for cabin and crew rest compartments is 22
minutes
149
35 OXYGEN
Q04. What is the red rotating knob?
150
ATA36 BLEED AIR
151
36 BLEED AIR
Q01. What systems receives high-pressure air from bleed air system ?
152
36 PNEUMATIC
Q02. What happen will lead to the engine bleed valve close
automatically in operation ? (answer at least 3 conditions)
• During the start sequence of the associated engine
• In the case of malfunction in the associated engine bleed air system
ü Bleed overpressure
ü Bleed overtemperature
• In the case of malfunction in the onside wing ice protection system
• In the case of a leak detection in the surrounding area
• In the case of a smoke procedure
• In the case the XBLEED selector is set to OPEN, and the wing anti-ice is set
to ON
153
36 PNEUMATIC
Q03. What valves will close automatically if a leak is detected on the
right side ?
• If a leak is detected on the right side, the following valves automatically
close:
ü The engine 2 bleed valve
ü The engine 2 bleed overpressure valve
ü The crossbleed valve
154
36 PNEUMATIC
Q04. What valves will close automatically if a leak is detected in the
pack 1 bay area and pack valve do not close automatically ?
• If a leak is detected in the pack 1 bay area and pack valve not close
autpmatically, the following valves automatically close:
ü The engine 1 bleed valve
ü The engine 1 bleed overpressure valve
ü The APU bleed valve
ü The crossbleed valve
155
ATA38 WATER/WASTE
Q01 Q02
156
38 WATER/WASTE
Q01. What waste water does drain overboard via drain masts ?
The waste water from galley sinks and lavatory washbasins drains overboard
via drain masts.
157
38 WATER/WASTE
Q02. How does flush function work in toilet system ?
158
ATA42 AVIONICS NETWORK - IMA
159
ATA42 AVIONICS NETWORK - IMA
Q01. How does A350’s systems communicate to each other ?
• Most of A350’s systems can communicate with each other via a high-speed
digital network which referes to as avionics network, instead of
conventional wires.
160
ATA42 AVIONICS NETWORK - IMA
Q02. How does avionics network work ?
• The avionics network transmit the information that comes from the
aircraft systems via switches,
• The switches also can exchange information between systems by defined
path via one or several switches,
161
ATA42 AVIONICS NETWORK - IMA
Q03. What is CPIOM ?
162
ATA42 AVIONICS NETWORK - IMA
Q04. What is CRDC ?
• The CRDC transforms data signals from a specific format, such as ARINC
429 data buses/analog signals, into digital format usable by the aircraft
systems connected to the avionics networks, and vice versa.
163
ATA49 AUXILIARY POWER UNIT
Q01 Q02
164
49 AUXILIARY POWER UNIT
Q01. What will system react if APU fire is detected on ground with APU
running ?
• The APU will automatically shut down, the APU fuel valves close, and
the APU fire extinguisher automatically discharges the agent 10 s after
warning appears. The APU fire light and horn on on the maintenance
nose gear panel, until the fire extinguished.
165
49 AUXILIARY POWER UNIT
Q02. In what condition the APU starts automatically in flight ?
167
52 DOORS
Q01. How does cockpit door mechanism for protection against
decompression ?
• In case of a rapid decompression in the cockpit, the cockpit door
automatically opens when the pressure drops by more than 10 psi/s. Two
Decompression Deceleration Devices (DDDs) slow down the opening of the
cockpit door
• In case of a rapid decompression in the cabin, the decompression and
evacuation panel automatically opens toward the cabin when the
differential pressure between the cabin and the cockpit is above 0.58 psi.
168
ATA70 ENGINES
Q01 Q02 Q03 Q04
Q05 Q06 Q07 Q08
Q09 Q10 Q11 Q12
169
70 ENGINES
Q01. How is the overview of A350 turbofan engine?
170
70 ENGINES
Q02. Which shaft is connected to accessory gearbox ?
171
70 ENGINES
Q03. What are functions of FADEC ?
• the FADEC:
ü Manage engine power
ü Provides engine protection
ü Controls the engine fuel flow
ü Controls engine ignition and start
172
70 ENGINES
Q04. How is the FADEC electrical supply ?
173
70 ENGINES
Q05. How many idle settings does EIF can adjust depending on flight
phase ?
• There are three idle settings, which are approach idle, minimum reverse
idle, and normal idle.
174
70 ENGINES
Q06. what is approach idle, and when does it activate ?
• The approach idle setting enables to rapidly accelerate the engine from idle
to go-around thrust, if needed.
• The EIF selects the approach idle setting when the aircraft is in flight and:
ü Landing gear is extended, or
ü The FLAP lever is set to 2, 3 or FULL position.
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70 ENGINES
Q07. When does normal idle activate ?
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70 ENGINES
Q08. How does FADEC protect not deploy thrust reversers in flight ?
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70 ENGINES
Q09. Brief describe the normal engine start sequence.
• The ignition and start systems perform the following procedures in the
following sequence:
ü The start system uses bleed air in order to operate the pneumatic
starter
ü The pneumatic starter operates the HP compressor turbine assembly via
the accessory gearbox
ü Then, the fuel system adds fuel in the combustion chamber for the
ignition.
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70 ENGINES
Q10. What are the bleed sources for pneumatic starter to start engine ?
• The pneumatic starter starts engine with the air of one of the following
sources:
ü The APU, or
ü The other engine in operation (cross engine start), or
ü The HP ground sources.
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70 ENGINES
Q11. What information does tell you in the thrust gauge ?
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70 ENGINES
Q12. What information does tell you in the reverse thrust gauge ?
181
OPERATION RELATED
LOW VISIBILITY OPERATION
COLD WX OPERATION
HOT WX OPERATION
182
LOW VISIBILITY OPERATION
Q01. What are the CAA Certified Standard Takeoff Minimums?
183
LOW VISIBILITY OPERATION
Q02. What are the CAA Certified Lower than Standard Takeoff
Minimums ?
184
185
COLD WEATHER OPERATION
Q01. What is the definition of “ Icing Condition “ ?
When to turn on the engine anti-ice ?
When to turn on the wing anti-ice ?
Icing condition exist when OAT(on ground) or the TAT(in flight) is at or below 10℃ and
visible moisture in any form is present.
Must turn on engine anti-ice when icing condition exists or anticipated, except during
climb and cruise when the SAT is below -40℃.
Must turn on engine anti-ice before or during descent if icing condition anticipated,
even if the SAT is below -40°C.
May turn on the wing anti-ice to prevent ice accretion when icing condition are
encountered.
Must turn on the wing anti-ice if there is evidence of ice accretion, or with the
“ SEVERE ICE DETECTED “alert.
186
COLD WEATHER OPERATION
Q02. When should ice shedding procedure be applied?
How to perform it ?
During ground operation, when in icing condition and the OAT is +3℃ or less,
or if significant engine vibration occurs.
To accelerate the engines approximately 50% of N1 for 5 s at intervals not
greater than 60 min.
187
COLD WEATHER OPERATION
Q03. What is Pre-Takeoff Check ?
What is Pre-Takeoff Contamination Check ?
Pre-Takeoff Check : A check of the aircraft’s wings or representative aircraft
surfaces for frozen contaminants. This check is conducted within the aircraft’s
HOT and may be made by observing representative surfaces from the flight
deck, cabin, or outside the aircraft.
Pre-Takeoff Contamination Check : A check (conducted after the aircraft’s HOT
has been exceeded) to ensure the aircraft’s wings, control surfaces, and other
critical surfaces, as defined in the certificate holder’s program, are free of all
frozen contaminants. This check must be completed within 5 minutes before
beginning takeoff and from outside the aircraft.
188
COLD WEATHER OPERATION
Q04. Takeoff and landing is not recommended on what kinds of
runway condition ?
189
190
HOT WEATHER OPERATION
What is the recommended minimum downwind distance to avoid
thunderstorm?
How close to a thunderstorm should be avoided during the descent and
approach to land phase?
- Thunderstorms must be avoided. It is recommended that the minimum
downwind distance to avoid a thunderstorm is 20 NM.
- Fly the aircraft clear of thunderstorms either by holding or adopting an
alternative approach track. The circuit and approach to land should be not
closer than 3 NM or 6 KM to an approaching storm at any time.
191
(MEM) MEMORY ITEMS
BRAKES LOSS OF BRAKING
EMER DESCENT
MISC STALL RECOVERY
STALL WARNING AT LIFTOFF
NAV UNRELIABLE AIR SPEED INDICATION
TAWS CAUTION
TAWS WARNING
TCAS CAUTION – TRAFFIC ADVISORY
SURV
TCAS WARNING – RESOULYION ADVISORY
WINDSHEAR WARNING – REACTIVE
WINDSHEAR
192
LOSS OF BRAKING
PF : LOSS OF BRAKING
193
EMER DESCENT
PF : EMERGENCY DESCENT
194
STALL RECOVERY
195
STALL WARNING AT LIFTOFF
PF : STALL, TOGA 12.5°
196
UNRELIABLE AIR SPEED INDICATION
PF : UNRELIABLE SPEED
197
TAWS CAUTION
PF : PULL Up TOGA
“OBSTACLE AHEAD”, “TERRAIN AHEAD”, “TERRAIN TERRAIN”, or “TOO LOW TERRAIN”
198
TAWS CAUTION
199
TAWS CAUTION
200
TAWS CAUTION
201
TAWS WARNING
PF : PULL Up TOGA
202
TCAS CAUTION – TRAFFIC ADVISORY
PF : TCAS BLUE (if AP/FD TCAS mode is armed)
TCAS, I HAVE CONTROL (if AP/FD TCAS mode does not arm)
203
TCAS WARNING – RESOLUTION ADVISORY
204
TCAS WARNING – RESOLUTION ADVISORY
205
TCAS WARNING – RESOLUTION ADVISORY
206
WINDSHEAR WARNING - REACTIVE WINDSHEAR
PF : WINDSHEAR TOGA
207
WINDSHEAR WARNING - REACTIVE WINDSHEAR
PF : WINDSHEAR TOGA
208
LIMITATION
1. Flight Maneuvering Load Acceleration Limits
2. Airport Operations and Wind Limitations
3. Weights
4. Speeds
5. Engine EGT/Starter/Taxi in FZFG/Warm-up Limits
6. Operational Envelope
7. Auto Flight System
209
Flight Maneuvering Load Acceleration Limits
u Clean configuration -1 g to +2.5 g
210
Airport Operations and Wind Limitations
u Runway slope (mean) ± 2%
u STARLUX airlines max. crosswind for takeoff and landing (gust included) 30 kt
211
Weights
u Maximum taxi weight 280,900 kg
212
Speeds
u Maximum operation speed ( VMO/MMO ) 340 kt/ M 0.89
u Maximum speeds with landing gear extended (VLE/MLE) 250 kt/ M 0.55
u Maximum speeds with landing gear operating (VLO/MLO) 250 kt/ M 0.55
u Maximum speeds for landing gear gravity extension (VLO/MLO) 220 kt/ M 0.48
213
Engine EGT Limits
Operating Condition Time Limit EGT Limit
In flight 850 °C
Starting
On ground 700 °C
214
Engine Starter
u Maximum continuous starter operation is 5 min:
ü 2 consecutive cycles of 3 min max., plus 1 additional cycle of 1 min,
with a run down to zero N3 and wait 30 s between each cycle, or
ü One 5 min cycle
u Wait 30 min after the last cycle to allow the start to cool
215
Maximum Taxi Time In FZFG Conditions
Engine stator
Engine stator A-ICE valve
Outside air temperature A-ICE valve
operative or failed open
failed closed
No dispatch
216
Engine Warm-Up Before Takeoff
u The engines must warm up at idle or taxi thrust before takeoff.
217
OPERATIONAL ENVELOPE
u Maximum operating altitude 43,100 ft
219
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