Mock Cat 20

Mock CAT – 20 2018
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VARC
LRDI
QA
Sec 1
Directions for questions (1to 6): The passage below is accompanied by a set of six questions. Choose the
best answer to each question.
“Dark” is a fascinatingly modern word. Our worries about the internet are embodied by the dark web, that
byword for criminality, abuse and nastiness that repeatedly bursts into the news. Fears about what the
online world is doing to politics are focused on dark ads, untraceable to the people and parties who place
them. And in a different kind of darkness in the real world, as well as dark kitchens, there are dark
supermarkets and dark stores: the vast spaces we collapse into the increasingly meaningless category of
“distribution centres”, where a mixture of largely low-paid workers and ever-more sophisticated systems
of machinery prepare and pack the stuff we buy online.
In the book Hired, James Bloodworth describes the reality of working at Amazon’s vast distribution centre
in Rugeley, Staffordshire. “The top oor on which I worked was a gloomy place, with the only natural light
coming in through small rectangular windows located far above on the high ceiling,” he writes. “Most of
the light was provided by grey steel lamps the shape of rugby balls and about the same size. These were
dotted about the ceilings on every oor and cast a peculiar yellow glow about the place. During the course
of the night … many of the motion-sensitive lights would malfunction, meaning a dozen or so workers
would be left scuttling around in the dark on the top oor of a warehouse at three o’clock in the morning.
Who, when they purchase an iPhone charger or an Adele album with a click on Amazon’s website, imagines
anything like this?”
There are clear echoes here of things always seemingly in-built within capitalism: William Blake’s “dark
satanic mills”, pitch-black coalmines, the nocturnal privations of shift work. Light and dark have always
been signi ers for the quality of work and what it can do to people’s psyches. What seems remarkable is
that in a post-industrial economy, replete with ideas of employment as a means of personal ful llment,
that dichotomy is returning, at speed.
What lurks in those ever-increasing shadows? Last week, researchers at three British universities
published the latest results of a ve-yearly government-funded skills and employment survey, which
highlights exactly the kind of issues the dark economy embodies. Almost a third of those surveyed said
they had to work at very high speeds “all” or “almost all” of the time. The share of people who have “a lot
of discretion over how they do their job” has crashed from 62% in 1992 to 38% now. Meanwhile 55% of
men and 47% of women reported that they either “always” or “often” left work exhausted.
This is no way to run an economy, let alone a society. At the absolute grassroots, it is great to see it being
ercely contested, as evidenced by last week’s one-day strike by people working for a range of catering
rms – including not just McDonald’s, Wetherspoons and TGI Fridays, but the delivery services Uber Eats
and Deliveroo. The responsibility for their predicament lies not just with corporations who insist on people
working at a breakneck pace for impossibly low wages and often living like moles, but those of us who so
blithely click and consume. Maybe it is time not just that the darkness receded in workplaces up and down
the country, but that the light went on in our own heads.
Q.1
All of the following statements are false except:
1 dark kitchens are basically used to sell food door to door.
2 Amazon’s distribution centres are well ventilated.
3 in today’s world all consumables are packed and distributed through dubious machineries.
4 the consumers are not guilt-free when it comes to the exploitation of the wage workers.
Solution:
 Bookmark
Correct Answer : 4
Genre: Economics
 Answer key/Solution
Word Count# 555
Option 1 is incorrect as they are primarily used so that people can order food
online. However, nothing speci c has been mentioned about them in the
paragraph.
Option 2 is incorrect as it contradicts the quotation from the book Hired used in the passage. Refer to the
line, “The top oor on which I worked was a gloomy place, with the only natural light coming in through
small rectangular windows located far above on the high ceiling”.
Option 3 goes beyond the scope of the passage. There is no date regarding ‘all consumables...’ in the
passage.
Option 4 is the correct answer. Refer to the line: “The responsibility for their predicament lies not just with
corporations who insist on people working at a breakneck pace for impossibly low wages and often living
like moles, but those of us who so blithely click and consume.”
FeedBack
Q.2
Based on this passage, the author will de nitely agree with which one the following?
1 The current culture of work affects the psyche of the workers.
2 William Blake was a champion for workers’ rights.
3 Distribution centres evade categories.

4 Majority of women today feel a sense of fatigue and displeasure with the nature of their jobs.
Solution:
 Bookmark
Correct Answer : 1
Genre: Economics
Word Count# 555
Option 2 cannot be veri ed from the given data. The author cites an example
of Blake’s writing. But it can’t be surely stated that the author considers Blake
as a labour right champion.
The author says that the distribution centres fall into meaningless categories. Hence option 3 is incorrect.
Option 4 is incorrect. The penultimate paragraph states that ‘47% of women’ feel exhausted after work. So,
‘majority’ is not something that can be inferred from this. The author may or may not agree with this.
Option 1 is the correct answer since in the passage it is mentioned that, ‘Light and dark have always been
signi ers for the quality of work and what it can do to people’s psyches. What seems remarkable is that in
a post-industrial economy, replete with ideas of employment as a means of personal ful llment, that
dichotomy is returning, at speed.’ So, the author will surely agree with the idea of ‘affecting’ the psyche. It
is not an extreme option as ‘affect’ is not necessarily an extreme form of ‘evil consequences’.
FeedBack
Q.3
Which of the following statements can be inferred from the passage?
1 People buying high-end products imagine well-lit work spaces for the online workers.
2 Dark and disturbing advertisements by unwanted politicians have pushed the world into a crisis.
3 Dark economy has forced workers to focus more on quantity and less on quality.
4 Industry as we understood is extinct.
Solution:
 Bookmark
Correct Answer : 3
Genre: Economics
Word Count# 555
Option 1 – It can’t be inferred as what people buying high-end products
imagine has not been mentioned in the passage. The line, “Who, when they
purchase an iPhone charger or an Adele album with a click on Amazon’s website, imagines anything like
this?” is mentioned in a rhetoric manner. It can’t be taken literally.
Option 2 – This is totally out of context.
Option 3 – It is the correct answer since it is mentioned in the passage that the survey found that the
workers ‘work at very high speeds “all” or “almost all” of the time. The share of people who have “a lot of
discretion over how they do their job” has crashed from 62% in 1992 to 38% now.’ So, this option can be
inferred.
Option 4 – It is incorrect since ‘post-industry’ do not mean the end of industry.
FeedBack
Q.4
The author provides the example of William Blake to show that:
1 dark kitchens are very much a British phenomenon.
2 exploitation which took root at the early stage of capitalism is returning quickly.
3 the passivity of the modern workers in accepting their fate is worrisome.

4 the night shifts and privatisation of work spells a bad omen for the future of the world economy.
Solution:
 Bookmark
Correct Answer : 2
Genre: Economics
Word Count# 555
While mentioning Blake, the author emphasises on Blake’s “dark satanic mills”
quotation. The author opines that the exploitations are in-built mechanisms
associated with capitalism and what used to take place earlier is returning with dangerous speed. This
supports option 2.
Option 1 – There is no speci c mention of ‘dark kitchens’ with reference to Britain.
Option 3 – It is contradicted by the last paragraph. Refer to the lines, “At the absolute grassroots, it is great
to see it being ercely contested, as evidenced by last week’s one-day strike by people working for a range
of catering rms – including not just McDonald’s, Wetherspoons and TGI Fridays, but the delivery services
Uber Eats and Deliveroo.” So, the workers are anything but passive.
Option 4 – It is too extreme. ‘Night shifts’ have not been vili ed by the author to extent of spelling doom
for the world economy.
FeedBack
Q.5
Which of the following is not one of the complaints made by workers participating in the survey mentioned
in the passage?
1 The dark style of operations
2 The pace of their work
3 Lack of ability to choose one’s work style

4 The exhaustion caused by their work
Solution:
 Bookmark
Correct Answer : 1
Genre: Economics
Word Count# 555
Refer to the lines, “Last week, researchers at three British universities
published the latest results of a ve-yearly government-funded skills and
employment survey, which highlights exactly the kind of issues the dark economy embodies. Almost a
third of those surveyed said they had to work at very high speeds “all” or “almost all” of the time. The
share of people who have “a lot of discretion over how they do their job” has crashed from 62% in 1992 to
38% now. Meanwhile 55% of men and 47% of women reported that they either “always” or “often” left work
exhausted.” This supports options 2, 3, and 4.
So, option 1 has not been mentioned with reference to the study. The author talks about ‘issues related to
dark economy’. So, option 1 is distorted.
FeedBack
Q.6
The purpose of the passage is to:
1 shut down distribution centres.
2 show how certain styles of worker management are dangerous.
3 improve the conditions of workers across Britain.

4 highlight some problems with the current labour conditions.
Solution:
 Bookmark
Correct Answer : 4
Genre: Economics
Word Count# 555
The main aim of the author in the passage is to highlight how a certain kind of
work culture is affecting the overall welfare of the workers and the
sustainability of the economy. However, the author doesn’t adopt an extremely negative tone. S/he is
neutral and cautious while spelling out any remedy for the situation. Option 4 brings about this point
correctly.
Option 1 – This is too extreme and it has not even been suggested by the author.
Option 2 – This is incomplete. The author does state that this kind of work style is dangerous. However,
s/he is more focused on identifying the problem areas in the economy too. The word ‘dangerous’ makes
this option slightly vague.
Option 3 – This is neither the main idea nor is it relevant. ‘Britain’ is not the focal point of the author.
FeedBack
Directions for question 7: The passage given below is followed by four summaries. Choose the option that
best captures the author’s position.
Q.7
DNA analysis is an important forensic tool in criminal investigations, but it can be complicated if a suspect
has an identical twin. Because the biochemical attachments to DNA can change over time due to
environmental factors, such epigenetic differences in identical twins’ genomes can differentiate between
them, but previously developed methods were expensive and time-consuming. A new method uses the
melting points of the DNA to tell apart twins quickly, cheaply, and simply. Variation in the attachment of
methyl groups to DNA affects the expression of genes. Researchers also realized it affects the DNA’s
melting point. So, instead of going through the more intensive process of studying methylation
differences, the researchers looked for a difference in melting points.
1 A new method of forensic DNA testing helps improve the technique of distinguishing between
identical twins.
2 A new method of forensic DNA testing helps investigators to distinguish between identical twins by
affecting their DNA’s melting point.
3 By studying the variations in the attachment of methyl groups to DNA, researchers have found a
breakthrough in genetic testing of twins.
4 A new method has discerned twins’ DNA.

Solution:
 Bookmark
Correct Answer : 1
The main points the author mentions are:
a. DNA analysis and how it gets complicated in the matter of crime
investigation involving identical twins.
b. Existing method is time consuming and expensive.
c. A new technique is promising as it promises to be cheaper and more e cient.
Option 1 – It mentions all the points. ‘Improve’ covers point (b).
Option 2 – There is a modi er error. ‘Their’ refers to the twins. The test doesn’t ‘affect their DNA’s melting
point’, rather the methyl group affects the melting point. This is simply a technical detail mentioned in
another context. So, this is a distorted option.
Option 3 – It only covers point (c). So, this option is too narrow.
Option 4 – It is an incomplete option.
FeedBack
Directions for question 8: Five sentences related to a topic are given below. Four of them can be put
together to form a meaningful and coherent short paragraph. Identify the odd one out.
Q.8
1. A local chef, Joe Sheridan, came up with the idea of Irish coffee when he added whiskey to the hot
drinks served to shivering passengers from a Pan Am ying boat.
2. In 1947 a catering manager, Brendan O’Regan, set up the world’s rst duty-free shop at Shannon,
allowing transit passengers to buy tax-exempt goods.
3. Shannon Airport on Ireland’s west coast has been a gateway from Europe to America since the 1940s.
4. It was built across the estuary of the river Shannon from Foynes, a small town that had served in the
interwar years as a refuelling stop for seaplanes and passengers on their way across the Atlantic.
5. In 2017, 1.751 million passengers passed through the airport, making it the third-busiest airport in the
country after Dublin and Cork.
Solution:
 Bookmark
Correct Answer : 5
The correct order is 3412. However, we need not arrange the remaining the
sentences into any order. The main idea of the paragraph is how The Shannon
airport has been a gateway from Europe to America since the 1940s. So the
focus is on how this airport has seen some business ideas and growth.
Chronologically, 1 and 2 make a pair.
Sentence 1 may look as an alien sentence. However, if we read the context of the paragraph, ‘passengers
ying...’ makes a pair with sentence 4.
Sentence 5 talks about the airport’s performance in 2017. It is alien to the theme of the paragraph.
FeedBack
Directions for question 9: The ve sentences (labelled 1, 2, 3, 4, 5) given in this question, when properly
sequenced, form a coherent paragraph. Each sentence is labelled with a number. Decide on the proper
order for the sentences and key in this sequence of ve numbers as your answer.
Q.9
1. Deep neural networks, a type of machine learning used for visual perception, need to be exposed to
many examples to successfully detect objects in images or recognize human speech.
2. The arti cial intelligence program is able to learn handwritten characters after “seeing” a single
example, for instance.
3. This new approach, called Bayesian Program Learning, was used to classify and recreate handwritten
characters from the world’s alphabets as well as generate new letters.
4. For a limited set of image perception tasks, a new machine-learning computer vision program can
outperform humans.
5. Even though deep neural networks are modeled after human neuron behaviors, they fail to learn
concepts quickly, the way humans do.
Solution:
 Bookmark
Correct Answer : 42153
2 has the phrase ‘the arti cial intelligence program’. It needs a sentence
before it. Sentence 4 talks about ‘a new machine-learning computer vision
program’. Thus, 4 and 2 become a mandatory pair. This is the strongest clue in
this question.
1, 3, and 5 talk about deep neural networks. So, these three will come in one cluster.
Now, we need to decide if 4 is the opening sentence. AI is a broader topic than deep neural networks,
which are subsets of AI. Hence, 4 is the opening sentence.
3 has ‘this new approach’. It refers to 5. Hence, 5 and 3 become a mandatory pair.
5 gives a mild contrast to 1. So, 153 is the correct sequence.
Thus, the correct answer is 42153.
FeedBack
Directions for questions (10 to 12): The passage below is accompanied by a set of three questions.
Choose the best answer to each question.
It's now been nearly four decades since Neil Armstrong took his "giant leap for mankind" — if, that is, he
ever set foot off this planet. Doubters say the U.S. government, desperate to beat the Russians in the
space race, faked the lunar landings, with Armstrong and Buzz Aldrin acting out their mission on a secret
lm set, located (depending on the theory) either high in the Hollywood Hills or deep within Area 51. With
the photos and videos of the Apollo missions only available through NASA, there's no independent
veri cation that the lunar landings were anything but a hoax.
The smoking gun? Film of Aldrin planting a waving American ag on the moon, which critics say proves
that he was not in space. The ag's movement, they say, clearly shows the presence of wind, which is
impossible in a vacuum. NASA says Aldrin was twisting the agpole to get the moon soil, which caused
the ag to move. (And never mind that astronauts have brought back hundreds of independently veri ed
moon rocks.) Theorists have even suggested that lmmaker Stanley Kubrick may have helped NASA fake
the rst lunar landing, given that his 1968 lm 2001: A Space Odessey proves that the technology existed
back then to arti cially create a spacelike set. And as for Virgil I. Grissom, Edward H. White and Roger B.
Chaffee — three astronauts who died in a re while testing equipment for the rst moon mission? They
were executed by the U.S. government, which feared they were about to disclose the truth. Far-fetched as
the hoax theory may seem, a 1999 Gallup poll showed that it's comparatively durable: 6% of Americans
said they thought the lunar landings were fake, and 5% said they were undecided.
Q.10
What reason has been provided by NASA for the waving ag?
1 Presence of wind
2 Earth’s gravity
3 Twisting of the agpole
4 The absence of vacuum
Solution:
 Bookmark
Correct Answer : 3
Genre: History
Word Count# 288
This is an easy fact-based question.
Refer to the lines, “The ag's movement, they say, clearly shows the presence
of wind, which is impossible in a vacuum. NASA says Aldrin was twisting the agpole to get the moon soil,
which caused the ag to move.”
So, NASA gives ‘twisting of the agpole by Aldrin’ as the reason.
Options 1, 2, and 4 are the points put forth by the conspiracy theorists.
FeedBack
Q.11
One aspect that debunks the hoax moon-landing theory is:
1 lack of independent veri cation of the photos and videos of the Apollo mission.
2 independently veri ed moon rocks.
3 the cinematic genius of Stanley Kubrick.
4 the death of three astronauts in a possible case of arson.
Solution:
 Bookmark
Correct Answer : 2
Genre: History
Word Count# 288
The question asks us to nd a fact that challenges the hoax moon-landing
theory. Options 1, 3, and 4 – These actually strengthen the position of the
conspiracy theorists. Option 3 is mildly irrelevant too.
Option 2 – Refer to the line, “And never mind that astronauts have brought back hundreds of independently
veri ed moon rocks.” It clearly is a fact that will challenge the hoax-theory. So, option 2 is the correct
answer.
FeedBack
Q.12
Which of the following can be inferred from the passage?
1 Majority of the Americans believe that lunar landings were staged.
2 Technology to create a space like set existed in 1961.
3 People continue to believe conspiracy theories surrounding NASA.

4 The moon-landing hoax theory has survived over the years.
Solution:
 Bookmark
Correct Answer : 4
Genre: History
Word Count# 288
Option 1 – The last paragraph mentions that “6% of Americans ...lunar
landings were fake, and 5%...undecided.” This is not su cient to conclude
‘majority of Americans’. So, this is incorrect.
Option 2 – The passage states that Stanley Kubrick made the lm A Space Odessey in 1968. So, the
technique existed by 1968. There is no mention of the year 1961. So, such a speci c conclusion cannot be
derived.
Option 3 – It is too generic. The passage talks about one conspiracy theory. We can’t generalise the same
to mean ‘conspiracy theories surrounding NASA’.
Option 4 – It can be inferred from the last paragraph. Refer to “Far-fetched as the hoax theory may seem, a
1999 Gallup poll showed that it's comparatively durable: 6% of Americans said they thought the lunar
landings were fake, and 5% said they were undecided.” So, option 4 is the correct answer.
FeedBack
Directions for question 13: The passage given below is followed by four summaries. Choose the option
that best captures the author’s position.
Q.13
In ancient Greece, a demagogue was, literally, a “leader of the people.” The meaning of the term has
changed considerably since then, however, and a demagogue today is regarded as someone who “appeals
to greed, fear, and hatred”, a politician who achieves or holds power “by stirring up the feelings of his
audience and leading these people to action despite the considerations which weigh against it.” If
‘demagogue’ is a modern day ‘devil term’, then its usage will be accompanied by the degree of subjectivity
which is a hallmark of such words and phrases in modern society.
1 Modern words and phrases, such as the interpretation of ‘demagogue’ as a ‘devil term’, re ect the
subjectivity that is inherent in linguistic constructs.
2 The Greek term ‘demagogue’ has a binary opposite subjective meaning in today’s world.
3 The term ‘demagogue’, which has an etymologically Greek root, has undergone a radical shift in its
meaning and usage.
4 The word ‘demagogue’ has completed its etymological circle by changing its meaning from a positive
term to a despicable subjective interpretation.
Solution:
 Bookmark
Correct Answer : 3
In this paragraph the author makes three points:
a. The root of the word demagogue
b. The changed meaning of the word
c. How the usage of the word demagogue is subjective in the modern age
Option 1 – It does cover points ‘a’ and ‘b’. However, the option is distorted. It talks about ‘subjectivity that
is inherent in linguistic constructs.’ This is clearly beyond the scope of the paragraph.
Option 2 – The interpretation of the word is not ‘binary opposite’. It is also an incomplete option.
Option 3 – It covers all the three points, ‘a’, ‘b’, and ‘c’. So, it is the correct answer.
Option 4 – ‘Completed etymological circle’ and ‘despicable subjective interpretation’ are both out of scope.
FeedBack
Q.14
1. Seismic studies of the core indicate it is less dense than expected from its inferred composition of
heavy elements such as iron and nickel.
2. They think that processes deep within the Earth, including the separation of the planet’s layers, sent the
light copper isotopes down to the boundary between mantle and core, forming a kilometers-thick layer of
material with other elements.
3. By comparing copper isotopes from meteorites—thought to be Earth’s building blocks—and from rock
from the mantle, researchers found that lighter copper isotopes were not present in the mantle at the
quantities indicated by the meteorites’ composition.
4. Geochemists studying the formation of Earth’s core think it may contain large amounts of sulfur.
5. Seismic waves travel at different speeds when they pass through different types of material, so by
studying seismograms, scientists can learn a lot about Earth's internal structure.
Solution:
 Bookmark
Correct Answer : 5
The correct order is 4132.
The paragraph has a mandatory sequence – 4 and 2. Both of these refer to the
geochemists. So, both 4 and 2 belong to the paragraph.
From the remaining three sentences, we can rule out 1 and 3 as both these are
needed to arrive at sentence 2.
All the four sentences talk about the formation of the Earth’s core and the presence of sulfur there.
Sentence 5 talks about ‘seismic waves’ and the ‘internal structure’ of the earth. It also talks about
‘scientists’ whereas the remaining sentences talk about geochemists. So, it is the odd one out.
FeedBack
Q.15
1. It was a new kind of evolution – we could call it idea evolution.

2. Around 200,000 years ago, the de ning event in modern human evolution occurred when humans
acquired the capacity for culture.
3. Our ability to adapt at the cultural level, thus, shouldn't be seen as any different from our ability to adapt
at the genetic level.
4. Ideas were able to jump from mind to mind and it meant our cultures could adapt far more quickly than
our genes could adapt.
5. This was an ability to learn from others and to transmit knowledge, wisdom and skills.
Solution:
 Bookmark
Sentence 5 starts with the word ‘this’. ‘This ability’ refers to ‘capacity for
culture’. So, 2 and 5 make a mandatory pair. The use of ‘around 200,000 years
ago’ at the beginning also makes sentence 2 the most likely opening
sentence.
Sentence 1 further adds information explaining sentence 5.
Sentence 3 has ‘thus’. It is the closing sentence.
Sentence 4 has to come before 3. So, the correct sequence is 25143.
FeedBack
A shing jetty would not require the kind of dredging that the MPT (Mormugao Port Trust) is currently
undertaking. In September 2016, the National Green Tribunal (NGT) had halted the dredging activity that
the Trust was then carrying out for the construction of a new berth because it had begun the work before it
got the Environmental Clearance to do so. Moreover, the MPT had bypassed the compulsory public
hearing, and the NGT also found discrepancies in the Environmental Impact Assessment Report, which the
Bombay High Court upheld. A public hearing was nally held in February 2017, but 65% of the dredging
had already been done by then.
A petroleum and oil jetty will mean greater industrial activity in the vicinity, more pollution and related
health hazards, and displacement of the shing community. Even the neighbouring Baina beach, another
shing hub, will be affected.
“If the beach ceases to exist, we will lose our way of life and our source of livelihood,” says Custodia
D’souza, a sherman representing the Old Cross Canoe Owners Association. It will affect not only the local
shing community but also migrant communities who work in the Goan shing industry due to lack of
better opportunities back home. Overall, 2000 families in the area are engaged in shing.
Residents also fear demolition and displacement. “Communities that have lived here for 200 years are
being told by the MPT that their homes are going to be demolished,” says Simoes. The Environmental
Impact Assessment Report, however, maintains that there is no resettlement and rehabilitation plan since
the project will be carried out on the existing port premises and no land will be acquired.
“The coast is nearly destroyed, Jindal is responsible for it,” says Juze Roderigues, a 75-year-old from
Khariwado.
Jindal Steel Works (JSW) accounts for the bulk of the operations being carried out at the Mormugao Port,
and the company was banned from transporting coal for outing the permit prescribed by the Goa State
Pollution Control Board.
Q.16
The primary purpose of the passage is:
1 to highlight the importance of the NGT in ghting corrupt industrial bodies.
2 to show how environmental changes can affect the local coastline
3 to produce evidence to the fact that transportation of coal through water bodies is dangerous.
4 to show the nancial and environmental strain that can affect Goa’s coasts and its local.
Solution:
 Bookmark
Correct Answer : 4
Genre: Ecology
Word Count# 330
This is a main idea question. The author’s purpose behind writing this passage
is to attract our attention to the problem that awaits the Goan coasts if the
current nancial and environmental problems continue and no action is taken.
Option 1 – This is both too narrow and also unnecessarily talks about ‘industrial bodies’.
Option 2 – This is too broad. The paragraph talks about one particular coast.
Option 3 – This is too speci c. And it doesn’t deal with the main focus of the passage.
So, option 4 is the correct choice.
FeedBack
Khariwado.
Q.17
The passage mentions, ‘A public hearing was nally held in February 2017, but 65% of the dredging had
already been done by then.’ to:
1 introduce the problem that threatens to affect the Goan shermen.
2 highlight how easy it is to bribe o cials and get things done illegally.
3 showcase how some locals looking to make easy money are very much working hand in hand with the
industrial bigwigs.
4 introduce, how, despite warnings, the MPT is determined to ruin the shing community of Goa.
Solution:
 Bookmark
Correct Answer : 1
Genre: Ecology
Word Count# 330
This particular line comes at the end of the rst paragraph. The main aim of
the author is to introduce the problem and lack of e cacy of the restriction on
dredging.
Option 1 is correct because it talks about the main idea of the paragraph which is introduced by this
paragraph.
Options 2 and 3 are factually irrelevant to the passage.
Option 4 – ‘MPT is determined to ruin the shing community of Goa’ goes beyond the scope of the
passage. The author doesn’t blame only MPT for the problems affecting the Goan coastline.
FeedBack
Khariwado.
Q.18
All of the following are true, except:
1 a petroleum and oil complex near a coast will attract other pollutant factors.
2 industrial encroachments in the Goan coastline will affect the migrant workers in the long run.
3 residents of Goa are primarily afraid that the MPT will take away their land.
4 Goan coastline is important for shing communities.

Solution:
 Bookmark
Correct Answer : 3
Genre: Ecology
Word Count# 330
Option 1 – It is true according to the passage. Refer to the line - ‘A petroleum
and oil jetty will mean greater industrial activity in the vicinity, more pollution
and related health hazards’.
Option 2 – It is true according to the passage. Refer to the line - ‘It will affect not only the local shing
community but also migrant communities who work in the Goan shing industry’.
Option 4 – It is true according to the passage. Refer to the line - ‘Overall, 2000 families in the area are
engaged in shing.’ Also, the passage mentions the fact that a lot of migrant workers settle here for better
work opportunities.
Option 3 – It is not true according to the passage. The author doesn’t mention displacement as the primary
concern. He mentions loss of livelihood as the main concern of the community. Refer to the line – “If the
beach ceases to exist, we will lose our way of life and our source of livelihood.” Displacement is mentioned
as a secondary concern.
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Directions for question 19: The passage given below is followed by four summaries. Choose the option
that best captures the author’s position.
Q.19
A new study that involved eye tracking of great apes watching videos of an actor in a gorilla suit indicated
that these primates can predict another’s behavior even when they know it is misguided, which could
indicate the ability to recognize in others a false belief. Such an ability is a stage in the development of a
theory of mind, a stage previously thought to be unique to humans. The videos adapted a technique that
has been used to study false belief in infants and that tests whether study subjects anticipate where
someone will look for an object or individual.
1 A new study has proven that apes can mimic the human behaviour of false belief.
2 A new study has burst many myths regarding the great apes and their mental acumen.
3 A new study regarding great apes and false belief has adapted the same technique that is used to test
false belief in infants.
4 A new study has revealed the possibility of the great apes’ ability to recognize false beliefs.
Solution:
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Correct Answer : 4
This is an easy question to answer. We need to eliminate the distorted or
incorrect options.
Option 1 – There is no ‘proof’ according to the paragraph. Secondly, the apes
don’t mimic false belief.
Option 2 – ‘Many myths’ is wrong as it is not factually supported by the paragraph.
Option 3 – This is clearly distorted. ‘Same technique’ twists the meaning of the main idea of the
paragraph.
Option 4 is the correct summary. Notice the use of the word ‘possibility’. It correctly captures the tone of
the paragraph.
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Directions for questions (20 to 25): The passage below is accompanied by a set of six questions. Choose
the best answer to each question.
More than two centuries after readers rst met them, Elizabeth and Darcy have yet to grow old. Their story
has inspired erotic spinoffs, murder mysteries and a retelling from the servants’ point of view. The much-
loved and mostly faithful 1995 Andrew Davies screen adaptation, starring Jennifer Ehle and Colin Firth,
helped birth Bridget Jones’s Diary. Then came the “Hollywood-meets-Bollywood” movie Bride and
Prejudice and even a genre mashup with zombie hordes menacing Pemberley.
This last was more apt than it sounds, and not only because Andrea Leadsom brie y resurrected Jane
Austen last month, the bicentenary of her death, describing her as one of “our greatest living authors”.
Pride and Prejudice is the novel that simply will not die. Twenty million copies on, Mr Darcy has become so
synonymous with the romantic hero that when researchers found a pheromone in male mouse irresistible
to female mice, they named it “darcin”.
Even that indignity has not diminished his allure. So the announcement this month of yet another TV
adaptation was entirely predictable. So too was the accompanying reassurance that the novel is “less
bonnet-y” than people imagine. One oddity is that those rejecting accusations of “smallness” and gentility
keep picking Austen’s best-loved book over harsher works such as Mans eld Park or Persuasion. Another
is their xation on clothes-as-shorthand, promising us mud on the petticoats and Mr Darcy in a wet shirt –
though the author wrote a great deal more about money than muslin.
It does not take an especially careful reader to discern the underlying message: distaste for the very
people they are commissioned to attract. Much as Austen’s heroes save her heroines from poverty or
reliance on grim relations, so respectable admirers must rescue the author from the Janeites. This strain
has strengthened in reaction to “Austen-inspired scented candles” and paint-by-numbers novels like The
Jane Austen Book Club. But it is evident much further back, in the grudging praise of Henry James, whose
condescension is so much more deadly than Mark Twain’s desire to dig her up and beat her over the skull
with her own shinbone.
No one imagines that Shakespearmints or the Gnomeo and Juliet movie tell us anything useful about the
Bard. There is more than a tinge of sexism and snobbery in the idea that Austen’s enduring popularity is
evidence of something wrong rather than something right – it is, to be blunt, the sense that she is read by
too many women, or at least the wrong kind of women. It’s manifested, equally, in the implication that she
must be OK because Winston Churchill and Harold Macmillan turned to her in moments of darkness.
Austen herself deemed Pride and Prejudice “rather too light and bright and sparkling”; to read it alongside
other works does her more justice. She is merciless in dissecting human folly, of course, but also in her
honesty. Her heroines often face grim choices, only lightly concealed by the gallantry and their happy
endings. She writes about the bleakness of ill-matched marriages, and the pain of living with the
knowledge that you have made a terrible mistake. It is not a cosy environment, merely a contained one.
Other writers, on a broader canvas, have shown us much less of the world than we see on what she termed
her “little bit of ivory”. There is absolutely no need to apologise for Austen.
Q.20
Which of the following is an oddity that the author mentions in the passage?
1 People who like Jane Austen are repelled by the TV adaptations.
2 The makers give undue importance to garments, a rather narrow part of Austen’s work.
3 People who should not apologise for Austen continue to read Pride and Prejudice while neglecting her
other more serious works like Persuasion.
4 These lmmakers deliberately try to make the adaptation ‘less bonnet-y’.
Solution:
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Correct Answer : 2
Genre: Literature / Cultural Studies
Word Count# 558
This is a fact based question. There are two oddities mentioned in the
passage. Refer to the lines, “One oddity is that those rejecting accusations of
“smallness” and gentility keep picking Austen’s best-loved book over harsher works such as Mans eld
Park or Persuasion. Another is their xation on clothes-as-shorthand, promising us mud on the petticoats
and Mr Darcy in a wet shirt – though the author wrote a great deal more about money than muslin.” So, as
per the second point, option 2 is an oddity.
Option 1 – This is mentioned in a different context. Secondly, the author says that people who make these
TV adaptations end up repelling people ‘who are supposed to read and like Jane Austen.’ So, generally
talking about ‘people who like Jane Austen’ is incorrect.
Option 3 is incorrect because the passage doesn't talk about readers not emphasising on some of Jane
Austen’s novels. On the contrary, the passage talks about the TV adaptations of the novel focusing too
much attention on Pride and Prejudice. This is a close option but it is distorted.
Option 4 – This is incorrect. Although the TV adaptation is supposed to be "less bonnet-y", there is no
mention of the lmmakers deliberately trying to make the adaptation in such a way. The usage of the word
is gurative. It can’t be taken literally.
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Q.21
Which of the following can be inferred about Jane Austen’s work?
1 Her heroines manage to nd happiness despite their terrible choices.
2 Her works should be read together in order to be truly appreciated.

3 The endings of her work don’t necessarily hide the bleak streak of reality.
4 The cosy environments of her novels seldom do justice to her brutal honesty.
Solution:
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Correct Answer : 3
Word Count# 558
This question has to be answered by eliminating the wrong or illogical
options.
Option 1 – This option literally blames the heroines of Jane Austen. The passage doesn’t mention anything
about ‘their terrible choices.’ The author talks about their ‘grim choices’ due to their surroundings.
Secondly, the author also indirectly mentions that these heroines don’t actually nd happiness. Refer to
the last paragraph.
Option 2 – Refer to the line – “Austen herself deemed Pride and Prejudice “rather too light and bright and
sparkling”; to read it alongside other works does her more justice.” This can’t lead to the conclusion
mentioned in the second option. It’s an illogical inference.
Option 3 – It is correct because the passage says that Austen's novels may be "lightly concealed by happy
endings." Hence, it is evident that her novels lay bare the stark reality of life. The word ‘lightly’ implies ‘not
necessarily.’
Option 4 – This is again too farfetched. The passage mentions “It is not a cosy environment, merely a
contained one.” However, there is no fact to support that these environments don’t do justice to her work.
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Q.22
Which of the following can be inferred from the penultimate paragraph?
1 Movies on Shakespeare fail to capture the message intended by the writer.
2 Jane Austen is a victim of sexism, snobbery, and much more.

3 There is an inherent aw in the way Jane Austen is perceived through her work.
4 The longevity of Jane Austen’s appeal has underlying implications.
Solution:
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Correct Answer : 4
Word Count# 558
In the second last or penultimate paragraph, the author makes these points.
However, some options are distorted.
Option 4 – ‘The underlying implications’ are suggested in the second last paragraph. Hence, it is correct.
Option 1 – The rst sentence of the penultimate paragraph states that people don’t really expect to know
anything personal about Shakespeare from the movies based on his work. There is not mentions anything
about failing ‘to capture the message of the author’.
Option 2 – It is wrong because it is nowhere stated that Austen is a victim of sexism. It is an extreme
conclusion. There is also no factual basis to infer ‘much more’.
Option 3 – It is incorrect because the paragraph doesn't say anything about how Austen is perceived as a
person. Rather, the paragraph comments on how her work is perceived.
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Q.23
Which of the following would have been the most likely reaction of Mark Twain, if he were alive, regarding
the enduring popularity of Pride and Prejudice?
1 Amazement mixed with a hint of revilement
2 Indignation coupled with a sense of impuissance

3 Blatant criticism with an amalgamation of vitriol
4 Prejudice with a generous amount of condescension
Solution:
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Correct Answer : 3
Word Count# 558
The reaction of Mark Twain is mentioned in the line - “But it is evident much
further back, in the grudging praise of Henry James, whose condescension is
so much more deadly than Mark Twain’s desire to dig her up and beat her over the skull with her own
shinbone.” So, it is clear that Mark Twain would have been blatantly critical of Austen's work. The imagery
suggested in the last sentence of the third last paragraph points towards a severe form of criticism. Even if
he didn’t mean ‘dig her up’ in a literal sense (he most likely would have been sarcastic), he was clearly not
a fan. Hence, option 3 is the correct answer.
Option 1 – Amazement is de nitely not something we can associate with Twain from the given data.
Option 2 – Impuissance means lack of power. This is completely out of context.
Option 4 – Mark Twain might or might not have been prejudiced. However, the author clearly attributes the
quality of condescension to Henry James and contrasts James’s attitude with that of Twain. So, this option
is factually incorrect.
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Q.24
Which of the following is not true, as per the passage?
1 The announcement of the latest adaptation of Pride and Prejudice was not surprising.
2 It is sexist that no one questions the merits of Shakespeare’s works.

3 The fascination of readers with Elizabeth and Darcy has not waned.
4 Mr. Darcy is considered to be a romantic icon.
Solution:
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Correct Answer : 2
Word Count# 558
Option 1 – It is not the correct answer. This sentence is true as per the line –
“So the announcement this month of yet another TV adaptation was entirely
predictable.”
Option 2 - There is no mention of sexism in the passage regarding Shakespeare's works. So, this is the
correct answer.
Option 3 - The popularity of Darcy and Elizabeth has not faded. This is what the passage says. Hence,
option 3 is true as per the passage.
Option 4 - Darcy is considered to be a romantic hero. Refer to the second paragraph of the passage. Option
4 is, thus, true as per the passage.
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Q.25
Which of the following is the reason behind Darcy’s unceasing appeal?
1 He doesn’t grow old.
2 Colin Firth immortalized Darcy by wearing ‘the white shirt’.

3 Readers continue to nd Pride and Prejudice fascinating.
4 The incessant adaptations of Jane Austen’s work don’t let him go out of fashion.
Solution:
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Correct Answer : 3
Word Count# 558
Option 1 – When the author writes that Elizabeth and Darcy haven’t grown old,
s/he is not being literal. So, this is a vague option.
Option 2 – This is a super cial fact (just like a trivia) mentioned in the passage. So, it is not the correct
option either. The appeal of Darcy predates the release of that particular adaptation.
Option 3 – This is at the heart of the entire passage. It is the closest to the main idea of the passage too.
So, it is the correct option.
Option 4 – This is a vague option. The word ‘incessant’ has a negative connotation too. So, it is not the
correct option.
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Brexit is a turning point in the history of western democracy. Never before has such a drastic decision
been taken through so primitive a procedure – a one-round referendum based on a simple majority. Never
before has the fate of a country – of an entire continent, in fact – been changed by the single swing of
such a blunt axe, wielded by disenchanted and poorly informed citizens.
But this is just the latest in a series of worrying blows to the health of democracy. It would appear that
people like the idea of democracy but loathe the reality. Trust in the institutions of democracy is also
visibly declining. Although a certain scepticism is an essential component of citizenship in a free society,
we are justi ed in asking how widespread this distrust might be and at what point healthy scepticism tips
over into outright aversion.
There is something explosive about an era in which interest in politics grows while faith in politics
declines. What does it mean for the stability of a country if more and more people warily keep track of the
activities of an authority that they increasingly distrust? How much derision can a system endure,
especially now that everyone can share their deeply felt opinions online?
Fifty years ago, we lived in a world of greater political apathy and yet greater trust in politics. Now there is
both passion and distrust. These are turbulent times, as the events of the past week demonstrate all too
clearly. And yet, for all this turbulence, there has been little re ection on the tools that our democracies
use. It is still a heresy to ask whether elections, in their current form, are a badly outmoded technology for
converting the collective will of the people into governments and policies.
We discuss and debate the outcome of a referendum without discussing its principles. This should be
surprising. In a referendum, we ask people directly what they think when they have not been obliged to
think – although they have certainly been bombarded by every conceivable form of manipulation in the
months leading up to the vote. But the problem is not con ned to referendums: in an election, you may
cast your vote, but you are also casting it away for the next few years. This system of delegation to an
elected representative may have been necessary in the past – when communication was slow and
information was limited – but it is completely out of touch with the way citizens interact with each other
today. Even in the 18th century, Jean-Jacques Rousseau had already observed that elections alone were
no guarantee of liberty: “The people of England deceive themselves when they fancy they are free; they are
so, in fact, only during the election of members of parliament: for, as soon as a new one is elected, they are
again in chains, and are nothing.”
Referendums and elections are both arcane instruments of public deliberation. If we refuse to update our
democratic technology, we may nd the system is beyond repair.
Q.26
As per the passage, all of the following are true about the author’s opinion on referendums and elections,
except:
1 these tools have become outmoded in the current world.
2 these tools may not protect people against political manipulation.
3 these tools have failed to elect a government that re ects the will of the majority.
4 these tools need to be updated and made in sync with the current manner of public communication.
Solution:
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Correct Answer : 3
Genre: Political Science
Word Count# 502
This question has to be answered by the process of elimination.
Option 1 – This is true as per the passage. The author calls referendum
‘primitive’ in the rst paragraph itself. Then s/he goes on to repeat this many times in the passage. So, it is
not the answer.
Option 2 – This is true too. Refer to the line – “In a referendum, we ask people directly what they think
when they have not been obliged to think – although they have certainly been bombarded by every
conceivable form of manipulation in the months leading up to the vote.” So, it is not the answer.
Option 4 – This is true as per the passage. Refer to the last paragraph. So, it is not the answer.
Option 3 – This is an extreme option. The author does mention that the true will of the public is not always
re ected by the results of elections and referendums. But we can’t say that the results have NEVER elected
a truly representative government. So, it is not necessary true according to the passage. Thus, this is the
correct answer.
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Q.27
Which of the following is true about scepticism in democracy?
1 It is a feature of a free society.
2 It is necessary for the liberation of the people’s voice.
3 It is the inevitable precursor to overt scorn for democratic institutions.
4 It is a corollary of citizenship.
Solution:
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Correct Answer : 1
Word Count# 502
Option 1 – It is true. Refer to the lines – “Although a certain scepticism is an
essential component of citizenship in a free society, we are justi ed in asking
how widespread this distrust might be and at what point healthy scepticism tips over into outright
aversion.” ‘Essential’ refers to ‘feature’. So, it is the correct answer.
Option 2 – It is not mentioned in the passage.
Option 3 – It is too negative and extreme.
Option 4 – ‘Corollary’ or consequence is not factually correct. It is the cause, not the effect.
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Q.28
Which of the following can be inferred about the signi cance of the opening sentence of the passage?
1 The Brexit referendum has changed democracy in the West forever.
2 The Brexit referendum has exposed certain loopholes in the Western democracy.
3 The Brexit referendum is a manifestation of all that is wrong with today’s Western civilization.
4 The Brexit referendum has far reaching consequences for the entire world.
Solution:
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Correct Answer : 2
Word Count# 502
Option 1 – It is too literal an interpretation of the rst sentence. The author
doesn’t literally mean ‘change forever’. ‘Turning point’ refers to an event that
is signi cant and has an impact. But this option does not correctly interpret the author’s point.
Option 2 – This is correct because the rest of the paragraph deals with exposing these loopholes. The rst
sentence acts as an introductory sentence. So, it is the correct answer.
Option 3 – ‘All that is wrong’ is too extreme.
Option 4 – ‘Entire world’ goes beyond the scope of the passage. It also interprets the rst line too literally.
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Q.29
Why does the author ask the two questions at the end of the third paragraph?
1 To highlight the negative consequences of lack of trust in one’s government
2 To showcase the lack of trust people have in the democratic tradition
3 To emphasise on the inevitable consequences of a world with unfettered communication
4 To stress the point that the current democratic fabric may not survive pervasive distrust
Solution:
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Correct Answer : 4
Word Count# 502
The questions the author asks at the end of the third paragraph act as points
that reiterate the author’s concerns. In the next lines, s/he goes on to asset
the view that the current issue needs an immediate resolution.
So, option 4 is the correct answer. This is the most appropriate choice.
Option 1 – This may look close but ‘lack of trust in one’s government’ is not the same as ‘lack of trust in
the process of democracy’. A government may not necessarily be democratic. So, it is not the correct
answer.
Option 2 – This is out of context. The author has already mentioned this point before s/he asks these
questions.
Option 3 – This is purely out of context.
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Q.30
From the passage, what can be inferred about the current status of democracy?
1 People hate it.
2 Its tools are super uous.
3 Technology has impacted it.
4 It is stricken by discussion, debates, and questions.

Solution:
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Correct Answer : 3
Word Count# 502
Option 1 – This is negated by the line “It would appear that people like the
idea of democracy but loathe the reality.”
Option 2 – ‘Super uous’ can’t be de ned from the passage.
Option 3 – This can be inferred from the second and third paragraph. With increased ability to
communicate, people have become more involved with the democratic process. So, ‘impact’ correctly
captures it. This is the correct choice.
Option 4 – ‘Stricken’ is wrong. The author mentions debates and discussion in a positive manner.
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Q.31
All of the following are true, as per the passage, except:
1 the existing system of delegated representation is not effective.
2 people have become more averse to the idea of democracy.
3 the questions in referendums don’t necessarily re ect the latter’s purpose.
4 Rousseau was concerned about the nature of electoral freedom.

Solution:
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Correct Answer : 2
Word Count# 502
Option 1 – It is true as per the entire passage. This is the main complain the
author has with respect to the current status of democracy.
Option 2 – It is negated by the line “It would appear that people like the idea of democracy but loathe the
reality.” So, this is the answer.
Option 3 – This is true as per the lines – “In a referendum, we ask people directly what they think when
they have not been obliged to think – although they have certainly been bombarded by every conceivable
form of manipulation in the months leading up to the vote.”
Option 4 – This is de nitely true. The author quotes Rousseau in this context.
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Q.32
1. Because of the deep sea’s vast scale—it constitutes more than 65 percent of the world’s surface and
more than 90 percent of its biosphere—these archaea–virus relationships could have large effects on
global biogeochemical cycles.
2. On the deep sea oor, bacteria are more abundant than archaea, but the latter suffer viral infections
twice as often.
3. Although little is known about deep-sea ecosystems, this study is still an important advance in
understanding their uniqueness and signi cance.
4. For example, deep-sea deaths of bacteria and archaea release between 0.37 and 0.63 gigatons of
carbon per year.
5. Nearly all mortality of these microbes in the deep sea is due to viral infections.
Solution:
 Bookmark
This is a slightly tricky question.
The strongest clue is sentence 4. ‘For example’ explains the fact mentioned in
sentence 1. So, sentences1 and 4 make a mandatory pair.
Sentence 3 introduces a slightly new idea. So, it has to come at the end of the
paragraph.
Sentence 5 has ‘these microbes’. So, it will come after sentence 2.
So, the correct sequence is 25143.
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Q.33
1. Then came Facebook, the encyclopaedia of common people; YouTube gave everybody their own TV
channel, Blogger and Tumblr made us all creative writers; Twitter brought in tons of followers and LinkedIn
positive endorsements – because who cares about our faults?
2. And if your concern is to remain connected after death, there is a whole movement, the digital afterlife
industry, dedicated to the preservation of your narcissistic social media activity after you die.
3. At the same time, there has been a steep decline in altruism and empathy levels since the advent of
Facebook and Twitter.
4. As Liveson's slogan puts it, "when your heart stops beating, just keep tweeting".
5. It all begun with MySpace, a directory for wannabe pop stars and DJ's.
Solution:
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Correct Answer : 3
The correct order is 5124.
This can be answered by just noticing the tone of the sentence. Sentences 1,
2, 4, and 5 talk about people and their obsession with social media. The
author is sarcastic and humorous.
Sentence 3 is too negative and direct. The author has not focused on the lack of empathy in people. And
the author has not blamed the social media platforms for this. So, sentence 3 is the odd one out.
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Q.34
1. In fact, the wage gap has been at a standstill of sorts for the past decade, in part because women’s
wages haven’t grown.
2. For as long as women have been in the workplace, they have faced questions about whether they are
really up to the job.
3. Looking at some of the excuses for the gender wage gap in the last half a century, it’s clear that those
questions tend to stick around.
4. Equal Pay Day — which in 2018 falls on Tuesday, April 10 — is an annual time to re ect on the
persistence of the gender wage gap.
5. And the more women break into male-dominated elds, the more they discover such prejudices — and
the ways those ideas affect how much money they make.
Solution:
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Sentence 4 mentions the issue or topic of the paragraph: Equal Pay Day.
Sentence 1 explains the ‘persistence of the gender wage gap’ mentioned in
sentence 4. So, sentences 4 and 1 make a mandatory pair.
Sentence 2 further adds the historical perspective on the topic.
5 has ‘And’ at the beginning. So, it has to add to another sentence.
Sentence 3 says ‘those questions’ which adds to sentence 5. So, sentence 2 has to come before 3. Thus,
253 makes a mandatory sequence.
So, the correct sequence is 41253.
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Sec 2
Directions for questions 35 to 38: Answer the questions on the basis of the information given below.
In an island, there were four friends – Raju, Ravi, Ritesh and Rajiv – belonging to four different tribes –
akkad, bakkad, aadikali and konova, not necessarily in the same order. It is known that people of different
tribes have a different peculiar way of counting.
Raju belongs to akkad tribe. People belonging to this tribe skip the number 7 whenever this digit is used in
counting i.e, while they count, they directly write or count 8 after 6, similarly directly write or count 80 after
69.
Ravi belongs to bakkad tribe. People belonging to this tribe do not use multiple of 3 while counting i.e,
while they count or write they skip 3, 6, 9 and so on. For example, if Ravi is asked to write the counting
from 1 to 9, he will write as (1, 2, 4, 5, 7, 8, 10, 11, 13).
Ritesh belongs to aadikali tribe and people belonging to this tribe do not use multiple of 8 while counting
i.e, if he is asked to write the count till 8, he will write as (1, 2, 3, 4, 5, 6, 7, 9).
Rajiv belongs to konova tribe and people belonging there skip the digits 3 and 5 while counting. They skip
any number containing these digits. For example, if they starts counting they will count as 1, 2, 4, 6 and so
on.
Q.35
Ravi found some marbles on the island and after counting them (in his peculiar manner) he wrote 277
marbles on the paper. If he asked all his three friends to count the marbles (with their peculiarity) and
wrote the number on a piece of paper, then which of the following cannot be the number written by any of
the three friends?
1 225
2 211
3 291
4 264
Solution:
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Correct Answer : 4
The question is about the using of or counting in different base system. If a
person skips a digit i.e. person from Akkad and person from konova, they are
using different base system. Person from Bakkad and Aadikali tribes use the
numbers which are not multiple of 3 and 8 respectively.
As Ravi belongs to Bakkad tribe and have found 277 marbles according to his peculiarity, so to nd the
actual number of marbles with him one needs to count the numbers which are coprime to 3 and less than
277. That number is 185.
Now these 185 marbles when counted by Raju, belonging to aakad tribe, will be same as counting them in
base 9. So, he wrote the number on paper as (185)9 , so Raju must have written 225.
When counted by Ritesh, belonging to aadikali tribe, number written by Ritesh would be 211.
As adding X(7/8)) = 182 (number closest to 185 which is a multiple of 7) i.e, X = 208 and hence the total
number of marbles written by Ritesh is 208 + 3 = 211.
Similarly numbers written by Rajiv, would be as As in rst 100 numbers he skipped 36 numbers and
counted only 64 numbers, so upto 100 he counted only 64 marbles. Then from 101 to 200 he counted next
64 marbles, making a total of 128 marbles he had counted already. Now remaining 185 - 128 = 57 marbles
would be counted by him in from 201 to 291. So, the number written by Rajiv is 291.
So 264 is not the number of marbles written on any piece of paper.

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69.
on.
Q.36
Ritesh had 283 coins with him (counted according to his tribe peculiarity) and he passed it to Raju with
writing the number of coins on a piece of paper. What is the difference between the number written by
Ritesh on the paper and the number that Raju got after counting the coins? (both numbers considered in
decimal)
Solution:
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Correct Answer : 22
The number of coins with Ritesh is 283 according to his peculiarity.

As Ritesh skipped every 8th number, so actual coins with him will be 280x(7/8)= 245 + 3 = 248.
So, Ritesh gave Raju 248 coins.
Now, the number of coins according to Raju’s counting peculiarity is 305 i.e, 248 in base 9.
So, the required difference(in decimal system) of values = 305 – 283 = 22.
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69.
on.
Q.37
Rajiv counted (in his peculiar manner) that he had 784 marbles with him. What is the actual number of
marbles with him?
Solution:
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The question is about the using of or counting in the different base system. If
a person skips a digit i.e. person from Akkad and person from konova, they
are using different base system. Person from Bakkad and Aadikali tribes use
the numbers which are not multiple of 3 and 8 respectively.
Rajiv counted that he had 784 marbles with him according to his peculiarity.
Lets count the number of marbles originally.
In rst 100, there are 36 numbers using digit 3 or 5 or both. So, he skipped these numbers.
Then from 101 to 200, he skipped 36 numbers.

Then from 201 to 299, he skipped 36 numbers.
Then from 300 to 400, he skipped the 100 numbers.
From 401 to 499, he skipped 36 numbers.
So, the actual number of marbles = 784 - ( 36 + 36 + 36 + 100 + 36 + 100 + 36 + 33) = 371
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69.
on.
Q.38
If one of the four friends wrote a number 8568 on a slip, then he could belong to which of the following
tribe?
1 Akkad
2 bakkad
3 aadikali
4 konovo
Solution:
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Correct Answer : 1
As Ritesh and Ravi do not write the multiple of 3 and 8 and the number 8568 is multiple of both 3 and 8 so
can not be used by them.
Further Rajiv skips the digits both 3 and 5 so again he cannot be the person who has written the number.
So only person to write that number is Raju, belonging to akkad tribe.
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Directions for question 39 to 42: Answer the questions on the basis of the information given below.
P, Q, R are three adjacent buildings. P is to the west of Q. Q is to the west of R. Each building has different
number of oors with the lowest oor numbered as 1, oor above it numbered as 2 and so on. The height
of oors in each building is the same i.e. the same numbered oors are at equal height from the ground. A
through I are living in nine different oors in no particular order. The rest of the houses are vacant. No
building has more than ten oors.
(i) G lived on the oor which was exactly below H's oor but in a different building.
(ii) G and E live on the same oor but in a different building such that G is to the left of E.
(iii) The number of oors in building P is three more than A's oor number. A lives in building P.
(iv) A and B lived on the same oor but in a different building such that A is to left of B and B lived 2nd
from the top of his building.
(v) C lives in building Q and the number of oors in his building is twice as that of his oor number.
(vi) I lived on the oor which was immediately below F's oor but in a different building. I is to the left of F. I
and H are not in the same building.
(vii) D lived in oor 4 but neither in I's nor in E's building.
(viii) A's oor number was twice as that of C's oor number, whose oor number is thrice I's oor number.
(ix) B and F are not in the same building.
(x) B and H lived in different buildings.
(xi) In every building the top oor is vacant.
Q.39
How many oors are there in building R?
1 6
2 7
3 8
4 9
Solution:
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Correct Answer : 2
7 oors are there in building R.
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Q.40
How many persons lives above C in the same building in which C lives?
1 0
2 2
3 3
4 5
Solution:
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Correct Answer : 2
Two persons stay above C.
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Q.41
How many vacant oors are there in building P?
1 6
2 4
3 7
4 5
Solution:
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Correct Answer : 1
6 oors are vacant in building P.
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Q.42
Which oor is not vacant in any of the three buildings?
1 1st
2 3rd
3 4th
4 7th
Solution:
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Correct Answer : 3
4th oor does not have any vacant buildings.
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Seven friends - Abhishek, Ashish, Somil, Avinash, Lokpriya, Inshia and Mohit - decided to study together
on a day starting from morning until evening at a park. On a particular day, their plan failed as no one was
able to come on time and all left the park before 12 noon. They arrived at 7:30am, 9 am, 8:20 am, 8am,
9:50 am, 8:15 am and 7:45am respectively. But they all left on some different time at 10 am, 10:30 am,
10:50 am, 11 am, 11:05 am, 11:05 am and 11:20, not necessarily in the same order. Further, it is known
that:
I. Everyone studied for more than one hour.

II. Mohit spent the maximum time and Lokpriya spent the least time at the park.
III. Ashish was not the rst person to leave the park and difference between the time spent by Ashish and
Inshia in the park was 40 minutes.
IV. The difference between the time spent by Somil and Abhishek in the park was 20 minutes.
Q.43
If Lokpriya was not the last person to leave the park, then who could be the two persons leaving together
at 11:05 am?
1 Lokpriya and Ashish
2 Mohit and Abhishek
3 Somil and Avinash
4 Lokpriya and Mohit

Solution:
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Correct Answer : 1
Using the data given in the question, we can colclude as:
From statement III, we can conclude that the difference between the time of
leaving of Inshia and Ashish is of 5 minutes, as there arrival time is 8:15 and
9:00 respectively. So we can conclude that Inshia must have left at 11:00 am and Ashish at 11:05.
From statement IV and the arrival time of Somil and Abhishek, we can conclude that they must have left at
10:30 am and 10:00 am respectively.
From statement I, we can conclude that Lokpriya will leave at either 11:00 am, 11:05 am or 11:20 am. But
we already had concluded that Inshia left at 11:00 am, so that is not possible for Lokpriya also.
From statement II, we can conclude that Mohit must have left at either 11:05 or 11:20 as he spends the
maximum time. Also Avinash cannot leave at 11:05 or 11:20 as he would be the one who will spend the
maximum time in both the cases. So, Avinsah must have left at 10:50 am.
So these are two possible cases:
As we can see in the case 1, Lokpriya and Ashish left together at 11:05 am.
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that:

Q.44
If Avinash spent 2 hrs and 50 minutes in the park, then at what time did Somil left?
1 10:30 am
2 10:00 am
3 11:05 am
4 11:20 am
Solution:
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Correct Answer : 1
Somil left the park at 10:30 am in both the cases.

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that:

Q.45
If Mohit has spent less than 3.5 hours, then at what time did Lokpriya leave?
1 11:00 am
2 10:50 am
3 11:20 am
4 11:05 am
Solution:
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Correct Answer : 3
Mohit spent less than 3.5 hours as per the schedule in case 2 and according to that Lokpriya left at 11:20
am.
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that:

Q.46
What is the difference between the time spent by Mohit and the time spent by Inshia?
1 50 Minutes
2 35 minutes
3 20 Minutes
4 Cannot be determined
Solution:
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Correct Answer : 4
Difference between the time spent by Mohit and Inshia in the park is either 50 minutes or 35 minutes.
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Direction for questions 47 to 50: Answer the question on the basis of the information given below.
A, B, C and D ate 4 different type of fruits – Apples, Mangoes, Bananas and Guavas. Each person ate at
least one fruit of each type. The total number of mangoes eaten by all was the same as the total number of
Guavas eaten by all. A total of 24 fruits was taken. The total number of mangoes eaten by all was 6.
Exactly 2 persons C and D, ate the same total number of fruits, which was 6 in number. The total number of
apples and the total number of bananas eaten by all were distinct. No one ate more than a total of 7 fruits.
Exactly 1 person ate four fruits of a particular type. No person ate exactly 3 fruits of any particular type of
fruit.
Q.47
If ‘A’ ate 2 bananas, then ‘C’ ate how many apples?
Solution:
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Correct Answer : 1
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fruit.
Q.48
Which of the following statements must be false?
1 ‘C’ ate 2 guavas
2 ‘B’ ate 2 apples
3 ‘B’ ate 4 apples
4 ‘C’ ate 4 bananas
Solution:
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Correct Answer : 4
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fruit.
Q.49
If ‘D’ ate 2 apples, then which of the following statements must be true?
1 Either ‘A’ or ‘B’ ate 4 bananas
2 ‘C’ ate 2 guavas
3 ‘C’ ate 2 mangoes
4 All of the above
Solution:
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Correct Answer : 4
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fruit.
Q.50
What is the total number of fruits A and B ate together?
Solution:
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Correct Answer : 12
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Rajat designed a large cube for his Mathematics Project but later on he nds out that 17 cuts are made on
his designed cube by his little brother but fortunately he observes an interesting thing and therefore
changes the topic of his mathematics project accordingly.Answer the following questions (51 and 52)
Q.51
What is the least number of identical pieces obtained from a large cube by 17 cuts?
Solution:
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Correct Answer : 0
If we make 17 cuts of varying lengths then no piece will be identical hence, the least number of identical
pieces will be 0.
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Rajat designed a large cube for his Mathematics Project but later on he nds out that 17 cuts are made on
his designed cube by his little brother but fortunately he observes an interesting thing and therefore
changes the topic of his mathematics project accordingly.Answer the following questions (51 and 52)
Q.52
What is the maximum number of pieces obtained from a large cube by 17 cuts?
Solution:
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To maximize the number of pieces, we need to make cuts along different axes.
So, 17 = 6 + 6 + 5.
These numbers should be as close as possible then only product can be maximized.
So, cuts along X, Y and Z axes are 6, 6 and 5.
So, number of pieces will be 7 × 7 × 6 = 294.
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Rajat designed a large cube for his Mathematics Project but later on he nds out that certain cuts are
made on his designed cube by his little brother but fortunately he observes an interesting thing that those
cuts have divided the cube in 51 identical pieces and therefore changes the topic of his mathematics
project accordingly.Answer the following questions (53 and 54)
Q.53
What is the least possible number of cuts required to cut the cube into 51 identical pieces?
1 50
2 28
3 18
4 17
Solution:
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Correct Answer : 3
51 = 1 × 3 × 17
(a + 1) (b + 1) (c + 1)
So cuts along X axis = 0
cuts along Y axis = 2
cuts along Z axis = 16
So, total cuts = 2 + 16 = 18
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Rajat designed a large cube for his Mathematics Project but later on he nds out that certain cuts are
made on his designed cube by his little brother but fortunately he observes an interesting thing that those
cuts have divided the cube in 51 identical pieces and therefore changes the topic of his mathematics
project accordingly.Answer the following questions (53 and 54)
Q.54
What is the maximum number of cuts required to cut the cube into 51 identical pieces?
1 17
2 28
3 50
4 21
Solution:
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Correct Answer : 3
Here, all the cuts should be on the same axis, hence to get 51 pieces, we need 50 cuts.
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A company has 6 people in its board of directors B1, B2, B3, B4, B5, B6 and 4 presidents P1, P2, P3, P4. Three
working committees C1, C2, and C3 are to be formed out of these members. Each of given members of the
company has to be a member of exactly one of the committees. Committee C1 has the highest number of
members and C3 has the least number of members with no two committees having equal number of
members. Some additional information are as follows:
1. P3 is not in C2.
2. B3 and P4 only work in the same committee.
3. Each committee has atleast 1 director and 1 president.
4. B1 and P1 can not come in same committee.
5. B5 will work only in committee C3 and P2 only in C1.
6. No more than 2 out of B2, B4 and B6 can work in the same committee.
Q.55
Which of the following can never be a part of C1
1 P2
2 P1
3 B6
4 B3
Solution:
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Correct Answer : 2
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1. P3 is not in C2.
Q.56
If B6 and P1 are in same committee, then which of the following are de nitely in a committee together?
1 B1B3
2 B1B4
3 B2B3
4 B2B1
Solution:
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Correct Answer : 1
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1. P3 is not in C2.
Q.57
If P1 is in committee C3 then who can not be in C2
1 B3
2 P4
3 B6
4 B1
Solution:
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Correct Answer : 4
From case 2, it can be found out if P1 is in C3, only B1 among the given
persons can not be in C2.
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1. P3 is not in C2.
Q.58
If P1 is in C2 then which of the following can not be in committee C1
1 P2B3P4B1B2
2 P2B3P4B2B4
3 P2B3P4B1B4
4 P2B3P4B1B6
Solution:
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Correct Answer : 2
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Direction for questions 59 to 62: Answer the questions on the basis of the information given below.
4 persons, A through D, work in the same o ce. The table below provides the number of days that each
person worked in each month from. Feb-17 to May-17, as a percentage of total number of days that he
worked during that period. The number of days that any person worked in any month is not necessarily an
integer.
Q.59
During the given period, nd the max number of days (approximately), that any person could work.
1 106.9
2 120
3 115.3
4 100
Solution:
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Correct Answer : 4
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integer.
Q.60
What is the difference between the maximum number of days that A could have worked in March 2017 and
the maximum number of days that B could have worked in Feb 2017?
Solution:
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Correct Answer : 2.5
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integer.
Q.61
If in a particular month during the given period, each person worked on exactly 10 days in that month,
which of the following months it can be?
1 Feb
2 March
3 May
4 More than one of the above.

Solution:
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Correct Answer : 2
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integer.
Q.62
In almost how many of the 4 months given is it possible that at least one of the 4 persons could have
worked on all the days of the month?
Solution:
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Correct Answer : 3
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SDM Education Groups has a chain of educational institutions spread across eight major cities of India. It
is currently in the news for selecting top-eight professors working in IIMs across India and conducting
online sessions that were taken by them for their students in eight cities. They had set up a workshop in
one of their institutes from where they provided online sessions to students. The online sessions were
conducted for students in the cities of Nagpur, Ahmedabad, Calcutta, Lucknow, Indore, Bangalore, Rohtak,
and Shillong individually in a week starting from Sunday to Saturday. The names of the professors who has
taken sessions are Raghunath Shankar, Ramadurai Nayar, Amitabh Pandey, Rakesh Verma, Mathew
Fernandes, Javed Ali, Navjot Arora and Pankaj Dutta. The subjects for which these experts were invited
include Geography, Psychology, Biology, Mathematics, History, Political Science, Computer Science and
Business Management, not necessarily in the given order.
1. The session taken by Raghunath Shankar was before the session taken by Ramadurai Nayar but after
the session taken by Pankaj Dutta, who is not a professor of Biology.
2. The professor who has taken a session for the students in Calcutta is a professor of Political Science.
3. Amitabh Pandey is a professor of Psychology and he did not take any session on Sunday.
4. The day on which session for the students in Shillong was taken was immediately after the day on which
the sessions for the students in Bangalore and Indore were taken.
5. Pankaj Dutta has taken the session for the students in Nagpur and is not a professor of Computer
Science.
6. Only two professors have taken a session on the same day. The professor of History has taken his
session on Thursday.
7. Ramadurai Nayar has taken his session for the students in Rohtak on the day that falls between the days
on which sessions for the students in Lucknow and Shillong were taken.
8. Navjot Arora is a professor of Computer Science and would not take any session on Saturday. The
professors of Mathematics and Psychology have taken their sessions on the same day.
9. Mathew Fernandes, who is a professor of History, has taken his session immediately after the day on
which the session for the students in Rohtak was taken by a professor of Geography.
10. Raghunath Shankar, who is not a professor of Business Management, has taken a session immediately
after the day on which Rakesh Verma has taken his session.
11. Rakesh Verma has taken the session with another professor on the same day but not for the students
in Bangalore.
Q.63
Who is the professor who will conduct a session after three days of Rakesh Verma’s session?
1 The professor who will conduct a session for students in Ahmedabad
2 Navjot Arora
3 The professor who will conduct a session for students in Rohtak
4 Both (1) and (2)

Solution:
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Correct Answer : 4
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Science.
in Bangalore.
Q.64
Who among the following is a professor of Political Science?
1 Javed Ali
2 Pankaj Dutta
3 Rakesh Verma
4 Navjot Arora
Solution:
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Correct Answer : 1
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Science.
in Bangalore.
Q.65
On which day and for which subjects were two sessions conducted together?
1 Saturday: Political Science and Computer Science
2 Monday: Psychology and Mathematics
3 Wednesday: Political Science and Computer Science
4 Friday: Psychology and Mathematics

Solution:
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Correct Answer : 2
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Science.
in Bangalore.
Q.66
Based on the given information, decide which among the following statements hold true.
1 Pankaj Dutta – Computer Science – Nagpur – Thursday
2 Ramadurai Nayar – Geography – Rohtak – Wednesday
3 Raghunath Shankar– Biology – Lucknow – Wednesday
4 Javed Ali – Business Management – Calcutta – Saturday

Solution:
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Correct Answer : 2
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Sec 3
Q.67
A is 4 times as e cient as B and takes 6 days less to complete a piece of work. Find the number of days
taken by A and B together.
1 2 days
2 1.6 days
3 1.8 days
4 2.4 days
Solution:
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Correct Answer : 2
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Q.68
MNOP is a square, having side 6 cm, in which MNO and MNP are two quadrants of a circle. If a circle is
drawn touching both the quadrants and the square, as shown in the gure given below, then nd the area
of the circle.
1 99/224
2 68/225
3 47/224
4 None of these
Solution:
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Correct Answer : 1
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Q.69
Shasha sets off on his bike from Noida to Kanpur, at a certain speed, intending to reach Kanpur by 5 pm.
After covering a certain distance, he realises that he would be able to cover only ve-eighth of the
intended distance by 5 pm. He therefore increases his speed by 75% and reaches Kanpur at 5 pm. What
fraction of the total distance did he cover at his initial speed?
1 5/8
2 1/8
3 3/4
4 3/5
Solution:
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Correct Answer : 2
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Q.70
1 2
2 8
3 4
4 None of these
Solution:
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Correct Answer : 1
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Q.71
In how many ways can 7 identical balls be placed in 4 boxes, P, Q, R and S such that boxes P and Q have at
least one ball each?
Solution:
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Correct Answer : 56
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Q.72
A Swimmer R swims from point X to Y and back in 10 hours. If he drops his watch at point X, the watch
takes 15 hours to oat to point Y. What is the ratio of speed of R while swimming in the water to that of
current?
1 10 : 1
2 6:1
3 3:1
Solution:
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Correct Answer : 4
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Q.73
If f(x) = x2 - 2ax + b can be factorised as (x - a)(x - b), then nd the value of f(4) where a and b are positive
real numbers.
1 25
2 0
3 9
Solution:
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Correct Answer : 3
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Q.74
N
If N= 1! + 2! + 3! +.........10!, then what is the unit digit of NN ?
1 9
2 3
3 7
4 1
Solution:
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Correct Answer : 2
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Q.75
In a school, the total number of students is a prime number less than 400. P students have atleast 1 parent
and Q students do not have either parent. Which of the following can be the ratio of P and Q?
1 211 : 112
2 250 : 121
3 225 : 166
4 207 : 176
Solution:
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Correct Answer : 4
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Q.76
Which of the following values of 'a' satisfy the inequality a(a - 6) > 2a - 12?
1 24 < a < 71
2 a > 6 or a < 2
3 a > 40 or a < 31
4 2<a<6
Solution:
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Correct Answer : 2
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Q.77
The sum of two numbers is 528 and their HCF is 33. The number of pairs of such numbers is
1 4
2 3
3 5
4 1
Solution:
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Correct Answer : 1
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Q.78
The cost of printing a book is divided in such a way that 10% of the cost is invested on paper, 5% on
printing ink, 20% on labour, 25% on power and 40% on payment to the author. The book is then sold at a
pro t of 25%.If the paper cost goes up by 10%, the cost of printing ink goes up by 20% and labour charges
by 50% and the selling price remains unchanged, nd the pro t %.
1 13 %
Solution:
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Correct Answer : 2
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Q.79
U = 5(log2x) – 8, where x is a Natural number. If xU = 16, then nd the value of x.
1 2
2 8
3 6
4 4
Solution:
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Correct Answer : 4
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Q.80
In a trapezium PQRS, PQ is parallel to RS such that PQ is 2 times of RS. If diagonals PR and SQ intersect at
point O, then what is the ratio of the area of triangle POQ to the area of the triangle SOR?
1 2:1
2 1:2
3 4:1
4 1:4
Solution:
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Correct Answer : 3
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Q.81
1 3/4
2 9/4
3 9
4 None of these
Solution:
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Correct Answer : 4
The value of y will always be positive whereas the value of x can be both
positive as well as negative.
So, the value of y will change according to the value of x and we can take any
minimum value of x (negative value of x to get the minimum possible value of
x/2 + y/4). So, answer is cannot be determined.
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Q.82
Astha, Priya and Kannu bought 1, 10 and 25 notebooks in Rs.14, Rs.130 and Rs.300, respectively, from a
stationery shop. In his sales with Astha and Kannu, the shopkeeper made a pro t of a% and b%
respectively, where a = 2b. If the shopkeeper bought all the notebooks at the same price, then how much
pro t percentage did the shopkeeper make in his sales with Priya?
1 30
2 38
3 28
4 40
Solution:
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Correct Answer : 1
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Q.83
For any values of x, y and a, what is the point of intersection of the lines 3x + 2y = a and 20x + 3y = 6(x –
3y)?
1 (2a/3, 3a/4)
2 (3a/5, -2a/5)
3 (1, 2a)
4 None of these
Solution:
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Correct Answer : 2
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Q.84
If P1 + P2 + P3 = 59 where P1, P2, P3 are prime numbers and P1 < P2 < P3, then how many values can P2
take?
Solution:
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Correct Answer : 6
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Q.85
What is the approximate difference (in Rs.) between the interest earned on the sum of Rs.20,000 at 20%
simple interest for 4 years and the interest earned on Rs.25,000 at 20% compound interest compounded
half yearly for 2 years?
1 5000
2 4289
3 4397
4 5212
Solution:
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Correct Answer : 3
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Q.86
An equilateral triangle ABC is drawn on the side of the square BCDE and outside the square BCDE. Find the
ratio of the angle DAC to the angle EAD.
1 2:1
2 3:4
3 2:3
4 1:2
Solution:
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Correct Answer : 4
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Q.87
In alloy A, zinc and iron are mixed in the ratio 1 : 4. In alloy B, iron and copper are mixed in the ratio 2 : 5
whereas in alloy C, copper and aluminium are mixed in the ratio of 4 : 2. All the three alloys are mixed in
the ratio of 1 : 2 : 3. Find the percentage of zinc in the mixture.
1 3.33%
2 6%
3 6.67%
4 10%
Solution:
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Correct Answer : 1
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Q.88
If p + q = 8 and p - q = 6, where p and q are roots of a quadratic equation, then which of the following
equations has its roots as p2 and q4?
1 x2 + 50x + 51 = 0
2 x2 - 50x + 49 = 0
3 x2 - 49x + 48 = 0
4 None of these
Solution:
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Correct Answer : 2
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Q.89
Solution:
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Correct Answer : 4
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Q.90
If the average of n consecutive natural numbers starting with "a" is 29 then the average of n natural
numbers starting with "2a + 29" will be
(Write '0' if your answer is cannot be determined)
Solution:
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Correct Answer : 0
If we take n = 1 and a = 29, new average = 87
If we take n = 3 and a = 28, new average = 86
If we take n = 5 and a = 27, new average = 85.
and so on.
So, average cannot be determined uniquely.
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Q.91
Let the ratio of male population to female population be 3 : 4 in the rst year and in the second year be 4 :
5. If their population grows at a uniform rate then nd the ratio of male population to female population in
the third year.
1 5:6
2 64 : 75
3 16 : 25
Solution:
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Correct Answer : 2
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Q.92
Find the 578th term in the series 1,2,2,4,4,4,4,8,8,8,8,8,8,8,8,.......
Solution:
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Q.93
How many acute angled triangles with integral sides are possible if two of the sides are 7 and 11?
1 12
2 13
3 5
4 7
Solution:
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Correct Answer : 3
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Q.94
On a biased dice every odd number appears four times as the frequency of every even number. If the dice
is rolled three times, what is the probability that the sum of those appeared numbers is 17 or more?
1 1/3375
2 12/625
3 13/625
4 13/3375
Solution:
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Correct Answer : 4
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Q.95
The loss on selling an article at Rs.950 is 25% more than the pro t on selling the same article at Rs.1040.
Find the pro t percentage if it is sold at Rs.1100.
Solution:
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Correct Answer : 10
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Q.96
Find the number of integral solutions of the equation 4x – 7y = 35, if x lies in the interval –50 < x < 50.
Solution:
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Correct Answer : 15
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Q.97
A Spice airline has a free luggage allowance upto a certain kg and if there is extra luggage, it is charged at
constant rate per kg. The total luggage charge paid by M and S is Rs. 1050. If both M and S has carried
twice the luggage they actually did then charge would be Rs. 2400 & Rs.900 respectively.Find the luggage
charge paid by M(in Rs.).
1 750
2 900
3 1200
4 1500
Solution:
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Correct Answer : 2
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Q.98
Find the average of the following series 1 × 2 × 3 × 4 + 2 × 3 × 4 × 5 + 3 × 4 × 5 × 6 + … + 11 × 12 × 13 × 14
Solution:
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Q.99
Price of the diesel is increased from Rs 60/litre to Rs 70/litre. By how much percent should the
consumption of the diesel be reduced by Ravi so as to increase his expenditure by only 5%?
1 15
2 7.5
3 12
4 10
Solution:
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Correct Answer : 4
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Q.100
F(x) is a quadratic polynomial with maximum value of 3 at x = -2 . If F(0) = 2, nd F (6).
Solution:
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Correct Answer : -13
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Mock Cat 20

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Mock CAT – 20 2018

Scorecard (procreview.jsp?sid=aaa5BycB_LJvH-TdBuPHwSun Jan 20 07:08:22 UTC

Accuracy (AccSelectGraph.jsp?sid=aaa5BycB_LJvH-TdBuPHwSun Jan 20 07:08:22 UTC

Qs Analysis (QsAnalysis.jsp?sid=aaa5BycB_LJvH-TdBuPHwSun Jan 20 07:08:22 UTC

Video Attempt (VideoAnalysis.jsp?sid=aaa5BycB_LJvH-TdBuPHwSun Jan 20 07:08:22 UTC

Solutions (Solution.jsp?sid=aaa5BycB_LJvH-TdBuPHwSun Jan 20 07:08:22 UTC

Bookmarks (Bookmarks.jsp?sid=aaa5BycB_LJvH-TdBuPHwSun Jan 20 07:08:22 UTC

Toppers (Toppers.jsp?sid=aaa5BycB_LJvH-TdBuPHwSun Jan 20 07:08:22 UTC

1 dark kitchens are basically used to sell food door to door.

2 Amazon’s distribution centres are well ventilated.

1 The current culture of work affects the psyche of the workers.

2 William Blake was a champion for workers’ rights.

3 Distribution centres evade categories.

1 dark kitchens are very much a British phenomenon.

3 the passivity of the modern workers in accepting their fate is worrisome.

1 The dark style of operations

2 The pace of their work

3 Lack of ability to choose one’s work style

1 shut down distribution centres.

2 show how certain styles of worker management are dangerous.

3 improve the conditions of workers across Britain.

4 A new method has discerned twins’ DNA.

3 Twisting of the agpole

4 The absence of vacuum

3 the cinematic genius of Stanley Kubrick.

4 the death of three astronauts in a possible case of arson.

1 Majority of the Americans believe that lunar landings were staged.

2 Technology to create a space like set existed in 1961.

3 People continue to believe conspiracy theories surrounding NASA.

1. It was a new kind of evolution – we could call it idea evolution.

1 to highlight the importance of the NGT in ghting corrupt industrial bodies.

2 to show how environmental changes can affect the local coastline

4 Goan coastline is important for shing communities.

1 People who like Jane Austen are repelled by the TV adaptations.

4 These lmmakers deliberately try to make the adaptation ‘less bonnet-y’.

1 Her heroines manage to nd happiness despite their terrible choices.

2 Her works should be read together in order to be truly appreciated.

1 Movies on Shakespeare fail to capture the message intended by the writer.

2 Jane Austen is a victim of sexism, snobbery, and much more.

4 The longevity of Jane Austen’s appeal has underlying implications.

1 Amazement mixed with a hint of revilement

2 Indignation coupled with a sense of impuissance

4 Prejudice with a generous amount of condescension

2 It is sexist that no one questions the merits of Shakespeare’s works.

4 Mr. Darcy is considered to be a romantic icon.

1 He doesn’t grow old.

2 Colin Firth immortalized Darcy by wearing ‘the white shirt’.

1 these tools have become outmoded in the current world.

2 these tools may not protect people against political manipulation.

1 It is a feature of a free society.

2 It is necessary for the liberation of the people’s voice.

3 It is the inevitable precursor to overt scorn for democratic institutions.

1 The Brexit referendum has changed democracy in the West forever.

1 To highlight the negative consequences of lack of trust in one’s government

2 To showcase the lack of trust people have in the democratic tradition

3 To emphasise on the inevitable consequences of a world with unfettered communication

1 People hate it.

2 Its tools are super uous.

3 Technology has impacted it.