2.6 Division

Answer all the questions.
1(a). A group of microorganisms called slime moulds includes the species Dictyostelium discoideum.
The life cycle of D. discoideum is shown in Fig. 5.1.
① When plenty of food is available this slime mould exists as single-celled individuals which feed and
reproduce asexually.
The slime mould cells feed on bacteria.
The slime mould cells are attracted to folic acid which has been released by the bacteria.
② When food becomes scarce the slime mould cells release a chemical (cAMP) which attracts other slime
mould cells.
© OCR 2018. You may photocopy this page. 1 of 62 Created in ExamBuilder

③ The slime mould cells then group and stick together to form a multicellular mass called a grex.
The grex moves in a coordinated way in search of a more suitable environment.
As the grex moves, the cells release the chemical DIF. DIF causes some cells to become stalk cells and
others to become spore cells.
④ When the grex reaches suitable conditions, it forms a fruiting body consisting of a stalk and spores.
These spores are released and develop into new, individual, slime mould cells.
(i) Suggest the type of cell division used by D. discoideum for reproduction during stage ① of its life cycle.
[1]
(ii) At what stage of the life cycle does differentiation begin?
[1]
(b). Individual cells of D. discoideum can divide once every hour. A grex may consist of 100 000 individual cells.
Calculate how many hours it would take for one cell to produce enough cells to form a grex.
Answer = _ _ _ _ _ _ _ _ _ _ _ _ _ _ _ _ _ _ _ _ _ _ _ _ _ _ _ _ _ _ _ hours [1]

2(a). State the correct term for each of the following definitions.
A pair of chromosomes that contain genes for the same characteristics.
[1]
(b). A group of organs working together to perform an essential function.
[1]
(c). A type of cell division that produces genetic variation.
[1]

3. After being mixed with iodine, which of the following would show a blue / black colour?
A potato tuber cells

B erythrocytes
C sieve tube elements
D neutrophils
Your answer
[1]
4. Fig. 9.1 shows some of the checkpoints of the cell cycle.
Which statement correctly describes the events that happen if DNA damage is discovered at the G2 checkpoint?
A The cell cycle continues to mitosis and the DNA will be replicated during metaphase.
B The cell cycle is halted and the cell tries to repair the DNA.
C The cell cycle returns to the G1 phase to try to correct the damage.
D The cell cycle stops and the cell dies.
Your answer
[1]

5. The mitotic cell cycle is divided into a number of stages.
In which of the following stages will the chromosomes line up at the equator of the cell?
A anaphase
B interphase
C metaphase
D telophase
Your answer
[1]
6. Which of the following statements is a step in meiosis that can lead to variation within a species?
A Mutations occurring during DNA replication.

B Random fusion of gametes.
C Independent assortment of homologous chromosomes.
D Chromosomes forming homologous pairs called bivalents.
Your answer
[1]
7. A student observed mitosis in a prepared slide of a root tip.
The student recorded a description for each of four cells (A-D) and then tried to identify which stage of mitosis
had been observed.
Which of the mitotic stages has been identified correctly?
Description Mitotic stage identified

A Spindle fibres clearly visible Telophase
B Chromosomes aligned at equator Anaphase
C Sister chromatids pulled to poles of cell Metaphase
D Dark bodies visible within nucleus Prophase
Your answer
[1]

8. The second division of meiosis is different from mitosis because…
A …individual chromosomes line up randomly on the equator.

B …each chromosome replicates during metaphase.
C …chiasmata form between the chromatids of a bivalent.
D …the separating chromatids of a pair are not the same.
Your answer
[1]
9. Name the type of cell present in meristematic tissue and describe how xylem vessel elements are produced from
this type of cell.
Type of cell
Description
[4]

10. There are two types of nuclear division, mitosis and meiosis. Meiosis incorporates two divisions of the nucleus.
Which table shows the correct results of nuclear division?
Your answer
[1]

11. Sperm cells are an example of a specialised cell.
Which statement correctly describes one specialisation of a sperm cell?
A tail contains flagellum which generates ATP

B head contains chromosomes in homologous pairs
C acrosome contains enzymes to digest outer portion of egg
D midpiece contains mitochondria which enter egg
Your answer
[1]
12. Which statement explains the significance of mitosis in the development of whole organisms?
A Mitosis can be controlled at certain points in development, which will change body plans.
B Sex cells are produced by mitosis, which allows new organisms to be produced.
C Mitosis limits the total number of cells in an organism, which will change its shape.
D Budding in yeast is an example of mitosis, producing new multicellular organisms.
Your answer
[1]

13. Which of the following statements is / are true?
Statement 1: Microtubules are part of the ‘9 + 2’ formation in bacterial flagella.

Statement 2: Microtubules can be prevented from functioning by a respiratory inhibitor.
Statement 3: Microtubules are involved in moving chromosomes from the equator to the poles of the cell
during mitosis.
A 1, 2 and 3
B Only 1 and 2
C Only 2 and 3
D Only 1
Your answer
[1]
14. The following passage has four key terms missing:
Meristem cells in plants are used to generate new plant tissues. When _ _ _ _ _ _ _ _ _ _ _ _ _ _ _ _ _ _ _ _ tissue is
formed, _ _ _ _ _ _ _ _ _ _ _ _ _ _ _ _ _ _ _ _ impregnates the cell walls, making them impermeable to water. All
cytoplasm is lost. When _ _ _ _ _ _ _ _ _ _ _ _ _ _ _ _ _ _ _ _ tissue is formed, cytoplasm remains, but the _ _ _ _ _ _ _ _ _ _
_ _ _ _ _ _ _ _ _ _ become elongated and lose most of their cytoplasm.
What is the correct order of missing terms?
A sclerenchyma, phloem, lignin, xylem vessels

B xylem, lignin, parenchyma, phloem vessels
C phloem, collenchyma, xylem, sieve tube elements
D xylem, lignin, phloem, sieve tube elements
Your answer
[1]

15. Heliamphora, shown in Fig. 18.1, is a genus of carnivorous plant. Its leaves are adapted to form water-filled traps
for insects. The insects are attracted by nectar, then fall into the traps and drown. The plants digest the insects
and absorb the mineral ions produced. This allows Heliamphora to survive in soils with low mineral content.
Fig 18.2 shows a transverse section of part of a Heliamphora stem, with three tissues labelled.
(i) Identify the tissues labelled by the following letters:

A

[2]
(ii) The tissue labelled B is cambium.
What type of cell makes up this tissue?
[1]

16(a). Fig. 1.1 shows a microscopic image of part of a fish gill.
Name structure A.
[1]
(b). Explain how Fig. 1.1 shows that gills are adapted for efficient gas exchange.
[4]

(c). Each gill is supported by a gill arch made of bone. Bone tissue is made of living cells, collagen and an inorganic
component.
Explain why bone is described as a tissue and gills are described as organs.
[3]
17. The diagram below shows the arrangement of chromosomes in a cell during metaphase 2.
Which letter indicates a homologous pair of chromosomes?
Your answer
[1]

18. Fig. 19.1 shows a neutrophil responding to a pathogenic bacterium.
(i) What is the role of an opsonin during this process?
[1]
(ii) Other than having specific receptors, describe one way in which the structure of the neutrophil is specialised.
[1]

19(a). Bone marrow contains stem cells that can develop into erythrocytes, neutrophils and lymphocytes.
Describe the changes that must occur inside these stem cells as they differentiate to form erythrocytes.
[2]
(b). Cells from an embryo can be used for medical research and for research on the development of an organism.
Suggest three ways in which the use of embryonic stem cells in research has practical benefits to biological
knowledge.
[3]
(c). During development, cells become organised into tissues and organs.
Explain the difference between muscle tissue and a muscle.
[2]

20. The image shows a stage in mitosis.
Which of the following options, A to D, is the stage of mitosis shown above?
A anaphase
B metaphase
C prophase
D telophase
Your answer
[1]

21. Haemoglobin is found in erythrocytes. Unlike other vertebrates, the mature erythrocytes of mammals lack nuclei
and other membrane-bound organelles.
(i) Explain one advantage and one disadvantage of the lack of nuclei and other membranebound organelles to
mammalian erythrocytes.
Advantage
Disadvantage
[2]
(ii) Viruses do not use erythrocytes as host cells, whereas the malarial pathogen Plasmodium spends part of its
life cycle inside erythrocytes.
Suggest why.
[2]
(iii) Explain why erythrocytes do not make use of any of the oxygen that they are transporting.
[2]

22(a). Mitosis and meiosis play an important role in the life cycles of organisms.
Fig. 2.1 and Fig. 2.2 represent an outline of the life cycles of two different organisms.
Place a tick (✓) in each row of the table to indicate the type of nuclear division that occurs at each of the letters A
to E.

[3]

(b). Fig. 2.3 is a diagram that represents the different phases of the cell cycle.
X, Y and Z represent checkpoints in the control of the cell cycle.
Fig. 2.3
(i) State all the letters in Fig. 2.3 that represent the phases of interphase.
[1]
(ii) Suggest what is being checked at checkpoint Y on Fig. 2.3.
[1]

(c). Table 2.1 The table indicates the relative time spent in different phases of the cell cycle for three different types
of cell, P, Q and R.
Cell type Relative time spent in a phase

G1/G0 S G2 M/C
P 18 50 13 19
Q 18 25 11 16
R 100 0 0 0
(i) Which of the cells P, Q or R takes the shortest time to divide?
[1]
(ii) Suggest why cell P spends twice as much time in phase S than cell Q.
[1]
(iii) What can be deduced about the behaviour of cell R?

Give reasons for your answer.
[2]

(d). An experiment was carried out where a student observed cells in different tissues under the microscope.
The cells were undergoing mitosis.

200 cells were observed for each tissue.
The number of cells in each stage of mitosis was recorded.
The results are shown in Table 2.2.
Tissue type Number of cells in stage of mitosis Total

Prophase Metaphase Anaphase Telophase
V 65 55 7 73 200
W 85 59 6 50 200
The student had expected that the results observed for tissue type W would not be significantly different from
those for tissue type V.
(i) Identify the pieces of evidence in Table 2.2 that caused the student to suspect that the results for tissue type
W might be significantly different from those for tissue type V.
[1]
(ii) The student decided to analyse the data using a statistical test.
A friend suggested using Student's -test.
Why is Student's -test not suitable for dealing with this data?
[1]

(e). The chi-squared (x2) test can be used to analyse the data.
(i) Complete the rows for metaphase and telophase in the table below and calculate the x2 value for the data.
The x2 value is calculated using the following formula:
x2 = _ _ _ _ _ _ _ _ _ _ _ _ _ _ _ _ _ _ _ _ _ _ _ _ _ _ _ _ [3]
(ii) The value of chi-squared (x2) can be used to conclude whether the results for cells in tissue type W differ
significantly from those for tissue type V.

The number of degrees of freedom determines which row of the x2 probability table is used.
The number of degrees of freedom is defined as:
the number of categories - 1
What will be the number of degrees of freedom used in this analysis?
[1]
(iii) The student had expected that the results observed for tissue type W would not be significantly different from
those for tissue type V.
Use your calculated value for x2 and the information from the x2 probability table below to conclude whether
or not the results observed for tissue type W are significantly different from those for tissue type V.
Degrees of Probability (p)

freedom 0.99 0.95 0.05 0.01 0.001
1 0.00 0.00 3.84 6.64 10.83
2 0.02 0.10 5.99 9.21 13.82
3 0.11 0.35 7.82 11.35 16.27
4 0.30 0.71 9.49 13.28 18.47
5 0.55 1.15 11.07 15.09 20.52
6 0.84 1.64 12.59 16.81 22.46
7 1.24 2.17 14.07 18.48 24.32
Conclusion _ _ _ _ _ _ _ _ _ _ _ _ _ _ _ _ _ _ _ _ _ _ _ _ _ _ _ _ _ _ _ _ _ _ _ _ _ _ _ _ _ _ _ _ _ _ _ _ _ _ _ _ _ _ _ _ _ _ _ _ _ _ _ _ _ _ _ _
[2]
23. Stem cells can specialise to form a variety of cell types.
What other feature is shown by stem cells but not by specialised cells?
[1]

24(a). The figure shows a cell during mitosis.
Fig. 4.1
(i) Name the stage of mitosis shown.
[1]
(ii) From the start of mitosis, describe the events that have taken place in this cell to enable it to reach the stage
shown in Fig. 4.1.
In your answer you should use appropriate technical terms, spelled correctly.

[5]
(b). Mitosis occupies only a small part of the cell cycle.
Outline the events that take place in the rest of the cell cycle.
[3]

25. Mosses are small plants with no true roots. Each plant is anchored by simple root-like structures which do not
contain vascular tissue.
The leaves of moss plants are usually one cell thick and are attached to a thin stem. Neither the leaves nor stem
contain vascular tissue.
Fig. 5.1 shows a leaf from a typical moss plant.
Fig. 5.1
(i) What is meant by the term tissue?
[2]
(ii) Leaves of dicotyledonous plants contain types of cells that are not found in the leaves of mosses, such as
that shown in Fig. 5.1.
Other than the cells found in vascular tissues, name two types of cell found in the leaves of dicotyledonous
plants that are not found in the leaves of mosses.

[2]

26. Fig. 2.1 shows some undifferentiated plant cells, such as those found at the tips of roots and shoots.
Fig. 2.1
(i) Name the type of tissue that undergoes cell division to form these undifferentiated plant cells.
[1]
(ii) State the features shown in Fig. 2.1 that would not be found in mature xylem vessels.
[2]
(iii) Describe how the structure of the cell walls in xylem vessels would differ from the cell walls shown in Fig. 2.1.

[2]

27(a). Fig. 1.1 shows changes over time in the mass of nuclear DNA in some of the cells of thetestes of a diploid
organism.
During this time period, two different types of nuclear division occurred.
Fig. 1.1
(i) Identify the two types of division represented in Fig. 1.1.
division type 1 _ _ _ _ _ _ _ _ _ _ _ _ _ _ _ _ _ _ _ _ _ _ _ _ _ _ _ _ _ _ _ _ _ _ _ _ _ _ _ _ _ _ _ _ _ _ _ _ _ _ _ _ _ _ _ _ _ _ _ _ _ _ _ _ _
division type 2 _ _ _ _ _ _ _ _ _ _ _ _ _ _ _ _ _ _ _ _ _ _ _ _ _ _ _ _ _ _ _ _ _ _ _ _ _ _ _ _ _ _ _ _ _ _ _ _ _ _ _ _ _ _ _ _ _ _ _ _ _ _ _ _ _
[1]
(ii) Name the processes that are occurring at the points labelled A and B, which cause the change in the mass
of DNA per cell.
A ___________________________________________________________________________
B ___________________________________________________________________________
[2]

(b). Discuss the ways in which genetic variation is produced, including the role of nuclear division.
In your answer you should link the processes to the ways in which the genetic variation is produced.
[9]

28. Identical twins in humans are natural clones. They form when a fertilised egg cell divides by mitosis into two
entirely separate groups of cells. Each group of cells develops into a baby.
Two brothers, who were identical twins, married two sisters, who were also identical twins. Each couple had one
child.
Fig. 1.3 shows the relationships between these six people.
Fig. 1.3
Using your knowledge of mitosis and meiosis, estimate the percentage of alleles shared by the individuals listed
in the table below.
Individuals % of alleles shared

David and John
Anne and Lisa
Sarah and Lisa
[3]
29. One function of healthy kidneys is to make the hormone erythropoietin (EPO), which stimulates the production of
red blood cells. Patients with kidney failure may need to be given supplements of EPO.
State the type of cell from which red blood cells are formed and where this type of cell is located.
type of cell
location [1]

30. Which of the diagrams, A to D, is a stem cell?
Your answer
[1]

31. Which of the following, A to D, is an incorrect statement about blood cells?
A Erythrocytes and neutrophils are derived from the same stem cells.
B Erythrocytes develop large numbers of ribosomes early in their differentiation.
C The majority of organelles in red blood cells are broken down by hydrolysis.
D Neutrophils undergo mutation during differentiation.
Your answer
[1]
32. Multicellular organisms, such as plants, have evolved internal transport systems.
(i) Explain the benefit to plants of internal transport systems.
[2]
(ii) The transport systems of plants contain cells that are specialised to perform a particular function.
The table below shows information about three types of specialised plant cell. Three boxes have been
completed already.
Complete the rest of the table by placing the correct responses in the empty boxes.
Cell Location Example of a substance Contains chloroplasts?

transported (✓ or ✗)
Guard cell carbon dioxide
Companion cell ✗
Root hair cell roots
[3]

33. Cells can be counted and analysed using a technique called flow cytometry. DNA in the cells is stained with a
fluorescent dye before analysis. The degree of fluorescence is dependent on the amount of DNA present.
(i) Use your knowledge of the cell cycle to name the stages of interphase that match the following descriptions.
The stage in which a cell produces the least fluorescence
The stage in which a cell produces the most fluorescence
The stage in which the highest number of cells is recorded
[3]
(ii) Scientists analysed a sample of liver cells. Of these cells, 27.2% were found to be undergoing cell division or
nuclear division. An adult human's liver contains approximately 180 billion cells.
Estimate the number of cells in interphase in an adult human's liver.
Write your answer in standard form to two significant figures.
Answer = _ _ _ _ _ _ _ _ _ _ _ _ _ _ _ _ _ _ _ _ _ _ _ _ _ _ _ _ _ _ _ _ [1]
(iii) Suggest why the use of fluorescent dyes in flow cytometry is inappropriate when analysing red blood cells.
[1]
END OF QUESTION PAPER

Mark Scheme
Question Answer/Indicative content Marks Guidance
1 a i mitosis ; 1 CREDIT correct spelling only

ACCEPT binary fission
Examiner's Comments
Most candidates were able to identify the

type of cell division and the stage of the life
cycle where differentiation takes place.
ii in the grex / 3 ; 1
Examiner's Comments
Most candidates were able to identify the

type of cell division and the stage of the life
cycle where differentiation takes place.
b 17 (hours) ; 1
Examiner's Comments
A simple calculation was required to

determine how many hours it would take a
single cell to reproduce a sufficient number
of times to produce a mass of at least 100
000 cells. The best candidates achieved
this mark. Most candidates, however, were
unable to make the calculation which
simply needed them to double the number
each hour until they reached a total of over
100 000.
Total 3
2 a Mark the first answer for each question

part. If the answer is correct and a further
answer is given that is incorrect or
contradicts the correct answer then = 0
marks
Examiner's Comments
This was a straightforward question testing

candidates’ knowledge of terms. Most
candidates knew many of the terms but a
couple were less well known.

Mark Scheme
homologous (chromosomes) OR 1 IGNORE bivalent

homologue(s) ;
Examiner's Comments
This term was well known to the majority of

candidates.
b (organ) system ; 1 DO NOT CREDIT specific named system

unless given as example
Mark the first answer for each question

marks
Examiner's Comments

candidates.
c meiosis ; 1 CREDIT correct spelling only
Mark the first answer for each question

marks
Examiner's Comments

candidates. However, fewer candidates
were able to spell meiosis correctly.
Total 3

Mark Scheme
3 A 1
Total 1
4 B 1
Total 1
5 C 1
Total 1
6 C 1
Total 1
7 D 1
Total 1
8 D 1
Total 1
9 Type of cell 4
stem (cells) (1)
Description - any three from,

by differentiation (1)
(cell) elongation (1)
deposition of lignin / lignification (of cell
walls) (1)
end walls break down (1)
Total 4
10 B 1
Total 1
11 C 1
Total 1
12 A 1
Total 1
13 C 1
Total 1

Mark Scheme
14 D 1
Total 1
15 i A phloem (1) 2
C xylem (1)
ii meristem 1 ALLOW meristematic

DO NOT ALLOW stem cells /
undifferentiated cells
Total 3
16 a lamella 1 ALLOW lamellae.
b three from 4
many / AW, lamellae / structure A, provide
large surface area (1)
(presence of) secondary lamellae on main
lamellae provide large surface area (1)
short distance between blood and, water /
outside (1)
idea that blood maintains diffusion gradient
(1)
any of above linked to ALLOW only if linked to another marking

faster diffusion (of oxygen, carbon dioxide) point.
(1)
IGNORE refs to squamous cells as not
visible on Fig. 1.1.
c three from 3
tissue has, one / few, types of cell
and performs, one / few, functions (1)
idea that bone has, one / few, types of cell

or
idea that bone performs, one / few,
functions (1)
organs consist of several tissues (1)
gills contain two or more named tissues (1) ALLOW bone, blood, epithelial,
connective.
Total 8

Mark Scheme
17 A 1
Total 1
18 i (opsonin) binds to antigen on pathogen 1

and, assists binding / binds, to phagocyte
ii any one: 1
well-developed cytoskeleton (1)

many lysosomes (1)
many mitochondria (1)
lobed nucleus (1)
Total 2
19 a synthesise (a lot of) haemoglobin (1) 2

remove / digest, (named) organelles ACCEPT nucleus, ribosomes, rough ER
associated with protein synthesis (1)
b (can be grown into different tissues to) test 3

how effective new medicinal drugs are (1)
(can be grown into different tissues to) test

for side effects / toxicity of new drugs (1)
(can be grown and) studied to see how

they develop into different cell types
(developmental research) (1)
cell function can be studied to find out what e.g. cancer

can make it fail to work properly in certain
(named) diseases (1)
c muscle tissue is a group of cells which 2

contract together (1)
a muscle is an organ that consists of Other named tissues could include:

muscle tissue and other (named) tissues nervous tissue, blood, connective tissue
working together (1)
Total 7

Mark Scheme
20 B 1
Examiner's Comments
This should have been fairly

straightforward for candidates who had
seen images of mitosis or who could
interpret the image using knowledge from
diagrams of the process. A few suggested
M, which was not a valid option.
Total 1

Mark Scheme
21 i max 2 Mark first answer only for advantage and

disadvantage.
advantages
A1 more space for / can contain more / can A1 DO NOT CREDIT in context of larger
carry more, haemoglobin / oxygen ✔ surface area
ACCEPT ‘Hb’ for haemoglobin
A2 can squeeze through capillaries easily
✔
disadvantages
D1 limited life span / cannot divide / D1 max time of 120 days / 4 months
cannot reproduce / cannot undergo mitosis
✔
D2 no, protein synthesis / repair ✔
D3 no respiration, in / by, mitochondria D3 DO NOT CREDIT ‘no mitochondria so
or no respiration’ (as some respiration will still
no mitochondria for respiration take place)
or
limited respiration / no aerobic respiration / ACCEPT ‘ATP release’ or ‘energy
only anaerobic respiration ✔ provided’ instead of ‘respiration’ e.g. no
energy being provided from mitochondria
ATP is not released by mitochondria
DO NOT CREDIT ref to producing /

creating, energy
Examiner's Comments
Most candidates stated that lack of a

nucleus left more space for
oxygen/haemoglobin but a significant
number referred wrongly to an increase in
surface area. The short life span of
erythrocyte was commonly stated as a
disadvantage but very few candidates
realised their inability to carry out protein
synthesis. Many candidates simply
re‐stated that erythrocytes had no
membrane‐bound organelles or a nucleus
without any further qualification. A common
misunderstanding was that the erythrocyte
would be unable to respire, failing to
realise that anaerobic respiration does still
take place. A significant number said that
erythrocytes would be unable to defend
themselves from infection without a
nucleus, or could not control cell activities

Mark Scheme

or what entered or left the cell.
ii virus 2 IGNORE ref to the erythrocyte not having

membrane‐bound organelles without ref to
the need of the virus to use them inside the
cell
virus is unable to / cannot, replicate / Must be a clear statement

reproduce, on its own / outside a host cell ACCEPT needs / has to use, host cell to,
or virus requires host cell, machinery / replicate / reproduce
DNA / RER / ribosomes, for protein
synthesis
or
virus does not contain, RER / ribosomes,
for protein synthesis ✔
____________________
Plasmodium ACCEPT ‘malarial pathogen’ for

Plasmodium
IGNORE eukaryotic / protoctist
IGNORE it has its own, DNA / nucleus /
protein synthesis apparatus
idea that Plasmodium is using the host cell

to hide from the immune system
or
for Plasmodium to complete its life cycle
or IGNORE ref to just, part / stage, of life
for Plasmodium to use as a source of food cycle
(for, growth / reproduction) ✔
IGNORE ref to organelles
Examiner's Comments
This was a challenging question for many,

and several failed to specify which
organism they were talking about.
Candidates often understood that viruses
couldn't use erythrocytes for reproduction
but failed to make the link that viruses must
use the host cell to replicate. Candidates
restated the question describing that part
of the Plasmodium life cycle took place in
the red blood cell but failed to realise it did
not complete its life cycle. Commonly,
candidates said that the Plasmodium used
the erythrocyte for transport and as a
source of oxygen. Many candidates spoke
of Plasmodium using the erythrocyte

Mark Scheme

because it is injected directly into the blood
by the mosquito. Only the most able
candidates described how Plasmodium
could evade the immune response within
the red blood cell.
iii 1 oxygen is bound to haemoglobin (while 2 1 ACCEPT ‘it’ for ‘oxygen’

being transported) ✔ ACCEPT ‘Hb’ for haemoglobin
2 lack mitochondria ✔
3 (therefore) no aerobic respiration ✔ 3 ACCEPT only respires anaerobically

IGNORE ref to energy
4 (moved by mass flow so) doesn't need, 4 DO NOT CREDIT‘ does not need,
energy / ATP, to move energy / ATP’ unqualified
or needs less, energy / ATP (for metabolic DO NOT CREDIT ‘makes / produces,
processes) ✔ energy’
Examiner's Comments
Most candidates scored 1 mark for lack of

mitochondria although some candidates
just referred to no organelles or no
organelles for respiration. Very few
candidates made the connection with
aerobic respiration and the majority of
candidates believed that erythrocytes could
not respire at all and just had a completely
passive role. Many candidates referred to
the pointless nature of using the oxygen
that they are supposed to be carrying to
other tissues, more of a philosophical
attitude than biological one.
Total 6

Mark Scheme
22 a 3 Only credit 1 tick on each row.

IGNORE crosses
A ALLOW a tick for mitosis instead of

meiosis
Mark A, B & C together to max 2

3 correct answers = 2 marks
2 correct answers = 1 mark
1 or 0 correct answers = 0 marks
1 ✗ = max 1 2 ✗ = 0 marks
Mark D & E together to max 1

2 correct answers = 1 mark
1 or 0 correct answers = 0 marks
1 ✗ = 0 marks
Examiner's Comments
Most candidates struggled to apply their

knowledge of mitosis and meiosis in the
unfamiliar context of two life cycle
diagrams. The most frequent mark to be
awarded was for recognising that stage C
represented mitosis and that A could be
either meiosis or mitosis. Candidates
almost universally made the mistake of
naming meiosis as producing the gametes
in the sporophyte plant life cycle. They
made the same mistake at step D for the
stage between a haploid organism and its
gametes. The association of meiosis with
gametes in candidates' thinking clearly
over-rides any understanding of the
reduction or maintenance of chromosome
numbers. The instruction was clear that ‘a’
tick was needed in each row, but a number
of candidates put two ticks in some rows.

Mark Scheme
b i G1and S and G2 ✓ 1 in any order

IGNORE G0, X, Y & Z
DO NOT CREDIT if M or C are included
Examiner's Comments
Most candidates selected the gap and

synthesis stages of the cell cycle as
comprising interphase. A few made the
error of including either mitosis or
cytokinesis as well. A lot of candidates
thought that X, Y and Z were phases,
rather than the checkpoints they were
already identified as in the question.
ii idea that (checking that) DNA has 1 replicate = duplicate = copy

replicated correctly ✓ ACCEPT (checking that) the chromosomes
have duplicated correctly
ACCEPT (checking that) the duplicated
chromatids have no faults
ACCEPT (checking) for , mutations /
damage to DNA / damage to genes / errors
in DNA
IGNORE genetic material / genetic
information
IGNORE ref to organelle replication
Examiner's Comments
This question tested candidates'

awareness of what happens at the Sphase
of the cell cycle. Correct answers focused
on checking that the DNA had replicated
correctly without mutation. Some answers
also made irrelevant reference to the
replication of organelles.
c i Q✓ 1 If an additional incorrect answer is

given = 0 marks
Examiner's Comments
Most candidates correctly identified cell Q.

Mark Scheme
ii 1 it / P, needs to synthesise / contains / 1 1 CREDIT ref to P being polyploid

has, more DNA / longer DNA / more CREDIT ref to P being diploid and Q being
genetic material / more chromosomes ✓ haploid
ACCEPT idea of has more DNA to repair
after G1 checkpoint
2 AVP ✓ 2 e.g. ref to P being from an organism at

a lower temperature
P has a lower metabolic rate ora
IGNORE replicating organelles
Examiner's Comments
Some excellent answers were seen to this

question. Candidates were expected to
refer to DNA and so references to P being
a complex cell without further qualification
were not credited.

Mark Scheme
iii two from 2

1 DO NOT CREDIT most of the time in,
1 it spends all of its time in / does not G1 / G 0
leave, G1 ACCEPT ‘has been sent into G0’ IGNORE
or ‘is in G1’ as this restates what is in the
it spends all of its time in / does not leave, table
G0 ✓ IGNORE ref to interphase
2 (so) it is not, dividing / replicating /

undergoing mitosis ✓
3 specialised / differentiated ✓ 3 ACCEPT ref to having reached the end

of its development
4 AVP ✓ 4 e.g. of differentiated cell – erythrocyte /
neurone / B memory cell etc damage has
been detected in G1 (so cannot progress)
is dormant nutrients / size, not right to
enter growth phase
IGNORE is a stem cell / cancer / dead /

apoptosis
Examiner's Comments
Some candidates incorrectly thought the

cell would be dead but there were plenty of
good answers to this question with ideas of
differentiation and specialisation and
suggestions of examples of cells that cell R
could be. There were a number of
alternatives on the mark scheme to reflect
the wide range of potential correct
answers.

Mark Scheme
d i W / it, has 1 CREDIT correct ref to the relative numbers

of cells in both phases
(many) more cells in prophase
and CREDIT stated correctly calculated
(far) fewer cells in telophase ✓ differences
e.g. ‘W has 20 more cells in prophase and
23 less in telophase’
‘W has 20 more cells in prophase and V
has 23 more cells intelophase’
‘a difference of 20 in prophase and 23 in
telophase’
ACCEPT answers referring to speed rather

than no. of cells (i.e. W spends longer in
prophase but less time in telophase etc)
DO NOT CREDIT if Metaphase and/or

Anaphase are suggested
Examiner's Comments
This question tested candidates' ability to

scan a set of data and select the significant
differences. The mark was not awarded if
only one of prophase or telophase was
discussed. The difference neededto be
qualified as more in prophase and less in
telophase for cell W, or calculated figure
differences for both stages needed to be
given.
ii t‐test compares two (or more) means 1 CREDIT ref to not being a normal
or distribution / is not continuous data / is
idea that this data does not include discrete data
mean(s)
or ACCEPT the idea that there are more than
cannot calculate mean from this data 2 categories
or
cannot calculate SD from this data ✓ IGNORE ref to ‘average’ instead of ‘mean’
Examiner's Comments
There was wide variation in candidates'

familiarity with the Student's t‐test. Most
correct answers referred to the need for
comparing or calculating means for this
test. Some stated that the test could only
be used for calculations relating to
biodiversity, as this had presumably been
the context in which it had been taught.

Mark Scheme
e i calculation 3 Correct value of x2 = 3 marks

X2 = 13.835 or 13.833 or 13.834 ✓ ✓ ✓
Answer should be to 3 dp to be
consistent with the rest of the table. If
answer unrounded or over‐rounded but
otherwise correct, max 2
Award 1 mark per correct row (whether

rounded or not)
plus 1 mark for x2
Only penalise the same type of error

once. ALLOW ecf for x2 from incorrect row
value(s)
Examiner's Comments
The chi-squared test was well done by a

great many candidates, who were clearly
well‐prepared for the calculation aspect of
the test. It was clear, however, that some
candidates had not encountered chi-
squared before [ref. the mathematical
requirements in the AS Specification]. The
scaffolding provided in the question,
however, assisted them in completing the
calculation. In this question as sample
figures in the last column were given to
three decimal places, answers should also
have been given to three decimal places.
The common errors were in rounding
figures incorrectly or thinking that the
square of ‐23 is also a negative number.
ii 3 (degrees of freedom) ✓ 1
Examiner's Comments
Most candidates followed the instructions

given and correctly identified the degrees
of freedom as 3.

Mark Scheme
iii Any statement(s) made must be correct 2 ALLOW ecf from candidate's calculated
for the candidate’s responses to (i)and x2value in (i) using the number of degrees
(ii). of freedom theystated in (ii).
two from 1 calculated value is, > / greater

than, 7.82 / the critical value at p = 0.05 /
the value for (p =) 0.05
or
7.82 / the critical value at p = 0.05 / the
value for (p =) 0.05, is, less than / <, For incorrect x2 and degrees of freedom
13.835 ✓ values, apply mark points 1 to 5 to
correspond to their results.
2 (difference / deviation) is, significant /
not due to chance ✓ Examiner's Comments
3 95% certain that the results are not due As might be expected, this part of the
to chance question proved to be the most
or challenging. Comparing the calculated
difference would only occur by chance 5% value of chi-squared with a statistical table
of the time ✓ to draw a conclusion was the weakest step
in the mental processing. There are many
4 (difference / deviation) also significant ways of expressing the conclusion that can
at p = 0.01 value be drawn from a chi‐squared procedure
or and the mark scheme gives an exhaustive
99% certain that the results are not due to list of examples for use in teaching.
chance Candidates who got parts (e)(i) and / or
or (e)(ii) wrong were not disadvantaged at this
difference would only occur by chance 1% stage, as conclusions were marked based
of the time on their figures. The crucial piece of
or understanding that was missing from
value is, > / greater than, p = 0.01 / 11.35 wrong answers is that the probability in the
or column headings is the probability of this
probability is, < / less than, 0.01 amount of deviation (difference) occurring
or by chance. The use of p = 0.05 as the
probability is between 0.01 and 0.001 critical value is central to the interpretation.
or It may also help to explain to students that
probability is not significant at p = 0.001 ✓ the smaller the chi-squared value, the
5 the null hypothesis can be rejected✓ better the fit of the two sets of data.
Total 17

Mark Scheme
23 (ability to continue) dividing; 1 Mark the first answer. If the answer is

correct and an additional answer is given
that is incorrect or contradicts the correct
answer then = 0 marks
Examiner's Comments
The vast majority of candidates responded

by saying that stem cells could
differentiate. This suggests that many have
not understood the concept that cells
differentiate to become specialised. No
mark was awarded for ‘able to differentiate’
as the ability to form specialised cells was
given in the question. Few candidates
recalled that stem cells are able to keep
dividing – which is perhaps their main role.
Total 1

Mark Scheme
24 a i anaphase; 1 Mark the first answer. If the answer is

correct and an additional answer is given
that is incorrect or contradicts the correct
answer then = 0 marks
Examiner's Comments
Anaphase is possibly the easiest stage to

identify and the majority of candidates did
so correctly.
ii max 5 ACCEPT chromatid for chromosome

throughout
Note: There is no mark for naming phases,
but if phase is mentioned and description is
incorrect for named phase then DO NOT
CREDIT
Accept mp 1-5 in prophase, mp 6
metaphase, mp 7 anaphase mp 8 in any
phase
IGNORE ref to events in telophase and
cytokinesis, as they occur after anaphase
1. chromosomes coil / supercoil / ACCEPT chromatin

condense;
2. nuclear envelope disintegrates; ACCEPT nuclear membrane
3. nucleolus, no longer visible / IGNORE dissolves
disappears;
4. centrioles move to opposite, ends of
cell / poles;
5. chromosomes attached to spindle fibres
at centromere;
6. chromosomes align at equator; DO NOT CREDIT pairs of chromosomes
7. chromosomes move towards opposite, line up
poles / ends of cell; ACCEPT pairs of chromatids line up
8. spindle fibres change length / shorten;
max 4 IGNORE spindle fibres contract

QWC;
Place a green blob next to each word and
max 1 a tick next to the pencil. Award if any two
terms spelt correctly and used in correct
context from:
chromosomes / chromatids / chromatin
supercoil nucleolus
condense centromere
nuclear envelope (but not membrane)
centriole pole
spindle equator

Mark Scheme

Examiner's Comments
As the question started with 'From the

beginning of mitosis‥', it was very
disappointing to see how many candidates
described the processes in interphase
such as DNA replication and checking
before describing the events in prophase.
However, most candidates had a good
grasp of the events in mitosis and only a
few confused it with meiosis by describing
pairing of homologous chromosomes
during prophase. Some candidates were
able to provide a good number of details.
The majority of candidates who described
attachment of spindle fibres to the
centromere placed this in metaphase after
the chromosomes had moved to the
equator. In fact the attachment occurs in a
sub-stage of prophase known as
prometaphase. It should be clear to
students that the chromosomes will not
migrate to the equator on their own – they
need the spindle fibres to pull them.
Another misconception held by many
candidates was that the spindle fibres
contract to move the chromosomes. Some
confusion between chromosomes and
chromatids was also evident and centres
should be sure their students can make a
clear distinction such as calling them
chromatids while they are still attached at
the centromere but chromosomes once the
centromere has split. Thus, one
chromosome consisting of two chromatids
becomes two chromosomes as soon as
the centromeres split apart.

Mark Scheme
b max 3 For mp 1 & 2 where candidates link

events to S & G phases then description
must be correct for phase.
S phase is DNA synthesis only
G phases contain protein synthesis,
increasing numbers of organelles,
growth, increased respiration and
checking of DNA.
DNA / genetic material, replicated / IGNORE chromosomes replicate / DNA

synthesised / checked; copied / DNA doubles
cell growth / increased respiration / protein ACCEPT more ATP

synthesis / increase in number of
organelles;
cytokinesis / cell surface membrane
constricts / cytoplasm splits in two / cell
plate forms (plants); ACCEPT Gap or ‘growth’ for G and
ref to G and S phases; Synthesis for S throughout
ACCEPT in context of diagram
Total 9
25 i group of cells; 2 ACCEPT cells derived from same stem cell

sourc
working together / performing a function;
Examiner's Comments
Almost all candidates achieved full marks

for this simple definition.
Many candidates gained credit
ii palisade (mesophyll); 2 max Mark the first two answers. If two correct
spongy mesophyll; responses are given followed by one or
guard cells; two incorrect responses or which contradict
(upper / lower) epidermal cells; the correct answers then = 1 or 0 marks
AVP; e.g. parenchyma, collenchyma,

sclerenchyma
Examiner's Comments
for naming palisade, epidermal, spongy

mesophyll or guard cells. Weaker
candidates lost credit as they named
companion cells, sieve tube elements or
even root hair cells and stomata.
Total 4

Mark Scheme
26 i meristem(atic); 1 IGNORE position in plant such as ‘root tip’,

cambium
Examiner's Comments
This was well answered with the majority of

candidates giving the correct response
(meristem). The most common error was to
name the sites in the plant where
meristematic tissue is found (root tip or
shoot tip) or stating ‘cambium’.
ii 2 max Read through and award marks for

correct features
nucleus / nucleolus / chromatin; IGNORE ref to other individual organelles /
vacuole
IGNORE nucleous
DO NOT CREDIT ‘two nuclei in one cell’
cytoplasm;
cross / end, (cell) walls; CREDIT end plates

ACCEPT no end walls / no nucleus / no
cytoplasm
IGNORE walls between cells
Examiner's Comments
A good proportion of candidates gained full

credit for stating ‘nucleus’ and ‘cytoplasm’.
Some correctly described ‘no end walls’.
The most common misconceptions were
‘vacuole’ and ‘other organelles’ or naming
specific organelles such as ‘mitochondria’
– none of these features are visible in the
photograph supplied. There was a feeling
that many less able candidates were
simply listing differences from memory
rather than referring to the photographs.

Mark Scheme
iii thicker; 2max IGNORE stronger
lignified; CREDIT have lignin /contain lignin /

reinforced with lignin / impregnated with
lignin
DO NOT CREDIT have lignin on the walls /
lined by lignin / surrounded by lignin
IGNORE ref to pattern of thickening
contain (bordered) pits; IGNORE ‘pore’
Examiner's Comments
Many candidates correctly stated that

xylem vessel walls are ‘impregnated with
lignin’ or some variation of this. However
some failed to achieve credit because of
poor expression - stating that lignin ‘lined’
or ‘coated’ the cell walls. Many candidates
also correctly identified the pits in the walls
of mature xylem vessels, although a few
erroneously referred to these as ‘pores’ or
‘plasmodsemata‘. Only a very few
candidates stated that the walls would be
thicker. Unfortunately, a number of less
able candidates lost marks because they
described the adaptations of xylem tissue
forming hollow tubes or referred to a lack
of end walls between the cells rather than
referring to the structure of the wall itself.
Total 5

Mark Scheme
27 a i 1 Mark the first answer on each prompt

line. If the answer is correct and an
additional answer is given that is incorrect
or contradicts the correct answer then = 0
marks
division type 1
mitosis ACCEPT correct spelling only
and
division type 2 ACCEPT correct spelling only

meiosis; CREDIT meiosis I and II
DO NOT CREDIT meiosis I / meiosis II
alone
Examiner's Comments
Most candidates realised that division 1

was mitosis and division 2 was meiosis:
however, some candidates lost the mark
for listing just meiosis I or II, or for
misspelling meiosis.
ii 2 Mark the first answer on each prompt

line. If the answer is correct and an
or contradicts the correct answer then = 0
marks
A (DNA) replication; IGNORE stages of cell division
B cytokinesis; IGNORE cell division / stages of cell

division
Examiner's Comments
Many candidates misread the question and

thought that they needed to give the stage
of division occurring at points A and B
rather than the processes occurring at A
and B, and gave the responses of
interphase and telophase / cell division,
which gained no credit.
b A1 independent assortment / random 8 max A1 ACCEPT Random assortment /

segregation, of (homologous) independent segregation
chromosomes / bivalents;
A2 / A3 DO NOT CREDIT metaphase /
meiosis, I and II
A2 in, metaphase I / meiosis I; A2 / A3 ACCEPT correct anaphase stage

Mark Scheme

A3 of chromatids in, metaphase II / meiosis linked to segregation
II; A2 must be in context of independent
assortment / random segregation
A4 (so) homologous chromosomes, have A4 / A5 DO NOT CREDIT genes

different alleles / come from different A4 ACCEPT pairs of chromosomes /
parents; maternal and paternal chromosomes, have
different alleles / come from different
parents
A5 produces large number of allele A5 ACCEPT different combinations of,

combinations; chromatids / chromosomes, in gametes
CREDIT figures e.g. for humans 223
possible combinations
C1 crossing over / (formation of) C1 DO NOT CREDIT between sister

chiasma(ta); chromatids
C2 in, prophase I / meiosis I; C3 (so) C2 DO NOT CREDIT prophase / meiosis, I
chromatids will have new combination of and II
alleles; C2 must be in context of crossing over
C3 ACCEPT shuffles / swaps / exchanges,
alleles on chromatids
C4 amount of variation depends on C4 e.g. more variation the further apart the
distance between crossover points; crossovers occur
M1 mutation;
M2 changes the (DNA) nucleotide/ base, M2 IGNORE ‘pairs’
sequence; M2 CREDIT deletion, / substitution /
addition, of, base / nucleotide
M3 DNA checks (during duplication) did M3 ACCEPT proof reading did not
not recognise damage; recognise damage
M4 idea of differences in (named) M4 e.g. change in, amino acid sequence /

protein(s); primary structure
N1 non-disjunction; N1 CREDIT inversion / translocation

(chromosome mutation)
N2 homologous chromosomes do not N2 CREDIT description of inversion /
separate (in metaphase I); translocation
N3 one, more / less, chromosome present; N3 CREDIT examples of chromosome

changes e.g. Trisomy 21
F1 random, mating / fusion of gametes/
fertilisation;
F2 gametes are not genetically identical; F2 ACCEPT gametes are genetically
different
F3 produces large number of (allele) F3 DO NOT CREDIT produce large
combinations; number of gene combinations

Mark Scheme
1 Awarded for one change and

QWC; consequence of that change
Award if ONE of the following has been

awarded
mp A1 or A2 or A3 and mp A4 or A5
OR
mp C1 or C2 and mp C3 or C4
OR
mp M1 or M2 and mp M3 or M4
OR
mp N1 or N2 and mp N3
OR
mp F1 or F2 and mp F3
Examiner's Comments
This question discriminated well across the

mark range, with many candidates able to
relate genetic variation to the stages of
meiosis. Weaker candidates merely listed
the events of each stage of meiosis,
without linking them to the way in which
genetic variation was achieved, gaining no
credit. Candidates should be encouraged
to read the question again after they have
answered it to check they have followed
the instructions correctly.
The most common responses seen talked
about independent assortment of
chromosomes in metaphase I and
chromatids in metaphase II,crossing over
in prophase I, mutation and random
fertilisation, all of which gained credit.
However, some candidates confused the
terms chromosomes and chromatids, for
example talking about crossing over
between sister chromatids, which lost the
marking point. Other common errors were
a lack of appropriate detail, for example
fertilisation rather than random fertilisation,
daughter cells rather than gametes, which
meant that the marking points F1 and F2
could not be awarded.
Few candidates related the processes
involved in creating genetic variation to the
consequences of that process, i.e. the

Mark Scheme

production of new combinations of alleles
in the gametes, and so failed to gain the
QWC mark.
Total 12
28 3 Mark the first answer in each box. If an

or contradicts the correct answer, then = 0
marks
Examiner's Comments
Most candidates got full marks for this

question. However, some answers had
values such as 99% or 49%, indicating that
the idea of inheriting half of each parent's
alleles had not been applied correctly.
Total 3
29 stem / erythropoietic, cell(s) 1

and Examiner's Comments
bone marrow;
Many candidates gave the correct answers
to this question. The most common pair of
incorrect responses was hepatocytes and
liver. Candidates were possibly recalling
the answer to a similar looking question
from last year's paper. This was a question
where they needed to draw on their AS
knowledge and consider the question
context. All A2 units contain questions that
draw on previous knowledge and
candidates should be prepared to make
use of such knowledge.
Total 1
30 D✓ 1
Total 1
31 D✓ 1
Total 1

Mark Scheme
32 i surface area: volume ratio too small ✓ 2 max
idea of diffusion from outer surface not

sufficient ✓
(transport system) ensures molecules /

nutrients / sugars / water, reach all tissues
s✓
(allows) high metabolic rate ✓
ii 3
Total 5
33 i G1 first growth (phase) ✓ 3
G2 / second growth or end of / AW, S /

synthesis ✓
G1 / first growth (phase) ✓
ii 1.3 × 1011 ✓ 1
iii (red blood cells) do not contain DNA ✓ 1
Total 5
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Answer all the questions.

The life cycle of D. discoideum is shown in Fig. 5.1.

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(ii) At what stage of the life cycle does differentiation begin?

Answer = _ _ _ _ _ _ _ _ _ _ _ _ _ _ _ _ _ _ _ _ _ _ _ _ _ _ _ _ _ _ _ hours [1]

A pair of chromosomes that contain genes for the same characteristics.

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A potato tuber cells

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A Mutations occurring during DNA replication.

Which of the mitotic stages has been identified correctly?

Description Mitotic stage identified

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A …individual chromosomes line up randomly on the equator.

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Which table shows the correct results of nuclear division?

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Which statement correctly describes one specialisation of a sperm cell?

A tail contains flagellum which generates ATP

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Statement 1: Microtubules are part of the ‘9 + 2’ formation in bacterial flagella.

What is the correct order of missing terms?

A sclerenchyma, phloem, lignin, xylem vessels

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(i) Identify the tissues labelled by the following letters:

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(ii) The tissue labelled B is cambium.

What type of cell makes up this tissue?

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Which letter indicates a homologous pair of chromosomes?

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(i) What is the role of an opsonin during this process?

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Explain the difference between muscle tissue and a muscle.

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Which of the following options, A to D, is the stage of mitosis shown above?

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X, Y and Z represent checkpoints in the control of the cell cycle.

(ii) Suggest what is being checked at checkpoint Y on Fig. 2.3.

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Cell type Relative time spent in a phase

(i) Which of the cells P, Q or R takes the shortest time to divide?

(iii) What can be deduced about the behaviour of cell R?

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The cells were undergoing mitosis.

The results are shown in Table 2.2.

Tissue type Number of cells in stage of mitosis Total

A friend suggested using Student's -test.

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The x2 value is calculated using the following formula:

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The number of degrees of freedom is defined as:

the number of categories - 1

What will be the number of degrees of freedom used in this analysis?