Sbi Po Prelims Day-31 (E) 169763451631

SBI PO Prelims PDF Course 2023
Reasoning Ability Day - 31 (Eng)
Reasoning Ability
Directions (1-5): Study the following information 3. Four of the following five are alike in a certain
carefully and answer the given questions way based on the given arrangement and thus
Ten persons - A, B, C, D, E, F, G, H, I and J went form a group. Which one of the following does
to Sri Lanka on 21st August of ten different years not belong to the group?
viz. 1985, 1988, 1990, 1993, 1998, 2000, 2004, a) B
2009, 2011 and 2014. Only one person went in b) F
each year. c) C
A went eleven years before J. J and I went with a d) G
gap of less than 5 years. I went in an even e) A
numbered year. As many persons went after I as
before G. The difference between the years in 4. Who among the following persons went in an
which G and E went is eight years. C went two even numbered year?
years before F. The number of persons went I. The one who went two persons before C
between F and I is one more than the number of II. B
persons went between C and D. B went III. The one who went immediately after F
immediately before H. a) Only I
1. Who among the following person went two b) Only II
years after J? c) Only I and III
a) B d) Only II and III
b) A e) All I, II and III
c) I
d) D 5. Which of the following statement is true as per
e) No one the given arrangement?
a) F went in an even numbered year
2. If the persons are arranged in reverse b) Three persons went between H and I
alphabetical order from 1985 to 2014, then how c) Two persons went after A
many persons remain in the same position? d) A went in 1990
a) One e) None is true
b) Two
c) Three Directions (6-10): Study the following information
d) Four carefully and answer the given questions
e) None
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Eight persons – L, M, N, O, P, Q, R and S are 8. The number of persons from the right of O to
sitting around a circular table facing the centre ___ is the same as the number of persons from
with equal distance between adjacent persons. the left of Q to ____.
All of them use different pen brands viz., Linc, a) L, M
Reynolds, Parker, Montex, Unomax, Luxor, b) S, R
Rorito and Hauser. c) P, O
The one who uses Reynolds sits third to the right d) R, P
of P. One person sits between L and P but both e) M, R
are not using Montex. The one who uses Montex
sits second to the left of M, where both of them 9. How many persons sit between L and the one
are not immediate neighbours of P and L. O, who who has Reynolds pen when counted from the
uses Linc, sits opposite to the one who uses right of L?
Luxor. N is an immediate neighbour of the one a) One
who uses Luxor. S uses Parker but does not sit b) Two
opposite to R. The one who uses Rorito is an c) Three
immediate neighbour of Q. Neither P nor M uses d) None
Hauser. e) Four
6. Who among the following person uses Luxor
pen? 10. Who among the following person sits
a) The one who sits opposite to M opposite to P?
b) O a) S
c) The one who sits second to the left of Q b) The one who uses Linc pen
d) Q c) L
e) S d) The one who uses Rorito pen
e) N
7. If all the persons are made to sit in the
alphabetical order from L in a clockwise order, Directions (11-15): Study the following
then how many persons are unchanged in their information carefully and answer the given
position (excluding L)? questions
a) One Seven persons – P, Q, R, S, T, U and V live on
b) Two seven different floors of a seven storeyed
c) Three building where the lowermost floor is numbered
d) Four one and the floor immediately above it is
e) None numbered two and so on. No two persons live on

the same floor. They have different broadband 13. Which of the following statement(s) is/are
connections in their home viz., Airtel, Jio, true as per the given arrangement?
Vodafone, BSNL, ACT, Hathway and Railwire. I. Q has Vodafone
Only two persons live between the one who has II. P lives on the 5th floor
Hathway and U, who lives on an even numbered III. Q lives on the topmost floor
floor. V lives two floors below U. V and the one a) Only I
who has Jio are living on adjacent floors. Only b) Only II
two floors are between Q and the one who has c) Only I and II
Jio. As many persons live below Q as above the d) Only II and III
one who has Airtel. S, who has Railwire, lives e) All I, II and III
immediately below the one who has Vodafone.
The number of persons living between V and R is 14. As many persons live above ______ as below
one more than the number of persons living ______.
between S and T. Neither U nor R has BSNL. a) U, Q
The one who has ACT does not live on an even b) P, S
numbered floor. c) T, R
11. How many persons live between U and the d) Q, V
one who has Hathway? e) R, Q
a) One
b) Two 15. Who among the following person lives on the
c) As many persons live between V and P topmost floor?
d) Three a) The one who has Vodafone
e) As many persons live between S and R b) V
c) P
12. If P is related to ACT and Q is related to d) S
BSNL in a certain way. Then who among the e) The one who has ACT
following is related to Jio?
a) S Directions (16-20): Study the following
b) R information carefully and answer the given
c) U questions
d) T Nine persons - A, B, C, D, E, F, G, H and I are
e) P sitting in a linear row. Some of them are facing
north while some of them are facing south.

Note: The consecutive alphabetically named d) D

persons are not sitting adjacent to each other. e) H
Not more than two adjacent persons facing the
same direction. 18.If the position of A and G are interchanged in
A sits fourth to the right of F. Only two persons sit the same way the position of F and B are
between F and B, who does not sit at extreme interchanged, then who among the following
end of the row. C sits third to the right of G, who person sits second to the right of A?
does not face the same direction as F. The a) F
immediate neighbours of C are facing opposite b) G
directions to each other. The number of persons c) H
sitting between A and G is one less than the d) B
number of persons sitting between C and D. e) I
Atleast two persons sit between D and E, where
both are facing opposite directions. The persons 19. Who among the following person sits second
sitting at the ends of the row face the same from one of the extreme ends of the row?
direction. The immediate neighbours of H are a) The one who sits to the immediate right of E
facing opposite direction that of H. I faces north b) E
direction. c) The one who sits second to the left of C
16. What is the position of C with respect to I? d) F
a) Third to the right e) Both b and c
b) Second to the left
c) Second to the right 20. Which of the following pair of persons face
d) Immediate left opposite directions to each other?
e) Immediate right I. EI
II. HD
17. Four of the following five are alike in a certain III. FC
way based on the given arrangement and thus a) Only I
form a group. Which one of the following does b) Only II
not belong to the group? c) Only I and II
a) A d) Only II and III
b) E e) All I, II and III
c) G
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Answer Key with Explanation
Directions (1-5):
1. Answer: E
2. Answer: A
3. Answer: D
(All the persons went on an odd numbered year
except option d)
4. Answer: C
5. Answer: B
Final arrangement:
Again we have,
 The difference between the years in which
G and E went is eight years.
 C went two years before F.
We have,
 A went eleven years before J.
 J and I went with a gap of less than 5
years.
 I went in an even numbered year.
 As many persons went after I as before G,
From the above conditions, we have two
Again we have,
possibilities
 The number of persons went between F
and I is one more than the number of
persons went between C and D.
 B went immediately before H.

We cannot place B and H in case 2. Hence it is  The one who uses Reynolds sits third to
eliminated. Thus, case 1 gives the final the right of P.
arrangement.  One person sits between L and P but both
are not using Montex.
 The one who uses Montex sits second to
the left of M, where both of them are not
immediate neighbours of P and L.
possibilities,
Directions (6-10):
6. Answer: C
7. Answer: A
8. Answer: B
9. Answer: E
10. Answer: D
Final arrangement:
Again we have,
 O, who uses Linc, sits opposite to the one
who uses Luxor.
 N is an immediate neighbour of the one
who uses Luxor.
We have,

Again we have,
 S uses Parker but does not sit opposite to
R. Directions (11-15):
 The one who uses Rorito is an immediate 11. Answer: B
neighbour of Q. 12. Answer: D
 Neither P nor M uses Hauser. 13. Answer: C
We cannot place the one who uses Hauser pen 14. Answer: A
in case 2. Hence it is eliminated. Thus case 1 15. Answer: E
gives the final arrangement. Final arrangement:
We have,

 Only two persons live between the one  The number of persons living between V
who has Hathway and U, who lives on an and R is one more than the number of
even numbered floor. persons living between S and T.
 V lives two floors below U.  Neither U nor R has BSNL.
 V and the one who has Jio are living on  The one who has ACT does not live on an
adjacent floors. even numbered floor.
 Only two floors are between Q and the We cannot place BSNL in case 3. Hence it is
one who has Jio. eliminated.
From the above conditions, we have three The one who uses ACT lives on even numbered
possibilities, floor in case 2. Hence it is eliminated. Thus, case
1 gives the final arrangement.
Again we have,
 As many persons live below Q as above
the one who has Airtel. Directions (16-20):
 S, who has Railwire, lives immediately 16. Answer: C
below the one who has Vodafone. 17. Answer: B
(All the persons face north direction except
option b)
18. Answer: D
19. Answer: E
20. Answer: A
Final arrangement:
Again we have, We have,

 A sits fourth to the right of F.

 Only two persons sit between F and B,

who does not sit at extreme end of the
row.
possibilities,
Again we have,
 Atleast two persons sit between D and E,
where both are facing opposite directions.
 The persons sitting at the ends of the row
face the same direction.
Again we have,  The immediate neighbours of H are facing
 C sits third to the right of G, who does not opposite direction that of H.
face the same direction as F.  I faces north direction.
 The immediate neighbours of C are facing I faces south direction in case 1. Hence it is
opposite directions to each other. eliminated. Thus, case 2 gives the final
 The number of persons sitting between A arrangement.
and G is one less than the number of
persons sitting between C and D.
Score Booster
Directions (1-3): Study the following information length of train R is not the third lowest. The train
carefully and answer the given questions. which is the second highest length is 300m.
Seven trains A, C, F, K, N, R and W are of 1. If the length of train R is 150m, then what is
different lengths. The length of Train F is more the possible length of train C?
than the length of Trains C and K but doesn’t A.200m
have the highest length. The length of train A is B. 100m
more than only train W. The length of Train R is C. Either (a) or (d)
more than Train A but less than Train C. The D.250m
E.650m

2. If the total length of train K and A is 190m and D.M

the sum of the length of train K and F is 400m, E. Cannot be determined
then what is the length of train A?
A.85m 5. What can be the total distance covered by V,
B.100m if Y covers the distance of 2100m through
C.200m jogging?
D.90m A.3200m
E. Cannot be determined B.2000m
C.3500m
3. Which of the following train has the third D.2500m
lowest length? E.2050m
A.N
B.F Directions (6-10): In the given questions, the
C.K relationship between different elements is shown
D.C in the statements followed by some conclusions.
E.A Find the conclusion which is definitely true.
6. Statements:
Directions (4-5): Study the following information D <F<V ≤ M<A; T ≥ Y>W = M; V>R>H
carefully and answer the given questions. Conclusions:
Six persons K, M, P, T, V and Y are covering I. Y>F
different distance through jogging in the early II. R<W
morning. Y covers more distance than T but less III. H≥A
distance than K. P covers more distance than M. A. Only Conclusion III is true
V covers less distance than only two persons. M B. Both Conclusions I and II are true
does not cover more distance than Y. The one C. Only Conclusion I is true
who covers the maximum distance covers D. Both Conclusions II and III are true
3000m, which is not covered by K. T does not E. All Conclusions I, II, and III are true
cover the second minimum distance.
4. Who among the following person covers the 7. Statements:
second maximum distance through jogging? A <G = T ≤ E = W; Q>X ≥ S ≥ W; B<V<A ≥ Z
A.K Conclusions:
B.P I. S=G
C.Y II. X≥T

III. Z<E Conclusions:

A. Only Conclusion III is true I. A>Y
B. Both Conclusions I and II are true II. M=U
C. Only Conclusion I is true III. A=Y
D. Both Conclusions II and III are true A. Only Conclusion III is true
E. All Conclusions I, II, and III are true B. Both Conclusions I and II are true
C. Only Conclusion I is true
8. Statements: D. Both Conclusions II and III are true
G <D ≥ B>F = E; N<X>Z ≤ W = Q; U>V > D E. All Conclusions I, II, and III are true
Conclusions:
I. U>F Directions (11-15): Study the following
II. V>G statements and then decide which of the given
III. Q≥Z conclusions logically follows from the given
A. Only Conclusion III is true statements disregarding the commonly known
B. Both Conclusions I and II are true facts.
C. Only Conclusion I is true 11. Statements:
D. Both Conclusions II and III are true Only a few costs are Rates. Some Rate is not
E. All Conclusions I, II, and III are true Price. All Prices are MRP. Some MRP is Total.
Conclusions:
9. Statements: I. Some MRP is not Rate
M ≥ T>R>E = S; G<H ≤ J ≤ T; Q>E<P II. All Total can never be Rate
Conclusions: III. All cost being price is a possibility
I. M≥H A. Both conclusions II and III follow
II. P<M B. Only conclusion III follows
III.Q>S C. Both conclusions I and III follow
A. Only Conclusion III is true D. Both conclusions I and II follow
B. Both Conclusions I and II are true E. All conclusions follow
C. Only Conclusion I is true
D. Both Conclusions II and III are true 12. Statements:
E. All Conclusions I, II, and III are true Few Honey is Milk. Only a few Milk is water. All
water is wine. Only wine is tea
10. Statements: Conclusions:
R>A ≥ S ≥ V; T<Y ≤ U = V<F; M ≥ Q>F I. Some water can be Tea

II. All wine can never be Milk E. All conclusions follow

III. No Tea is Milk
A. Both conclusions II and III follow 15. Statements:
B. Only conclusion III follows Some worm is Disk. All Disk is Malware. Only
C. Both conclusions I and III follow malware is Virus. No Malware is Folder.
D. Both conclusions I and II follow Conclusions:
E. All conclusions follow I. Some Malware can never be Worm
II. Some Worm is not Folder
13. Statements: III. All Malware is definitely not Disk
All steels are wood. Only a few Woods are A. Both conclusions II and III follow
Metal. Some Metals are stone. No stone is B. Only conclusion III follows
Plastic. C. Both conclusions I and III follow
Conclusions: D. Both conclusions I and II follow
I. Some Metal is not plastic E. All conclusions follow
II. All steel can never be Metal
III. Some Wood being stone is a possibility 16. If in the number “912364876562”, 1 is
A. Both conclusions II and III follow subtracted from all the odd digits and 1 is added
B. Only conclusion III follows to all the even digits, then the resultant digits are
C. Both conclusions I and III follow arranged in the increasing order from left to right,
D. Both conclusions I and II follow then what is the sum of the first 5 digits from the
E. All conclusions follow right end?
A. 38
14. Statements: B. 45
Only a few Parrots are Hen. All Owls are Hen. C. 35
Some Owls are Crows. No Parrot is a Duck. D. 39
Conclusions: E. 34
I. Some Hen is Crow
II. All owl being Duck is a possibility 17. If the fourth, fifth, seventh and eighth letters
III. All Hen can be Duck of the word “HIBERNATION” are taken to form a
A. Both conclusions II and III follow four-letter meaningful word, then which of the
B. Only conclusion III follows following letter is the second letter from the right
C. Both conclusions I and III follow end of the word thus formed? If more than one
D. Both conclusions I and II follow meaningful word is formed, then mark ‘Y’ as your

answer; else if no such meaningful word is are in the English alphabetical series (both
formed, then mark ‘Z’ as your answer. forward and backward directions)?
A. R A. One
B. T B. Three
C. A C. Two
D. Y D. Four
E. Z E. None
18. Which of the following will be the next term of 20. If all the vowels in the word “CONTINENTAL”
the given series? are changed to the next letter in the alphabetical
BEFR, CHHP, DKJN, ENLL, ____ series and all the consonants are changed to the
A. FRNJ previous letter in the alphabetical series, then
B. FQMJ the letters are arranged in alphabetical order
C. FQNJ from the left end, then what is the sum of the
D. FPNK place values of the fifth and eighth letters from
E. FKNQ the left end?
A. 32
19. How many such pairs of letters are in the B. 30
word “HAEMOGLOBIN” each which has as C. 22
many letters between them in the word as there D. 28
E. 24
Directions (1-3): 5. Answer: D

1. Answer: C
2. Answer: D
3. Answer: C
N > F (300) > C > R > K >A > W
Directions (4-5):
4. Answer: A

6. Answer: B
I. Y>F (Y>W=M≥V>F) -> True
II. R<W (W=M≥V>R)-> True
III. H≥A (A>M≥V>R>H) -> False
7. Answer: C
I. S=G (S≥W=E≥T=G)-> False 13. Answer: C
II. X≥T (X≥S≥W=E≥T)-> True
III. Z<E (Z≤A<G=T≤E) -> True
8. Answer: E
I. U>F (U>V>D≥B>F) -> True
II. V>G (V>D>G) -> True
III. Q≥Z (Z≤W=Q) -> True 14. Answer: D
9. Answer: D
I. M≥H (H≤J≤T≤M) -> True
II. P<M (M≥T>R>E<P) -> False
III. Q>S (Q>E=S) -> True
10. Answer: B
I. A>Y (A≥S≥V=U≥Y) ->False
II. M=U (M≥Q>F>V=U) ->False
III. A=Y (A≥S≥V=U≥Y) ->False
15. Answer: E
11. Answer: B
12. Answer: A
16. Answer: A

912364876562 19. Answer: B

803275967473
023345677789
7+7+7+8+9=38
17. Answer: D
The letters are E, R, T, A
RATE, TEAR
20. Answer: E
Two words can be formed from the letters.
CONTINENTAL
BPMSJMFMSBK
18. Answer: C
BBFJKMMMPSS
The first letter increases by one.
K – 11
The second letter increases by three.
M – 13
The third letter increases by two.
11+13=24
The fourth letter decreases by two.

Quantitative Aptitude Day - 31 (Eng)
Quantitative Aptitude
Directions (01-05): Study the following information carefully and answer the following questions.
Given pie chart shows the total number of two wheelers vehicles sold by a mechanic shop from January
to May.
Note:
I)Total number of vehicle sold=number of two wheelers+number of four wheelers sold
II) Ratio between the number of two wheelers to four wheelers sold by January to May is 2:1,3:2,5:6,1:2
and 23:25 respectively.
III) Difference between the number of two wheelers and four wheelers sold in February is 200.
1) If the ratio between the number of sold to E) 340
unsold two wheelers vehicles in March and April
is 1:2 and 4:5 ,then find the number of two 2) Find the ratio between the average number of
wheelers unsold in March and April month? two wheelers vehicles sold in January and April
A) 380 together to differences between the number of
B) 500 four wheelers vehicles sold in January and
C) 850 February month by the mechanic Shop?
D) 560 A) 1:5

B) 16:9 receive after selling 50% of the vehicle in the

C) 11:5 month of April?
D) 17:5 A) 20 lakh
E) 2:3 B) 80lakh
C) 57 lakh
3) If the average number of two wheelers D) 50 lakh
vehicles sold in april ,may and June in 320,then E) 60 lakh
what is the difference between the number of two
wheelers sold in June and may? 5) If the average selling price of each two
A) 160 wheelers vehicle is Rs 1.2 lakh and each four
B) 190 wheelers is Rs.7 lakh then find the average
C) 210 selling price of each vehicle in the month of
D) 300 February ?
E) 150 A) Rs.3.52 lakh
B) Rs.5.42 lakh
4) If the GST tax for each two wheelers vehicles C) Rs.5.50 lakh
is Rs.10,000 and for four wheelers vehicles is D) Rs.3.20 lakh
Rs.20,000,then how much amount did the shop E) Rs.4,40 lakh
Directions (06-10): Study the following information carefully and answer the following questions.
Given bar graph shows the quantity of sugar (in kg) sold by three different shopkeeper in fiver different
months.

6) Find the difference between the average C) 3:5

quantity of sugar sold by seller C in January and D) 1:5
May together to average quantity of sugar sold E) 2:9
by seller A in February and April month?
A) 20 kg 8) Total quantity of sugar sold by all the three
B) 18 kg seller in January is what percent more or less
C) 19kg than the total quantity of sugar sold by all these
D) 10 kg three seller in May together?
E) 15 kg A) 25%
B) 20%
7) Find the ratio between the quantity of sugar C) 5%
sold by A in January and February together to D) 10%
quantity of sugar sold by B in April and may E) 15%
together?
A) 1:1 9) If the selling price of sugar of each kg is Rs.70
B) 2:5 and in each kg they got profit of Rs.10 ,find the

total cost price of the sugar which is sold by B) 1290

seller B in February and March together? C) 1600
A) Rs.15,000 D) 1280
B) Rs.19,000 E) 1900
C) Rs.18,000
D) Rs.21,000 13) In class 5, total number of students is 450 ,
E) Rs,22,000 average marks score by all the girls is (x+30) and
the average marks score by all the boys in the
10) Quantity of sugar sold by K in the month of same class is (x-15),if the average marks in the
January is average quantity of sugar sold A and whole class (x+5),find the difference between the
B in the same month and ratio between the number of boys to number of girls in that class ?
sugar to rice sold by shopkeeper K is 2:3, find A) 80
the total quantity of rice sold by K ? B) 70
A) 210 kg C) 50
B) 270 kg D) 20
C) 290 kg E) 40
D) 225 kg
E) 260 kg 14) Paresh and Rishi started a ice cream
business. Investment of Paresh is 5/7th of the
11) Rajesh lent out Rs.(3y+800) at compound investment of Rishi and profit share of Rishi is
interest at the rate of 20% per annum for 2 years, 87.5% of Paresh .If Paresh Invested for 24
compounded annually, he would give Rs.1446 month ,then for how much month Rishi Invested
more if the amount was compunded half the money?
yearly.Find the value of y? A) 10 months
A) Rs.18,000 B) 15 months
B) Rs.25,000 C) 16 months
C) Rs.21,800 D) 12months
D) Rs.19,700 E) 17 months
E) Rs.22,000
15) Total time taken by boat to cover a certain
12) Mahesh bought a Bag at Rs.(3y-600) and distance in upstream and downstream is 20
then marked it at 20% above it's cost price . If the hours and 12 hours respectively,if the speed of
marked price isRs.(2.9y+85).Find the value of y? the boat in still water is 15km/hr more than the
A) 1150

speed of the stream ,then find the speed of 18) Two station P and Q are 450 km apart .One
stream. train starts from P at 10a.m and travels towards
A) 13 km/hr Q at 30 km/hr after 1 hour another train starts
B) 12 km/hr from Q at the speed of 40 km/hr .Find the
C) 10 km/hr difference between the distance covered by both
D) 5 km/hr the train when they meet .
E) 6 km/hr A) 70 km
B) 80 km
16) A total of 360 chocolate distributed between C) 40 km
Rohon ,Riny and Roshina . The number of D) 35 km
chocolate received by Rohon is 120% more than E) 30 km
the number of chocolate received by Roshina
and the number of chocolate received by Riny is 19) Efficiency of Rajesh is 40% more than the
120 more than the average number of chocolate efficiency of his brother Amit and Amit takes
received by Roshina and Rohon .Find the 40days to complete whole work . Rajesh worked
number of chocolates received by Riny ? for 20 days ,then he decided to work with his
A) 200 brother alternatively starting from Amit.Find the
B) 213 total time taken by both of them to complete the
C) 217 whole work ?
D) 340 A) 28 days
E) 230 B) 12days
C) 30days
17) There are three numbers A,B and C.The D) 50days
number A is 20% more than that of B and B is E) 20days
20% less than that of C .If the product of the
number A and B is 480. If the sum of the value of 20) Radius of the circle is equal to the breadth of
all the three numbers is 'y' then find the value of the rectangle.If the ratio between the length to
2y? breadth of the rectangle is 3:2 ,then find the
A) 150 perimeter of the rectangle.It is given that the area
B) 138 of the circle is 616 cm².
C) 137 A) 110 cm
D) 139 B) 90 cm
E) 150 C) 120 cm
D) 70 cm

E) 80 cm
Directions (01-05): Total number of four wheelers vehicle sold in

Let the total number and f two wheelers vehicles April=200/1*2=400
sold is =100x. Total number of four wheelers vehicles sold in
Number of two wheelers sold in February=30x May=460/23*25=500
Number of four wheelers sold in
February=30/3*2=20x
According to the question s,
30x-20x=200
10x=200
X=20
Two wheelers:
Total number of two wheelers vehicles vehicle
1) Answer: C
sold in January=22*20=440
Unsold vehicle in the month march and April
Total number of two wheelers sold in
together =300/1*2+200/4*5=850
February=30*20=600
Required answer =850
Total number of two wheelers sold in
March=15*20=300
2) Answer: B
Total number of two wheelers vehicle sold in
Average number of two wheelers vehicles sold in
April=10*20=200
January and April=(440+200)/2=320
Total number of two wheelers vehicles sold in
Difference between the number of four wheelers
May=23*20=460
vehicles sold in the month of January and
Four wheelers:
February=(400-220)=180
Total number of four wheelers vehicles vehicle
Required answer=320:180=16:9
sold in January=440/2*1=220
Total number of four wheelers sold in
3) Answer: A
February=600/3*2=400
Total number of two wheelers vehicles sold in
Total number of four wheelers sold in
april, may, june=320*3=960
March=300/5*6=360

Total number of two wheelers vehicles sold in According to the question,

June = 960-(200+460)=300 2(A+B+C)=900
Required answer=460-300=160 A+B+C=900/2=450
Sugar sold by A=20kg
4) Answer: D Sugar sold by B=200kg
GST tax collected by shop after selling 50% of Sugar sold by C=230kg
the two wheelers March:
vehicles=100*10,000=10,00,000 Sugar sold by A+B=180kg
GST tax collected by shop after selling 50% of Sugar sold by B+C=220kg
four wheelers=200*20,000=40,000,00 Sugar sold by C+A=300 kg
Required answer=50lakhs According to the question,
2(A+B+C)=700
5) Answer: A A+B+C=/2=350
According to the question, Sugar sold by A=130kg
(600*1.2+400*7)/1000 Sugar sold by B=50kg
(720+2800)/1000 Sugar sold by C=170kg
Required answer =Rs.3.52 lakh April:
Sugar sold by A+B=300kg
Directions (06-10): Sugar sold by B+C=200kg
January: Sugar sold by C+A=300kg
Sugar sold by A+B=300 kg According to the question,
Sugar sold by B+C=220 kg 2(A+B+C)=800
Sugar sold by C+A=240 kg A+B+C=800/2=400
According to the question, Sugar sold by A=200kg
2(A+B+C)=760 Sugar sold by B=100kg
A+B+C=760/2=380 Sugar sold by C=100 kg
Sugar sold by A=380-220=160 kg May:
Sugar sold by B=380-240=140kg Sugar sold by A+B=240kg
Sugar sold by C=380-300=80 kg Sugar sold by B+C=360kg
February: Sugar sold by C+A=200kg
Sugar sold by A+B=220kg According to the question,
Sugar sold by B+C=430kg 2(A+B+C)=800
Sugar sold by C+A=250kg A+B+C=800/2=400

Sugar sold by A=40 kg 70-10=60

Sugar sold by B=200kg According to the question,
Sugar sold by C=160 kg 250*60=15,000
Required answer=Rs.15,000
10) Answer: D
Quantity of sugar sold by K=(160+140)/2=150
Quantity of rice sold by K=150/2*3=225 kg
Required answer=225 kg
6) Answer: D 11) Answer: D
Quantity of sugar sold by C in January and At the rate of 20% Compound intrest for 2 year
March=(80+160)/2=120 when compunded
Quantity of sugar sold by A in February and annually=20+20+20*20/100=44%
April=(20+200)/2=110 When same rate of interest calculated on
Required answer=120-110=10kg compunded half yearly it given as 46.41% of the

sum
7) Answer: C According to question,
Quantity of sugar sold by A in January and 2.41%=1446
February together=160+20=180 kg 100%=60,000
Quantity of sugar sold by B in April and may 3y+900=60,000
together=200+100=300kg y=59100/3=19700
Required Ratio=180:300=3:5 Required answer=Rs.19,700
8) Answer: C 12) Answer: A
Total quantity of sugar sold by all three seller in Cost price =(3y-600)
January=160+140+80=380kg Then, Marked price =(100+20)/100*(3y-600)=3.6
Total quantity of sugar sold by all three seller in y-720
May=40+200+160=400 Given marked price =2.9y+85
Required ratio=(400-380)/400*100=5% (3.6y-720)=2.9y+85

0.7y=805
9) Answer: A y=1150
Selling price - profit=cost price Required answer=1150

13) Answer: C x=10

According to the the question, Required answer=80+120=200
17) Answer: B
A:B=6:5
B:C=4:5
A:B:C=24:20:25
9's=450 According to the question,
1's=50 24x*20x=480
Required answer=50 480x²=480
x=1
14) Answer: B Required answer=(24+20+25)=69*2=2Y=138
According to the question,
Ratio between the profit share of Paresh and 18) Answer: E
Rishi=5x*24/7x*y=8/7 In 1hr distance covered by first train =30km
y=15 month Reaming distance they covered in relative speed
So,
15) Answer: D (450-30)/(30+40)=420/70=6hour
Let the speed of the boat=a+15 Total time taken by first train to meet Another
Speed of the stream=a train=7hr
According to the question, Time taken by second train=6hr
(15+a-a)*20=(15+a+a)*12 Distance covered by first train =7*30=210km
300=(15+2a)*12 Distance covered by second train=6*40=240
a=5 Required answer=240-210=30km
16) Answer: A 19) Answer: C

Let the number of chocolate received by Let the efficiency of Amit=5unit/day
Rohon=11x Efficiency of Rajesh=7 unit /day
Number of chocolate received by Roshina =5x Total work=5*40=200 unit
Number of chocolate received by In 20 days work done my Rajesh =20*7=140unit
Riny=(11x+5x)/2+120=8x+120 Remaining=200-140=60unit
According to the question,16x+8x+120=360 In 2 days they work =12 unit
24x=240

For completing 60 unit they will taken total days r²=28*7

=60/12*2=10 days required time =30 days r=14
Breadth of the rectangle=14
20) Answer: D Length=14/2*3=21
According to the question, Perimeter=2(14+21)=70cm
22/7*r²=616 Required answer=70cm
Score Booster
1) x²-25=600 4)
y²-218=106 3x²+15x+18=0
a) x > y 6y²-27y+30=0
b) x ≥ y a) x > y
c) x = y or relationship can’t be determined b) x ≥ y
d) x < y c) x = y or relationship can’t be determined
e) x ≤ y d) x < y
e) x ≤ y
2)
x²-22x+120=0 5)
y²-32y+240=0 x²-8x-33=0
a) x > y y²+12y+27=0
b) x ≥ y a) x > y
c) x = y or relationship can’t be determined b) x ≥ y
d) x < y c) x = y or relationship can’t be determined
e) x ≤ y d) x < y
e) x ≤ y
3)
4x²-4x-323=0 Directions (6-10): What value should come in the
y²+11y-80=0 place of (?) in the following number series?
a) x > y 6)15, 16, 8, ?, -29, 96
b) x ≥ y a) 35
c) x = y or relationship can’t be determined b) 25
d) x < y c) 21
e) x ≤ y d) 27
e) 29

7)15,141,?, 403,555,761,1129 b) 1180

a) 260 c) 1380
b) 269 d) 1670
c) 278 e) 1392
d) 231
e) 340 12) 40.02% of 1109.93+√49.02=359.25+?
a) 91
8)12,23,?, 89,177,353 b) 67
a) 42 c) 78
b) 43 d) 89
c) 45 e) 90
d) 48
e) 49 13)13.002*32.998÷16.52-47.112+32.879=?
a) 19
9)220,231,?, 262,282,305 b) 16
a) 245 c) 13
b) 240 d) 32
c) 380 e) 56
d) 390
e) 170 14) (101+17+82) ÷8.05=? % of √2500.02
a) 50
10)15,?,-16, -80, -161, -193 b) 45
a) 7 c) 67
b) 12 d) 70
c) 9 e) 80
d) 11
e) 14 15) (123.23+89.53+82.931) +10.02³=? ²
a) 16
Directions (11-15): What approximate value b) 36
should come in the place of question mark in the c) 45
following questions? d) 34
11) 80.06% of 2179.92+√323.98=369.85+? e) 56
a) 1270

Directions (16-20): What value should come in c) 48

the place of (?) in the following number series? d) 73
16)11,23,41, 62,89,121 e) 115
a) 41
b) 11 Directions (21-25): What value should come in
c) 23 the place of question mark in the following
d) 89 questions?
e) 121 21) (76÷19) +(21*18) *36=38*10+?
a) -200
17) 8,26, 77,234,706,3535 b) -320
a) 77 c) -334
b) 234 d) -350
c) 940 e) -134
d) 4705
e) 26 22) √1225+√625+√324=? *39
a) 7
18)111,192,98, 213, 69,238 b) 6
a) 111 c) 5
b) 192 d) 2
c) 98 e) 3
d) 213
e) 69 23)? *5=(125*14÷175) +25²
a) 130
19) 5,4,6, 3,-4,-45 b) 129
a) 5 c) 127
b) 4 d) 123
c) 6 e) 128
d) 3
e) -45 24)102% of 250+? *(4)½=(30) ²
a) 455.5
20) 15,24,48, 73,115,170 b) 456.2
a) 15 c) 453.5
b) 24 d) 322.5

e) 679.5 b) 190
c) 180
25) 40% of 520-? +96=(12)² d) 160
a) 200 e) 170
1) Answer: C (y+16) (y-5) =0

x²-25=600 y=-16,5
x²=625 Hence, x = y or relationship can’t be determined
x=25, -25
y²-218=106 4) Answer: D
y²=324 3x²+15x+18=0
y=18, -18 3x²+6y+9y+18=0
Hence, x = y or relationship can’t be determined (x+2) (3x+9) =0
x=-2,-3
2) Answer: E 6y²-27y+30=0
x²- 22x+120=0 6y²-12y-15y+30=0
(x-12) (x-10) =0 6y(y-2) -15(y-2) =0
x=12,10 y=2,7.5
y²-32y+240=0 Hence, x < y
(y-20) (y-12) =0
y=20,12 5) Answer: B
Hence x ≤ y x²-8x-33=0
(x+3) (x-11) =0
3) Answer: A x=-3,11
x²-4x-323=0 y²+12y+27=0
(2x-19) (2x+17) =0 y²+9y+3y+27=0
x=19/2,-17/2 y(y+9) +3(y+9) =0
x=9.5 or -8.5 y=-9,-3
y²+11y-80=0 Hence, x ≥ y
y²+16y-5y-80=0

6) Answer: A 80.06% of 2179.92+√323.98=369.85+?

15+1³=16 80% of 2180+√324=370+?
16-2³=8 80/100*2180+18=370+ ?
8+3³=35 1744+18-370=?
35-4³=-29 1392=?
-29+5³=96
12) Answer: A
7) Answer: B 40.02% of 1109.93+√49.02=359.25+?
40/100*1110+7=360+?
444+7-360=?
91=?
8) Answer: C
12*2-1=23 13) Answer: C
23*2-1=45 13.002*32.998÷16.52-47.112+32.879=?
45*2-1=89 13*33÷16-47+33=?
89*2-1=177 27-47+33=?
177*2-1=353 13=?
9) Answer: A 14) Answer: A

202+11=231 (101+17+82) ÷8.05=? % of √2500.02
231+14=245 200/8=? % of 50
245+17=262 200/8=? of 50/100
262+20=282 ? =50
282+23=305
15) Answer: B
10) Answer: C (123.23+89.53+82.931) +10.02³=? ²
15-6¹=9 123+90+83+1000=? ²
9-5²=-16 1296=? ²
-16-4³=-80 36=?
-80-3⁴=-161
-161-25=-193 16) Answer: A
11) Answer: E

21) Answer: C
(76÷19) +(21÷18) *36=38*10+?
76/19+21/18*36=380+?
4+42-380=?
17) Answer: E -334=?
8*3+1=25
25*3+2=77 22) Answer: D
77*3+3=234 √1225+√625+√324=? *39
234*4+4=706 35+25+18=? *39
706*5+5=3535 78=? *39
? =2
18) Answer: C
111+9²=192 23) Answer: C
192-10²=92 ? *5=(125*14÷175) +25²
92+11²=213 ? *5=(125*14÷175) +625
213-12²=69 ? *5=10+625
69+13²=238 ? *5=635
127=?
19) Answer: C
5*1-1²=4 24) Answer: D
4*2-2²=4 102% of 250+? *(4) ½=(30) ²
4*3-3²=3 102/100*250+? *2=900
3*4-4²=-4 255+2*? =900
-4*5-5²=-45 2*? =645
? =322.5
20) Answer: C
15+9=24 25) Answer: D
24+9+10=43 40% of 520-? +96=(12) ²
43+9+10+11=73 40/100*520-? +96-144=?
73+9+10+11+12=115 208-? +96-144=0
115+9+10+11+12+13=170 160=?

ENGLISH Day - 31
English Language
Directions (1-5): In the following passage, some In the last four years, Buddhists and Shia
of the words are missing. Find the suitable word Muslims have jointly protested for special status
from the options given below each question that for Ladakh under the Sixth Schedule of the
makes the paragraph meaningful. Constitution to protect land, culture, jobs,
The National Conference (NC)-Congress alliance languages, and environment. Demands for
has pulled off a (1)____________ victory in the (4)______________with J&K or full statehood for
Ladakh Autonomous Hill Development Council- Ladakh persist. The BJP had hoped to widen its
Kargil (LAHDC-K) election, blunting the efforts base in Kargil on the basis of its development
put in by the Bharatiya Janata Party (BJP) over initiatives, especially the expansion of road
four years to expand its base in Kargil since it works, new educational institutes and reserving
came under the direct rule of the Centre in 2019. lower-rung jobs only for locals. The NC saw
This was the first statement made by the Kargil these elections as a referendum on the 2019
electorate after 2019. Ladakh, comprising reorganisation of J&K. Congress leader Rahul
Muslim-majority Kargil and Buddhist-majority Leh Gandhi, who toured Ladakh on a bike for over a
districts, was (2)______________ Union Territory week in August this year, became the first senior
(UT) status, as the Centre decided to end the leader from the party to throw his weight behind
special constitutional position of the erstwhile the demands of the Kargil Democratic Alliance
State of Jammu and Kashmir (J&K) and split it (KDA), an amalgam of various socio-political-
into two UTs on August 5, 2019. The BJP had religious groups, for special constitutional
won the Ladakh Autonomous Hill Development guarantees on land and jobs and a separate Lok
Council-Leh elections, in 2020. Parties in J&K Sabha seat for Kargil district. At present, Leh and
have called for early elections in the UT too. In Kargil together form one Lok Sabha seat. The
Kargil, the NC won 12 seats and the Congress larger message sent by the voters in Kargil to the
10, in the 26-member council while the BJP had BJP is that the final status of Ladakh remains an
to be content with two. The election saw a emotive issue. Also, the development push
77.61% turnout, with a significant section of the without special (5)_______________ and
migrant local population who worked and studied constitutional recognition and an elected
in parts of the country (3)________________to Assembly may not assuage the sentiments of
cast their ballot. It is a reflection of how seriously locals in the region.
these polls were viewed by the local electorate. 1)
Kargil has a total of 74,026 registered voters, A) triumph
spread sparsely in the mountains. B) scolding

ENGLISH Day - 31
C) thumping few options. You have to choose the correct

D) domestic improvement of the underlined phrase in order to
E) vague make the sentence grammatically and
contextually correct.
2) 6) What distinguishes this particular cycle of
A) granted elections are the largely bipolar nature of the
B) unique contest among the Bharatiya Janata Party and
C) wheedle the Indian National Congress in three of them,
D) preserving with regional parties being significant only in
E) vehement Mizoram and Telangana.
A) were the larger bipolar nature of a contest
3) among
A) obstacle B) are a largely bipolar nature of the contest
B) announcement amongst
C) harmony C) is the largely bipolar nature of the contest
D) reverence between
E) returning D) is an largely bipolar nature of the contest
between
4) E) No replacement required
A) provoke
B) reunification 7) In all three north-central Indian States with a
C) hit large Hindi-speaking population, the BJP has
D) downgrade seek to cash in on the popularity instead the
E) resumption Union government and increased support for its
unabashed Hindutva ideology.
5) A) has sought to cash in on the popularity of
A) deft B) has seek to cashed in on the popularity of
B) ambiguous C) have sought to cash in on the popularity of
C) vogue D) have sought to been cash in on the popularity
D) protections with
E) ancient E) No replacement required
Directions (6-10): Given below are few questions 8) The Congress seeks to upend this by
with underlined phrase and promising a caste census and focusing on its

ENGLISH Day - 31
record of implementing welfare measures, or Directions (11-15): Read the sentence to find out
through a list of committed guarantees. whether there is an error in it. The error, if any,
A) by promise a caste census and focusing on will be in one part of the sentence. The letter
B) by promising an caste census and focus on corresponding to that part will be your answer. If
C) by promised a caste census and focusing with the given sentence is correct as it is, mark the
D) by promise a caste census and focused on answer as 'No Error'
E) No replacement required 11) At the inauguration of a private genetic
laboratory (A)/and diagnostic facility, Gujarat
9) In Madhya Pradesh, Chief Minister Shivraj Health Minister (B)/and government
Chouhan has spent 18 years at a helm and face spokesperson Rushikesh Patel for (C)/a change
anti-incumbent over issues related to was not faced with any questions from
government performance on the economy and reporters.(D)/No error(E)
social discrimination, A) A
A) of the helm and face anti-incumbency over B) B
issues C) C
B) at an helm and facing anti-incumbency with D) D
issues E) No error
C) in the helm and faces anti-incumbent across
issues 12) Chandrasekhar comments assume
D) at the helm and faced anti-incumbency over significance (A)/as the industry was looking for
issues clarity on whether they (B)/will have to comply
E) No replacement required with certain areas of regulations (C)/that are
already being prescribe by their sectoral
10) The protesters raised slogans against the regulators.(D)/No error(E)
state of Israel and the US, accusing them of A) A
carrying out unjust violence against the people of B) B
Gaza as they expressed solidarity with an C) C
besieged population till the West Asian territory. D) D
A) with an besieged population for the E) No error
B) with the besieged population of the
C) with the besieged populate before the 13) Of illegal lendingly apps, the minister said
D) instead the besiege populate on the (A)/the government is working on a framework
E) No replacement required that (B)/will require all lending apps to undergo a
due diligence (C)/process before they could be

ENGLISH Day - 31
allowed to enter the banking system.(D)/No statements into one sentence without changing
error(E). the meaning. Choose that starter as your answer
A) A and mark it accordingly.
B) B 16)
C) C I) All efforts were on the part of the police team
D) D and forensics lab.
E) No error II) The woman’s identity could not be
established.
14) The Reserve Bank of India or any A) While
sectoral(A)/ regulator could frame their own rules B) As
for storage and processing (B)/until personal C) Despite
data, minister of state(C)/ for electronics and IT D) If
Rajeev Chandrasekhar said on Friday.(D)/No E) None of these
error(E)
A) A 17)
B) B I) We have spent long evenings in my guest
C) C house.
D) D II) He has played the music and explained his
E) No error ideas for my career.
A) Owing to
15) The RBI or a health regulator, can turn (A)/off B) Inspite of
and say that this personal data in our domain is C) As if
(B)/more sensitive and we can prescribe D) While
stronger,(C)/ harder rules for the storage and E) None of these
processing of the data.(D)/No error(E)
A) A 18)
B) B I) I see the young boy near to the elevators who
C) C is speaking with his friends.
D) D II) I wondered!, this little boy could speak any
E) No error English.
Direction (16-20): In the following question, two A) When
statements and starters are given in options B) Inaddition to
accordingly. Only one of the starters from those C) Accordingly
given can be used to combine the two D) Instead of

ENGLISH Day - 31
E) None of these E) None of these

20)
19) I) Rajan heard about an accident news of his
I) Ragu was not interested to answer my uncle.
questions. II) He rushed to the hospital with his wife by bike.
II) Ragu began to beat around the bush. A) Even though
A) As if B) According to
B) Instead of C) As per
C) As soon as D) Although
D) Though E) None of these

1) Answer: C Therefore, Option C is the correct answer choice
Option A "triumph" means "success," which can to this question.
be ruled out as it makes the sentence
incoherent. 2) Answer: A
Option B "scolding" means "chastise", can be Option B "unique" means "different" which can
eliminated as it is not related to the context of be ruled out as it makes the sentence
the passage. incoherent.
Option E "vague" means "unclear" which can be Option C "wheedle" means "encourage", can be
eliminated as it is not related to the context of excluded as it is not related to the context of the
the passage. passage & its usage makes the sentence
Option D "domestic" means "native" which can grammatically incorrect.
be eliminated as it is not related to the context of Option D "preserving" means "retained" which
the passage & its usage makes the sentence can be eliminated as it is not related to the
grammatically incorrect. context of the passage.
Option C "thumping" meaning "impressively Option E "vehement" means "forceful" which can
large, great, or excellent" which suitably fits to be eliminated as it is not related to the context of
the context and makes the sentence a the passage.
meaningful one as the sentence here talks about Option A "granted" means "used to admit that
the outstanding victory of the National Congress something is true, before saying something else
Alliance in Ladakh election. about it" which suitably fits to the context and

ENGLISH Day - 31
makes the sentence a meaningful one as the Option C "hit" means "to damage something",
sentence here indicates that the admission of can be eliminated as it is not related to the
Union Territory status to Ladakh which context of the passage.
comprises Muslim Kargil and Buddhist Leh. Option E "resumption" means "renewal" which
Therefore, Option A is the correct answer choice can be eliminated as it is not related to the
to this question. context of the passage.
Option D "downgrade" means "decline" which
3) Answer: E can be excluded as it is not related to the context
Option A "obstacle" means "hinder" which can of the passage.
be ruled out as it makes the sentence Option B "reunification" means "coming back
incoherent. together again after being separated or in
Option B "announcement" means "stating conflict" which suitably fits to the context and
publicly", can be eliminated as it is not related to makes the sentence a meaningful one as the
the context of the passage. sentence here talks about the demand for the
Option C "harmony" means "agreement" which togetherness with Jammu and Kashmir by
can be ruled out as it makes the sentence Buddhist and Shia Muslims through the protests.
incoherent. Therefore, Option B is the correct answer choice
Option D "reverence" means "respectful" and to this question.
though it seems to be in sync with the context,
its usage makes the sentence grammatically 5) Answer: D
incorrect.
Option E "returning" means "to come or go back Option A "deft" means "skilled" which can be
to a previous place" which aptly fits the context ruled out as it makes the sentence incoherent.
and makes the sentence a meaningful one as Option B "ambiguous" means "unclear", can be
the sentence here talks about the vital turn out in excluded as it is not related to the context of the
the voting with the cast of local migrant people. passage.
Therefore, Option E is the correct answer choice Option C "vogue" means "fashion" which can be
to this question. eliminated as it is not related to the context of
the passage.
4) Answer: B Option E "ancient" means "old" which can be
Option A "provoke" means "stir up" which can be eliminated as it is not related to the context of
ruled out as it makes the sentence incoherent. the passage.

ENGLISH Day - 31
Option D "protections" means "the act of keeping grammatically incorrect, Option C can be
someone or something safe from injury, damage eliminated.
or loss" which suitably fits to the context and Therefore, Option A will be the best choice.
makes the sentence a meaningful one as the
sentence here indicates that there is an 8) Answer: E
happening of development push without the All the highlighted part has been correct and
protection and recognition. doesn't not require any replacement. Hence,
Therefore, Option D is the correct answer choice Option E is the most suitable answer.
to this question.
9) Answer: D
6) Answer: C Usage of simple present plural verb "face" is
As the usage of plural verb "are" is grammatically incorrect, thus Options A & E gets
grammatically incorrect, Options B & E are eliminated. As per the parallelism concept,
excluded and singular verb "is" must be replaced present perfect must be used but usage of
with it. Since the usage of article "an" is continuous form of verb "facing" is incorrect, thus
grammatically incorrect. Thus, Option D will be Option B can be ruled out. Noun must be there
eliminated. As the usage of preposition "among" in object but usage of adjective "anti-incumbent"
is grammatically Incorrect, Option A must be is grammatically incorrect. Hence, Option C must
removed. Therefore Option C will be the best be excluded. Therefore Option D is the most
choice. appropriate answer.
At the helm is a phrase which means to start to
7) Answer: A officially control an organization or company
Highlighted part of the given sentence is
grammatically wrong, hence Option E gets 10) Answer: B
eliminated. Usage of simple present from of verb As the usage of indefinite article "an" is
"seek" makes the sentence grammatically inappropriate here which must be replaced with
incorrect which must be replaced with "sought" definite article "the". Thus, Options A & E gets
as the sentence is in past form. Thus, Option B eliminated. Noun must be qualified by an
is ruled out. Infinitive always takes simple adjective but usage of populate is incorrect
present plural form of verb followed with it. hence, Option C & D can be ruled out. Therefore
Hence, Option D can be excluded. As the usage the only Option B is the most appropriate
of simple present plural form of verb "have" is answer.

ENGLISH Day - 31
11) Answer: E with "turn around" to make the sentence

Given sentence doesn't have any error, Hence meaningfully correct. Hence, Option B will be the
Option E is the answer. most appropriate answer.
Turn around (Phrasal Verb) - to cause a situation
12) Answer: D or organization to change in a positive direction
The usage of simple form of verb in the part D of Turn off (Phrasal Verb) - to make somebody feel
the sentence "prescribe" is grammatically bored or not interested or to stop or to leave
incorrect which should be replaced with
"prescribed" to make the sentence grammatically 16) Answer: C
correct as being always takes v3 form of verb or Despite (Conjunction) - used to show that
adjective followed with it. Thus, Option D is the something happened or is true although
most suitable answer. something else might have happened to prevent
it
13) Answer: A Only Option C gives rise to a meaningful and
Since the usage of adverb "lendingly" is grammatically right sentence. Because the first
grammatically incorrect which should be sentence I explains about the efforts of police
replaced with "lending" to make the sentence team and forensics lab and the second sentence
grammatically correct as v1 ing as adjective II explains the non identification of woman
should be used to qualify the noun "apps". The right sentence is: Despite all efforts on the
Therefore, Option A is the most suitable answer. part of the police team and forensics lab, the
woman’s identity could not be established.
14) Answer: C Thus, Option C is the right answer.
As the usage of preposition "until" is contextually
incorrect which should be replaced with "of" to 17) Answer: D
make the sentence meaningfully correct. Hence, While (Conjunction) - Indicates the time period in
Option C will be the most appropriate answer. which something has happened simultaneously
Until (Preposition) - up to the time or the event Only Option D gives rise to a meaningful and
mentioned grammatically right sentence. Because the first
Of (Preposition) - belonging to or part of sentence I explains the time spent in guest
something house and the second sentence II explains the
15) Answer: B explanation of ideas for the speaker's career.
Since the usage of phrasal verb "turn off" is
contextually incorrect which should be replaced

ENGLISH Day - 31
The right sentence is: While We have spent towards answering and the second sentence II
long evenings in my guest house, he has played explains the talk about unimportant things by
the music and explained his ideas for my career. Ragu
Thus, Option D is the right answer. The right sentence is: Instead of answering my
question Ragu began to beat around the bush.
18) Answer: A Beat around the bush (Idiom) - to talk about lots
When (Conjunction) - Indicates the time in which of unimportant things because you want to avoid
something has happened talking about what is really important
Only Option A gives rise to a meaningful and Thus, Option B is the right answer.
grammatically right sentence. Because the first
sentence I explains an identification of young 20) Answer: E
boy near to the elevators and second sentence II None of the options gives rise to a meaningful
explains about the exclamation of speaker that and grammatically right sentence. The
whether that little could speak any English. conjunction As soon as will be the most perfect
The right sentence is: When I see the young fit starter for the given sentences.
boy near to the elevators who is speaking with As soon as (Conjunction) - immediately at or
his friends, I wondered !, this little boy could shortly after the time that
speak any English. Because the first sentence I explains that the
Thus, Option A is the right answer. Rajan gets to know about an accident and the
second sentence II explains about Rajan's
19) Answer: B rushing towards hospital with his wife
Instead of (Conjunction) - in place of or as an The right sentence is: As soon as Rajan heard
alternative to or on the contrary about an accident news of his uncle, he rushed
Only Option B gives rise to a meaningful and to the hospital with his wife by bike.
grammatically right sentence. Because the first Thus, Option E is the right answer.
sentence I explains the disinterest of Ragu
Score Booster
Directions (1-7): Read the following passage trigger of economic disruption, causing
carefully and answer the questions given below. widespread financial distress, touching off a
The issue of jobs has been at the heart of surge in unemployment and leading to mass
economic policy discussion, especially in recent migration back to villages. Seen against this
decades when the link between economic growth backdrop, the latest periodic labour force survey
and employment generation has been seen to be for 2022-23 throws up several interesting trends.
rather tenuous. The pandemic has been a major As per the survey, the labour force participation

ENGLISH Day - 31
rate has continued to rise across the country. Alongside this increase in labour force
Alongside, the unemployment rate has continued participation rates, the share of the self-employed
to decline. This should, on the face of it, be has risen from 55.6 per cent in 2020-21 to 57.3
indicative of an improvement in the labour per cent in 2022-23, while the share of regular
market. However, the survey also documents a wage/salaried employed has fallen from 21.1 per
decline in the share of regular wage/salaried cent to 20.9 per cent. The percentage of workers
employment and a rise in self-employment. engaged in informal sector enterprises in the non-
These trends require closer examination. agricultural sector has also gone up from 71.4 per
cent in 2020-21 to 74.3 per cent in 2022-23.
At the all-India level, the labour force participation While unemployment rates have declined across
rate (15 years and above) has increased from board, and among the youth (those in the age
49.8 per cent in 2017-18 to 57.9 per cent in 2022- group of 15-29 years), this falling share of regular
23. While participation rates have increased in wage/salaried and rise in self-employment
both rural and urban areas, the rise is to a much reinforces concerns that the economy is unable to
greater extent in the former. Much of this increase generate sufficient productive and remunerative
has been driven by females, whose participation forms of employment to absorb the millions
rate in rural areas has risen from 24.6 per cent in entering the labour force each year. Inadequate
2017-18 to 41.5 per cent in 2022-23 — an job creation was, and still remains, the biggest
increase of roughly 17 percentage points over challenge confronting policymakers.
this period. While this should be encouraging, 1) Which of the following can be inferred about
considering the low levels of female participation the increase in female labour force participation in
in the country, some have suggested that this rise rural areas?
in participation is indicative of the economic A) It is a result of increasing opportunities for
distress in rural areas, which is pushing women to women in the urban sector.
work in order to augment their family incomes. B) It is solely due to the empowerment of women
After all, work under MGNREGA, where wages in rural areas.
are lower than in other non-farm occupations, has C) It may indicate economic distress pushing
seen a steady uptick over the years (even women to work to supplement their family
excluding the pandemic years of 2020-21 and incomes.
2021-22), and women person days under the D) It is mainly because of better educational
programme have also been steadily rising. opportunities for women in rural areas.
E) Both 3 & 4

ENGLISH Day - 31
2) According to the periodic labour force survey C) The unemployment rate among the youth
for 2022-23, how has the labour force increased from 2020-21 to 2022-23.
participation rate (15 years and above) changed D) The economy has been successfully creating
from 2017-18 to 2022-23 at the all-India level? ample productive job opportunities for
A) Decreased from 49.8% to 47.2%. newcomers in the labour force.
B) Remained constant at 49.8%. E) None is true
C) Increased from 41.5% to 57.9%.
D) Increased from 49.8% to 57.9%. 5) Which of the following best describes the tone
E) None of the above of the passage?
A) Optimistic
3) Based on the passage, which of the following B) Ambiguous
can be inferred regarding the economic C) Analytical
conditions of the country? D) Pessimistic
A) The economy is rapidly generating numerous E) Sarcastic
high-paying job opportunities for everyone.
B) Even though unemployment rates are 6) Which of the following will be the Synonym of
decreasing, the nature of employment is the boldened word "Tenuous" ?
becoming less formal and more self-driven. A) booking
C) The youth are the primary reason for the B) revenge
increase in self-employment rates. C) eternal
D) Policymakers are mainly focused on D) faster
increasing the number of regular wage/salaried E) slender
jobs.
E) Both 1 & 3 7) Which of the following will be the Antonym of
the boldened word "Augment" ?
4) Which of the following statements is true based A) snowballed
on the information provided in the passage? B) mushrooming
A) In 2022-23, over 70% of workers were C) improvement
engaged in informal sector enterprises in the non- D) downgrade
agricultural sector. E) escalation
B) The share of the self-employed decreased
from 2020-21 to 2022-23. Directions (8-12): Five statements are given
below, which are jumbled in any random order.

ENGLISH Day - 31
These statements will form a coherent and B) B

meaningful paragraph, when arranged in the C) C
correct sequence. Arrange the sentences in the D) A
right order and answer the questions that follow. E) D
A) He is the only director who has made the
same film twice and succeeded both the times. 10) Which among the following will be the last
B) I was really lucky that I got to be a part of sentence of the paragraph after the
Animal, I have loved Sandeep’s work. rearrangement?
C) While speaking at the Jagran Film Festival, he A) A
described Animal as an emotional, violent drama B) B
with love, romance and hate. C) E
D) Actor Bobby Deol says that he was fortunate D) C
to land a part in director Sandeep Reddy Vanga’s E) D
latest Animal, as it gave him an opportunity to act
alongside Ranbir Kapoor. 11) Which among the following will be the first
E) I want to do different characters and as I have sentence of the paragraph after the
said before, I want to break my image, get rearrangement?
challenged and be very uncomfortable as an A) C
actor. B) E
Rearrangement: DCBAE C) B
8) Which among the following will be the second D) A
sentence of the paragraph after the E) D
rearrangement?
A) C 12) Which among the following will be the third
B) B sentence of the paragraph after the
C) A rearrangement?
D) E A) C
E) D B) B
C) E
9) Which among the following will be the fourth D) D
sentence of the paragraph after the E) A
rearrangement?
A) E

ENGLISH Day - 31

1) Answer: C 4) Answer: A
The passage mentions, While this should be The passage explicitly states that the percentage
encouraging, considering the low levels of of workers engaged in informal sector
female participation in the country, some have enterprises in the non-agricultural sector has
suggested that this rise in participation is gone upto 74.3 per cent in 2022-23. Option (b) is
indicative of the economic distress in rural areas, the opposite of what the passage states, option
which is pushing women to work in order to (c) contradicts the information about declining
augment their family incomes. Hence, Option C unemployment rates, and option (d) contradicts
is the best choice. the concerns raised about the economy's
inability to generate sufficient productive forms of
2) Answer: D employment. Therefore, Option A is the most
The passage explicitly states, At the all-India suitable answer.
level, the labour force participation rate (15 years
and above) has increased from 49.8 per cent in 5) Answer: C
2017-18 to 57.9 per cent in 2022-23. Therefore, The passage thoroughly examines the data and
Option D is the most suitable answer. trends associated with labour force participation
and employment in recent years. While
3) Answer: B presenting the facts, it delves into the intricacies
The passage mentions that while unemployment and implications of the data, seeking to
rates have decreased, the share of the self- understand the broader picture rather than
employed has risen and that of regular merely presenting the findings. This reflective
wage/salaried employment has fallen. The approach suggests an analytical tone. Hence,
increase in workers in the informal sector also Option C is the best choice.
supports this inference. Option (a) is opposite to A) Optimistic - hopeful and confident of
the passage's tone, option (c) is not supported, something
and option (d) is not explicitly mentioned or B) Ambiguous - doubtful or uncertain especially
inferred from the passage. Thus, Option B is the from obscurity or indistinctness
most appropriate answer. C) Analytical - using careful examination in order
to understand or explain something

ENGLISH Day - 31
D) Pessimistic - emphasizing the bad part of a DCBAE is the correct sequence. Sentence D
situation talks about the introduction of the passage which
E) Sarcastic - derisive and mocking mentions the feeling of lucky towards the
selection and being the part of the film, said by
6) Answer: E actor Bobby Deol. C follows D which clearly
According to the context of the sentence, the shows the continuity of the first sentence in
word "Tenuous" refers to "lacking substance or which the speech at Jagran Film festival was
very weak or uncertain". Of the given options, denoted that film is an mixture of emotional,
the words in Option E makes the most sense violent drama with love, romance and hate. C is
and fits perfectly. Therefore, Option E is the followed by B, where it is mentioned that the
correct answer. liking and interest towards the work of Sandeep.
A follows B in which it is informed that the
7) Answer: D successful completion of films by Sandeep twice,
According to the context of the sentence, the which is followed by E where it is indicated that
word "Augment" refers to "to make something the Bobby Deol is more interested to do different
larger or fuller by adding something to it". Of the characters as he said before he wants to break
given options, the words in Option D makes the his records as an uncomfortable actor.
most sense and fits perfectly. Therefore, Option Hence, the final arrangement is DCBAE
D is the correct 8) Answer: A
answer. 9) Answer: D
10) Answer: C
Directions (8-12): 11) Answer: E
12) Answer: B

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SBI PO Prelims PDF Course 2023

Reasoning Ability Day - 31 (Eng)

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Note: The consecutive alphabetically named d) D

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Answer Key with Explanation

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Again we have, We have,

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 Only two persons sit between F and B,

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2. If the total length of train K and A is 190m and D.M

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III. Z<E Conclusions:

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II. All wine can never be Milk E. All conclusions follow

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Answer Key with Explanation

Directions (1-3): 5. Answer: D

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912364876562 19. Answer: B

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B) 16:9 receive after selling 50% of the vehicle in the

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6) Find the difference between the average C) 3:5

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total cost price of the sugar which is sold by B) 1290

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Answer Key with Explanation

Directions (01-05): Total number of four wheelers vehicle sold in

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Total number of two wheelers vehicles sold in According to the question,

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Sugar sold by A=40 kg 70-10=60

6) Answer: D 11) Answer: D

March=(80+160)/2=120 when compunded

Quantity of sugar sold by A in February and annually=20+20+20*20/100=44%

April=(20+200)/2=110 When same rate of interest calculated on

Required answer=120-110=10kg compunded half yearly it given as 46.41% of the

7) Answer: C According to question,

Quantity of sugar sold by A in January and 2.41%=1446

February together=160+20=180 kg 100%=60,000

Quantity of sugar sold by B in April and may 3y+900=60,000

Required Ratio=180:300=3:5 Required answer=Rs.19,700

8) Answer: C 12) Answer: A

January=160+140+80=380kg Then, Marked price =(100+20)/100*(3y-600)=3.6

Total quantity of sugar sold by all three seller in y-720

May=40+200+160=400 Given marked price =2.9y+85

Required ratio=(400-380)/400*100=5% (3.6y-720)=2.9y+85

Selling price - profit=cost price Required answer=1150

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