Đề Chính thức
Đề Chính thức
Đề Chính thức
Part 1: You will hear part of an interview with Norman Cowley, a well-known novelist and
biographer. For questions 1-7, choose the correct answer A, B, C or D.
(8) .........................
Monday a.m Hotel Light Lunch
or Conference (9) .....................
organizer
Making handmade
3.30 p.m
(10) ................. (11) .................. paper and cards (12) ........................
Thursday a.m Travel agency Travel agent 8.00 a.m (13) .......................
Friday
(14) ................. (15 )...................
Part 3: You will hear five people talking about how computers have affected our lives. For questions
16-20, choose from the options A to F the opinion each speaker expresses. Use the letters only once.
There is an extra letter which you do not need to use.
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A. In B. For C. On D. With
12. That flowers are_______everwhere is a sign of spring.
A. coming out B. breaking out C. taking over D. going over
13. I didn’t get home until after midnight last night. Otherwise, I _______ you call.
A. would have returned B. would return C. had returned D. returned
14. _______ more help, I could call my neighbor.
A. Needed B. I have needed C. Had I needed D. Should I need
15. The party leader traveled the length and _______ of the country in an attempt to spread his message.
A. width B. distance C. breadth D. diameter
16. The business _______ after new incentives were introduced.
A. thrilled B. urged C. boomed D. persisted
17. _______, the people who come to this club are in their twenties and thirties.
A. By and large B. Altogether C. To a degree D.Virtually
18. Although the patient received intensive treatment, there was no _______ improvement in her
condition.
A. decipherable B. legible C. discernible D. intelligible
19. When he saw her with John, Jack _______ anger.
A. brushed with B. pricked with C. showed up D. bristled with
20. I hope you won't take it _______ if I suggest an alternative remedy.
A. offence B. upset C. heart D. amiss
Your answers:
1. 2. 3. 4. 5. 6. 7. 8. 9. 10.
11. 12. 13. 14. 15. 16. 17. 18. 19. 20.
Part 2: Fill in the blanks with the correct form of the phrasal verbs given in the box below.
(10 points)
Part 3: Choose ONE out of twelve given words that best fit each gap of the following sentences.
(10 points)
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fingertips pieces footsteps while mouth neck
joke feather heels date heart hang
1. Arthur has fallen head over _________ in love with Muriel. He does nothing but speak about her all
day round.
2. Had he not had that sudden change of _________about going to Aspen, we would certainly be
enjoying skiing in the spa now.
3. Doesn't this jacket look a bit out of _________? Why not put on something more fashionable?
4. You can easily carry that bigger box, it's as light as_________.
5. Adam tried to be amusing and told a story which was supposed to make us laugh. To his
disappointment, none of us could take the _________.
6. Surely, there's no question about monitoring that he can not answer. Now that he has received his
driving license, he's got all the knowledge at his _________.
7. All that effort in preparing the supper wasn't worth my _________. My husband came back late from
work and the children had taken cheeseburgers in a snack bar.
8. Arthur's excitement at horseracing doesn't surprise me in the least. His father was a famous jockey and
the boy seems to be following in his _________.
9. The sensational news was passed by word of_________from one staff member to another.
10. In the beginning, operating from the panel was a bit troublesome for Michael. It took him a month to
fully get the_________of it.
Your answers:
1. 2. 3. 4. 5.
6. 7. 8. 9. 10.
Part 4: Read the text below. Use the word in CAPITALS at the end of some of the lines to form a
word that fits in the space in the same line. (0) has been done as an example. (10 points)
The (0) growth of online job hunting has increased the importance of GROW
having a good CV. Many employers now search CV databases for potential
candidates, and a great CV which highlights your skills and experiences
will boost your chances of getting an interview (1)_______. On average, a CONSIDER
recruiter will spend just eight seconds reviewing each CV, so it's important
to get it right. If you follow a basic structure, you can present the
information in a clear, concise and (2)_______way. Your CV should look PERSUADE
clean and tidy with no frills or fancy (3)_______, with all the information ATTACH
clearly signposted, and should not exceed two pages. Include your name,
address and contact details, but information about your (4)_______, age NATIONAL
and hobbies is not essential.
Any (5)_______ employer will be interested in your work experience. PROSPECT
List the most recent first, describing your previous jobs in short sentences
using straightforward, positive language which highlights all your key
(6)_______. Similarly, list brief details of your academic and professional ACHIEVE
(7) _______ along with the grades attained. Include specific skills such as QUALIFY
IT (8)_______ or languages, and state whether you're at a basis, PACK
intermediate or advanced level. (9)_______looking for their first job since APPLY
leaving full-time education are (10)_______to have much relevant work LIKE
experience, so should put information about their academic record and key
skills first.
1. 2. 3. 4. 4
5. 6. 7. 8.
9. 10.
Your answers:
Part 5: Read the text below carefully. Some lines are correct but some have a word which should
NOT be there. Tick the correct line. If a line has a word which should NOT be there, underline the
word and write it in space. There are two examples at the beginning. (10 points)
In some cultures, when you are invited to (1)_______ a meal at someone’s house, you might be
considered rude if you don’t say how nice the food is. In Britain, for example, it’s normal for someone to
compliment the cook (2)_______ the tastiness of the meal. You can say something like ‘ That was
delicious. Do, please, write the recipe down (3) _______ me!’.
In other cultures, (4) _______, people tend not to be so full (5)_______enthusiasm for the meal. You
might be regarded (6) _______ being rude, as the cook might associate your praise (7) _______ surprise.
He or she might think, ‘So they’re shocked I can cook well, are they?’
If you’re not sure how to react, the best advice is to wait and (8) _______ how other people at the
table react. If that doesn’t help, be very careful (9) _______ what you say! I would suggest (10) _______
one solution could be to say, ‘ That was delicious, but then I knew it would be!’.
Your answers:
1. 2.
3. 4.
5. 6.
7. 8.
9. 8.
9. 10
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Part 2: Read the text below and decide which answer (A, B, C or D) best fits each space.
(10 points)
In the UK holidays began as religious festival days or ‘holy days’. The idea of a holiday as a ‘no-
work’ day seems to have first (1) _______around five hundred years ago. In 1871 the Bank Holidays Act
established (2) _______days when, by law, banks closed. Bank Holidays soon (3) _______public
holidays, but by (4) _______, not law.
In fact, working people (5) _______ took holidays. For many people, paid holidays remained a
(6)_______ until the second half of the twentieth century. Instead, people enjoyed outings for the day to
nearby places.
The (7)_______of the railways made it possible for working people and their families to go further
afield on their day trips, (8) _______wealthy people had, for many years, taken holidays. As (9)
_______as outings became possible for more people, crowd of them travelled to the seaside. Seaside
towns started to boom. Piers were built out over the sea, funfairs opened and boat trips were
(10)_______by local fishermen. Many of the towns that benefited from all these day trippers were near to
large cities or were at the end of railway line.
1. A. appeared B. grown C. come D. arrived
2. A. absolute B. certain C. odd D. possible
3. A. developed B. happened C. became D. turned
4. A. habit B. tradition C. practice D. desire
5. A. rarely B. quite C. gradually D. ever
6. A. prize B. comfort C. reward D. luxury
7. A. rise B. growth C. increase D. size
8. A. because B. so C. although D. despite
9. A. far B. soon C. early D. good
10. A. done B. offered C. performed D. raised
Your answers:
1. 2. 3. 4. 5.
6. 7. 8. 9. 10.
Fact 1: In 1996, the Intergovernmental Panel on Climate Change (IPCC), representing 2,500
scientists, released a major assessment on climate change. The 3600-page report reduces many of the
uncertainties surrounding the issue. Scientists are now more confident than ever that the emission of
greenhouse gases through human activities is contributing to global warming. This will lead to climate
change next century, with potentially disastrous impacts on biodiversity, coasts, agriculture, water and
health.
Fact 2: The greenhouse effect is a natural phenomenon - if it weren’t for the natural greenhouse
effect the Earth would be some 33°C cooler than it is at present. The planet is warm enough for complex
life because naturally occurring gases (including carbon dioxide and water vapour) trap heat which would
otherwise escape into space. The problem is that human activity - including combustion of fossil fuels and
land clearing - is adding to these gases faster than oceans, plants and soil can absorb them. This is
unnaturally ‘enhancing’ the greenhouse effect. Since the industrial revolution, the concentration of carbon
dioxide, the main greenhouse gas, has increased by 30 per cent. Long- substantiated laws of physics tell
us that, given we are altering the energy balance of the atmosphere, this will impact on the world’s
temperature and climate.
Fact 3: The measured increase in temperature of about 0.3-0.6°C this century is consistent with
the latest climate model predictions. The 1980s was the warmest decade on record, with 1990, 1991 and
1995 the three warmest years on record. This is not to say that the warming trend is the consequence of
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the enhanced greenhouse effect. However, recent studies show that the warming trend this century is
unlikely to be due to natural phenomena such as increased solar output. The IPCC has now stated that ‘the
balance of evidence suggests that there is discernible human influence on global climate’.
Fact 4: Global warming predictions are based on computer models and analysis of climate change
that has occurred in the past. Global warming and climate change predictions are based on two major
sources. Complex computer models (known as global circulation models) are able to simulate the broad
features of the climate system including atmospheric and ocean circulations. These models can now
simulate the present climate and have greatly improved scientists’ ability to distinguish between natural
and human influences on the climate. The most recent climate models predict an increase in global
average temperatures of 1.5-3.5°C for a doubling in the atmospheric concentration of greenhouse gases.
The average rate of warming would be greater than at any time in the history of civilization. Analysis of
air trapped in glacier ice confirms the model predictions. The analysis reveals that past changes in
temperature are closely correlated to changes in carbon dioxide in the atmosphere.
Fact 5: Global warming will lead to a rise in the sea level. The IPCC has projected that sea levels
will rise by between 15 and 95cm next century, with a best estimate of 50cm. Sea level rise will be
principally due to thermal expansion of the oceans and also some melting of glaciers. The sea level will
continue to rise after next century, even if the concentrations of greenhouse gases are cut by that time.
Fact 6: Human-induced climate change is different to past natural climate change. Natural climate
variability is an ongoing phenomenon - scientific analysis suggests temperatures have changed by a
number of degrees in recent geological history. It is important to recognize, though, that present-day
stresses on natural ecosystems from human activity will mean the resilience of ecosystems to the changes
will be much less than in the past. Furthermore, both the rate and the level of global warming will be
greater than any time in the last 10,000 years. Past global and regional climate changes, have resulted in
social and cultural upheaval - in some cases contributing to the collapse of civilizations.
Fact 7: The costs of global warming will outweigh the benefits. The nature and extent of the
impacts of global warming are still uncertain. However, the IPCC has made it clear that many of the
world’s ecological and human systems are extremely vulnerable to the predicted global warming, in
particular ecosystems and societies that are already subject to environmental, economic and cultural
stresses. The IPCC has also stated that future climate changes may involve ‘surprises’. Some
commentators have suggested that because some regions or industries may benefit in the short term from
climate change - for example, wheat yields could improve in Canada - then there is no need to be
concerned about the issue. This suggestion is based on a false assumption that climate change will be a
one-off event. Unless the level of greenhouse gases in the atmosphere is stabilised, though, human-
induced climate change will continue to occur and benefits may only be transient. Furthermore, the
suggestion ignores the social, economic and environmental upheaval that will arise if significant sections
of society or ecosystems are unable to adapt to climate change.
QUESTIONS
In the two lists below, a statement in the list (A-F) corresponds to an idea in one of the
paragraphs (Fact 2 - Fact 7). Match the two lists by typing in the correct letter for each question.(5
points)
A. Global warming is likely to increase.
B. The earth will find it difficult to cope with global warning.
C. This century has seen a rise in temperature.
D. Sea level rise has been predicted.
E. Global warning might bring unexpected benefits.
F. The greenhouse effect has been beneficial to the earth.
0. Fact 2: _F_
1. Fact 3: ______
2. Fact 4: ______
3. Fact 5: ______
4. Fact 6: ______
5. Fact 7: ______
Read the passage again and choose the best answer for questions 6-8. (3 points)
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6. Considered as a whole, the text:
A. is optimistic that global warning can be dealt with. B. rejects simple attempts to solve the problem.
C. explains how the problem can be solved. D. explains the consequences of global warning.
Complete the summary of the first three paragraphs (Facts 1-3) by choosing a maximum of three
words from the passage to fill in the spaces 9 to 14. (12 points)
The IPPC (9)____________ helped our understanding of global warming and affirmed that greenhouse
gas (10) ________is a large contributor. Although a naturally occurring phenomenon, the greenhouse
effect is being made worse (11) ________, affecting both (12) ________ and (13) ________. The IPCC
believe that other factors (for example, (14) ________) are not responsible.
Your answer:
9. 10. 11.
Part 4: You are going to read some information about theme parks. For questions 1-10, choose from
the theme parks (A-E). The theme parks may be chosen more than once.
Which of the theme parks
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THE PICK OF THE WORLD’S THEME PARKS
A. Universal Studios - Hollywood
Seen the movie? Now try the ride. Jurassic There are also larger Lego figures all around
Park opened in June 1996 at a cost of $110 the park, including Mount Rushmore, the Taj
million. Described as ‘the most technically Mahal and Big Chief Sitting Bull, made of 1.5
advanced interactive themed ride in million Lego bits. The other aspect of
entertainment history’, Jurassic Park has five- Legoland, the rides, are not spectacular but just
storey-tall monsters, miracles of modern bio- right for little children. There is a sky railway,
engineering, which come to within inches of a mini driving school, helicopter rides and a
your eyebrows. You cruise in a boat through a boat ride through dark tunnels.
tropical forest, ending up diving into a pitch-
dark lagoon; it is the fastest, steepest water Entry details: Adults €13, children €10.
drop in amusement park history. A lifetime of
primeval terror packed into five and a halfD. Port Aventura - Spain
minutes. Among the other ‘star’ attractions is
This theme park on the coast is situated near
Water World, based on the movie and the Salou on the Costa Dorada. Visitors can travel
nearest you can get to giant fireballs, exploding
through five exotic lands: rural Spain,
seaplanes and other disasters. There are also
Polynesia, China, Mexico and the Wild West.
other favourites such as King Kong, Jaws, ET
The journeys are made by steam train, canoe,
and Back to the Future, a journey from the Ice
Chinese junk or on foot. People who feel brave
Age to 2015. More for grownups, perhaps, than
can try the Dragon Khan rollercoaster which
children. turns you upside down eight times. But the
biggest demand is for a ride called the Tu Tu
Entry details: US$69 for adults, US$59 for Ki Splash, a watery drop in an open- topped
children. bus straight into a Polynesian lake.
B. Sentosa - Singapore Entry details: Adults €44, children €35.
For families stopping over in Singapore on the
way to Australia, Sentosa is the perfect place. E. Efteling - Holland
Two of the newest attractions are VolcanoLand, Once upon a time, over 60 years ago, a Dutch
offering a journey to the centre of the Earth artist started to build a magical land, bringing
with halfhourly volcanic explosions, bursts of his own drawings to life. His Fairy Tale Forest
hot air and trembling floors, and Wonder Golf, is still at the heart of this timeless park of
full of waterfalls and other obstacles. Sentosa traditional tales and legends set in large
also has the largest aquarium in south-eastAsia, woodlands. Efteling is visited by 2.5 million
a Fantasy Island water park with 32 rides, and people each year and is an everything-to-all-
several Chinese heritage performances from ages sort of place. It is best known for its so-
traditional wedding ceremonies to firewalking. called dark rides, like Fata Morgana, a boat
There is also a butterfly park and insect ride to a forbidden city through swamps and
kingdom. Part of the pleasure of Sentosa is jungles. Even if you took the theme park out of
getting there, on foot or by bus across a raised Efteling, you would still be left with a lovely
causeway, by the four-minute ferry ride or, park where visitors are encouraged to bring a
most excitingly, by cable car. picnic.
Entry details: Everything is individually priced Entry details: Adults and children both pay €30
from S$2-S$25 for adults, roughly half for (under-4s free).
children, in addition to the S$2 entry fee.
C. Legoland - Denmark
Legoland falls into two camps. One is
Miniland, where places such as Amsterdam,
Copenhagen harbour and an English village
stand as high a youngster’s kneecap, each
packed with detail and moving parts.
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IV. WRITING: (50/ 200 points)
Part 1: Finish each of the following sentences in such a way that it is as similar as possible in
meaning to the original sentence. Use the word given in CAPITALS. Do not change the form of the
given words. (10 points)
EX: Thieves broke into the gallery and stole three paintings. WITH
Thieves broke into the gallery and got away with three paintings.
1.I have finally decided to emigrate. MIND
@ I have finally ..................................................................... to emigrate.
2. I think you were charged too much by the garage. RIPPED
@I think you were ............................................................. by the garage.
3. Most of my neighbour travel to work in the city. IN
@Most of the people..........................................travel to work in the city.
4. Why did Gemma change her plans? REASON
@What .................................................................... her change of plans.
5. You can't blame me for your stupid mistakes. FAULT
@It isn't ......................................................................... stupid mistakes.
6. The thief grabbed my bag and ran off. TOOK
@The thief suddenly ........................................................... and ran off.
7. The film wasn’t as good as we expected. COME
@The film ....................................................................our expectations.
8. It is important to consider everyone's opinion before a final decision is made. ACCOUNT
@Everyone's opinion must ...................................................................................
before a final decision is made.
9. I don't mind whether we go to the seaside or not this year. DIFFERENCE
@It doesn't ................................................................................ whether we go to
the seaside or not this year.
10. I was the only person who wanted to watch the program. ELSE
@There ..............................................................who wanted to watch the program.
Part 2: Finish each of the following sentences in such a way that it means the same as the sentence
printed before it. (10 points)
1. We couldn’t relax until all the guests had gone home.
@Only ……………………………………………………………………..
2. If his solicitor hadn’t advised him, he would have made a serious mistake.
@Had it ……………………………………………………………………
3. Someone has suggested the resignation of the minister.
@It …………………………………………………...…………………...
4. Although I tried very hard, I couldn’t convince Debbie to deliver a speech.
@Try ……………………………………………………………………..
5. If anyone succeeds in solving the problem, it will probably be him.
@He is the most ……………………………………..……………………
6. I gave Tom the message, but he already knew about it.
@I needn’t ………………………………………..……………………..
7. A lot of water had leaked out of the radiator and damaged the carpet.
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@So much ……………………………………………………………….
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--THE END--
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