MICROBIOLOGY AND PARASITOLOGY

1. Iodophor is composed of:

a. Iodine and quats c. quats and alcohol
b. Iodine and alcohol d. iodine, quats and alcohol
2. Which of the following is NOT true about taxonomic naming of organisms?
a. Uses binomial nomenclature in identifying organisms
b. Genus name can be abbreviated using the first letter
c. Uses Greek names or words
d. Developed by Carolus Linnaeus
3. Color of non-acid fast organisms in acid fast staining
a. Red c. Purple
b. Blue d. Green
4. Which is the most common pathogenic isolate from the throat?
a. Staphylococcus aureus c. Staphylococcus epidermidis
b. Streptococcus aureus c. Streptococcus pyogenes
5. Catalase & PYR hydrolysis negative, Bacitracin resistant, CAMP positive:
a. Staphylococcus agalactiae c. Staphylococcus saprophyticus
b. Staphylococcus aureus d. Streptococcus pyogenes
6. Appearance of Bacillus anthracis in culture media:
a. Flat with regular, serrated edges and beta-hemolysis
b. Green metallic sheen
c. Swarming colonies
d. Flat with irregular, serrated edges and swirling projections
7. Which parasite exhibits double-walled cysts with an outer wrinkled wall and an inner polygonal wall?
a. Acanthamoeba castellani c. Naegleria fowleri
b. Taenia solium d. Hymenolepis albicans
8. Serum tube test is used for diagnosis of:
a. Staphylococcus aureus c. Cryptococcus neoformans
b. Trichomonas vaginalis d. Candida albicans
9. Preferred culture media for isolating Aspergillus species:
a. Rice medium c. Czapek agar
b. Cornmeal agar d. Bird Seed agar
10. What is the name of the third specie of Taenia?
a. T. thirdia c. T. asiatica
b. T. taiwanii d. T. philippinensis
11. Beef tapeworm
a. Echinococcus granulosus c. Taenia saginata
b. T. taiwanii d. Clonorchis sinensis
12. Kala-azar
a. Plasmodium falciparum c. Trypanosoma brucei gambiense
b. Leishmania donovani d. Pthirus pubis
13. P. falciparum antigen detected by MalaQuick immunoassay.
a. HRP I c. SREHP
b. pLDH d. HRO II
14. what is the most common agent of nosocomial UTI?
a. Staphylococcus epidermidis c. Staphylococcus saprophyticus
b. Staphylococcus aureus d. Eschericia coli
15. What is the gold standard method, as well as the DOH recommended method, to detect and identify
malarial species?
a. Polymerase chain reaction c. Indirect immunofluorescence assay
b. Thick and Thin smear d. Rapid antigen detection assays

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 16. Which organisms are used as the positive and negative controls, respectively for oxidase test?
a. Proteus vulgaris; Eschericia coli c. Pseudomonas aeruginosa; Eschericia coli
b. Eschericia coli; Enterobacter cloacea d. Eschericia coli; Salmonella typhimurium
17. Which of the following tests will differentiate Eschericia coli from Shigella spp.?
a. Pyruvate, Arabinose, Sorbitol
b. Phenylalanine deaminase, Urease, KCN broth
c. Lysostaphin, Bacitracin, Modified oxidase
d. Mac morphology, Acetate, Lysine Decarboxylase
18. What is the general appearance of Salmonella species in Eosin-Methylene Blue agar?
a. Red without black center c. Red with black center
b. Colorless without black center d. Yellow with black center

IMMUNOLOGY, SEROLOGY AND BLOOD BANKING

1. VYFRA 21-1 is a marker for ___ cancer.

a. Colorectal c. Lung
b. Prostate d. Bladder
2. Which organism is NOT generally screened before blood donation but is removed by component
preparation?
a. Plasmodium c. Treponema
b. CMV d. HTLV
3. The anti-B reaction of a patient’s blood that underwent blood typing was reported 3+. An Ag-Ab reaction
of 3+ is reported when there are:
a. Small clumps with cloudy background
b. Several large clumps with clear background
c. Tiny clumps with colony background
d. Medium clumps with clear background
4. Prozone phenomenon:
a. False positive due to excess in antibody in the serum
b. Optimal amounts of antigen and antibody is present
c. True negative where no antibody is detected
d. False positive due to excessive reagent antigen
5. A donor vaccinated with MMR vaccine should be deferred:
a. 4 weeks c. 1 week
b. 12 months d. indefinitely
6. Reagent color of Anti-B:
a. Colorless c. Yellow
b. Green d. Blue
7. Major advantage of gel technology:
a. Shorter TAT c. Standardization
b. Shorter incubation d. MT’s work lessened
8. A patient has the following ABO typing reactions:
Anti-A: O
Anti-B: O
O cells: +
a. O c. Bombay
b. AB d. A
9. Blood group antigen that is a marker for Asian ancestry
a. Fy (a-b-) c. Cra
b. Dia d. Fy (a-b+)
10. Which of the following is true regarding Kell blood group?
a. Anti-K reacts best in saline at room temperature

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 b. Next to D Ag, K Ag is the 2nd most immunogic antigen
c. Causes hemolytic disease of the fetus and the newborn
d. Associated with heredity stomatocytosis
11. Which blood component is contraindicated to a patient with histories of febrile non-hemolytic transfusion
reaction?
a. Packed c. Deglycerolized
b. Washed d. Leuko-reduced
o
12. Fresh frozen plasma stored at -65 C should be transfused within:
a. 12 months c. 10 years
b. 7 years d. 1 year
13. What is the shelf life of CPDA-1 with Adsol?
a. 21 days c. 77 days
b. 42 days d. 35 days
14. Who received a Nobel prize because of discovering phagocytosis?
a. Kohler & Milstein c. Edelman & Porter
b. Susumo Tonegawa d. Ellie Metchnikoff
15. Which MHC gene serves as a marker for ankylosing spondylitis?
a. B27 c. DR4
b. DR3 d. B28
16. Which of the following is the marker for a current infection with hepatitis B?
a. HBeAg c. Anti-HBe
b. Anti-HBs d. Anti-HBc
17. In blood group nomenclature, “In” stands for ___.
a. Indigo c. Indian
b. Sid d. Individual

CLINICAL CHEMISTRY

1. It shows the relative concentration of a solution.

a. Dilution c. Density
b. Molarity d. Osmolarity
2. Which of the following is a random error?
a. 10x c. 22S
b. 12S d. 13S
3. A substance that is used in the clinical laboratory with multiple known constituents.
a. Standard c. Control
b. Sample d. all
4. 3mg/dL of uric acid converted to ___ mmol/L
a. 1.1 c. 38.7
b. 51.3 d. 0.2
5. Classifications of automation
a. Continuous flow and discrete c. Centrifugal and continuous flow
b. Continuous flow, centrifugal and discrete d. Discrete and centrifugal
6. Apo-B100 is the major apolipoprotein of this TAG-transporting LPP
a. Alpha LPP c. Pre-beta LPP
b. Chylomicrons d. LDL
7. Classifications of azotemia:
a. Pre-renal, renal c. Renal, Pre-renal, Post-renal
b. Renal, Post-renal d. Pre-renal, Post-renal
8. Jaffe method is a nonspecific method for testing ___.
a. Creatinine c. Urea
b. Uric acid d. Ammonia

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 9. Specific method for testing uric acid:
a. Colorimetric: Caraway c. Enzymatic: IV
b. Colorimetric: Diacetyl d. Enzymatic: H2O2
10. Which of the following enzymes catalyzes the reaction of cleaving bonds without the use of water?
i. ACP
ii. CHS
iii. AMS
iv. ALD
a. i, ii c. i, ii, iii
b. iv only d. i, iii
11. which of the following enzymes catalyzes the transfer of a group of atoms from a molecule to another?
a. LDH c. ALP
b. 5N’T d. CK
12. This method involves the reaction of transforming lactate to pyruvate.
a. Tanzer-Gilbarg c. Wacker
b. Wroblewski La Due d. Oliver-Rosalki
13. Which of the following results will be mostly affected by hemolysis?
a. Sodium c. Chloride
b. Potassium d. Calcium
14. ___ participates in maintaining the blood at ___.
a. Hemoglobin; pH7 c. Methanol; pH7
b. Carbonic acid: pH3 d. HCL; pH5
15. What is the primary substance in the carbonic acid-bicarbonate blood buffer system?
a. Carbon monoxide c. Carbonic acid
b. Hydrogen ions d. Bicarbonate
16. Increased GH in adults can cause:
a. Gigantism c. both
b. Hyperglycemia d. neither
17. Which disease is associated with increased sodium and decreased potassium?
a. Hyperthyroidism c. Hyperparathyroidism
b. Addison’s disease d. Conn’s disease
18. Signs and symptoms of alcohol intoxication includes:
a. Mild euphoria and decreased inhibitions
b. Decreased inhibitions and impairment of motor skills
c. Mild euphoria and impairment of motor skills
d. Mild euphoria, decreased inhibitions and impairment of motor skills
19. Who can perform point-of-care-testing for glucose?
i. Physician
ii. Nurse
iii. Medical technologist
iv. patient
a. i, ii c. i, ii, iii
b. i, iii d. i, ii, iii, iv

CLINICAL MICROSCOPY

1. Centrifuge calibration should be done:

a. Monthly c. Semi-annually
b. Quarterly d. Weekly
2. Using a refractometer, the specific gravity reading of a urine specimen with 1 g/dL of protein should be
adjusted:
a. -0.004 c. +1.022

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 b. +1.034 d. -0.003
3. What is the positive color of the metachromatic staining spot test for mucopolysaccharide disorders?
a. Red c. Purple
b. Brown d. Blue
4. Indoxylcarbonic acid ester and diazonium salt is embedded in the reagent pad for:
a. Bilirubin c. Leukocyte
b. Urobilinogen d. Nitrate
5. Few bacteria:
a. 10-50/hpf c. 50-200/hpf
b. 0-10/hpf d. >200/hpf
6. A physician requested a urinalysis for a patient suspected to have moniliasis. What should a medical
technologist expect to see in the chemical and microscopic analysis of this patient?
a. Positive glucose; round cells insoluble to dilute acetic acid
b. Positive leukocyte; pear-shaped flagellate with jerky motility
c. Positive blood; helminth eggs with large terminal spine
d. Positive bilirubin; various crystals: yellow granules, concentric circles with radial striations, and
colorless rosettes
7. Slow forward progression with noticeable lateral movement:
a. 3.0 c. 4.0
b. 2.0 d. 1.0
8. Which of the following is NOT true regarding the spermatozoa?
i. Head: 3µm x 5µm (LxW)
ii. Tail: 45µm
iii. Acrosomal cap: 2/3 of head
iv. Acrosomal cap: 1/2 of nucleus
a. ii only c. iii, iv
b. i only d. i, iii, iv
9. Which crystal is birefringent:
a. MSU c. both
b. CPPD d. neither
10. Which compound forms very hard uroliths?
a. Uric acid c. magnesium ammonium phosphate
b. Calcium oxalate d. calcium phosphate
11. Urine strip results are as follows:
pH: 7.0 Blood: NEG
SG: 1.015 Leuko: 2+
Albumin: +/- Ketones: NEG
Glucose: NEG Nitrate: 2+
Which is the most probable cause of this results?
a. UTI – Gram positive cocci
b. Possible kidney disease
c. UTI – Gram negative cocci
d. UTI – Gram negative rods
12. Greiss reaction is the principle used in the reagent pad of:
a. Nitrite c. Bilirubin
b. Protein d. Urobilinogen
13. What method of disinfection should be done to hands that are not visibly soiled?
a. Wash with safeguard and water c. soak in 10% Zonrox for 5 minutes
b. Use 70% isopropyl alcohol d. wash with soap & rinse with alcohol
14. Radioactive waste bins should be colored:
a. Red c. Orange
b. Yellow d. Yellow and Black
15. Abnormal crystals and casts are reported:
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 a. Average number/lpf c. Rare, few, moderate or many/hpf
b. Average number/hpf d. Rare, few, moderate of many/lpf
16. Which kidney function problem is detected by Mosenthal test?
a. Tubular reabsorption c. Glomerular filtration
b. Tubular secretion d. all
17. Which substance is responsible for vasoconstriction?
a. Rennin c. Angiotensin II
b. Angiotensin I d. ADH
18. Degree of Hazard: 4
a. Minimal c. Serious
b. Slight d. Extreme
19. A fire broke in clinical laboratory stockroom of a hospital under renovation. You heard from the medical
technologist who first saw the fire that is was coming from the container of a metal used in chemical
analyses. What should you do?
a. Run for your life. Tell everyone that they should do the same.
b. Ask workmates to help in covering the fire source with sand
c. Remove other chemicals in the room and pour water to the fire
d. Get the laboratory’s fire extinguisher and follow “P-A-S-S”
20. Which of the following is TRUE about cytocentrifugation?
a. It concentrates cells 10-100 times
b. It involves centrifuging the sedimentable fragments directly onto the slide
c. It increases the yield of biological cells and/or microorganisms found in CSF, urine, synovial fluid,
serous fluid and other body fluids
d. all

HEMATOLOGY

1. Correct order of draw for venipuncture.

a. Red, blue, purple, gray c. Blue, yellow, red, lavender
b. Blue, red, gray, green d. Red, green, lavender, gray
2. A 19-year old man came to the emergency department with severe joint pain, fatigue, cough and fever.
Review the following laboratory results:
WBC: 21.0 x 109/L RBC: 3.23 x 1012/L Hgb: 9.6 g/dL
9
Hct: 28% PLT: 252 x 10 /L
Differential: 17 band neutrophils; 75 segmented neutrophils;
5 lymphocytes; 2 monocytes; 1 eosinophil; 26 NRBCs
What is the corrected WBC count?
a. 8.1 x 109/L c. 21.0 x 109/L
b. 16.7 x 109/L d. 80.8 x 109/L
3. Part of the results of a patient’s CBC are as follows:
WBC: 11.0 x 109/L RBC: 5.3 x 1012/L Hgb: 16.3 g/dL
9
Hct: 47.8% PLT: 168 x 10 /L
The RBCs on the peripheral blood smear would appear:
a. Microcytic, hypochromic c. Macrocytic, normochronic
b. Normocytic, normochronic d. Normocytic, hypochromic
4. Which of the following is normally seen in peripheral blood smears?
a. Metamyelocyet c. Reticulocytes
b. Pappenheimer bodies d. Basket cells
5. On what myelocytic stage does the production of specific granules starts?
a. Metamyelocyte c. Promyleocyte
b. Myelocyte d. Myeloblast
rd
6. What is the 3 layer of a spun hematocrit?

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 a. Packed RBCs c. Fatty layer
b. Buffy coat d. Palsma
7. Which of the following is an antigen of natural killer cells?
a. CD56 c. CD34
b. CD4 d. CD2
8. Which of the following is first to be affected by Coumadin therapy?
a. Proaccelerin c. Tissue factor
b. Proconvertin d. Christmas
9. Hematology results of a patient are as following:
CT: normal PT: Normal
BT: Abnormal APTT: Normal
Which is NOT a possible reason for the results of this patient?
a. Vascular disorders c. Platelet dysfunction
b. Hemophilia d. Thrombocytopenia
10. Hematology results of a patient are the following:
CT: Abnormal FDP: Abnormal
Platelets: Abnormal APTT: Abnormal
BT: Abnormal D-dimer: Abnormal
PT: Abnormal
Which is the most probable cause of these results?
a. DIC c. 1o Fibrinogenolysis
b. Scurvy d. Dengue fever
11. Which of the following does NOT cause a positive error?
a. Aperture plugs c. Improper calibrated aperture current
b. Bubbles in the sample d. Excessive lysing of RBCs
12. In making peripheral blood smears, which technique will produce a uniform distribution of cells?
a. Wedge c. both
b. Cover-slip d. neither
13. Estimated report for 168,000/µL of platelets should be:
a. S1. decrease c. S1. increase
b. Normal d. Low normal
14. A peripheral blood smear was reported to have 2+ schistocytes. How many of the said poikilocyte is
expected to be seen per OIF?
a. >20 c. <1
b. 5-10 d. 2-5
15. Presence of basophilic stippling in 10-20 RBCs/field is graded:
a. Few c. Positive
b. 1+ d. Rare
16. A patient is seen to have rouleaux with aggregates of 3-4 RBCs. This should be reported as:
a. 1+ c. 3+
b. Not reported d. 2+
17. Most of the RBCs in the peripheral blood smear of patient X have central areas of pallor 2/3 of the cell
diameter. This is graded:
a. 3+ c. Normal
b. 1+ d. 2+
18. Which pokilocyte is described to appear as rods or cigars?
a. Elliptocyte c. Keratocyte
b. Echinocyte d. Spherocyte

HISTOPATHOLOGIC TECHNIQUES, MEDTECH LAWS & ETHICS

1. Which fixative is used for ultrathin sectioning?

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 a. Bouin’s c. Heidenhain’s Sua
b. Carnoy’s d. OsO
2. Which of the following is a cytoplasmic fixative? No acetic acid
a. Flemming’s c. 10% Formol-saline
b. Bouin’s d. Methanol
3. Which of the following is NOT a cytoplasmic fixative?
a. Zanker-Formol c. Orth’s
b. Newcomer’s d. Regaud’s
4. “-IT IS” attached to the end of an organ or tissue means:
a. Inflammation c. Chronic inflammation
b. Acute inflammation d. none
5. Right after placing tissue in xylene, the solution turns milky. What is the most probable cause?
a. Incomplete mankind c. incomplete dehydration
b. Prolonged dehydration d. prolonged fixation
6. Medical Technology Code of Ethics: “Be dedicated to the use of clinical laboratory science to promote life
and ___. “
a. Benefit mankind c. Profession
b. Health d. Quality health care
7. Which of the following is(are) NOT a qualification(s) to be a member of the Board of Medical Technology?
i. At least 5 years practice in laboratory medicine
ii. Registered medical technologist
iii. Natural –born Filipina Citizen
iv. Not a faculty of any school of medical technology for at least 2 years
b. ii and iv c. i and iii
c. ii, iii and iv d. i only
8. which of the following can be registered as a medical technologist without taking an examination?
a. A person in medical technology practice for at least 3 years before June 21, 1969
b. A graduate of BS Medical Technology or Public Health with at least 10 years of experience in the
clinical laboratory
c. A qualified pathologist for at least 5 years
d. A person in medical technology practice before August 31, 1970
9. One of your workmates is intentionally NOT following the Standard Operating Procedures of your clinical
laboratory. Which of the following is his/her offense?
a. Malpractice c. serious ignorance
b. Negligence d. incompetency
10. The certificate of registration is valid:
a. Until 2020 c. for 20 years after passing the board exam
b. Forever d. until decided by PAMET to expire
11. Blood Banking law of 1956.
a. RA 4688 c. RA 8504
b. RA 7719 d. RA 1517
12. Which of the following are TRUE regarding immunohistochemistry?
a. Used in identification of specific tissue antigens
b. Used for the detection of organisms in cytologic preparations
c. Uses antigen-antibody reactions
d. all
13. if there is a need for decalcification, this will be done ___.
a. Before fixation c. before clearing
b. After clearing d. after fixation
14. Which substance is used in routine fixation in the histopathology lab?
a. Ethanol c. Xylol
b. 10% formalin d. Mercuric chloride
15. What is the use of water baths in the histopathology laboratory?
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 a. Flatten ribbons c. maintain temperature for fixation
b. Melt paraffin d. solidify paraffin
16. How long is the minimum time for fixation of cytology slides?
a. 60 mins c. 15 mins
b. 30 mins d. 2 mins
17. Which of the following are components of a cryostat?
a. Propellant c. Microtome
b. Carbon Dioxide d. all
18. What is the main instrument in the histopathology laboratory?
a. Tissue processor c. Microtome
b. Paraffin wax dispenser d. H & E staining set

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