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IN BÀI TẬP ANH 12

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T Topic16

III. PRACTICE EXERCISES


Exercise 1: Mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the word that differs from the other three in the
position of primary stress in each of the following questions.
Question 1: A. population B. available C. universityo hiểm D. education
Question 2: A. support B. surplus C. downward D. limit
Question 3: A. punishment B. government C. journalismtràn ngập
D. organization
Question 4: A. resource B. average C. decrease D. method
Question 5: A. explosion B. densely C. fertility D. insurance

Exercise 2: Mark the letter A, B, C, or D indicate the word whose underlined part differs from the
other three in pronunciation in each of the following questions.
Question 6: A. populate B. method C. produce D. control
Question 7: A. great B. available C. raise D. said
Question 8: A. decreased B. used C. reached D. developed
Question 9: A. growth B. earth C. birth D. southern
Question 10: A. double B. govern C. punish D. explode

Exercise 3: Mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the correct answer to each of the following
questions.
Question 11: Population explosion seems to surpass the ability of the earth to the demand
for food.
A. make B. need C. have D. meet
Question 12: While southern California is densely populated, live in the northern part of
the state.
A. a number of people B. many people
C. few people D.1a few of people
1

Question 13: It is becoming extremely difficult to grow enough food to feed the world's rapidly
population
A. increasing B. rising C. accessing D. excessing
Question 14: In most developedcountries, up to 50% of population enters
higher education at some time in their lives.
A. ∅ / ∅ B. the /∅ C. ∅ / the D. the / a
Question 15: The government has made a serious attempt to raise the of living.
A. cost B. standard C. mode D. level
Question 16: In 2017, the rate of children living poverty in the us were highest in Louisiana
at 28% and lowest in New Hampshire at 10.3%.
A. in B. off C. on D. out
Question 17: China is the fourth largest and the most country in the world.
A. populated B. populous C. population D. populate
Question 18: Scientists say that the main reason for population is an increase in birth rates.
A. explosion B. explosive C. explode D. exploded
Question 19: Another solution is to provide safe and inexpensive methods.
A. birth-defect B. birth-control C. birth-mark Do birth-rate
Question 20: North America was once widely by Native American tribes.
A. distributed B. risen C. populated D. exploded
Question 21: Mainly because of the recent health scares involving beef and chicken, the number of
vegetarians is expected to rise in the next five years.
A. increasingly B. dramatically C. slowly D. limitedly
Question 22: Mexico City is growing quickly. In 1970, the city had about 9 million people. Now it has
over 17 million. All these people are causing for the city.
A. problems B. matters C. troubles D. issues
Question 23: Most of this growth had occurred since 1950 and was known as the
population
A. growth B. explosion C. surplus D. density
Question 24: Between 1950 and 1980 the world population increased from 2.5 to over 4 billion, and by
the end of the twentieth century the had risen to about 6.6 billion.
A. number B. figure C. finger D. quantity
Question 25: Already there are encouraging signs that the rate of increase in many less developed
countries is beginning to
A. slow down B. speed up C. cool down D. heat up
Question 26: The population is high in the southeast: 43 percent of the land contains most
of its poplulations.
A. dense B. densely C. density D. denses
Question 27: The rapid growth of population led to an acute of housing.
A. shortfall B. shortcut C. shortcoming D. shortage
Question 28: The population of the world is growing at an alarming
A. amount B. rate C. level D. percentage
Question 29: The practice of controlling the number of children a person has, using various methods of
2
contraception is called
A. family planning B. birth control methods
C. family allowance D. birth certificate
Question 30: Many people believe that having a large family is a form of
A. guarantee B. ensurance C. reinsurance D. insurance
Question 31: The planet's poorest nations have yet to find effective ways to check their population
increase - at least without citizens' rights and violating such traditions as the custom of
having large families as insurance in old age.
A. restrict B. restriction C. restricting D. restrictive
Question 32: In some countries, the growing difference between the is giving signals of
alarm to government authorities.
A. sexuality B. genders C. fertility D. racism
Question 33: According to the latest figures, 119 boys are born for every 100 girls.
A. census B. censure C. censurable D. censor
Question 34: Many husbands are trying to theirwives into producing more males.
A. pressure B. pressurize C. pressurization D. pressuring
Question 35: The Government has embarked on policies extending incentives to the families bearing
girls.
A. innumerable B. numerable C. numeric D. number
Question 36: In China, support, free education, guaranteed employment
is being gifted to parents who gift the country with a girl child.
A. money B. monetary C. fund D. fee
Question 37: The Government is trying to persuade people to their personal preferences and
regulate their community behavior according to the new blueprint to stimulate the girl ratio.
A. suppress B. supply C. support D. surplus
Question 38: People, with a patriarchic , came up with their preference for a single male
child. The idea of a happy family became parents with a single male child.
A. onset B. mindset C. upset D. sunset
Question 39: The problem of gender equality has been accentuated by the use of ultrasound scanning
which helps determine the sex of the This technology has played a crucial role in
creating gender imbalance.
A. fetus B. cactus C. status D. circus
Question 40: Overpopulation, the situation of having large numbers of people with too
few resources and too little space, can result highpopulation density,
or from low amounts of resources, or from both.
A. in B. from C. to D. for
Exercise 4: Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) CLOSEST in
meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.
Question 41: Population growth rate vary among regions and even among countries within the same
region.
A. restrain B. stay unchanged C. remain unstable D. fluctuate
Question 42: 75% of the world's population habitually consume caffeine, which up to a point masks the
symptoms of sleep deprivation. 3
A. offer B. loss C. supply D. damage
Question 43: Some scientists say that there are enough resources to support 8 billion people.
A. bring out B. bring round C. bring off D. bring up
Question 44: If the level of VAT is raised this year, small businesses will be affected.
A. corporation B. cooperation C. operation D. coloration
Question 45: China is the most populous country of the world. Its population is approximately 1.3
billion people, which is almost 16% of the world population.
A. roughly B. totally C. presumably D. countably
Question 46: Better healthcare and agriculture have led to rapid population growth.
A. extension B. expansion C. enlargement D. surplus
Question 47: In comparison with Hanoi, Ho Chi Minh City is more populous.
A. deserted B. metropolitan C. crowded D. populated
Question 48: In the 1970s, the government started to implement birth control programs to the people
such as: late marriage, late childbearing, a one-child family, and a four-year period between two births
in the countryside.
A. carry out B. carry on C. carry away D. carry through
Question 49: World population growth - and how to slow it - continues to be a subject of great
controversy.
A. argument B. agreement C. approval D. quarrel
Question 50: India, for example, has abandoned coercive birth control procedures, even though the
country, with a population of 635 million, is growing by a million new people per month.
A. efforts B. attempts C. methods D. tests

Exercise 5: Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) OPPOSITE
in meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.
Question 51: China is one of the most densely populated areas in the world.
A. wastefully B. scarcely C. sparely D. sparsely
Question 52: The dramatic growth of the world's population in the twentieth century was on a scale
without parallel in human history.
A. refraction B. semantic C. imbalance D. equilibrium
Question 53: Pressure on natural resources will increase as we face a population explosion.
A. go over B. go beyond C. go up D. go down
Question 54: International organizations have put forward several ways to alleviate the problem of
overpopulation, including an increase in food production, general economic development in target
areas, and a decrease in birth rate.
A. proposed B. initiated C. opposed D. implemented
Question 55: No downward trend in mortality is apparent in any country before the middle of the
eighteenth century.
A. death rate B. birth rate C. fertility D. sexuality
Question 56: Overpopulation and environmental pollution are the most important reasons leading to
starvation.
A. poverty B. impoverishment C. misery D. prosperity
4
Question 57: Population growth is not in the exclusive control of a few governments, but rather in the
hands of hundreds of millions of individual parents.
A. limited B. restrictive C. inclusive D. unrestricted
Question 58: With the help of modern mass communications, which are both more pervasive and more
influential than ever, an increasing number of governments in the developing world are committed to
lowering birth rates.
A. ineffective B. authoritative C. consequential D. momentous
Question 59: This striking difference is expected to shoot up by the year 2020 with almost 40 million
unsettled bachelors.
A. increase B. decrease C. plummet D. arise
Question 60: This distribution of the social ecology would create havoc in the future.
A. protection B. harm C. destruction D. consequence

Exercise 6: Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to
indicate the correct word or phrase that best fits each of the numbered blanks from 61 to 65.
Despite these drawbacks, [61] theretirement age is still considered by policymakers as
one of the key solutions to the ageing population problem in Vietnam. But these are only temporary
solutions. Complementary long-term solutions such as increasing labor productivity must also be
examined.
As Vietnam has specialized in manufacturing with its competitive advantage of a cheap labor force in
the global supply chain, (62) highereducation should be reoriented to focus more on
vocational training rather than university degrees. The Vietnamese government has already taken action
by simplifying the entrance exam to university. Previously, Vietnam’s national entrance exam was very
difficult and only a limited number of the most talented citizens managed to enter universities.
However, as living standards in Vietnam improve and more families can afford to send their children
to university, universities have become more commercialized and entering university is no longer a rare
achievement. The low quality of Vietnamese universities also means the majority of graduating students
are unable to find an appropriate job. By simplifying entrance exams to deemphasize university degrees,
the government has encouraged students to opt for vocational training. (63) , 2016 saw a
remarkable decrease in the number of students applying (64) university.
Another supplementary policy is to have productivity-based rather than seniority-based salaries, (65)
is common in Asian countries. This would address public concern about aged seniors doing
less work for more pay than younger employees. Companies and government agencies would employ and
appreciate the young while benefiting from the experience of the old. But this issue feeds the Communist
regime’s dilemma between adhering to Communist principles and integrating into the capitalist culture of
productivity for profits.
(Adaptedfrom http://www.eastasiaforum.org/2017/01/25/)
Question 61: A. raising B. rising C. plant D. feed
Question 62: A. nationally B. nationality C. national D. nation
Question 63: A. However B. As a result C. Otherwise D. But
Question 64: A. in B. with C. for D. at
Question 65: A. what B. why C. that D. which
5
Exercise 7: Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to
indicate the correct answer to each of the questions from 66 to 73.
August 8th this year marked the Earth Overshoot Day, which essentially means that we have officially
consumed far more than the Earth can replenish in a year. The Global Footprint Network estimates that
the current population requires resources equivalent to that of over 1.6 Earths. And the UN projects that
our population may balloon to upwards of 8.5 billion by 2030. As the population grows, more and more
lands are allocated for urbanization, taking up resources that could be used for agriculture and vegetation.
On top of this, the wastes and pollution resulting from human activity speeds up the degradation and
deterioration of resources.
Harvard University Graduate School of Design research professor, Richard Forman and professor of
sustainability science at Arizona State University, Jianguo Wu wrote a call for global and regional urban
planning approaches. They say that existing communities are built in the wrong places, places that should
have been allocated for nature and agriculture. “Most settlements began on good agricultural soil near a
body of fresh water and natural vegetation," they wrote in Nature. “Episodes of urban expansion therefore
cover or pollute once-valuable natural resources at ever increasing range. Meanwhile, the exploding urban
population is inundated with solid waste, wastewater, heat and pollutants."
So, where do we put future humans?
Although plans of colonizing Mars have been making the rounds lately, that plan is too far ahead and
we need solutions here and now. The professors insist that a strategic, environment-driven urban planning
system is the key to minimizing the impact of population growth, despite environmental protection being
at the bottom of the pile when it comes to government priorities. "Urban planning can slow such
degradation, and even improve matters. But protecting natural and agricultural land, water bodies and
biodiversity are rarely top priorities for municipal governments. Planners focus on creating jobs, housing,
transport and economic growth," they wrote. They say that strategically pinpointing locations for
settlements must be environment-conscious: "It must consider which areas are best placed to support
higher populations without greatly increasing the already heavy ecological footprint on our finite Earth."
After ruling out areas with harsh conditions as well as areas more suitable for natural reserves, according
to the professors, these areas have the most suitable locations for building human communities: South
America, southern Canada, north and eastern United States, south-central Africa, north of the Himalayas
and an area from the Black Sea to north China, and Oceania. Regardless of which argument people
convoke in an attempt to "debunk" overpopulation as a problem, strategic urban planning would benefit
the quality of living for all, if executed properly. However, this cannot easily be done without
international cooperation, policies, and proper implementation. "Society must think globally, plan
regionally, then act locally," they add.
(Source: https://futurism.com/]
Question 66: Which of the following could best reflect the main idea of the passage?
A. The Earth is too overpopulated to live.
B. Scientists are searching new suitable places for people to live.
C. Effective environmental measures should be discussed to protect the Earth from overpopulation.
C. The Earth must globally be cared about overpopulation's consequences.
Question 67: The word "replenish" is closest in meaning to .
A. regenerate B. reduce C. repair D. germinate
Question 68: According to the passage, which of the6 following is TRUE about our population?
A. The Earth may support more than a half our resources' demand.
B. The more population grows, the more resources are deteriorated.
C. Wastes and pollution from human activities do not cause much impact on natural vegetation.
D. As the population increases, more lands are used for cultivation.
Question 69: What is the synonym of the word "inundated" in paragraph 2?
A. outdated B. established C. contaminated D. overwhelmed
Question 70: What does the word "it" in paragraph 3 refer to?
A. environmental protection B. the pile
C. the impact of population growth D. the key
Question 71: The following are what municipal governments most concern, EXCEPT .
A. employment B. economy
C. biodiversity D. accommodation
Question 72: What does the author mean by stating “Society must think globally, plan regionally, then
act locally"?
A. People should think of the problems wider, then make plans and implement each smaller part.
B. All the governments should consider overpopulation as a global problem, join hands with other
countries to make reasonable plans but carry out suitable measures for their own country.
C. The governments should base on the international and regional principles to solve the problems of
overpopulation and suggest solutions for their country.
D. Society should join hands to reduce the influence of overpopulation worldwide and in their regions
and only execute their country's part.
Question 73: It can be inferred from the passage that .
A. Overpopulation is not only a country’s problem, so every nation must let the world solve it.
B. If the world population continues to explode, future humans will have no place to live.
C. The fresh water and natural vegetation will be destroyed before we can find another place for future
humans to live.
D. People should reduce urbanization to control the overpopulation.

7
Topic17

III. PRACTICE EXERCISES


Exercise 1: Mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the word that differs from the other three in the
position of primary stress in each of the following questions.
Question 1: A. achievement B. involvement C. confinement D. argument
Question 2: A. pioneer B. enlightenment C. philosopher D. equality
Question 3: A. career B. gender C. equal D. project
Question 4: A. physically B. equality C. remarkably D. discriminate
Question 5: A. abandon B. dependent C. preference D. exhausted

Exercise 2: Mark the letter A, B, C, or D indicate the word whose underlined part differs from the
other three in pronunciation in each of the following questions.
Question 6: A. women B. movie C. lose D. prove
Question 7: A. rear B. bear C. fear D. dear
Question 8: A. minimum B. influence C. eliminate D. bias
Question 9: A. encourage B. contribute C. delicious D. college
Question 10: A. status B. argue C. basis D. against

Exercise 3: Mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the correct answer to each of the following
questions.
Question 11: Thanks to the women's liberation women can take part in activities.
A. social B. society C. socially D. socialize
Question 12: In former days, women were considered not to be suitable for becoming a
A. politics B. political C. politically D. politician
Question 13: If you have the in an election, you have the legal right to indicate your choice.
A. status B. individual C. vote D. equality
8 the home and makes money herself, she
Question 14: When a woman works outside
is independent from her husband.
A. financially B. politically C. philosophically D. variously
Question 15: Not all women can do two jobs well at the same time: children and working at
office.
A. educating B. rearing C. homemaking D. giving a birth
Question 16: It is considered that women are suited for childbearing and homemaking rather
than social activities.
A. a B. an C. the D. ∅
Question 17: Farming had been invented by women, not by men, and agriculture remained
the women's responsibility.
A. a B. an C. the D. no article
Question 18: Although I did not totally agree feminist’s policies, I certainly admired their
audacity, dedication and courage.
A. for B. with C. along D. up
Question 19: For approximately the last 100 years women have been fighting for the same rights as men,
especially around the turn from 19th to 20th century with the struggle for women’s
A. vote B. suffrage C. politician D. work
Question 20: In theory, is the belief that a woman should have the right to make her own
decisions.
A. feminist B. feminism C. feminine D. feminists
Question 21: In the 1960s the women's liberation movement suddenly into the public
consciousness and quickly grew into the largest social movement in the history of the United States.
A. dated B. originated C. introduced D. burst
Question 22: Women's liberation movement was a of the 19th-century women's rights
movement.
A. continuation B. continuity C. continue D. continual
Question 23: The movement's major has included not only legal, economic, and political
gains but also has changed the ways in which people live, dress, dream of their future and make a living.
A. achievement B. civilization C. status D. power
Question 24: The women's liberation movement brought about a radical change in society it
took a decade for the movement to reach women's awareness.
A. because B. if only C as D. although
Question 25: Western women are more than Asian women.
A. depend B. dependent C. independent D. independently
Question 26: A problem, feeling, or belief is difficult to change because its causes have been
there for a long time.
A. deep-seated B. deep-pocketed C. deep-fried D. deep-down
Question 27: The Prime Minister is to consider changes to sexually laws to enforce equal
opportunities.
A. discriminate B. discrimination C. discriminatory D. discriminated
Question 28: The gender gap has been remarkably and women enjoy many more
opportunities to pursue their social careers and obtain success, contributing to national socio-economic
9
development.
A. lessened B. shortened C. narrowed D. worsened
Question 29: The image of Vietnamese women with creativeness, dynamism, success has
become popular in Vietnam’s society.
A. contemporary B. temporary C. permanent D. conventional
Question 30: In some areas, women even show more power than men.
A. dominant B. prior C. overwhelming D. magic
Question 31: Women have shined brightly in even many fields commonly regarded as the man’s areas
such as business, scientific research and management.
A. sociable B. social C. socializing D. socialized
Question 32: Today, more and more women are participating in social activities both in
urban and rural areas.
A. actively B. passively C. negatively D. positively
Question 33: Education to raise awareness of gender equality should be received more consideration so
that men are encouraged to understand and share their wives' .
A. burdens B. responsibilities C. roles D. status
Question 34: In traditional society women played only the role of wives and housewives and did not
get to .the outside world.
A. exposure B. expose C. exposed D. exposing
Question 35: The efforts for the advancement of women have resulted several respectively
achievement in women's life and work.
A. at B. with C. for D. in
Question 36: The women’s movement has brought light to the areas in which women do not
have with men.
A. equal B. equality C. equally D. equalize
Question 37: Women's contribution to our society has been better these days.
A. differently B. naturally C. intellectually D. significantly
Question 38: Women's status indifferent countries and it depends on the cultural beliefs.
A. varies B. employs C. fixes D. establishes
Question 39: It is against the law to onthe basis of sex, age, marital status, or race.
A. suit B. discriminate C. believe D. gain
Question 40: is the study or creation of theories about basic things such as the nature of
existence, knowledge, and thought, or about how people should live.
A. Politics B. Physics C. Business D. Philosophy

Exercise 4: Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) CLOSEST in
meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.
Question 41: In some rural areas, women and girls are forced to do most of the housework.
A. invited B. encouraged C. made D. contributed
Question 42: Our government has done a lot to eliminate gender inequality.
A. get out of B. get rid of C. get away with D. get on to
Question 43: We never allow any kind of discrimination against girls at school.
A. approve B. deny C.10refuse D. debate
Question 44: They've got a long way to go before they achieve equal status for men and women.
A. variable B. similar C. different D. the same
Question 45: Until 1986 most companies would not even allow women to take the exams, but such
blatant discrimination is now disappearing.
A. bias B. equity C. fairness D. similarity
Question 46: Many people in our country still think married women shouldn't pursue a career.
A. attempt B. attach C. achieve D. want
Question 47: Gender discrimination has become a hot subject of conversations among school students.
A. topic B. study C. fact D. case
Question 48: The law has done little to prevent racial discrimination and inequality.
A. increase B. avoid C. promote D. cause
Question 49: Nowadays, many women are aware off gender preferences in favor of boys.
A. fail B. ignore C. deny D. acknowledge
Question 50: Female firefighters are sometimes the targets of laughter and anger from the coworkers and
local people.
A. reasons B. sources C. directions D. victims
Question 51: Traditional women are often passive and dependent on their husbands.
A. free B. reliant C. adhered D. strong
Question 52: Women will be exhausted if they have to cover both jobs at work and at home.
A. dog-tired B. dog-eared C. lion-hearted D. rat-arsed
Question 53: According to the study, 22% of employment discrimination claims were related to age and
35.5% to race.
A. concerned B. connected C. linked D. bonded
Question 54: How are governments addressing the problem of inequality in wages?
A. solving B. raising C. creating D. ignoring
Question 55: England has had a democracy for a longtime. Until 1918, however, women were not
allowed to vote in it.
A. submit B. poll C. appoint D. nominate

Exercise 5: Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) OPPOSITE
in meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.
Question 56: Birth control methods have freed women from the endless cycle of childbearing and
rearing.
A. imprisoned B. slaved C. released D. caught
Question 57: In some most Asian countries women are undervalued and they never have the same status
as men.
Question 58: Mrs. Pike is a feminist who advocates that women should be offered the same job
opportunities as men.
A. supports B. believes C.11opposed D. agreed
Question 59: The World Economic Forum produces a ranking of 116 countries in terms of gender gaps,
comparing opportunities for women across the world.
A. varieties B. inconsistencies C. differences D. similarities
Question 60: Civil rights include freedom, equality in law and in employment, and the right to vote.
A. fairness B. inequality C. evenness D. equilibrium
Question 61: On 18 December 1979, the Convention on the Elimination of All Forms of Discrimination
against Women was adopted by the United Nations General Assembly.
A. accepted B. chosen C. amended D. abolished
Question 62: The women's movement has affirmed women's rights to nondiscrimination in education,
employment, economic and social activities.
A. confirmed B. denied C. nullified D. claimed
Question 63: There have been significant changes in women's lives since the women's liberation
movement.
A. controlled B. sudden C. unimportant D. natural
Question 64: Numerous studies and statistics show that even though the situation for women has
improved during the last century, discrimination is still widespread.
A. common B. popular C. limited D. numerous
Question 65: Women are considered to be better suited for childbearing and homemaking rather than for
involvement in the public life of business or politics.
A. escape B. advocate C. participation D. recognition

Exercise 6: Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to
indicate the correct word or phrase that best fits each of the numbered blanks from 66 to 70.
The majority of medium and large companies pay higher wage rates to men than to women, according
to the latest government figures. The disparity, known as the gender pay gap, reflects the different
average hourly salaries earned by men and women. The government data showed 74% of firms pay
higher rates to their male staff. Just 15% of businesses with more than 250 employees pay more to
women. As many as 11% of firms said there is no difference between the rates paid to either gender.
Unlike pay inequality - which compares the wages of men and women doing the same job - a gender
pay difference at a company is not illegal, but could possibly reflect discrimination. The average gender
pay gap across all medium and large-sized firms is now 8.2%, as measured by median pay. In other
words, men typically earn over 8% more per hour than women. Among those with the largest gender pay
gap are airlines such as Tui and Easyjet, and banks including Virgin Money, the Clydesdale and TSB.
Easyjet has said its pay gap of 45.5% is down to the fact that most of its pilots are male, while most of its
more modestly paid cabin crew are female. Tui Airways - where men earn 47% more than women - has
the same issue. Many banks also appear to have a gender bias on salaries. The Bank of England’s wage
rate for men is 24% higher than for its female employees.
By law, all firms with more than 250 staff must report their gender pay gap to the government by 4
April this year. So far only 1,047 firms have complied, leaving another 8,000 to go. Carolyn Fairbairn,
director general of the CBI, denied companies were dragging their feet in reporting the data. “I don't see
a reluctance," she told the Today programme. "I think this is genuinely quite difficult data to find, it is
often sitting on different systems and firms are working very hard towards that deadline.
12 (Adapted from https://www.bbc.com/news/)
Question 66: The best title for this passage could be .
A. Gender pay gap: Men still earn more than women at most firms.
B. The latest government figures show gender pay gap.
C. Many banks and airlines have a gender bias on salaries.
D. Companies should pay more for women because of their abilities.
Question 67: Which statement is probably TRUE according to the information in the paragraph 1?
A. Only 15% of businesses with less than 250 employees pay more to females.
B. Most of medium and big firms pay lower wage rates to females than to male.
C. The findings from the government illustrated that nearly one third of firms pay higher rates to their
female workers.
D. As many as approximately one tenth of firms is stated to have great difference between the rates paid
to gender.
Question 68: In the 2rd paragraph, the writer says the reason why Tui Airways also have gender pay gap
is because .
A. this is the place where men earn 47% less than women.
B. this is the place where men hardly earn over 8% more per hour than women.
C. most of its pilots are male, while most of its more modestly paid cabin crew are female
D. it has the largest gender pay gap.
Question 69: The word "their” in paragraph 3 refers to ?
A. the governments B. employees C. staff D. all firms
Question 70: The phrase "dragging their feet" in paragraph 3 means .
A. succeeding B. running quickly
C. walking slowly D. doing something slowly

Exercise 7: Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to
indicate the correct answer to each of the questions from 71 to 78.
It is an undeniable fact that a woman's place was once in the home. In the past, women were
merely required to fulfil the role of mother and housewife. Today, this situation has changed
tremendously. If a woman possesses the attributes and qualities of her male counterpart, she will
definitely be given equal opportunities in the career world without much bias. Therefore, women began to
make the scene and, eventually, there was a steady flow of women leaving their homes. A certain vacuum
or emptiness was thus created in the households. No more could the husbands turn to their wives after a
hard day’s work. Society marveled at the ability of women, but it also suffered at the realization of the
important role that women play in their homes. Should women be allowed to work after marriage then?
The answer is undoubtedly positive although this issue is highly debatable in terms of the nature of the
professions involved. If a woman pursues her career but is at the same time able to care for her home and
children, one simply cannot find any reason why she should not be allowed to do so.
A woman's influence is greatly needed in the home, on the children. What a child needs most is his
mother’s care because how the child is molded depends
13 greatly on her. It is a real pity that women who
leave their homes solely in search of a career seldom give a thought to this. The children, being helpless
and dependent creatures, may have nobody to turn to at home, except servants or relatives. With the
mother's back only after a hard day's toil, the children surely do not get much attention.
Whether a woman should continue to work after marriage would depend on the nature of her
profession. It is a waste of resources if women, after seeking higher education, immediately abandon their
careers after matrimony. A woman's effort can also contribute to the well-being and development of
society. In the Malaysian context, a teacher is only required to work a five-day week with term holidays
every now and then. Moreover, she is in school for only half of the day. The other half of the day can be
devoted to her home. A teacher, besides educating the society, can fulfil the role of both mother and
housewife. There are many other careers like those of nurses, clerks and typists where women can fulfil
the double role.
Nevertheless, there are many professions which would not be advisable for women to indulge in after
marriage. A public relations officer spends almost three-quarters of her time in her career. She has heavy
tasks to shoulder which might require her to entertain others till odd hours at night. Women who venture
into the business world should think twice before plunging into it. It would be beyond their means to
fulfil two demanding roles at the same time.
As it is, a woman's most important responsibility still lies in her home. Without her around in the
house, one just cannot bear to think of the consequences. Unless and until she can fulfil the basic role of a
housewife and mother, she should not make a career her sole responsibility.
(Source: http://www.englishdaily626.com)

Question 71: What is the best title of the passage?


A. Should women be allowed to work after marriage?
B. The role of women in society.
C. What jobs are suitable for women after marriage?
D. The necessary characteristics for women to work after marriage.
Question 72: Which of the following about women is NOT true in paragraph 1?
A. The main role of women in bygone days was childbearing and homemaking.
B. Women will have equality of job opportunities if they are as qualified as men.
C. Women's going out to work didn't change anything in the life of their families.
D. Women play an important role in their homes.
Question 73: The word “marveled" in paragraph 1 could be best replaced by .
A. was amazed B. was excited C. was fascinated D. was frustrated
Question 74: The word "this" in paragraph 2 refers to .
A. the child of the woman
B. the woman's influence at her home
C. the mother's care which is the most necessary for a child
D. the career that the woman wants to do.
Question 75: The word "matrimony” in paragraph 3 is closest in meaning to
A. divorce B. remarriage C. celibate D. marriage
Question 76: According to the passage, what job is 14
NOT suitable for women after getting married?
A. nurses B. clerks
C. tvnists D. nubile relations officers
Question 77: Why should a businesswoman have the second thought before starting her career?
A. Because she has heavy tasks to shoulder till very late at night.
B. As it would be hard for her to fulfil the double role at the same time.
C. Since she has to spend three quarters of her time on business.
D. Because she has to plunge into this job.
Question 78: Which can be inferred from the last paragraph?
A. Women should stay at home to fulfil their responsibilities.
B. Women should think of the consequences in their houses.
C. Women should not have their own careers.
D. Women should fulfil their primary roles at home before making their own careers.

15
Topic 18

III. PRACTICE EXERCISES


Exercise 1: Mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the word that differs from the other three in the
position of primary stress in each of the following questions.
Question 1: A. machine B. robot C. human D. fiction
Question 2: A. applicable B. automation C. artificial D. evolution
Question 3: A. resurrect B. activate C. talented D. centralize
Question 4: A. navigation B. application C. incredible D. sympathetic
Question 5: A. hacker B. implant C. deplete D. connect

Exercise 2: Mark the letter A, B, C, or D indicate the word whose underlined part differs from the
other three in pronunciation in each of the following questions.
Question 6: A. application B. combustion C. navigation D. recognition
Question 7: A. artificial B. remarkable C. smartphone D. carrot
Question 8: A. computer B. command C. complicated D. communication
Question 9: A. robot B. controller C. operator D. global
Question 10: A. advances B. diseases C. escape D. watches

Exercise 3: Mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the correct answer to each of the following
questions.
Question 11: Patients at highest of complications can be detected based on artificial
16
intelligence techniques.
A. danger B. risk C. chance D. threat
Question 12: For years, AI researchers had implied that a breakthrough was just the corner.
A. at B. around C. in D. from
Question 13: Marvin Minsky said in 1967 that within a generation the problem of creating AI would
be solved.
A. utterly B. substantially C. extremely D. highly
Question 14: By the late 1980s, the term Al was being avoided by many researchers, who opted
instead themselves with specific sub-disciplines such as neural networks, agent technology,
case-based reasoning.
A. aligning B. to align C. to aligning D. align
Question 15: They attributed the increase in workforce productivity the adoption of AI
technologies.
A. in B. to C. of D. for
Question 16: If andartificial intelligence in the workplace become a reality, there will surely
be an increasing need for skills that robots can't offer.
A. automatic B. automate C. automation D. automatically
Question 17: Artificial intelligence (AI) is the ability of a digital computer to perform
tasks associated with intelligent beings.
A. commonly B. popularly C. basically D. primarily
Question 18: At companies like Facebook, Amazon, Apple, Netflix and Google, they help to develop
long-term plans and digital
A. interacts B. interactive C. interactional D. interactions
Question 19: Artificial intelligence is based on the that the process of human thought can be
mechanized.
A. evidence B. theory C. belief D. assumption
Question 20: An electronic brain refers to a large computing machine depending electronic
devices for its operation.
A. primarily B. immediately C. artificially D. naturally
Question 21: High intelligent machines can be automated to operate without human
A. intervene B. intervening
C. intervention D. interventionist
Question 22: According to futurist Ray Kurzweil human will be unavoidably transformed in
the year 2045 by an event that he call The Singularity.
A. civics B. civilization C. cavils D. civilians
Question 23: One of the popular used in smartphones at present is voice recognition.
A. applicant B. applicable C. applications D. apply
Question 24: Due to advances in computer vision, artificial intelligence and cloud robots are
now capable of performing advanced tasks and operating in challenging environments.
A. computation B. computing C. computer D. computerize
Question 25: Most scientists believe that the day when
17 robots become a part of our lives will
come
A. from time to time B. more or less
C. sooner or later D. later than never
Question 26: will be one of the core drivers creating the next wave of technology.
A. Robotics B. Robot C. Robotic D. Robots
Question 27: FM is a method of signals, especially in radio broadcasting.
A. transacting B. transferring C. transmitting D. translating
Question 28: Researchers have to the conclusion that your personality is affected by your
genes.
A. arrived B. come C. got D. reached
Question 29: It is likely that artificial intelligence might decide to an end to humanity
simply because it surpasses human intelligence.
A. come B. make C. put D. take
Question 30: Robots are also used in all applications outside of manufacturing including
warehousing, healthcare, agriculture, construction, security and public safety.
A. navigation B. commercial C. diplomacy D. medicine
Question 31: Aerial, ground and marine robots are used in intelligence surveillance and reconnaissance
(ISR) applications, bomb disposable and cargo
A. transports B. transportation C. traffic D. transmission
Question 32: vehicle traffic control systems for air, sea and ground will be an important
element to widespread adoption of robotics that function without human supervision.
A. Man-made B. Mannered C. Unmanned D. Manned
Question 33: Similar systems should also be in place for marine and ground based vehicles.
A. guiding B. searching C. investigating D. tracking
Question 34: Artificial intelligence (AI) in healthcare is the use of algorithms and software to
approximate human in the analysis of complex medical data.
A. recognition B. cognition C. recondition D. contrition
Question 35: Discussions about Artificial Intelligence (AI) have into the public eye over the
past year, with several luminaries speaking publicly about the threat of AI to the future of humanity.
A. jumped B. come C. leaped D. rushed
Question 36: Globally, the results show that a large of people in the surveys have a positive
attitude towards the idea of having intelligent service robots as small "domestic machines".
A. proportion B. number C. amount D. scale
Question 37: These machines can be used to control and do mainly difficult and household
chores such as cleaning, ironing, and cooking.
A. repeated B. reparative C. receptive D. repetitive
Question 38: Robots may be equipped the equivalent of human senses such as vision, touch,
and the ability to sense temperature.
A. by B. of C. with D. for
18
Question 39: Researchers at the Institute for New Generation Computer Technology in Tokyo have used
PROLOG as the for sophisticated logic programming languages.
A. basis B. ground C. formation D. root
Question 40: The ability to reason logically is an important aspect of intelligence and has always been a
major focus Al research.
A. on B. about C. of D. at

Exercise 4: Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) CLOSEST in
meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.
Question 41: She touched the subcutaneous communications implant behind her right ear, thanks to
which the communications net was made to start working.
A. resurrected B. activated C. highlighted D. practiced
Question 42: The government ordered the military to design robots to access remote areas that are
dangerous to the lives of militants.
A. martyrs B. combatants C. soldier D. warriors
Question 43: It is unquestionable that the incorporation of artificial intelligence in computer revolution
has brõũghTaboũt greater impacts into people's lives.
A. beyond a shadow of a doubt B. under suspicion
C. neither fish nor fowl D. early days
Question 44: It is relatively easy to write computer programs that seem able to respond fluently in a
human language to questions and statements.
A. generally B. comparatively C. completely D. dramatically
Question 45: The earliest substantial work in the field of artificial intelligence was done in the mid-20th
century by the British logician and computer pioneer Alan Mathison Turing.
A. aspect B. place C. region D. location
Question 46: Internet search engines can help to predict the weather as well as traffic jams in a city.
A. announce B. expect C. forecast D. reveal
Question 47: A.I. algorithms can also help to detect faces and other features in photo sent to social
networking sites and automatically organize them.
A. categorize B. connect C. recognize D. remind
Question 48: This type of artificial intelligence would not usurp human team members, but work with them
as partners to tackle difficult challenges.
A. take someone else's power B. criticize someone strongly
C. decide something officially D. determine other's behaviors
Question 49: While computers in the classroom certainly come with many benefits, there are also some
disadvantages to keep in mind when incorporating this technology into lessons.
A. have something in mind B. have something on our mind
C. bear in mind D. broaden the mind
Question 50: Do you really think humans will be exterminated when more and more intelligent
machines are invented in the future? 19
A. killed off B. got over C. released from D. wiped up
Exercise 5: Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) OPPOSITE
in meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.
Question 51: An artificial heart is a prosthetic device that is implanted into the body to replace the
original biological heart.
A. transplanted B. inculcated C. inserted D. ablated
Question 52: Instead of replacing people, as some earlier industrial robots have, a collaborative robot, also
known as a "cobot", is built to work alongside them.
A. helping each other B. working together
C. individual D. befriending with each other
Question 53: Ray Kurzweil suggests that exponential technological development will lead to the
inevitable rise of artificial intelligence.
A. inapplicable B. avoidable C. unrecognizable D. invisible
Question 54: Advanced technologies may make humanity insignificant both in life and work.
A. future B. radical C. sophisticated D. conventional
Question 55: A.I. techniques help medical doctors to discover subtle interactions between medications that
put patience in jeopardy because of their serious side effect.
A. safe and sound B. in reality
C. under control D. under pressure
Question 56: The critical issue is whether genuine artificial intelligence can ever be truly realized.
A. authentic B. fake C. unpretentious D. true
Question 57: Smart robots have replaced humans in stressful and hazardous jobs and in assembly lines.
A. dangerous B. risky C. safe D. perilous
Question 58: The Litter-Robot addresses one of the downsides of owning a cat: cleaning its litter box.
The device sifts through kitty litter, removing clumps automatically and storing them in a bag.
A. benefits B. interests C. concerns D. disadvantages
Question 59: To cope with the bewildering complexity of the real world, scientists often ignore less
relevant details.
A. complication B. difficulty C. simplicity D. complexion
Question 60: Professor Stephen Hawking thinks the primitive forms of A.I. which have been developed so
far have already proved very useful.
A. basic B. modern C. original D. recent

Exercise 6: Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to
indicate the correct word or phrase that best fits each of the numbered blanks from 61 to 65.
The first Industrial Revolution was about harnessing steam power so that muscle could be
replaced by machines. The second was driven by electricity and a cluster of inventions from the late 19th
century onwards - including the internal combustion engine, the aeroplane and moving pictures. A third
revolution began in the 1960s and was based on digital technology, personal computing and the
20
development of the Internet. Industrial Revolution 4.0 will be shaped by a fresh wave of innovation in
areas such as driverless cars, smart robotics, materials that are lighter and tougher, and a manufacturing
process built around 3D printing.
There are some myths about Industrial Revolution 4.0. The first is that it won’t really have as big an
impact as the previous periods of change, most especially the breakthroughs associated with the second
industrial revolution. In the past, it has always taken time to feel the full effects of technological change
and many of today's advances are in their infancy. It is far too early to say that the car or air travel will
prove to be less important than the sequencing of the human genome or synthetic biology. The second
myth is that the process will be trouble free provided everything is left to the market. It is a fantasy to
believe that the wealth created by the fourth Industrial Revolution will cascade down from rich to poor,
and that those displaced will just walk into another job that pays just as well.
Indeed, all the evidence so far is that the benefits of the coming change will be concentrated among a
relatively small elite, thus exacerbating the current trend towards greater levels of inequality. This was a
point stressed by the Swiss bank UBS in a report launched in Davos. It notes that there will be a
“polarization of the labor force as low-skill jobs continue to be automated and this trend increasingly
spreads to middle class jobs."
(Adapted from https://www.theguardian.com/business/)

Question 61: The best title for this passage could be


A. Four Industrial Revolutions in human history
B. Some myths about four Industrial Revolutions
C. The benefits of the fourth Industrial Revolution
D. The greatest inventions in human history
Question 62: Which statement about four Industrial Revolutions is FALSE according to the passage?
A. The first Industrial Revolution brought about steam power machines.
B. A third revolution began in the 1970 and led to the development of the Internet.
C. The second was driven by electricity and a cluster of inventions from the late 19th century onwards.
D. Driverless cars, smart robotics can be said to be products of Industrial Revolution 4.0

Question 63: The word “it" in paragraph 2 refers to ?


A. myths B. Industrial Revolution 1.0
C. Industrial Revolution 3.0 D. Industrial Revolution 4.0
Question 64: In paragraph 2, the writer suggests that
A. Industrial Revolution 4.0 will really have as big an impact as the previous periods of change.
B. Many of today's advances resemble those in the past.
C. It is far too early to say that the sequencing of the human genome or synthetic biology will prove to
be more significant than the car or air travel.
D. The fourth Industrial Revolution will cascade down from rich to poor.

Question 65: The word “exacerbating” in paragraph 3 means


A. worsening B. lessening C. minimizing D. changing
21
Exercise 7: Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to
indicate the correct answer to each of the questions from 66 to 73.
Robots are useful for exploring and working in space. In particular, many robots have been sent to
explore Mars. Such robots have usually looked like a box with wheels. Though these robots are useful, by
their very nature they are unreliable, extremely expensive, and they break easily. Also, they cannot do
very many tasks. Because of these problems, scientists have been developing a new and unusual kind of
robot. These new robots move like snakes, so they have been given the name “snakebots."
The way a snake is shaped lets it get into very small spaces, like cracks in rocks. It can also push its
way below the ground or climb up different kinds of objects, like high rocks and trees. Such abilities
account for the usefulness of a robot designed like a snake. A snakebot would be able to do these things,
too, making it much more effective than regular robots with wheels, which easily get stuck or fall over.
Since they can carry tools, snakebots would be able to work in space, as well. They could, for example,
help repair the International Space Station.
But how can such a robot shape be made? A snakebot is built like a chain made of about thirty parts, or
modules. Each module is basically the same in that they all have a small computer and a wheel to aid
movement. The large computer in the “head" of the snake makes all of the modules in a snakebot work
together.
The modular design of the snakebot has many advantages. If one module fails, another can be added
easily. Snakebot modules can also carry different kinds of tools, as well as cameras. Since each module is
actually a robot in itself, one module can work apart from the rest if necessary. That is, all the modules
can separate and move on their own, and then later, reconnect back into a larger robot. Researchers are
also trying to develop snakebots made of a special kind of plastic that can change its shape using
electricity, almost like animal muscles. Snakebots made with this plastic will be very strong and hard to
break.
Overall, the snakebot design is much simpler than that of common robots. Thus, snakebots will be
much less expensive to build. For example, a robot recently sent to Mars cost over a hundred million
dollars, whereas snakebots can cost as little as a few hundred dollars. With their versatility and
affordability, snakebots seem to be the wave of the future, at least as far as space robots are concerned.
(Adapted from Reading Challenge 3 by Casey Malarcher and Andrea Janzen)

Question 66: What topic does the passage mainly focus on?
A. The differences between the old robots and the new ones.
B. The reasons for the appearance of the snakebots.
C. The composition and abilities of the snakebots.
D. The physical appearance and problems of the snakebots.
Question 67: According to paragraph 1, the following are disadvantages of the common robots which have
been on Mars, EXCEPT
A. uselessness B. high manufacturing cost
C. fragility D. difficulty in moving
22 paragraph refer to?
Question 68: What does the word "they" in the second
A. wheels B. regular robots C. these things D. snakebots
Question 69: According to the passage, which of the following is TRUE about the snakebots?
A. They can move through myriad difficult terrains.
B. They are easier to get stuck or fall over than other kinds of robots.
C. They are unable to work in space like a regular robot.
D. They are made of over thirty different modules.
Question 70: The author implied in paragraph 4 that a snakebot only completely stops working when

A. the head of the snake has something wrong.


B. all the modules cannot reconnect with each other.
C. the whole parts of the snake are broken down.
D. the energy battery in the snakebot runs out of.
Question 71: The word "separate" in paragraph 4 mostly means
A. join together
B. divide into many different parts
C. control others to work in the way you want
D. have effects on others and the way they develop.
Question 72: The word "versatility” in the last paragraph is closest in meaning to
A. flexibility B. rigidity C. firmness D. ability
Question 73: Which of the following best describes the attitude of the author toward the new kind of robot?
A. criticize B. admire C. appreciate D. disapprove

23
t topic 19

III. PRACTICE EXERCISES


Exercise 1: Mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the word that differs from the other three in the
position of primary stress in each of the following questions.

Question 1: A. archaeology B. itinerary C. unforgettable D. authenticity


Question 2: A. religious B. masterpiece C. prestigious D. abundant
Question 3: A. magnificent B. excursion C. mausoleum D. harmonious
Question 4: A. cultural B. heritage C. memory D. represent
Question 5: A. intact B. nightlife C. relic D. complex

Exercise 2: Mark the letter A, B, C, or D indicate the word whose underlined part differs from the
other three in pronunciation in each of the following questions.
Question 6: A. ancient B. concern C. associate D. special
Question 7: A. spiral B. abundant C. elegance D. landscape
Question 8: A. raise B. blocks C. museum D. pyramids
Question 9: A. prepared B. surpassed C. buried D. proposed
Question 10: A. chamber B. belongings C. tomb D. block

Exercise 3: Mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the correct answer to each of the following
questions.
Question 11: One of the seven wonders of the ancient world, the ngoạn mục
Great Pyramid of Giza was a monument of
wisdom and 24
built as a tomb for Pharaoh Cheops in2720B.C.
A. prophecy B. superstition C. fanatic D. idolatry
Question 12: The thirteen-acre structure near the Nile River is a solid mass of stone blocks covered with
.
A. stone B. limestone C. clay D. mud
Question 13: The four sides of the pyramid are aligned almost on true north, south, east, and
west - an incredible engineering feat.
A. truly B. actually C. positively D. exactly
Question 14: A person who travels or hikes carrying their belongings in a rucksack.
A. backpacker B. backstabber C. backseat driver D. backhander
Question 15: While in my heart I can see myself wondering enchanted through China’s Forbidden City, in
my head I know I would be standing at the back of a group listening to some Imperial
Palace Tour Guide.
A. enjoyably B. grumpily C. relaxingly D. surprisingly
Question 16: St. Catherine's Monastery Library in Egypt is the first in the world in the sixth
century.
A. to be built B. built C. to built D. to have built
Question 17: This part of the country is famous its beautiful landscapes and fine cuisine.
A. about B. with C. of D. for
Question 18: The top tourist in Vietnam, Ha Long Bay features thousands of islands, each
topped with thick jungle vegetation, forming a spectacular seascape of limestone pillars.
A. attractiveness B. attraction C. attractive D. attract
Question 19: A rather surprisingly geographical of Antarctica is that a huge freshwater lake,
one of the world’s largest and deepest, lies hidden there under four kilometers of ice.
A. factor B. mark C. feature D. character
Question 20: The only structure to remain intact is the Flag Tower of Hanoi built in 1812 during the
Nguyen
A. Feudalism B. Royal C. Empire D. Dynasty
Question 21: The Rock of Gibraltar is one of Europe's most famous
A. landmarks B. landscapes C. landslide D. landmass
Question 22: Of all the natural wonders of the world, few are as as Niagara Falls.
A. breathtaking B. spectacular C. picturesque D. scintillating
Question 23: Synonymous with luxury and elegance, The Grand Hotel will re-open in
December.
A. timely B. time C. timeless D. timing
Question 24: He is scheduled to observe work Saturday at the site of an America jet-fighter
which crashed in 1967 near Hanoi. 25
A. excavation B. excavate C. excavator D. excavated
Question 25: After the Mongol invasion of 1241, a was built on the hills opposite the city.
A. citadel B. pyramid C. villa D. palace
Question 26: Take a trip on a(n) Spanish galleon to the famous Papago beach.
A. authentic B. semantic C. mosaic D. chaotic
Question 2 7: He had devoted his life to the development of the district, so a to him was
erected in St Paul's Cathedral.
A. monument B. gravestone C. memorial D. chamber
Question 28: Costa Rica is one of the most beautiful places I have ever visited. Wherever you go, you can
see the of volcanoes, some of which are still alive.
A. tops B. heads C. mouths D. ends
Question 29: Sri Lanka has some fantastic beaches - miles after miles of golden sand
and water.

A. crystal clear B. crystal clean C. light blue D. navy blue


Question 30: Known as "Ha Long Bay on Land", Trang An Scenic Landscape Complex is famous for its
mountains, caves, and archaeological
A. excavations B. sites C. relics D. heritages
Question 31: Lyingalongthe Perfume River in Hue City, the ComplexofHue Monuments is a good example
of a capital city.

A. well-balanced B. well-designed C. well-built D. well-advised


Question 32: Iceland is full hot springs, beautifully colored rocks and other natural
A. wonder B. wonders C. wonderful D. wonderment
Question 33: The Great Wall of China is considered one of the greatest wonders in the world
its magnificence and significance.
A. in spite of B. because C. instead of D. in view of
Question 34: The Seven Wonders of the World is a widely known list of seven popular sites of classical
.
A. antiquity B. quantity C. quality D. equality
Question 35: One of the most famous statues in the world which stands on an island in
New York Harbor is the Statue of
A. Liber B. Liberation C. Liberty D. Liberal
Question 36: A visit to the Great Wall will certainly bring tourists great in each step of the
wall.
A. excite B. exciting C. excitement D. excited
Question 37: Thong Nhat Conference Hall was built in 1865 and heavily damaged by a
26
bombardment in 1963.
A. firstly B. eventually C. newly D. mostly
Question 38: Esbjerg is a portfor a cyclist's arrival, where tourist information can be
obtained and money changed.
A. capable B. ready C. favorable D. convenient
Question 39: Buckingham Palace, Windsor Castle and the Palace of Holyrood house are the official
of the Sovereign and as such, serve as both home and office for the Queen.

A. venues B. residences C. situations D. occupation


Question 40: In addition to hiking, diving and exploring coastal roads, there are excellent
wildlife-watching opportunities, such as the black giant squirrel and endemic bow-fingered gecko.
A. deserted B. desolated C. unfurnished D. depopulated

Exercise 4: Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) CLOSEST in
meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.
Question 41: He prophesied that the present government would only stay four years in office.
A. affiliated B. precipitated C. terminated D. foretold
Question 42: Within a week on display at the exhibition, the painting was hailed as a masterpiece.
A. a down-to-earth work of art B. an excellent work of art
C. an expensive work of art D. a large work of art
Question 43: Con Son, the largest of this chain of 15 islands and islets, is ringed with lovely beaches, coral
reefs and scenic bays, and remains partially covered in tropical forests.
A. circled B. covered C. surrounded D. phoned
Question 44: When another old cave is discovered in the south of France, it is not unusual news. Rather, it is
an ordinary event. Such discoveries are so frequent these days that hardly anybody pays heed to them.
A. buys B. watches C. notices D. discovers
Question 45: The thick glacier above Lake Vostok actually insulates it from the frigid temperature on the
surface.
A. rarely recorded B. extremely cold C. never changing D. quite harsh
Question 46: The countryside of Britain is well known for its beauty and many contrasts: it bare
mountains and moorland, its lakes, rivers and woods, and its long, often wild coastline.

A. obvious differences B. clear distinction


C. striking similarities D. various permutations
Question 47: In Ohio, Indianan, Illinoisan and other Midwestern states, field of corns or wheat reach to
the horizon and there are many miles between towns.
A. are limited B. are endless C. are varied D. are horizontal
Question 48: The balance and harmonious blending of various elements contribute to Taj Mahal's
unique beauty.
A. successful B. agreeable C. tasteful D. fitting
Question 49: My Son Sanctuary is a large complex 27
of religious relics comprising more than 70
architectural works such as towers, temples, and tombs.
A. royal B. precious C. holy D. valuable
Question 50: In addition to exploring the caves and grottos, and seeing its flora and fauna, visitors can
also enjoy mountain climbing.
A. flowers and plants B. plants and animals
C. plants and vegetation D. flowers and grass

Exercise 5: Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) OPPOSITE
in meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.
Question 51: Paris is the ideal place to learn French; it's a beautiful and hospitable city with Institutions for
high quality linguistic teaching.
A. friendly B. hostile C. affectionate D. noticeable
Question 52: The palace was badly damaged by fire, but was eventually restored to its original splendor.
A. refurbished B. devastated C. strengthened D. renovated
Question 53: Ha Long Bay has attracted millions of visitors who come to enjoy its breathtaking views and
experience other activities.
A. uninteresting B. heartbreaking C. awe-inspiring D. unforgettable
Question 54: Most of the Imperial Citadel of Thang Long was demolished in the early 20th century.
A. put out B. pulled down C. put up D. pulled up
Question 55: Taj Mahal is a giant mausoleum of white marble in Arga, India. It is considered to be an
outstanding work of art.
A. noticeable B. attractive C. unexceptional D. significant
Question 56: Recognised as a World Heritage Site in 1983, the Taj Mahal Complex, including the tomb,
mosque, guest house, and main gate, has preserved the original qualities of the buildings.
A. initial B. ancient C. unique D. latest
Question 57: Though built almost five hundred years ago, the church remained practically intact.
A. in perfection B. in ruins C. in chaos D. in completion
Question 58: The major stone sections of the Citadel of the Ho Dynasty remain intact thanks to the
unique construction techniques.
A. special B. common C. excellent D. ancient
Question 59: The Imperial Citadel of Thang Long was first built during the Ly Dynasty and then expanded
by subsequent dynasties.
A. following B. successive C. preceding D. next
Question 60: The Great Pyramid of Giza is one of the, famous man-made wonders of the world.
A. artificial B. natural C. modern D. eternal

Exercise 6: Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to
indicate the correct word or phrase that best fits each of the numbered blanks from 61 to 65.
Japan's Mount Fuji will become a World Heritage Site in June. The United Nations (U.N.) decided on
April the 30th to give the famous mountain UNESCO World Heritage [61] The U.N. team
that made the decision said Fuji was very important to Japanese religion and art. They also said that the
28
3,776-meter-high volcano was important outside of Japan too. Fuji-san (as Japanese people call it] has
been a [62] mountain for more than 1,000 years. Priests say that when you climb it, you
move from the "everyday world" at the bottom, to the "world of gods, Buddha and death" at the top. They
believe people can (63) their sins by climbing to the top and coming back down again.
(64) , Mount Fuji is a major tourist destination. It is very popular with hikers, who want to
see the rising sun from its peak. More than 318,000 hikers visited the mountain last summer, with up to
15,000 people climbing each day. Local residents are now worried the World Heritage status will mean
more visitors. That means there will be more litter and environmental problems. The local government
may ask people to pay to climb the mountain to help preserve its (65) Governor Shomei
Yokouchi said: "It's likely we'll ask mountain climbers to help financially with keeping the mountain
clean." Another idea being talked about is to limit the daily number of hikers allowed to the top.
(Adapted from https://breakingnewsenglish.com)
Question 61: A. reputation B. status C. position D. rank
Question 62: A. sacred B. religious C. superstitious D. spiritual
Question 63: A. wash up B. wash down C. wash away D. over
Question 64: A. Therefore B. Moreover C. However D. Yet
Question 65: A. beautify B. beautiful C. beautifully D.beauty

Exercise 7: Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to
indicate the correct answer to each of the questions from 66 to 73.
When Gustave Eiffel's company built Paris’ most recognizable monument for the 1889 World's Fair,
many regarded the massive iron structure with skepticism. Today, the Eiffel Tower, which continues to
serve an important role in television and radio broadcasts, is considered an architectural wonder and
attracts more visitors than any other paid tourist attraction in the world.
In 1889, Paris hosted an Exposition Universelie (World's Fair] to mark the 100-year anniversary of the
French Revolution. More than 100 artists submitted competing plans for a monument to be built on the
Champ-de-Mars, located in central Paris, and serve as the exposition's entrance. The commission was
granted to Eiffel et Compagnie, a consulting and construction firm owned by the acclaimed bridge
builder, architect and metals expert Alexandre-Gustave Eiffel. While Eiffel himself often receives full
credit for the monument that bears his name, it was one of his employees - a structural engineer named
Maurice Koechlin-who came up with and fine-tuned the concept. Several years earlier, the pair had
collaborated on the Statue of Liberty's metal armature.
Eiffel reportedly rejected Koechlin’s original plan for the tower, instructing him to add more ornate
flourishes. The final design called for more than 18,000 pieces of puddle iron, a type of wrought iron used
in construction, and 2.5 million rivets. Several hundred workers spent two years assembling the
framework of the iconic lattice tower, which at its inauguration in March 1889 stood nearly 1,000 feet
high, and was the tallest structure in the world - a distinction it held until the completion of New York
City's Chrysler Building in 1930. In 1957, an antenna was added that increased the structure's height by
65 feet, making it taller than the Chrysler Building but not the Empire State Building, which had
surpassed its neighbor in 1931. Initially, only the Eiffel Tower's second-floor platform was open to the
public; later, all three levels, two of which now feature restaurants, would be reachable by stairway or one
of eight elevators.
Millions of visitors during and after the World's Fair marveled at Paris' newly erected architectural
wonder. Not all of the city's inhabitants were as enthusiastic, however: Many Parisians either feared it
was structurally unsound or considered it an eyesore.
29 The novelist Guy de Maupassant, for example,
allegedly hated the tower so much that he often ate lunch in the restaurant at its base, the only vantage
point from which he could completely avoid glimpsing its looming silhouette.
Source: https://www.history.com/topics/landmarks/eiffel-tower
Question 66: Which of the following does the passage mainly discuss?
A. Gustave Eiffel - the engineer of the Tower
B. Material used in construction of Eiffel Tower
C. Function of Eiffel Tower
D. Eiffel Tower and its design
Question 67: According to paragraph 1, what was the reason for the construction of Eiffel Tower?
A. Paris city needed a recognizable monument for the 1889 World’s Fair.
B. Gustave Eiffel's company wanted to build a massive iron structure.
C. It was necessary to build a tower for broadcasting television and radio.
D. The tower was built to attract more visitors to Paris.
Question 68: The word “granted" in paragraph 1 is closest in meaning to
A. accepted B. awarded C. allowed D. admitted
Question 69: According to paragraph 2, which of the following is NOT mentioned as Alexandre-Gustave
Eiffel's occupation?
A. Bridge builder B. Architect C. Structural engineer D. Metals expert
Question 70: The word "which" in paragraph 4 refers to
A. The Chrysler Building B. The Empire State Building
C. The structure's height D. An antenna
Question 71: According to paragraph 3, what was the reason why Gustave Eiffel rejected Koechlin's original
plan for the tower?
A. Gustave Eiffel wanted more decorating details for the design of the tower.
B. Koechlin’s original plan required too much materials.
C. The plan used the framework of the iconic lattice.
D. The plan designed a tower that was not high enough.
Question 72: The word "allegedly" in the last paragraph can best be replaced by
A. scholarly B. officially C. reportedly D. expectedly
Question 73: According to the passage, which of the following statements about Eiffel Tower is TRUE?
A.Alexandre-Gustave Eiffel was the one who came up with and fine-tuned the design of the tower.
B. The tower was completed in March 1889 stood nearly 1,000 meters high, and was the tallest structure
in the world.
C. Initially, only two platforms of the Eiffel Tower's was open to the public.
D. Not all of Parisians have optimistic ideas about Eiffel Tower.

30
d Koechlin's original plan for the tower, instructing him to
add more ornate flourishes. (Eiffel đã bác bỏ kế hoạch ban đầu của Koechlin cho
tòa tháp, hướng dẫn ông thêm những chi tiết trang trí công phu hơn.)
72 C Từ "allegedly" trong đoạn cuối có thể đươc thay thế bằng
A. học giả B. chính thức C. báo cáo D. dự kiến
Kiến thức từ vựng và từ đồng nghĩa: allegedly (được cho là) = reportedly
The novelist Guy de Maupassant, for example, allegedly hated the tower so much
that he often ate lunch in the restaurant at its base, the only vantage point from
which he could completely avoid glimpsing its looming silhouette. (Ví dụ như nhà
tiểu thuyết Guy de Maupassant được cho là ghét tòa tháp nhiều đến mức ông
thường ăn trưa tại nhà hàng ở tầng trệt, điểm thích hợp duy nhất mà từ đó ông
hoàn toàn có thể tránh được cái bóng lờ mờ của tháp.)
73 D Theo đoạn văn, thông tin nào sau đây về Tháp Eiffel là ĐÚNG?
A. Alexandre-Gustave Eiffel là người đã đưa ra và tinh chỉnh thiết kế của tháp.
B. Tháp được hoàn
→ outstanding thành vào(a):
/aʊtˈstændɪŋ/ tháng
nổi 3bật
năm 1889, cao gần 1.000 mét và là công
trình
Xét cáccaođáp
nhấtáp:thế giới.
C.
A. Ban đầu, chỉ
noticeable có hai tầng
/ˈnəʊtɪsəbl/ của
(a): đángThápchúEiffel
ý, dễmở
nhậncửathấy
cho công chúng.
D. Không phải
B. attractive tất cả người
/əˈtræktɪv/ (a): dân Paris đều có suy nghĩ tích cực về Tháp Eiffel.
thu hút
Căn
C. cứ thông tin/ʌnɪkˈsepʃənl/
unexceptional các đoạn: (a): không nổi bật, bình thường
20 D Đoạn 2: While/sɪɡˈnɪfɪkənt/
kiếnsignificant
D. Eiffel himself (a):often
đángreceives
kể, quanfull credit for the monument that bears
trọng
56 D his
Tạm name,
B. royal
dịch: itĐược
was
/ˈrɔɪəl/ one
(n):
công of
người
nhậnhislàemployees
trong hoàng
Di tộc;- giới
sản Thế a structural
hoàng nămengineer
thân
vào 1983, Khunamed
phức Maurice
hợp Taj
Koechlin-who
C. empire
Mahal, came
bao/ˈempaɪər/
gồm up
(n):with
cả lăng đế and
mộ,chế, fine-tuned
nhàđế quốc
thờ the concept.
Hồi giáo, nhà khách Several years
và cổng earlier,
chính, the
đã bảo
pair had collaborated
tồn được những phẩmon theban
chất Statue
đầuofcủaLiberty's
các tòametal
nhà. armature.
(Trong khi /əˈrɪdʒənl/
→ original bản thân Eiffel thường
(a): gốc, bannhận
đầu được những lời ca ngợi cho đài tưởng
niệm mang
Xét các đáptên
áp:ông, thì một trong những nhân viên của ông - một kỹ sư kết cấu có
A tên Maurice
A. initial (a):Koechỉin
ban đầu, mới là người
lúc đầu 31 đã đưa ra và tinh chỉnh thiết kế này. Vài năm
trước, cặp đôi này đã cộng tác trên phần kim loại của Tượng Nữ thần Tự do.)
Đoạn 3: Several hundred workers spent two years assembling the framework of
the iconic lattice tower, which at its inauguration in March 1889 stood nearly 1,000
feet high, and was the tallest structure in the world - a distinction it held until the
completion of New York City's Chrysler Building in 1930. (Hàng trăm công nhân
đã mất hai năm để lắp ráp cấu trúc tháp lưới mang tính biểu tượng cao gần 1.000
feet, và là cấu trúc cao nhất thế giới tại lễ khai trương vào tháng 3 năm 1889 - một
công trình đặc biệt cho đến khi hoàn thành Tòa nhà Chrysler của thành phố New
York.)
Đoạn 3: Initially, only the Eiffel Tower's second-floor platform was open to the
public; later, all three levels, two of which now feature restaurants, would be
reachable by stairway or one of eight elevators. (Ban đầu, chỉ có tầng hai của Tháp
Eiffel được mở cho công chúng; sau đó, cả ba tầng mà hai trong số đó hiện có các
nhà hàng, có thể tiếp cận được bằng cầu thang hoặc một trong tám thang máy.)
Đoạn cuối: Many Parisians either feared it was structurally unsound or considered
it an eyesore. (Nhiều người Paris sợ rằng nó có cấu trúc không chắc chắn hoặc coi
đó là một sự chướng mắt.)

TOPIC 20: JOBS


I. VOCABULARY

STT Từ vựng Từ Phiên âm Nghĩa


loại
1 Accentuate v /əkˈsentʃueɪt/ nhấn trọng âm
2 Acquiesce v /ækwiˈes/ bằng lòng
3 Actuarial a /æktʃuˈeəriəl/ thuộc tính toán bảo hiểm
4 Administrator n /ədˈmɪnɪstreɪtər/ người quản lí
5 Ambassador n /æmˈbæsədər/ đại sứ
6 Amply adv /'æmpəli/ một cách dư dả
Analyst n /ˈænəlɪst/ nhà phân tích
7 Analytical a /ˌænəˈlɪtɪkəl/ thuộc phân tích
Analysis n /əˈnæləsɪs/ sự phân tích
8 Anthropologist n /ˌænθrəˈpɒlədʒɪst/ nhà nhân loại học
9 Archaeologist n /ˌɑːkiˈɒlədʒɪst/ nhà khảo cổ học
10 Bankruptcy n /ˈbæŋkrʌptsi/ sự phá sản
11 Bilingual a /ˌbaɪˈlɪŋɡwəl/ song ngữ
12 Blissfully adv /ˈblɪsfəli/ một cách hạnh phúc, sung sướng
13 Conscience n /ˈkɒnʃəns/ lương tâm
Cutback n /'kʌtbæk/ sự cắt giảm
Breakdown n /ˈbreɪkdaʊn/ sự hỏng hóc
14
Layout n /'leɪaʊt/ bản mẫu
Drop-back n /’drɒpbæk/ sự bỏ lại, sự tụt lại
15 Decorously adv /'dekərəsli/ một cách lịch thiệp
16 Demographics n /ˌdeməˈɡræfɪk/ số liệu thống kê dân số
32
17 Diligence n /'dɪlɪdʒəns/ sự chăm chỉ
18 Disengage v /ˌdɪsɪŋˈɡeɪdʒ/ tách rời
19 Dismissal n /dɪ'smɪsəl/ sự sa thải
20 Ecstatically adv /ɪk'stætɪkli/ một cách ngây ngất, mê ly
Employment n /ɪmˈplɔɪmənt/ việc làm, sự thuê
Employ v /ɪmˈplɔɪ/ thuê mướn
21 Employee n /ɪmˈplɔɪi:/ nhân công, người làm công
Employer n /ɪmˈplɔɪər/ ông chủ
Employable a /ɪmˈplɔɪəbəl/ có thể thuê được
22 Experimentation n /ɪkˌsperɪmenˈteɪʃn/ sự thí nghiệm
23 Ferociously adv /fəˈrəʊʃəsli/ một cách hung tợn
24 Gloomy a /'glu:mi/ u ám, ảm đạm
25 Idleness n /'aɪdəlnɪs/ sự lười biếng, lười nhác
26 Incompetence n /ɪnˈkɒmpɪtəns/ sự thiếu khả năng
27 Indolence n /ˈɪndələns/ sự lười biếng
28 Interim a /ˈɪntərɪm/ lâm thời
29 Intimately adv /ˈɪntɪmətli/ một cách thân mật
30 Intriguingly adv /ɪnˈtriːɡɪŋli/ một cách ngấm ngầm
31 Jubilantly adv /ˈdʒuːbɪləntli/ một cách vui vẻ, hân hoan
32 Legitimate a /lɪˈdʒɪtɪmət/ hợp pháp

33
33 Meteorologist n /ˌmiːtiəˈrɒlədʒɪst/ nhà khí tượng học
34 Meticulously adv /məˈtɪkjələsli/ một cách tỉ mỉ, kĩ càng
35 Multilingual a /ˌmʌltiˈlɪŋɡwəl/ đa ngữ
36 Negligence n /ˈneɡlɪdʒəns/ tính cẩu thả
37 Notably adv /ˈnəʊtəbli/ đáng kể, đáng chú ý
38 Occupation n /ˌɒkjuˈpeɪʃn/ công việc
39 Philanthropist n /fɪˈlænθrəpɪst/ người nhân đức
40 Provisional a /prəˈvɪʒənəl/ tạm thời
41 Punctuality n /ˌpʌŋktʃuˈæləti/ sự đúng giờ
42 Recruiter n /rɪˈkruːtər/ nhà tuyển dụng
43 Requisite n /ˈrekwɪzɪt/ điều kiện tất yểu
44 Revenue n /ˈrevənjuː/ thu nhập
Salary n /'sæləri/ lương
Wage n /weɪdʒ/ lương (theo giờ)
45
Bonus n /'bəʊnəs/ thưởng
Pension n /'penʃən/ lương hưu
46 Scenario n /səˈnɑːriəʊ/ viễn cảnh
47 Segment n /'segmənt/ đoạn, khúc
48 Spokesperson n /'spəʊksmən/ người phát ngôn
49 Substantially adv /səbˈstænʃəli/ về thực chất, về căn bản
50 Superficially adv /ˌsuːpəˈfɪʃəli/ một cách hời hợt nông cạn, thiển cận
51 Tactfully adv /'tæktfəli/ một cách khéo léo trong cư xử, lịch thiệp
52 Trainee n /ˌtreɪˈniː/ thực tập sinh
chưa đủ kích thước, dưới cỡ tiêu chuẩn,
Undersized a /ˌʌndəˈsaɪzd/ còi cọc
53 Overused a /ˌəʊvəˈjuːz/ lạm dụng
Overstaffed a /ˌəʊvəˈstɑːft/ thừa nhân viên
Undercharged a /ˌʌndəˈtʃɑːdʒ/ định giá thấp
54 Upheaval n /ʌpˈhiːvl/ sự biến động
Upsurge n /ˈʌpsɜːdʒ/ sự đột ngột tăng
Upshot n /ˈʌpʃɒt/ kết cục, kết luận
55
Upkeep n /ˈʌpkiːp/ sự bảo dưỡng
Uproar n /ˈʌprɔːr/ sự ồn ào, om xòm
II. STRUCTURES
STT Cấu trúc Nghĩa
1 Adhere to = conform to = abide by = comply with: tuân theo
2 At any rate bất luận thế nào
3 Be made redundant trở nên thừa thãi
4 Be on probation trong thời gian tập sự, quản chế
5 Beaver away = slave away làm quần quật

Blissfully ignorant không biết và không muốn biết về những


6
điều gì không vui, không tốt đẹp
7 Breach of contract sự vi phạm hợp đồng
34
Topic 20

III. PRACTICE EXERCISES


Exercise 1: Mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate
35 the word that differs from the other three in the
position of primary stress in each of the following questions.
Question 1: A. advertisement B. probation c. competitive D. relevant
Question 2: A. qualification B. university c. opportunity D. undergraduate
Question 3: A. rewarding B. fascinating c. tedious D. challenging
Question 4: A. encourage B. permanent c. graduate D. organize
Question 5: A. workforce B. high-flyer c. handshake D.headhunt

Exercise 2: Mark the letter A, B, C, or D indicate the word whose underlined part differs from the
other three in pronunciation in each of the following questions.
Question 6: A. advertisement B. applicant C. candidate D. management
Question 7: A. apprenticeship B. importance C. specialize D. office
Question 8: A. teacher B. experience C. cashier D. interview
Question 9: A. shortlist B. temporary C. afford D. accordingly
Question 10: A. pension B. commission C. passion D. decision

Exercise 3: Mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the correct answer to each of the following
questions.
Question 11: People applying for a job in actuarial firms must have skills, which involve the
ability to gather information, solve complex problems and make decisions.
A. analysts B. analytical C. analysis D. analyzing
Question 12: A large proportion of employees from all demographics claimed to be with
strict rules and poor working conditions of their companies.
A. dissatisfied B. satisfied C. satisfaction D. unsatisfactory
Question 13: In America, a worker can take a leave to take care of his or her baby.
A. parental B. parenting C. parenthood D. parentage
Question 14: Many corporations and are now making use of state-of-the-art artificial
intelligence and automatic in lieu of the human labor force.
A. entrepreneurs - applicants B. enterprising - applicable
C. entrepreneurial - appliances D. enterprises - applications
Question 15: is a person who studies processes in the earth's atmosphere that cause
particular weather conditions.
A. Anthropologist B. Archaeologist C. Meteorologist D. Philanthropist
Question 16: Having revealed confidential documents to an agency’s competitor, Mr. Gordon would
definitely be sued for of contract.
A. crack B. breach C. rupture D. fracture
Question 17: The Headquarter of this multinational organization is currently , which means
some people will have to be made redundant.
A. undersized B. overused C. overstaffed D. undercharged
Question 18: The managers said I'd would be on for the first two or three weeks as they
wanted to find out if a trainee were able to complete all the given tasks under intense pressure.
A. testing B. inspection
C. probation D. experimentation
Question 19: Although her boss gives quite obvious a hint of dismissing Nancy for her incompetence,
36
she is still ignorant of the fact that she is about to face up to a gloomy scenario of
unemployment.
A. jubilantly B. ecstatically C. blissfully D. decorously
Question 20: So does Jin carry out his work that he hardly makes any mistakes.
A. superficially B. substantially C. meticulously D. tactfully
Question 21: The newly developed software has been successful as it takes far less time for a
receptionist to process orders than the conventional method.
A. regularly B. markedly C. permissibly D. intimately
Question 22: Thanks to the executive director's scheme of choosing a famous singer as a brand ambassador,
the revenue of his company has increased and is estimated to exceed $10
billion dollars in 2019.
A. intriguingly B. widely C. amply D. considerably
Question 23: candidates seem to make a deep impression on the recruiter and therefore,
stand a good chance of succeeding in a job interview.
A. self-conscious B. self-confident C. self-centered D. self-evident
Question 24: According to the chairman's spokesperson, further in the marketing division are
to be expected.
A. cutbacks B. breakdowns C. layouts D. drop-backs
Question 25: You have to be utterly in order to succeed in this competitive job.
A. kind-hearted B. near-sighted C. single-minded D. hot-blooded
Question 26: The of the two unused plantations proved such a financial burden that the
manager was forced to sell one.
A. upsurge B. upshot C. upkeep D. uproar
Question 27: At the height of the financial crisis, Daniel's start-up went through such a difficult period that
he had no choice but to his staff.
A. lay up B. take on C. take down D. lay off
Question 28: Jennie usually work at about half past six so she's home by 7 pm most nights.
A. kicks off B. knocks off C. winds down D. knuckles down
Question 29: In the 18 century, workers liked wearing jeans because this material was strong and did not
th

easily.
A. wear off B. wear out C. wear on D. wear down
Question 30: As she took a week off to go on a holiday in Korea, she will have to the hours
and complete all of the remaining work tomorrow.
A. make up B. find up C. catch up D. bring up
Question 31: Despite Shawn's high working productivity as an accountant, his future career promotion is
certain.
A. by no means B. to a great extent C. at any rate D. by all means
Question 32: , all employees in my company are efficient and have good problem-solving
skills.
A. Fair and square B. Ins and outs C. Odds and ends D. By and large
Question 33: You need to weigh up the of working in this enterprise before accepting this job
offer.
A. fish and chips B. ups and downs
C. pros and cons D. peace and quiet
Question 34: To achieve the best quality of the products, each must be manufactured by
well-qualified workers and experts.
A. here and there B. step by step C.37now and then D. all in all
Question 35: Government saw no sign of decrease in the number of graduates who were out
of In fact, the unemployment rate increased to about 2.19% in the first quarter of 2019.
A. career B. job C. work D. occupation
Question 36: Too many people work in the public in this country, in my opinion.
A. area B. division C. sector D. zone
Question 37: After a short of being unemployed, I decided to take a risk and set up my own
business.
A. phase B. spell C. span D. session
Question 38: Maria will only be working here for a couple of weeks. She is a(n) worker.
A. provisional B. conditional C. interim D. temporary
Question 39:1 don’t know how an office worker can sit in front of a computer for hours end.
A. for B. by C. at D. on
Question 40: Unless they acquiesce the loan policies of the bank, their company will be on
the verge of bankruptcy.
A. in B. about C. for D. with

Exercise 4: Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) CLOSEST in
meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.
Question 41: His idleness and lack of concentration were the main causes for his dismissal.
A. indolence B. diligence C. negligence D. conscience
Question 42:I only applied for this business with a view to accumulating first-hand experience.
A. attaining B. gaining C. penetrating D. accomplishing
Question 43: A training period of six months is mandatory for everyone who wants to become official
receptionists of this five-star hotel.
A. advisory B. voluntary C. optional D. compulsory
Question 44: Owing to superior labor efficiency and accuracy many factories prefer modern robots to
blue-collar workers.
A. related to people whose work uniforms are blue
B. related to people who work in rural areas
C. related to people whose work mainly needs strength and physical skills
D. related to people whose work mainly requires mental efforts
Question 45: In the latest meeting, the chairman accentuated the importance of providing a professional as
well as friendly working environment for all of his employees.
A. revealed B. highlighted C. disclosed D. de-emphasized
Question 46: If the business does well, I'll hopefully be able to take on a part-time assistant in the spring.
A. retain B. utilize C. employ D. sack
Question 47: My fingers are tired! I've been beavering away at this keyboard for hours.
A. giving away B. diving in C. slaving away D. putting in
Question 48: Charlie's going to leave early this afternoon but she says she'll make up for the lost hour's
tomorrow.
A. exploit B. utilize C. refund D. compensate
Question 49: He didn't set out to be a millionaire. He just wanted to run a successful business.
A. aim at B. search for C. think of D. ponder on
38
Question 50:1 am not sure if I'm doing it right, but I'll try to press ahead with this plan anyway.
A. prolong B. abandon C. continue D. remain
Question 51: My work is challenging, of course, because it involves both a sales function and a
technique function.
A. fascinating B. rewarding C. stimulating D. demanding
Question 52: The atmosphere at work was so bad that Brian eventually decided to hand in his notice.
A. notify the boss B. apply for another job
C. give up his job D. be given a better job
Question 53: We want to recruit the brightest and the best. If you think you fit the bill; fill in an
application form today.
A. are able to pay the bill B. are suitable
C. are of the right size D. are excellent
Question 54: I've been working here for over ten years now and I’m on first-name terms with everyone,
even the CEO.
A. getting on B. happy C. satisfied
D. having an informal/friendly relationship
Question 55: Whether you recently lost your job or are ready to jump ship from your current one, the
chances of your getting a new position through the ads is next to nil.
A. leave an organization for another B. change from a form to another
C. convert from one system to another D. turn from this state to another

Exercise 5: Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) OPPOSITE
in meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.
Question 56: With strong financial capacity and excellent leaders, Vingroup is one of the most
prestigious property investors in 2017.
A. renowned B. famed C. ordinary D. distinguished
Question 57: In some countries, employers have no legitimate rights to directly dismiss their employees.
A. invalid B. illegal C. improper D. lawful
Question 58: Scientists proved that choosing a career for money will make you less efficient, happy and
more selfish.
A. incapable B. ineffective C. proficient D. productive
Question 59: Failure to adhere to the terms set out in the signed labor contract results in your dismissal.
A. conform to B. abide by C. defy D. comply with
Question 60: Lack of accredited qualifications can be a major obstacle to finding a job.
A. impediment B. impetus C. adversity D. assistance
Question 61: Teachers nowadays are up to their ears in administration and don't have enough time and
motivation for teaching.
A. busy B. free C. hectic D. occupied
Question 62: Katy always looks on the bright side even though she can only eke out a small living as a
waitress for her family.
A. optimistic B. pessimistic C. sanguine D. doubtful
Question 63: We have to work against the clock so as to meet the deadline of the clients tomorrow.
39
A. work in a haste B. work slowly
C. work as fast as possible D. work strenuously
Question 64: I take my hat off to one of my colleagues, Justin, who seem to be indefatigable and can
work all night without sleeping a wink.
A. adulate B. venerate C. praise D. disrespect
Question 65: John: “I think we have done enough work today. I'm feeling tired now".
Alice: "Let's call it a day and hit the hay!”
A. stay awake B. go to sleep C. take a bath D. eat something
Question 66: If the candidates can perform well and impress the interviewers during the interview, they can
be recruited.
A. taken on B. dismissed C. employed D. chosen
Question 67: Most, not to say all of the employers want to look for candidates with punctuality, so make
sure you make a positive impression on them by showing up on time for the interview.
A. good time management B. ability to meet deadlines
C. being late D. being in time
Question 68: With so many breakthroughs in robotic science and technology, much manual work will soon
be taken over by robots.
A. intellectual work B. physical work C. monotonous work D. dull work
Question 69: I'd go mad if I had to do a dead-end job like working on a supermarket checkout.
A. boring B. monotonous C. fascinating D. demanding
Question 70: One of the best ways to understand what a job is like, is to do it. Work experience is a great
way to get a feel for what a job is all about.
A. to have an understanding about B. to touch with one's own hands
C. to have the faintest idea about D. to do something on purpose

Exercise 6: Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to
indicate the correct word or phrase that best fits each of the numbered blanks from 71 to 75.
The bad news in the June jobs numbers, released Friday, is also the good news. The unemployment
rate rose to 4 percent last month, from 3.8 percent, which in many contexts would be reason to worry
(71) a softening economy. But the details of this particular jump in the jobless rate actually
imply good things for the economy.
The labor force rose by 601,000 people last month, driving the proportion of the civilian adult
population that is either working or looking for work up by 0.2 percentage points, to 62.9 percent. The
unemployment rate rose because not all of the people looking for work found it immediately. That
suggested they were ready and willing to (72) the jobs that employers have kept creating at a
healthy rate - an additional 213,000 positions in June alone. The month-to-month swings in the size of the
labor force can be large because of (73) error. So this may prove to be a random blip that is
erased as more data become available.
But taken at face value, it's a sign that the hot job market is succeeding at pulling people off the
sidelines and into the work force. It's easy to imagine people (74) have become disengaged
from the work force who, in this tightening job market, are more likely than they were a few years ago to
see help wanted signs everywhere, (75) to have friends and acquaintances urge them to start
working.
40
(Adaptedfrom https://www.nytimes.com/)
Question 71: A. in B. about C. off D. with
Question 72: A. fill B. form C. apply D. interview
Question 73: A. statistics B. status C. statistic D. statistical
Question 74: A. where B. who C. which D. why
Question 75: A. for B. and C. but D. or

Exercise 7: Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to
indicate the correct answer to each of the questions from 76 to 83.
Translators and interpreters for tech jobs of the future are expected to be one of the fastest growing
occupations in the nation, according to a just released survey by Vietnamworks. Almost all positions for
programmers, application developers, database and network administrators, engineers, designers,
architects, scientists, technicians, and tech support will require bilingual or multilingual fluency.
In just the last two years the demand for tech professionals with foreign language skills has increased
more than two and one-half fold, said the survey, and the uptick shows no signs of abating anytime soon.
Roughly 400,000 jobs are expected to open for interpreters (who focus on spoken language) and
translators (who focus on written language) in the tech segment, between 2017 and 2020, says Tran Anh
Tuan. Tuan, who works for the Centre for Forecasting Manpower Needs and Labour Market Information
in Ho Chi Minh City doesn't include other industries in his prediction, which are also recruiting
ferociously for more people with these same language skills.
While that claim might seem a bit overblown (and amounts to little more than a guess by Tuan), it is
clear that innovative technologies like robotics, 3D printing, drones, artificial intelligence and virtual
reality will create major upheavals in all sorts of labour markets, not just technology over the next few
years. In the last month alone, most every job posted on employment websites throughout Vietnam
included the word bilingual. Far higher salaries go to people who work in high tech positions and can
speak a foreign language such as English in addition to Vietnamese, says Tran Quang Anh from the Posts
and Telecommunications Institute of Technology.
Unfortunately, the surveys show that most graduating Vietnamese students are unable to do more than
understand a few basic phrases of foreign languages, and practically none of them can speak any foreign
language coherently. The good paying jobs with high salaries and benefits are only available to translators
and interpreters who specialize in high tech jobs, says Anh. But it's not just English - graduates are
needed with fluency in middle eastern languages like Arabic, Farsi and Pashto (Afghani) as well as
German, Japanese and Korean to name just a few. Spanish is also in high demand in Vietnam, primarily
because it is the second most common language in the US after English.
A recent tech expo in Hanoi sponsored by Vietnamworks and the Navigos Group attracted nearly
4,000 young tech graduates and recruiters from 14 leading companies looking to fill job vacancies with
skilled bilingual workers. The job applicants were young and industrious, said the recruiters. However,
missing were candidates with the requisite language skills and most lacked basic 'soft skills' such as
written and verbal communication abilities to effectively communicate even in their native Vietnamese
language.
Notably, the recruiters said they considered language abilities and soft skills just as, if not more
important, than academic ability. Yet virtually all the prospective academically qualified employees
lacked even the most basic of interpersonal communication abilities.
41 (Source: http://english.vov.vn/)
Question 76: Which of the following could be the main idea of the passage?
A. The most popular jobs in Vietnam's job markets.
B. The necessity of foreign languages in most tech jobs.
C. The skills needed in tech jobs nowadays.
D. Vietnamese students are not aware of the importance of learning foreign languages.
Question 77: According to the passage, interpreters and translators are described as the jobs that
.
A. are decreasing dramatically in the number of employees.
B. there are not enough employees for technology companies to recruit.
C. the requirements have risen considerably and steadily.
D. are expected to experience a downward trend in the near future.
Question 78: The word “upheavals" in paragraph 3 is closest in meaning to
A. neutral B. skeptical C. supportive D. sensitive
Question 79: Which of the following is TRUE about employment in Vietnam according to Tran Quang
Anh from the Posts and Telecommunications Institute of Technology?
A. People whose major in foreign languages is high tech often earn high salaries.
B. The demand of interpreters and translators in the workforce is not as much as what people believe.
C. Not only technology but also other jobs are putting more pressure on language skills.
D. Foreign languages in Vietnam are only needed in the posts on websites.
Question 80: What does the word "them" in paragraph 4 refer to?
A. foreign languages B. a few basic phrases
C. Vietnamese students D. the surveys
Question 81: The word "requisite" in paragraph 5 could best be replaced by
A. shortage B. necessity C. specification D. measurement
Question 82: What can be inferred from the passage?
A. Academic ability is much more important than foreign languages and soft skills.
B. To get a good job nowadays, applicants must know more than a language and be good at other soft
skills.
C. Written and verbal communication abilities determine the opportunity of applicants to get a
desirable job.
D. Translators and interpreters are suitable for any position in the work markets.
Question 83: Which of the following most accurately reflects the attitude of the author towards
improving foreign language skills?

A. neutral B. skeptical C. supportive D. sensitive

42
Topic21

43
III. PRACTICE EXERCISES
Exercise 1: Mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the word that differs from the other three in the
position of primary stress in each of the following44questions.
Question 1: A. different B. terrorist C. contrary D. domestic
Question 2: A. future B. burden C. device D. certain
Question 3: A. development B. security C. pessimistic D. particular
Question 4: A. threaten B. appear C. modern D. instance
Question 5: A. experience B. technology C. environment D. optimistic

Exercise 2: Mark the letter A, B, C, or D indicate the word whose underlined part differs from the
other three in pronunciation in each of the following questions.
Question 6: A. dweller B. overcrowded C. network D. waste
Question 7: A. commercial B. electricity C. advanced D. processing
Question 8: A. inhabitant B. geography C. radiation D. available
Question 9: A. upgrade B. presentation C. description D. psychology
Question 10: A. disposal B. optimistic C. population D. occupy

Exercise 3: Mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the correct answer to each of the following
questions.
Question 11: In the near future, the government will instigate new measures to combat
A. terrorist B. terrorism C. terrorize D. terror
Question 12: Many people think that in some more years we will see the complete of newspapers and
magazines due to the Internet.
A. disappear B. disappearance C. appear D. appearing
Question 13: A specific area of biotechnology that shows great promise for treatment and cure of life-
diseases.
A. developing B. threatening C. hoping D. fitting
Question 14: We sometimes go away from the city to the countryside for a of fresh air.
A. feeling B. sip C. swallow D. breath
Question 15: The idea of building a with human intelligence is not only ambitious but also
highly unconventional.
A. robot B. corporation C. line D. road
Question 16: Washing machines, vacuum cleaners, and dish washers are labor devices
which help US do housework easily and quickly.
A. improving B. making C. saving D. employing
Question 17: The computer allows US to work fast and
A. efficiently B. differently C. variously D. freshly
Question 18: It is predicted that computing technology will increase in value
at same time it will decrease in cost.
A. ∅/the B. a/the C. the/a D. a/∅
Question 19: Bitcoin Investors are on the hope that as this high-tech money becomes more
widely accepted, its value will soar.
A. relying B. entrusting C. depending D. gambling
Question 20: Cancers and AIDS, which are now, will be cured successfully.
A. treat B. untreatable C.45treatment D. treatable
Question 21: There will be no places where people have to suffer the lack of food and
A. commodity B. accommodation C. shelters D. slums
Question 22: In the future, maybe all cars that run petrol will be replaced by solar cars.
A. on B. at C. out D. into
Question 23: With recent developments in solar car design and the measurement of photovoltaic cells
becoming smaller, the dream of a truly efficient solar car is more than fantasy.
A. real B. realize C. realization D. reality
Question 24: Many teenagers show signs of anxiety and when being asked about their future.
A. depress B. depression C. depressing D. depressed
Question 25: Someone who is ishopeful about the future or the success of something in
particular.
A. powerful B. optimistic C. stagnant D. pessimistic
Question 26: There will be powerful network of computers which may come from a single
computing thatis worn on or in the body.
A. device B. machinery C. equipment D. vehicle
Question 27: An economic is a time when there is very little economic activity, which causes
a lot of unemployment and poverty.
A. improvement B. depression C. development D. mission
Question 28: The more powerful weapons are, the more terrible the is.
A. capitalism B. futurism C. terrorism D. feminism
Question 29: The commercial future of the company looks very .
A. promising B. practical C. potential D. prospective
Question 30: Within few years, private space travel has gone from concept to
reality.
A. ∅ / an B. the / the C. the /a D. a / ∅
Question 31: In the future, the number of tiny but computers you encounter every day will
number in the thousands, perhaps millions.
A. power B. powerful C. powerfully D. powered
Question 32: In the future, engineering will allow us to create the perfect human.
A. genetic B. gene C. energetic D. genus
Question 33: At a point in a future time, some may that computers must become about as
smart as Newton or Einstein.
A. announce B. declare C. require D. claim
Question 34: More advanced computers will be able to be creative, respond to feelings in a feeling way,
develop intuition, recognize patterns, and suggest alternatives.
A. innovate B. innovation C. innovative D. innovator
Question 35: We can select Internet information wisely, choose healthy computer games, limit our
television commercials, and select television
programs carefully.
A. limitation B. terrorism C. variety D. exposure
Question 36: Peter was asked to to a newspaper article making predictions for technological
progress in 10 years.
A. expect B. invest C. develop D. contribute
Question 37: The of the future will no longer be remedial. It will be preventive.
A. communication B. education C. medicine D. technology
46
Question 38: Over the next 20 to 50 years, it will become harder to tell the between the
human and the machine.
A. variety B. change C. difference D. appearance
Question 39: Local authorities should find ways to limit the use of private cars and encourage
city to use public transport.
A. commuters B. planners C. dwellers D. people
Question 40: Homes and buildings will operate as living organisms, monitoring performance
and to our needs in real time, saving US energy and money.
A. adapted B. to adapt C. adapting D. adapt

Exercise 4: Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) CLOSEST in
meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.
Question 41: In the future many large corporations will be wiped out and millions of jobs will be lost.
A. destroyed B. developed C. broadened D. opened
Question 42: No one can predict the future exactly. Things may happen unexpectedly.
A. spontaneously B. abruptly
C. unpredictably D. All are corrrect
Question 43: Telecommunication is bound to have a huge influence on various aspects of our lives.
A. depression B. technique C. expectation D. impact
Question 44: Scientists hope that this new drug will be a major breakthrough in the fight against AIDS.
A. new cure B. important therapy
C. sudden remedy D. dramatic development
Question 45: People who hold optimistic view believe that cities of the future will increase the general
well-being of individuals and societies.
A. health state B. quality of life
C. level of development D. growth rate
Question 46: Vertical farming, genetically modified [GM] crops and synthetic meat will be responses to the
growing need for greater food efficiency as populations continue to grow.
A. reactions B. defense C. appeal D. demand
Question 47: We are becoming more independent and less constrained by the old social norms.
A. reluctant B. forced C. hesitant D. uncomfortable
Question 48: Rather than humans working with machines, automation is likely to make some jobs
redundant.
A. mechanization B. mechanism C. machinery D. machine
Question 49: Prevention will become the focus as we gain greater control of our health information, using
self-monitoring biosensors and smart watches to continuously gather fitness data; web apps will crunch
the data, syncing to electronic health records.
A. condensing B. concentration C. centralism D. assemble
Question 50: People will also change physically, along with mentally. For instance, there will be an increase
in both height and longevity, among people in general.
A. lastingness B. durability C. life expectancy D. endurance

Exercise 5: Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) OPPOSITE
in meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.
Question 51: Miniature robots will be built to travel through your blood stream and repair damage.
A. tiny B. oversized C. great D. intensive
47
Question 52: My cousin tends to look on the bright side in any circumstance.
A. be optimistic B. be pessimistic C. be confident D. be smart
Question 53: Online dating and location-based services such as Vine, Snapchat and Grindr have opened up
possibilities that allow people to look beyond their immediate friends, friends of friends, and co- workers.
A. enlarged B. widened C. shrunk D. magnified
Question 54: Technology underpins everything we've looked at so far - food, health, relationships and
work.
A. give support B. make protest against
C. protect from D. get rid of
Question 55: Humans will inhabit artificial urban jungles filled with buildings and sidewalks, while the
other animals will inhabit natural rural jungles filled with wilderness and trails.
A. natural B. melodramatic C. genuine D. synthetic
Question 56: Humanity will progress to a point of collective compatibility as everyone sufficiently
integrates and assimilates.
A. congeniality B. congruity C. agreeableness D. disharmony
Question 57: Everyone will be genetically screened as an embryo to weed out defects and correct mistakes
in their personal genome.
A. remove B. eliminate C. amputate D. keep
Question 58: Imagine your friend at Glastonbury can post a photo on Instagram and with it comes bundled a
faint twinkling of what she was feeling right there in that moment, so you too can share emotionally in
her social experience.
A. sentimentally B. mentally C. senselessly D. indifferently
Question 59: We are confident that the future is in our hands, and it is our responsibility to contribute to
bettering our own lives.
A. improving B. worsening C. threatening D. developing
Question 60: Domestic chores will no longer be a burden thanks to the inventions of labor-saving devices.
A. pressure B. comfort C. convenience D. tackle

Exercise 6: Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to
indicate the correct word or phrase that best fits each of the numbered blanks from 61 to 65.
It is 2025. Your mobile is now much more than just a communication device - more like a remote control
for your life. You still call it a "mobile" from habit, but it is an organiser, entertainment device, payment
device and security centre, all developed and manufactured by engineers.
On a typical day it will start work even before you wake. Because it knows your travel schedule it can
check for problems on the roads or with the trains and adjust the time it wakes you up accordingly, giving
you the best route into work. It can control your home, re-programming the central heating if you need to
get up earlier and providing remote alerts if the home security system is triggered. It is your payment
system - just by placing the phone near a sensor on a barrier, like the Oyster card readers in use on
London transport, you can pay for tickets for journeys or buy items in shops. With its understanding of
location, the mobile can also provide directions, or even alert the user to friends or family in the vicinity.
It is your entertainment centre when away from home. As well as holding all your music files, as some
phones today are able to do, it will work with your home entertainment system while you sleep to find
programmes that will interest you and download them as a podcast to watch on the train or in other spare
moments. It will intelligently work out what to do with incoming phone calls and messages.
(Adaptedfrom https://www.independent.co.uk/student/magazines)

48
Question 61: The best title for this passage could be .
A. The future of mobile phones: A wonderful device to enjoy music
B. The future of mobile phones: A useful device to check roads
C. The future of mobile phones: A remote control for your life
D. The future of mobile phones: A necessary device to control house
Question 62: Which statement about mobile phones is probably FALSE according to the passage?
A. They might help people to check if there are any problems on the roads.
B. They start work before people wake up.
C. They can help to pay for journeys or purchase items in shops
D. They can also provide directions, or even alert the user to friends or family although they are far
from the user.
Question 63: The word “its" in paragraph 2 refers to ?
A. the transport B. the mobile C. the sensor D. the train
Question 64: In the 3 paragraph, the writer suggeststhat
rd

A. the mobile stops downloading your favorite program when you are sleeping
B. the mobile can solve intelligently with message and incoming phone calls.
C. the mobile can know the time when you will sleep to download music
D. the mobile only can hold your favorite music.
Question 65: The word "triggered" in paragraph 3 means
A. changed B. continued C. stopped D. activated

Exercise 7: Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to
indicate the correct answer to each of the questions from 66 to 73.
If you could travel back in time five centuries, you'd encounter a thriving Aztec empire in Central
Mexico, a freshly painted "Mona Lisa" in Renaissance Europe and cooler temperatures across the
Northern Hemisphere. This was a world in the midst of the Little Ice Age (A.D. 1300 to 1850) and a
period of vast European exploration now known as the Age of Discovery. But what if we could look 500
years into the future and glimpse the Earth of the 26th century? Would the world seem as different to us as
the 21st century would have seemed to residents of the 16th century? For starters, what will the weather be
like?
Depending on whom you ask, the 26th century will either be a little chilly or infernally hot. Some solar
output models suggest that by the 2500s, Earth's climate will have cooled back down to near Little Ice
Age conditions. Other studies predict that ongoing climate change and fossil fuel use will render much of
the planet too hot for human life by 2300.
Some experts date the beginning of human climate change back to the Industrial Revolution in the 1800s,
others to slash-and-burn agricultural practices in prehistoric times. Either way, tool-wielding humans alter
their environment - and our 26th century tools might be quite impressive indeed.
Theoretical physicist and futurist Michio Kaku predicts that in a mere 100 years, humanity will make the
leap from a type zero civilization to a type I civilization on the Kardashev Scale. In other words, we’ll
become a species that can harness the entire sum of a planet's energy. Wielding such power, 26th-century
humans will be masters of clean energy technologies such as fusion and solar power. Furthermore, they'll
be able to manipulate planetary energy in order to control global climate. Physicist Freeman Dyson, on
the other hand, estimates the leap to a type 1 civilization
49 would occur within roughly 200 years.
Technology has improved exponentially since the 1500s, and this pace will likely continue in the
centuries to come. Physicist Stephen Hawking proposes that by the year 2600, this growth would see 10
new theoretical physics papers published every 10 seconds. If Moore’s Law holds true and both computer
speed and complexity double every 18 months, then some of these studies may be the work of highly
intelligent machines.
What other technologies will shape the world of the 26th century? Futurist and author Adrian Berry
believes the average human life span will reach 140 years and that the digital storage of human
personalities will enable a kind of computerized immortality. Humans will farm the oceans, travel in
starships and reside in both lunar and Martian colonies while robots explore the outer cosmos.
(Source: https://science.howstuffworks.com/)
Question 66: Which of the following could be the main idea of the passage?
A. How would the world change in the next 500 years?
B. What would we do in the next five centuries?
C. What problems would happen in the 26th century?
D. How would technology improve the life in the far future?
Question 67: The word "infernally” in paragraph 2 is closest in meaning to
A. differently B. extremely
C. permanently D. contemporaneously
Question 68: According to the passage, what do experts predict about the weather in the future?
A. The temperature will decline as much as possible because of the excessive fossil fuel use.
B. The Little Ice Age will return due to the influence of solar energy.
C. The Earth will have to face with extreme weather like frost or scorching period.
D. The climate change will happen more quickly because of deforestation.
Question 69: The word "harness" in paragraph 4 could best be replaced by
A. renew B. adjust C. exploit D. discover
Question 70: What does the word "they" in paragraph 4 refer to?
A. fusion and solar energy B. clean energy technologies
C. masters D. 26th - centuryhumans
Question 71: Which of the following is TRUE about the future predictions?
A. Michio Kaku believes that the progress from type 0 to type I civilization will take about two
centuries.
B. People in the 2500s are likely to control the energy of the Earth to limit the global climate.
C. The speed of technology improvement will remain changeable in the far future.
D. Solar energy will be the main power for the 26th-century citizens.
Question 72: According to Adrian Berry the following are what future humans can do,
EXCEPT
A. cultivating in the oceans B. traveling between the stars
C. exploring the universe by robots D. living as long as they want
Question 73: It can be inferred from the passage that
A. no one could be sure what the life would be like in the 2500s.
B. what we imagine about the life in the 26th century may be the same what the 16th- century people
thought about the current life.
C. the predictions of different scientists may draw the same world in the next 500 years.
D. technology will affect most of the fields in the future life.

TOPIC 22 50
III. PRACTICE EXERCISES
Exercise 1: Mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the word that differs from the other three in the
position of primary stress in each of the following questions.
Question 1: A. technology B. illustration C. definition D. electronic
Question 2: A. computer B. different C. capable D. calculate
Question 3: A. number B. software C. manage D. invent
Question 4: A. beauty B. machine C. daily D. modern
Question 5: A. newspaper B. multiply C. magical D. allowance

Exercise 2: Mark the letter A, B, C, or D indicate the word whose underlined part differs from the
other three in pronunciation in each of the following questions.
Question 6: A. costly B. fastener C. portable D. smartphone
Question 7: A. determine B. profile C. science D. versatile
Question 8: A. benefit B. generous C. inventor D. video
Question 9: A. fabric B. imitate C. laptop D. patent
Question 10: A. company B. compose C. comprise D. computer

Exercise 3: Mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the correct answer to each of the following
questions.
Question 11: Smartphone can be a great learning but you need to think of how to use it
effectively.
A. benefit B. choice C. invention D. tool
Question 12: The Braille alphabet has been one of the greatest in human history.
A. invention B. inventions C. inventors D. inventive
Question 13: Many young people carry a pair of earbuds as they are small, light, and
A. chargeable B. economical C. portable D. transferable
Question 14: Velcro has gradually become a familiar for shoes, jackets, and even spacesuits.
A. button B. fastener C. locker D. zipper
Question 15: The of the Internet has played an important part in the development of
communication.
A. research B. occurrence C. invention D. display
Question 16: Most smartphones now flashplayer as well as voice and video calls.
A. display B. offer C. provide D. support
Question 17: The of modern technologies has undeniably brought so much comfort to the
lives of people.
A. interaction B. advent C. emergency D. identity
Question 18: Many students prefer assignments on their laptops to writing traditionally.
A. reading B. searching C. sending D. typing
Question 19: Mobile devices such as laptops or digital cameras can be charged by
A. solar charges B. solar-charges C. solar chargers D. solar-chargers
Question 20: Teens may have access to the Internet through personal like smart phone, but
younger children still use the family computer to get51online.
A. information B. instruments C. devices Do document
Question 21: The which can travel underwater, is very useful for scientists to learn about the
undersea world.
A. aeroplane B. electronic car C. spaceship D. submarine
Question 22: In 1999, the king's Chaipattana Aerator obtained Thai for his rain-making
techniques.
A. certificates B. charters C. licenses D. patents
Question 23: We are building the Internet to each other better, to share information, to
collaborate, to offer mutual support and so on.
A. connect with B. relate to C. search for D. consist of
Question 24: Paddle-wheel machine helps to clean the wastewater before it for farming.
A. rearranging B. recycling C. reducing D. reusing
Question 25: They were among the first companies to exploit the of the Internet.
A. potential B. prospect C. possibility D. ability
Question 26: noodlesare a precooked and usually dried block invented by Japanese.
A. Instantaneous B. Instance C. Instant D. Instantly
Question 27: Make sure you up the data on your computer, because you might get a virus.
A. back B. store C. save D. copy
Question 28: The search for a new vaccine took priority all other medical researches.
A. above B. over C. to D. on
Question 29: It is definitely true that nature has inspired inventions and technologies.
A. numbers B. numeral C. numerical D. numerous
Question 30: Smartphones are used not only for communication but also for information and
A. entertain B. entertainer c. entertaining D. entertainment
Question 31: Garvin is a new computer application to see whether it works.
A. looking after B. putting on C. trying out D. turning up
Question 32: People often use the natural world as inspiration to design and invent new
A. producers B. produces C. productions D. products
Question 33: Internet and social networks help us easily interact people all over the world.
A. in B. of C. on D. with
Question 34: Scientists have invented artificially intelligent computer systems of answering
questions posed in natural language.
A. able B. aware C. capable D. fond
Question 35: The latest addiction to trap thousands of people is Internet, which has been for
broken relationships, job losses, financial ruin and even one suicide.
A. accused B. mistaken C. blamed D. faulted
Question 36: Some of the addicts are teenagers who are already hooked on Computer games and who
it very difficult to resist the games on the Internet.
A. made B. allowed C. let D. had
Question 37: means doing science, engineering, and technology at a very, very small level.
A. Biotechnology B. Nanotechnology C. Homology D. Bacteriology
Question 38: As computer use becomes more common, the need for security is more important than ever.
One of the greatest security threats in the online world is computer
A. analyst B. stealing C. intruding D. hacking
Question 39: So far designers have succeeded in tiny bits of technology directly into our
clothing. 52
A. dividing B. associating C. combining D. integrating
Question 40: Nature has always provided a stimulus for inventive minds. Early flying machines clearly
were an attempt to the freedom of birds.
A. emulate B. stimulate C. captivate D. activate

Exercise 4: Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) CLOSEST in
meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.
Question 41: These machines are order models and have to be operated by hand.
A. manually B. mechanically C. automatically D. spiritually
Question 42: Carpets from countries such as Persia and Afghanistan often fetch high prices in the
United States.
A. Artifacts B. Textile C. Pottery D. Rugs
Question 43: Though many scientific breakthroughs have resulted from mishaps it has taken brilliant
thinkers to recognize their potential.
A. disasters B. misunderstandings
C. accidents D. misfortunes
Question 44: Many communities now disapprove of these phones so much that they have forbidden
anyone of any age to use them while driving.
A. fully endorse their popularity B. condemn or oppose their use
C. favor their use only by adults D. agree to their unrestricted use
Question 45: For some parents, the Internet can seem like a jungle, filled with danger for their children. But
jungles contain wonders as well as hazard and with good guides, some education, and a few precautions,
the wilds of the Internet can be safely navigated.
A. peril B. loss C. luck D. instruction
Question 46: They find that the phones are more than a means of communication - having a mobile
phone shows that they are cool and connected.
A. slightly cold B. calm and not worried
C. unfriendly D. fashionable
Question 47: A digital camera is more economical than a film camera since you don't have to buy rolls
of films.
A. better B. cheaper C. safer D. stronger
Question 48: You can use a USB stick to transport files from one computer to another.
A. delete B. display C. transfer D. store
Question 49: Smartphones are very versatile, as they can do many things like making phone calls, taking
pictures, or listening to music.
A. capable B. flexible C. helpful D. interesting
Question 50: When collapsing the wings, a flying car is just a little bit bigger than a normal car.
A. dropping B. fixing C. folding D. opening

Exercise 5: Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) OPPOSITE
in meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.
Question 51: Washing machine or vacuum cleaner can help you to save time while doing housework.
A. consume B. distribute C. spend D. waste
Question 52: Can we fix the current computer system, or would it be better to start from scratch with a
new system?
A. from the beginning to the end B. completely from the beginning
C. from the end D.53from head to toe
Question 53: Various programs have been designed in order to facilitate the storage and analysis of
research data.
A. ease B. hinder C. speed D. destroy
Question 54: By the late 1920s, zippers could be found in all kinds of clothing, footwear, and carrying cases;
by the mid-1930s, zippers had even been embraced by the fashion industry.
A. welcomed B. discarded C. promoted D. considered
Question 55: Nutritious snacks provide an important contribution towards your child’s daily nutritional
needs.
A. Inexpensive B. Uncooked C. Unhealthy D. Unpacked
Question 56: Each time you turn it on, with appropriate hardware and software, it is capable of doing
almost anything you ask.
A. unsuitable B. unimportant C. ill-prepared D. irregular
Question 57: It is a calculating machine which speeds up calculations: it can add, subtract, multiply, and
divide with lightning speed and perfect accuracy.
A. precision B. goodness C. loveliness D. erroneousness
Question 58: Many people are afraid that computers with superhuman intelligence will destroy
humanity.
A. awareness B. perception C. stupidity D. wisdom
Question 59: A digital camera is convenient as it is quick to view and delete as well as easy to transfer
photos to a computer.
A. harmful B. inexpensive C. uninteresting D. useless
Question 60: Even the best invention may have drawbacks. A laptop, for example, is expensive so many
people cannot afford it.
A. advantages B. disadvantages C. shortcomings D. weaknesses

Exercise 6: Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to
indicate the correct word or phrase that best fits each of the numbered blanks from 61 to 65.
Banana fiber is used in the production of banana paper. Banana paper is used in two different senses: to
(61) to a paper made from the bark of the banana tree, mainly used for artistic purposes, or
paper made from banana's fiber, (62) from an industrialized process, from the stem and the
non-usable fruits. The paper can be either hand-made or made by machine. The volume of raw (63)
for making banana paper around the world on plantations is vast and largely unutilized. The
market for banana paper is seen as a growth industry. (64) 1988, in Costa Rica, companies
like EcoPaper.com and Costa Rica Natural Paper have been producing 100% industrialized fine
environmental and ecological paper derived from natural banana fibers, for the writing and stationery
market.
This industry (65) numerous waste products such as: the plastic that wraps the bananas,
plastic cords to tie the wrapping, damaged bananas and the pinzote (stems). An alarming quantity of over
of 92% of water, 3% of resins and 2% glucose; the rest is vegetal fiber. This particular composition
makes it decompose without the solid component being destroyed. This causes a severe impact on the
surrounding ecosystems - much to the detriment of rivers and underground waters.
(Source: http://vikaspedia.in/agriculture/farm-based-enterprises)

Question 61: A. direct B. refer C. concern D. name


Question 62: A. obtained B. accepted 54C. gained D. received
Question 63: A. cloth B. fabric C. materials D. tools
Question 64: A. In B. From C. Since D. During
Question 65: A. makes B. generates C. develops D. causes

Exercise 7: Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to
indicate the correct answer to each of the questions from 66 to 70.
As computer use becomes more common, the need for security is more important than ever. One of the
greatest security threats in the online world is computer hacking. Computer hacking is the unauthorized
access to a computer or network of computers. Hackers are people who illegally enter systems. They may
alter or delete information, steal private information, or spread viruses that can damage or destroy files.
But how exactly can a hacker get into a system to do these things?
Most hackers use information called protocols that are built into computer software. These protocols
allow computers to interact with one another. Protocols are sort of like computer police officers. When a
computer connects to another system, the protocols check to see if the access is valid. The protocols can
also determine how much information can be shared between the two systems. Hackers can manipulate
the protocols to get unlimited access to a computer system.
In fact, just the act of entering a computer network is considered hacking. This is commonly called
passive hacking. Passive hackers get a rush from just being able to access a challenging system like a
bank or military network. Another kind of hacker tries to do damage to a system. After hacking into
systems, these hackers release viruses or alter, delete, or take information. Known as active hackers, they
are, by far, the more dangerous of the two.
The easiest way to protect a system is with a good password. Long and unusual passwords are harder for
hackers to guess. For even greater security, some online services now use "password-plus" systems. In
this case, users first put in a password and then put in a second code that changes after the user accesses
the site. Users either have special cards or devices that show them the new code to use the next time.
Even if a hacker steals the password, they won't have the code. Or if the hacker somehow gets the code,
they still don’t know the password.
(Adapted from Reading Challenge 2 by Casey Malarcher and Andrea Janzen)
Question 66: Which of the following could best describe the main idea of the passage?
A. Computer security and hackers.
B. Different types of hackers.
C. What a hacker can damage in your computer.
D. The way hackers access to a computer.
Question 67: The word "unauthorized" in the first paragraph mostly means
A. optional B. illegal C. permissible D. compulsory
Question 68: The word "manipulate" in paragraph 2 is closest in meaning to
A. require B. modify C. transform D. influence
Question 69: According to paragraph 2, which information is NOT true about protocols?
A. Protocols are a set of rules controlling the way data is sent between computers.
B. Protocols can try out whether they are legal to access another computer or not.
C. The amount of shared information between two computers depends on the host computer.
D. The data hackers can get from others' computers may be infinite.
Question 70: What d33oes the phrase “the two” in paragraph 3 refer
to?
A.. a bank and military network B. passive and active hackers
55
C. hackers and viruses D. systems and viruses
A. they often get access to important networks like a bank or military.
B. they implant viruses or steal private and other vital information in systems.
C. they always remove all the data in the systems they hack.
D. they can do many harmful things for the whole computer network system.
Question 72: As suggested in the last paragraph, what is the best way for computer users to prevent
hackers?
A. They should use a long and customary password so that hackers cannot guess.
B. They should use different passwords for different accounts to access the sites.
C. They should have an additional secret code to confirm for their access after putting a password.
D. They should not use any code on online services to make sure that hackers have no chance to get
your password.
Question 73: It is implied in the passage that
A. it is difficult to protect data from being stolen by hackers.
B. not every hacker is harmful.
C. hackers always damage the information in the host computer.
D. online services have been improving their security system.

TOPIC 23

III. PRACTICE EXERCISES


Exercise 1: Mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the word that differs from the other three in the
position of primary stress in each of the following questions.
Question 1: A. restaurant B. assistance C. formally D. compliment
Question 2: A. impolite B. exciting C. attention D. attracting
Question 3: A. obvious B. probably C. finally D. supposing
Question 4: A. bother B. social C. slightly D. toward
Question 5: A. terrific B. startling C. reasonable D. courteous

Exercise 2: Mark the letter A, B, C, or D indicate the word whose underlined part differs from the
other three in pronunciation in each of the following questions.
Question 6: A. attention B. attraction C. situation D. division
Question 7: A. verbal B. approach C. attract D. instance
Question 8: A. waved B. winked C. supposed D. considered
Question 9: A. appropriate B. considerate 56C. passionate D. indicate
Question 10: A. claps B. shakes C. nods D. points

Exercise 3: Mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the correct answer to each of the following
questions.
Question 11: Mass media is one of the most significant agents of socialization that help people in their
own of beliefs and social norms.
A. deformity B. formation C. malformation D. former
Question 12: Our social relations enable us to shape our and sense of sympathytowards
others.
A. individuals B. individuality C. individualistic D. individualism
Question 13: problems are most prevalent in school-aged children. They usually act
strangely and are not really open-minded to others.
A. misbehaving B. behave C. behaviors D. behavioral
Question 14: Communication serves several critical roles in the lives of older adults, including
maintaining a sense of identity and relieving loneliness, and anxiety.
A. depressed B. antidepressants C. depression D. depressive
Question 15: That ill-mannered child was told to for being rude to his aunt.
A. convict B. excuse C. pardon D. apologize
Question 16: Before the invention of the Internet, people couldn’t of such universal access
to information. The main way to update it at that time was to read newspaper.
A. approach B. conceive C. reminisce D. contemplate
Question 17: Andrew, my best friend in me on the understanding that I wouldn't tell anyone
else.
A. confided B. intimated C. disclosed D. confessed
Question 18: My grandfather hates smartphones and is always the disappearance of
the art of conversation.
A. grieving B. complaining C. lamenting D. moaning
Question 19: Technological advancements such as video chats and messages have changed
the way we communicate with each other.
A. irredeemably B. irrevocably C. irreparably D. irreplaceably
Question 20: The sophisticated art of conversation has long been neglected by youngsters.
A. woefully B. pathetically C. hilariously D. dolefully
Question 21: As was predicted, the superstar couple from a famous TV show has broken up.
They give viewers an impression that they are not compatible with each other.
A. amply B. substantially C. widely D. considerably
Question 22: Eager to be able to communicate with her idols in Korea, she hired a tutor to
help polish her language skills.
A. understandably B. expressively C. ambiguously D. articulately
Question 23: I read online newspaper every day to keep with current affairs.
A. present-day B. up-to-date C. cutting-edge D. out-of-date
Question 24: Chatting online is gradually replacing conventional interaction.
A. eye-to-eye B. face-to-face C. mouth-to-mouth D. heart-to-heart
Question 25: Taylor must be - How can she persuade that stubborn student to do all the
given homework? 57
A. gold-tongued B. bronze-tongued
C. silver-tongued D. diamond-tongued
Question 26: This meeting is a wonderful opportunity for you to expand your relationships so make sure
nothing is left to chance. Do you need to give your speech another or do you already know it
by heart?
A. check-up B. mix-up C. break-down D. run-through
Question 27: You’ll need to your points of view extremely diplomatically
otherwise some people might take offence.
A. put through B. come out C. bring down D. get across
Question 28: I knew it was supposed to be a secret but I just it before I could
stop myself. I'm sorry.
A. set/down B. pegged/away
C. blurted/out D. clamped/down
Question 29: It can be difficult to a conversation with a complete stranger.
A. make out B. strike up
C. stretch out D. talk over
Question 30: The entire world is developing at an unprecedented rate. If you don't self-learn and
cultivate communicative skills continuously you will definitely not social movements.
A. deal with B. get on with
C. keep up with D. put up with
Question 31: With the mushrooming of social networking sites, people can now communicate with
everyone their geographicai location.
A. contrary to B. regardless of
C. in the event of D. at the expense of
Question 32: her shyness and being an introvert, her failure to make friends with other peers
at school was not surprising.
A. By virtue of B. With regard to
C. In view of D. In recognition of
Question 33: Although Robert has cyber phobia, failing to use computers and modern devices at this
technology-driven era is for him.
A. a kick in the teeth B. a shot in the dark
C. a nail in the coffin D. an open and shut case
Question 34: I was worried that they wouldn’t like each other but in fact they're getting on
like
A. a drop in the ocean B. a house on fire
C. lock, stock and barrel D. two peas in a pod
Question 35: I couldn't believe it when Fiona accused me of in her relationship with Jack. I
only had a normal conversation with him at my office.
A. intervening B. interfering C. intercede D. intersect
Question 36: Do you think young people have difficulties in talking with elderly people mainly because
of the generation ?
A. fracture B. crack C. gap D. hole
Question 37: I tried to the ice by talking to people next to me on board about the weather.
A. smash B. split C. break D. crush
Question 38: Thank you for inviting us to your housewarming party, but I'm afraid we're going to have
to your kind invitation.
58
A. deny B. reject C. refuse D. decline
Question 39: Melisa chats so much. She could talk the hind leg a donkey, which really got on
my nerves.
A. out B. off C. about D. up
Question 40: The over-reliance on some social networking platforms like Facebook or Twitter may
deprive their users fundamental social skills.
A. from B. away C. of D. over

Exercise 4: Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) CLOSEST in
meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.
Question 41: She is always diplomatic when dealing with angry and dissatisfied customers.
A. subtle B. outspoken C. tactful D. strict
Question 42: I was impressed by her. She gave a witting, entertaining and articulate speech in the opening
ceremony last night.
A. eloquent B. incoherent C. emotional D. inspiring
Question 43: Non-verbal communication can help a person to express his or her emotions in a clear and
effective way.
A. not using spoken language B. using hand-eye coordination
C. using spoken language D. not using hand-eye coordination
Question 44: I tried to confabulate with my new neighbor outside my apartment, but he doesn’t seem to
welcome a stranger.
A. familiarize B. chat C. greet D. assimilate
Question 45: Linda is ostracized by her colleagues just because she comes from a Southeast Asia country
and has a different accent from her counterparts.
A. patronized B. lionized C. boycotted D. crucified
Question 46: Angelina was really opposed to the idea at the start, but we managed to talk her round in
the end.
A. convince her B. dissuade her C. encourage her D. deter her
Question 47: We all knew Alisha was well-off but there’s no need for her to show off her wealth to everyone
all the time.
A. look out B. boast about C. shy away D. hide away
Question 48: My boyfriend always drops in my house and buys me a lot of fast food to cheer me up
whenever I feel upset.
A. dines in B. calls upon c. abstains from D. pops in
Question 49: Steve asked her out to the cinema for a romantic date this evening.
A. offered her B. invited her
C. requested her D. recommended her
Question 50: Unfortunately, she took a rain check this time and turned him down as she had to stay at
home to cram for tomorrow examination.
A. dismissed B. accepted C. declined D. disapproved
Question 51: Face-to-face socializing is not as preferred as virtual socializing among the youth.
A. instant B. available C. direct D. facial
Question 52: We do not whistle or clap our hands to get the person's attention. That is considered
impolite and even rude.
A. offensive B. polite C. discourteous D. terrific
Question 53: Other investigators have noted that when mothers talk to babies who are only a few months
old, they exaggerate the pitch, loudness, and intensity
59 of their words. They also exaggerate their facial
expressions, hold vowels longer, and emphasize-certain words.
A. stress B. leave out C. explain D. repeat
Question 54: Emotions have evolved to help us respond to important situations and to convey our intentions
to others.
A. increased B. reduced C. developed D. simplified
Question 55: In America, when a woman and a man are introduced, shaking hands is up to woman.
A. replies on B. depends on C. waits on D. congratulates on

Exercise 5: Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) OPPOSITE
in meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.
Question 56: Why are you so arrogant? You have just been famous for a short period of time. If you don't
change your attitude, nobody will socialize with you.
A. cunning B. naive C. snooty D. humble
Question 57: Natasha: "Your new neighbors appear to be very friendly.”
Amanda: "I can’t agree with you more. They always invite me for whatever parties they organize"
A. unpleasant B. easy-going C. hostile D. bad-tempered
Question 58: If you say bad things about the person who give a job you bite the hand that feeds you.
A. are unfriendly B. are ungrateful C. are thankful D. are devoted
Question 59: Please use colloquial language when talking with me. I felt quite uncomfortable if you were
serious like that.
A. conversational B. formal C. variable D. idiomatic
Question 60: I thought Justin was exaggerating the whole event to make it sound rather more dramatic than
it actually was. His motive, in my opinion, was to attract more subscribers in his YouTube channel.
A. amplifying B. underestimating C. outweighing D. understating
Question 61: Keep it under your hat, but Elizabeth is pregnant and going to have a baby at the end of
this year.
A. keep it secret B. reveal it
C. refute it D. underestimate it
Question 62: William thought I was a football fan - he must have got completely the wrong end of the
stick. I just went there with my son to take care of him.
A. comprehended B. understood C. misrepresented D. mystified
Question 63: We have been out of touch with each other since he moved to Bangkok to study abroad.
A. got hold of B. wrote to C. lost touch of D. made a call to
Question 64:1 was kept in the dark about the birthday party they are going to hold for me next week. I
am very thankful for all their efforts to make me feel happy.
A. surprised B. aware of C. oblivious to D. disappointed
Question 65:1 heard it through the grapevine that they were enemies and had never been on good
terms.
A. gave it the low-down B. put it in the picture
C. heard it straight from the horse's mouth D. kept it in the loop
Question 66: Never punish your children by hitting them. This might teach them to become hitters.
A. bring B. reward C. give D. accept
Question 67: The startling conclusion was that parents use more language with their girls. Specifically, when
parents talk with their daughters, they use more descriptive language and more details.
A. unsurprising B. annoying C. beginning D. interesting
60
Question 68: Pointing at someone is usually considered rude but it is acceptable when teachers want to
attract their students' attention in class.
A. appropriate B. suitable C. welcome D. disagreeable
Question 69: That is a well-behaved boy whose behavior has nothing to complain about.
A. behaving nice B. behaving cleverly
C. good behavior D. behaving improperly
Question 70: As a sociable boy, Jack enjoys spending his free time going out with friends.
A. mischievous B. outgoing C. caring D. shy

Exercise 6: Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to
indicate the correct word or phrase that best fits each of the numbered blanks from 71 to 75.
Here are some hand gestures and what they mean in different countries and cultures; "Thumbs up" widely
recognized sign of approval or agreement is actually used as an (71) in Bangladesh. In certain
parts of the Middle East, thumbs-up is definitely a highly offensive thumbs-down. The thumbs-up sign
has been confusing people for thousands of years! This is used in the United States to ask a person to step
(72) , but in Asia this gesture isn’t welcome. It should only be used to beckon dogs (73)
you do it in the Philippines you could be arrested.
In USA “the horn fingers" is adopted by rockers and it is a sign of approval, rock on! But in many
Mediterranean and Latin countries, such as Argentina, Brazil, Colombia, Cuba, Spain, Italy and Portugal,
to make this sign at someone is to tell them (74) their spouse is cheating on them.
Looking at your watch means “I'm in a hurry” or “I've got to be somewhere." In the Middle East,
however, a (75) should run its natural course, as it would be very rude to look at your watch
mid-conversation.
(Source: https://blog.busuu.com/what-hand-gestures-mean-in-different-countries/)
Question 71: A. consult B. result C. insult D. assault
Question 72: A. aside B. back C. by D. forward
Question 73: A. if B. unless C. when D. as
Question 74: A. that B. which C. who D. whom
Question 75: A. speech B. conversation C. dialogue D. chat

Exercise 7: Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to
indicate the correct answer to each of the questions from 76 to 83.
In America, when dining, people consider it rude for a guest or dining partner to belch or burp, eat with
an open mouth, smack, or lick your fingers. Napkins, generally provided are available at every meal and
should be placed in one's lap and then used throughout the meal to clean one's fingers and mouth.
It is acceptable to refuse additional servings of food by saying “No, thank you" and the host or hostess
will not be insulted if you do so. Similarly, if you leave a small amount of uneaten food on your plate at a
restaurant or in a home, it is not considered an insult. If you eat everything on the plate, a host or hostess
may possibly feel that they have not prepared enough food and might be embarrassed. People in the
United States serve and eat food with either hand, but never take food from a communal serving dish with
their hands. Generally, a serving utensil is used.
Americans typically use forks, spoons and knives to eat, but there are some types of foods that are
acceptable to eat with one's fingers, like sandwiches or pizza. When in doubt, look to see what others are
61
doing. In formal dining situations, if you wonder whether or not it is acceptable to begin eating, you
should wait until the oldest woman (or oldest man if no women are present) begins to eat. When eating,
do not pick up the bowl or plate from the table to hold underneath your mouth. Even noodles, soup, and
rice are eaten with the plate or bowl remaining on the table. When consuming soup and hot liquids, it is
considered impolite to slurp - do not do this. When consuming noodles, twirl them around your fork and
then put it in your mouth.
If you are a man taking out a woman for dinner, you are almost always expected to pay. This is for the
woman to gauge your intentions and interest with her. For example, taking a woman for coffee, versus
tacos, versus a fancy dinner, versus for drinks at 11:30pm, all signal many different things to them. So,
the date is a "test" of many. Paying is just as important as where you take her, and how late. So, don't
assume she is just trying to get a "free meal". Most girls aren’t. Also, if you are going out with a friend to
eat, almost always, the bill is expected to be split in half, or each person pays for themselves.
If you are eating in a restaurant, you will be expected to add a 15 to 20 % tip for the server to your bill. In
America, wait staff might occasionally stop by your table to ask how your meal is, which is considered
good service. They will also bring you your check when it seems reasonable that you are finished with
your meal, however this is not necessarily an indication that you must leave right away (Do not be too
embarrassed to ask for the check either: waiters and waitresses cannot read minds.) Take your time to
finish your meal, and unless there is a line of people waiting at the door, it is not considered rude to linger
at your table for as long as you like.
(Source: https://www. tripadvisor.com/)
Question 76: Which of the following could be the best title of the passage?
A. What should we do when being invited to the American’s dinner?
B. Table etiquette in America.
C. Polite behavior at American's restaurants.
D. What is acceptable in dining etiquette in America?
Question 77: According to the passage, what action may make the American unpleasant?
A. Refusing the supplementary food they serve.
B. Leaving the left-overs on the plate.
C. Eating food with the guests' hands.
D. Cleaning the food on the fingers by the tongue.
Question 78: What sentence is NOT stated in the passage?
A. In formal dinners, the eldest often eat first.
B. In America, the dishes are expected to remain on the table.
C. Food is sometimes delivered from the communal serving dish with people's hands.
D. It is not courteous to slurp when eating soup.
Question 79: The word "it" in paragraph 3 refers to
A. your fork B. noodles C. your mouth D. soup
Question 80: What could the word "gauge" in paragraph 4 best be replaced by?
A. determine B. impress C. express D. estimate
Question 81: When will the bill be divided for the people having the meal?
A. When a man is having a date with a woman.
B. When people are having meals with their friends.
C. When people are eating with the elderly.
D. When a girl is testing a boy.
Question 82: The word ''linger" in the last paragraph is closest in meaning to
A. appear B. arrange C.62reserve D. remain
B. Whenever you receive your bill, you should think of leaving soon.
C. Paying meals for another may insult them.
D. Imitating others if you are not sure what to do at the meal is a good idea.

Topic24

III. PRACTICE EXERCISES


Exercise 1: Mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the word that differs from the other three in the
position of primary stress in each of the following questions.
Question 1: A. civilian B. official C. temporary D. tsunami
Question 2: A. involve B. appall C. devote D. victim
Question 3: A. initiate B. medical C. earthquake D. charity
Question 4: A. volunteer B. epidemic C. humanistic D. disaster
Question 5: A. injury B. dedicate C. principle D. result

Exercise 2: Mark the letter A, B, C, or D indicate the word whose underlined part differs from the
other three in pronunciation in each of the following questions.
Question 6: A. catastrophe B. trophy C. notify D. recipe
Question 7: A. famine B. determine C. mineral D. miner
Question 8: A. mission B. revision C. division D. collision
Question 9: A. August B. gerund C. purpose D. suggest
Question 10: A. emblem B. member C. regret D. theme

Exercise 3: Mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the correct answer to each of the following
questions.
Question 11: Drastic measures should be taken to tackle the problems child abuse.
A. involved B. to involve C. involving D. are involving
Question 12: These new laws have laid legal grounds for inefficient co operatives.
A. dissolving B. analyzing C. dividing D. disarming
Question 13: The charity aims to food and shelter for underprivileged in the remote areas of
the country.
A. present B. assist C. provide D. offer
Question 14: As an ASEAN member, Vietnam has actively participated in the groups programs and has
also created new and cooperation mechanics.
A. initiatives B. initiators C. initiations D. initiates
63 will be
Question 15: As soon as the supplies arrive, they to the starving people in the
flooded areas.
A. distributed B. attributed C. contributed D. submitted
Question 16: "Excuse me. Where is the office of OXFAM located?"
A. leading B. head C. central D. summit
Question 17: The International Red Cross helps people in need without any discrimination based
on race, religion, class or political opinions.
A. nation B. national C. nationality D. native
Question 18: The Government has brought a new law in an effort to prevent further
environmental deterioration.
A. in B. about C. up D. on
Question 19: The firefighters’ single-minded devotion to the rescue of the victims of the fire
was
A. respecting B. respective C. respectful D. respectable
Question 20: The opposition will be elected into government at the next election, without a
of a doubt.
A. shade B. shadow C. benefit D. hue
Question 21: The management committee will meet several times this week to reach decisions
about the future of the factory.
A. obvious B. direct C. brief D. sensible
Question 22: It's a shame that these two plans are exclusive. Implementing one will
automatically rule out the other.
A. imperceptibly B. respectively C. mutually D. exhaustively
Question 23: Once as the World Natural Heritage by UNESCO, Phong Nha - Ke Bang
National Park attracts a great number of visitors worldwide.
A. having recognized B. recognized C. recognizing D. is recognized
Question 24: The Red Cross organizes and leads relief assistance missions after such as
natural disasters, man-made disasters, and epidemics.
A. emergent B. emergencies C. emergently D. emergence
Question 25: One of the tasks of the Red Cross is also to support local care projects.
A. health B. healthy C. healthful D. healthily
Question 26: The World Health Organization is the United Nations specialized agency
for health.
A. a B. an C. the D. ∅
Question 27: One of the core tasks of the Red Cross is to organize nursing and for
those who are wounded on the battlefield.
A. care B. attention C. victim D. catastrophe
Question 28: The International Red Cross and Red Crescent occurs once every four years.
A. Globe B. Society C. Conference D. Nations
Question 29: The mission of the Red Cross is also to supervise the of prisoners of war.
A. education B. encouragement C.64treatment D. runaway
Question 30: The Food and Agriculture Organization (FAO) that leads international
efforts to defeat hunger.
A. it is a specialized agency in the United Nations
B. as it is a specialized agency by the United Nations
C. is a specialized agency of the United Nations
D. a specialized agency of the United Nations
Question 31: Established on 7 April, 1948, and headquartered in Geneva, Switzerland, the World Health
Organization inherited the mandate and resources of its the Health Organization.
A. ancestor B. predecessor C. father D. origin
Question 32: The WHO's constitution that its objective is the attainment by all peoples of
the highest possible level of health.
A. declares B. claims C. states D. announces
Question 33: The is a legal agreement among the ten ASEAN member states.
A. charter B. motto C. policy D. principle
Question 34: The WHO's major task is to combat diseases, especially key diseases, and to
promote the general health of the people of the world.
A. infectious B. infection C. infect D. inflectional
Question 35: The WHO also sponsors programs to prevent and treat serious such as SARS,
malaria, and AIDS.
A. disasters B. catastrophes C. phenomena D. epidemics
Question 36: The organization believes that immunization, which prevents the six major diseases of
childhood - diphtheria, measles, poliomyelitis, tetanus, tuberculosis, and whooping cough-should be
to all children who need it.
A. prepared B. concerned C. interested D. available
Question 37: Not all the winners will receive great prizes, but nobody leaves
A. blank-handed B. clear-handed C. empty-handed D. white-handed
Question 38: Over the past decade, Vietnam-ASEAN have been growing fast in all areas,
particularly in politics and the economy.
A. relates B. relatives C. relations D. relationships
Question 39: In former days, after the battles soldiers on both sides died or were left wounded on the field
without any attendance and basic care.
A. medicine B. medical C. medication D. medically
Question 40: The International Committee of the Red Cross is a private institution founded
in 1863 in Geneva, Switzerland.
A. human B. humanity C. humanization D. humanitarian

Exercise 4: Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) CLOSEST in
meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.
Question 41: The International Union for Conservation of Nature Red List is a comprehensive catalogue of
the conservation status of species.
65
A. complete B. rational C. understandable D. valuable
Question 42: The US troops are using much more sophisticated weapons in the Far East.
A. simple B. complicated C. difficult D. expensive
Question 43: They decided to postpone their journey till the end of the month because of epidemic.
A. put off B. turn round C. do away with D. carry on
Question 44: One of the aims of most Lay Organizations is to disseminate knowledge about Huntington's
disease to local doctors, social workers and nursing homes.
A. dedicate B. compile C. condense D. disperse
Question 45: The United Nations Educational, Scientific and Cultural Organization (UNESCO], was
established in 1946.
A. set up B. found out C. run through D. put away
Question 46: The protesters were angry with the council's plan to do away with a lovely old building and
put a car park there instead.
A. destroy B. replace C. remain D. keep
Question 47: Mr. Young, general manager of the emergency response division of AMSA, said that the debris
was spotted along a busy shipping route and could be containers that had fallen off cargo vessels.
A. seen B. collected C. shot D. analyzed
Question 48: If that was done on a national scale, we would wipe out this infectious disease.
A. establish B. retain C. maintain D. eliminate
Question 49: The FDA is the common name for the Food and Drug Administration. It is a government agency
that makes consumer goods safe. It regulates food and the food supply.
A. controls B. adjusts C. forbids D. allows
Question 50: The government's interference in the strike has been widely criticised.
A. disapproval B. intervention C. limitation D. postponement
Question 51: The emblem of the Association of Southeast Asian Nations was designed basing on rice - the
most important crop for the Southeast Asian people.
A. banner B. logo C. motto D. slogan
Question 52: ASEAN organised different projects and activities to integrate its members.
A. combine B. interest C. separate D. upgrade
Question 53: The major shortcoming of ASEAN as an organisation is the inability to go through many
declarations, agreements, and instruments that they have proliferated over the years.
A. advantage B. benefit C. drawback D. success
Question 54: We have achieved considerable results in the economic field, such as high economic
growth, stability and significant poverty alleviation over the past few years.
A. achievement B. development C. prevention D. reduction
Question 55: After the collapse of the Soviet Union in 1989, the 13 National Congress of the
th

Communist Party of Vietnam adopted a resolution to have "more friends and fewer enemies".
A. breakdown B. decrease C. establish D. increase

66
Exercise 5: Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) OPPOSITE
in meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.
Question 56: He was attentive as Betsy and I talked about our charity concert to help the victims of the
recent floods.
A. perceptive B. indifferent C. interested D. negligent
Question 57: Vietnam's admission to the World Trade Organization (WTO) has promoted its trade
relations with other countries.
A. balanced B. restricted C. expanded D. boosted
Question 58: The Red Cross is an international humanitarian agency dedicated to reducing the sufferings
of wounded soldiers, civilians and prisoners of war.
A. happiness B. pain and sorrow C. worry and sadness D. loss
Question 59: The nominating committee always meet behind closed doors, lest its deliberations become
known prematurely.
A. privately B. safely C. publicly D. dangerously
Question 60: The Association of Southeast Asian Nations, or ASEAN, was established on 8 August 1967
in Bangkok, Thailand, with Indonesia, Malaysia, Philippines, Singapore and Thailand, joining
hands initially.
A. basically B. firstly C. lastly D. officially
Question 61: Vietnam and Laos will closely cooperate to strengthen the solidarity of ASEAN and
enhance the vital role of the group in regional security structure.
A. agreement B. cooperation C. separation D. fellowship
Question 62: The country’s continued prosperity is dependent on the opportunities and achievements of all
its residents.
A. poverty B. inflation C. insecurity D. wealth
Question 63: The colour white symbolises a lot of things, and one is that it represents purity and
innocence.
A. cleanness B. immorality C. honesty D. guiltlessness
Question 64: Many people perished in the Kobe earthquake because they were not prepared for it.
A. survived B. departed C. lost their lives D. declined
Question 65: The committee, in an earlier report, was accused of sweeping financial problems under
the carpet to avoid embarrassment.
A. revealing the financial problems B. solving financial problems
C. causing the financial problems D. concealing the financial problems
Question 66: The second summit between US President Donald Trump and North Korean leader Kim Jong
Un ended abruptly on Thursday, with a working lunch and a scheduled signing ceremony being called
off.
A. unexpectedly B. gradually C. suddenly D. courteously
Question 67: In Thailand, it’s against the law to litter on the pavement. If you are caught, you can be
fined up to 2,000 Baht.
A. evil B. legal C. immoral D. wrong
67
Question 68: All countries are obliged to maintain stability and peace in the world, because instability
brings undesired effects.
A. certain B. foreseen C. negative D. positive
Question 69: Many people afraid that the victory of US president-elect Donald Trump might affect stability
in Asia, more specifically in the ASEAN region.
A. failure B. insecurity C. poverty D. weakness
Question 70: The 28 and 29 ASEAN Summits opened in Vientiane, Laos, late on Tuesday on the theme of
th th

"Turning Vision into Reality for a Dynamic ASEAN Community".


A. energetic B. inactive C. innovative D. productive

Exercise 6: Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to
indicate the correct word or phrase that best fits each of the numbered blanks from 71 to 75.
In recent years, the WTO has also made it a priority to assist developing nations as they come under
WTO regulation. Many developing countries and emerging markets lack the experience and technical
expertise needed to deal with large and very comprehensive trade agreements. The WTO provides them
with critical training and support, (71) ensuring that the WTO is inclusive and equitable
toward both the wealthiest and the poorest nations in the world.
Part of the nondiscrimination mandate of the WTO is most-favored-nation (MFN) status. Most-favored-
nation status requires that a WTO member must apply the same terms and conditions to (72)
withany and all other WTO members. Also, you (73) experienced a version of
most-favored-nation status as a child, when an adult told you that if you were going to take gum or candy
to class, you had to bring enough for everyone.
One of the other key elements to the success of the WTO is its transparency requirement. WTO members
are required to publish their trade regulations and follow a system that allows all external parties (74)
will review and evaluate any administrative decisions and their impact on trade regulations.
When a WTO nation changes its trade policies, those changes must be reported to the WTO.
Overall, the WTO’s mission is to improve the stability and (75) of global trade. As a result, it
tends to support free-trade, as opposed to protectionist, policies, and strongly discourages the use of
quotas and other such restrictions on imports.
(Adaptedfrom https://courses.lumenlearning.com)

Question 71: A. consequently B. so C. therefore D. thereby


Question 72: A. cope B. talk C. trade D. deal
Question 73: A. possibly B. probably C. likely D. surely
Question 74: A. that B. who C. whom D. which
Question 75: A. predict B. predictable C. predictability D. prediction

Exercise 7: Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to
indicate the correct answer to each of the questions from 76 to 83.
WWF, in full World Wide Fund for Nature, international organization committed to conservation of the
environment. In North America, it is called the World Wildlife Fund.
68
In 1960, a group of British naturalists-most notably biologist Sir Julian Huxley, artist and conservationist
Peter Scott, and ornithologists Guy Mountfort and Max Nicholson-led an effort to establish an
organization that protected endangered species and their habitats. The following year the World Wildlife
Fund was founded; the international name was subsequently changed to World Wide Fund for Nature in
1989, although in the United States and Canada it retained the founding name. The organization’s
distinctive panda logo was created by Scott. In the face of growing environmental threats over the ensuing
years, the WWF's activities expanded in scope. Today its mission statement is threefold: to conserve the
world’s biological diversity, to ensure that the use of renewable natural resources is sustainable, and to
promote the reduction of pollution and of wasteful consumption. The organization has long included both
conservationists and businesspeople with the intention of combining solid scientific data with well-
managed action. It also seeks cooperation between nongovernmental organizations, local governments,
and local populations. The WWF works closely with the World Conservation Union and has formed
partnerships with the United Nations, the World Bank, and the European Union.

The WWF provides money for conservation initiatives around the world. These include programs focused
on individual species, forests, and freshwater and marine issues as well as climate change and responsible
international trade. The group has also been involved in efforts to provide a safe and sustainable habitat
for the world's peoples, both urban and rural, including clean water, clean air, healthful food, and
rewarding recreation areas. Among the WWF’s notable achievements is its use of debt-for-nature swaps,
in which an organization buys some of a country's foreign debt at a discount, converts the money to local
currency, and then uses it to finance conservation efforts. The WWF's first successful debt-for-nature
swap took place in 1987 in Ecuador.
At the beginning of the 21st century, the WWF was active in more than 100 countries and had more than
five million supporters. The organization's international headquarters are in Gland, Switz., and it has more
than 90 offices around the world.
(Source: https://www.britannicci.corn/topic/WWF)

Question 76: What topic does the passage mainly discuss?


A. The history of WWF.
B. What WWF has done to conserve the nature.
C. The foundation of WWE
D. The missions of WWF.
Question 77: When was WWF established?
A. In 1960 B. In 1961 C. In 1989 D. In 1990
Question 78: The word “ensuing" in the first paragraph is closest in meaning to
A. bygone B. present C. following D. current
Question 79: According to the passage, what contemporary mission of WWF is NOT stated?
A. to protect the biological variety of the world.
B. to reduce pollution and prodigal consumption.
69
C. to make sure that renewable natural resources are used sustainably.
D. to protect endangered species and their habitats.
Question 80: The word “It" in paragraph 1 refers to
A. The organization B. The attention
C. Solid scientific data D. Well-managed action
Question 81: It can be inferred from the passage that
A. WWF was founded by a group of American biologists.
B. WWF has cooperated with many organizations to change its name.
C. WWF has made an effort to provide people with a sustainable world.
D. WWF uses debt-for-nature swap to lend money to foreign countries.
Question 82: The phrase “focused on" in paragraph 2 could best be replaced by
A. concentrated on B. depended on C. relied on D. based on
Question 83: Which sentence is CORRECT about WWF?
A. Its panda logo was created by 2 men, an artist and a conservationist.
B. It has millions of supporters in about a hundred countries.
C. Its headquarters are in Sweden.
D. Its programs covered the issues of terrestrial and marine areas.

70
Topic25

III. PRACTICE EXERCISES


Exercise 1: Mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the word that differs from the other three in the
position of primary stress in each of the following questions.
Question 1: A. broadcast B. advert C. amuse D. media
Question 2: A. newspaper B. smartphone C. internet D. magazine
Question 3: A. computer B. technology C. digital D. connection
Question 4: A. networking B. television C. socialize D. communication
Question 5: A. popular B. cyberspace C. creative D. audience

Exercise 2: Mark the letter A, B, C, or D indicate the word whose underlined part differs from the
other three in pronunciation in each of the following questions.
Question 6: A. social B. influential C. finish D. mass
Question 7: A. distributed B. downloaded C. emailed D. invented
Question 8: A. bully B. introduce C. amuse D. distribute
Question 9: A. accesses B. searches C. surfs D. announces
Question 10: A. reduced B. addicted C. distributed D. deleted

Exercise 3: Mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the correct answer to each of the following
questions.
Question 11: The mass media are of communication, such as books, newspapers,
recordings, radio, movies, television, mobile phones and the Internet
A. models. B. means C. parts D. types
Question 12: , data superhighway, multimedia - for those who have seen the future, the
linking of computers, television and telephones will change our lives.
A. Cyberspace B. Cyberattack C. Cyberbully D. Cyberbullying
Question 13: The mass media are means of communication, such as books, newspapers, recordings,
radio, movies, television, mobile phones and the Internet, that can a large audience.
A. approach B. reach C. illustrate D. transmit
Question 14: Most apps are fun and people use them all the time - to chat with friends, play games,
get , check the weather forecast, read news and books, and a lot more.
A. guides B. directions C. attentions D. help
Question 15: TV companies their programmes across the country or even across the world.
A. broadcast B. refresh C. connect D. publish
Question 16: While a sports match has spectators and radio has listeners, television has
71
A. audience B. witnesses C. viewers D. commentators
Question 17: Mobile security apps are designed to protect and secure smartphone and tablet devices, in
cases of theft or of data.
A. loss B. stolen C. robbed D. persecuted
Question 18: I hate newspapers; they're just full of gossip, scandal and lies!
A. online B. daily C. tabloid D. rubbish
Question 19: Television can make things because it presents information in an effective
way.
A. memory B. memorial C. memorable D. memorably
Question 20: There's a great show on BBC1 tonight. Contestants have to race through a
supermarket as quickly as they can, filling up their trolleys as they go.
A. talk B. game C. quiz D. live
Question 21: On some TV channels, a(n) tells you what the next programme is going to
be.
A. journalist B. commentator C. announcer D. producer
Question 22: That's a , isn't it? I think I saw it about a fortnight ago.
A. repeat B. second C. copy D. return
Question 23: They've spent a lot of money on and they're beginning to see the results.
A. advertise B. advertising C. advertisement D. advertised
Question 24: Although the first printed books had appeared long before in China, the term "mass media"
we use today was with the creation of print media, which started in Europe in the Middle
Ages.
A. developed B. covered C. coined D. separated
Question 25: Since the mid-twentieth century new technologies have been developed, which helped to
diversify mass media and make them an part of our lives.
A. inseparable B. inexpensive C. intentional D. separable
Question 26: The role of the mass media is not only to entertain and amuse the but also to provide
information and news about events in different parts of the world as they occur.
A. massive B. masses C. public D. crowd
Question 27: The involves TV, radio and even electronic forms of communication such as
the Internet.
A. telecommunication B. mass
C. network D. press
Question 28: There’s a(n) in the paper about the Reality Television in Vietnam.
A. feature B. article C. essay D. announcement
Question 29: Educating people about their rights and responsibilities is another of mass
media.
A. mission B. work C. task D. function
Question 30: Until recently, mass media forms were classified into six categories according to
the of their advent: print, recordings, cinema,
72 radio, television and the Internet.
A. advantage B. sequence C. order D. importance
Question 31: In the early 21st century, with the of mobile communication technology, the

73
mobile phone has emerged as a new and unique media channel.
A. invention B. discovery C. development D. explosion
Question 32: Video and computer games have also developed into a mass media
A. type B. kind C. form D. method
Question 33: The Internet and mobile communication is now the most popular means of receiving
information and with people through email, instant messaging, apps, search engines, blogs.
A. interacting B. updating C. contacting D. keeping
Question 34: Each form of mass media has had an important impact on society, for example, books have
helped people to educate themselves while newspapers have daily events.
A. reported B. repeated C. recorded D. retold
Question 35: I always get the news from my local radio
A. place B. site C. studio D. station
Question 36: New digital media forms are more personal and social as they allow people to connect each
other and their experiences.
A. personal B. persona C. personalize D. personify
Question 37: Are you thinking of a career in ?
A. journal B. journalism C. journalist D. journalistic
Question 38: It is not always easy to the difference between fact and opinion.
A. make B. say C. do D. tell
Question 39: The issue question is more complex than you think.
A. in B. from C. on D. at
Question 40: A(n) sends reports from a particular part of the world or on a particular
subject.
A. editor B. correspondent C. columnist D. proprietor

Exercise 4: Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) CLOSEST in
meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.
Question 41: In my view, freedom of the press must be maintained.
A. mind B. sight C. opinion D. thought
Question 42: Watch out for words like "so-called" in articles as they express the writer’s
bias.
A. Look B. Make C. Take D. Bring
Question 43: The public health infrastructure of this country is poorly prepared for the
emerging disease problems of a rapidly changing world.
A. widespread B. appearing C. serious D. minor
Question 44: Most people rely on the mass media as their main source of information.
A. depend on B. try on C. put on D. hold on
Question 45: It was the advent of television that really transformed sportsmen.
A. coming B. going C. increasing D. falling
Question 46: The pie chart shows the preferred forms of communication recorded in a
survey conducted in Intel Secondary School in August 2014.
74
A. carried out B. carried on C. carried away D. carried up
Question 47: I’m amazed that the tabloids which are full of rubbish have such big circulations.
A. the movement of blood inside the body
B. the movement of air or water in a space or system
C. the use of a particular type of money or payment system in the economy
D. the typical number of copies of a newspaper or magazine that are sold every day week, or month
Question 48: A lot of viewers_complained that there was too much gratuitous sex and violence in the
movie.
A. people who watch the programme
B. people who sponsor the programme
C. people who produce the programme
D. people who edit the programme
Question 49: Journalists can make mistakes, so don't believe everything you read in the press.
A. publications B. news bulletins
C. reference books D. newspapers and magazines
Question 50: She thinks that unfortunately they may not understand the benefits of online information.
A. advantages B. points C. features D. amounts
Question 51: Blues is a form of music that came from the American South, where
slaves on plantations would sing spiritual songs and work music.
A. dated back B. stemmed from C. originated in D. resulted in
Question 52: Dissemination of information is frequently carried out via satellite through local or
national TV network.
A. Compilation B. Condensing C. Collection D. Dispersal
Question 53: This special offer is exclusive to readers of this magazine.
A. presentable B. rewarding C. attractive D. limited
Question 54: With so many daily design resources, how do you stay-up-date with technology without
spending too much time on it?
A. connect to the Internet all day B. update new status
C. use social network daily D. get latest information
Question 55: Magazines were the first visual medium before the advent of television
A. acceptance B. achievement C. arrival D. spiritually

Exercise 5: Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) OPPOSITE
in meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.
Question 56: The tabloids completely made up that story about Bruce Willis. It’s not true at all
A. told the truth B. told lies
C. told tales D. told the difference
Question 57: In the early 21st century, with the explosion of mobile communication technology, the
mobile phone has emerged as a new and unique channel.
A. destruction B. disappearance C. exploitation D. exploration
Question 58: The library reduced the number of print newspapers and magazines that they used to
subscribe to.
A. increased B. decreased C. rose D. fell
Question 59: Using social networks helps you keep in touch with friends and family any time.
A. put up with B. keep track of C.75lose touch with D. catch up with
Question 60: Teenagers can become addicted to social networking if they can't control the time they
spend online.
A. dependent on B. hooked on C. indifferent to D. exhausted by
Question 61: New electronic devices have been developed to cater to users' everchanging needs.
A. changeable B. unstable C. constant D. predictable
Question 62: It was the role that really put her on the map as a serious actress.
A. drew her a map B. made her famous
C. put her forward D. made her unknown
Question 63: No matter how different they are, various music types have one thing in common:
touching the hearts of listeners.
A. share the same interests B. have similar characteristics
C. are like chalk and cheese D. have skin in the game
Question 64: Most country music songs are deeply personal and deal with themes of love, loneliness and
separation.
A. individual B. single C. specific D. public
Question 65: This new magazine is known for its comprehensive coverage of news.
A. superficial B. indifferent C. casual D. inadequate
Question 66: Adverse reviews in the New York press may greatly change the prospect of a new product
on the market and lead to its failure.
A. Comfortable B. Favorable C. Complementary D. Additional
Question 67: Since 2006, anyone age 13 and older has been allowed to become a registered user of
Facebook though variations exist in minimum age requirement, depending on applicable local laws.
A. smallest B. majority C. maximum D. minority
Question 68: The advancement of technology has enabled the Internet users to access various social
networking apps.
A. incapacitated B. promoted C. informed D. encouraged
Question 69: You can listen to music or watch videos on video-sharing apps, which also allow you to
create your own video clips and share them with friends and family.
A. divide B. keep C. post D. update
Question 70: The World Wide Web is made up of millions of sites created by anybody from multimedia
corporations to ordinary people like you and me.
A. extraordinary B. abnormal C. immortal D. conventional

Exercise 6: Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to
indicate the correct word or phrase that best fits each of the numbered blanks from 71 to 75.
Over 25 million people in the UK use Facebook. That's 45% of population! And (71) , each
user spends over six hours a month on Facebook. Though not the highest this is a considerable number. Is
Facebook a dangerous obsession or just harmless fun? Seventeen-year-old Bethan has written on her blog
about (72) it was like to stop using Facebook. I think I am a Facebook addict. I log on to
Facebook everyday to chat to my real friends and loads of online friends. Sometimes I have ten
76
conversations going at the same time. I upload photos and update my Facebook profile all the time. But
recently I’ve started to feel worried if I am (73) for more than a few hours. And then last
week I forgot to meet a real friend because I was online! I've realized I could have a problem. So I've
decided to give it up for a while. I found it really hard. Facebook and my friends demanded to know why
I had left. Ĩ spent the first few evenings (74) what everyone was chatting on Facebook. I even
phoned a couple of friends to find out. The fourth night I wasn't quite so bad. I actually concentrated on
my homework better and I had more time to watch my TV programmes. And I spoke to my friends during
the day at school. At the end of the first week, I (75) my account, I think Facebook is fun and
it's useful for posting messages to friends and sharing photos. But I'll try not to spend so much time on it
in the future.
(Source: https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/History_of_Facebook)

Question 71: A. on average B. on the contrary C. in exchange D. in reality


Question 72: A. how B. what C. which D. whom
Question 73: A. online B. offline C. absent D. present
Question 74: A. wonder B. wonderful C. wondering D. wonderment
Question 75: A. eliminated B. erased C. reactivated D. activated

Exercise 7: Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to
indicate the correct answer to each of the questions from 76 to 83.
For many hundreds of thousands of people worldwide, online networking has become enmeshed in our
daily lives. However, it is a decades-old insight from a study of traditional social networks that best
illuminates one of the most important aspects of today's online networking. In 19 73, sociologist Mark
Granovetter showed how the loose acquaintances, or "weak ties", in our social network exert a
disproportionate influence over our behaviour and choices. Granovetter’s research showed that a
significant percentage of people get their jobs as a result of recommendations or advice provided by a
weak tie. Today our number of weak-tie contacts has exploded via online social networking. "You
couldn't maintain all of those weak ties on your own", says Jennifer Golbeck of the University of
Maryland. "Online sites, such as Facebook, give you a way of cataloguing them". The result? It's now
significantly easier for the schoolfriend you haven't seen in years to pass you a tip that alters your
behaviour, from recommendation of a low-cholesterol breakfast cereal to a party invite where you meet
your future wife or husband.
The explosion of weak ties could have profound consequences for our social structures too, according to
Judith Donath of the Berkman Center for Internet and Society at Harvard University. "We're already
seeing changes", she says. For example, many people now turn to their online social networks ahead of
sources such as newspapers and television for trusted and relevant news or information. What they hear
could well be inaccurate, but the change is happening nonetheless. If these huge "supernets" - some of
them numbering up to 5,000 people - continue to thrive and grow, they could fundamentally change the
way we share information and transform our notions of relationships.
But are these vast networks really that relevant to us on a personal level? Robin Dunbar, an evolutionary
anthropologist at the University of Oxford, believes that our primate brains place a cap on the number of
genuine social relationships we can actually cope with: roughly 150. According to Dunbar, online social
networking appears to be very good for "servicing" relationships, but not for establishing them. He argues
that our evolutionary roots mean we still depend heavily on physical and face-to-face contact to be able to
create ties. 77
Online social networking may also have tangible effects on our well-being. Nicole Ellison of Michigan
State University found that the frequency of networking site use correlates with greater self-esteem.
Support and affirmation from the weak ties could be the explanation, say Ellison. "Asking your close
friends for help or advice is nothing new, but we are seeing a lower of barriers among acquaintances", she
says. People are readily sharing personal feelings and experiences to a wider circle than they might once
have done. Sandy Pentland at Massachusetts Institute of Technology agrees. "The ability to broadcast to
our social group means we need never feel alone".
(Adapted from The Official Cambridge Guide to IELTS)
Question 76: What topic does the passage mainly discuss?
A. The positive and negative effects of online social networking.
B. The explosion of online acquaintances and its impacts on our lives.
C. Friendship and the influences of online social networking.
D. The consequences of the information and news shared on the online social networks.
Question 77: The word "enmeshed" in the first paragraph is closest in meaning to
A. interested B. entangled C. involved D. endangered
Question 78: The word "disproportionate” in paragraph 1 mostly means
A. not deserving its importance or influence
B. not necessary or of great value
C. not giving cause for hope and confidence
D. extremely large
Question 79: What advantage of online social networks is mentioned in paragraph 1?
A. It's simple to establish new friendships via networking sites.
B. Unemployed people may get their jobs thanks to the employers’ recommendations.
C. Online sites provide us with lists of different choices and behavior.
D. It's an efficient way of keeping in touch with lot of people.
Question 80: What does the word "they” in paragraph 2 refer to?
A. social networks B. sources C. many people D. relevant news
Question 81: Which drawbacks may online social networking put people at mentioned in the passage?
A. Unreliable information and lack of privacy
B. Hard to maintain all online friendships and being influenced too much
C. Waste of time and reduction in face-to-face relationships
D. Close friends' advice is not useful anymore and people depend on social networking to solve real-
world problems.
Question 82: Robin Dunbar at the University of Oxford believed that
A. the number of meaningful relationships that we can maintain is limited.
B. we should use social networking to keep in touch with friends and making new ones.
C. people's health may be visually affected by online social networking.
D. people's relationships shouldn't depend too much on face-to-face contacts.
78
Question 83: What can be inferred from the last paragraph?
A. Having a number of online acquaintances helps people escape from loneliness.
B. We have become more agreeable to confine in myriad people.
C. Those having an extensive number of online friends may be more self-esteem.
D. Online social networking is established on the base of face-to-face contacts.

79
80
TOPIC 26

III. PRACTICE EXERCISES


Exercise 1: Mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the word that differs from the other three in the
position of primary stress in each of the following81questions.
Giaoandethitienganh.info

Question 1: A. championship B. professional C. participate D. equipment


Question 2: A. medal B. event C. trophy D. winner
Question 3: A. advancement B. gymnasium C. solidarity D. variety
Question 4: A. aquatic B. tournament C. facilities D. spectator
Question 5: A. overtime B. defensive C. victory D. penalize

Exercise 2: Mark the letter A, B, C, or D indicate the word whose underlined part differs from the
other three in pronunciation in each of the following questions.
Question 6: A. followed B. considered C. called D. witnessed
Question 7: A. gymnastics B. cycling C. rugby D. bodybuilding
Question 8: A. scoreboard B. science C. schedule D. scanner
Question 9: A. sprint B. line C. divide D. ride
Question 10: A. outstanding B. spirit C. Asian D. silver

Exercise 3: Mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the correct answer to each of the following
questions.
Question 11: Regular workout helps to the body natural repair system, which, in turns,
increases our general well-beings to a great extent.
A. stimulation B. stimulate C. stimulus D. stimulant
Question 12: Playing sports is a favourable condition for adolescents to cultivate mutual understanding as
well as develop collaboration and skills.
A. leading B. leader C. leadership D. leaden
Question 13: If each developmental stage is fully formed, active children have the ability to completely
reach their maximum for participation in sports.
A. capacity B. capacitate C. capacitation D. capacitance
Question 14: Sports can be an effective way to foster blood circulation, burn extra fat as well as improve our
stamina and
A. flexible B. flexile C. flexibility D. flextime
Question 15: According to Public Health England, 40% of the over 50s are leading lifestyles
these days.
A. depressive B. vulnerable C. powerful D. sedentary
Question 16: Although to some people, the impacts of unhealthy lifestyles are for real.
A. dismissive B. imperceptible C. irrational D. irrefutable
Question 17: Team sports are good for learning accountability, , and leadership, among
many other traits.
A. dedication B. analysis C. management D. academy
Question 18: Doing physical activities on a regular basis can lower our risk of illnesses
such as heart disease, cancer and diabetes.
A. recovering B. refuting C.82diagnosing D. contracting
Question 19: The intrinsic value of sporting events is to cement the diplomatic ties among
Giaoandethitienganh.info

nations all over the world.


A. aggressively B. undoubtedly C. inconsistently D. inadequately

Question 20: Fighting for a common goal, the best way to solve problems on route to a victory, teaches
you how to build collaboration and communicate

A, excellently B. invaluably C. effectively D. unexpectedly


Question 21: Private sponsors are more capable of providing awards, bonus and other
financial incentives to motivate athletes.
A. financially B. vigorously C. competitively D. internationally
Question 22: Football players sometimes try their best to ensure a victory by playing in a
boring way.
A. professionally B. brilliantly C. offensively D. defensively
Question 23: Sport is a(n) industry which attracts thousands of sport fans who are willing to
pay support for their teams.
A. record-breaking B. multi-million-dollar
C. low-paid D. top-ranking
Question 24: Sports stars have dedicated hours of practice to developing their fitness and skills, along side
with foods in their diets which are important for building muscle mass and promoting
recovery.
A. nutrient-dense B. close-season C. home-made D. ready-made
Question 25: Tempted by the prospect of large financial rewards, many athletes take
proscribed drugs.
A. ill-advised B. long-lasting
C. stuck-up D. performance-enhancing
Question 26: Contrary to popular belief, politics can have effects on sport and vice versa.
A. far-reaching B. knock-on C. run-down D. hit-or-miss
Question 27: All countries in the world are under an obligation to international regulations
or else their economy and stature will be under threat.
A. adhere to B. take to C. catch up D. comply to
Question 28: A healthy lifestyles with regular stints of exercises and a diet rich in vitamins is a sure way to
one’s immune system.
A. keep up B. build up C. carry on D. stand up
Question 29: People who extreme sports are usually required to under go appropriate training
so that dangers are minimized.
A. join with B. set up C. put in for D. take part in
Question 30: Throughout the course of history, many nations were forbidden from entering into sporting
competitions due to failure to global regulations.
A. fight against B. throw away C. abide by D. account for
Question 31: It is common that sporting competitions provide countries with a chance to gain
a great deal of financial resources and establish their reputation worldwide.
A. knowledge B. understanding C. comprehension D. background
83
Question 32: So far, the team has won the championship four years
A. running B. passing C. following D. rotating
Giaoandethitienganh.info

Question 33: Some people have the opinion that more developing countries should be given
the light to become hosts of such international sporting events as Olympics and World
Cup.
A. red B. blue C. green D. yellow
Question 34: Michael Phelps has been awarded 28 Olympic medals in of his talents in
swimming.
A. spite B. recognition C. sight D. charge
Question 35: It is evident that football superstars have high rates of
A. fee B. compensation C. remuneration D. commission
Question 36: He was carried off the field with a slight arising from sports.
A. concussion B. damage C. harm D. adversities
Question 37: I'd like to put forward the idea that sports salaries should be with the wages
most people earn.
A. appropriate B. adaptable C. suitable D. compatible
Question 38: Nowadays, even elderly people can adopt a fitness by taking light exercise
such as walking or jogging.
A. regime B. schedule C. system D. establishment
Question 39: When players are endowed withan exceptional gift, it
would be a wastage of talents if they stayed with cradle club, which would be too mediocre or
financially troubled.
A. from B. with C. by D. of
Question 40: National teams must stick global sporting rules and safety
A. for B. with C. to D. over

Exercise 4: Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) CLOSEST in
meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.
Question 41: Private sponsors have experts in different areas of technology ranging from nutrition to the
treatment of injuries.
A. patrons B. innovators C. founders D. corporations
Question 42: Sports fans are engrossed by the grace, endurance and fortitude shown by athletes.
A. stimulated B. evaluated C. captivated D. assimilate
Question 43: Schools need to invent physical activity programmes that are carefully planned and
delivered.
A. educate B. devise C. refresh D. possess
Question 44: A recent research claims that girls lose motivation to play sport after the age of seven,
frequently as a result of self-consciousness and loss of confidence.
A. encouragement B. power C. disposition D. support
Question 45: Winnie is a woman of quiet fortitude84
who has endured a lot of suffering.
A. energy B. vigour C. physique D. alertness
Giaoandethitienganh.info

Question 46: An investigation appears to negate all the adverse effects that vigorous workout may have on
one’s health.
A. give in B. take in C. cancel out D. make out
Question 47: Long hours of working in office divests himself of time for daily exercises.
A. crosses out B. gives off C. puts aside D. strips of
Question 48: The 21 FiFa World Cup kicks off at Moscow's magnificent Luzhniki Stadium, the newly
st

renovated 80,000 capacity venue.


A. starts B. originates C. witnesses D. forms
Question 49: In the years when Abdullah kept away from food and water during daylight hours, he
adhered to severe nutritional proscriptions that helped him to get through both training camps.
A. indulged in B. abstained from C. imposed on D. engaged in
Question 50: The injured athlete was told that the effect of the anaesthetic wore off, he might feel a little
pain.
A. befell B. perished C. disappeared D. evaporated

Exercise 5: Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) OPPOSITE
in meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.
Question 51: Sport commentators of any public events are required to be informative, but should avoid
sounding opinionated.
A. biased B. prejudiced C. compromising D. open-minded
Question 52: In sport commentaries, justice and impartiality to both sides are vital, but spontaneity and
enthusiasm are valued by those watching or listening.
A. unfairness B. equality C. probity D. honesty
Question 53: At any sport live events, because of their unpredictable nature, thorough preparations in
advance are vital.
A. doubtful B. invariable C. descriptive D. expected
Question 54: His extraordinary talent was already clearly evident in the professional sporting world.
A. bizarre B. conventional C. fantastic D. peculiar
Question 55: Extravagant expenditure on sports facilities may lead to the derelict buildings after the
sport events.
A. lavish B. profuse C. ample D. moderate
Question 56: The money that some professional sportsmen earn shouldn't impress anyone when you take
into account the fact that only a few of them manage to attain everlasting fame.
A. consider B. claim C. ignore D. reflect
Question 57: Some of the sport authorities insist that the sports clubs members achieve high academic
standards or else they are debarred from partaking in certain sports events.
A. participating in B. dropping out of
C. being interested in D. putting in for
Question 58: Mike's condition was rather bad, but after
85 a series of antibiotic injections he recovered
from his illness.
Giaoandethitienganh.info

A. deteriorated B. got over C. overcame D. absorbed


Question 59: Some objectives like retirement benefits and pensions are of great concern to all
professional sportsmen.
A. involvement B. consideration C. indifference D. regard
Question 60: Alice is going to put in for the job of a assistant manager at a sports club nearby.
A. set off B. give away C. hold on D. turn down

Exercise 6: Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to
indicate the correct word or phrase that best fits each of the numbered blanks from 61 to 65.
The popular sport of golf is now widely considered an activity of rich people. Have you ever thought
what makes golf so attractive to businessmen and politicians? (61) they are mostly in their
50s and 60s, and with such safe and undemanding sport as golf, they still can improve their results. Golf
is challenging. Among (62) wealthy people, golf is exceptionally popular. Rich people really
do not like to lose, and with golf, that won’t be too much of a problem because one can compete (63)
oneself. During a golf game, businessmen can concentrate on improving their own results
while no one is trying to prevent their actions.
Another thing about the challenge of golf being so charming for rich people is (64) they have
accomplished the impossible to reach their heights. Golf would bring new experience to their lives and
make it more interesting. Maybe that's why golf is particularly popular among older businessmen, who
have already done all they wanted in life and now are looking for some new feelings.
Playing golf is convenient. With rich people having very little of free time, golf is highly convenient as
they can easily find golf courses open at nighttime. Besides, they wouldn't have to drive too far to play
golf. They don't even necessarily need to have (65) to play a nice round! As we already
mentioned, one can play against himself to perfect the result.
(Source: http://aravisrando.com/2017)

Question 61: A. Because B. Although C. However D. Besides


Question 62: A. aggressive B. competitive C. contending D. violent
Question 63: A. with B. to C. for D. against
Question 64: A. what B. which C. that D. why
Question 65: A. teammates B. companions C. partnerships D. playmates

Exercise 7: Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to
indicate the correct answer to each of the questions from 66 to 72.
One of the most interesting parts of the earth for many people was and continues to be the beautiful world
of the sea. People were always attracted to the mysteries of the deep waters when they saw a little part of
the under water world on television or in photographs. Due to this intense attraction caused by the
mystery of the waters, more and more people choose to practice scuba diving, which became in time one
of the most popular sports around the world. Scuba diving is a complex sport that requires some research
before being understood at its real value. In order for someone to practice it, it is required for them to take
some courses so accidents can be avoided. 86
Scuba diving is not only about diving and observing the amazing environment that exists under the
Giaoandethitienganh.info

waters. This sport can be transformed into a successful career by those who are truly passionate about it.
At the moment, scuba diving has four main areas of interest: recreation purposes, commercial purposes,
scientific research and military activity as well. The most frequent reason why people go for scuba diving
is because they want to relax in a special way, by having contact with a less known world.
A great thing about this sport is that it can be practiced anytime around the year; however, you should
choose the summer if you have problems with low temperatures. Once you take the lessons, you get the
basic knowledge before diving, you should talk to a specialist and obtain quality equipment for this
activity. For the beginning, you can only rent scuba diving equipment, but if you get attached to this
sport, then you will have to purchase one of your own at some moment. Some of the most important parts
of the scuba gear are the mask, the snorkel, the diving suit, the gloves, the boots and the diving regulator.
If you finally decided to try scuba diving and you already took some scuba courses then you must be
thinking about what location to choose. This is one of the most difficult decisions to make as our world is
filled with numerous destinations, equally beautiful and interesting. If this passion catches you then you
will surely get to visit more and more amazing locations each year. There is no such thing as the most
beautiful waters to scuba diving in as each part has something to offer and shelters special creatures that
should be observed.
(Source: http://www. worlddivingreview, com/)
Question 66: Which of the following could be the best tittle of the passage?
A. The big attraction to scuba diving. B. The new interest on the Earth,
C. The requirements for scuba diving. D. The place to practice scuba diving.
Question 67: The word "intense" in the first paragraph is closest in meaning to
A. moderate B. special C. strong D. obtuse
Question 68: What does the word "it" in paragraph 1 refer to?
A. its real value B. research C. scuba diving D. the world
Question 69: According to the passage, which of the interest of scuba diving is NOT mentioned?
A. relaxing B. trading
C. activities for the armed forces D. adventure
Question 70: The word “attached” in paragraph 3 probably means
A. joined B. enclosed C. suitable D. attacked
Question 71: Which of the following is TRUE about scuba diving?
A. Although you are really interested in scuba diving, you cannot have a successful career with it.
B. Many people want to try scuba diving in order to explore the new world.
C. To practice scuba diving, people need plenty of indispensable equipment.
D. Buying suitable scuba diving equipment is a good idea for those who go for this sport.
Question 72: What benefit of scuba diving does the author mention in the last paragraph?
A. Exploring more wonderful destinations in the world.
B. Observing more locations to fulfill your passion.
C. Taking more scuba courses to understand this sport.
87
D. Choosing a location to visit the most beautiful water.
TOPIC 27

III. PRACTICE EXERCISES


Exercise 1: Mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the word that differs from the other three in the
position of primary stress in each of the following questions.
Question 1: A. website B. worship C. unique D. lifelong
Question 2: A. reluctant B. different C. flexible D. willingly
Question 3: A. directed B. motivate C. confident D. paperwork
Question 4: A. unchangeable B. adjustable C. emotional D. Privilege
Question 5: A. probation B. knowledgeable C. talented D. specialize

Exercise 2: Mark the letter A, B, C, or D indicate the word whose underlined part differs from the
other three in pronunciation in each of the following questions.
Question 6: A. overwhelming B. compassionate C. collection D. opportunity
Question 7: A. graduate B. mandatory C. explode D. persuade
Question 8: A. motivation B. initiative C. optional D. restricted
Question 9: A. adequate B. private C. facilitate D. candidate
Question 10: A. investigate B. neglect C. genius D. progress

Exercise 3: Mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the correct answer to each of the following
questions.
Question 11: Some educationalists hold the belief that personal devices may do more harm
than good to students.

A. electricity B. electrified C. electronic D. electrical


Question 12: Brainstorming is a useful tool for students to develop solution to an issue.
A. creating B. creative C. creativity D. creation
Question 13: If you have trouble historical facts, just turn them into a song so you can easily
recite it. 88
Giaoandethitienganh.info

A. commemorating B. memorializing C. memorably D. memorizing


Question 14: It is for teachers to take advantage of technological advancements and apply
them into lectures to boost the efficacy of learning.

A. advising B. advisory C. advisable D. ill-advised


Question 15: While a child learns how to use educational , he or she also develops a(n)
to analyze, synthesize and evaluate information, which are of great important to his or her
academic success.

A. lessons - knowledge B. software - ability


C. hardware - luck D. plans - capacity
Question 16: When used in the right way, mobile technology has the to help students learn
and understand a language effectively.

A. achievement B. development C. success D. potential


Question 17: At the beginning of the lecture, the tutor commenced with a video to illustrate
an of the present situation.

A. overview B. oversight C. overtone D. overture


Question 18: Some new observation activities are being incorporated into the of our school
with a view to help students consolidate practical knowledge.

A. compendium B. programme C. curriculum D. prospectus


Question 19: Using colorful slideshow to present the transformation of a frog from a tadpole, the lecture of
my biology teacher was so interesting that all students listened to what he said.

A. watchfully B. attentively C. prudently D. guardedly


Question 20: Thanks to the application of computers in the end-of-term test, students can now begin the test
,which is much fairer than the written examination.

A. simultaneously B. continuously C. spontaneously D. indefinitely


Question 21: Punishing disobedient pupils is no longer an optimal method to educate
juvenile students.

A. rigorously B. arduously C. severely D. onerously


Question 22: Overreliance on the Internet, though often neglected, affects the development
of logical thinking among students.

A. antagonistically B. unsympathetically C. intensively D. adversely


Question 23: Some techniques of teaching like laddering or storyboarding are only suitable for
and creative teachers. If misused, these methods can be counter-productive.

A. semi-skilled B. well-qualified C. poorly-trained D. ill-equipped


89
Question 24: Harry must be very to be able to complete an online "teach yourself" course.
A. self-aware B. self-motivated C. self-confident D. self-conscious
Question 25: There is no need for him to consult any reference books on this subject as he has already

90
known it
A. topsy-turvy B. bottom-up C. inside-out D. upside-down
Question 26: A(n) activity is a great way to start any English class as it can put students into
English mode and fully engage them in your lessons.
A. upcoming B. check-out C. break-down D. warm-up
Question 27: He's decided to his Spanish by attending an evening course before he meets his
business partners at the end of this year.

A. patch up B. brush up C. polish off D. dust off


Question 28: I was able to a lot of new English words from speaking with my host family
and with other colleagues in this multinational corporation.

A. pick up B. save up C. make up D. take up


Question 29: Whenever you encounter a new word in this book, it is necessary that you
should it in your dictionary to fully understand its meaning.
A. put... down B. look... up C. jot... down D. check... up
Question 30: While Charlie such a great deal of effort finishing all the given
assignments, his friends just simply searched for answers on the Internet. How unfair it was!

A. carried......on B. set......off C. squeezed...... in D. put ......into


Question 31: It’s high time you and work harder or you'll fail the high school entrance
examination.

A. stuck your neck out B. went to your head


C. pulled your socks up D. had your wits about you
Question 32: Aliza always raises her hands in her classroom and buys some presents for her teachers,
which makes other students dislike her. She’s such a

A. teacher's toy B. teacher's pet


C. teacher's apple D. teacher's sweet
Question 33: With the assistance of a geographical learning software, completing these tasks is

A. a cup of tea B. a piece of cake


C. a pat on the back D. a sight for sore eyes
Question 34: After using an app to learn English on mobile phone, his understanding of the language is
growing

A. from time to time B. by leaps and bounds


C. slow but sure D. for the time being
Question 35: When learning a foreign language, having
91 a wide range of lexical resources is
A. uppermost B. supreme C. dominant D. paramount
Question 36: A tablet is an excellent learning You can store information, take notes, write

92
compositions and do calculations with it easily.
A. contraption B. gadget C. utensil D. appliance
Question 37: I would prefer to go to university and do a in Clerical Studies rather than enroll
in an online course.

A. certificate B. qualification C. degree D. diploma


Question 38: Using high-tech devices to cheat in your examination and you will definitely be
from school.

A. excluded B. dismissed C. eliminated D. expelled


Question 39: In terms of education, children in the UK have greatly benefited modern
technology.

A. of B. from C. with D. in
Question 40: Tina seems to be the misapprehension that there will be a test tomorrow. In
fact, the teacher has announced via Facebook that the test will be delayed to next week.
A. beneath B. within C. under D. beyond

Exercise 4: Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) CLOSEST in
meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.
Question 41: One drawback of using the Internet in learning is that students can gain access to
inappropriate content, which distracts them from their projects and assignments.
A. uncensored B. tempting C. unsuitable D. incompatible
Question 42: As these devices are portable, you can download and store free learning materials to study
anywhere.
A. affordable B. movable C. feasible D. available
Question 43: An interactive whiteboard can be a wonderful tool for teachers to helps students learn science
in a more stimulating way.
A. interest-arousing B. communication-promoting
C. performance enhancing D. proficiency-raising
Question 44: It will be very annoying and disruptive if a smartphone rings during a lesson.
A. confusing B. interruptive C. supportive D. discouraging
Question 45: Frequent exposure to electronic devices may probably cause permanent damage to
children's body.
A. serious B. immediate C. long-lasting D. short-term
Question 46: What a waste of time it is! There is nothing to swot up on as it’s just a general knowledge
quiz.
A. revise B. modify C. review D. read
Question 47: The administrators of our school is mulling over whether to allow students to use personal
electronic devices during class.
A. contemplating B. considering C. overlooking D. forbidding
Question 48: I was only able to figure out what my teacher
93 said when my friend illustrated it to me using a
3D chromosome model.
A. recognize B. emphasize C. reiterate D. understand
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Question 49: She accidentally came up with the solution to the Math problem while

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she was glancing through an online Mathematic forum.


A. chanced upon B. hit upon C. pondered on D. thought about
Question 50: Try to sum up the main key points of this paragraph. Do not go much into detail and you can
get the gist of it.
A. highlight B. analyze C. summarize D. refute
Question 51: Trying a variety of ways to learn will help you to find the way that sticks.
A. is the most reliable B. is the most suitable
C. is a favorite D. is a secret
Question 52: His life is a rich source of inspiration for many writers and poets.
A. nuance B. hindrance
C. discouragement D. encouragement
Question 53: If you have the right qualifications and are good at English, you are very likely to get promoted,
A. elevated B. enlightened C. encouraged Do endorsed
Question 54: Teachers are in the business of molding our youth into the citizens that will eventually run this
country.
A. fitting closely to the shape of B. influencing the way one develops
C. changing the appearance of someone D. transforming the state of spirituality
Question 55: Roosevelt was what we might call a "lifetime learner." Learning became, for him, a mode of
personal enjoyment and a path to professional success. It's a habit many of us would like to emulate.
A. do in the same manner B. look up to
C. follow someone's directions D. come up with

Exercise 5: Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) OPPOSITE
in meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.
Question 56: The teacher asked us to get on with the next exercise and he would be back in a while.
A. finish doing B. start doing C. continue doing D. stop doing
Question 57: The teacher is going to a conference next week, so our presentation will be put off.
A. called off B. taken off C. carried out D. gone off
Question 58: Unnecessary components should be removed from the current program to reduce the
workload for school students.
A. added to B. taken away C. taken off D. got rid of
Question 59: The ultimate aim of lifelong learning is to better yourself for personal or professional
development.
A. utmost B. secondary C. trivial D. main
Question 60: Nowadays, lifelong learning is facilitated by e-learning platforms.
A. hindered B. assisted C. assessed D. accessed
Question 61: An improved quality of learning can be brought about by the utility of computers and other
mobile devices.
A. promoted B. increased C. enhanced D. deteriorated
Question 62: Strongly advocating modern technology, Andy’s parents encourage her to use laptop and tablet
to do homework.
A. supporting B. impugning C. advising D. refusing
Question 63: It is crucial that we provide children with a decent education that focusing on cultivating
essential skills for students to become cosmopolitans.95
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A. sufficient B. inappropriate C. unattached D. proper


Question 64: Some people have criticized the indiscriminate use of modern electronic devices in learning.
Students gradually become too dependent on these gadgets to solve even the simplest problem.
A. conscious B. disciplined C. selective D. wholesale
Question 65: It was apparent from Keisha's face that she didn’t do her homework by herself. She couldn't
even remember how she thought of the answer to the first exercise.
A. evident B. transparent C. inevitable D. indistinct
Question 66: He’s a little slow on the uptake. As a result, he needs to record what the teacher said at
school and listen for several times at time.
A. hear things easily B. hard of hearing
C. understand things easily D. understand things with difficulty
Question 67: Your teacher will go round the bend if you keep on using your mobile phone while she is
teaching.
A. furious B. calm C. resentful D. mystified
Question 68: In some mountainous regions, computers and modern technology at school are few and far
between.
A. easy to find B. difficult to access
C. impossible to reach D. unlikely to happen
Question 69: You really need to change your tune and try some creative techniques to learn instead of
gazing upon the books and learning it by heart.
A. inconsistent B. conservative C. invariable D. innovative
Question 70: These sets of computers are really behind the time and therefore, can't meet the demands
of the whole school.
A. avant-garde B. cutting-edge C. out-of-date D. old-fashioned

Exercise 6: Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to
indicate the correct word or phrase that best fits each of the numbered blanks from 71 to 75.
In today's (71) industry, learning will most likely involve seeking new skills in ways that
challenge the norm. But thankfully, there is promise for such lifelong learning online - a promise that will
save you time and money while helping you earn more of both.
Provided you have access to a decent computer and the Internet, the barrier to getting started is probably
lower than it ever has been. And with those things in place, it is a matter of finding the content you wish
to learn. So, to help others (72) may be looking to maximize their own learning efforts, I
have listed some quick tips below.
First, set achievable goals. When you start learning, it is a good idea to set goals about what you want to
learn or what you might do with your newly acquired knowledge. It might be landing that new job,
building a tangible product, or impressing your current management. The goals may vary in size and (73)
,but do revisit these goals throughout your learning process. Within a couple weeks ask
yourself, "Am I getting closer to my goal?" or "Am I learning the skills necessary to reach my goals?" If
you are not, then you may need to look elsewhere.
Second, learn with others. By yourself, learning anything has a high propensity to become frustrating. Try
(74) up with friends or colleagues. They can often be your best resource for maintaining
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motivation while you learn.
Third, make it a habit. Online habits often include scrolling through social media or watching videos on
Giaoandethitienganh.info

YouTube. If you have the downtime for such activities, then you could spend that downtime learning
something. And why not learn something? If you do, then you will have plenty more to talk about on
social media anyways. So, make learning your new online habit by making a/an (75) to learn
something new each day.

Question 71: A. fast-paced B. fast-moving C. fast-growing D. All are correct


Question 72: A. what B. who C. whom D. whose
Question 73: A. complexion B. complexity C. complex D. complexly
Question 74: A. teaming B. catching C. putting D. taking
Question 75: A. difference B. commitment C. allowance D. exception

Exercise 7: Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to
indicate the correct answer to each of the questions from 76 to 83.
Educating children at home as an alternative to formal education is an option chosen by families in many
parts of the world. The homeschooling movement is popular in the United States, where close to one
million children are educated at home. In Canada, 1 percent of school-age children are homeschooled,
and the idea also enjoys growing popularity in Australia, where 20,000 families homeschool their
children. The movement is not limited to these countries. Homeschooling families can be found all over
the world, from Japan to Taiwan to Argentina to South Africa.
Homeschooling is not a novel idea. In fact, the idea of sending children to spend most of their day away
from home at a formal school is a relatively new custom. In the United States, for example, it was not
until the latter part of the nineteenth century that state governments began making school attendance
compulsory. Before that, the concept of a formal education was not so widespread. Children learned the
skills they would need for adult life at home from tutors or their parents, through formal instruction or by
working side by side with the adults of the family.
In the modern developed world, where the vast majority of children attend school, families choose
homeschooling for a variety of reasons. For people who live in remote areas, such as the Australian
outback or the Alaskan wilderness, homeschooling may be their only option. Children who have
exceptional talents in the arts or other areas may be homeschooled so that they have more time to devote
to their special interests. Much of the homeschooling movement is made up of families who, for various
reasons, are dissatisfied with the schools available to them. They may have a differing educational
philosophy, they may be concerned about the safety of the school environment, or they may feel that the
local schools cannot adequately address their children’s educational needs. Although most families
continue to choose a traditional classroom education for their children, homeschooling as an alternative
educational option is becoming more popular.
(Adapted from Essential words for the IELTS by Dr. Lin Lougheed)
Question 76: Which of the following could be the main idea of the passage?
A. A new form of school: Homeschooling
B. Homeschool option: a common form of education all over the world.
C. The reasons why children should be educated at home.
D. The origin of Homeschooling.
97 2 refer to?
Question 77: What does the word “that” in paragraph
A. the second half of the 19th century B. the beginning of the 19th century
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C. the former part of the 19th century D. the end of the 19th century
Question 78: The word “widespread" in paragraph 2 mostly means
A. uncommon B. customary C. exceptional D. prevalent
Question 79: According to the passage, the following are true about the Homeschooling,
EXCEPT
A. Many families in both developed and developing countries choose to educate their children at
home.
B. Parents or tutors were the ones who taught the children necessary skills in society.
C. People got familiar with school attendance before choosing to learn at home.
D. Before modern times, most students did not attend the school.
Question 80: As mentioned in the last paragraph, children in rural areas
A. have no choice but stay at home to learn.
B. prefer to improve their extraordinary interests.
C. are not contented with the philosophy of the schools available.
D. believe that their needs to study is more than what a normal school can provide.
Question 81: It can be inferred from the last passage that
A. parents’ satisfaction plays an important role in the number of students attending class.
B. teachers’ qualifications may be one of the reasons why students come to school.
C. not many children in modern society are allowed to be educated at home.
D. some schools are unable to provide a safe environment for their students.
Question 82: The word "adequately" in paragraph 3 is closest in meaning to
A. correctly B. applicably
C. sufficiently D. inappropriately
Question 83: What does the author mean in the last sentence?
A. Families are gradually aware of the importance of school attendance.
B. More and more parents choose homeschooling to educate their children.
C. Homeschooling will replace the traditional classroom one day in the future.
D. Many people prefer formal schools because of its fame.

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TOPIC 28

III. PRACTICE EXERCISES


Exercise 1: Mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the word that differs from the other three in the
position of primary stress in each of the following questions.
Question 1: A. contest B. sponsor C. observe D. festival
Question 2:Giaoandethitienganh.info
A. stimulate B. competition C. disappointed D. opportunity
Question 3: A. recite B. organize C. apologize D. participate
Question 4: A. knowledge B. maximum C. athletics D. marathon
Question 5: A. encourage B. compete C. award D. represent

Exercise 2: Mark the letter A, B, C, or D indicate the word whose underlined part differs from the
other three in pronunciation in each of the following questions.
Question 6: A. cold B. calm C. light D. film
Question 7: A. honey B. healthy C. honor D. horrible
Question 8: A. inherit B.enhance C. exhale D. exhaust
Question 9: A. shine B. slight C. strike D. strict
Question 10: A. calendar B.parade C. agrarian D. pagoda

Exercise 3: Mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the correct answer to each of the following
questions.
Question 11: In some countries, activities outside of official institutions are banned.
A. religion B. religious C. religionist D. religiously
Question 12: In Changsha, the education bureau last week issued a to schools not to
celebrate western festivals such as Christmas, including putting up decorations, posting related messages
or exchanging gifts.

A. direct B. direction C. directive D. directional


Question 13: Some people hold the belief that teachers should the education of traditional
culture for students and guide them to refuse overseas festivals.

A. strengthen B. strong C. strength D. stronghold


Question 14: Celebration is a condition
99 to cultivate mutual understanding between people
on both local and global scale.
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A. favorite B. favoring C. favour D. favourable


Question 15: Celebrating new traditions keeps us adapted, which is especially important when we go
through some phases of culture that may affect many of us in the first months after
moving overseas.
A. context B. shock C. preparation D. exchange
Question 16: The rock festival was fun, but it was marred by the organization, which was a
A. chaos B. mess C. shambles D. confusion
Question 17: The school orchestra’s giving a tonight,which sounds quite interesting.
A. recital B. score C. concert D. rehearsal
Question 18: We went to that of Lewis' paintings at the Granchester Museum last week.
A. masterpiece B. audition C. installation D. retrospective
Question 19: During the peak season, prices often rise at most tourist attractions.
A. virtually B. desperately C. dramatically D. regularly
Question 20: Traditional celebrations are an excellent opportunity for exchanging ideas and
information.

A. worldwide B. interculturally C. multinationally D. universally


Question 21: Some people argue that it is justifiableto hold national events and festivals
because of advantages they bring to our country.

A. entirely B. intriguingly C. desperately D. substantially


Question 22: A few people argue that the special events need to be celebrated , as it happens
only a few times in a lifetime.

A. nicely B. grandly C. expressively D. tremendously


Question 23: festivals and events can offer a host of economic and social benefits to
communities.

A. Well-known B. Well-organized C. High-spirited D. Strong-willed


Question 24: While it is tempting to realise the increasein productivity and savings that
might result from abolishing public holidays, the overall cost greatly outweighs the gains.

A. long-lasting B. old-fashioned C. short-term D. quick-witted


Question 25: A place with music and dancing, with parties at night, is called a
A. nightlife B. nightmare C. night-blindness D. nightclub
Question 26: The Panorama is a rather hotel in a black street near the city center.
A. run-down B. ill-equipped C. broken-down D. worn-out
Question 27: It is advisable that the government should anti-social behaviours in relation
to drug and alcohol misuse at festivals.
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A. look down on B. pin down C. crack down on D. drop off
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Question 28: The noise from the unruly fans celebrating their team's victory didn't until early in

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the morning.
A. shut off B. give away C. let up D. fall over
Question 29: We've received permission to the music festival in spite of opposition from
local residents.

A. carry away with B. cope with C. get down to D. go ahead with


Question 30: You shouldn't have sent John that Valentine's card. I think you've scared him

A. back B. down C. off D. through


Question 31: Holding a warm-up activity was good for me I gained a lot of valuable
experience.

A. as far as B. in that C. as for D. in terms of


Question 32: is on 14 February when you give a valentine card to someone you have, or
would like to have, a romantic relationship with.

A. Mother’s Day B. Thanksgiving


C. Independence Day D. Valentine’s Day
Question 33: Because of lack of financial support, we managed to organize this festival
A. at stake B. on a shoestring C. in a nutshell D. under siege
Question 34: The party was already by the time we arrived. Everyone was singing and
dancing happily together.

A. in full swing B. up in the air C. over the moon D. under a cloud


Question 35: A list of events will be posted on the noticeboard.
A. far-reaching B. forthcoming C. approaching D. inevitable
Question 36: The competition he set up for young musicians is another of his life-long
support for the arts.

A. exposition B. manifestation C. token D. exhibition


Question 37: The project to organize International Firework Festival was cancelled while it was still in its

A. beginning B. launch C. commencement D. infancy


Question 38: Some of the world's richest environments were bruised by the tourist and
their most distinctive wildlife was driven to near-extinction. Moreover, wider environmental impacts
might have been caused by the fuel-hungry transport systems.

A. assault B. invasion C. onslaught D. attack


Question 39: In some cultures, people often wear jewelry to ward evil spirits.
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A. for B. against C. off D. from
Question 40: Festival can be a great way to boost the economy of a country, so a great number of indigenous
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people wouldn't have to be a great dilemma to eke out a living on a regular

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basis.
A. under B. on C. of D. in

Exercise 4: Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) CLOSEST in
meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.
Question 41: This national event not only helps enhance city's reputation but also brings happiness and
fulfillment to local residents.
A. boost B. accumulate C. diversify D. tarnish
Question 42: Lunar New Year is an irreplaceable part of Vietnamese people when families gather together
to recollected past events and honor ancestors.
A. flawless B. powerful C. vital D. dispensable
Question 43: Tourism can be a great source of income for the host nation. According to the latest report on
national revenue, almost 41% of Thailand’s GDP come from this lucrative industry.
A. essential B. costly C. profitable D. exceptional
Question 44:1 think our whole plan to mark the event of our school anniversary is going to become
fruitless. Not many students appear willing to take part in our activities.
A. futile B. uninteresting C. favourable D. significant
Question 45: Failing to submit the proposal on time was a nail m the cofffm for Tom.
A. adversity B. failure C. property D. success
Question 46: This celebration can be traced back to the country's precolumbian past.
A. understood B. accelerated C. accomplished D. followed
Question 47: In my daily life I just wear casual clothes at work, so from time to time it feels nice to dress up
and go out like for New Year's Eve tonight.
A. put on special clothes B. change in appearance
C. be new and different D. feel more comfortable and relaxed
Question 48: Did you stay up all night celebrating the new year?
A. go outside B. go to bed later than usual
C. participate in activities D. sleep at one's house
Question 49: Oh my! This place is a disaster! This is the last time I’ll host an all-night party. It’s going to
take all day to straighten it up.
A. dispose it B. reuse it
C. make it clean and tidy D. rearrange it
Question 50: We managed to kick off this event in time despite the heavy rain.
A. commence B. finish C. unfold D. institute

Exercise 5: Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) OPPOSITE
in meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.
Question 51: In spite of occasions that may feel onerous, it is the creative process that entices and
invigorates researchers most.
A. extrudes B. fatigues C. activates D. galvanizes
Question 52: We are ready to be answerable to the manager for anything that goes wrong during the
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international event.
A. accountable B. dutiful C. irresponsible D. dominant
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Question 53: S.Mayo Hospital in New Orleans was so named in recognition of Dr. Mayo's outstanding
humanitarianism.
A. remarkable B. undistinguished C. charitable D. popular
Question 54: It was inevitable that the smaller event management company will merge with the larger.
A. important B. urgent C. necessary D. avoidable
Question 55: The final championship has been postponed until next Saturday due to
the heavy snowstorm.
A. continued B. hosted C. changed D. cancelled
Question 56: We wanted to find a camping site that was a little bit off the beaten path.
A. conspicuous B. popular C. challenging D. mysterious
Question 57: If you are at a loose end this weekend, why don't we hold a BBQ party together.
A. relaxed B. interested C. busy D. free
Question 58: We booked the holiday on the spur of the moment. We hadn't been planning to take a
break at all this summer.
A. suddenly B. simultaneously
C. taking time to think carefully D. swiftly
Question 59: I was so much pressure during the year that I had to go on a trip to let my hair down.
A. be more relaxed B. get rid of anger
C. get more knowledge D. take on more work
Question 60: The party this year was out of this world. We had never tasted such delicious food.
A. terrific B. awful C. gradual D. enormous

Exercise 6: Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to
indicate the correct word or phrase that best fits each of the numbered blanks from 61 to 65.
The provincial Party Committee's information and education board said on January 25 that the "Returning
to the land of Quan ho 2019" festival will consist of 25 activities, including a celebration of the 10th
(61) of Quan ho's recognition by UNESCO, an exchange programme between artisans of
Quan ho and other UNESCO- recognised intangible cultural heritage items of Vietnam, and a programme
of Quan ho folk song performances on boats.
Head of the information and education board Nguyen Dang Tuc said it will be attended by (62)
of 44 original Quan ho villages in Bac Ninh. Five similar villages in the neighbouring
province of Bac Giang were also invited to this event.
"A cultural and tourism week will also be organised on this occasion to (63) Bac Ninh's
image to visitors from across Vietnam and other countries," he added. Fringe activities include a Quan ho
singing competition, a youth camp, and an international women's volleyball tournament.
Quan ho Bac Ninh folk songs were inscribed on the Representative List of the Intangible Cultural
Heritage of Humanity on September 30, 2009. Since then, Bac Ninh has made considerable efforts to
realise its (64) to UNESCO to conserve 105
and uphold the value of this art form, thus obtaining
comprehensive results.
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The songs are alternating response songs between male and female singers. Quan ho singing is common

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at rituals, festivals, competitions, and informal gatherings, (65) guests will perform a variety
of verses for their hosts before singing farewell.
(Source: https://english.vov.vn/culture/bac-ninh-festival)

Question 61: A. ceremony B. anniversary C. celebration D. festival


Question 62: A. artisans B. artists C. arts D. artistic
Question 63: A. broadcast B. welcome C. popularize D. spread
Question 64: A. commitments B. contributions C. ambitions D. introductions
Question 65: A. where B. which C. what D. when

Exercise 7: Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to
indicate the correct answer to each of the questions from 76 to 83.
Japanese Girls' Day-also known as the Doll's Festival-is celebrated on March 3 to pray for the health and
happiness of young girls in Japan. Hinamatsuri, the name of the celebration in Japan, is marked by
families displaying a set of hina dolls in the house and serving special delicacies that are ceremonially
beautiful and delicious.
Traditionally, parents or grandparents of a newborn girl buy a set of hina dolls for the baby, unless they
have special dolls that are inherited from generation to generation. From the end of February to March 3,
hina dolls dressed in Japanese ancient costumes are displayed on tiered platforms that are covered with a
red carpet. The costumed dolls represent the imperial court of the Heian period (A.D. 794 to 1185] and
feature the emperor, empress, attendants, and musicians dressed in traditional garb.
The dolls are displayed hierarchically with the emperor and empress at the top, which are set in front of a
gilded screen representing the thrown. The number of dolls and their size vary from home to home, but
five to seven platforms are common.
It is customary to put the dolls away as soon as the festival is over-there is a superstition that if the dolls
are left out, a family will have trouble marrying off their daughters. After the festival, some people
release paper dolls into the rivers praying that this will send away sickness and bad fortune.
(Adapted from https:'/'/ivwiv. thespruceeats.com/)
Question 66: Which of the following could be the main purpose of the author in the passage?
A. To provide information about Japanese Girls' Day.
B. To explain the meaning of the Doll's Festival.
C. To describe the procedure of Hinamatsuri.
D. To give the brief history of Japanese Girls’ Day.
Question 67: The word "delicacies" in paragraph 1 is closest in meaning to
A. rare flowers B. expensive foods C. traditional cakes D. beverages
Question 68: According to the passage, the following are true about Japanese Girls' Day,
EXCEPT
A. It is organized on March 3 to pray for health and happiness of Japanese girls.
B. Some sets of hina dolls are preserved to pass down the younger generation.
C. Before the festival, hina dolls in ancient costumes are covered with a red carpet.
D. The hina dolls are categorized according to their hierarchy in the imperial court.
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Question 69: What will be done with the dolls after the festival?
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A. being thrown away


B. being stored
C. being sold
D. being displayed in the girls' room
Question 70: What does the word “this” in the last paragraph refer to?
A. marrying off their daughters
B. leaving out the hina dolls
C. putting the dolls away as soon as possible
D. putting paper dolls into the rivers

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TOPIC 29

III. PRACTICE EXERCISES


Exercise 1: Mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the word that differs from the other three in the
position of primary stress in each of the following questions.
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Question 1: A. scientist B. president C. engineer D. astronaut


Question 2: A. latitude B. meridian C. collision D. extremely
Question 3: A. satellites B. axial C. surround D. tension
Question 4: A. cosmonaut B. weightless C. challenge D. obscure
Question 5: A. orbit B. surface C. mannered D. appoint

Exercise 2: Mark the letter A, B, C, or D indicate the word whose underlined part differs from the
other three in pronunciation in each of the following questions.
Question 6: A. foot B. moon C. look D. would
Question 7: A. gravity B. aspiration C. biography D. possible
Question 8: A. technical B. conquest C. psychology D. launched
Question 9: A. national B. venture C. fortunate D. suggestion
Question 10: A. support B. shuttle C. success D. pressure

Exercise 3: Mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the correct answer to each of the following
questions.
Question 11: Gagarin served as the deputy training director of the Cosmonaut Training Centre, which
was named after him.
A. subsequently B. consequently C. eloquently D. frequently
Question 12: There are no true seasons on Jupiter because the inclination
to the perpendicular of the orbital plane is only just over 3° - less than that for any other planet.
A. equatorial B. axial C. meridian D. latitude
Question 13: The most famous mark on Jupiter is the Great Red Spot, which has shown in
both intensity and color, and at times it has been invisible, but it always returns after a few years.
A. varieties B. variations C. variabilities D. variegation
Question 14: The astronaut was in orbit around the Earth at a of more than 17,000 miles per
hour.
A. pace B. speed C. space D. expense
Question 15: No one knew precisely what would happen to a human being in space as well as how the
mind would deal with the psychological ?
A. pressure B. stress C. tension D. changes
Question 16: How would the body react to the changes in temperature?
A. severe B. sudden C. extreme D. rapid
Question 17: On 21 December, 1968 the United States Apollo 8 from the Kennedy Space
Center.
A. started B. launched C. controlled D. took off
Question 18: The astronauts on board, Frank Borman, James Lovell and William Anders, were the first
humans to to the moon.
A. pay a visit B. break their journey C. journey D. take a trip
Question 19: The craft the moon ten times and sent television pictures of
its surface back to Earth.
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A. circled B. rounded C. surrounded D. orbited
Question 20: Six hours after a successful on the moon, Neil Armstrong was ready to leave
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the Eagle.
A. grounding B. landing C. staying D. traveling
Question 21: Neil Armstrong wore the special and heavy boots. He placed his foot on the
moon's surface and that's one small step for a man, one giant for mankind.
A. space-suit/jump B. space-clothes/leap
C. space-suit/leap D. space-clothes/jump
Question 22: The exploration of Mars is being carried out by means of
A. satellites B. shuttle C. plane D. spacecraft
Question 23: Yuri Gagarin could have made another space flight if a tragic accident had not
A. happened B. been happened C. occurred D. taken place
Question 24: China became the third country in the world to be able to independently carry
out space flights.
A. manned B. mankind C. man-made D. mannered
Question 25: Yuri Gagarin lifted into space aboard the Vostok 1 at 9.07 a.m. Moscow time
on 12th April, 1961.
A. on B. up C. off D. of
Question 26: After nearly five months of , the first tenants of the international space station
said they are eager to return to Earth.
A. weight B. weighting C. weightless D. weightlessness
Question 27: Although his flight lasted only 108 minutes, its made him a national hero.
A. succeed B. successful C. successive D. success
Question 28: Before Gagarin’s flight, there were still enormous uncertainties.
A. historical B. historic C. history D. historian
Question 29: It is discovered that the only forms of life found are vegetation like fungi and mosses on
Mars , people remain fascinated by the idea that there could one day be life on Mars.
A. According B. Nevertheless C. Thus D. Consequently
Question 30: There is one planet that still fascinates and teases scientists mainly because it doesn’t have
an atmosphere to observation, yet it is not big enough for sufficiently accurate telescopic
observation.
A. obscure B. observe C. occur D. omit
Question 31: The moon is our dose neighbor, and humans have been exploring its surface
ever since they first developed telescopes.
A. cosmological B. cosmic C. aeolian D. heavenly
Question 32: Dark matter in the is believed by some scientists to be a substance that is not
readily observable because it does not directly refract light or energy.
A. universe B. global C. world D. planet
Question 33: The existence of many stars in the sky us to suspect that there may be life on
another planet.
A. lead B. leading C. have led D. leads
Question 34: Astronomers also think that perhaps a small of water vapor could be found on
Mars.
A. quantity B. amount C.
111portion D. mass
Question 35: In studying this planet, astronomers have found that life may be possible on Mars. The
first of this is that Mars has seasons, just like Earth.
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A. indication B. print C. mark D. trace


Question 36: Sputnik was the first satellite made by the USSR.
A. manned B. natural C. artificial D. live
Question 37: From his window in space, Gagarin had a of the Earth that no human beings
had done before.
A. description B. view C. recognition D. attention
Question 38: The successful flight marked a in China's space project.
A. landmark B. record C. milestone D. progress
Question 39: His flight was in around the Earth at the speed of more than 17,000 miles per
hour.
A. orbit B. travel C. circuit D. revolve
Question 40: Some writers of science-fiction think of people from Mars little green creatures.
Others imagine "Martians" as monsters with many eyes.
A. like B. to be C. as being D. as

Exercise 4: Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) CLOSEST in
meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.
Question 41: Yuri Gagarin was a Soviet Air Forces pilot and cosmonaut who became the first human to
journey into outer space, achieving a major milestone in the Space Race.
A. orbit B. travel C. lift D. launch
Question 42: On average, Jupiter is the brightest of the planets apart from Venus, though for relatively
brief periods Mars may outshine it.
A. surpass B. overcome C. overwhelm D. outgrow
Question 43: Though the latitude of the Red Spot varies little, it drifts about in longitude.
A. floats gently B. forces strongly
C. moves slowly D. changes rapidly
Question 44: Some scientists would argue that it is the understanding of gravitational force that leads
most scientists to believe in the existence of dark matter, because without dark matter, there are many
cosmological phenomena that are difficult to explain.
A. surprises B. problems C. occurrences D. attitudes
Question 45: While they do not claim that their findings should be interpreted to conclude that dark
matter does not exist, they apparently believe that the results of their studies cast doubt on some of the
conventional theories of galaxy formation and manipulation.
A. formally disputed B. strictly interpreted
C. easily understood D. generally accepted
Question 46: The meteorite weighed about 10,000 tons, entered the atmosphere at a speed of 64,000
km/h and exploded over a city with a blast of 500 kilotons.
A. explosion B. collision C. event D. crisis
Question 47: Most scientists agree that comets and asteroids pose the biggest natural threat to human
existence.
A. appearance B. extinction C. presence D. destruction
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Question 48: Many scientists, including the late Stephen Hawking, say that any comet or asteroid greater
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than 20 km in diameter that hits Earth will result in the complete destruction of complex life,
including all animals and most plants.
A. lead to B. lead off C. lead up to D. lead from
Question 49: The Earth has been kept fairly safe for the last 65 million years by good fortune and the
massive gravitational field of the planet Jupiter.
A. chance B. luck C. opportunity D. coincide
Question 50: Astronomers have measured the abundance of helium throughout our galaxy and in other
galaxies as well.
A. determined B. estimate C. discovered D. adjust

Exercise 5: Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) OPPOSITE
in meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.
Question 51: Jupiter is the largest and most massive planet and is fifth in order of distance from the sun.
A. colossal B. enormous C. gigantic D. diminutive
Question 52: In astronomy, a scale of magnitude from one to six denotes the brightness of a star.
A. lightness B. darkness C. colorfulness D. intelligence
Question 53: Unfortunately Ranger 4 was unable to return any scientific data before slamming into the
far side of the moon.
A. flying over B. crashing into C. taking off D. getting out of
Question 54: In 1962 NASA placed its first spacecraft on the moon-Ranger 4. The Ranger missions
were kamikaze missions; the spacecraft were engineered to streak straight toward the moon and capture
as many images as possible before crashing onto its surface.
A. This spacecraft was programmed to fly around the moon to take photos.
B. This spacecraft was designed to return to the Earth after fulfill its missions.
C. There was a lot of equipment enclosed in this spacecraft to help it fulfil its designed missions.
D. The Ranger only manufactured to send as many photos it took as possible round the dark side of
the moon.
Question 55: In 1966 the Soviet spacecraft Luna 9 overcame the moon’s topographic hurdles and
became the first vehicle to soft-land safely on the surface.
A. blockade B. hindrance C. impediment D. easiness
Question 56: The air that surrounding our planet is odorless, colorless, and invisible.
A. detectable B. obvious C. imperceptible D. unviewable
Question 57: Man has witnessed a great many significant achievements of science and technology in the
past few decades.
A. trophies B. feats C. successes D. failures
Question 58: China became the third country in the world to be able to independently carry out manned
space flights.
A. conduct B. practice C. quit D. apply
Question 59: In July of 1994, an astounding series of events took place. The world anxiously watched as,
every few hours, a hurtling chunk of comet plunged into the atmosphere of Jupiter.
A. worriedly B. restively 113
C. passionately D. comfortably
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Question 60: One of the great truths revealed by the last few decades of planetary exploration is that
collisions between bodies of all sizes are relatively commonplace, at least in geologic terms, and were
even more frequent in the early solar system.
A. given away B. let on C. showed off D. holed up

Exercise 6: Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to
indicate the correct word or phrase that best fits each of the numbered blanks from 61 to 65.
The idea of life in (61) space has been talked about for a long time. Some scientists say that
life development on Earth was far too unlikely for it to have happened anywhere else. Things had to be
perfect for us to make it on this planet. Other scientists say that space is too big. Stars and other planets
are far too numerous for there to be no other life in the universe.
For many years, there have been reports of visitors from other planets. People all around the world have
claimed to see alien spaceships or even aliens themselves. There have been (62) of these
so-called UFOs (unidentified flying objects) flying through the air and they have even been captured on
video. Some Americans believe that the U.S. Army found an alien spaceship crashed in the desert and
then lied to the press about it. (63) these sightings may be true, scientists have not found
significant evidence that aliens exist.
If you go out into the countryside on a clear night and look up, you can see thousands of stars. Those stars
(64) a tiny part of our unnlverse. There are more stars, planets, and galaxies than we can
count. Even the smartest scientists can’t even come close to defining how big space is. The number of
possible stars and planets out there is bigger than our ability to count. If we are really on the only planet
that can (65) life, then we are very special in a universe full of amazing things.
(Source: https://www.nationalgeographic.com)

Question 61: A. inter B. outer C. outside D. inside


Question 62: A. glimpses B. glance C. binocular D. stare
Question 63: A. Because B. Therefore C. However D. Although
Question 64: A. take up B. make up C. catch up D. go up
Question 65: A. keep B. maintain C. sustain D. preserve

Exercise 7: Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to
indicate the correct answer to each of the questions from 66 to 70.
Called the "Red Planet" Mars is roughly half the size of Earth, and one of our closest neighboring planets.
Though Mars is the most Earth-like of any other planet, the two are still worlds apart. Living on Mars has
been the stuff of science fiction for decades. However, can humans really live on Mars? Will it ever be
possible or safe? NASA (the National Aeronautics and Space Administration) hopes to find out. NASA
researchers on Earth are conducting several experiments together with the International Space Station
(ISS) to study the health and safety issues that may tell us if life on Mars is possible.
Food and oxygen would be the main necessities for114
travelers living extended periods on Mars. The need
to grow plants, which provide both food and oxygen, would be a key. But the decreased gravity and low
atmospheric pressure environment of the planet will stress the plants and make them hard to grow.
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However, space station crews are growing plants in controlled environments in two of the station’s
greenhouses. They take care of the plants, photograph them, and collect samples to be sent back to Earth.
Researchers then use the data to develop new techniques that will make it possible to grow plants
successfully in space.
Another concern for space travelers is the health hazards posed by the effect of space radiation on
humans. A spacecraft traveling to Mars would be exposed to large amounts of radiation. Since human
exposure to such intense radiation would mean certain death, the spacecraft used for such travel would
have to protect the humans on the inside of the craft from exposure. Researchers are using special
machines inside the crew areas of the International Space Station to carefully watch radiation levels.
NASA scientists, who have maintained radiation data since the beginning of human space flight, continue
to learn about the dangers it poses. Researchers use the station to test materials that could be used in
making a spacecraft that could successfully travel to Mars.
Will it ever be safe for humans to live on Mars? It is still too early to say. But thanks to the dedicated
researchers of NASA and the results of ISS experiments, we are getting closer to knowing every day.
(Adapted from "Select Readings -Intermediate Tests" by Linda Lee and Erik Gundersen)
Question 66: What does the passage mainly discuss?
A. The potential of Mars. B. Life on Mars.
C. The experiments on Mars. D. The pressure on Mars.
Question 67: What does the word "they" in paragraph 2 refer to?
A. space station crews B. plants
C. environments D. station’s greenhouses
Question 68: As mentioned in paragraph 2, why can’t people grow plants successfully in space?
A. Because there is a lack of food and oxygen on Mars.
B. Because there aren't enough station's greenhouses to control the environments.
C. Because of the reduced gravity and low atmospheric pressure environment.
D. Because of the shortage of new techniques.
Question 69: The word “hazards" in paragraph 3 is closest in meaning to
A. dangers B. problems C. diseases D. symptoms
Question 70: According to paragraph 3, which of the following is the demand for manufacturing
spacecrafts travelling to Mars?
A. They must contain special machines inside to watch radiation levels.
B. They have to be made from special materials which are light and safe for travelling.
C. They have to maintain radiation data from the beginning of human space flight inside.
D. They have to protect travelers from radiation exposure effectively

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TOPIC 30
TT

III. PRACTICE EXERCISES


Exercise 1: Mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the word that differs from the other three in the
position of primary stress in each of the following questions.
Question 1: A. camouflage B. predatory C. eusocial D. fingerprints
Question 2: A. illusion B. collision C identified D. bulldozer
Question 3: A. cataclysm B. vocalization C. microfossil D. ecosystem
Question 4: A. congenial B. entombed C. sediment D. felicity
Question 5: A. extract B. assault C. antenna D.agony

Exercise 2: Mark the letter A, B, C, or D indicate the word whose underlined part differs from the
other three in pronunciation in each of the following questions.
Question 6: A. reliable B. living C. revival D. final
Question 7: A. massage B. carriage C. voyage D. dosage
Question 8: A. immediate B. intermediate C. medium D. medicine
Question 9: A. seizure B. measure C. confusion D. tension
Question 10: A. distribute B. tribe C. triangle D. trial

Exercise 3: Mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the correct answer to each of the following
questions.
Question 11: Camouflage is a way of hiding that allows an animal to blend in with its environment or
otherwise go by predators.
A. noticeably B. noticed C. unnoticed D. unnoticeable
Question 12: The latest in science news is inspirational for a new generation of thinkers who will
continue to push the boundaries of human
A. inability B. capability C. disability D. capacitation
Question 13: Industry 4.0 is hailed as a revolutionary approach in the manufacturing industry. New
technology will push global manufacturers to a new level of optimization and
A. producer B. products C. reproduction D. productivity
Question 14: Mammals are vertebrate animals and bythe presence of mammary glands which
in females produce milk for feeding their offspring.116
A. characteristic B. characteristically C. characterized D. characters
Question 15: The plague known as the Black Death was a disease in the 18th century.
However, this epidemic is now controlled thanks to advancements in medical science.
A. contingent B. contiguous C. contagious D. congenial
Question 16: Although organ transplantation can bring patients back to life, the cost of this practice
is and not everybody can afford it.
A. repressive B. prohibitive C. restrictive D. exclusive
Question 17: Marine construction technology like this is very complex, somewhat totrying to
build a waterproof bridge under rivers.
A. incumbent B. synchronized C. correlative D. analogous
Question 18: The ultramodern printers using laser can reproduce photographes with amazing
A. felicity B. fidelity C. frugality D. futility
Question 19: He burnt himself when he added acid sulfuric into the water during his
experiment in the school laboratory.
A. incongruously B. inadvertently C. vehemently D. graciously
Question 20: In the morning seminar, the researcher talks about how important Biology is in
our daily life, his face glowing with enthusiasm.
A. dolefully B. spasmodically C. insidiously D. zealously
Question 21: Albert Einstein is one of the greatest scientists ever, who had a major impact on
the birth of modern quantum Physics.
A. haphazardly B. begrudgingly C. indubitably D. jovially
Question 22: It was clear to me what they meant by their precautions. The opposite party
must have been carrying out some experiments to produce a fatal toxic.
A. blatantly B. tantalizingly C. acutely D. abundantly
Question 23: Scientific happen across the globe each year as the world's top researchers
make innovative discoveries that alter life on the earth and change our perception of reality.
A. outbreaks B. breakthroughs C. break-ins D. breakups
Question 24: With new tools and analyses, researchers are helping to detect clandestine
nuclear weapons and keep deadly materials from going astray.
A. heart-rending B. painstaking C. nerve-racking D. hair-raising
Question 25: Antibiotics are a scientific discovery. We wouldn't live nearly as long as we do
without them.
A. lifespan B. short-lived C. life-changing D. lifelong
Question 26: He subscribed to the "theory" that the Earth is flat and in the center of the solar
system, which has been proved to be antiscientific for long time ago.
A. soft-heartedly B. half-heartedly C. light-heartedly D. whole-heartedly
Question 27: When the professor advanced his theory at a medical conference a couple of years ago,
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everyone was skeptical about its validity. However, the latest research has it

118
A. stood/for B. borne/out C. cleared/at D. carried/out
Question 28: The plan to produce eco-friendly synthetic products which can replace
plastic due to a lack of capital.
A. fell through B. dropped off C. dropped away D. fell away
Question 29: It is a common knowledge that no one can function properly if he or she is
adequate sleep.
A. taken away B. deprived of C. kicked out D. stopped off
Question 30: At the meeting someone the idea that anti-carcinogenic food must be further
examined as it still contains some dangerous unknown bacteria.
A. put away B. put across C. put about D. put forward
Question 31: Regarding scientific aspects, the difference between your estimate and mine is just too
small to mention. It makes no sense to about it.
A. talk shop B. brave the elements
C. chew the fat D. split hairs
Question 32: I hope the chemistry course starts this term. We’re all as keen as to learn about
how chemical compounds are founded and their application in real life.
A. cornflakes B. a cucumber C. a gigolo D. mustard
Question 33: My father refused to eat meat that had been fried. He had in his bonnet about it
causing cancer as he had read it on a science magazine.
A. a bee B. a bug C. an ant D. a bull
Question 34: People have long relied on the stars overhead to find way home when they lost
their Nowadays, people use modern compasses to determine direction.
A. heart B. marbles C. bearings D. rag
Question 35: Using genetic , an organism’s genes can be directly manipulated to create a new
or productive species.
A. variation B. amendment C. adjustment D. modification
Question 36: Ultra violet can have serious on a person's physical conditions as it can deform
structures of each cells within one's body.
A. deteriorations B. reactions C. repercussions D. demerits
Question 37: We can only as to the causes of the diseases now that we cannot trace the origin
of them.
A. think B. speculate C. ponder D. consider
Question 38: Why do you have such a with Mathematics. I think working with numbers and
figures is bored stiff!
A. preference B. enchantment C. fascination D. desire
Question 39: In my opinion, animal testing is morally wrong and people should not be allowed to
perform experiments these non-human living creatures.
A. to B. on C. over D. for
119
Question 40: The telescope will photograph distant galaxies, an attempt to fully understand

120
their location and formation.
A. on B. with C. in D. under

Exercise 4: Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) CLOSEST in
meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.
Question 41: In electromagnetics, an evanescent field is an oscillating electric that does not propagate as an
electromagnetic wave but whose energy is spatially concentrated in the vicinity of the source.
A. contemptible B. transient C. cynical D. malevolent
Question 42: Scientists have been studying the idea of harvesting ice as a possible solution to the problem of
the world’s dwindling fresh water supply.
A. developing B. insignificant C. inferior D. declining
Question 43: A common presupposition for all of these theories was that the Maya natives were too
unskilled and primitive to build these intricate and complex structures.
A. contradiction B. question C. assumption D. conclusion
Question 44: The principle of parsimony, which tells researchers to choose the simplest scientific
explanation that fits the evidence, is a fundamental aspect of science.
A. intelligence B. extravagance C. frugality D. desire
Question 45: The discovery of such a huge freshwater lake trapped under Antarctica is of interest to the
scientific community because of the potential that the lake contains ancient microbes that have survived
for thousands upon thousands of years.
A. pieces of dust B. tiny bubbles C. ray of lights D. tiny organisms
Question 46: Before deciding to dig up human remains, archeologists must first ask themselves a
complicated set of questions as this practice can run against the cultural and religious belief of certain
groups.
A. occlude B. entomb C. excavate D. bury
Question 47: Pseudo-intellectual organizations seem to have sprung up everywhere these days.
A. detonated B. eliminated C. diminished D. boomed
Question 48: Putting a carrot in salty water will make it shrivel up, as water leaves the cells of the carrot to
enter the salty water - a process called osmosis.
A. expand B. swell C. shrink D. unhealthy
Question 49: I suddenly cottoned on to the fact that I had made a mistake in the previous experiment. I
should have detached water molecules from saltwater, not salt atoms.
A. misconstrued B. misjudged C. realized D. consolidated
Question 50: You should water down this solution by adding more solvent to it to decrease the
concentration of solute in it.
A. dilute B. soothe C. assuage D. offset

121
Exercise 5: Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) OPPOSITE
in meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.
Question 51: Genetic engineering is a set of technologies used to change the genetic makeup of cells,
including the transfer of genes within and across species boundaries to produce improved or novel
organisms.
A. extraordinary B. malignant C. benign D. common
Question 52: This technique can potentially fix severe genetic disorders in humans by replacing the
defective genes with a functioning ones.
A. faulty B. normal C. blemished D. adequate
Question 53: The theory of relativity predicts that a sufficiently compact mass can deform space time to
form a black hole.
A. fragile B. loose C. tight D. solid
Question 54: The gravitational attraction of the original gaseous matter present in the universe caused it to
begin coalescing, forming stars - and for the stars to group together into galaxies.
A. isolating B. amalgamating C. separating D. merging
Question 55: A colloid is homogeneous solution with intermediate particle size between a solution and a
suspension.
A. simultaneous B. consanguineous C. miscellaneous D. heterogeneous
Question 56:1 am just a cog in the machine in this organization as my contribution to it is still minor.
A. negligible B. pivotal
C. of little importance D. of complete indifference
Question 57: What ruins our presentation on the mitosis process is that Natasha and Jackie are not on the
same wavelength about how to deal with it.
A. not familiar-thinking B. not like-minded
C. not same-minded D. not though-sharing
Question 58: This task is not rocket science. Just focus on observing this reaction and you can reach a
conclusion on chemical properties of bronze.
A. difficult B. uncomplicated C. effortless D. trivial
Question 59: The National Aeronautics and Space Administration has notified mission managers of its intent
to pull the plug on several projects, including the prized Voyager spacecraft.
A. linger B. continue C. deter D. exacerbate
Question 60: Adults, particularly older ones or those with a(n) run-down immune system, can also contract
shingles (herpes zoster) from a child with chickenpox.
A. dilapidated B. enervated C. uncared-for D. washed-out

Exercise 6: Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to
indicate the correct word or phrase that best fits each of the numbered blanks from 61 to 65.
Many people believe the glare from snow causes snow-blindness. Yet, dark glasses or not, they find
themselves suffering from headaches and watering eyes, and even snowblindness, when exposed to
122
several hours of “snow light".

123
The United States Army has now determined that the glare from snow does not cause snow-blindness in
troops in a snow-covered country. Rather, a man’s eyes frequently find nothing to focus on in a broad
expanse of a snow-covered area. So his gaze continually shifts and jumps back and forth over the entire
landscape in search of something to look at. Finding nothing, hour after hour, the eyes never stop
searching and the eyeballs become sore and the eye muscles ache. Nature balances this annoyance by
producing more and more liquid which covers the eyeballs. The liquid covers the eyeballs in increasing
quantity until vision blurs. And the result is total, even though temporary, snow-blindness.
Experiments led the Army to a simple method of overcoming this problem. Scouts ahead of a main body
of troops are trained to shake snow from evergreen bushes, creating a dotted line as they cross completely
snow-covered landscape. Even the scouts themselves throw lightweight, dark-colored objects ahead on
which they too can focus. The men following can then see something. Their gaze is arrested. Their eyes
focus on a bush and having found something to see, stop searching through the snow-blanketed
landscape. By focusing their attention on one object at a time, the men can cross the snow without
becoming hopelessly snow-blind or lost: In this way the problem of crossing a solid white area is
overcome.
(Source: http://www.mofangge.com/html/qDetail)
Question 61: To prevent headaches, watering eyes and blindness caused by the glare from snow, dark
glasses are
A. indispensable B. useful C. ineffective D. available
Question 62: The eyeballs become sore and the eye muscles ache because
A. tears cover the eyeballs
B. the eyes are annoyed by blinding sunlight
C. the eyes are annoyed by blinding snow
D. there is nothing to focus on
Question 63: According to the passage, snow-blindness may be avoided by concentrating on
A. the solid white terrain
B. searching for something to look at in snow-covered terrain
C. providing the eyes with something to focus on
D. covering the eyeballs with fluid
Question 64: The underlined word “they" in the third paragraph refers to
A. experiments B. scouts C. main troops D. bushes
Question 65: A suitable title for this passage would be
A. Snow-blindness and How to Overcome It
B. Nature’s Cure for Snow-blindness
C. Soldiers Marching in the Snow
D. Snow Vision and Its Effect on Eyesight

Exercise 7: Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to
indicate the correct answer to each of the questions from 76 to 83.
124
Most people wish they had better memories. They also worry about forgetting things as they get older.
But did you know that we have different kinds of memory? When one or more of these kinds of

125
memories start to fail, there are a few simple things that everyone can do to improve their memories.
What most people think of as memory is, in fact, five different categories of memory. Our capability to
remember things from the past, that is, years or days ago, depends on two categories of memory. They are
remote memory and recent memory, respectively. Think back to last year’s birthday. What did you do? If
you can't remember that, you are having a problem with your remote memory. On the other hand, if you
can’t remember what you ate for lunch yesterday, that is a problem with your recent memory.
Remembering past events is only one way we use memories. When taking a test, we need to draw on our
semantic memories. That is the sum of our acquired knowledge. Or maybe we want to remember to do or
use something in the future, either minutes or days from now. These cases use our immediate and
prospective memories, respectively. Have you ever thought to yourself, “I need to remember to turn off
the light," but then promptly forgot it? That would be a faulty immediate memory. On the other hand,
maybe you can easily remember to meet your friend for lunch next week. That means that at least your
prospective memory is in good working order.
Many people think that developing a bad memory is unavoidable as we get older, but this is actually not
the case. Of our five kinds of memory, immediate, remote, and prospective (if aided with cues like
memos) do not degrade with age. But how can we prevent a diminishing of our semantic and unaided
prospective memories? The secret seems to be activity. Studies have shown that a little mental activity,
like learning new things or even doing crossword puzzles, goes a long way in positively affecting our
memories. Regular physical activity appears to be able to make our memories better as well. This is
possibly due to having a better blood supply to the brain. The one thing to avoid at all costs, though, is
stress. When we are stressed, our bodies release a hormone called cortisol, which is harmful to our brain
cells and thus our memories. Reducing stress through meditation, exercise, or other activities can help to
preserve our mental abilities.
(Adapted from Reading Challenge 3 by Casey Malarcher and Andrea Janzen)
Question 66: What is the main topic of the passage?
A. How to have better memories when getting older.
B. Different types of memory will support each other to maintain people’s memory.
C. Different kinds of memory and the measures to preserve them.
B. How people can control their different kinds of memory
Question 67: If your remote memory is in bad condition, you can't remember what you did
A. yesterday B. last week C. a year ago D. some days ago
Question 68: What is the phrase “these cases" in paragraph 3 refer to?
A. what we should do in some minutes or some days from now
B. what we did in the past and what we will do in the future
C. what we want to do and what we want to use in the future
D. what we remembered in the past and what we have to remember in the future
Question 69: The word “promptly" in paragraph 3 is closest in meaning to
A. gradually B. immediately C. slowly D. punctually
Question 70: According to the passage, which kind of memory is used if we want to remember some
arrangements in the next some days? 126
A. remote memory B. semantic memory

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C. immediate memory D. prospective memory


Question 71: The word “degrade" in paragraph 4 mostly means
A. worsen B. improve C. expand D. recover
Question 72: According to the last paragraph, which of the following is NOT true?
A. Some kinds of memory will get bad when people are older.
B. Playing some intellectual games may help people maintain their memory.
C. Mental activities have some positive effects on physical health.
D. Stress is the major reason of memory degradation.
Question 73: It can be inferred from the last paragraph that
A. The elderly's memory may be in good working order if they have healthily mental and physical
activities.
B. The secret of having good memories is preserving semantic and unaided prospective memories.
C. All people have a good memory if their jobs relate to intellectual activities.
D. The knowledge we acquired in the past may affect our memories when we are older.

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